Minor Test-1

CLASS-XI

NEET NURTURE

TIME : 200 Min Maximum Marks : 720

Instructions CODE:2302CMD303001240001

1. When you are directed to attempt the Test Paper, fill in the particulars in the given OMR Sheet carefully
with blue/black ball point pen only.
2. The test is of 200 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice questions (four options
with a single correct answer).
3. This paper is divided into 4 Parts (A, B, C and D) consisting of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology.
Each part is divided into two Sections I and II.
Section I contains 35 MCQ. All Question are compulsory in this section.
Section II contains 15 MCQ out of which any 10 Questions are to be attempted.
Candidates are advised to read all 15 questions in Section II of each part before they start attempting the
question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than ten questions, the first ten questions
answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
4. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total score. The maximum marks are 720.
5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses on OMR Sheet.
6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any
electronic device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.
7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the OMR Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall.
9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the OMR Sheet.

Name of the Candidate : …………….………………………………………………………………………………………

Form Number : ………………………………………………………………………………………………………..

ALLEN CAREER INSTITUTE : ALAMBAGH | ALIGANJ | GOMTI NAGAR | HAZRATGANJ

 SUBJECT : PHYSICS

SECTION-I 7. The time dependence of a physical quantity P is

2
Attempt All 35 questions found to be of the form P = P0 e−αt where t is
time and α is some constant. Then the constant
1. tan (135º) is :-
α will be :
(1) – 1 (2) 1 (3) ∞ (4) −√ 3
(1) be dimensionless
2. The value of sin(127°) is given by
(2) have dimensions of T-1
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.7 (3) 0.8 (4) 0.9
(3) have dimensions of P
dy
3. If y = x3 – log x – sin 4x then is : (4) have dimensions T-2
dx
1
(1) 3x2 − + 4 cos x 8. Which of the following is smallest unit :
x
(2) 3x2 − ex + 4 cos 4x (1) Millimeter (2) Angstrom

(3) 1
3x2 − − 4 cos 4x
(3) Fermi (4) Metre
x
9. A physical quantity is measured and its value is found
x4 1
(4) − − cos 4x.4 to be nu where n = numerical value and u = unit. Then
4 x
4. The radius of an air bubble is increasing at the which of the following relations is true :
rate of 1 cm/s. At what rate its volume will be (1) n ∝ u2 (2) n ∝ u
2
increasing with respect to time when the radius
1
is 1 cm. (3) n ∝ √u (4) n ∝
u
(1) π cm3/s (2) 2 π cm3/s 10. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y
(3) 3 π cm3/s (4) 4 π cm3/s and z as follows: x = Ay + B tan Cz, where A, B
5. and C are constants. Which of the following do
The value of sin2 θ =
not have the same dimensions ?
(1) 2 sin θ. cos θ (2) 3 sin θ. cos θ
(1) x and B (2) C and z – 1
(3) 4 sin θ. cos θ (4) 5 sin θ. cos θ
(3) y and B/A (4) x and A
6. If momentum (P), area (A) and time (T) are
taken to be fundamental quantities, then energy 11. If the unit of length, mass and time each be
has the dimensional formula : doubled, the unit of work is increased by :-
(1) [P1A – 1T1] (2) [P2A1T1]
(1) 2 times (2) 6 times
1 – 1/2 1 1 1/2 – 1
(3) [P A T] (4) [P A T ]
(3) 4 times (4) 8 times
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12. Position x and time t for a particle are related dy
17. If y = sin2x + cos2x then is :-
as:- dx
x = [t3 – 15t2 + 7t + 3] m (1) 2 sinx cosx (2) 2 sinx + 2 cosx
where t is time in second (3) 1 (4) 0
then find time at which acceleration is zero ?
18. A dimensionless quantity :-
(1) 3 sec (2) 5 sec
(1) never has a unit
(3) 10 sec (4) 2 sec
(2) always has unit
(x3 + 2x2 )
13. Calculate ∫ dx (3) may have a unit
(x + 2)
x3 (4) does not exist
(1) x3 + c (2) +c
3 19. The force F is expressed in terms of distance x
3
(3) (x3 + x) + c (4) (x + 2) and time t as F = a x + bt2 . The dimensions of
√
+c
3 a/b is
25
(1) [L0M0T-2] (2) [L1/2M0T2]
14. Calculate = ∫ y ⋅ dx?
0
(3) [L-1/2M0T2] (4) [L-1/2M0T-2]
20. Dimensional formula of Δ U, change in internal
energy of the system is given by:-
(1) M1L2T-2 (2) M1L1T-2
(3) M1L2T-1 (4) ML1T-1
(1) 150 (2) 250 (3) 350 (4) 450
21. The equation of state of some gases can be
15. Calculate slope of shown line :- a
expressed as ( P+ ) (v − b) = RT , here P is
v2
pressure, v is volume and T is temperature find
dimensions of a :
b
2 –1
(1) [ML T ] (2) [MLT – 2]
(1) −
3 (2) −
4 (3) 0 (4) 3 (3) [ML2T – 2] (4) [M2L2T – 2]
4 3 4
16. Choose correct value of sin 2º :- 22. Dimensional formula for angle is :
π π π (1) [M1L1T – 2] (2) [M1L2T – 2]
(1) (2) (3) 1 (4)
90 180 60 (3) [M0L0T2] (4) [M0L0T0]

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23. Imagine a system of units in which the unit of 31. Find the dimensions of kinetic energy
mass is 10 kg, length is 1 km and time is 1 1 2
( K. E = mv )
2
minute. Then 1N in this system is equal to :-
(1) [MLT- 2]
(1) 360 (2) 3.6
(2) [ML2T- 2]
(3) 36 (4) 36 × 10 – 2
(3) [ML- 1T- 2]
24. The surface tension of a liquid is 70 dyne/cm. It
can be expressed in MKS system by :- (4) [ML- 2T2]

(1) 70 Nm – 1 (2) 7 × 10 – 2 Nm – 1
32. If P = α e−αt where P is pressure and t is time
β
(3) 7 × 102 Nm – 1 (4) 7 × 103 Nm – 1 α , β are constant find dimension of β

25. Convert 108° into radian :- (1) [ML – 1]

(1) 5π (2) 3π (3) 3π (4) 8π (2) [ML – 1T – 1]

3 5 8 3
2 (3) [M – 1LT]
26. (1.01) is nearly equal to :
(4) Information is insufficient
(1) 1.03 (2) 1.02 (3) 1.01 (4) 1.04
33. If force [F], velocity [v] and time [T] are taken as
27. Sum of 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 +. . . . . . . . . ∞ is : fundamental units, the dimensions of mass are :
3 9 27
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3 (1) [ F V T −1 ]
2 3 3 2
28. 2
If y = 3x , find the average value of y from x = 2 (2) [ F V T −2 ]

to x = 4 :- (3) [ F V −1 T −1 ]

(1) 32 (2) 14 (3) 56 (4) 28 (4) [ F V −1 T ]

5 34. Unit of energy in Sl system is
29. The integral ∫ x2 dx is equal to
(1) Erg (2) Calorie
1

125 124 1 (3) Joule (4) Electron volt

(1) (2) (3) (4) 45
3 3 3 35. Which of the system of units is not based on
30. If L = 2.331 cm and B = 2.1 cm, then L + B = units of mass, length & time alone?
(1) 4.431 cm (2) 4.43 cm (1) CGS (2) FPS
(3) 4.4 cm (4) 4 cm (3) SI (4) All of these

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 SECTION-II 40. In measuring electric energy 1kWh is equal to :
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate (1) 3.6 × 104J (2) 3.6 × 106J
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (3) 7.3 × 106J (4) None of these
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
d
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted 41. (sin 120°) = ............
dx
questions will be considered for marking. (1) cos 120° (2) 120 cos 120°
36. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are taken to (3) 0 (4) None of these
be fundamental quantities, then find the dy
dimensional formula of density :- 42. If y = x3 + 2x2 + 7x + 8 then will be :-
dx
(1) FT2L (2) F – 1T2L – 2 (1) 3x2 + 2x + 15 (2) 3x2 + 4x + 7
(3) FT – 2L – 4 (4) FT2L – 4 (3) x3 + 2x2 + 15 (4) x3 + 4x + 7
37. Dimensional analysis can be used to derive 43. If position of a particle is given by x = 2 + 5t +
formulae :- 7t2 then calculate velocity at t = 2 sec :-
(1) containing trigonometrical functions (1) 40 m/s (2) 33 m/s
(2) containing exponential functions (3) 45 m/s (4) 50 m/s

(3) containing logarithmic functions 44. The area of figure shown below is :-

(4) none of the above

38. Choose the wrong option :-
(1) A dimensionally correct equation may be correct.
(2) A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect.
(3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct (1) 15 (2) 60 π (3) 15 π (4) 30 π
(4) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be incorrect. 45. A graph is drawn between y-x axis. Which of the
following equation is correct for the graph?
39. Relation between MKS and CGS units of
N
pressure using dimensional analysis is 1 =
m2
dyne
______ .
cm2
(1) 0.1 (2) 10 (1) y = −√ 3 x + 3 (2) y = √3 x + 3

(3) 100 (4) 100000 (3) y = √3 x − 3 (4) √ 3y = x + 3

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46. The equation y2 = 2x, represents that graph 49. Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by
between x and y is a F = AsinCt + BcosDx
A C
(1) Straight line (2) Parabola Then the dimensions of and are given by:-
B D
(3) Hyperbola (4) Circle (1) MLT – 2, M0L0T – 1
47. Which of the following is a derived unit ? (2) MLT – 2, M0L – 1T0
(1) Unit of mass (2) Unit of length (3) M0L0T0, M0L1T – 1
(3) Unit of time (4) Unit of volume (4) M0L1T – 1, M0L0T0
48. The force F on a sphere of radius 'a' moving in a 50. Which of the following is usually a derived
medium with velocity 'v' is given by F = 6 π η av. quantity?
The dimensions of η are :-
(1) Mass (2) Velocity
–1 –1 –1
(1) ML T (2) ML
(3) Length (4) Time
(3) MLT – 2 (4) ML – 3

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 SUBJECT : CHEMISTRY

SECTION-I 56. 1 L of N2(g) combines with 3 L of H2(g) to form 2 L

Attempt All 35 questions of NH3(g) under the same conditions. This law
illustrates the :
51. 5 L of gas at STP weighs 6.25 g. What is its (1) Law of constant composition
gram molecular weight ?
(2) Law of multiple proportion
(1) 1.25 (2) 14 (3) 28 (4) 56 (3) Law of reciprocal proportion
52. 0.44 g of a colourless oxide of nitrogen occupies (4) Gay lussac's law of gaseous volume
224 mL at STP. The compound is - 57. The modern atomic weight scale is based on.
(1) N2O (2) NO (3) N2O4 (4) NO2 (1) C12 (2) O16 (3) H1 (4) C13
53. What is the mass of a molecule of CH4 : – 58. For reaction A + 2 B → C. The amount of
product formed by starting the reaction with 5
(1) 16 g (2) 26.6 × 1022 g moles of A and 8 moles of B is :
(3) 2.66 × 10 – 23 g (4) 16 NA g (1) 5 mol (2) 8 mol
54. 4.8 g of KClO3 when heated produced 1.9 g of (3) 16 mol (4) 4 mol
oxygen and the residue (KCl) left behind 2.9 g. 59. Volume of one gram equivalent of H2 at NTP is :
Which law of chemical combination is illustrated. (1) 5.6 L (2) 11.2 L
(3) 22.4 L (4) 44.8 L
(1) Law of mass conservation
60. 10 g of hydrogen and 64 g of oxygen were filled
(2) Law of definite proportion
in a steel vessel and exploded. Amount of water
(3) Law of reciprocal proportion produced in this reaction will be
(4) Law of gaseous volume (1) 1 mol (2) 2 mol
55. The law of multiple proportion is illustrated by (3) 3 mol (4) 4 mol
the pair of compounds – 61. 500 ml of gaseous hydrocarbon when burnt in
(1) Sodium chloride and sodium bromide excess of O2 gave 2.5 L of CO2 and 3.0 L of
water vapour under same condition. Molecular
(2) Water and heavy water formula of hydrocarbon is
(3) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide (1) C4H8 (2) C4H10
(4) Magnesium hydroxide and magnesium oxide (3) C5H10 (4) C5H12
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62. The number of molecules present in a drop of 68. One unified mass is equal to –
water is its volume is 0.05 ml are (1) 10 NAgm (2) 1/NA gm
(1) 1.66 × 1021 (2) 1.66 × 1022 (3) NA gm (4) 10/NA gm
(3) 1.66 × 1023 (4) 1.66 × 1024 69. The molarity of 4% w/v NaOH solution is –
63. Rakesh needs 1.71gm of sugar (C12H22O11) to (1) 1 M (2) 2 M (3) 3 M (4) 4 M
sweeten his tea. What would be the number of 70. Mole fraction of glycerine (C3H5(OH)3) in a
carbon atoms present in his tea?
solution of 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerine is :-
(1) 3.6 × 1022 (2) 7.2 × 1021
(1) 0.46 (2) 0.36 (3) 0.20 (4) 0.40
(3) 0.05 × 1023 (4) 6.6 × 1022
71. What mass of NaCl would be decomposed by
64. How many moles of CO2 will be produced from
98 g of H2SO4 if 120 g of NaHSO4 and 27.5 g
4g carbon and 4g oxygen in the following
of HCl are produced in a reaction. Assuming
reaction ?
that law of mass conservation is true :
C + O2 → CO2
1 (1) 4.95 g (2) 49.5 g
(1) 4 mol (2) mol
12 (3) 0.495 g (4) 495 g
(3) 1 (4) 2
mol mol 72. Calculate the molality of solution containing 9g
8 5
65. Find the limiting reagent in the reaction if initial glucose in 50 gm water
2 moles of A and 1 mol of B are taken :- (1) 1 (2) 2
A + 2B → 3C + 4D (3) 3 (4) 4
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 73. Choose the INCORRECT match regarding
66. The empirical formula of the compound equivalent wt.
containing 50% 'X' (Atomic mass 10 amu) and Acid Equivalent wt.
50%Y (Atomic mass 20 amu) is :- (1) H3PO2 M
(1) XY2 (2) X2Y (3) X2Y3 (4) XY3 (2) H3PO4 M
3
67. Mass of one NH3 molecule is (in gram)
(3) H3BO3 M
(1) 17 (2) 17NA 3
17 (4) H2SO4 M
(3) (4) NA
2
NA 17
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74. 1 amu is equal to :- 80. The volume of O2 at STP required for the
(1) (2) complete combustion of 4g CH4 is
(1) 5.6 litre (2) 2.88 litre
(3) 1 g of H2 (4) 1.66 × 10 – 24
(3) 22.4 liter (4) 11.2 litre
75. Equal volumes of different gases at same
temperature and pressure have :- 81. If 0.5 mole of BaCl2 is mixed with 0.2 mole of
Na3PO4, the maximum number of mole of
(1) equal densities (2) equal masses Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is :
(3) equal molecules (4) equal atoms (1) 0.7 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.30 (4) 0.1
76. The number of moles in 1.5 × 1022 molecules of 82. The volume of O2 needed for complete
H2SO4 is :- combustion of 5L of C3H8
(1) 0.025 (2) 2.5 (3) 0.005 (4) 0.5 C3H8 + 5 O2 → 3CO2 + 4H2O
77. Determine mass of 3 × 1023 molecules of oxygen (1) 25 mol (2) 25 L (3) 1L (4) 50 L
gas :- 83. Calculate the no. of moles in 96 g of ozone.
(1) 32g (2) 16g (3) 8g (4) 24g (1) 0.5 mol (2) 2 mol
78. The molar mass of CO2 is :- (3) 1/2 mol (4) 2.5 mol
(1) 44g (2) 44 amu 84. Mass of 36 ml water is :
(1) 36 (2) 18 amu
(3) 12g (4) 12 amu × 18
22400
79. Assertion :- The sum of the mole fraction of all the (3) 36 NA (4) 36 g
components is unity. 85. Match the columns.
Reason :- Mole fraction is a temperature dependent Column-I Column-II
mode of concentration.
(A) Molarity (p) mole
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the (B) Mole fraction (q) Unitless
Reason is a correct explanation of the
(C) Mole (r) mol L – 1
Assertion.
(D) Molality (s) mol kg – 1
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but
(1) A - (r), B - (q), C - (s), D - (p)
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. (2) A - (r), B - (p), C - (q), D - (s)
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False. (3) A - (r), B - (q), C - (p), D - (s)
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are false. (4) A - (q), B - (r), C - (p), D - (s)
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 SECTION-II 91. Calculate the gram molecular weight of
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate phosphorus (P4)
(P = 31)
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of (1) 31 g (2) 62 g
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted (3) 62 amu (4) 124 g
questions will be considered for marking. 92. Vapour density of SO3 gas is :-
86. The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O. (1) 40 g/L (2) 80 g/L (3) 76 g/L (4) 40
If its VD is 30, its molecular formula is :- 93. 1 mole of oxygen gas occupy 22.4 L at STP. Its
(1) CH2O (2) C2H4O2 density will be :-
(1) 1.43 g/L (2) 0.98 g/L
(3) C3H6O3 (4) CH3OH
(3) 1.14 g/L (4) 0.58 g/L
87. The correct relationship between molecular
mass and vapour density is: 94. Number of moles in 10 g H2 are :-
(1) 5 mol (2) 10 mol
(1) V.D. = 2M
(3) 3.5 mol (4) 1 mol
(2) M
V . D. =
2 95. Which one of the following is not a mixture :-
2
(3) M = (V . D) (1) Tap water
(4) V . D. = M 2 (2) River water
88. The equivalent weight of an acid is equal to: (3) Milk
(1) Molecular weight/acidity (4) Carbon dioxide
(2) Molecular weight/basicity 96. A compound contains 10 – 2 % of phosphorus. If
(3) Molecular weight × basicity atomic mass of phosphorus is 31, the molecular
mass of the compound having one phosphorus
(4) Molecular weight × acidity
atom per molecule is :-
89. The volume of 1.0 g of hydrogen at NTP is :- (1) 31 (2) 31 × 102
(1) 2.24 L (2) 22.4 L
(3) 31 × 104 (4) 31 × 103
(3) 1.12 L (4) 11.2 L
97. What volume of 0.8 M solution contains 0.1
90. Atomic Number of manganese (Mn) milli moles of solute?
(1) 24 (2) 25 (1) 100 ml (2) 125 ml
(3) 26 (4) 27 (3) 500 ml (4) 0.125 ml
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98. If 0.2 and 0.1 gm atoms of Mg and oxygen 99. Calculate the molarity of NaOH in the solution
respectively are allowed to react to form MgO. prepared by its 4 g in water to make solution of
Then which of the following is correct ? 250 ml.
(1) O2 is L.R. (1) 0.2 M (2) 0.4 M
(2) Mg is L.R. (3) 11 M (4) 0 M
(3) 0.2 mole of MgO is formed 100. 16 gm of SOx occupies 5.6 litre at STP.
(4) 0.05 mole of MgO is formed Assuming ideal gas nature, the value of x is-
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) None of these

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 SUBJECT : BOTANY

SECTION-I 103. Choose the incorrect option for cell wall :-

Attempt All 35 questions (1) Cell wall forms an outer covering of the plasma
101. The membrane of red blood cells in human membrane of fungi and plants

beings constitutes approximately
(1) 42% proteins and 58% lipids
(2) 52% proteins and 40% lipids
(3) 52% lipids and 40% proteins
(2) It protects the cell from mechanical damage and
infection
(3) Algae have cell wall made up of cellulose,
hemicellulose, pectins and proteins

(4) 50% proteins and 50% lipids (4) It provides barrier to undesirable macromolecules
104. Chromatin name is given by –
102. Given below are two statements:
(1) Robert Brown (2) George Palade
Statement I : The prokaryotic bacteria also
possess flagella but these are structurally (3) Flemming (4) Camillo Golgi
different from that of the eukaryotic flagella. 105. A plant cell has : –
Statement II : Flagella made up of nine evenly (1) a large central vacuole and rigid cell wall
spaced peripheral triplet fibrils of tubulin (2) a centriole for cell division
protein. (3) a centrosome inactive in non-dividing cells
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) absence of cell membrane
most appropriate answer from the options given
106. Microtubules are not involved in formation of
below :
which of the following ?
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect. (1) Centrioles (2) Cilia
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) Flagella (4) Vacuoles
incorrect. 107. Proteins which are partially or totally buried in
(3) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is the membrane are ?
correct.
(1) Integral protein (2) Intrinsic protein
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct. (3) Peripheral protein (4) Both 1 and 2

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108. DNA occur in 112. Plasmodesmata are
(1) Mitochondria, Plastids and Chromosomes (1) membrane connecting the nucleus with
(2) Chromosomes, Mitochondria and Ribosomes plasmalemma
(3) Chromosomes, Mitochondria and Cell Membrane (2) connections between adjacent cells
(4) Chromosomes, Ribosomes and Cytoplasm (3) lignified cemented layers between cells
109. Ribosomes are important because they help in :-
(4) locomotory structures
(1) Respiration (2) Protein synthesis
113. Match the columns :-
(3) Movement (4) All
Column-I Column-II
110. Modification of protein takes place in :-
(1) Cristae A. ER (i) Lipid/steroid synthesis
(2) Cisternae of golgi complex
B. Golgi (ii) cis/trans-face
(3) Vesicle
(4) Tubules C. Lysosome (iii) Tonoplast
111. In the following diagram, select the part correctly D. Vacuole (iv) Hydrolase
matched with its character or function :-
(1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(2) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (i)
(3) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (iii)
(4) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (iii)
114. Cisternae, tubules and vesicle's participate in the

(1) A - The passage through which movement of RNA formation of :-

and protein molecules take place in both direction (1) Golgi body and ER
(2) B - Frequently observed in cells actively
involved in lipid synthesis and secretion (2) Golgibody and Mitochondria
(3) C - Membrane bound structure composed (3) Mitochondria and ER
of deoxyribonucleic acid and proteins
(4) D - Provide surface for DNA and protein (4) Chloroplast and mitochondria
synthesis
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115. Identify A, B, C and D in the given diagram:- 119. Which of the following layers of cell wall is
found closest to the plasma membrane :
(1) Middle lamella (2) Primary wall
(3) Tertiary wall (4) Secondary wall
120. What are plasmids?
(1) Naked genomic DNA
(2) Smaller DNA than genomic DNA
(3) Enveloped DNA
A B C D
(4) None of these
Golgi
(1) Cell Wall Nucleolus Chloroplast 121. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are semi-autonomous
apparatus
as they possess :-
Endoplasmic
(2) Chloroplast Nucleus Mitochondria (1) DNA
reticulum
Golgi (2) DNA + RNA
(3) Nucleus Vacuole Mitochondria
apparatus (3) DNA + RNA + ribosome
Golgi (4) Proteins
(4) Vacuole Nucleus Mitochondria
apparatus
122. Read the given statements.
116. Which of the following structure is not a part of (i) Flat membranous sacs in stroma of chloroplasts
eukaryotic cell :
(ii) Infoldings in mitochondria
(1) Mesosome (2) Ribosome
(iii) Disc shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
(3) Lysosome (4) Peroxysome Select the correct option as per the given codes
117. Stroma is the ground material of which of the Cristae Cisternae Thylakoids
following
(1) Lysosomes (2) Ribosomes (1) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Chloroplasts (4) Mitochondria (2) (i) (ii) (iii)
118. Who stated that ‘Omnis cellula-e-cellula' ? (3) (ii) (iii) (i)
(1) Schleiden (2) Schwann
(4) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) Robert Brown (4) Rudolf Virchow
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123. Eukaryotic flagella differ from prokaryotic 130. Lysosomes function is :
flagella in the presence of : (1) Extracellular digestion
(1) Pilin (2) Flagellin
(2) Intracellular digestion
(3) Microtubules (4) Microfilaments
(3) Both (1) and (2)
124. Space between parellel nuclear membranes is called
(4) Fat breakdown
perinuclear space which has the dimension of :-
(1) 10 – 50 Å (2) 1 – 4 nm 131. The interphase nucleus has highly extended
nucleoprotein fibres called :-
(3) 0.1 – 0.4 µm (4) 10 – 50 nm
(1) Chromosomes
125. Statement I: Vacuoles of plant cells can occupy
(2) Chromatin
90 per cent of the volume of cell.
Statement II: Transport of ions occurs along the (3) Chromatid
concentration gradient into the vacuole. (4) Pericentriolar satellite
Select the correct answer from the following.
(1) Both statement I and II are false 132. rRNA is synthesised in :-
(1) Nucleus (2) Golgi body
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleolus
(3) Statement I is false but statement II is correct
133. Protein synthesis in an animal cell takes place
(4) Both statement I and II are true.
(1) Only in the cytoplasm
126. Which of the following are not membrane-bound?
(2) In the cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria
(1) Mesosomes (2) Vacuoles
(3) In the nucleolus as well as in the cytoplasm
(3) Ribosomes (4) Lysosomes
(4) Only on Ribosome attached to nucleolus
127. Nucleus was discovered in root cells of orchids by
(1) Robert Brown (2) Strasburger 134. Centromere is concerned with
(1) Splitting of chromosomes
(3) Robert Hooke (4) Bowman
(2) Formation of spindle fibres
128. Na+/K+ pump is an example of :-
(1) Active transport (2) Passive transport (3) Attachment of kinetochore
(3) Osmosis (4) Simple diffusion (4) Duplication of DNA
129. RER is rough as it contains on its surface the 135. In chloroplast, dark reaction takes place in :
(1) Ribosomes (2) Lysosomes (1) Thylakoids (2) Stroma
(3) Mitochondria (4) Volutin granules (3) Quantasome (4) Grana
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 SECTION-II
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
136. The chromosome in which centromere lies
slightly away from the middle of the
chromosome resulting into one shorter arm and
one longer arm, is called as :-
(1) Metacentric
(2) Submetacentric
(3) Acrocentric
(4) Telocentric
137. Which pigment is water soluble :-
(1) Chorophyll (2) Carotene
(3) Xanthophyll (4) Anthocyanin
138. Axoneme of cilia composed of
(1) 9 peripheral Doublet and 1 doublet at centre
(2) 9 peripheral triplet and 1 central hub
(3) 9 peripheral Doublet and 2 Singlet at centre
(4) 9 peripheral triplet and 2 Singlet at centre
139. Each chromosome essentially has :-
(1) Secondary constriction
(2) Centromere
(3) Primary constriction
(4) Both (2) and (3)
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140. Phospholipid molecules of cell membrane have :-
(1) One polar head and one polar tail
(2) One non-polar head and two polar tail
(3) Two polar head and two non-polar tails
(4) One polar head and two non-polar tails
141. How many terms/structures are related to
prokaryotic cell ?
Genophore, Plastids, Flagellin, Gas vacuole,
Tubulin, Linear-ds DNA, 80s, naked Genome
(1) five (2) three
(3) four (4) six
142. Cell is the fundamental structural and functional
unit of all living organisms because:
(1) Anything less than a complete structure of a
cell does not ensure independant living.
(2) The metabolic reactions can only occur
inside a living cell.
(3) Nucleic acids present in the cells
ensure living state.
(4) The membrane bound organelles cause differentiation
for proper functioning
143. Which one is not different in prokaryote and
eukaryote :
(1) cell wall
(2) cell membrans
(3) ribosome
(4) chromosomal organisation
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144. Assertion (A) : Chloroplast & Mitochondria are 148. Identify A, B, C, D, E, F and G given in the
considered as "Semi-autonomous organelle". figure
Reason (R) : Both the organelle possess their
own genetic material and have their own protein
synthesizing machinery. But also depend on
cytoplasmic protein.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason (1) A-Satellite, B-Secondary constriction,
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. C-Centromere, D-Long arm, E-Short
arm
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(2) A-Secondary constriction, B-Satellite,
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False. C-Long arm, D-Centromere, E-Short
arm
145. Which of the following is/are membraneless ? (3) A-Centromere, B-Satellite, C-Long arm,
(1) Ribosomes (2) Nucleolus D-Short arm, E-Secondary constriction
(3) Centriole (4) All of the above (4) A-Satellite, B-Short arm, C-Long arm,
D-Centromere, E-Secondary constriction
146. Which of the following is the correct pathway of
secretory product ? 149. Which of the following option is correct
regarding the given figure ?
(1) ER → Vesicle → Cis face of GB → Trans
face of GB → Vesicle → Plasma
membrane
Number of Number of Number
(2) ER → Vesicle → Trans face of GB → Cis centromere kinetochore of arms
face of golgibody → Vesicle → Plasma (1) 2 1 4
membrane (2) 1 2 4
(3) Lysosome → ER → GB → Vesicle → Cell (3) 2 2 4
membrane (4) 1 2 2
(4) RER → GB → Lysosome → Nuclear membrane 150. Choose incorrect statement
(A) Mitochondrial origin may be occurred by
→ Plasma membrane endosymbiosis theory
147. The following functions are performed by (B) Quantosomes present in thylakoids
a. Maintenance of the shape of cell (C) F1 Particle is characteristic of outer
membrane of mitochondria
b. Mechanical support (D) Duplication of Centriole and replication of
c. Motility DNA occurred in S phase of cell cycle
(1) Cilia and Flagella (2) Microbodies (1) A & D (2) Only B
(3) Cytoskeleton (4) ER (3) Only C (4) B & C
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 SUBJECT : ZOOLOGY

SECTION-I 156. Match the columns I & II and select the correct
Attempt All 35 questions answer
Column I Column II
151. All of the following are the correct characteristic
feature of lining of lung Air sacs, except- Support and protect
(1) A single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular a Cartilage i
softer tissues
boundaries
Excess of nutrients are
(2) Cells are compactly packed with little intercellular b Bones ii
matrix converted into fats
(3) The cells are ciliated c Adipose tissue iii Resists compression
(4) The cells rest over acellular layer, basement Loose
membrane Semi-fluid ground
d connective iv
substance
152. _____________ facilitate the cells to tissue
communicate with each other by connecting the
cytoplasm (1) a (i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
(1) Tight junction (2) Gap junction (2) a (iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) Adhering Junction (4) Desmosomes (3) a (iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv)
153. Fibroblasts (cells that produce and secrete fibers), (4) a (ii), b(i), c(iii), d(iv)
macrophages and mast cells are present in
(1) Areolar tissue 157. Most abundant and widely distributed tissue in
the body of complex animals is
(2) Adipose tissue
(1) Areolar tissue
(3) Specialized connective tissue
(2) Adipose tissue
(4) Dense connective tissue
154. The fiber secreting cells are present in all of the (3) Blood
following, except (4) Connective tissue
(1) Adipose tissue (2) Areolar tissue 158. The properties of excitability is present in
(3) Blood (4) Ligaments (1) Muscular Tissue
155. A group of similar cells along with intercellular (2) Neurons
substances perform a specific function is known as
(1) Organ (2) Cellular grade (3) Cardiac muscular tissue
(3) Body (4) Tissue (4) All of the above
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159. We usually are not able to make contract merely by 163. All of the following are the correct characteristic
thinking the muscle feature of compound epithelium, except
(1) Smooth muscle (1) Involved in exchange of gases
(2) Cardiac muscle (2) Present in inner lining of ducts of salivary
(3) Skeletal muscles glands and of pancreatic ducts

(4) both 1 & 2 (3) has a limited role in secretion and absorption

160. Neuroglia makeup _________ of the volume of (4) provide protection against chemical and
mechanical stresses
neural tissue
164. muscle fibres that taper at both ends (fusiform)
(1) less than one half
and do not show striations is
(2) 40- 50%
(1) Smooth Muscle fibres
(3) one half
(2) Skeletal muscle fibres
(4) more than one half
(3) Cardiac muscle fibres
161. Heart is made up of
(4) Both Smooth and Cardiac muscle fibres
(1) Muscular tissue
165. Nucleus is located at the base in which type of
(2) Connective tissue
epithelial tissue cells
(3) Epithelial tissue
(1) Cuboidal (2) Columnar
(4) All the above tissues in specific proportion
(3) Squamous (4) Compound
162. _________ ? _________ have function to move
166. This tissue has a free surface, which faces either
particles or mucus in a specific direction over the a body fluid or the outside environment
epithelium (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissues
(1) Compound epithelium (3) Muscle Tissue (4) Neural tissue
(2) Simple Squamous epithelium 167. This tissue exerts the greatest control over the
(3) Brush bordered columnar or cuboidal epithelium body’s responsiveness to changing conditions
(4) Modified simple columnar or cuboidal epithelium (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissues
having cilia (3) Muscle Tissue (4) Neural tissue
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168. Communication junctions (intercalated discs) at 172. Muscle fibres are bundled together in a parallel
some fusion points allow the cells to contract as a fashion in-
unit in- (1) Smooth Muscle
(1) Skeletal muscle (2) Skeletal muscle
(2) Cardiac Muscle (3) Cardiac muscle
(3) Visceral Muscle (4) Both Smooth and Cardiac muscle
(4) Smooth Muscle 173. When a neuron is suitably stimulated, an
169. The wall of internal organs such as the blood electrical disturbance is generated which swiftly
vessels, stomach and intestine contains this type of travels along its?
muscle tissue- (1) Axoplasm
(1) Smooth Muscle (2) Sarcolemma
(2) Skeletal muscle (3) Plasma membrane
(3) Cardiac muscle (4) Nissl’s Granule
(4) Both Smooth and Skeletal muscle 174. Arrival of the disturbance at the ___a_____,
170. Cell junctions hold which muscle fibre together triggers events that may cause stimulation or
and bundled them together in a connective tissue inhibition of ___b____.
sheath ? (1) (a) adjacent neuroglia, (b) neuron’s endings
(1) Smooth Muscle (2) (a)neuromuscular junction, (b) adjacent
(2) Skeletal muscle neurons
(3) Cardiac muscle (3) (a) adjacent neurons, (b) neuron’s endings
(4) Both Smooth and Skeletal muscle (4) (a)neuron’s endings, (b) adjacent neurons
171. Action of which tissue moves the body to adjust 175. Neuroglial cell?
to the changes in the environment and to (1) always have only one axon and one Cyton
maintain the positions of the various parts of the (2) are unit of neural system
body-
(3) Protect and support neurons
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Connective tissues
(4) Nissl’s granule are present in cyton and
(3) Muscle Tissue (4) Neural tissue dendrite
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176. The skeletal muscle fibres are composed of 180. Identify A, B and C, then mark the correct
answer-
numerous fine fibrils, called
(1) Myofibrils
(2) Myocytes
(3) Actin and Myosin
(4) Sarcomere (1) A- Squamous Cells, B- Cuboidal Cells,
C- Mast Cell
177. Which 0f the following fibres contract (shorten)
(2) A- RBC, B-Platelets, C-WBC
in response to stimulation, then relax (lengthen)
and return to their uncontracted state in a (3) A- Mast Cell, B-Macrophage, C- WBC
coordinated fashion? (4) A- WBC, B- RBC, C-Mast Cell
(1) Yellow Elastin fibres 181. Bones have a-
(2) Collagen fibres (1) Solid and pliable matrix
(2) Semi-fluid ground substance
(3) Muscle fibres
(3) Elasticity and flexibility matrix
(4) Nerve fibres
(4) Hard and non-pliable ground substance
178. In a typical muscle such as the biceps, the
182. Cells, tissues, organs and organ systems split up
muscle fibers are- the work in a way that exhibits-
(1) Non striated (1) Tissue differentiation
(2) Involuntary (2) Growth and development
(3) Striated (3) Division of labour
(4) Striated and involuntary (4) Regeneration
179. The tissue which is involved in the transport of 183. The epithelium that consists of two or more cell
layers and has protective function as it does in
various substances is- our skin is-
(1) Bone (1) Ciliated epithelium
(2) Neuron (2) Glandular epithelium
(3) Areolar tissue (3) Simple epithelium
(4) Blood (4) Compound epithelium.
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184. The tissue having single layer of cells and 185. The junctions which help to stop substances
functions as a lining for body cavities, ducts, and
from leaking across a tissue is-
tubes is-
(1) Simple epithelium (1) Desmosome
(2) Compound epithelium (2) Tight junctions
(3) Epithelium that consists of two or more cell (3) Adhering junctions
layers (4) Gap junctions
(4) With more intercellular matrix.

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 SECTION-II
This section will have 15 questions. Candidate
can choose to attempt any 10 questions out of
these 15 questions. In case if candidate attempts
more than 10 questions, first 10 attempted
questions will be considered for marking.
186. Products of Endocrine glands called hormones
are secreted directly into the-
(1) Blood
(2) Lymph
(3) Fluid bathing the gland.
(4) Cerebro spinal fluid
187. Cell junction that allow rapid transfer of ions,
small molecules and sometimes big molecules is-
(1) Desmosome
(2) Tight junctions
(3) Adhering junctions
(4) Gap junctions
188. Glandular epithelium is made up of-
(1) Columnar or cuboidal epithelium
(2) Compound epithelium
(3) Muscular epithelium
(4) Ciliated epithelium
189. Choose the correct answer with respect to
following statements -
Statement A: Most of the bones in vertebrate
embryos are replaced by cartilages in adults.
Statement B: The matrix of cartilage is secreted
by chondrocytes.
(1) Only the Statement B is correct
(2) Only the Statement A is correct
(3) Both Statements are wrong
(4) Both Statements are Correct
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190. Which of the following does not holds true
regarding Bones?
(1) The bone marrow in some bones in the site
of production of blood cells
(2) It is the main tissue that provides structural
frame to the body
(3) The bone cells, chondrocytes are present in
the spaces called lacunae
(4) Ground substance rich in calcium salts and
collagen fibers
191. Fibers and fibroblast are densely packed in-
(1) Hyaline cartilage
(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Loose areolar connective tissue
(4) Adipose tissue
192. Identify A,B,C,D and choose the correct option
(1) A- Adipocyte, store fat
(2) B- Osteoblast, secrete fibres
(3) C- Yellow elastin branched fibres
(4) D-Mast cell, secrete Histamine
193. Cell junctions are found in?
(1) Smooth muscle (2) Cardiac Muscle
(3) Epithelial tissues (4) All of these
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194. Striated involuntary muscles are found in?
(1) wall of blood vessels, stomach and intestine
(2) Biceps
(3) Only in the heart
(4) Adipose tissue
195. Each Axon terminates has a structure called
___a______ which possess vesicles containing
___b____?
(1) (a) synaptic knob, (b) neurotransmitters
(2) (a) neurotransmitters (b) synaptic knob.
(3) (a) Schwan cells (b) Myelin sheath
(4) (a) Axon hillock (b) Neuro-fibrils
196. The excess of nutrients which are not used
198. Most of the cells present in areolar connective
tissue are-
(1) Mast cell
(2) Plasma cell
(3) Macrophage
(4) Fibroblast
199. Fibroblasts and many fibres (mostly collagen)
that are oriented differently in-
(1) Dense irregular connective tissue
(2) Dense regular connective tissue
(3) Loose connective tissue

immediately are converted and are stored in (4) Compound epithelium

which tissue? 200. Choose the odd one with respect to Compound
Epithelium
(1) Loose connective tissue
(2) Adipose tissue (1) Lining of Stomach
(3) Dense connective tissue (2) Moist surface of buccal cavity
(4) Cartilage (3) Pharynx
197. Identify A and B. Choose the correct option.
(4) Dry surface of skin.

(1) A- Elastin fibre

(2) B- Osteocyte
(3) A- Matrix rich in Calcium salt
(4) B- Catrilage cell
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