Mock CLAT 23 Question Paper5730971

LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

MOCK CLAT 23
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)
c o m Maximum Marks : 120

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CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER
Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 3
Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 9
Legal Reasoning 53-84 14
Logical Reasoning 85-108 24
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 31
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Head Office: 127, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal |+91-7676564400| https://www.toprankers.com Page 2 of 32
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (Q.1-Q.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): Uranium ore occurs naturally in a variety of geologic settings around the world. The
occurrence and distribution of uranium ore deposits are influenced by geologic, geochemical, and geophysical
factors. Some of the common types of uranium ore deposits include: 1) Sandstone-hosted uranium deposits:
These deposits are the most common type of uranium deposits and occur in sandstone formations that have been
enriched with uranium by groundwater. They are typically found in sedimentary basins and can be either shallow
or deep, depending on the geologic history of the area. Examples of sandstone-hosted uranium deposits include
those found in the United States (such as the Colorado Plateau and Wyoming basins), Kazakhstan, and Australia.
2) Granite-hosted uranium deposits: These deposits occur in granitic rocks, where uranium has been concentrated
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during the crystallization of the granite. Granite-hosted uranium deposits are typically found in association with
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other metal ores, such as tin, tungsten, and molybdenum, and are often found in regions with extensive granite
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intrusions, such as in Canada, Brazil, and China. 3) Volcanic-hosted uranium deposits: These deposits occur in
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association with volcanic rocks, such as rhyolite and basalt, and are formed by hydrothermal processes that have
transported uranium from a source rock to a host rock. Volcanic-hosted uranium deposits are relatively rare and
are found in various countries, including Canada, Namibia, and Russia. There is a fourth type: Other types of
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uranium deposits: There are several other types of uranium deposits, such as unconformity-related deposits, roll-
front deposits, and calcrete deposits, which occur in different geologic settings and have unique characteristics.
Unconformity-related deposits, for example, are found in regions where younger sedimentary rocks overlie older
covers most continents, except Antarctica.
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crystalline rocks, and they are particularly abundant in Canada. In short, Uranium deposits from all sources
concentrations
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The distribution of uranium ore deposits around the world is uneven, with some regions having higher
of uranium deposits compared to others. Some of the major uranium-producing countries include
Canada, Australia, Niger, Namibia, Russia, and the United States. The incidence and distribution
1.
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of uranium ore are influenced by factors such as geologic history, tectonic activity, and mineralization processes,
which are studied by geologists and geoscientists to better understand the formation and distribution of uranium
deposits.
[Source: https://geologyscience.com/ore-minerals/uranium-ore/?amp]
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Which of these is the central thesis conveyed by the extract above?
(a) The occurrence and distribution of the Uranium ore around the world except one continent and the factors
determining it.
(b) The Uranium deposits in the territory of North America and Asia and factors determining it.
(c) The ore of the metal Uranium as distributed around the world excluding the continent of Africa.
(d) Uranium ore as distributed across the world in all the continents and the factors determining it.
2. Which of these is not a major Uranium producing country in the world?

(a) Kazakhstan. (b) Canada. (c) Australia. (d) Nigeria.
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3. tr-What are
5N7L3Q the major types of sources or ores from where Uranium is sourced?
(a) Four: Sand-stone, Granite, Volcanic and others.
(b) Three: Sandstone, Granite and Volcanic.
(c) Four: Sandstone, Granite, Volcanic and Basalt.
(d) Three: Sandstone, Granite and sedimentary.
4. Which of these is not a factor through which the distribution and occurrence of Uranium ore is determined?
(a) Geological. (b) Geochemical. (c) Geophysical. (d) Geomorphic.
5. Which is the country where there are a maximum of unconformity-related deposits?
(a) United States. (b) Australia. (c) Russia. (d) Canada.
6. Which of the following will study the occurrence and distribution of the Uranium ore?
(a) Geo-morphologist. (b) Geo-conformologist.
(c) Geo-aerologist. (d) Geo-scientist.
Passage (Q.7-Q.12): Born to an unwed teenage mother, Oprah Winfrey spent her first years on her
grandmother’s farm in Kosciusko, Mississippi, while her mother looked for work in the North. Life on the farm
was primitive, but her grandmother taught her to read very early, and at age three Oprah was reciting poems.
Despite the hardships of her physical environment, she enjoyed the loving support of her grandmother, who
cherished her as a gifted child. Her world changed for the worse at age six, when she was sent to Milwaukee to
live with her mother, who had found work as a housemaid. In the long days when her mother was absent from
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their inner-city apartment, young Oprah was repeatedly molested by male relatives and another visitor. The
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abuse, which lasted from the ages of nine to 13, was emotionally devastating. When she tried to run away, she
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was sent to a juvenile detention home, only to be denied admission because all the beds were filled. At 14, she
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went to Nashville, Tennessee to live with her father. Vernon Winfrey was a strict disciplinarian, but he gave his
daughter the secure home life she needed. He saw to it that she met a curfew, and he required her to read a book
and write a book report each week. “As strict as he was,” says Oprah, “he had some concerns about me making
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the best of my life, and would not accept anything less than what he thought was my best.” In this structured
environment, Oprah flourished, and became an honor student, winning prizes for oratory and dramatic recitation.
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At age 17, Oprah Winfrey won the Miss Black Tennessee beauty pageant and was offered an on-air job at
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WVOL, a radio station serving the African American community in Nashville. She also won a full scholarship
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to Tennessee State University, where she majored in speech communications and performing arts. Oprah
left school
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continued to work at WVOL in her first years of college, but her broadcasting career was already taking off. She
and signed on with a local television station as a reporter and anchor. In 1976, she moved to Baltimore
to join WJZ-TV News as a co-anchor. There, she co-hosted her first talk show, People Are Talking, while
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Show.
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continuing to serve as anchor and news reporter. She had found a niche that perfectly suited her outgoing,
empathetic personality, and word soon spread to other cities. In January 1984, she was invited to Chicago to host
a faltering half-hour morning program on WLS-TV. In less than a year, she turned AM Chicago into the hottest
show in town. The format was soon expanded to an hour, and in September 1985 it was renamed The Oprah
The popularity of the show has enabled her to expand her brand to a whole empire with big-
screen acting successes as well. Motivated in part by her own memories of childhood abuse, she initiated a
campaign to establish a national database of convicted child abusers, and testified before a U.S. Senate Judiciary
Committee on behalf of a National Child Protection Act. It became a law in 1993, establishing the national
database she had sought, which is now available to law enforcement agencies and concerned parties across the
country.
[Source: https://achievement.org/achiever/oprah-winfrey/]
7. Which of these is a valid inference from the passage?
(a) Children who are raised by single parents, and abused, have bleak prospects in future.
(b) There can be little legal consequence of any initiative by a typical, albeit popular, citizen.
tr-(c) Oprah’s
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3Q0M9R7O 1P was quite rapt in her as she was living on her own in the apartment.
(d) There is some allure in Oprah’s method of acting and anchoring in all mediums.
8. What was the lasting impression on Oprah in her formative years which was hugely supportive in her hugely
successful artistic career?
(a) Her traumatic abuse by her relatives and others which made her resilient.
(b) Her learning different skills in the University on full scholarship on her merit.
(c) Her rudimentary work in theatre in her years spent with her grandmother.
(d) Her disciplined book-reporting and oratory mandated by her father.
9. Which of these would hardly be done by a person aspiring to have an acting and anchoring career, as per the
passage?
(a) They would practice in artistic mediums of writing and recitation among varied audience.
(b) They would while away their time in building castles in air regarding their reaching eminence.
(c) They would try to gain opportunities in shows and theatrical releases with a possibility of their skill
demonstration.
(d) They would get targeted degrees from educational institutions for honing speech and other artistic traits.
10. What does the word “faltering” does not mean in the context of the passage?
(a) Vacillating. (b) Dithering. (c) Resolute. (d) Equivocal.
11. Which of these is not an apposite description of the places and people where Oprah resided and their contribution
in her early life?
(a) Her stay with her grandmother in Kosciusko, Mississippi made her an adept reader.
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(b) Her stay with her mother in Milwaukee made her susceptible to abuse and empathetic towards such children.
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(c) Her stay with her father in Nashville, Tennessee made her disciplined and honed her artistic side.
(d) Her stay in Tennessee State University made her adept at classic literature and honed her skills in academia.
12. Which of these weakens the chief premises of the passage?
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(a) A child who is consistent and focused towards their skillset gains appreciation later.
(b) There have been studies that children who are abused in childhood hardly do well in further life.
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(c) It is a myth that children raised in a single parenting homes cannot make it big for themselves.
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(d) It is found in University researches that there is a co-relation of literature with that of oratory and dramatic
recitation in children.
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Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Being the black sheep of the family means that you are different from the rest of your
extended family), and often feel misunderstood, rejected, or ignored by them. You may have
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different values, beliefs, interests, or goals than your family members, and their acceptance of your life and
personality might be reluctant. Being the black sheep can be a painful and lonely experience, but it can also be
a source of strength and independence. The feeling of exclusion or isolation within family circles is more than
just physical absence from gatherings; it's a sense of emotional disconnect. This perpetual isolation can breed a
1P compelling you to seek solace elsewhere. The divergence in values, beliefs, or life choices
between you and your family members can be profound. These differences might range from cultural disparities
to varying ideological viewpoints. Navigating these disparities often feels like walking on eggshells, as
expressing your true self might risk disapproval or friction within the family. For some, the black sheep status
stems from painful experiences of trauma or abuse within the family. These harrowing incidents may include
emotional manipulation, neglect, or even more severe forms of abuse. Such experiences can profoundly impact
mental health, causing emotional scars that persist long after the events themselves. Realizing the limitations of
familial support, seeking guidance from external sources becomes crucial. Finding solace in friends, partners, or
support groups becomes crucial, providing the understanding and validation often lacking within the family unit.
The journey of self-acceptance and embracing your individuality is both liberating and empowering. It involves
acknowledging that your family's acceptance or validation isn't a requisite for self-worth. Embracing your
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5N7L3Q0M9R strengths, and flaws alike, empowers you to live authentically and define success on your terms,
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irrespective of familial expectations.
From an archetypal psychological perspective, “the black sheep” may most closely resemble “the
orphan” archetype, or that of “the abandoned child." These archetypes are, in essence, recurring symbols or
motifs that describe someone, or an aspect of someone, who doesn’t feel like they fit in with their family or
group of origin, physically or spiritually, and perhaps because they do not seem to fit, the group's "shadow" is
projected onto them. Showing up across myths, legends, and fairy tales since time immemorial, “the orphan”
and “abandoned child” archetypes are so prevalent that I believe we all embody this archetype, at least in some
small way. And, in a playful but also psychological way, Jungian analyst and author Clarissa Esté’s classic story
of the Mistaken Zygote Syndrome elaborates further on the archetype of the “orphan” or “abandoned child” by
explaining how some of us may have mistakenly ended up (metaphorically) in the "wrong" families. The black
sheep of the family choose to focus on breaking toxic patterns, internally and externally. Defying the norms
comes with a price which you, being the black sheep, don’t consider a price in the very first place because you’ve
been through a lot. While accepted-family-members might benefit from being validated, they also tend
to be trapped in limiting roles that make it difficult for authentic soul growth and expression to occur.
Black sheep, on the other hand, have a clean slate. The doorway to trailblazing their own destiny is open, they
aren’t held back by other’s opinions because the judgment has already been made: they are rejects, oddballs, and
outsiders.
[Source: https://timesofindia.indiatimes.com/life-style/relationships /6-signs-you-are-the-black-sheep-of-the-
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family/photostory/106494748.cms and https://www.psychologytoday.com/us/blog/making-the-whole-
beautiful/202201/the-power-being-the-black-sheep-the-family ]
13. What is the central thesis stated in the extract given above?
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(a) Black sheep of any family will have a difficult time during their growing-up years but it comes with a silver-
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lining.
(b) There are deep psychological injuries which result from considered as black sheep of the family requiring
clinical help.
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(c) The people who are not accepted by their relatives or extended family are called black sheep and must live
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their life in culpability and isolation.
(d) Black sheep of families have the unique characteristic of being laden by the expectation of their peers and
14.
friends.
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Which of these cannot be inferred from the passage?
(a) Disconnect with the relatives or extended family of the black sheep can be mottled in nature.
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15.
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of the self is a multitude in which family contributes one aspect only.
(c) The orphan archetype is experienced by most of us in some form in our familial existence in some traits.
(d) The people who are celebrated by the family do not have certain perimeters put on them.
What is the silver lining in being considered as the black sheep of the family according to the author?
(a) They7Ocan take professional help for the condition while other accepted members cannot.
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(c) They can pursue careers and arrange their home unburdened by others.
(d) They can pursue genuine growth and expression without limits.
16. What figure of speech is conveyed through the statement from the passage and state the meaning of the
underlined idiom:
Navigating these disparities often feels like walking on eggshells, as expressing your true self might risk
disapproval or friction within the family.
(a) Pleonasm; to be brave around someone.
(b) Metaphor; to walk on eggshells to create a crunchy noise.
(c) Synecdoche; to be nonchalant around someone.
tr-(d) Simile;
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17. Which of these will strengthen the main premise by the author of the passage?
(a) The family consists of the majority and must always be upheld despite being wrong in isolating a person
making them as a black sheep.
(b) Isolation resulting from the creation of black sheep leads to worthless feelings with no hope.
(c) Many persons who have been isolated by their relatives have gone into depression.
(d) There have been numerous examples where black sheep of any family have created history and made lasting
contributions to the world.
18. Which of these depicts the tone and style of the passage?
(a) Populist and Analytical. (b) Obsequious and objective.
(c) Euphemistic and Biased. (d) Technical and descriptive.
Passage (Q.19-Q.24): It was the kind of result a truly democratic politician can only dream of. Not long after
polls in Bangladesh’s parliamentary election closed on January 7th, a returning officer in Sheikh Hasina’s Dhaka
constituency announced that the prime minister had been re-elected with 249,965 votes. The runner-up received
469.
The long-serving prime minister’s overwhelming victory was matched by that of her Awami League (al) party,
which won 222 of the 299 seats being contested. With the main opposition party boycotting the poll, the al was
the only powerful political group to take part. The process confirms Bangladesh’s transition from a flawed but
competitive democracy to a de facto one-party state, albeit with some electoral democratic trappings. Unless
people face ever-increasing levels of authoritarianism.
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Sheikh Hasina, who has governed uninterrupted for the past 15 years, radically changes tack, the country’s 170m
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Casting her vote shortly after polls opened, Sheikh Hasina naturally declared that the election was free and fair.
“I am trying my best to ensure that democracy should continue in this country,” she told reporters. Yet many
leaders and thousands of supporters of the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (bnp), the only party capable of
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mounting serious opposition to the al, spent election day in prison. Most of those still at liberty boycotted the
poll. Of the 77 seats not won by the al, 62 went to so-called “independent” candidates, mostly al members or
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supporters who had been fielded with official encouragement to give the impression of a competitive poll. The
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expected shortly after The Economist went to press.
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Jatiya Party, an al ally currently acting as the official opposition in parliament, won 11 seats. Final results were
emergence
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That the election result was baked in was not lost on Bangladeshis. Previous elections, following the country’s
from military rule in 1991, saw raucous campaigning. By contrast, streets across the country remained
quiet in the days leading up to this vote. Except for isolated incidents of violence, including an arson
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attack on a train bound for Dhaka on January 5th that killed four people, the atmosphere was generally calm,
though tense in opposition centres such as the teeming capital. The government had taken the precaution of
deploying the army widely to maintain order.
1P sluggish, with many polling stations across the country reported to be deserted. Many people
eligible to vote told reporters they saw no point in doing so, given that they had little choice of candidates.
Shortly after polls closed an official from the election commission told a press conference that turnout was 28%,
before swiftly correcting himself and saying it was 40% (on January 8th the election commission announced an
official turnout of 41.8%). Local observers considered the lower number more plausible. Either way, it
represented a big drop compared with the previous election in 2018, in which some 80% of eligible voters took
part. That election, though marred by allegations of widespread ballot-box stuffing, was not boycotted by the
opposition.
Despite this farce of a poll, there is unlikely to be much imminent resistance to Sheikh Hasina’s increasingly
iron-fisted rule. The bnp is ill placed to recover from the recent crackdown; its ailing leader, Khaleda Zia, Sheikh
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5N7L3Q0M9R rival, is languishing under house arrest after being convicted of corruption. Moreover, despite
recent high inflation and other economic pressures, the prime minister’s development record remains strong. She
has the support of China, India and Russia, all of which were quick to congratulate her on her victory. America
and the eu said the election was not free and fair and called on the government to investigate irregularities. Yet
they are wary of alienating a big Asian country that is already close to China. They are also big customers of
Bangladeshi garments, the country’s biggest export. January 7th was a bad day for Bangladesh’s democracy. It
was another good day for South Asia’s iron lady.
19. What does the passage convey about the atmosphere on election day and the measures taken by the government
to maintain order?
(a) The election day atmosphere was calm and orderly, largely due to the widespread deployment of the army.
(b) Streets were bustling with activity, contrasting with the government's extensive security measures.
(c) Despite isolated violent incidents, the day was generally tense but peaceful across the country.
(d) The government's security measures were criticized for being excessive and intimidating to voters.
20. According to the passage, what was the outcome of the parliamentary election in Sheikh Hasina's Dhaka
constituency, and how did it reflect on the overall performance of the Awami League (AL) party?
(a) Sheikh Hasina won by a narrow margin, indicating the AL's declining popularity among voters.
(b) Sheikh Hasina was re-elected with a significant majority, showcasing the AL's strong voter base.
(c) The AL won all contested seats, illustrating its dominance in Bangladesh's political landscape.
(d) Sheikh Hasina received overwhelming support, but the AL's overall performance was mixed.
21.
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How does the passage describe the transition of Bangladesh's political landscape, particularly in relation to the
democratic process and the role of Sheikh Hasina's governance?
c
rs .
(a) The passage describes a shift towards authoritarianism under Sheikh Hasina's uninterrupted governance.
(b) It portrays a stable democratic process enhanced by Sheikh Hasina’s long-term leadership.
(c) Bangladesh is transitioning into a multi-party democracy, led by Sheikh Hasina’s policies.
22.
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(d) Sheikh Hasina’s rule is depicted as bringing economic stability, overshadowing democratic needs.
What challenges and circumstances did opposition parties, particularly the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP),
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face during the election, as mentioned in the passage?
a
(a) The BNP faced restrictions due to allegations of corruption and legal actions against its leaders.
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(b) Many BNP leaders and supporters were imprisoned, limiting their participation in the election.
(d) Opposition
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(c) The BNP boycotted the election due to concerns over electoral fairness and transparency.
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parties, including the BNP, struggled with internal conflicts and leadership crises.
23.
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How does the passage characterize voter turnout and public sentiment during the election, and how does this
compare to the previous election in 2018?
(a) Many polling stations were deserted, showing a significant decline in turnout from 2018.
(b) Voter turnout was high, reflecting increased public engagement compared to the 2018 election.
tr-5N(c) 0M9R7O1Pwas moderately low due to public dissatisfaction, slightly less than in 2018.
7L3QTurnout
(d) The turnout was around 40%, a slight increase from the previous election's turnout.
24. How does the passage describe the international reaction to Sheikh Hasina’s election victory and the role of
economic factors, such as garment exports, in the international community's stance?
(a) International reactions were uniformly positive, citing Bangladesh’s economic growth and stability.
(b) China, India, and Russia congratulated her, while others expressed concerns about election fairness.
(c) The international community universally condemned the election process due to lack of transparency.
(d) Economic interests in garment exports led to a general avoidance of criticizing the election process.
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SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
Directions (Q.25-Q.52): Read the information carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): Democracy Report 2024

India still remains an electoral autocracy with falling scores for various components, according to V-Dem
Institute’s Democracy Report 2024. India also lists in the top 10 standalone autocratizers in 2023, per the report.
The report further says that India dropped down to electoral autocracy in [X] and remains in this category by the
end of 2023.
“[a] out of ten countries in this group were democracies before the start of autocratization. Democracy broke
down in six of those eight cases – The Comoros, Hungary, India, Mauritius, Nicaragua, and Serbia. Only Greece
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and Poland remain democracies in 2023. This frequency of democratic breakdown matches with a recent study
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showing that 80% of democracies break down if they start autocratizing,” says the report titled ‘Democracy
Winning and Losing at the Ballot’.
c
rs .
“Over the years, India’s autocratization process has been well documented, including gradual but substantial
deterioration of freedom of expression, compromising independence of the media, crackdowns on social media,
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harassment of journalists critical of the government, as well as attacks on civil society and intimidation of the
opposition. The ruling anti-pluralist, Hindu-nationalist Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) with Prime Minister Modi
at the helm has for example used laws on sedition, defamation, and counterterrorism to silence critics.
25.
https://thewire.in
What has been redacted by [X] in this passage?
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(a) 2018
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26.
(b) 2020
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(c) 2022 (d) 2016
to the report, how many countries out of ten in the electoral autocracy group were democracies before
27.
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the start of autocratization?
(a) Four (b) Six (c) Eight (d) Ten
The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by _________ on
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2019.
(a) the Minister of Home Affairs, Mr. Amit Shah
(b) the Minister of Corporate Affairs, Nirmala Sitharaman
(c) the Minister of External Affairs, Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
(d) the Minister of Defence Affairs, Shri Raj Nath Singh
28. Consider the following statements:

I. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Amendment Bill, 2019 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister
of Home Affairs, Mr. Amit Shah, on July 8, 2019. The Bill amends the Unlawful Activities (Prevention)
Act, 1967.
II. Under the Act, an investigating officer is required to obtain the prior approval of the Director General of
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Police
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(a) Only I is correct. (b) Both I & II are incorrect.
(c) Only II is correct. (d) Both I & II are correct.
29. When did the 9th edition of Raisina Dialogue held in the year 2024?
(a) 21-23 February (b) 1-3 February
(c) 1-3 March (d) 21-23 March
30. Who out of the following is the present chairman of Observer Research Foundation (ORF)?
(a) Arvind Kumar (b) Sunjoy Joshi (c) Vipin Dixit (d) Arun kumar singh
Passage (Q.31-Q.36): One Nation One Election

A high-level panel headed by [X] has supported the concept of One Nation One Election. However, many
constitutional experts have raised concerns and objections. Here is a deep dive into the controversial topic.
Several questions were raised on the feasibility and applicability of ‘One Nation One Election’ when the
discussions around the concept gained momentum last year. Now, a high-level panel headed by [X] has tried to
address some of the challenges that "One Nation One Election" brings. The former’s panel submitted its report
on "One Nation One Election" to President Droupadi Murmu on Thursday. It backed the idea of simultaneous
elections for the Lok Sabha and the state assemblies in the first phase. As per the panel's recommendations, this
should be followed by synchronised local body polls within 100 days.
o m
Among the former chief justices of major high courts, nine supported simultaneous elections, while three raised
c
concerns or objections related to it. What were the concerns raised by them? What are the challenges in
report? Let us take a look.
rs .
implementing the "One Nation One Election" and how does the Kovind-led panel address the challenges in its
Legislative Assemblies be held in the first phase.

https://www.livemint.com
k e
The committee recommended simultaneous elections to the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the State
31. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage?

(a) former President Ram Nath Kovind
r an
(b) former Vice- President Hamid Ansari
(c) former
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7C(d)
o p
chief Justice of India Ranjan gogoi
former CJI of India Justice Altamas Kabir
32.
33.
tr-5N7L3Q0M
9R7O1P
T
The first general election to the Lok Sabha and all State Legislative Assemblies were held simultaneously in
which of the following year?
(a) 1969-70 (b) 1951-52 (c) 1971-72
Consider the following statements about the simultaneous Elections:

(d) 1981-82
I. The concept of staging national, state and local/rural together is not new. In fact, simultaneous elections for
the state assemblies and the Lok Sabha were held in India till 1967.
II. However, in 1968 and 1969, some legislative assemblies were dissolved prematurely followed by the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha in 1970. This forced a change in electoral schedules for the states and the
country.
(a) Both I & II are incorrect. (b) Only I is correct.
(c) Both I & II are correct. (d) Only II is correct.
34. Which of the following country is/are the only nations that conduct simultaneous elections?
3Q0M9R7O1P
tr-(a) South
5N7L Africa (b) Belgium
(c) Sweden (d) South Africa, Sweden and Belgium
35. Which out of the following Article allows Parliament to amend the Constitution?
(a) Article 368 (b) Article 261 (c) Article 168 (d) Article 268
36. Who are the two new election commissioners of India?
(a) Nripendra Misra and Arvind Kumar Sharma
(b) Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu
(c) P. K. Mishra and Atanu Chakraborty
(d) Jaya Verma Sinha and Rajiv Gauba
Passage (Q.37-Q.42): Joint Exercise 'Bharat-Shakti'

Stage is set in the arid terrain of Rajasthan's [X] for the mega exercise 'Bharat Shakti' on Tuesday, which will
demonstrate the prowess of indigenously manufactured defence equipment of the three services.
Prime Minister Narendra Modi is expected to witness the integrated tri-service firepower and manoeuvre exercise
that will be held for about 50 minutes. The country's top military brass will also be present on the occasion.
o m
LCA Tejas, ALH Mk-IV, LCH Prachand, mobile anti-drone system, BMP-II and its variants, NAMICA (Nag
c
Missile Carrier), T90 tanks, Dhanush, K9 Vajra and Pinaka rockets are among the platforms that will be
demonstrated.
rs .
'Bharat Shakti' will demonstrate the prowess of indigenously manufactured defence equipment of the three
on Saturday.
k e
services, Additional Director General, Army Design Bureau, Major General C S Mann had told reporters here
an
It will showcase the "shock and awe" impact that the armed forces seek to achieve in an operational situation
with manoeuvre and fighting capabilities, he had said.
r
demonstration,
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7Cleveraging
o p
"Synergised joint operations will be decisive in the Indian context. Through live firepower and manoeuvre
it is endeavoured to showcase the tri-services' operational capabilities to counter any threat
indigenous capability and the ability to undertake conflicts in the face of global upheavals," Major
37.
tr-5N(a) 0M9R7O1P
7L3QPokhran
T
General Mann had earlier said while announcing the details of the exercise.
https://www.business-standard.com
What has been redacted by [X] in this passage?

(b) Chandipur (c) Pangode (d) Barmer
38. The Indian Air Force was officially established on________.

(a) 1 October 1936 (b) 8 October 1932
(c) 18 October 1934 (d) 28 October 1942
39. Consider the following statements:

I. The Pinaka is a multiple rocket launcher Produced in India, designed by the Defence Research and
Development Organisation specifically for the Indian Army.
II. It boasts a maximum range of 40 km for its Mark-I iteration and 60 km for the enhanced Mark-I version.
(a) Both I & II are incorrect. (b) Only I is correct.
3Q0M9R7O1P
tr-(c) Both
5N7L I& II are correct. (d) Only II is correct.
40. The Defence Research and Development Organisation is the premier agency under the Department of Defence
Research and Development in Ministry of Defence of the Government of India, charged with the military's
research and development, headquartered in _______.
(a) Chennai (b) Bangalore
(c) Thiruvananthapuram (d) Delhi
41. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Integrated tri-service exercise ‘Bharat Shakti’ was slated held at Jaunpur in Rajasthan on March 28.
(b) The ‘Bharat Shakti’ exercise involves the showcasing of the calibrated tactical employment of niche
technology in a tri-services environment against perceived threats.
(c) To demonstrate air superiority and versatility in air operations, the Indian Air Force (IAF) showcased the
indigenously developed light combat aircraft Tejas, light utility helicopters, and advanced light helicopters.
(d) Bharat Shakti' will also demonstrate the prowess of indigenously manufactured defence equipment of the
three services, According to the Additional Director General, Army Design Bureau, Major General C S
Mann.
42. Who out of the following was the first Indian scientist to win a Nobel Prize?
(a) Meghnad saha (b) Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman
(c) Homi J Bhabha
Passage (Q.43-Q.48): World Consumer Rights Day

(d) Vikram Sarabhai
c o m
rs .
On March 15, the world observes World Consumer Rights Day, an annual event dedicated to reminding us of
the importance of consumer rights in our global marketplace. This day emphasizes the need for transparency
regarding the quantity, quality, and price of goods, as well as the significance of safeguarding consumer rights.
k e
World Consumer Rights Day serves as a platform to educate and empower consumers about their rights and
responsibilities, while also advocating for fair and ethical business practices worldwide.
n
Consumers International, the global voice for consumers, has chosen the theme ‘[a]' for this year's World
a
Consumer Rights Day. This theme sheds light on the rapid integration of Artificial Intelligence (AI) into our
r
daily lives and the necessity of ensuring that AI technologies respect and uphold consumer rights.
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7Cpractices perpetuated
o p
The focus is on addressing concerns such as privacy breaches, dissemination of misinformation, and biased
by AI-driven platforms. It underscores the importance of adopting AI technologies
T
responsibly to mitigate potential harms and ensure fairness for consumers in the digital age.
The origins of World Consumer Rights Day can be traced back to March 15, 1962, when former [X] addressed
consumer rights issues in a historic speech to the US Congress.
1P
tr-5Nhttps://economictimes.indiatimes.com
7L3Q0M9R7O

(a) US President John F. Kennedy (b) Russia President Mikhail Gorbachev
(c) UK President Dmitry Medvedev (d) France President Boris Yeltsin
44. consider the following statements:

I. On March 15, 1962, President John F. Kennedy spoke before the US Congress and addressed consumer
rights. This incident marked the first time that a world leader spoke of consumer rights.
II. In 1983, the first World Consumer Rights Day was observed. Since then, the United Nations has recognised
the special day.
3Q0M9R 7O1P
tr-(a) Only
5N7L I is correct. (b) Both I & II are correct.
(c) Only II is correct. (d) Both I & II are incorrect.
45. What is the theme of the ‘World Consumer Rights Day’ 2024?
(a) selected Fair Digital Finance as our global
(b) tackling plastic pollution
(c) Fair and responsible AI for consumers
(d) The Sustainable Consumer
46. India celebrates National Consumer Rights Day on ______ every year to raise awareness about consumer rights
and responsibilities.
(a) 1 March (b) 24 March (c) 4 December (d) 24 December
47. Which of the following statement is incorrect about World Consumer Rights Day?
(a) Since its official inception on March 15, 1973, World Consumer Rights Day has been recognized and
endorsed by the United Nations, garnering international attention to the cause of consumer protection.
(b) World Consumer Rights Day is observed to create more awareness about consumer rights. This is different
from National Consumer Rights Day.
(c) Consumers are entitled to certain fundamental rights, including the right to safety, right to be informed, right
to choose, right to be heard, right to seek redressal, and right to consumer education.
(d) Consumers International, the global voice for consumers, has chosen the theme 'Fair and responsible AI for
48.
consumers' for this year's World Consumer Rights Day.
In which of the following year the first World Consumer Rights Day was observed?
c o m
(a) 1963 (b) 1983 (c) 1980
Passage (Q.49-Q.52): National Youth Parliament Festival, 2024

(d) 1962
rs .
k e
Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports organised the inaugural of the finals of the National Youth Parliament
Festival, 2024 in the Parliament. The Valedictory Function will be organised on 6th March 2024 in the Central
Hall of the Parliament, New Delhi. The valedictory function will be attended by, [X] and Union Minister for
n
Sports and Youth Affairs Shri Anurag Singh Thakur. Speaking at the inaugural function Secretary, Youth Affairs
a
Ms Meeta Rajivlochan said that India is a country which has always been led by youth and future of this country
r
vest with the young people. She also said that Indian youth is at the forefront in all the fields.
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7Con it.
o p
She said that within just three months of the launch of MY Bharat platform around 1.5 crore youth have registered
tr-5Nlevels
9R7O1P
7L3Q0Mcovering
T
The National Youth Parliament is being organised this year based on the theme of 'Young Voices: Engage and
Empower for Nation’s Transformation’. The National Youth Parliament Festival, 2024 has been organised from
9th February 2024 to 6th March 2024 across the country. This Youth Parliament has been organised at three
785 Districts of the country.
https://pib.gov.in

(a) Lok Sabha Speaker Om Birla (b) Rajya Sabha Speaker Jagdeep Dhankhar
(c) Home minister Amit shah (d) External minister S Jaishankar
50. When the District Youth Parliament was organized in the year 2024?
(a) 1-5 February (b) 9-14 February (c) 14-7 February (d) 22-27 February
51. National Youth Day is celebrated every year on which of the following day?
3Q0M9R7O1P
tr-(a)
5N7L12 March (b) 22 January (c) 12 January (d) 22 March
52. Which of the following is the theme of National Youth Parliament Festival, 2024?
(a) Arise, Awake, and Realise the Power You Hold
(b) Channelizing Youth Power for Nation Building
(c) YUVAAH – Utsah Naye Bharat Ka
(d) 'Young Voices: Engage and Empower for Nation’s Transformation’
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.84): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.60): India's move to relax regulatory oversight of forest areas by modifying a 1980 law is
drawing protests from environmental activists who fear the changes will lead to unchecked commercial activity
and infrastructure development in green areas.
The original law was aimed at curbing the degradation of forest land by requiring the federal government's
permission before any non-forest activity is carried out, or before land in those areas is leased to a private entity
for any commercial purpose.
India says the new law is a milestone in "enhancement of the productivity of forests". It will require no federal
m
government clearance for some green areas to be used for eco-tourism facilities, such as building government-
owned zoos. The government will have the power to allow seismic surveys without scrutiny, which activists fear
will lead to commercial exploitation.
.c o
Activists, however, are continuing to raise concerns, with some even exploring a legal challenge. There is enough
rs
evidence of human-induced climate change around us. In such a scenario investing in protecting our forests
rather than making forest diversion easier should have been the sensible choice.
k e
India's government has defended its position. It maintains change to the law were required to fast track strategic
and security related projects and also cater "to the livelihood aspirations of the local communities."
n
[Extracted with revisions from https://www.reuters.com/world/india/indias-changes-forest-conservation-law-
a
draw-flak-environmentalists-2023-08-03/]
53.
r
What was the primary focus of the original 1980 law regarding forest areas in India?
(a) Discouraging unchecked commercial activity.
p
54.
(b) Enhancing
tr-5K7C3J0G9E
7G1K
To
the productivity of forests.
(c) Allowing commercial exploitation without scrutiny.
(d) Fast-tracking strategic and security-related projects.
What power does the new law grant to the government, causing concern among environmental activists?
(a) Allowing unchecked commercial activity.
1P
7L3Q0M9R7O
tr-5N(b) Seeking permission for non-forest activities.
(c) Permitting seismic surveys without scrutiny.
(d) Facilitating fast-tracking of security projects.
55. What is the main argument put forward by environmental activists against the changes in the forest law?
(a) The government's focus on eco-tourism facilities.
(b) The need for fast-tracking strategic projects.
(c) Concerns about seismic surveys leading to non- commercial exploitation.
(d) The preference for protecting forests in the face of climate change evidence.
56. Taj Hotels9RLtd

7O1Pisa multinational hotel chain that wants to build a water villa resort in Lakshadweep islands. The
tr-5N7L3Q0M
area of the project has a sensitive ecosystem and it is home to a variety of marine life and biodiversity. Taj Hotels
Ltd. has not taken any environmental clearance. Awaaz, a local NGO claims that this is incorrect and illegal
because no environmental impact assessment was conduct and the sensitive region may be permanently
damaged. Is Awaaz correct in its stand? Choose a correct statement as per the new law.
(a) No, because the water villa project does not require federal clearance for any commercial project
(b) No, because the water villa resort project requires federal clearance for any commercial project
(c) Yes, because the water villa requires federal clearance for any commercial project
(d) Cannot be determined
57. Adhering to the original 1980 law, a private company plans a substantial infrastructure project within a protected
forest area without seeking federal government permission. Environmental activists, well-versed in the legal
framework, express concerns about potential environmental degradation. If legal action is taken against the
company, which principle from the original law is likely to be invoked by the activists?
(a) The original 1980 law, emphasizing the need for requiring the federal government's permission.
(b) The amended 1980 law, emphasizing the need for requiring the federal government's permission.
(c) The revised law permitting ecotourism projects without federal clearance.
(d) The principle of strict construction, emphasizing literal adherence to the original law's language.
58. Amid the changes in India's forest law, environmental activists express concerns about the government's decision
to allow seismic surveys without scrutiny, citing evidence of human-induced climate change. They argue that
prioritizing the protection of forests would be a more sensible choice. If these activists explore a legal challenge,
which argument from the passage are they likely to emphasize?
m
(a) The government's assertion that changes were required to fast track strategic and security-related projects.
o
(b) The activists' emphasis on the need for eco-tourism facilities, such as government-owned zoos.
c
(c) The government's defense of the law as a milestone in the enhancement of forest productivity.
59.
rs .
(d) The activists' argument about investing in forest protection amid evidence of human-induced climate change.
The government justifies the changes in India's forest law by stating the necessity to "fast track strategic and
e
security-related projects." If a legal challenge arises regarding this justification, what legal principle might be
invoked based on the information provided in the passage?
projects.
a k
(a) The revised bill which modifies the definition of environment to include strategic and security-related
n
(b) The doctrine of harmonious construction, emphasizing alignment with government goals for strategic
projects.
p r
(c) The original 1980 law, requiring federal government clearance for projects impacting forest areas.
(d) The activists' argument about investing in forest protection amid evidence of human-induced climate change.
tr-5K7C
60.
3J0G9E7G1K
To
The passage mentions that the government's changes to the forest law will allow it to "require no federal
government clearance for some green areas to be used for eco-tourism facilities." If a legal challenge emerges
regarding this specific aspect, what argument might the government advocates likely emphasize based on the
information provided?
(a) The activists' concern about seismic surveys without scrutiny leading to environmental exploitation.
0M9R7O 1P
tr-5N(b)
7L3QThe government's assertion that changes were required to cater to the livelihood aspirations of local
communities.
(c) The activists' emphasis on the need for government clearance for eco-tourism facilities in green areas.
(d) The revised criminal law modifying the definition of terrorism to include eco-tourism activities.
Passage (Q.61-Q.65): When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or any other person has done or
abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or to abstain from doing, something,
such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise. If what is given in exchange for the
promise has value in the eyes of the law, the court will not question whether that value is adequate and will not
interfere with the fairness of the bargain made by the parties. The law on this point, regarding the adequacy of
consideration is simple and clear. The consideration is not required to be of a particular fixed value or an
approximation
9R7O1Pto the promise for which it is exchanged but it must be have some value in the eyes of the law. It
tr-5N7L3Q0M
must change the promisee‘s position after the consideration is acted upon or transferred from the promisee to the
promisor. Consideration is indispensable for making an agreement to be enforceable as per Section 10 of the
ICA.
Section 25(1) provides that when an agreement without consideration is expressed in writing and is made on
account of natural love and affection between the parties, the same is valid. On the contrary, the existence of the
near relation between the parties is not sufficient to show that there is affection between them. As natural love
and affection cannot be assumed every time when no other motive is known, the court presumes by considering
the relation between the parties.
Section 25(2) states that there is no requirement of consideration, if a person does an act or gives his service
voluntarily to the promisor without the knowledge of the promisor and in turn, the promisor shows his
willingness to compensate for it by an undertaking. It was stated by the Court that the term ‘voluntarily done’
shows the performance of something based on one‘s own impulses, will and choices. There should be no
constraint or pressure or suggestion from anyone.
(Source: http://nalsarpro.org/Portals/23/Paper%202-%20Law%20of%20Contracts.pdf )
61. Which of the following statement is not in line with the author’s contention(s) as stated in the passage?
(a) The consideration need only have some worth in the eyes of the law; it is not necessary that it be of a certain
fixed value or an approximate representation of the promise for which it is exchanged.
(b) According to Section 25(1), there is no necessity for consideration if a person does an act for the promisor
or renders services without the promisor's knowledge and the promisor then expresses his readiness to make
good on the act by making an undertaking.
genuine respect and affection for one another is legal.

(d) Both b and c.
c m
(c) According to Section 25(2), a written agreement signed without consideration and based on the parties'
o
62.
rs .
X and Z were best friends. They had been friends since second grade. X gave Z a brand new bike for his 18th
birthday. X had been saving his pocket money for three years in order to give Z a bike. When X's birthday came
e
around a week later, Z only gave him a school bag. X was upset by this and claimed that Z should be held liable
because no consideration was paid by Z to X for the brand new bike. Comment.
X without paying the amount.
a k
(a) Z will be held responsible for paying the bike charges because he cannot accept such an expensive gift from
n
(b) Since the requirements of Section 25(2) are not met, Z will be held liable for the bike's consideration.
performs an act freely for the promisor.
p r
(c) Z will not be held accountable because Section 25(2) states that no consideration is required if a person
(d) Z shall be held liable for paying the consideration to X because X gave him such an expensive gift in the
63.
9E7G1K
tr-5K7C3J0Gexpectation
o
that he would similarly give him an expensive gift.
T
One of T's relatives had given him six pairs of jeans as a gift. He decided to sell the gifted jeans at a lower price
because he had recently purchased two pair of jeans. He charged Rs.800 for each pair. Later, he learned from a
relative that each pair of jeans had originally cost Rs.3000. As a result, he claimed that his friends pay him at
least Rs.2000. When his friends refused, he claimed that a breach of contract had occurred due to insufficient
1P
7L3Q0M9R7O
tr-5Nconsideration. Determine the veracity of his claim.
(a) T cannot claim the remaining payment because he did not purchase the jeans; he received them for free and
thus has no claim.
(b) He is not entitled to the remaining sum because it was his responsibility to charge the correct price in the
first place.
(c) T is entitled to make a claim for the balance because he was supposed to receive consideration equal to the
cost of the jeans.
(d) T cannot claim the balance amount because the validity of consideration is more important than its
sufficiency.
64. W requested F to fix his car. F, being a proficient mechanic, skillfully repaired the car, ensuring that W
encountered
tr-5N7L3Q0M
9R7Ono
1P technical issues for the following three months. Impressed by F's work, W returned to him and
not only paid him for the repair but also gave him five times the originally agreed sum. Comment on the
legitimacy of the consideration received from W.
(a) W paid more than necessary because repairing a car is a tiny job that doesn't call for a large sum of money.
(b) Since W did not pay an amount equivalent to the service rendered by F, his consideration cannot be
considered valid.
(c) W's consideration is valid because it is irrelevant to argue about the adequacy of the consideration paid.
(d) W's consideration has no value because it was not paid immediately but six months after the work was
completed.
65. P's father had received a promotion and an 80% pay raise for his outstanding work. Due to his efforts, the
company was able to close a hundred crore deal. Since his father was in a good mood, he promised P in writing
that he would buy him a brand new car. Seeing this, their neighbor R questioned the contract's validity on the
grounds of P's lack of consideration. Choose the correct statement regarding the status of P’s contract based on
R's questioning of its validity due to P's lack of consideration.
(a) P can make the argument that an act performed by a promisor out of love and affection constitute the
requirement for consideration.
(b) P must pay for the car given to him by his father because the requirements of Section 25(1) are not met.
(c) P is not obligated to pay the price because he did not specifically request the car that his father promised to
give him and he brought it based on his own wishes.
(d) R's claims are valid because consideration is a mandatory component of any written agreement.
m
Passage (Q.66-Q.69): Every person has certain legal rights, and it is the duty of other people to respect them.
o
Fault-based liability means the defendant violates the plaintiff’s rights. In No-Fault liability, the defendant is
c
held liable to pay compensation even though he was not at fault. No fault liability is categorized into two parts:
rs .
(a) Strict liability and (b) Absolute Liability. The concept of strict liability evolved from the case of Ryland’s v.
Fletcher. What actually strict liability means is that anyone who retains dangerous chemicals on their property
is accountable for any errors made if those substances somehow escape and cause harm. Based on this principle,
k e
certain essentials have been created that help to decide whether liability is strict. (a) Someone must have brought
something hazardous into their property, (b) There must be non-natural use of land and (c) The hazardous item
that was brought must escape and cause damage. On the other hand, the rule of absolute liability, in simple
n
words, can be defined as the rule of strict liability minus the exceptions. In India, the rule of absolute liability
a
evolved in the case of MC Mehta v. Union of India. According to the rule of absolute liability, if any person is
r
engaged in an inherently dangerous or hazardous activity, and if any harm is caused to any person due to any
who is7Gcarrying
3J0G9E 1K
tr-5K7Cwouldn’t
o p
accident which occurred during carrying out such inherently dangerous and hazardous activity, then the person
out such activity will be held absolutely liable. The exception to the strict liability rule also
be considered.
66.
T
(Source:https://blog.finology.in/Legal-news/strict-and-absolute-
liability#:~:text=Both%20systems%20of%20law%20are,not%20permitted%20to%20raise%20defences )
R had a vicious dog in his house. He had studied that species extensively before deciding to bring one home.
tr-5NAlthough
1P
7L3Q0M9R7Othe dog was frequently playful, when it became enraged, it would behave wildly. K left his son at R's
house one day because he needed to get somewhere quickly. R was preparing food for the child to eat in the
meantime. The dog suddenly began to bark at the child and bit him while R was in the kitchen. K now asserts
strict liability damages. Comment.
(a) Since his child must have done something to provoke the dog, K's claims cannot be upheld.
(b) K's claims will not be upheld because he voluntarily left his son in R's care knowing that he owned a dog.
(c) K's claims will be rejected because the essential of escape did not occur in this case.
(d) K's claims will be upheld because he delegated responsibility for his son to R.
67. S had come to stay with her sister P for a week. She was assisting her in the kitchen as she prepared dinner. P
told her several times to relax and not work, but because she had no work, she insisted on assisting her sister.
3Q0M9R7O1P
5N7Lreceived
tr-She a large cut on her finger while cooking from a very sharp knife. Do you think S should sue her
sister P under strict liability?
(a) S cannot sue her sister because she volunteered to help her cook the food.
(b) S cannot sue her sister because there is no liability in a fiduciary relationship.
(c) Since P did not intend to harm S intentionally, S cannot bring a lawsuit against her sister.
(d) S cannot bring a lawsuit against her sister because having a knife around the house is not essentially
hazardous.
68. W used to produce various types of shoe polish in the factory he owned. Since the mother wasn't in town, L, a
factory worker, brought his five-year-old child to the workplace. L requested F to watch over his son while he
attended to some urgent work. F took a call and then became busy. The child tasted a little of the polish because
he assumed it was chocolate syrup given its dark brown colour. Later, he developed an infection. Now, carefully
read the facts and make reference to the passage to ascertain liability.
(a) F will be held accountable for the tort of negligence in the aforementioned instance because he was charged
with taking care of the child.
(b) W will be held accountable because, according to the strict liability doctrine, anyone who keeps harmful
chemicals on their property is responsible for any damage that results from doing so.
(c) Given that he shouldn't have left his son alone in the situation, L will be held negligent in this case.
(d) Since there was no substance that escaped which released W from any liability, W shall not be held
accountable.
69.
c o m
T built a factory where they worked with various chemicals. Because of their inherent danger, the chemicals
were not meant to be visible to the naked eye. The employees wore glasses for the same purpose continuously.
When V, his rival, learned of this, he cut a hole in the pipe that was allowing fumes from T's factory to begin to
rs .
escape. People nearby developed specific eye infections and sued T based on the principle of absolute liability.
T uses the strict liability defence that can be used if a third party was involved. Comment on T’s liability as per
the claim made against him.
(a) T is not liable because he had no intention of harming the public at large.
k e
(b) T will not be held accountable because he can claim third-party liability because V leaked the pipe without
n
T's knowledge.
(c) Since there is no defence under absolute liability, T shall be held accountable.
r a
(d) T will be made accountable because he had a responsibility to ensure that his operations did not result in any
harm to the factory's interior or outdoor space.
p
Passage (Q.70-Q.74): Section 3(r) of The Waqf Act, 1995 defines ‘waqf’ as the permanent dedication of any
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7Cmovable or
To
immovable property by anyone recognized under the Muslim Law as pious, religious or charitable.
This is done at central as well as state levels. The act empowers every State government to establish a State Waqf
Board each for Shia and Sunni school of Muslim Law under Section 13 of the Waqf Act, 1995. The subject waqf
is relative to Entry Number 10, “Trust and Trustees” in Concurrent List of Indian Constitution hereby declaring
that it is a matter of both Central and State Governments.
9R7O1P
tr-5N7L3Q0M
In 1993, a petition was filed in the Supreme Court on behalf of the ‘All India Imam Organisation’ demanding
that the Imams get salary from the State Waqf Board for reciting Azan 5 times a day in mosques. After this, the
Supreme Court ruled in favour of the All India Imam Organisation. Mr. Mahurkar, CIC, questioning the
judgment, stated that the order violated the provisions that say ‘tax payer’s money will not be used to favour any
particular religion’. He referred to Article 27 of the Constitution. Article 27 provides for, Freedom as to payment
of taxes for promotion of any particular religion and states that “No person shall be compelled to pay any taxes,
the proceeds of which are specifically appropriated in payment of expenses for the promotion or maintenance of
any particular religion or religious denomination”. This is a ‘violation of the Constitution’, and besides setting a
‘wrong precedent’, it has become a point of unnecessary political slugfest and social disharmony. The
Government takes the hard-earned money of taxpayers. It is therefore illegal to pay Imams for services in
mosques 9R
tr-5N7L3Q0M
with
7O1Pthis money to appease a particular religious community. Such a verdict is unconstitutional.
Mr. Mahurkar contended that there is no clause in the Waqf Law by which these people should be paid by the
Union Government or the State Governments or by the Central or State Waqf Boards. This has been
acknowledged by the Court. There is no such Section and basis of law. Therefore, their writ petition should be
dismissed. Yet, the Apex Court did not budge. In a Supreme Court verdict on 13th May 1993, the Union
Government and the Central Waqf Board were told to make a plan within 6 months regarding paying the Imams
who were serving in mosques under Article 21 for a dignified life.
[Source: https://sanatanprabhat.org/english/69676.html]
70. Which of these statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
(a) There are different levels and categorizations of trusts created under the Act of 1995.
(b) Article 27 is not merely applicable to Indian citizens according to Indian Constitution.
(c) The Supreme Court erred in granting salaries to imams when there was no statutory provision in the 1995
Act.
(d) Taxpayers’ money can be used in paying the salary of persons of some religious trusts specifically.
71. What is the legal cogent point made by the advocate to challenge the illegal salaries of religious persons?
(a) There is no statutory provision in the concerned Act of 1995 regarding payment of salary to imams.
(b) There is unnecessary use of taxpayers’ funds in the payment of salaries of imams.
(c) There is no law which supports the existence of the leeching group of imams.
(d) There is possibility of social disharmony resulting from the grant of salaries to one particular religious group.
72.
o m
In a ground breaking move to preserve and promote India's rich cultural heritage, the central government
c
establishes a trust, under Article 21 and concurrent list, dedicated to supporting religious institutions and
rs .
practitioners. This trust, known as the "Cultural Preservation and Religious Welfare Fund," is designed to ensure
the financial well-being of Hindu priests. The trust is funded by a combination of public donations, government
allocations, and private contributions. To attract and retain qualified and knowledgeable individuals in the
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priesthood, the trust decides to allocate high salaries to Hindu priests. The trust provides Hindu priests with
substantial monthly salaries, along with additional benefits such as healthcare, housing, and educational support
for their families. Is the decision to provide salaries correct in light of decision of Supreme Court?
n
(a) Yes, because the government has used Article 21 to provide a dignified life to the Hindu priestly class.
a
(b) No, because there can be no such law made which favours one religion over another under Article 27.
r
(c) Yes, because there is power given to central as well as state government under the seventh schedule to
establish trusts.
(d) No,7Gbecause
tr-5K7C3J0G9E
1K
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such trusts can only be established for the members of a minority group.
73.
tr-5Nfinancial
7L3Q0M9R7O
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support
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To safeguard and promote the unique cultural heritage of the Parsi community in India, the government
introduces a special tax known as the "Parsi Cultural Preservation Tax." This tax is earmarked specifically for
initiatives aimed at the betterment of the Parsi faith and community. Recognizing the declining population and
the need to ensure the continuation of Parsi traditions, the Indian government takes a proactive step to provide
for reproductive technologies and other aspects. The Parsi Cultural Preservation Tax is levied
on individuals, businesses, and organizations across the country. Is the tax valid in light of the passage?
(a) No, because there cannot be any tax imposed to promote any particular religion under Article 27.
(b) Yes, because this has been imposed to preserve their dignity in the society under Article 21.
(c) No, because such taxes cannot be imposed for any minority religious group under Article 27.
(d) Yes, because the tax has been created as an exception to the general rule under Article 27.
74. A state government in India announces the establishment of the "Sikh Heritage and Welfare Board” through a
dedicated law. The board is designed to address various aspects, including the preservation of Sikh historical
sites, promotion of Sikh culture, and welfare initiatives for the Sikh community. The Sikh Heritage and Welfare
Board allocates funds for the restoration and maintenance of Sikh historical sites, including gurdwaras and other
7O1P
5N7L3Q0M9R
tr-culturally significant landmarks. The central government deems it beyond the power of the state government to
establish such a Board. Is their contention valid?
(a) Yes, because there can be establishment of such trust only by the Central government.
(b) No, because there is power given under the state list to make laws related to trusts in the Indian Constitution.
(c) Yes, because such trusts can only be established for religious groups forming a majority in population.
(d) No, because the subject of trust is within the concurrent list under which state as well as central government
can make law.
Passage (Q.75-Q.79): Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code contains the rule of res sub judice and is applicable
to suits of civil nature.
The present section provides that where a suit is instituted in a court to which the Code applies, the court shall
not proceed with the trial of the suit, if—
First, the matter in issue in the suit is also directly and substantially in issue in a previously instituted suit between
the same parties or their privies, secondly, the previously instituted suit is pending—
(a) In the same court in which the subsequent suit is brought, or
(b) In any other court in India (whether superior, inferior or co-ordinate), or
(c) In any court beyond the limits of India established or continued by the Central Government, or
(d) Before the Supreme Court (formerly His Majesty in Council), and
o m
Thirdly, where the previously instituted suit is pending in any of the courts mentioned in clause (b) or clause (c)
c
and such court is a court of competent jurisdiction to grant the relief claimed in the subsequent suit.
rs .
The object of the rule of res sub judice contained in this section is to prevent courts of concurrent jurisdiction
from simultaneously entertaining and adjudicating upon parallel litigations filed for the same cause of action, for
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the same subject-matter and for the same relief between the same parties and to avoid recording of conflicting
findings on issues which are directly and substantially in issue in two suits. The object behind section 10 of the
Code of Civil Procedure is to bar one of the court having concurrent jurisdiction to try simultaneously. Even the
an
parties are the same and courts are competent to try both the suit, the final decision reached in the previous suit
will operate as res judicata in the subsequent suit.
r
earlier7G
tr-5K7C3J0G9E
proceeding
1K
o
is not a suit.
p
Section 10 applies only to suits and appeals. Since an appeal is a continuation of suit and does not apply if the
75.
T
Sandook stole 45 kilograms of wheat from the house of Bandook. Bandook felt an emotional attachment with
the wheat and he suffered heart failure. After months of medication he was able to survive, yet he was in utter
deep emotional distress and suffered an enormous sum of money. Bandook sued Sandook for the damages in a
competent Civil Court having jurisdiction. Son of Bandook, Kartooz, was thinking along different lines; he
tr-5Nwanted
7L3Q0M9Rto
1P a criminal case for the theft. Though he did know that Sandook had consumed the entire stock of
7Ofile
wheat, in his opinion, the perpetrators must be shown the way of justice and punished for the crimes committed.
He filed a police report against Sandook for theft and once the charge sheet was filed, the Criminal trial
commenced. Sandook in his written statement objected before the former court that the trial should not
commence at the subsequent court as per res sub judice. Decide.
(a) The trial is barred only at the subsequent court of competent jurisdiction, hence the objection should have
been raised at the other court.
(b) The objection is valid as the trial cannot take place against before two equal courts of competent jurisdiction.
(c) The objection is invalid as the subsequent court is not a court of competent jurisdiction as per the language
of Sec. 10.
(d) Cannot be determined.
9R7O1P
tr-5N7L3Q0M
76. Rangeen and Sangeen were involved in a dispute of property and rent. Rangeen had rented out his 96 hectares
of land to Sangeen; the rent payable to Rangeen by Sangeen is Rs. 10,000. However Sangeen did not pay the
amount to Rangeen; Rangeen had said that he would sue Sangeen in court. Sangeen was audacious and said that
Rangeen may do anything that he wants to do, he will not pay his rent. Thus, totally shocked, Rangeen filed a
plaint before a court of competent jurisdiction suing Sangeen for the payment of Rs. 10,000. In the reply filed
by Sangeen, he contested that the dimensions of the property was not 96 hectares but only 90 hectares thus he
was induced through fraud to enter into an agreement with Rangeen. Rangeen was infuriated with this and he
filed another suit against Sangeen before another court of competent jurisdiction, stating that on his property
Sangeen is having illegal occupation, as he had rented only 96 hectares of land, while Sangeen is occupying 4
more hectares of land, and is not even paying the rent- thus Sangeen should vacate the excessive occupation of
the land. Sangeen in the latter court objected that the suit cannot be filed. Decide.
(a) Stand of Sangeen is legally correct and his objection is correct.
(b) Stand of Sangeen is illegal and he’s impeding the justice also his objection is correct.
(c) Stand of Sangeen is legally incorrect and his objection is incorrect.
(d) Sangeen is correct as the suit cannot be filed before another court of competent jurisdiction.
77. Let’s assume that because of some impediments Sangeen did not objected to the filing of the suit, so in his
written statement (reply to the plaint) he contested that the trial cannot commence at the latter court of competent
jurisdiction as the former court is already dealing with it and the trial had commenced over there- and the former
court too is a court of competent jurisdiction. Decide.
(a) It does not matter, the trial will be barred in the latter court.
o m
(b) It does matter, as the objection should have been taken at the first available opportunity, now the trial will
run parallel.
c
(c) It does not matter, the trial will run parallel in both the courts.
(d) It does not matter, the trial will run in the former court only.
rs .
78.
k e
Party A filed a suit against Party B in a District Court, which is still pending. Party B subsequently filed a separate
suit against Party A on the same subject matter in a different District Court. Considering the rule of res sub judice
under Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, which of the following is the most appropriate action for the
second District Court to take?
an
(a) The second District Court should proceed with the trial of the suit filed by Party B since it is a separate case
filed in a different court.
r
tr-5K7C(c)
the same parties is concluded.
3J0G9E7G1K
p
(b) The second District Court should stay the proceedings of the suit filed by Party B until the first suit between
o
The second District Court should dismiss the suit filed by Party B as it is barred under the rule of res sub
79.tr-5NBased
judice.
T
(d) The second District Court should transfer the suit filed by Party B to the same District Court where the first
suit is pending.
1P information provided in the passage, which of the following can be analytically deduced about the
on7Othe
7L3Q0M9R
rule of res sub judice under Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code?
(a) The rule of res sub judice applies only when the previously instituted suit is pending in the same court as the
subsequent suit.
(b) The rule of res sub judice prevents conflicting findings on issues directly and substantially in issue in two
suits involving the same parties.
(c) The rule of res sub judice is applicable to both civil and criminal cases filed in courts within India.
(d) The rule of res sub judice applies to all legal proceedings, including suits, appeals, and other forms of dispute
resolution.
Passage (Q.80-Q.84): From the moment of his birth, a person is clothed with basic human rights. Right to life
1P
tr-is
5None
7L3Qof the7Obasic
0M9R as well as fundamental right without which all rights cannot be enjoyed. Right to life means
a human being has an essential right to live, particularly that such human being has the right not to be killed by
another human being.
In M.S Dubal vs. State of Maharastra, the Bombay High Court held that right to life under article 21 of the Indian
Constitution includes ‘right to die’. On the other hand in Chenna Jagadeeswar vs. State of AP, the AP High Court
said that right to die is not a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution. The position of law is
conflicted and there exists no uniform status of right to die in India.
Right to life including the right to live with human dignity would mean the existence of such right up to the end
of natural life. This may include the right of a dying man to die with dignity. But the ‘right to die with dignity’
is not to be confused with the ‘right to die’ an unnatural death curtailing the natural span of life. Thus the concept
of right to life is central to the debate on the issue of Euthanasia.
One of the controversial issues in the recent past has been the question of legalizing the right to die or Euthanasia.
Euthanasia is controversial since it involves the deliberate termination of human life. Euthanasia can be permitted
if the patient is suffering from terminal diseases are often faced with great deal of pain as the diseases gradually
worsens until it kills them and this may be so frightening for them that they would rather end their life than
suffering it. Under Euthanasia, patient is given the option to decide about his life in consultation with the doctor.
So the question is whether people should be given assistance in killing themselves, or whether they should be
left to suffer the pain cause by terminal illness.
o m
Euthanasia is a complex matter; there are many different types of euthanasia. Euthanasia may be classified
c
according to consent into three types- Voluntary euthanasia, Non-voluntary euthanasia, involuntary euthanasia.
rs .
There is no euthanasia unless the death is intentionally caused by what was done or not done. Thus, some medical
actions often leveled as ‘Passive Euthanasia’ are no form of euthanasia, since intention to take life is lacking. In
case of passive euthanasia the person involved must have made a living will (depicting his will to end life when
he suffers from terminal illness or is in a vegetative state).
Source: http://www.legalservicesindia.com/article/787/Euthanasia-in-India.html
Based on the passage above, answer the following questions.
k e
80.
an
Gargi and Prashant got married in 2010 with the blessing of their family, but the marriage turned out to be quite
r
abusive. Prashant generally tried to physically harm Gargi, and she filed a police complaint many times.
couldn’t
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7CThe
o p
However, the physical violence continued. After one such incident, Gargi attempted to commit suicide but
succeed and was saved by her neighbor. Attempting to commit suicide is a punishable offense in India.
same charges were brought against Gargi. Can Gargi use euthanasia as a defense, considering she was not
tr-5N(c)
7L3QGargi
1P
0M9R7Ocomplained
T
living a life with dignity despite numerous complaints?
(a) Gargi’s right to life with dignity is violated; she can definitely take the defense of right to die, which is also
included in right to life.
(b) Gargi cannot take the defense of right to die; it is not included in right to life.
numerous times, but no action was taken in her favor. Therefore, she decided to end her
life with her own consent, which is the principle of euthanasia.
(d) Gargi cannot take the defense of euthanasia as it has not been legally allowed and committing suicide is a
punishable offence according to law.
81. Chetan was a regular college student and looked good as well. One day, he ate some junk food which slowly and
steadily started affecting his health. After a month, it started affecting his skin. The people around him started
teasing him and also started maintaining distance from him, thinking the allergy is contagious and will affect
them too. He was isolated, and even his family maintained distance from him. Chetan went to the doctor and
gave his consent to end his life. After reading the passage, can the doctor end his life assuming euthanasia is
allowed in India? Mark the correct option.
Yes, 9R7O1P was suffering a lot of mental pain, and it’s relieving to end life. The doctor should grant him
3Q0MChetan
tr-(a)
5N7L
euthanasia.
(b) No euthanasia cannot be grant in this case as doctor has complete discretion.
(c) Chetan was not living a life with dignity, as everybody has maintained a distance from him, which is violating
his right to live with dignity, making him eligible for euthanasia.
(d) The requirements for euthanasia has not been fulfilled and therefore, doctor cannot grant him euthanasia.
82. Ram was attacked by a virus of tuberculosis, resulting in his body becoming paralyzed, and consequently, he
lost all movement. Doctors tried various medicines and injections to cure him, but nothing worked. The treatment
continued for 6 months, but his health kept deteriorating day by day. Finally, the doctor informed his parents
that there was no hope left, and further medical treatment might not benefit him. Unable to bear the pain their
child was suffering, can his parents demand euthanasia for Ram?
(a) No his parents cannot demand euthanasia for Ram as he was not suffering from any kind of physical pain.
(b) Yes, the doctor have given their opinion that the treatment won’t benefit him. Ram’s parent can demand
euthanasia for him.
(c) Ram’s parents cannot demand for euthanasia as the consent for the same must be of Ram and not of his
parents.
(d) Passive euthanasia can be granted to Ram on his parent’s request.
83. As per your understanding of the passage, what is the core reason for allowing euthanasia?
healthcare and future.
c o m
(a) Adults have the autonomy to refuse medical treatment, enabling them to make choices regarding their
(b) To provide recognition to the concept of euthanasia in India.

(c) To enhance the experience of dying for all adults.
rs .
(d) To prevent misuse of medical technology on patients who have been forced into a vegetative state.
84.
k e
As per the passage, which of the following conditions must be satisfied to allow passive euthanasia?
I. The patient must be terminally ill or in a persistent vegetative state.
n
II. The patient clearly states in his living will to stop medication if he is in such a state.
a
III. There must be a legislation allowing passive euthanasia.
r
IV. Euthanasia is illegal killing of person, should not be legalised in India.
(a) None of I, II or III
(c) I and
tr-5K7C3J0G9E
II
7G1K
o p (b) I, II and II
(d) II and III
tr-5N7L3Q0M
9R7O1P
T
9R7O1P
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SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.85-Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Many primates live in an organized troop in which all ages and both sexes are included,
and in which members always move compactly together as a stable social unit. There is a ranking hierarchy
among troop males, although the strictness with which the hierarchy is enforced varies. The ranking relationship
is recognized among them and the hierarchy functions to ameliorate conflict. The highest-ranking male or males
defend, control, and lead the troop; the strong social bond among members and their safety is maintained.
On the other hand, chimpanzees lack a stable social troop. Even members of a regional population, who are
acquainted with each other, rarely move en-masse but move in temporarily formed parties that usually consist
behavioral communication.
c o m
of less than ten animals. Such parties maintain associative and friendly contact through their rich vocal and
rs .
Chimpanzee society ensures the free and independent movement of each individual based on highly developed
individuality without the restriction of either territoriality or hierarchy. A chimpanzee enjoys the benefits of
group life in that it can avoid the enemy and find fruits with less effort. Although there is a loose dominant and
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subordinate relationship among individuals, chimpanzees are rarely placed under the restraint of the ranking
hierarchy. The rigidly organized troop characteristic of most primates must be an adaptation for avoiding
enemies like man and carnivores and for defence against these enemies. In this context, a group of
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monkeys is more likely to survive than a single individual.
The group provides a social mechanism for survival. Females and young monkeys, especially a female with a
wide area
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7Canimal
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baby, must be protected by others. As their food, fruits, nuts, leaves, and some kinds of insects, is scattered in a
in the natural habitat, a dominant animal does not control the entire food source, nor does a subordinate
starve when the former is satiated. An important problem in the rigid hierarchical social organization is
T
that each animal must adjust its movements and behaviors to those of the troop. A rigidly organized troop cannot
be maintained when individuals do not subordinate their personal desires for the good of troop unity or solidarity.
The flexible social organization of the chimpanzee may be one resolution of this problem. This kind of social
organization may be one of the original factors raising individuality to the level of personality.
tr-5N7L3Q0M
9R7O1P
Chimpanzees have not rejected group life, but they have rejected individual uniformity and the pressure of a
dominance hierarchy. That a number of experienced big males can serve as leader, appropriately coping with
critical situations, and that followers can appropriately react to a leader’s behaviour, prove that chimpanzee
society is not a simple chaotic gathering but a developed society based on highly developed psychological
processes and individuality. The identity of fellow chimpanzees is formed in the mind of those chimpanzees who
utilize the same range. The size of the regional population must be restricted by the upper limit of members that
an animal can identify and have friendly relations with. Another factor restricting population size must be
environmental conditions, that is, the volume and the distribution of food and shelter and the geophysical
condition of the habitat. The latter may influence the moving pattern, moving range, and the grouping pattern of
each individual and group of individuals. Chimpanzees form regional populations even in continuous habitats
as0M 9R7O1P
tr-such
5N7L3Q those found in the Budongo Forest.
85. That chimpanzees consciously reject uniformity in favor of individuality, implying a level of self-awareness and
societal critique not typically associated with non-human animals. This inference from the passage is
(a) Definitely false (b) Probably true
(c) Probably false (d) Data inadequate
86. Which of the following questions can be answered on the basis of information in the passage?
(a) How do chimpanzees establish dominance within their temporary groups?
(b) How do individual chimpanzees react to critical situations and behavior exhibited by experienced big males
serving as leaders within their groups?
(c) How do individual chimpanzees adjust their movements and behaviors within their temporary groups to
maintain solidarity without a rigid hierarchy?
(d) What are some factors limiting the size of regional chimpanzee populations?
87. The author primarily argues that

(a) The most prominent feature which makes primates different from chimpanzees is the hierarchy in groups
they are a part of.
(b) Chimpanzees live in a group which is not a simple one, but one which is highly developed respecting
individuality.
o m
(c) Chimpanzees are unique creatures as they live in a highly developed social circle which allows proper
uniformity and hierarchy.
c
chimpanzees.
rs .
(d) The social group based on hierarchy, of primates is better than the social group based on individuality, of
88. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
k e
(a) Unlike most primates, chimpanzees are not attacked by predators when found alone.
(b) Unlike most primates, chimpanzees may not subordinate their personal desires for the group.
primates.
(d) All of the above.
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(c) The unique group structure followed by chimpanzees is completely different from the group structure of
a
89.
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7Cenemies like
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The argument “The rigidly organized troop characteristic of most primates must be an adaptation for avoiding
man and carnivores and for defence against these enemies. In this context, a group of monkeys
T
is more likely to survive than a single individual” cannot be true unless which of the following is true?
(a) Predators attack animals that roam in group more than those animals that roam without groups.
(b) An individual primate may definitely be killed if it roamed without its group.
(c) Predators generally don’t attack those preys that move in organized troops.
tr-5N(d) 0M9R7O1P rate of monkeys is more than the survival rate of chimpanzees.
7L3QSurvival
90. The author is likely to agree with each of the following except that
(a) Social circle of many primates serves to maintain group cohesion and ensure safety from predators.
(b) Social circle of chimpanzees is characterized by more fluid movement and less rigid hierarchy.
(c) The food of chimpanzees is scattered in a wide area in the natural habitat and is not controlled by any
dominant animal.
(d) Food availability and habitat conditions can influence the size and grouping patterns of regional populations
among chimpanzees.
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): That the use of Internet shutdowns and arbitrary curbs on free speech on social media
tr-have
5N7L3Q 0M9R7O1P
become a rampant tool for those in power is evident in the manner in which the Bharatiya Janata Party-led
State governments of Haryana and Rajasthan and the Union government have dealt with the farmer protests.
These State governments have used Internet shutdowns arbitrarily, and without adequate cause, using vague
reasons related to the prospective breakdown of law and order and without any actual evidence to implement
such shutdowns, thus failing the proportionality tests laid out in Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India. The Union
government, on the other hand, has used its oft-deployed device of issuing notices to social media companies
such as X to block the accounts of those leading or even supporting the protests without even issuing the reasons
to those who hold these accounts.
In the past, X, when it was known as Twitter, did not accede to all blocking requests unless they ran afoul of its
own rules or were not sufficiently issued with recorded reasons among other considerations. Twitter/X had also
approached the Karnataka High Court to challenge several of the blanket blocking orders that were issued by the
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology during the earlier round of farmer protests in 2020-21. The
High Court had, in a problematic judgment by a single judge, dismissed X’s petition, but later admitted an appeal
by the firm and hearings are under way. Unfortunately, X, ever since Elon Musk’s takeover, has not been
publishing its transparency reports that indicate the number of legal requests made by Indian state agencies to
block, take down content or accounts. By admitting that it has decided to withhold accounts and posts flagged
by the government, even if it disagreed with these actions, X was giving up any recourse for its users affected
by these actions. This is not unexpected; X under Mr. Musk is no longer a thriving platform for free speech
that strives to promote discussion, information-sharing and even critique of governments. It now takes its
cue from the views and business interests of its owner.
o m
But it is even more worrisome that the extant judgment in the Karnataka High Court has given credence to the
c
idea that government authorities enjoy a wide berth in issuing content blocking orders without the need to provide
rs .
notices to the originators of the content or even seeking account-level blocking without valid reasoning. It is
hoped that X’s appeal in the High Court will definitively clarify the rights and obligations of social media
companies over content on its platforms. As for the government, it does not seem to be concerned at all about
k e
what such actions mean to India’s reputation as a free, open and democratic society, a key reason for social
media companies to operate in the country, beyond just the presence of a large consumer base.
91.
r an
The passage discusses that X, under the leadership of Mr. Musk, is no longer a thriving platform for free speech
that strives to promote discussion, information-sharing and even critique of governments.
Answer to which of the following helps evaluate the claim?
(b) How
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7C(c)
o p
(a) Has the government issued notices to X/Twitter to block content/ accounts of the protesters?
many notices were issued to X/Twitter for blocking content/ account of protesters?
What are the ways in which X/Twitter can increase its revenues to keep the company afloat?
92.
tr-5N(b)
7L3QElon Musk's
0M9R7O
T
(d) On how many occasions, X/Twitter succumbed to government notices issued to block content?
Each of the following cannot be inferred from the passage except that
(a) Karnataka High Court judgement on X’s petition was widely accepted and uncontested.
1P takeover of X has significantly improved the platform's promotion of free speech and critique
of governments.
(c) The freedom to speak freely on X has reduced these days as compared to that during earlier years
(d) To improve its financial conditions, Twitter willingly complies with all government requests to block content
or accounts of protesters.
93. The passage suggests that in the past, X did not accede to all blocking requests unless they ran afoul of its own
rules or were not sufficiently issued with recorded reasons among other considerations.
Which of the following doesn’t deserve blocking by X on the request by the government?
(a) The government issues an order for blocking the account of a veteran journalist for criticizing the
government's handling of the Delhi riots and the COVID-19 pandemic.
9R7O1P
3Q0Mgovernment
tr-(b) The
5N7L issues an order for blocking the account of an organization for a tweet seeking support to
help liberate Kashir from India.
(c) The government issues an order for blocking the accounts of Adivasi activists in Chhattisgarh for supporting
Maoist insurgents.
(d) The government issues an order for blocking the account of a cartoonist for his cartoons that showed Pakistan
holding a piece of Kashmir.
94. The statement “X under Mr. Musk is no longer a thriving platform for free speech that strives to promote
discussion, information-sharing and even critique of governments. It now takes its cue from the views and
business interests of its owner” cannot be true unless which of the following is true?
(a) Companies don’t thrive when they encourage criticism of governments they work under.
(b) Elon musk is not in a position to allow free speech, information sharing, and critique of government on X.
(c) One should believe in principles of democracy and should have interests that align with democracy.
(d) Business interests of X are affected when it encourages free speech and information sharing.
95. The author is likely to agree with each of the following except that
(a) Issuing blocking orders on social media accounts without transparent reasoning is a violation of free speech.
(b) It is ethical if Social Media Platforms disclose information on legal requests from government agencies.
(c) A shift in the behavior of social media platforms under new ownership compromises free speech values.
(d) Risks posed to India’s reputation as a democratic and open society are unacceptable.
96. Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?
c o m
(a) Unlike previously, X, under the leadership of Musk, is not steadfast on following the principles of free
speech.
rs .
(b) The content blocking orders issued by the government authorities will be justified when the authorities serve
notices to content originators.
e
(c) X’s appeal on content blocking orders issued by the government is the only ray of hope for the free speech
k
in the country.
(d) The courts must protect free speech and democratic principles in India despite government actions that may
undermine them.
r an
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): Up until December, there were expectations that interest rates in the US, and much of
p
the developed world, would stay higher for longer. However, the US Federal Reserve’s dovish tone in its
December meeting was in sharp contrast to these views. The projections accompanying the Fed meeting indicate
9E7G1K
3J0Gpossibility
tr-5K7Cthe
o
of three rate cuts next year. This surprised the markets. The 10-year US bond yield fell sharply
T
and is currently hovering around 3.9 per cent. In comparison, in its December meeting, the monetary policy
committee did not provide any indication of a policy pivot. Rather, it noted that “policy must continue to be
actively disinflationary to ensure anchoring of inflation expectations and fuller transmission.”
In his statement,
tr-5N7L3Q0M
9R7O1P RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das also reiterated that even as inflation has fallen, “the target of 4
per cent CPI is yet to be reached and we have to stay the course.” However, in an interview to this paper, Jayanth
Varma, member of the monetary policy committee, has said that “we are approaching the point where an interest
rate cut is necessary to prevent an excessive real interest rate.”
He argues that the real interest rate of 2 per cent now is “excessive”, and that a “real rate slightly below 1.5 per
cent is appropriate”. Varma has voted against the MPC maintaining its stance of remaining focused on the
withdrawal of accommodation. Another MPC member, Ashima Goyal, has in the past indicated that a real
interest rate of around 1 per cent is suited for the economy.
Any move to either change the stance of monetary policy or to cut interest rates will depend on the trajectory of
tr-retail
5N7L3Qinflation.
0M9R7O1P If there is a sense of comfort that inflation is nearing the central bank’s target of 4 per cent, then
Varma believes that monetary policy can be “less restrictive”. This opens up the space to cut rates. In its
December meeting, the RBI had projected inflation at 5.6 per cent in the third quarter and 5.2 per cent in the
fourth quarter of this year. For next year, it expects inflation at 5.2 per cent in the first quarter, 4 per cent in the
second quarter and 4.7 per cent in the third quarter. However, there is some uncertainty over this trajectory of
inflation, especially food inflation. While one-off food price shocks can be looked through, monetary policy, as
Das has noted, “has to stay alert to the risk of such shocks becoming generalised and derailing the ongoing
disinflation process”. The actions of the MPC must be guided by the objective of ensuring price stability.
97. Based on the passage, what could be inferred about the relationship between the US Federal Reserve's December
meeting statements and the market's expectations regarding interest rates?
(a) The Fed's dovish stance was expected and aligned with market expectations for prolonged high rates.
(b) The Fed's statements were unexpectedly dovish, leading to a decline in the 10-year US bond yield.
(c) Market expectations were ambiguous, and the Fed's statements provided needed clarity.
(d) The Fed's stance was more aggressive than expected, contradicting market expectations.
98. Based on RBI Governor Shaktikanta Das's statement about the CPI target and the course of monetary policy,
what assumption underlies the RBI's current approach to inflation management?
(a) Inflation rates above 4% are acceptable as long as they show a decreasing trend.
(b) A strict adherence to the 4% CPI target is crucial for economic stability.
(c) Higher interest rates are essential to control inflation above 4% CPI.
99.
(d) Inflation control is secondary to promoting economic growth.
c o m
Given Jayanth Varma's view on the appropriateness of a real interest rate slightly below 1.5 percent, what can
be deduced about his perspective on the current monetary policy stance of the MPC?
(a) He supports a further reduction in interest rates to stimulate economic growth.
(b) He considers the current rate excessive and advocates for a moderate decrease.
rs .
(c) He views the current policy as aligned with optimal economic conditions.
(d) He believes in maintaining the current rate for long-term economic stability.
k e
n
100. In light of the RBI's inflation projections for the upcoming quarters and the current policy stance, what might be
a
a critical factor influencing future decisions on interest rate adjustments?
r
(a) Predicted stability in global economic conditions and trade policies.
(c) Fluctuations
3J0G9E7G1K
tr-5K7C(d)
o p
(b) The trajectory of retail inflation in relation to the 4% target.
in the global oil prices and their impact on the economy.
Changes in employment rates and overall economic productivity.
stated inflation goal?
tr-5N(b)
T
101. Considering the projected inflation rates and the RBI's target, what challenge does the RBI face in achieving its
(a) Balancing the need for economic growth with aggressive inflation control measures.
0M9R7O1P external economic shocks that might affect domestic inflation rates.
7L3QManaging
(c) Addressing the disparity between projected and actual inflation rates.
(d) Ensuring consistent monetary policy amidst political pressures.
102. Given the passage's mention of food inflation and its potential impact, how might unexpected changes in food
prices influence the MPC's future monetary policy decisions?
(a) Prompt an immediate increase in interest rates to curb rising food prices.
(b) Lead to a temporary suspension of inflation targeting to focus on food price stability.
(c) Necessitate a reassessment of the inflation trajectory and potential rate adjustments.
(d) Result in immediate subsidies or financial interventions in the food sector.
9R7O1P
5N7L3Q0M(Q.103-Q.108):
tr-Passage The Union Sports Ministry suspending the newly elected Wrestling Federation of India
(WFI) on Sunday marks yet another twist in the nearly year-long saga afflicting Indian wrestling. In January
2023, Olympic medallists Sakshi Malik and Bajrang Punia, and World Championship medallist Vinesh Phogat,
had accused the then WFI president Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh and the coaches of the Federation of sexual
harassment. The Bharatiya Janata Party parliamentarian was subsequently forced to relinquish control and was
charged by the Delhi police for offences including stalking and harassment. But last Thursday, his long-term
loyalist, Sanjay Singh, was appointed the new president. Not only did Singh and his fellow Brij Bhushan
confidants win 13 of 15 posts to which polls were held, not a single woman was chosen. The sight of Singh
Standing beside a heavily garlanded Brij Bhushan outside the latter’s residence — which also doubled up as the
WFI office — and the duo flashing the victory sign was enough indication of where the control lay. Such was
the disappointment among the wrestlers that a tearful Sakshi announced her retirement while Vinesh warned that
no woman will find wrestling safe in the current set-up. On Friday, Bajrang decided to return his Padma Shri
award in protest.
Perhaps, it is this embarrassing turn of events that forced the government to finally act. The Ministry has also
cited hasty and arbitrary decision-making on Singh’s part, wherein he announced the revival of tournaments
without taking into confidence the Secretary General (Prem Chand Lochab) as mandated by the WFI constitution.
Lochab is one of two WFI office-bearers not considered close to Brij Bhushan. Another reason was the running
of Federation affairs from “the premises controlled by former office-bearers, also the alleged premises wherein
sexual harassment of players has been alleged”. In a nutshell, the mess has laid bare everything that plagues
m
sports administration in India. Even as the nation is diversifying its sporting excellence, the bureaucracy that
o
runs sport still carries the unwelcome legacy of patronage politics. It also does not help that prominent athletes
c
occupying positions of power are mostly deferential to the political masters who helped in their ascent. In the
rs .
wrestlers’ case, the Indian Olympic Association led by the legendary P.T. Usha dithered in its initial response
and the athletes’ commission comprising iconic sportspersons was tongue-tied. Such was Brij Bhushan’s clout
that a first information report was registered only after the intervention of the Chief Justice of India. There is still
k e
room to wipe the slate clean and usher in reforms. The authorities should go the whole hog.
103. What can be inferred as the primary reason for the Union Sports Ministry's decision to suspend the newly elected
Wrestling Federation of India (WFI) leadership?
an
(a) Sanjay Singh's unilateral decision to revive tournaments without consulting the Secretary General.
r
(b) Brij Bhushan Sharan Singh's influence despite allegations of sexual harassment.
(d) Wrestlers'
7G1K
tr-5K7C3J0G9E
p
(c) The failure to elect any women to the WFI leadership positions.
o
protests, including Bajrang Punia returning his Padma Shri award.
tr-5N(c) 0M9R7O1P
7L3QEstablishing
T
104. Based on the passage, which of the following strategies, if implemented, could most effectively address the issue
of lack of female representation in the Wrestling Federation of India's leadership?
(a) Mandatory inclusion of female wrestlers in the decision-making body of the WFI.
(b) Appointment of a female co-president in the Wrestling Federation of India.
a separate women's committee within the WFI to address female concerns.
(d) Implementing gender-neutral selection processes for all WFI leadership positions.
105. How does the appointment of Sanjay Singh as the new president of the WFI contribute to the argument regarding
the persistence of patronage politics in Indian sports administration?
(a) It indicates a shift towards a more transparent and democratic selection process in the WFI.
(b) It exemplifies the continuation of influence by former leadership in the Federation's affairs.
(c) It shows the WFI's commitment to addressing past allegations of misconduct.
(d) It demonstrates a change in policy direction away from previous administrative practices.
106. What is the likely impact of Bajrang Punia's decision to return his Padma Shri award on the public perception of
tr-the 3Q0M9R7O1P
Wrestling
5N7L Federation of India's current situation?
(a) It may be perceived as an act undermining the prestige of the Padma Shri award.
(b) It could enhance public awareness of the internal issues within the WFI.
(c) It might lead to increased governmental scrutiny of the WFI's activities.
(d) It may result in immediate structural changes within the WFI leadership.
107. How does the initial response of the Indian Olympic Association, led by P.T. Usha, to the wrestlers' allegations
reflect on its effectiveness in dealing with crises in sports governance?
(a) It demonstrates a proactive approach in addressing issues of misconduct in sports.
(b) It reveals a tendency to delay action until external pressure is applied.
(c) It shows a strong stand against any form of harassment in sports governance.
(d) It indicates a preference for resolving issues internally within sports bodies.
108. What role does the information about the use of premises controlled by former office-bearers for Federation
affairs play in the overall argument about the challenges in sports administration in India?
(a) It highlights the lack of proper infrastructure for sports bodies in India.
(b) It underscores the deep-rooted issue of nepotism in sports governance.
(c) It illustrates the ongoing influence of former leaders in current sports administration.
(d) It points to the need for more transparency in the financial dealings of sports bodies.
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
tr-5K7C3J0G9E
7G1K
o p
tr-5N7L3Q0M
9R7O1P
T
9R7O1P
tr-5N7L3Q0M
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Directions (Q.109-Q.114): Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
X, Y, and Z started a business together. They each put in some money to start with: X invested Rs. 20000, Y
invested Rs. 25000, and Z invested Rs. 18000. After the first year, X and Y put in more money - X added Rs.
8000 and Y added Rs. 6000, while Z took out Rs. 4000. Then, after another year, they all added more money: X
added 15% of what he initially invested in first year, Y added 20% of what he initially invested in first year, and
Z added one -third of what he initially invested in first year. They agreed that Z would get 30% of the total profit
for his extra effort, and the rest would be divided based on how much they invested. After 3 years, they made a
total profit of Rs. 75820.
109. If we exclude the additional profit earned by Z for his extra efforts, then determine the ratio of the profit shares
m
of X, Y, and Z.
(a) 77: 90: 49 (b) 52: 40: 38 (c) 79: 92: 52 (d) 92: 79: 52
110. How much more is the total profit earned by Z than the profit earned by Y?
.c o
rs
(a) Rs. 14178 (b) Rs. 13226 (c) Rs. 11224 (d) Rs. 12246
e
111. Find the average of the profit shares of X and Y.
(a) Rs. 18237 (b) Rs. 20241 (c) Rs. 17136 (d) Rs. 20349
1
n k
112. If 7th of the total profit earned by X is distributed among his four sons in the ratio of 3:2:5:7, find the amount
a
received by the son who received the second least amount.
(a) Rs. 1106 (b) Rs. 316
p r
(c) Rs. 474 (d) Rs. 790
o
113. Find9Ethe total profit share of Z.
3J0G 7G1K
tr-5K7C(a) Rs. 35122 (b) Rs. 18802 (c) Rs. 12376 (d) Rs. 36074
tr-5N7L3Q0M
9R7O1P
T
114. If Y deposited the total profit earned by him in a bank for 5 years, which offers simple interest at the rate of 10%
p.a., then find the interest earned by him.
(a) Rs. 6188 (b) Rs. 10948 (c) Rs. 9401 (d) Rs. 10336
Directions (Q.115-Q.120): Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
A shopkeeper sells six types of food items viz. Sandwich, Sushi, Donut, Croissant, Muffin, and Samosa. The
ratio of the number of Sandwiches to Muffins sold by the shopkeeper is 3: 4. The number of Donuts sold by the
shopkeeper is 30 more than that of Sushi. The sum of the number of Croissants and Samosas sold by the
shopkeeper is 180. The number of Muffins sold by the shopkeeper is double that of Samosas. The average
number of Donuts, Croissants, and Muffins sold by the shopkeeper is 160. The total number of items sold by the
shopkeeper is 855.
115. What is the ratio of the number of Donuts to Croissants sold by the shopkeeper?
(a) 19: 11 (b) 23: 11 (c) 18: 17 (d) 23: 17
9R7O1P
tr-5N7L3Q0M
116. The number of donuts sold by the shopkeeper is what percent more than the number of sushi sold by the
shopkeeper?
(a) 15 % (b) 20 % (c) 30 % (d) 10 %
117. What is the difference between the number of Sandwiches and Muffins sold by the shopkeeper?
(a) 45 (b) 25 (c) 35 (d) 40
118. If the price of each Sushi is Rs. 150 and the price of each Donut is Rs. 120, calculate the difference in total
revenue generated by the shopkeeper from selling Sushi and Donuts.
(a) Rs. 4500 (b) Rs. 2400 (c) Rs. 4000 (d) Rs. 3600
119. Which of the following items sold by the shopkeeper is the minimum?
(a) Muffin (b) Sandwich (c) Donut (d) Samosa
120. Which of the following items sold by the shopkeeper is the second highest?
(a) Muffin (b) Sushi (c) Donut (d) Samosa
c o m
rs .
k e
r an
tr-5K7C3J0G9E
7G1K
o p
tr-5N7L3Q0M
9R7O1P
T
9R7O1P
tr-5N7L3Q0M

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LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25

Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes)

c o m Maximum Marks : 120

Subject Q. No. Page No.

covers most continents, except Antarctica.

2. Which of these is not a major Uranium producing country in the world?

12. Which of these weakens the chief premises of the passage?

people face ever-increasing levels of authoritarianism.

Passage (Q.25-Q.30): Democracy Report 2024

What has been redacted by [X] in this passage?

28. Consider the following statements:

Passage (Q.31-Q.36): One Nation One Election

report? Let us take a look.

Legislative Assemblies be held in the first phase.

31. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage?

Consider the following statements about the simultaneous Elections:

Passage (Q.37-Q.42): Joint Exercise 'Bharat-Shakti'

What has been redacted by [X] in this passage?

38. The Indian Air Force was officially established on________.

39. Consider the following statements:

Passage (Q.43-Q.48): World Consumer Rights Day

43. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage?

44. consider the following statements:

Passage (Q.49-Q.52): National Youth Parliament Festival, 2024

49. What has been redacted by [X] in this passage?

56. Taj Hotels9RLtd

genuine respect and affection for one another is legal.

X without paying the amount.

performs an act freely for the promisor.

healthcare and future.

(b) To provide recognition to the concept of euthanasia in India.

87. The author primarily argues that

88. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

96. Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?

stated inflation goal?

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