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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Q.1)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Rapid advancements in artificial intelligence, automation, and digital connectivity
are mentioned in the passage as significant factors contributing to technological disruption. These
advancements drive innovation and change across various industries, leading to the transformation of
traditional practices and the emergence of new technologies.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage suggests that traditional industries are experiencing significant
transformation due to technological disruption. While it does not explicitly state that traditional
industries are resisting change, it implies that they may face challenges in adopting innovative
technologies. This resistance or reluctance to change can indeed contribute to technological disruption.
Statement 3 is correct: The passage mentions the increasing availability of venture capital as accelerating
the pace of technological change by supporting disruptive startups.

Q.2)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The passage implies that technological disruption leads to increased competition
among businesses as they strive to adapt to new technologies to stay relevant in the changing landscape.
Statement 2 is correct. The passage explicitly mentions that technological disruption results in enhanced
efficiency and productivity in various industries through automation and digitalization.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The passage does not discuss a decline in the accessibility of education and
healthcare services due to technological advancements. Instead, it focuses on the transformative impact
of technology on these sectors.

Q.3)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
- Option a is incorrect. It suggests that emotions only sporadically influence human behavior, which
contradicts the passage's assertion of their consistent impact.
- Option b is incorrect. While emotions are indeed significant, the passage portrays them as one of many
factors contributing to human conduct, rather than the sole drivers.
- Option c is correct. It acknowledges the varied and complex contributions of emotions to human
behavior, aligning with the passage's description.
- Option d is incorrect. The passage emphasizes the significant impact of emotions on human actions,
making this statement inaccurate.

Q.4)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The gap between numbers is increasing so it is not a case of simple addition.
But gap is not as high to be as high for a case of multiplication.
So, We find the difference between numbers in the sequence.
16 – 10 = 6
26 – 16 = 10
40 – 26 = 14
58 – 40 = 18

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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
80 – 58 = 22
We can see that the difference in the sequence is increasing by 4 at each place. So, the next difference
will be 22 + 4= 26. So the next number in the sequence is 80 + 26 = 106.

Q.5)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Consider the password as ABCDEFG with A, B, C, D, E, F, G being digits given above.
As, A + B + C + D + E + F + G = 1 +2 + 4 + 5 + 6 +7 +8 = 33
So this number is divisible by 3.
As after removing 1 digit the number is still divisible by 3 that means the last digit is also a digit divisible
by three, there is only one option G = 6
Now removing the second last digit, number is not divisible by three this means the second last digit
cannot be divisible by 3. and for being divisible by it needs two digits divisible by 4. F( 2, 4, 8)
As divisibility by 5 needs 5 in the end, third last digit is 5.--> E=5
As E= 5 F can only be 2 as only 52 is divisible by 4.
As C D can only be even C, D = (4, 8)
So sum of middle digits C + D + E = 4 + 8 + 5 = 17

Q.6)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.

Q.7)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
In a non-leap year, there is one day extra than complete week, and in a leap year, there are two days extra
than complete week.
Since February 2024 is not included in the period, we won't consider its leap year effect.
From March 30 2024, to March 30, 2047, there are 23 years. Out of these, there are 5 leap years (2028,
2032, 2036, 2040, and 2044) and 18 non-leap years.
Total extra days:
= (5 leap years × 2 days) + (18 non-leap years × 1 day)
= (5 × 2) + 18
= 10 + 18
= 28 days
Now, let's find the remainder when dividing 28 by 7:

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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
28 ÷ 7 = 4 remainder 0
So, there are 0 extra days beyond the Saturday on March 30, 2024.
Therefore, March 30, 2047, will also be Saturday.

Q.8)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Let's analyze each statement considering all denominations and ensuring that the total number of notes
used is 50:
Statement 1 is correct : 22 notes of 200 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of 50 and 10
- 22 notes of 200 rupees = 22 × 200 = 4400 rupees
- The remaining amount = 5480 - 4400 = 1080 rupees
- To make 1080 rupees, let's consider the combination of 50 and 20 rupee notes:
- If we use x notes of 50 rupees, and y notes of 10 rupees, then 50x + 10y = 1080
- Since the total number of notes should be 50, we have the additional condition x + y + 22 = 50
- Solving these equations, we find that x = 20 and y = 8
Statement 2 is incorrect: "26 notes of 50 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of 200 and
10."
- 26 notes of 50 rupees = 26 × 50 = 1300 rupees
- The remaining amount = 5480 - 1300 = 4180 rupees
- To make 4180 rupees, let's consider the combination of 200 and 10 rupee notes:
- If we use x notes of 200 rupees, and y notes of 10 rupees, then 200x + 10y = 4180
- Since the total number of notes should be 50, we have the additional condition x + y + 26 = 50
- Solving these equations, we cannot find integer values of x and y, so it is incorrect.
Statement 3 is incorrect : "18 notes of 10 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of 50 and
200."
- 18 notes of 10 rupees = 18 × 10 = 180 rupees
- The remaining amount = 5480 - 180 = 5300 rupees
- To make 5300 rupees, let's consider the combination of 50 and 200 rupee notes:
- If we use x notes of 200 rupees, and y notes of 50 rupees, then 200x + 50y = 5300
- Since the total number of notes should be 50, we have the additional condition x + y + 18 = 50
- Solving these equations, we cannot find integer values of x and y, so it is incorrect.

Q.9)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
716= 49 8 > 16 7
Then, 16 7= 2 28 < 2 32
8 11 = 2 3x11 = 2 33 > 2 28
So the smallest number among the following is 16 7.

Q.10)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
To form the playing team, we need to select 4 players out of 6, and then designate one as the captain and
another as the vice-captain.
1) Selecting 4 players out of 6 – 6C4 – 6 x5/2 = 15

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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
2) Selecting the captain: Once the team is formed, any of the 4 players can be chosen as the captain.
Therefore, there are 4 choices for the captain.
3) Selecting the vice-captain: After selecting the captain, any of the remaining 3 players can be chosen as
the vice-captain. Therefore, there are 3 choices for the vice-captain.
To find the total number of ways to form the team with a captain and a vice-captain, we multiply the
number of choices for each step:
Total ways = Number of ways to select 4 players × Number of choices for captain × Number of choices for
vice-captain
= 15 x 4 x 3
= 180
Therefore, there are 180 ways to form the team with a captain and a vice-captain from the 6 players.

Q.11)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
- Option a is incorrect. While cultural practices indeed influence dietary habits, this aspect is not the
primary focus of the passage, which emphasizes social cohesion and identity formation.
- Option b is incorrect. Although festivities may contribute to physical health indirectly through
community bonding, this aspect is not the central theme of the passage.
- Option c is correct. It aligns with the passage's emphasis on the positive impacts of cultural diversity
on societies' creativity and innovation.
- Option d is incorrect. While the decline of traditional customs may have implications for
environmental sustainability, it is not the main point discussed in the passage, which primarily focuses
on social and cultural aspects.

Q.12)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
- Statement 1 is correct: The passage mentions that globalization has led to the introduction of new
technologies, influencing traditional practices.
- Statement 2 is correct: As it reflects the influence of new global perspectives on traditional
agricultural practices without implying complete abandonment.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest the complete abandonment of traditional
agricultural practices.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The passage does not specifically mention increased agricultural self-
sufficiency in rural India.

Q.13)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
- Statement 1 is correct: The passage mentions that globalization has opened up economic
opportunities for rural communities, facilitating economic growth through increased trade and
investment.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest complete economic dependence on foreign
aid in rural India.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage clearly indicates that globalization has had an impact on rural
economies.

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[4]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
- Statement 4 is correct: As it acknowledges the possibility of economic stagnation in some rural areas
without implying complete stagnation

Q.14)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
- Statement 1 is correct: The passage suggests that globalization has influenced traditional practices,
potentially leading to a blending of traditional and modern cultural elements.
- Statement 2 is correct: As it acknowledges the possibility of cultural preservation in some rural
communities without implying complete preservation.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage indicates that globalization has led to the erosion rather than
preservation of indigenous cultural practices.
- Statement 4 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest complete loss of cultural identity in rural
India.

Q.15)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Let the speed of X be 3x and Y be x.
As the relative distance travelled is same in both cases. So, time will be inversely proportional to speed.
Case 1 same direction
Relative speed = 3x – x = 2x , time T1= distance/2x
Case 1 opposite direction
Relative speed = 3x + x = 4x , time T2= distance/4x
Now ratio of times = T1/ T2 = 2
Thus, option a is correct.

Q.16)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
the mapping of different letters in the reversed alphabet
A -> Z B -> Y C -> X D -> W E -> V F -> U G -> T H -> S I -> R J -> Q K -> P L -> O M -> N N -> M O -> L P -
> K Q -> J R -> I S -> H T -> G U -> F V -> E W -> D X -> C Y -> B Z -> A
Applying the given transformation to the word "CONSERVE" using the reversed alphabet mapping, we get:
C -> X O -> L N -> M S -> H E -> V R -> I V -> E E -> V
So, the word "CONSERVE" becomes "XLMHVEIV" in the reversed alphabet scheme.

Q.17)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
To find the total number of handshakes, we can use the combination formula, which is
nCr = n! / (r! * (n - r)!), where n is the total number of players and r is the number of players in each team
(since each player shakes hands with all players in their own team).
In this case, there are 11 players in each team, so:
Total handshakes = (11C2) for Team India + (11C2) for Team Australia
= (11! / (2! * (11 - 2)!)) + (11! / (2! * (11 - 2)!))
= (11! / (2! * 9!)) + (11! / (2! * 9!))

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[5]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
= (11 * 10 / 2) + (11 * 10 / 2)
= (55) + (55)
= 110
So, there will be a total of 110 handshakes.

Q.18)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
As the number is divisible by 5 the last digit can be only 5.
As the middle digit is the smallest, options for the middle digit are 1,2,3,4 only
For middle digit =1 -> 7 options for first digit.
For middle digit =2 -> 6 options for first digit.
For middle digit =3 -> 5 options for first digit.
For middle digit =4 -> 4 options for first digit.
Total number of numbers = 7 + 6+ 5 + 4 = 22 .

Q.19)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 : x is divisible by 6 which means x is divisible by 2 and 3 both.
Statement 2 : x is divisible by 8 means x is divisible by 2 three times.
But for divisibility by 9, x needs to be divisible by 3 two times, which is not obtained from any statements.
Thus neither statement is sufficient to answer the question.

Q.20)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer
Let X be the total number of items and P be the initial price.
As 20 % items got damaged, remaining items = X- 20/100 X = 0.80 X
Now for getting the same revenue,
=> X x P = 0.8 X x P’
=> p’ = 1/.8 P = 1.25 P
Percent increase in price (1.25 P – P) / P x 100
=25 %.

Q.21)
Ans) c
Exp) Option C is the correct answer
- Assumption 1 is valid: The passage mentions urbanization as a factor contributing to the shift towards
a Westernized diet.
- Assumption 2 is valid: The passage indicates that rising incomes play a role in the adoption of
convenience-oriented dietary options.

Q.22)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

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[6]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
- Assumption 1 is invalid: The passage mentions a rise, not a decline, in the cultivation of cash crops
like sugarcane and cotton.
- Assumption 2 is valid: The passage states that there is a growing emphasis on horticultural crops and
fruits to meet the demand for fresh produce.

Q.23)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct option.
- Assumption 1 is valid: The passage indicates a resurgence of interest in environmental sustainability,
suggesting an impact on farming practices.
- Assumption 2 is valid: The passage mentions initiatives promoting agroecology and community-
supported agriculture gaining momentum.

Q.24)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Any digits cannot have either a bigger or smaller number on both the adjacent places means digits can
only either or decrease.
This means for each combination of 3 digits only two passwords are possible. Number of ways of
selection of 3 digits out of 9 = 9C3 = 84
Now for each set as 2 ways possible
So total number of ways = 84 x 2 = 168

Q.25)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
From statement 1
- C and D are siblings where C is female
- A is parent of C and D
From statement 2
- C and D are siblings where D is male
- B is parent of C and D
But it is clear from both statements that between A and B who is mother and who is father.
So correct answer is both statements are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q.26)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the right answer.
The length of the queue is equal to the total gap between persons.
Consider the gap between each person to be x.
For 10 people the gap = 9x =L
So, x= L/9
Now, for 100 persons gap = 99x
= 99 x L/9 = 11 L
Which is equal to the length of the queue.

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[7]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Q.27)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
To find the total number of possible groups, we need to consider both the combinations of same genders
and opposite genders.
Same genders
2 girls case – 8C2 = 28 pairs.
2 boys case – 7C2 = 21 cases.
Opposite genders
1 girls + 1 boy
But only 4 girls and 4 boys are available for such pairing
4C1 x 4C1 = 16 cases
Total number of cases = 28 + 21 + 16 = 65
Therefore, there are 65 possible groups in total.

Q.28)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Pattern:
- After the first hammer strike: 2 pieces
- After the second hammer strike: 4 pieces (2 + 2)
- After the third hammer strike: 7 pieces (4 + 3)
- After the fourth hammer strike: 11 pieces (7 + 4)
- After the fifth hammer strike: 16 pieces (11 + 5)
- And so on...
After n hammer strikes, the number of pieces is the sum of the first n natural numbers plus 1.
Now, let's calculate the total number of pieces after 15 hammer strikes:
Number of pieces = Sum of the first 15 natural numbers + 1
= 15 x 16/ 2 +1 = 120 + 1 = 121
Therefore, after 15 hammer strikes, there will be a total of 121 pieces.

Q.29)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
In the given series A, Z, Z, B, B, B, Y, Y, Y, Y, C, C, C, C, C..., the pattern is as follows:
- The first letter 'A' appears once.
- The second letter 'Z' appears twice.
- The third letter 'B' appears three times.
- The fourth letter 'Y' appears four times.
- The fifth letter 'C' appears five times.
Total number of letters till 13th letter appears 13 times = 13 x 14 /2 =91
Now then 14 letter appears 9th time that is the 100th letter.
14th letter is 7th letter from end = T
So the correct answer is T.

Q.30)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
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[8]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
For minimizing the number of persons, x, y, z needs to placed in optimum manner.

Q.31)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: While Western philosophy's emphasis on individualism and rationality is mentioned
in the passage, it does not capture the entirety of the discussion on the divergence between Eastern and
Western philosophies.
Option b is incorrect: Although Eastern philosophy's focus on harmony and interconnectedness is
discussed in the passage, it does not address the primary theme of the divergence between Eastern and
Western philosophies.
Option c is incorrect: While the passage acknowledges the value of both Eastern and Western
philosophies, it does not represent the central theme of the divergence between the two traditions.
Option d is correct: The passage revolves around the fundamental contrast between Eastern and
Western philosophies in their approaches to understanding existence and truth, making this option the
most appropriate depiction of the passage's crux.

Q.32)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Option a is incorrect: While women do often serve as caregivers within the family unit, the passage
emphasizes their broader roles as educators and advocates within formal educational settings as well.
Option b is correct: The passage highlights the empowerment of women through their involvement in
education and their role in challenging traditional gender roles.
Option c is incorrect: While both men and women play important roles in children's education, the
passage focuses specifically on the significance of women's involvement.
Option d is incorrect: While women's role in children's education does impact emotional and social
growth, it is not the sole factor, and men also play significant roles in this regard

Q.33)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect: The passage indicates that tribal communities in Asia have undergone significant
transformations over time, adapting to changing socio-political environments.
Option b is incorrect: While external factors such as globalization and urbanization have impacted tribal
communities, the passage emphasizes their resilience and ability to adapt while preserving their cultural
identities.
Option c is correct: The passage highlights the resilience and adaptation of tribal communities in Asia
while maintaining their cultural identities as a key characteristic of their evolution.

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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Option d is incorrect: While government policies may have affected tribal communities, the passage does
not suggest that cultural practices have been entirely eroded. Instead, it emphasizes the preservation of
cultural identities alongside adaptation.

Q.34)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option (a) is incorrect: The passage does not make any suggestions for the way forward - whether the
shift in dietary patterns is, say, good for health or whether people should shift back to cereal-based diets
merely due to the fact that it needs more water for production.
Option (b) is incorrect: Again, the passage only talks about the issue of more water utilised in protein-
based diet production as compared to cereal-based ones. It does not make any suggestions for the way
forward.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage talks about economic development and its impact on dietary
patterns. However, it does not discuss the social behaviour of people at all. Hence this option is incorrect.
Option (d) is correct: Though the use of the word, “dramatically” makes this option look extreme, it is the
best option from the given set of options. The author does depict the increased water consumption in
modern-day to be an issue. For example, both dietary patterns and energy generation require water.
Hence, the passage in its crux conveys that water management practices in India need to change quite a
lot (dramatically) in the coming years to sustain both aspects.

Q.35)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
2 x 5= 10, last digit is 0, so last digit will determined by D and E.
2x2x5x5 =100 last two digits are 0, last two digits will be determined by C, D, E
C = 720, D = 24 , E = 4
C + D + E = 748
Last two digits are 48
So the answer is 670348 from the given options.

Q.36)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
From the family tree given below, it is clear that B is the father of C and A, but not D. So option d is

incorrect.

Q.37)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer

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[10]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Statements 1 -> a = 15 + c
Statement 2 --> b- c = 10 or c - b = 10
As c= a-15 from 1
Putting in 2
B – a = -5 or a- b = -5
So, the difference between a and b is 5, but it is not possible to determine which is bigger between two.
Hence d is the correct answer.

Q.38)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
We can see in the venn diagram that only conclusion II follows. Conclusion 1 , 2 and 4 are not sure to
happen from given information.

Q.39)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
We can see in the venn diagram that only conclusion 3 follows. Conclusion 1 and 2 are not sure to happen
from given information.

Q.40)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.

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[11]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |

The various possible circular arrangements, as per the information provided in the passage, have been
depicted below:
We can see that none of (a), (b), or (c) is definitely correct.

Q.41)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect: The passage highlights how commercialization exacerbates inequalities in access
to education, rather than promoting equal opportunities.
Option B is correct: The passage emphasizes how the commercialization of education leads to the
prioritization of profit-making over educational quality.
Option C is incorrect: The passage does not support the effectiveness of standardized testing in
commercialized education systems and instead suggests that it is a consequence of commercialization.
Option D is incorrect: The passage argues that commercialization undermines the fostering of critical
thinking and social responsibility, focusing instead on maximizing economic returns.

Q.42)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct statement.
Assumption 1 is correct: The passage explicitly states that one of the implications of the
commercialization of education is the prioritization of profit-making over educational quality. This
assumption aligns with the central argument of the passage.
Assumption 2 is incorrect: The passage suggests that standardized testing is a consequence of
commercialization rather than an effective tool for measuring educational outcomes in commercialized
education systems. This assumption contradicts the passage's criticism of standardized testing and its
role in prioritizing marketable skills over holistic learning.

Q.43)
Ans) b
Exp) Option B is the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect: While government policies may play a role, the passage highlights multiple factors
such as shifting climatic conditions, water scarcity, market demands, and technological advancements as
key drivers of changing cropping patterns in India.
Option B is correct: The passage identifies shifting climatic conditions, water scarcity, market demands,
and technological advancements as key drivers of changing cropping patterns in India.

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[12]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Option C is incorrect: While traditional agricultural practices may have some influence, the passage
emphasizes other factors such as climatic conditions, water scarcity, market demands, and technological
advancements as primary drivers.
Option D is incorrect: The passage suggests that crop diversification in India presents both opportunities
and challenges for socio-economic development, indicating that it does have an impact, but it is most
impactful.

Q.44)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Assumption 1 is correct: The passage explicitly mentions technological advancements and access to
information as factors enabling farmers in India to make informed decisions about crop selection and
management practices.
Assumption 2 is correct: The passage suggests that crop diversification in India presents both
opportunities and challenges for socio-economic development, indicating that it has both positive and
negative impacts.

Q.45)
Ans) a
Exp) let's denote the number of pens purchased by A, B, C, D, and E as A, B, C, D, and E respectively.
1) A purchased 10 pens more than B did: A = B + 10
2) C and D together purchased 25 pens: C + D = 25
3) E purchased 8 pens less than C did: E = C - 8
4) B and C together purchased 28 pens: B + C = 28
5) C purchased 8 pens more than B did: C = B + 8
Now, let's solve these equations to find the values of A, B, C, D, and E.
From equation 5, we can substitute C = B + 8 into equation 4:
B + (B + 8) = 28
2B + 8 = 28
2B = 20
B = 10
Now, using C = B + 8, we can find C:
C = 10 + 8 = 18
From equation 2, C + D = 25, we can find D:
D = 25 - C = 25 - 18 = 7
From equation 1, A = B + 10, we can find A:
A = 10 + 10 = 20
From equation 3, E = C - 8, we can find E:
E = 18 - 8 = 10
Now, let's calculate the total number of pens purchased:
Total pens = A + B + C + D + E
Total pens} = 20 + 10 + 18 + 7 + 10
Total pens} = 65
Total cost 65 x 20 = 1300
Therefore, the total cost of all the pens is 1300.

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[13]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Q.46)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Consider the whole distance to be x.
x/2 travel is with speed v. => t1 = x/2v
x/4 travel is v/2 => t 2= x\ 4/ v/2
And the next x/4 travel is 2v. => t3 = x / 4 / 2v
Average speed = total distance / total time
Average speed = x/ ( t1 + t2 + t3 )
= 8/9 v.

Q.47)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Suppose each family gets x chocolates.
Now x needs to be divisible by 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
So x will always be multiple of LCM of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
LCM of 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 = 60
So minimum value of x is 60
Minimum value of total chocolates = 60 x 6 =360

Q.48)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 ->
DBF is one half sequence.
Statement 1 ->
ACE is other half sequence.
But sequence can join in two different ways ACEDBF, ECADBF
So A, E both can be in left of D.
It is not possible from both the statement to answer the question.

Q.49)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
From statement 1 --> Ram age = mother age - 18
From statement 2 --> mother age – ram age = ram age
=> ram age = mother age/ 2
Using both the statements \
Mother age – 18 = mother age /2
Mother age = 36
Ram age =18
So, the question can be answered only by using both statements.

Q.50)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.

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[14]
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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Statement 1 ->
AF are the last two persons --> ______AF.
Statement 2 ->
CD are the first two persons -->CD ______.
B and E are persons on 3rd and fourth positions, but it is not clear from the two statements that who is the
fourth position

Q.51)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Option (a) is correct: The passage clearly outlines the advantages of an educated population. It is happy;
it is aware of the intelligent activities and interests to make the best use of the leisure time; it enjoys the
technical knowledge etc. The use of ONLY makes it an extreme statement. Let’s put this answer option on
hold and consider other options.
Option (b) is incorrect. The passage only touches upon how to best leverage leisure time due to
mechanization in the economy. It would be an exaggeration to infer that ALL economic development
should lead to the creation of leisure. Moreover, the author has cautioned that too much leisure can be
tedious and has recommended that education is a necessity to best use leisure time.
Option (c) is incorrect. Refer to the line: “If a leisured population has to be happy, it must be an educated
population…” This line restricts its domain to the leisured population. For a leisured population to be
happy, it must be educated. If it is not educated, leisure time might be detrimental to the population. This
analogy cannot be extrapolated to the non-leisure population also. Therefore, it would be incorrect to say
that an increase in the educated population leads to an increase in happiness among people.
Option (d) is incorrect. As already discussed above, at the beginning of the explanation. So, from the
above discussion, despite its extreme nature, option (a) is the most appropriate among all the provided
options

Q.52)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect. The passage clearly states that human activities such as deforestation, pollution,
and overexploitation of natural resources pose significant dangers to environmental sustainability.
Option B is correct. The passage identifies human activities such as deforestation, pollution,
overexploitation of natural resources, and greenhouse gas emissions as dangers to environmental
sustainability.
Option C is incorrect. The passage highlights the impact of human actions on environmental
sustainability, refuting the notion that it is solely dependent on natural processes.
Option D: Incorrect. The passage does not support the idea that environmental sustainability can only be
achieved through economic growth and industrialization, as these activities often contribute to
environmental degradation.

Q.53)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Assumption 1 is correct. The passage explicitly states that human activities such as deforestation,
pollution, overexploitation of natural resources, and greenhouse gas emissions endanger ecosystems and
biodiversity.

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[15]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Assumption 2 is incorrect. The passage does not support the idea that environmental sustainability can
only be achieved through economic growth and industrialization, as these activities often contribute to
environmental degradation rather than sustainability.

Q.54)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct explanation.
If a, b,c are digits, sum of all numbers formed using a,b ,c = 2 x 111 x ( a + b + c )
So sum to be greatest a+ b + c = 7 + 8 + 9 = 24
For sum to be least a + b + c = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6
Ratio is 24/ 6 = 4

Q.55)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
Total digits are (2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7)
Even digits = (2, 4, 6)
Odd digits = (3, 5 ,7)
For each number of PIN possible = 3 x 2 x1 = 6
So, total number of PIN = 6 x2 =12

Q.56)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
To find the ratio of A, B, C
As 5A = 6 B = 7 C, we find LCM of 5, 6,7
LCM= 210
Now we divide equation by 210 which gives
A/42 = B/ 35 = C/ 30
So the ratio of A:B:C = 42: 35: 30
Dividing the sum 749. C shares = 749 x 30/107
= 210.

Q.57)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is correct answer.
10 M + 12 W --> 30 days = 1/30 work in one day
12 M + 10 W --> 20 days = 1/20 work in one day
If we add both the equations \
22 M + 22 W -- > 1/30 + 1/20 = 1/ 12 work each day
So it will take 12 days for 22 men and 22 women to finish the work.

Q.58)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
Remainder when divided by 100 is nothing but last two digits of any number.
N = (100 + 1) x (100+ 2) x (100 + 3) x (100 + 4) x (100 + 7)

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[16]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Last two digits are determined by 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x 7 = 168
So, the last two digits are 68
And the remainder is 68.

Q.59)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
12 = 4 x3
Now as 4 +8 + 6 + 4 =22 not divisible by 3 so this number is not divisible by 3
=> 9A2 is divisible by 3
=> 9 + A + 2 = 11 + A is divisible by 3.
Only option possible for A is d) 7.

Q.60)
Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
x + 0.60x = 2y
x - 0.60x = 1/2z
1) From the first equation:
1.60x = 2y
y = 0.80x
2) From the second equation:
0.40x = ½ z
z = 0.80x
Comparing the values, we can see that y = z
Hence correct answer will be none of above

Q.61)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct option.
Option A is incorrect. While Vivekananda advocated for a holistic approach to life, including the
development of the body, the passage does not emphasize physical fitness and well-being as the central
idea.
Option B is correct. The passage highlights Vivekananda's emphasis on service to humanity as a pathway
to spiritual growth, which is a central theme in his teachings.
Option C is incorrect. Vivekananda's teachings focused on spiritual development and service to humanity
rather than the pursuit of material wealth and success.
Option D is incorrect. Vivekananda's ideas emphasized the universality of religion and the unity of all
faiths, promoting religious tolerance, and harmony rather than exclusivity and sectarianism.

Q.62)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect. While religious themes were still prominent during the Renaissance, the passage
emphasizes the period's broader focus on cultural rebirth, humanism, and intellectual exploration.
Option B is correct. The passage highlights the Renaissance's emphasis on exploring human potential and
challenging traditional norms, which is a central idea of the period.

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[17]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Option C is incorrect. The Renaissance had a profound impact on cultural, artistic, and scientific
developments, as outlined in the passage but this is not the main idea.
Option D is incorrect. The Renaissance embraced classical antiquity and humanism, rather than rejecting
them, as seen in the revival of interest in classical art, literature, and philosophy.

Q.63)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option A is correct. The passage highlights that in the early stages of demographic transitions, declining
death rates lead to population growth and a youthful demographic structure.
Option B is incorrect. The passage indicates that demographic transitions present both opportunities
and challenges for economic growth and social welfare.
Option C is incorrect. The passage discusses how declining birth rates in the later stages of demographic
transitions lead to an aging population and potential labor shortages.
Option D is incorrect. The passage emphasizes the importance of comprehensive policies and
governance to manage the impacts of demographic transitions effectively, but it does not assert that they
are the sole characteristic of demographic transitions.

Q.64)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Suppose the total marks is 100.
Full Viva marks then becomes 20. And full written marks = 80
Marks scored in written = 30% = 30/100 x 80 = 24
As 33% total marks needed, so marks needed in viva is 33-24 = 9
% marks in viva = 9 /20 x 100 = 45 %

Q.65)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
As the remainder is three, after subtracting 3, number should be divisible by LCM of all numbers.
LCM of 5, 12, 14, 15 = 420
Now smallest number which multiple of 420 = 1260
Actual number = 1260 + 3 = 1263.

Q.66)
Ans) d
Exp) As the last digit is zero one of the digits is must 5 and the other must be even ie multiple of 2.
Possible combinations are 52,25 , 54,45, 56,65
We can check by multiplying 56 x 65 = 3640
Thus difference between the numbers = 9

Q.67)
Ans) d
Exp) p is a prime number. So, p can be 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, .…. q is a composite number. So, q can be 4, 6, 8, 9,
10,
Statement 1: p × q can be an odd number, e.g. (3 × 9 = 27). Thus, statement 1 is correct.

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[18]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Statement 2: q/p can be a prime number, e.g. (4/2 = 2). Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3: p + q can be a prime number, e.g. (3 + 4 = 7). Thus, statement 3 is correct.
Thus, all the statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Q.68)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The speed of minute hand relative to hour hand is 5.5o per minute. At 5 pm
minute hand is 150 behind hour hand. To coincide it take 150/5,5 = 27.27 minutes. So it won’t coincide
between 5: 28 and 5: 29.
Statement 2 is correct: as second hand passes minute hand once in every minute so second statement is
correct.

Q.69)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Container X contains 100 ml of milk and container Y contains 100 ml of water.
If 20 ml of milk transferred from container X to container Y, then:
Amount of milk left in container X = 100 – 20 = 80 ml
Amount of solution in container Y becomes = 100 ml water + 20 ml milk = 120 ml
Ratio of milk and water in container Y = 20 : 100 = 1 : 5
Amount of milk in 20 ml solution of container Y = (1/6) × 20 = 3.33 ml
Amount of water in 20 ml solution = 20 – 3.33 = 16.67 ml
If 20 ml of this solution is transferred from container Y to container X, then:
Amount of solution in container X becomes = (80 + 3.33), i.e. 83.33 ml milk + 16.67 ml water
Amount of solution in container Y becomes = (100 – 16.67), i.e. 83.33 ml water + (20 – 3.33), i.e. 16.67 ml
milk
As per the question, m denotes the proportion of milk in X, and n denotes the proportion of water in Y.
So, m = 83.33 ml and n = 83.33 ml Thus, m = n

Q.70)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
As A = 2 B = ½ C = 60
=> B = 30
=> C = 120
As in a pie chart total angle is 360.
D + E = 360 – 60 + 120 + 30 = 150
As, D= E=> E = 150/2
E as a percent of whole is 75/360 x 100 = 125/6

Q.71)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect. While increased public awareness and activism against corruption may be positive
outcomes, the passage focuses on the negative consequences of India's politicization of crime.

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[19]
PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Option B is incorrect. The passage discusses how the criminalization of politics has weakened
democratic norms and institutions, rather than strengthening political parties and governance structures.
Option C is correct. The passage highlights that politicians with criminal backgrounds often exploit their
positions for personal gain and perpetuate corruption, which is a consequence of India's politicization of
crime.
Option D is incorrect. The passage emphasizes the erosion of transparency and accountability in political
processes due to the politicization of crime, rather than fostering an environment of transparency and
accountability.

Q.72)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect. While it acknowledges the potential for increased skepticism towards institutions,
it also presents an overly optimistic view of the consequences of the erosion of values in public morality.
Option B is incorrect. This option presents an overly optimistic view of the current state of morality in
society, which contradicts the depiction of the erosion of values in the passage.
Option C is correct. This option accurately reflects the pervasive nature of unethical behavior and
corruption across various spheres of public life, as described in the passage.
Option D is incorrect. While it acknowledges the potential for positive change, it presents an overly
optimistic view of the consequences of the erosion of values in public morality, which is not fully
supported by the passage.

Q.73)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option A is incorrect. This option presents a narrow view of the potential impact of AI on the future
economy, focusing solely on job displacement and income inequality, which may not fully capture the
multifaceted discussion presented in the passage.
Option B is correct. This option accurately reflects the main theme of the passage, emphasizing the
potential opportunities presented by AI technologies for innovation, efficiency gains, and productivity
growth across industries.
Option C is incorrect. This option presents an overly optimistic view of the impact of AI on the future
economy, dismissing concerns about job displacement and income inequality without acknowledging the
complexities discussed in the passage.
Option D is incorrect. This option suggests that the impact of AI on the future economy will be minimal,
which contradicts the discussion in the passage regarding the transformative potential of AI technologies.

Q.74)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
12 = 2 x 2 x 3
So, we need two 2s, and one 3 for 12.
Numbers of 2s in Product 1(2) + 2(4) + 1(6) + 3(8) + 1(10) + 1(12) + 1(14) = 10
Number of 12 possible = 10/2 = 5
Numbers of 3s in Product 1(3) + 1(6) + 2(9) + 1(12) + 1(15) = 6
Number of 12 possible = 6/1 = 6
So, 12 will decided by 2s as 2s are less than 3s for 12. The maximum power of 12 will be 5.

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[20]
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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Q.75)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Starting with 2:
- Multiply by 2 and add 2 to get 6: (2 x 2 + 2 = 6)
- Multiply by 3 and add 3 to get 21: (6 x 3 + 3 = 21)
- Multiply by 4 and add 4 to get 88: (21 x 4 + 4 = 88)
- Multiply by 5 and add 5 to get 445: (88 x 5 + 5 = 445)
Following this pattern, the next number should be obtained by multiplying 445 by 6 and adding 6:
(445 x 6 = 2670)
Now, adding 6:
(2670 + 6 = 2676)
Therefore, the next number in the sequence is 2676.

Q.76)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
As per the given condition, two digits will be even and two will be odd.
Options for even digits (2, 4, 6, 8)
Options for odd digits (1, 3, 5, 7, 9)
Combinations = 5C2 x 4C2 = 10 x 6 = 60
For rearrangement two options to start from even or odd, then 2! For odd arrangement and 2! For even
rearrangement.
Total number of ways = 60 x 2 x 2 x 2 = 480.

Q.77)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
There are 3 possible triplets for distribution
1, 2, 3
2, 2, 2
4, 1, 1
For 1, 2, 3 case => arrangement = 3 x2 x1 = 6
For 2, 2, 2 case => no arrangement = 1 way
For 4, 1, 1 case => arrangement = 3 x1 x1 = 3
Total number of ways = 6 + 1 + 3 = 10.

Q.78)
Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Let's denote the three consecutive even numbers as x, x + 2, and x + 4.
Given that the sum of these three numbers is 30:
x + (x + 2) + (x + 4) = 30
3x + 6 = 30 => x = 8
So, the three consecutive even numbers are 8, 10, and 12.
Now, let's find the product of these numbers:
Product = 8 x10 x 12
= 960 Therefore, the product of the three consecutive even numbers is 960.
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PTS 2024 | Test Code: 122402 - Solutions |
Q.79)
Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
To find the number of three-digit numbers with distinct non-zero digits that leave a remainder of 3 when
divided by 5, we need to consider the possible combinations of digits and then check if the resulting
numbers meet the given conditions.
First, let's consider the possible remainders when a three-digit number is divided by 5:
- Remainder 0: Numbers ending in 0 or 5
- Remainder 1: Numbers ending in 1 or 6
- Remainder 2: Numbers ending in 2 or 7
- Remainder 3: Numbers ending in 3 or 8
- Remainder 4: Numbers ending in 4 or 9
We are interested in numbers that leave a remainder of 3 when divided by 5. So, the last digit of the
number must be either 3 or 8.
Now, let's consider the remaining two digits:
- For the hundreds place, we have 8 choices (1 to 9 excluding the chosen last digit).
- For the tens place, we have 8 choices again (0 to 9 excluding both the chosen last digit and the chosen
hundreds digit).
So, the total number of such three-digit numbers is the product of these choices:
Total number of three-digit numbers = 2 (choices for the last digit) * 8 (choices for the hundreds place) *
8 (choices for the tens place) = 2 * 8 * 8 = 128.

Q.80)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
- Total weight of 6 persons (A, B, C, D, E, F) = 6 * 40 = 240 kg
- Removing A, average weight becomes 38 kg, so the total weight without A = 5 * 38 = 190 kg
- Removing B, average weight becomes 46 kg, so the total weight without B = 5 * 46 = 230 kg
Weight of A = 240 – 190 = 50
Weight of B = 240 – 230 = 10
Total weight of without A and B (W) = 240 - (50 + 10)
= 240 - 60
= 180 kg
Average weight by removing both A and B = Total weight without A and B / Number of persons without A
and B
= 180 / 4
= 45 kg
Therefore, the average weight by removing both A and B is 45 kg.

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[22]

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