RADIOGRAPHIC ANATOMY & PHYSIOLOGY

1. The shoulder joint is

(a) Gliding joint

(b) Switching joint

(c) Synovial ball and socket joint

(d) Hinge joint

2. The shoulder joint comprises of how many linkages

(a)1

(b) 5

(c) 3

(d) 4

3. Labrum glenoidale is attached to the rim of the glenoid cavity to make it

(a) Wider and deeper

(b) Clearer and steeper

(c) Bigger and wider

(d) Wider and steeper

4. Elevation movement of the shoulder involves the following muscles

(a) Biceps and digitalis

(b) Triceps and levatus

(t) Upper trapezius and levator scapula

(d) Brachialis

5. The superior appendicular skeleton articulates with the axial skeleton only at the
(a)Glenoid joint

(b) Coracoclavicular joint

(c) Sterncmanubrium joint

(d) sternoclavicular joint

6. The spine and acromion serve as lever for the attachment of

(a)Trapezius muscle

(b) Biceps

(c) Pronator teres

(d) Levator scapula

7. The ulna bone is

(a) Long and twisting

(b)Stationary and does not twist

(c) Anterior and weight bearing

(d) Anterior and contacts the elbow joint

8.Coracoacromial ligament is not an accessory ligament of the shoulder

a. True

b. False

9. The shoulder joint is supplied by three nerves

b. False

a. True

10. The pelvic girdle and bones of the free part of the lower limb form the superior
appendicular skeleton

a. True
b. False

11. The upper limb consists of 33 bones

a. True

b. False

12. The lateral third of the clavicle is flattened and concave anteriorly

a. True

b. false

13. The radial styloid process is smaller than the ulnar styloid process

a.True

b. False

14. The brachial artery is the continuation of the axilliary artery

a. True

b. False

15. The lower limb is divided into two functional components of

(a) Pelvic and pectoral girdles

b) Pelvic girdle and bones of the free lower limb

(c) Pelvic girdle and axial skeleton

(d) Pelvic girdle and appendicular skeleton

16. Each wing of the pelvic girdle is formed from a bone called

(a) Pelvis

(b) Coxae

(c) Ischium
(d) Pubis

17. In children, the three primary bones of the pelvis are

(e) Incompletely ossified

(b) Ossified

(c) Separated

(d) Coned

18. The head of femur have a depression medially called

(a) Tubercle

(b) Fossa

(c) Fovea

(d) Notch

19. In maintaining the arches of the foot, the talus act as the

(a) Block

(b) Guide

(c). Key stone

(d) Inhibitor

20. The lumbar plexus is located next to the lumbar spine behind the

(a) Supinatus

(b)Psoas major muscle

(c) Gluteal maximus

(d) Hamstrings

21. The thigh is divided into how many compartments

(a)3

(b) 4

(c) 7

(d) 6

22. The hamstring muscles are

(a) 5

(b) 7

(c) 3

(d) 6

23. Pes cavus (Claw foot) can be caused by

(a)Deformity

(b) Muscle imbalance

(c) Hormonal changes

(d) Muscular tear

24. The lower limb includes 32 bones

a. True

b. False

25. The acetabulum is a deep, large- cup shaped cavity on the lateral aspect of the hip bone

a.True

b. False

26. Posterior tibial and deep branch of dorsalis pedis arteries supply the foot
a.True

b. False

27. The brachial plexus are of the spinal nerves segments CS-T1

a.True

b. False

28. Iliacus muscle is supplied by the radial nerve

a. True

b. False

29. The urinary system is made up of the following but one

a. kidneys

b. ureters

c.gall bladder

d. urethra

30. The functional unit of the kidney is

a. neutron

b. nephrite

c. dendrite

d. nephron

31. KUB stands for

a. kidney, urethra and bladder

b. kidney, urology and bladder

c. kalyces, ureter and bladder

d. kidney, ureter and bladder

32. Ventricular connections along its channels include the following, except

A. Foramen of Munro

B. Foramen of Magendie

C. Aqueduct of sylvius

D. Ventricular foramen

33. Deep gray matter structures of the brain include the following except

A. Thalamus

B. Caudate nucleus

C. Putamen

D. External capsule

34. Which of the following terms is NOT used to identify a region of the abdomen?

A. left hypochondriac

B. hypogastric

C. epigastric

D. right sacral

35. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

A. haemopoiesis

B. haemostasis

C. peristalsis

D. glycogenolysis

36. Which list below contains the four types of tissue?

A. extracellular fl uid, skeletal tissue, glandular tissue, connective tissue.

B. extracellular fi uid, muscle tissue, glandular tissue, cartilaginous tissue.

C. neural tissue, skeletal tissue, epithelial tissue, cartilaginous tissue.

D. Neural tissue, muscle tissue, epithelial tissue, connective tissue.

37. Where are blood vessels in compact bone found?

Venous sour

A. in the canaliculi

B. in the periosteum

C. in the lacunae

D. in the central canal

(38) Where is the cerebral spinal fluid found?

A. Between the pia mater and the brain

B. Between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

C. Between the dura mater and the pia mater

D. Between the arachnoid mater and the brain

39. Digestive enzymes are release into the extracellular fluid by

(a) Antiporter

(b) phagocytes

(c)'exocytosis

(d) endocytosis

40. During erythropoiesis, formation of haemoglobin occurs at the stage of

(a) Early normoblast

(b) intermediate normoblast

(c) late normoblast

(d) reticulocyte

41. The lifespan of normal RBCs is

(a) 30 days

(b) 60 days

(c)-120 days

(d) 180 days

42. Haemostasis is usually produced or associated with each of the following EXCEPT

(a) Blood coagulation

b) dilation of local blood vessels

(c) formation of a platelet plug

(d) polymerization of fibrin monomers

(43) Platelets function is best studied by measuring

(a) Bleeding time

(b) clotting time

(c) prothrombin time

(d) coagulation time

44. The normal GFR is………………………………

(a) 100 mg/day

(b) 200 ml/min

(c) 125 ml/min

(d) 180 ml/day

45. The kidneys maintain plasma osmolarity by regulating the excretion of

(a) Sodium

(b) glucose

(c) urea

(d) water

46. The renal blood flow is about

(a) 500 ml/min

(b) 1200 ml/min

(c) 3000 ml/min

(d) 750 ml/min

47. Distribution of blood flow to the tissues is regulated at the

(a) Venules

(b) capillaries

(c) arteries

(d) arterioles

48. All of the following structures are located inthe posterior mediastinum EXCEPT

(A) the trachea

(B) the vagus nerves

(C) the esophagus

(D) the thoracic duct

49. The mitral component of the first heart sound is best heard over the
(A) apex beat

(B) anterior end of the right fifth intercostal space

(C) anterior end of the left fifth intercostal space

(D) anterior end of the right second intercostal space

50. The phrenic nerves provide which of the following types of innervation?

(A) Sensory innervation for the parietal pleura overlying the central tendon of the diaphragm

(B) Sensory innervation for the mediastinal pleura

(C) Sensory innervation for the parietal peritoneum underlying the central tendon of the
diaphragm

(D)-Motor innervation for the diaphragm