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PJ-U-CXJ/76D
2. 1.
4. 3 2 1
Which
for (c) (a) below.
givenSelect 4. 3. 1.
hepatitis
2.(PEG-1FN)? Which
correct
(d) (c) (b) (a) below.
givenSelect syndrome? (d) (b)
Rasburicase
Intravenous
fluids 1 2 1, 1, PEG-IFN
week cirrhosis.
PEG-IFN
analogues. N
Resistance PEG-IFN
IFcompared
2, 1, 1, 1, Febuxostat alkalinization
Urinary
management of the of
the and and 2 3
3 3 2 2 the for
and and correct is
and and and and correct 4 for B the
following 3 common the
4 4 4 3 only 3 4 is with
administered
every
48 is
not to is following
to poorly
answer answer weeks. nucleoside treatment
of useful trcatment pegylated
are than tolerated
using tumour using statements
recommended in
analogues.
patientsnucleoside with of
the the interferon
drug chronic
code lysis code PEG
of as are

5. Typical 4. 3.
(d) (c) (b) ischemic
2 stroke?
1.
Which
indications less(d) 3 2 1 Focal
givenSelect
(a) below. 4. 3. (c) charaçterized
(b) (a) by (d) (c) (b) (a) below.
givenSelect which
2, 1, 1, MI
Recentinjury
head convulsants
seizures
absence
atypical multifocal
brainpostictal
ofdischarges
EEGabrupt
on 1, 2 1 Jacksonian
paralysis
1, Hypertension
the GI Recent Epilepsia
continua
partialis
the
Todd's march seizures
3 3 2 2 bleeding of and 1 and and of
and and and and correct and 2
the absence the
toresponsiveness 3 3 3 2 correct
4 4 4 3 confusion Hz 3only only only
thrombolysis
following structural following? may
answer in answer
> as spike-and-slow
last
150/100 be
3 seizures
using compared in associated
weeks are abnormalities using
children
to
the mm in
the
code Hg acutecontra anti wave are code with
to
PJ-U-CXJ/76D 6.
7.
Which
to (d) (c) (b) (a) studies? axonal
electrophysiological
demyelination onWhich
Acamprosate
Azathioprine(a) Atropine(c) (b)
Apomorphine cravingfor
(a) alcohol?
maintain Temporal
demyelination.
segmnental in demyelination.
in segmental axonaldemyelination.
Conduction degeneration
segmental Distal
axonaldemyelination.
segmental
Conduction
one one
axonal degeneration
of latency of
degeneration degeneration the
abstinence the degeneration dispersion
block velocity following
following
drugs
helps and is
normal from
is and prolonged distinguishes
by is and is
and
prominent present normal in segmental
absent slow
reducing
absent axonal
in in in in in
3

11. 10. Imatinib, 9. 8.

Which Helicobacter Cysteine Tyrosine
kinase(dLeucine
) kinase kinase
(a)
enzymes?
following
(c) kinase(b)Alanine
The
action?
(a)
) duration
Degludec(d) NPH(c) Detemir
(bpreparationsof (d) lymphoma
Hodgkin's(b)
Burkitt's
(c) lymphoma (a) the with antibodies
Bivalent
(d) (b)
(c) Interferons Ponatinib
(a) drugs? constitutive
Glargine Mucosa-associated
Adult
lymphoma following the Tyrosine Monovalent BCR-ABL
one
development are
Dasatinib,
T-cell pylori activity
has of lymphoid kinase examples
1
the
leukemia/lymphoma infection antibodies oncoprotein
the of
inhibitors
following of of
Nilotinib
which
longest lymphoid malignancies?
which is which
associated one
effective class exhibits
P.T.0. [ insulin tissue one of
and
of the
of
 12. Functioning pituitary adenoma most (c) Their glucose-lowering effect is
commonly arises from which one of the dependent on insulin secretion and
following cells? insulin sensitivity.
(a) Somatotroph
(b) Lactotroph (d) Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis
may occur during treatment if
(c) Corticotroph there is a concurrent illness.
(a) Thyrotroph
16. A 50-year lady, who is a known case
13. Low serum
11)
thyroglobulin levels are seen of rheumatoid arthritis, presents with
obesity, moon facies, abdominal
(a) thyrotoxicosis factitia striae and hypertension. Overnight

b) subacute thyroiditis dexamethasone suppression test

shows serum cortisol is greater than
(c) Graves' disease 50 nmol/ L, serum ACTH is less than
(d) toxic multinodular goitre 1·1 pmol/ L. The adrenal imaging and
brain CT/MRI imaging studies are
14. A 45-year-oldmale presented with unremarkable. The likely diagnosis is
polyuria, polydipsia and polyphagia for (a) Cushing's disease
the last 3 months. His fasting
plasma
glucose is 106 mg/dL and random (b) ectopic ACTH-secreting tumour
blood glucose is 220 mg/dL. Which one
of the following (c) exogenous glucocorticoid use
statements is correct
regarding his diagnosis? (d) adrenal adenoma
(a) He has impaired glucose
(IGT).
tolerance
17. A 27-year lady underwent thyroidectomy
(b) He has definitive for thyroid
diagnosis of carcinoma. Post-operatively
diabetes mellitus. she started developing muscle
(c) He does not have diabetes cramps,
perioral and peripheral paresthe
mellitus.
(d) Diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is and carpopedal spasm. Which one sia.,of
the following
indeterminate as HbAlc value is interventions
appropriate for this patient?
will be
not provided.
(a) Nerve conduction velocity in
15. Which one of the both
following statements upper and lower limbs and to
is true regarding the use of SGLT2 administer methylcobalamin
inhibitor in management of diabetes
mellitus? (b) EMG of both lower limbs
and to
(a) They are used in type- 1, type-2 and administer oral prednisolone
pancreatogenic forms of diabetes (c) Measure of serum ionized calcium
mellitus. and to administer IV
calcium
(b) They cause increase in blood gluconate
pressure by 3-6 mm Hg and hence
avoided in hypertensive patients. (d) Measure of serum
to administer IV bicarbonate and
bicarbonate
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 4
 18. Which one of the following is an
example
of hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?
21. Which of the following drugs is/are
useful in the treatment of Listera
(a) Kallmann's syndrome morocytogenes infectíon?
1
(b) Klinefelter's syndrome Ceftriaxone
2 Gentamicin
(c) Turner's syndrome 3 Ampicillin
(d) Cryptorchidism 4
Sulfamethoxazole
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
19. A tall thin adolescent boy is found to
have gynaecomastia and small testes. (a) 1only
His blood testosterone level is (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
undetectable, and serum FSH and LH
levels are elevated. Which one of the (c) 1 and 2 only
following is the likely karyotype pattern? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(a) 46 XY 22. Which of the following abnormalities

(b) 45 XO occur from vitamin D deficiency in
children?
(c) 47 XXY 1 Craniotabes
(d) 21 Trisomy 2 Bossing of frontal and parietal
bones

20. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs

3. Muscle hypotonia
4. Shrinking of epiphysis at the lower
may cause weight gain? end of radius
1. Glimepiride Select the corTect answer using the code
2. Pioglitazone given below.
3. NPH insulin (a) 1, 2 and 3
4. Sitagliptin (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code (d) 2, 3 and 4
given below.
23. Which one of the following is a cause of
(a) 1, 2 and 3 relative erythrocytosis?
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (a) High altitude

(c) 1, 3 and 4
(b) Cardiore spiratory disease
(c) High-affinity haemoglobins
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Diuretics

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 5 |P.T.O.
24. Which of the following statements are 26. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding UTI? correct regarding Kyasanur forest
1. disease?
Urine is anexcellent culture
medium for bacteria. 1 It is commonly seen in North
Eastern States of India.
2. Atrophic urethritis in post
menopausal women is a risk factor. 2 Monkeys act as reservoir of the
3. Antibiotics are recommended in all disease.

cases of asymptomatic bacteriuria. 3 Transmission happens through

tick bite.
4. Certain strains of E. coli have a
particular propensity to invade 4. Inactivated vaccine is available for
urinary tract. its prevention.

Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.

(a) 1 and 4 only (a) 1and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

27. Which of the following statements are

25. Which of the following statements are
correct regarding brucellosis?
correct regarding scorpion stings?
1. Fever may develop into an
1 Scorpion injects venom from a
stinger on their tail. undulating pattern that persists
for weeks.
2 Most stings are painful, but 2. Associated musculoskeletal synp
relatively harmless.
toms are a feature of the disease.
3. Anticholinergics can be used if 3. Brucellae behave as facultative
antivenom is unavailable.
intracellular parasites.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1and 3 only (c) 1and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 6
 28. A 60-year-old diabetic female presents
with acute myocardial infarction. ECG
changes include ST elevation greater
than 1 mm in lead aVR. The likely
localization of thrombosis is in
(a) right coronary artery
(b) distal LAD
(c) left circumflex artery
(d) left main or proximal LAD
29. Which one of the following antidiabetic
drugs is recommended for weight loss in
obese patients?
(a) Glimepiride
(b) Liraglutide
(c) Sitagliptin
(d) Insulin
31. Thickened ventricular wall with normal
diastolic function is a feature of
(a) hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
(b) restrictive cardiomyopathy
(c) endomyocardial fibrosis
(d) athlete's heart
32. In which of the following cases does
paradoxical splitting occur?
1 Severe aortic stenosis
2. Right bundle branch block
3. Right ventricular pacing
4. Hypertrophic obstructive cardio
myopathy
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
30. Consider the following statements
(b) 1, 2 and 4
regarding inflammatory bowel disease :
1. Ulcerative colitis (UC) involves (c) 1, 3 and 4
terminal ileumn and rarely causes (d) 2, 3 and 4
proctitis.
2. Cobblestone appearance of bowel is 33. A patient with peripheral edema has
seen in Crohn's disease. the following findings On clinical
examination :
3. Skip lesions are a characteristic of
ulcerative colitis but never seen in A soft systolic murmur at the lower
Crohn's disease. left sternal border with raised JVP
4. Ulcerative colitis is more common showing prominent C-V wave. The
in smokers than non-smokers. murmur increases in intensity on
deep inspiration
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct? The most likely valvular abnormality is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (a) ventricular septal defect
(b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) mitral regurgitation
(c) 3 and 4 only (c) tricuspid regurgitation
(d) 2 only (d) mitral valve prolapse

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 7 [P.T.0.
34. Kussmaul's sign is a clinical feature of 38. Osborn waves in ECG show prolonged
repolarization with a distinctive convex
(a) constrictive pericarditis
elevation of the J point. These waves
(b) hypertrophic obstructive are associated with
cardiomyopathy (a) systemic hypothermia
(c) anteroseptal myocardial infarction (b) acute pericarditis
(d) dilated cardiomyopathy (c) acute myocarditis
(d) Brugada syndrome
35. A patient has a cardiac murmur that is
best heard at the right second
39. A decline in total lung capacity to less
intercostal space. It increases with than 80% of patient's predictive value is
expiration. Also, the murmur reduces in an indication of
intensity during sustained handgrip but
increases in intensity on inhalation of (a) restrictive lung disease
amyl nitrite. The likely lesion is (b) obstructive lung disease
(a) ventricular septal defect (c) pulmonary artery hypertension
(b) aortic stenosis (d) pulmonary embolism
(c) hypertrophic obstructive cardio
myopathy 40. A 28-year male is suspected of having
(d) mitral regurgitation
hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyo
pathy (HOCM). Which of the following
statements are likely to be true on his
36. In the modified Duke criteria for infective examination?
endocarditis, which one of the following 1. Maneuvers that decrease LV
is not a major criterion? preload will cause the murmur to
(a) New partial dehiscence of intensify.
prosthetic valve 2. Maneuvers that decrease LV
(b) Positive blood culture afterload will cause decrease in
intensity of murmur.
(c) Roth's spots
3. Murmur of HOCM becomes softer
(d) New valvular regurgitation with passive leg raising.
4. Murmur of HOCM becomes louder
37. Which one of the following diseases with squatting.
affects predominantly large arteries? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) Granulomatosis with polyangiitis given below.
(b) Polyarteritis nodosa (a) 1 and 3
(c) Giant cell arteritis (b) 2 and 3
(d) Eosinophilic granulomatosis with (c) 2 and 4
polyangitis (d) 1and 4

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D
41. The Duffy antigen
systemn serves as 44. Which one of the following correctly
receptor for which one of the following describes the mode of inheritance of
protozoal parasites?
haemophilia B?
(a) Giaria lamblia
(a) Autosomal dominant
(b) Plasmodum vivax
(c) Entamoeba histolytica (b) Autosomal recessive
(d) Balantidium coli (c) X-linked dominant
(d) X-linked recessive
42. With regard to transfusion therapy,
cryoprecipitate is a rich source of which
of the following? 45. Which one of the following conditions
1 Fibrinogen characteristically may present with a
triad of haemolysis, pancytopenia and
2. Clotting factor VII venous thrombosis?
3 Clotting factor IX (a) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydro
4. von Willebrand factor genase deficiency
Select the correct answer using the code (b) Hereditary spherocytosis
given below.
(c) Haemolytic uremic syndrome
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobi
(b) 1, 2 and 4 nuria
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4 46. Which one of the following is associated
with low MCV of red blood cells?
43. Which of the following viruses can be
transmitted via transfusion of infected (a) Thalassemia
blood? (b) Vitamin B12 deficiency anaemia
1. Hepatitis B virus (c) Folate deficiency anaemia
2. Hepatitis C virus
(d) Sickle cell anaemia
3. Human immunodeficiency virus
4. Parvovirus B19
47. GnRH deficiency with hyposmia is
Select the correct answer using the code typically seen in
given below.
(a) Kallmann syndrome
(a) 1and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) Bardet-Biedl syndrome

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Prader-Willi syndrome

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) Wallenberg syndrome

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 9 | P.T.0.
 for attainment of
48. lodine has complex effects on thyroid 51. The upper limit of age
function. Very high concentrations of visual fixation or following is
iodine inhibit thyroid hormone (a) birth
synthesis and release. This effect is
known as (b) 1month
(c) 2 months
(a) Wolff-Chaikoff effect
(b) Jod-Basedow effect (d) 3 months
(c) reverse Wolff-Chaikoff effect
52. A child develops 'stranger anxiety' at
(a) reverse Jod-Basedow effect
(a) 2-3 months
49. Consider the following pharmacological (b) 4-5 months
agents: (c) 6-7 months
1. Propranolol (d) 8-9 months
2 Sodium ipodate
3 Propylthiouracil 53. Consider the following statements with
respect to developmental milestones at
4. Liothyronine
9 months of age :
Which of the above can be used for the At this age, child develops
1.
treatment of thyrotoxic crisis? immature pincer grasp.
(a) 3 only 2 At this age, child can say
(b) 1and 2 only bisyllables (mama, dada, etc..
(c) 1, 2 and 3 3. At this age, child can wave bye-bye.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
50. Consider the following pharmacological
(a) 1 and 2 only
agents :
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Liothyronine
2 Levothyroxine (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3 Carbimazole
4 Sodium ipodate
54. What are the upper age limits by which a
Which of the above may be included in child should start walking alone, and be
the treatment of myxoedema coma? able to speak single words?
(a) 1 only (a) 12 months, 15 months respectively
(b) 1and 2 (b) 15 months, 18 months respectively
(c) 2 and 3 (c) 15 months, 15 months respectively
(d) 3 and 4 (d) 18 months, 18 monthsrespectively

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 10
55. A child presents to the
emergency 58. Which one of the following can be used
following ingestion of around 20 mL of for developmental screening for use
kerosene oil about 40 minutes back. in community to identify children
The child appears stable. Which one of
the following measures should be done
(aged 0+6 years) with developmental
delay?
for the management of the child?
(a) Revised Denver Development
(a) Gastric lavage Screening Test (Denver II)
(b) Oxygen therapy (b) Ages and Stages Questionnaire
(c) Intravenous steroids
(ASQ-3)
(c) Phatak's Baroda Development
(a) Radiography
Screening Test
(d) Trivandrum Development
56. The event related to vaccination which Screening Chart
can be contraindication for the next
vaccination of similar/identical type is 59. According to the WHO clinical criteria,
(a) syncope following MMR vaccine which of the following clinical signs
are indicative of 'severe pneumonia or
(b) encephalopathy following DPT very severe disease' in children aged
vaccine
2months to 5 years?
(c) abscess at injection site after DPT 1. Convulsions
vaccine
2. Lower chest indrawing
(d) gastroenteritis following MMR
vaccine
3. Inability to feed
4. Stridor

57. Which of the following events could be Select the correct answer using the code
caused or precipitated by an active given below.
component of vaccine? (a) 1, 2 and 3
1. Anaphylaxis after measles vaccine (b) 1, 2 and 4
2 Encephalopathy after DPT vaccine (c) 1, 3and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
3 Adenitis following BCG vaccine
4. Gastroenteritis following MMR 60. An eleven-month-old unimmunized
vaccine child comes for immunization. Which
vaccines should be given in this visit?
Select the correct answer using the code
given below. (a) BCG, OPV, DPT and Hepatitis B
vaccines
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) OPV, DPT and MR vaccines only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) BCG, DPT and MR vaccines
(c) 1, 3and 4 (d) OPV, DPT, MR and Hepatitis B
(d) 2, 3 and 4 vaccines

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 11 |P.T.0.
 following statements is
61. Which of the following statements are 63. Which one of the to peptic ulcer
correct with regard to anorexia nervosa? correct with regard
prophylaxis?
1. The illness is often precipitated by
ulceration during clinical
weight loss. (a) Stress
illness is uncommon.
2. Food avoidance is common.

3 Body image is intact and there is no (b) Ulcer prophylaxis should be

continued once absorption of
fear of weight gain.
established.
Downy hair (lanugo) may develop enteral feed is
4
on back, forearms and cheeks.
inhibitors (PPls) are
(c) Proton-pump incidence
Select the correct answer using the code effective at reducing the
given below. of ulceration.

with antibiotics
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) PPls when used of
may decrease the risk
(b) 1, 2 and 4 Clostridium ifficile infection.

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(a) 2, 3 and 4 64. Which of the following are the features of

post-lumbar puncture headache?

1 Dull aching occipitofrontal

62. Which of the following are adverse effects headache
of loop-acting and thiazide diuretics?
2 Worse on waking but improves
1. Metabolic acidosis
during the day
2. Hypovolemia Recumbency usually improves the
3
3. Hyponatremia headache within minutes

4. Hypokalaemia Select the correct answer using the code

given below.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3only
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1and 3only
(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 12
65. Which of the following are correct 67. Which of the following are the five
with regard to alpha-1-antitrypsin essential components of nurturing care?
deficiency?
1. Health
1. Prolonged jaundice in neonatal 2
period Nutrition

2 Pulmonary emphysema in
3. Breastfeeding
adulthood 4 Responsive caregiving
3. Panniculitis is seen rarely 5 Early learning
4 Autosomal dominant disorder 6. Immunization

Select the correct answer using the code

7 Safety and security
given below. 8 Supplementation

(a) 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code

given below.
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7
(c) 1, 3and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4, 6, 7 and 8

66. Which of the following drugs can cause (d) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 8

granulomatous liver injury?

1. Carbamazepine 68. A full-term baby born with birth weight of

2. Allopurinol 2000 g comes for well-baby visit at two
months of age. Which of the following
3. Diltiazem nutritional supplements would you
advise?
4. Acetaminophen
(a) Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to
Select the correct answer using the code 3months of age
given below.
(b) Vitamin D orally 200 IU/day up to
(a) 1, 2and 3 1year of age

(b) 1, 2 and 4 (c) Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to

3 months of age
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) Iron orally 2 mg/kg/day up to
(d) 2, 3and 4 1year of age

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 13 [P.T.0.
 69.
CXJ/76D 70.
3
Which
Which (d) (c) (b) (a) below. Hypothermia
givenSelect Hypoglycemia problems
1. growth
2. gestation?
(d) (c) (b) correct
(a) growth?
1, 2 1 Hypocalcemia
weekslife.birth
of
Weight firstBirth days of
age.Birth weight
life. Weight
one and 1 and and the of
regarding 2 restriction
week of and correct inthe
weight 3 3 2
weight weight inloss the only only babies
loss 3 only following
of the
may following answer
life. is a
inmay is initial delivered with
regained be normal
the be regained &-10% using are
two statements intrauterine
initial
12-15%
two of newborn's the common
at
by weeks of
within 7-10 birth code term
of is
14

Which72. 71. A
74. 73.
The The Janeway's
(Glomerulonephritis
b) (a) after lesions Osler'
(d) (cRoth's (b) nodes(a) in (d) (c)
examination
)inspiration.murmur
(b) (afollowing On
with BP: smoker,
(d) (c) follow-up
(a)
(b) anti-H. residual
volume
capacity
vital
(d) (c) ) spotsmanifestation
volume modified 56-year
functional YVwave
accentuated.
V Cwave V
serology stool rapid ureainvestigation expiratory a One descent wave wave
examination,
murmur 112/70
pylori normal
statements ispresented
H. breath
urease in of Duke is is of
forpylori air of of and and showing mmn male,
drugs residualexpiration
residual
is attenuated JVP Which
getting
treatedfor remaining vascular the blunted.
criteria? C
attenuated.
H. test test patients of C
wave pulse
Hg with
antigen in
pylori is wave is one and
choice following him? Carvallo'
capacityvolume merge. and
s a chronic
true louderbreathlessness.:
test
is in phenomenon merge 96/minute,
for
called the V regarding
pansystolic
of on
is wave heavy
early lungs and the
deep sign
a is
-CXJ/76D
77. 76. 75.

The 4. 3 Which The

(d) (c) hypovolemic
septic
shock(b) (a) severe (d) (c) (b) Select
given
(a) below. infection?
2. 1 for stomach
liver (c) (b) distribution
(d) ovaries (a) tumour
syndrome is in
SIRS most most
pancreatic
cardiogenic
abdominal necrosis space
third
loss 2, 1, 1, 1, transmission
Vertical
Sharing transmission
Faeco-oral
Intravenous
abuse
drug the duodenum
the of
acute 3 2 2 the
3 common
common and and and and correct acquisition
following
pancreatitis 4 toothbrush
razors
and
4 4 3
compartment
shock resulting
infected
from resulting
shock
from answer non-pancreatic
cause
are
of Zollinger-Ellison
resulting using
codethe the
(SAP) of hepatitis risk
syndromne shock
is factors site
from
in for
C
15

14-year80. A 79. 78.

4. diarrhoea is
The The
(d) (c) (b) Select
(a) below.
given 3. 2. diagnostic
workup? Which
1.suspected
physician anti-HBc
HBeAg anti-HBsAb
IgM(c) IgG(b) (a)window'
(d) anti-HBc Enterococcus
Streptococcus
viridans sp.(b) coli(a)
(d) Escherichia
(c) spontaneous
2, 1, 1, 1, lymphocytes
Absencepropria
Increased
smallintestinal
in biopsy on
antibody
inAbsence Presence serologic
Staphylococcus
aureus most
3 3 2 2 answer
correct
the of
and and and and the period common
following and boy marker
4 4 4 3 of of bacterial
tTG of of
reduced came

antibody IgA malnutrition. hepatitis causative

intestine
biopsy are detectable
disease.
celiac peritonitis
usingthe antiendomysial
height chronic
with
correct
in B
infection agent
[P.T.0. serum lamina
of during
in is
code villi The
his for
 destroys hypnozoites of
81. Which of the following statements is/are 83. Primaquine
Plasmodium vivax for radical cure in
correct for obesity?
which one of the following?
1. Adiponectin levels are reduced in (a) Liver
obesity. (b) Peripheral blood
Oristat is a reversible inhibitor of
(c) Brain
lipase used for the treatment of
(d) Bone marrow
obesity.
3. Liraglutide used for T2DM
84. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder
management can cause weight gain (HAND) includes which of the following?
and not recommended in obese
patients with T2DM. 1. Asymptomatic neurocognitive
disorder
4 Bariatric surgery is recommended Minor neurocognitive disorder
in obese patients with BMI 2.

> 30 kg/m² for long-term benefits. 3. HIV-associated dementia

Select the correct answer using the code

Select the correct answer using the code
given below. given below.
(a) 1and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 only
85. Consider the following statements with
regard to cysticercosis :
82. Which of the following drugs are effective 1. It may present as personality
in preventing uric acid nephropathy in change.
patients receiving chemotherapy? 2 Subcutaneous nodule may be
1. Probenecid excised for histology.
2 Forced saline diuresis 3. Cerebral signs commonly do not
Occur until the larvae die,
3 Rasburicase
5-20 years later.
4 Acetazolamide
4 Praziquantel can be given for
Select the correct answer using the code 10 days.
given below.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 16
 86. Consider the following statements with 88. Consider the following statements with
regard to strongyloidiasis :
regard to giardiasis :
1 Itparasitizes the mucosa of upper 1 Stools should be examined for
part of small intestine. cysts at 2-3 days interval for its
2 Larva currens diagnosis.
transient rash
fast-moving
seen 2
acrosS Colonoscopy aspirate gives the
abdomen and buttocks. highest diagnostic yield.
3 Ivermectin 1S not an effective 3 Infection usually 0Ccurs by
treatment. ingesting contaminated water.
4. Systematic strongyloidiasis is seen 4 Giardia has a flagellate trophozoite
in form.
immune competent state.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1and 3 only
(a) 1and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 89. Type-2 necrotizing fasciitis is caused by
(a) Group A Streptococcus
87. Consider the following statements with (b) Vibrio vulnificus
regard to cutaneous larva migrans : (c) Clostridium septicum
1. It is one of the commonest linear (d) Staphylococcus aureus
lesions seen in travellers.
2.
90. Which of the following treatments for a
It may be associated with a recent
visit to a beach.
pregnant lady who has been exposed to
a patient of chicken pox are correct?
3. It is non-pruritic. 1 Varicella-20ster immune globulin
4 Track moves across the skin at a 2 Varicella-z0ster vaccine
rate of 2-3 cm/day.
3. Acyclovir
Which of the statements given above are 4. Prednisolone
correct?
Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 and 3
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 17 |P.T.0.
 causes
the following genetic autism
of associated with
95. Whichcommonly
assessment of a baby, are
91. For developmental by offering the
spectrum disorders?
grasp is best assessed Angelman syndrome
child 1.
Fragile X syndrome
(a) a red ring 2
Tuberous sclerosis
3
(b) a red cube Williams syndrome
4.
(c) red pellets answer using the code
Select the correct
(d) multicoloured pellets given below.

for (a) 1, 2 and 3

alkalinization as a method
92. Urinary (b) 1,2 and 4
enhancing excretion for poisoning is
aimed at achieving (c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) serum pH
7:5-8 (d) 2, 3 and 4
defccts
(b) urine pH
75-8
risk of neural tube
96. To reduce the of the following are
(c) serum pH > 8 in the baby, which
recommended?
(d) urine pH > 8
one
Folate supplements, from
(a) conception to three
month before
transfusion as a method to months after
93. Exchange poison is indicated
enhance excretion of from confir
(b) Folate supplements, the end of
in mation of pregnancy to
first trimester
(a) methemoglobinemia
from one month
(b) carbama|epine poisoning (c) Zinc supplements, months
before conception to three
(c) theophylline poisoning after
confirna
(d) barbiturate poisoning (d) Zinc supplements, from end of first
tion of pregnancy to the
trimester
acute poisoning
94. In case of a child with an
charcoal may be
by ingestion, activated following 97. Vaccine-associated poliomyelitis
used in which one of the chiefly seen with which of the following
situations? strains of oral poliovirus?
(a) Iron ingestion (a) OPV 1only
(b) Antiepileptic ingestion (b) OPV 2

(c) Corrosive ingestion (c) OPV3 only

(d) Both OPV1 and OPV 3
(d) Lithium ingestion

18
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D
 98. Which one of the following is categorized 101. In serological investigation of hepatitis B
as a specific learning disability? virus infection, presence of hepatitis B
e-antigen (HBeAg) is an indicator of
(a) Dysgraphia (a) active replication of virus in the
liver
(b) Dystonia (b) acute liver failure
(c) chronic infection with hepatitis B
virus
(c) Dysthymia (d) inactive carrier phase of infection
(d) Dysphoria 102. Simultaneous infection with hepatitis B
virus (HBV) and hepatitis D virus (HDV)
followed by full recovery is associated
with the appearance of
99. A baby is delivered at 34 weeks' gestation (a) low titres of anti-HDV antibody,
and found to be apneic at birth. IgM type
After performing the initial steps of (b) low titres of anti-HDV antibody,
resuscitation, the baby is still apneic. IgA type
The next step should be (c) high titres of anti-HDV antibody,
IgM type
(a) tactile stimulation (d) high titres of anti-HDV antibody,
IgG type
(b) positive pressure ventilation using
30% oxygen 103. Consider the following statements with
regard to jaundice :
(c) positive pressure ventilation using 1. Presence of scleral icterus indicates
a serum bilirubin level of at least
100% oxygen
3 mg/dL.
(d) chest compression 2. If the examiner suspects scleral
icterus, second site to examine is
underneath the tongue.
3. In long-standing jaundice, skin
100. A child requires detailed developmental may become green due to reduction
evaluation if the developmental quotient of bilirubin to biliverdin.
is below
4 Sclerae have a particular affinity for
bilirubin due to its high elastin
(a) 70% content.

Which of the statements given above are

(b) 75% correct?
(a) 1and 3 only
(c) 80% (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 85% (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 19 [P.T.0.
 primary
the following is the
108. Which one ofmechanism in
104. Carotenoderma, due to ingestion of of haemolysis
excessive amounts of carotene underlying
paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
containing fruits and vegetables, can be
distinguished from jaundice by sparing (PNH)?
of which of the following? (a) AB0 incompatibility
(a) Palms
(b) Soles
(c) Nasolabial folds (b) Red cell fragmentation
(d) Sclerae (c) Complement-mediated destruction
of CD59(- red blood cells
105. Meares-Stamey test is used in which one
of the following clinical conditions? Clostridium
(a) Recurrent urinary tract infection in (d) Exotoxins produced by
perfringens
men

(b) Urinary tract infection in pregnant

Women
a clonal
(c) Complicated cystitis in non 109. Which one of the following is
pregnant women haematopoietic stem cell disorder in
(a) Pelvic inflammatory disease which phenotypically normal red
blood cells, granulocytes and platelets
accumulate in the absence of
106. Which one of the following drugs is
associated with calciphylaxis in chronic recognizable physiological stimulus?
kidney disease patients?
(a) Calcium channel blocker (a) Mastocytosis
(b) Warfarin
(c) Non-calcium-based phosphate (b) Polycythemia vera
binder
(d) Thiazide diuretic (c) Primary myelofibrosis

107. Consider the following pairs : (d) Essential thrombocytosis

Urinary sediments Diagnosis
seen in AKI
1 RBC casts : Malignant hypertension 110. Which of the following insulins has a
2. WBC casts : Pyelonephritis cloudy preparation and requires
3. Pigmented casts: Vasculitis resuspension prior to injection?
4 Granular casts : Myoglobinuria
(a) Lente
How many of the pairs given above are
correctly matched? (b) Glargine
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs (c) Detemir
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs (d) Degludec

SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D 20
111. Which of the following are
physical
typical 113. Which of the following statements are
effusion?
findings in pericardial true about PR interval?
1. It denotes atrial depolarization.
1, Raised JVP 2. Normal duration is 0-12 second
0-20 second.
2.
Hypotension 3. Prolongation denotes impaired AV
3. Oliguria nodal conduction.
4. A short PR interval occurs in WPW
4. Water hammer pulse
syndrome.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4
114. Which one of the following is the drug
of choice for the treatment of
schistosomiasis?
(d) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Doxycycline
(b) Praziquantel
112. Which of the following conditions can (c) Albendazole
produce a third heart sound (S) on (d) Ivermectin
auscultation?
115. Which of the following opportunistic
1. Young age systemic mycoses is characterized by
rapid development of severe tissue
2. Pregnancy necrosis and emerged as specific

3.
complication associated with COVID-19
Left ventricular failure
infection in India?
4. Mitral stenosis (a) Histoplasmosis
(b) Mucormycosis
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Coccidioidomycosis
given below. (d) Sporotrichosis
116. Which of the following fungal infections is
(a) 1, 2 and 3 caused by dermal inoculation of the
fungal agent, usually from a thorn?
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) Mycetoma
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (b) Aspergillosis
(c) Mucormycosis
(d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Sporotrichosis

21
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D (P.T.0.
 is
the following hormones
of contraction
117. Consider the following statements with 119, Which one gallbladder
responsible for duodenum?
regard to coccidioidomycosis : release of bile into
and
1. It is a primary systemic mycosis
caused by dimorphic fungi Cocci
dioides immitis and Coccidioides (a) Secretin
posadasi.
2 Primary pulmonary coccidioido (b) Gastrin
mycosis presents with cough, fever,
chest pain and arthritis. (c) Cholecystokinin
3. Progressive pulmonary coccidioido
mycosis presents with constitu intestinal peptide
(d) Vasoactive
tional symptoms like fever, weight
loss, anorexia and features of lobar
pneumonia. the following statements
120. Consider and
Coccidioides meningitis is a mild radiation enteritis
4 regarding
disease, not warranting any proctocolitis :
treatment. phase
Diarrhoea in the acute
1.
Which of the statements given above are codeine or
should be treated with
correct?
loperamide.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 choice
2. Surgery is the treatment of
(b) 1, 2 and 4 involves resection of the
and
(c) 1, 3and 4 injured intestine.
(d) 2, 3 and 4
3. Sucralfate enemas and hyperbaric
Oxygen are effective treatments.
118. Consider the following statements with
regard to elapid snakebite: 4 Small bowel strictures and
1 Regardless of the anatomic site of rectovaginal fistulae may develop
bite, walking of victim should be as chronic complications.
discouraged.
2. Pressure immobilization should be Which of the statements given above are
used, wherever possible. correct?
the
3. Ptosis can be present after
elapid bite. (a) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are
correct? (b) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4

22
SLPJ-U-CXJ/76D