Mock Exam

Direction: Select the best answer.
1. A ratio that measures output per worker is called

a. Labor intensity
b. Labor productivity
c. Efficiency
d. Minor urban area
2. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as

a. Capital-labor ratio
b. Return of investment
c. Net cash flow
d. Capital efficiency
3. This concept refers to a situation where an industry through the flow of goods and incomes stimulates the
development and growth of the industries, that are technically related to it, and determines the prosperity of the
tertiary sector or stimulates an increase of the regional income
a. Growth pole
b. Industrial polarization
c. Industrial decentralization
d. Industrial location
4. Complementing industrial estates, these areas are being established in order to accelerate industrialization in the
regions through small and medium enterprises and people’s industrial enterprises
a. Regional industrial centers
b. Core industries center
c. Industrial corridors
d. Industrial diffusion
5. This strategy aims to promote greater complementarity between agriculture and industry and between urban
and rural sectors
a. Countryside agro-industrial development
b. National council for integrated area development
c. Nationwide agro-industrial area development
6. Specific physical planning standards followed in the design and construction of industrial estates on the
Philippines are generally based on
a. National Building Code
b. Architectural Graphic Standards
c. Physical Planning Code
d. BP 344
7. These are free ports where export trade is the exclusive activity
a. Free trade zones
b. Free trade areas
c. Industrial estates
d. Export processing zones
8. The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated costs and benefits is known as
a. Social discount rate
b. Inflation rate
c. Financial rate of return
d. Economic internal rate of return
9. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation routes because

a. Population tends to concentrate where transportation is available
b. Transportation facilities tend to services areas where there is a population concentration
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
10. Land use changes in large and development cities is largely a function of
a. Government and land use and zoning policies
b. Existing and expected land values
c. Demand for housing
d. Foreign investments
11. The most efficient type of hierarchy of settlements is one wherein

a. There is no single, dominant urban center
b. All settlements are equal in size
c. All settlements are distributed equally in space
12. Often, a hierarchy of settlements is characterized by the presence of

a. A few large cities, some medium-sized cities, and many small settlements
b. Only medium-sized and small settlements
c. Equally-sized large cities in every region
d. Only one large city and many small settlements
13. The larger the population of a city, the more likely its economy allows for
a. More specialization
b. Increased self-sufficiency
c. Environmental protection
d. Higher demand for indigenous products
14. As a region urbanizes and expand economically, the dominant economic activities become those from the
a. Mining and other extractive activities
b. Manufacturing sector
c. Services sector
15. One of the following consists of an area of land. Which is generally developed based on a comprehensive
plan, allocated for factory buildings either sold or leased for manufacturing purposes
a. Industrial estate
b. Integrated area development
c. Industrial subdivision
d. Commercial/industrial estate
16. This type of industrial estate intends to advance, improve or increase the level of industrial activity in the area,
particularly lagging regions
a. Developmental
b. Promotional
c. Relocational
d. Private
17. This type of industrial estate refers to those established for developing new industries
a. Promotional
b. Developmental
c. Relocational
d. Private
18. This type of industrial estate is one where the functions of one type of industry are subdivided into smaller
specialized units to provide parts or components to the main industrial manufacturing unit
a. Ancillary
b. Composite
c. Specialized
d. Promotional
19. This type of industrial estate is usually large and built for heavy industry
a. Coastal
b. Rural
c. Specialized
d. Inland
20. This type of industrial estate is generally built for assembly and processing types of industries
a. Inland
b. Coastal
c. Specialized
d. Rural
21. This strategy aims to promote greater complementary between agriculture and industry and between urban
and rural sectors
a. Country-side agro-industrial developments
b. National Council for Integrated Area Development
c. National agro-industrial area development
22. This strategy refers to a situation where an industry through the flow of goods and income stimulates that
development and growth of the industries, that are technically related to it, and determine the prosperity of the
tertiary sector or stimulates an increase of the regional income
a. Growth pole
b. Industrial polarization
c. Industrial decentralization
d. Industrial location
23. Ebenezer Howard, the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern urban and regional planning,
wrote this famous book, first published in 1898
a. Garden Cities
b. Garden Cities of Tomorrow
c. Tomorrow’s Cities
d. Tomorrow
24. Patrick Geddes, a Scot biologist who is acknowledged as the father of regional planning set forth his ideas in
his masterpiece entitled
a. Cities and Regions
b. Cities and Evolution
c. Cities in Evolutionary Change
d. Revolution in Cities
25. Kevin Lynch stresses

a. A conceptual system focusing on urban form
b. A communications theory approach to urban growth
c. Accessibility concepts and urban structure
d. Urban spatial structure in the frame
26. Albert Z. Guttenberg speculates

a. A conceptual system focusing on urban form
b. A communications theory approach to urban growth
c. Accessibility concepts and urban structure
d. Urban spatial structure in the framework of equilibrium theory (an economic model of spatial structure)
27. Based on the principle of devolution of powers to local government units, the National Government transfers
these funds to LGUs for their administrative, public order and safety operations
a. Internal Revenue Allotments
b. Budgetary Allocations
c. Local Development Allotments
d. LGU Budgetary Allotments
28. Morbidity refers to

a. Death per 1,00 population
b. Deaths per 10,00 population
c. Deaths due to diseases
d. Incidence of disease
29. Because NSO age groupings do not coincide with school-going age population for primary, intermediate,
secondary and tertiary, this method is used to disaggregate school age population within a bracket into a single
year estimate:
a. Sprague multiplier
b. Sprengler multiplier
c. Extrapolition coefficient
d. Interpolation coefficient
30. Planning standards for school facilities include minimum standards for space measured in terms of square
meters per pupil (p.p.) for academic classrooms in the elementary level, the minimum standard is
a. 1.20 sqm. per p.p.
b. 1.40 sqm. per p.p.
c. 1.50 sqm. per p.p.
d. 1.75 sqm. per p.p.
31. Standards for firefighting services prescribe that municipalities with 10,000 or more population but below
50,000 should provide at least one fire truck. Adjoining municipalities, however, are allowed to share one fire
truck provided that the distance is within prescribed limits. In such cases, the maximum travel time between
municipalities.
a. 10 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 30 minutes
32. In the identification of needs and planning of social welfare programs and services, the planner is expected to
a. Involve the clientele
b. Involve the national and local governments
c. Involve the private sector
d. Involve all sectors mentioned above
33. The Law that authorizes the establishment and promulgation of different levels of Standards of economic and
socialized housing in urban and rural areas provided under the Subdivision and Condominium Buyers Protective
Decree and the National Building Code is
a. BP 220
b. RA 7279
c. PD 957
d. PD 1216
34. What ratio between saleable and non-saleable portions of the subdivision is required for projects developed
under BP 220 standards?
a. No fixed ratio
b. 70% saleable and 30% non-saleable
c. 40% saleable and 60% non-saleable
d. Minimum of 50% open space
35. A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house

a. Good for one household
b. Intended for ownership
c. Completely surrounded be yards
d. With one or more of its sides abutting the property line
36. A study which all the unites in the population is called

a. Holistic study
b. Phenomenological study
c. Survey
d. Census
37. The difference between a census and a survey is that

a. Census makes use of questionnaires while survey makes use of interviews for data gathering.
b. Census involves complete enumeration while survey involves sampling
c. Census is done only every 10 years while survey can be done anytime.
d. Only the NSO can conduct a census but anybody can conduct a survey.
38. This type of plan shows the allocation of land into broad functional classes, e.g., development areas,
conservation/preservation areas; agricultural area and forest areas.
a. Structure Plan
b. General Land Use Plan
c. Development Plan
d. Comprehensive Plan
39. Agricultural land in its generic sense is synonymous with that basic land classification?
a. Timberland
b. Unclassified public forest
c. Alienable and disposable
d. Ancestral domain
e. Critical watershed
40. Which of the following is not a factor in determining the suitability of land for an industrial estate?
a. Load-bearing capacity
b. Soil fertility
c. Drainage
d. Slope
e. Location
41. This represents the earning power of money invested in the project
a. Internal rate of return
b. Net present value
c. Annuity
d. Discounting
42. ________ initially developed the concept of “growth pole of regions”

a. Christaller
b. Perroux
c. Lennoix
d. Howard
43. ________ is a set of accounts, usually in monetary form, prepared for an economy and widely used in the
analysis of inter-industry relationships.
a. Regional accounts matrix
b. Input-output table
c. Economic base table
d. Location quotient ratio
44. One of the following consists of an area of land, which is generally developed based on a comprehensive plan,
allocated for factory buildings either sold or leased for manufacturing purposes
a. Industrial estate
b. Integrated area development
c. Industrial subdivision
d. Commercial/industrial estate
45. An urban area which has the following characteristics: it has strong linkage with the economy; it is the center
of the labor market; it is a major wholesale and retail trade area; it has a high level of tertiary functions; has a
good urban system; and has a population less than 250,000 is called
a. Growth center
b. Metropolitan area
c. Major urban center
d. Minor urban center

a. Labor intensity
b. Labor productivity
c. Efficiency
d. Labor enhancement
47. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of education institutions offering
courses in environmental planning is the responsibility of the
a. Commission on Higher Education
b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
c. Board of Environmental Planning
d. School of Urban and Regional Planning
48. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association may engage in the practice of
environmental planning in the Philippines, provided that
a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be registered environmental planners
b. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered environmental planners
c. At least 70 of the entire membership of the Board is composed of EnP’s and 75% of the capitalization is owned
by them
d. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by registered environmental
planners
49. The practice of environmental planning within the provisions of PD 1308 does not involve one of the
following:
a. Site and land use planning
b. City/town planning
c. Family planning
50. Demography denotes the study of human population through statistical methods. This involves primarily the
measurement of the size and increase or decrease of the numbers of people. The constituents of change in these
numbers are:
a. Births and deaths
b. Births, deaths and migration
c. Birth, adoption, marriage, divorce, legal separation, and annulment
d. Birth, citizenship, duration of marriage and ethnic origin
51. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for the purpose of
systemizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called:
a. Public hearing
b. Consultation
c. Coordination
d. Scooping
52. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may not be followed is called.
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
d. Citizen participation
53. This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustrations and diagrams which
describes what the community wants to become and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of
community goals, objectives, policies, programs and physical development plan which translates the various
sectoral plan:
a. Land Use Plan
b. Action Plan
c. Strategic Plan
d. Development Plan
54. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of Government with regard to
optimizing the use of land as a resource is:
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH
55. What is zoning?

a. It is the designation of species areas of a community as functional land uses of land may be allowed or
regulated on accordance with the development plan.
b. It is a tool to implement the development plan
c. It is a means of redistributing land acquisition and disposition
56. What are the tools for plan implementation?

a. Zoning ordinance, taxation and eminent domain
b. Zoning, subdivision and building ordinance
c. Zoning ordinance, local investment
d. Urban land reform
57. What higher level plans guides Local Government Units (LGUs) in preparing their own comprehensive land
use plans (CLUPs)?
a. National Physical Framework Plans and Medium-Term Development Plans
b. Regional Physical Framework Plans and Regional Development Plans
c. Provincial Physical Framework and Provincial Development Plans
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
58. What is the highest planning body at the regional level?

a. NEDA
b. The Regional Development Council
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
59. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development plans initiated by their
development councils and approved by their Sanggunian is:
a. PD 399
b. Executive Order No.72
c. RA 7160
c. PD 1517
60. The new law regulating the practice of environmental planning is:
a. RA 10587
b. PD 1517
c. PD 957
61. Due to greater ’division of labor’ there is more heterogeneity of population and classes of workers beginning
with
a. Primitive subsistence theory
b. Pre-Industrial society
c. Industrial society
d. Post-Industrial Society
62. Which is not an element of Special Economic Zone or ecozone under PEZA?
a. Free trade zone
b. Financial banking center
c. Export processing zone
d. Industrial park or industrial estate
63. What is the main foundation of the theory of growth pole of regions?
a. Concept of leading industries
b. Concept of polarization
c. Concept of spread effects
d. All of the above
64. What does the concept of leading industries mean in the growth pole theory?
a. Manufacturing sector
b. Propulsive industries
c. Comparative sector
d. Agricultural sector
65. What is the LQ ratio that would indicate an export or basic activity in a region?
a. LQ>1
b. LQ=1
c LQ<1
d. LQ=0
66. In economic base studies, economic activities are generally classified into three (3) activities, namely
a. Basic, non-basic, retail
b. Basic, non-basic, mixed
c. Basic, intermediate, retail
d. Basic, sectoral, ntermediate
67. This refers to the part of the seashore which is alternately covered by the ebb and the flow of tide, technically,
to a string of land margining over a body of water, between the low water line usually at the seaward margin of a
low tide terrace and the upper limit of wave wash at high tide usually marked by a beach carp or berm.
a. seaside
b. seaboard
c. foreshore
d. seagrass bed
e. beachfront
68. The most frequently used unit of measure for computing the LQ of an economy is
a. Employment
b. Income
c. Sales
d. Production
69. ______ is a set of accounts, usually in monetary from, prepared for an economy and widely used in the
analysis of inter-industry relationships.
a. Regional accounts matrix
b. Input-output table
c. Economic base table
d. Location quotient ratio
70. A tool of analysis developed as an effective way of choosing between alternative planning options by ensuring
the optimum allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to the community
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Linear programming
c. Shift-share analysis
d. Sensitivity analysis
71. The law proclaiming certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the scope of the
EIS system:
a. PD 1586
b. Proclamation No. 2146
c. PD 1152
d. DAO 96-37
72. Reclassification of the land highly in urbanized areas, after conducting public hearings for the purpose, shall
be limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
73. Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land in component cities and to first to
third class municipalities shall be limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
74. The enforcement of PD 1308 as well as the monitoring and inspection of educational institutions offering
courses in environment planning is the responsibility of the :
a. Commission on Higher Education
b. Philippine Institute of Environmental Planners
c. Board of Environmental Planning
d. School of Urban and Regional Planning
75. A consulting firm, partnership, company, corporation, or association may engage on the practice of
environmental planning in the Philippines, provided that:
a. At least 75% of the entire membership of the Board of the entity shall be registered environmental planners
b. At least 70% of the total capitalization of the entity is owned by registered environmental planners
c. At least 70% of the entire membership of the Board is composed of ENPs and 75% of the capitalization is
owned by them
d. At least 75% of the entire membership and 75% of the capitalization is owned by registered environmental
planners
76. Ancestral domains refer to areas that:

a. Belong to ICCs/iPPs compromising lands. Inland waters, coastal areas and natural resources therein
b. Bare within protected areas which have actually been occupied by communities for 5 years before the
designation of the same as protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act.
c. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the environment adapt to modern
technology at their pace
d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited, are normally with difficult access.
77. This law provides for the establishment and management of National Integrated Protection Areas System:
a. RA 8371
b. RA 7586
c. RA 7279
78. RA 8435 or the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997 strives to provide full and
adequate support to the sustainable development of a highly modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the
Philippines. Under AFMA, one of the following has been de-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farm
b. On-farm production enhancement technologies
c. Small-scale irrigation systems
d. Research, development and training facilities
79. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial Development (NPAAAD), it
provides the physical basis for the proper planning of sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in the
identification of suitable crops, livestock for local and international markets without creating irreversible
environmental and human health problems.
a. The watershed areas
b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
c. Integrated Area Development
d. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone
80. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceiling under various legal issuances, e.g. Local
Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the
LGC limits to:
a. 15% of total arable lands on chartered cities and 1st class Municipalities
b. 10% of total arable lands in any town
c. 5% of total arable land in any city
d. All of the above
81. It was during this period that the concept of urban design was established
a. Renaissance
b. Bronze Age
c. Medieval Period
d. Atomic Age
82. The garden City as a solution to urban planning problems

a. Malthus
b. Ebenezer Howard
c. Nicodemus
d. Adam Smith
83. He theorized that physical planning could not improve urban living conditions unless it was integrated with
social and economic planning in a context of environmental concerns.
a. William penn
b. Patrick Geddes
c. Peirre L’ Enfant
d. None of the three
84. The architect planner who designed Luneta, Tagaytay and Baguio
a. Burnham
b. Concio
c. Faithful
85. Rectangular streets are examples of the

a. Grid iron pattern
b. Axial
c. Radial
d. Ribbon-type
86. What was the most important factor in designing settlement patterns during the Spanish Period in the
Philippines?
a. Plaza
b. Economy
c. Transportation
d. Religion
87. Aside from volume and growth, what is the other key point that a tourism analyst should consider in analyzing
tourist arrivals?
a. Qualitative changes in tourist arrivals
b. Socio-cultural changes
c. Political changes
88. The tourist market can be classified into business, mass holiday, and _____ markets.
a. Eco-tourism
b. Historical
c. Location specific natural and cultural
89. Tourist may create the type of employment opportunities in the area. These are direct, indirect and ____ jobs.
a. Multiplier
b. Induced
c. Locational
d. Service
90. The four in typical economic cycle are recession ______, recovery and boom.
a. Slump
b. Deflation
c. Inflation
d. Sustainable growth
91. Under the concept of urbanized areas as defined in the Philippine Census of Population and Housing in 1990,
central districts of municipalities and cities have a population density of at least
a. 100 persons per square kilometer
b. 250 persons per square kilometer
c. 500 persons per square kilometer
d. 1,000 persons per square kilometer
92. Certain environmental factors affect population distribution at a given point in time. They are:
a. Climate
b. Location of water, soil, energy and mineral resources
c. Transport relationships
d. All of the above
93. Sex ratio is defined as:

a. The number of females divided by the number of males, times 100
b. The number of males divided by the number of females, times 100
c. The number of males divided by the number of females, times 10
d. The number of females divided by the number of males, times 10
94. Thomas Robert Malthus was the one who first concluded that
a. The means of subsistence grew only at an arithmetic rate
b. The means of subsistence and population both grew at an arithmetic rate
c. The means of subsistence of population few at a geometric rate
d. The means of subsistence grew only at an arithmetic rate whereas the population tended to grow at a geometric
rate
95. When the age and sex compositions of most populations are plotted graphically, the result is a “population
pyramid”, the broad base represents the youngest ages, and the sides gradually slope toward a point, representing
the decrease brought about by deaths in each successive age group. The pyramid represents
a. A static picture because it freezes the continuous action of mortality, fertility, and migration at a particular
moment in time
b. A uniform increase in all age brackets over a period of time
c. Migration and fertility trends
d. All of the above
96. In many metropolitan centers in the developing world, the largest component of urban population growth is
a. Births
b. In-migration
c. Increase in territorial jurisdiction
97. Metro Manila is considered a primate city because

a. It is the largest urban center of the country
b. It contains the country’s primary central business district
c. It has a very large population compared to all other urban centers of the country
d. It is a metropolitan center
98. Ancestral domain refer to areas that

a. Belong to ICCs/IPPs comprising lands, inland waters, coastal and natural resources therein
b. Are within protected areas which have actually been occupied by communities for 5 years before the digestion
of the same as protected areas in accordance with the NIPAS Act
c. Are set aside to allow the way of life of societies living in harmony with the environment to adapt to modern
technology at their pace
d. Are extensive and relatively isolated and uninhabited area normally with difficult access
99. The law that provides for the establishment and management of National Integrated Protected Areas System
is
a. RA 8371
b. RA 7586
c. RA 7279
100. RA 8435 of the Agriculture and Fishery Modernization Act (AFMA) of 1997 strives to provide full and
adequate support to the sustainable development of highly modernized agriculture and fishery industry in the
Philippines. Under AFMA, one of the following has been de-prioritized
a. Identification and establishment of model farms
b. On-farm production enhancement technologies
c. Small-scale irrigation systems
d. Research, development and training facilities
101. It is the division of a community into districts or zones according to present and potential uses of land to
maximize, regulate and direct their use and development.
a. Comprehensive Development Planning
b. Zoning
c. Land Use Planning
102. Under the Local Government Code, reclassification of agricultural land in component cities and first to third
class municipalities shall be limited to:
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%
103. This Law provides a liberalized environment more conducive to private sector investment.
a. RA 7718 (BOT Law)
b. Retail Trade Liberation Act
c. Urban Development and Housing Act
104. A contractual arrangement whereby the project proponent undertakes the financing construction of a given
infrastructure or development facility and after its completion turns it over to the government agency or local
government unit concerned, which shall pay the proponent on an agreed schedule its total investments expanded
on the project, plus a reasonable rate of return thereon.
a. Build and transfer
b. Build own and operate
c. Build transfer and operate
d. Develop, operate and transfer
105. The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse
effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations.
a. Environment impact statement
b. Environment risk assessment
c. Scoping
106. Which of these projects require an EIS?

a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions above 10 hectares
b. Drugstore and backyard piggery
c. Projects under Kalakalan 20
d. All of the above
107. A central business district usually has a

a. High daytime population
b. Large concentration of office and retail activities
c. Large daily inflow and outflow of commuters
d. All of the above
108. If the location quotient of an industry in a region is high, it suggest that

a. The distribution of the industry in the region is very concentrated
b. The distribution of the industry in the region is dispersed
c. The distribution of the industry in the region does not deviate much from the distribution of other industries
d. The region has a larger share of the industry relative to other regions
109. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation routes because
a. Population tends to concentrate where transportation is available
b. Transportation facilities tend to service areas where there is population concentration
c. Both A and B
110. The rate used to discount the future streams of estimated costs and benefits is known as
a. Social discount rate
b. Inflation rate
c. Financial rate of return
d. Economic internal rate of return
111. Along with the Network of Protected Areas for Agriculture and Agro-Industrial Development (NPAAAD),
it provides the Physical basis for the proper planning of sustainable agriculture and fishery development and in
identification of sustainable crops, livestock and fishes that can be economically grown and commercially
developed for local and international markets without creating irreversible environment and human health
problems
a. The Watershed Areas
b. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
c. Integrated Area Development
d. Strategic Agriculture and Fishery Development Zone
112. The factors for analyzing industrial location theory are:

a. The labor costs of marketing and advertising
b. Labor wages
c. The costs of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market
d. All of the above
113. If the Gini Coefficient of an Industry’s distribution in region is close to zero, it suggests that
c. The distribution in the industry in the region does not deviate much from the distribution of other industries
d. The region has a larger share of the industry relative to other regions
114. Land use changes in large and developed cities is largely a function of
a. Government lad use and zoning policies
b. Existing and expected land values
c. Demand for housing
d. Foreign investments
115. The best measure of the project’s economic worthiness and its adaptation as a basis for project acceptability
is
a. Net present value
b. Discounted rate
c. EIRR
d. FIRR
116. The standard distance of a commercial activity from an education center should be
a. 15 minutes by public transportation
b. 15 minutes by private transportation
c. 30 minutes by minimum travel time by public transportation
d. 60 minutes travel by private transportation
117. A tool of analysis developed as an effective way of choosing between alternative planning options by
ensuring the optimum allocation of available resources and maximum welfare to the community is
a. Cost-benefit analysis
b. Linear programming
c. Shift-share analysis
d. Sensitivity analysis
118. Land use conversion is limited by reclassification ceilings under various legal issuances, e.g., Local
Government Code. Under the AFMA, only 5% of the SAFDZ areas may be converted to other uses, while the
LGC limits to
a. 15% of the agricultural land in highly urbanized and independent component cities
b. 10% of total arable land in any town
c. 5% of total arable land in any city
d. all of the above
119. The first industrial estate in the country, which became operational in 1972, was the
a. Bataan IE
b. Dasmariñas IE
c. Mactan IE
d. Sapang Palay IE
120. This is the first place where the first export processing zone in the world was established
a. Puerto Rico
b. India
c. Taiwan
d. Korea
121. The 1987 constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories. Name the one that
is not among the four.
a. Agricultural land
b. Mineral land
c. National park
d. Ancestral domain
e. Forest land
122. Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?

a. Base map
b. Land use map
c. Slope map
d. Geologic map
e. Physical constraints map
123. What class of road is not part of hierarchy?

a. Arterial
b. Collector
c. Distributor
d. Gravel surfaced
e. Local
124. Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?

a. Institutional
b. Residential
c. mining and quarrying
d. Industrial
e. Commercial
125. The main regulatory tool for implementing land use in the Philippines is
a. Capital investment programs
b. Special assessments
c. Expropriation
d. Zoning
126. The agency that implements the laws, rules and regulations that support policies of Government with regard
to optimizing the use of land as a resource is
a. NEDA
b. DAR
c. HLURB
d. DPWH
127. The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is

a. NHA
b. HUDCC
c. HLURB
d. MMDA
128. The minimum lot area under PD 957 is

a. 100 sq. m.
b. 72 sq. m.
c 150 sq. m.
d. 120 sq. m.
129. The process of arranging activities and plans among different interest or planning groups for the purpose of
systematizing, harmonizing and facilitating operations is called
a. Public hearing
b. Consultation
c. Coordination
d. Scoping
130. The process of obtaining technical advice or opinion which may or not be followed is called
a. Consultation
b. Coordination
c. Public hearing
d. Citizen participation
131. The LGU shall impose fees in amounts sufficient to pay the cost preparing, Adopting, and implementing a
solid waste management plan. Such fees shall be based on the following minimum factors:
a. Type of solid waste
b. Amount/volume of solid waste
c. Distance of transfer station to the waste management facility
d. Capacity to pay
e. A, B, C, D
f. A to C
132. Areas with high biodiversity value which shall be closed to all human activity except for scientific studies
and/or ceremonial or religious use by indigenous communities
a. Restoration Zone
b. Habitat Management Zone
c. Bypass Zone
d. Strict Protection Zone
133. Each establishment protected area shall be administered by:

a. Office of the Mayor
b. Sanggunian Bayan
c. Planning Officer
d. Protected Area Management Board
134. This is an organizational process for determining systematically and objectively the relevance, efficiency,
effectiveness and impact of activities in the light of their objectives
a. Planning
b. Project Identification
c. Resource Generation
d. Evaluation
135. This is undertaken at full development, i.e. some years after project completion when full project benefits
and impact are expected to have been realized.
a. Terminal Evaluation
b. On-going Evaluation
c. Ex-post Evaluation
d. Pre-Evaluation
136. The M&E strategy should carefully examine

a. The contents, i.e. the date and indicators used
b. The format
c. The frequency of existing reports
d. All of the above
137. A project with negative NPV means;

a. Benefit cost ratio is higher than 1
b. Present value of benefits is higher than present value of roots
c. IRR is higher than prevailing interest rate
d. discount rate used is higher than IRR
e. none of the above
138. When projecting market demand for a project, which of the following combination of techniques is not
advisable:
a. Survey/planning standards
b. Market testing/time series analysis
c. Experts’ opinion/census
d. Statistical demand analysis/time series analysis
139. This indicate the number of years it would take to recoup the investments in he project
a. payback period
b. retention period
c. return on investment
d. profit margin
140. Money is more valuable now than tomorrow not because of

a. uncertainty of risk
b. income opportunities now
c. better prospects in the future
d. present consumption
141. This document is a series of written statements accompanied by maps, illustrations and diagrams which
describes what the community wants to become and how it wants to develop. It is essentially composed of
community goals, objectives, policies, programs and a physical development plan which translates the various
sectoral plans.
a. Land Use Plan
b. Action Plan
c. Strategic Plan
d. Development Plan
142. This is the process of appraising the feasibility, credibility and probable impacts or consequences of
alternative schemes of development or specific environmental conditions.
a. Environmental impact assessment
b. Evaluation
c. Diagnostic survey
d. Feasibility study
143. One of these plans is not required under AFMA:

a. Regional Agro-Industrial Development Plan
b. The SAFDZ Integrated Development Plan
c. The Agricultural and Fishery modernization Plan
144. It is a process of predicting the likely environmental consequences of implementing a project of undertaking
and designing appropriate preventive, mitigating and enhancement measures.
a. Scoping
b. Initial environmental examination
c. Environmental impact assessment
d. Environmental risk assessment
145. In transporting planning, the collection of the data is undertaken through different types of surveys. The
manual counting and classifying, by type of vehicle and direction of travel, recorder counts extending over longer
periods is called
a. Travel time surveys
b. Roadside surveys
c. Network inventories
d. Zoning
146. This is one of the methods of trips generation modeling, which is concerned with finding the best functional
relationship between a dependent variable and one or more independent variables. This relationship is usually
assumed to linear.
a. Analysis of variance
b. Multiple regression
c. Category analysis
d. Situational analysis
147. This is a method of trip assignment which takes into account congestion on the transportation system. It is
the process of determining a pattern of traffic flow for a known set of interzonal movements so/that the
relationship between journey time and flow on every link on the network should be in accordance with that
specified for the link
a. Diversion curves
b. All-or-nothing assignment
c. Capacity restraint
148. These are lands that are capable of sustaining the economic productivity levels of crops/land use over time in
a given climatic region without adversely affecting the immediate and adjoining environment.
a. Agricultural lands
b. Prime agricultural lands
c. Environmentally critical areas
d. Agro-industrial zones
149. Which of the following is not a feature of Frank Lloyd Wright’s ‘Broadacre City’ (1932)?
a. each person regardless of age has 1 acre of federal land
b. food garden or small farm would be right next to the house
c. manufacturing and commerce set up in twelve 15-storey buildings
d. work within walking distance from the home
e. railroad and freeway to interconnect cities
f. densification would preserve much open space
150. This refers to a title formally recognizing the rights of possession and ownership of ICC/IPs over their
ancestral domains identified in accordance with the law
a. Torrens Title
b. Indigenous People Title
c. Land Title
d. Certificate of Ancestral Domain Title
151. A contractual arrangement whereby a project proponent is authorized to finance, construct, own, operate and
maintain an infrastructure or development facility from which the proponent is allowed to recover its total
investment, operating and maintenance costs plus a reasonable return thereon by collecting tools, fees, rentals and
other charges from facility users.
d. Develop, operate and transfer
152. A contractual arrangement whereby the public sector contracts out the building of an infrastructure facility to
a private entity such that the contractor builds the facility on a turn-key basis, assuming cost overrun, delay and
specified performance risks.
d. develop, operate and transfer
153. The use of scientific methods and information to define the probability and magnitude of potentially adverse
effects which can result from exposure to hazardous materials or situations
a. Environmental impact statement
b. Environmental risk assessment
c. Scoping
154. Those persons who may be significantly affected by the project or undertaking are called
a. Indigenous people
b. Stakeholders
c. Squatters
d. Proponent
155. Which of these projects requires an EIS?

a. Golf courses and residential subdivisions above 10 hectares
b. Drugstores and backyard piggery
c. Projects under Kalakalan 20
d. All of the above
156. Those suffering from restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in the manner or within the range
considered normal for a human being as a result of mental, physical or sensory impairment.
a. Physically challenged
b. Impaired
c. Disabled
d. Disadvantaged
157. Ebenezer Howard is regarded as the most influential among the Great Thinkers in modern urban and regional
planning. His famous book, first published in 1898, was titled:
a. Garden Cities
b. Garden Cities of Tomorrow
c. Tomorrow’s Cities
d. Tomorrow
158. Ebenezer Howard’s ideas were adopted by the British Governments in the enactment of the New Towns Act
of 1947. The new towns concept, according to historians, has been illustrated by Howard on a paper napkin. This
famous diagram consists of:
a. One Magnet
b. Two Magnets
c. Three Magnets
d. Four Magnets
e. Five magnets
159. Ebenezer Howard envisioned a new town deliberately outside normal commuter range of the old city. It
would fairly be small. Its population size shall be:
a. Ten thousand
b. Twenty thousand
c. Twenty-two thousand
d. Thirty thousand
160. The first new town built following Ebenezer Howard’s idea is known as:
a. Letchworth
b. Soltaire
c. Strenage
d. Welwyn
161. The counterpart of Geddes in the University States is Lewis Mumford. Hiss treatise is entitled:
a. Culture and Cities
b. Cities and Culture
c. The Cities of Culture
d. The Culture of Cities
e. The Culture of the Cities
162. The advocates of the systems view planning does not include one of the following:
a. G. Wilson
b. George Chadwick
c. J.B. McLoughlin
d. Stuart Chapin
e. Andreas faludi
163. What does reviews Comprehensive Land Use Plans (CLUPs) of component cities and municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
164. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?

a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
165. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?

a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
166. What Body ratifies CLUPs of Metro Manila Cities and Municipalities?
a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
167. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?

a. RLUC
b. PLUC
c. HLURB
e. All of the above
168. A comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP) must meet the following criteria:
a. Technical feasibility
b. Socio-economical and financial possibility
c. Political viability
d. Administrative operability
e. All of the above
169. Choose the relevant criteria for the best strategic option
a. Sustainability
b. Feasibility
c. Desirability
d. Critical and urgent
f. All of the above
170. What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?

a. Sieve Mapping
b. Area Ecological Profiling
c. Land Use Accounting
f. All of the above
171. The following operating principles are adhered to under the Indigenous People’s Right Act, except
a. Biodiversity
b. Career Development of IPs
c. Protection of the Environment
d. Cultural diversity and Integrity, Consensus and Peace Building and human Dignity
172. The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include

a. Protection of indigenous culture, traditions and institutions
b. Right to establish and control educational and learning systems
c. Right to science and technology
d. All of the above
173. The primary government agency to implement the policies for the IPs is
a. Office of the Cultural Affairs
b. National Commission for the Cultural Communities
c. Commission for the Philippine Minorities
d. National Commission for Indigenous Peoples
174. Systems, Institutions, mechanics and technologies comprising a unique body of knowledge enclave through
time
a. Cultural practices
b. Cultural way of life
c. Indigenous culture
d. Indigenous knowledge systems and practices
175. Consensus of all members of the ICCs/IPs determined in accordance with their respective customary laws
and practices, free from any external manipulation and coercion
a. Indigenous consensus
b. Rights of Indigenous people
c. Free and informed consent
d. All of the above
176. RA No.8371 is also known as the

a. NIPAS Law
b. Conservation and Biodiversity
c. Agenda 21
d. Indigenous Peoples Rights Act (IPRA)
177. The National Commission on Indigenous Peoples shall protect the rights of Indigenous peoples, except those
of
a. Children and youth
b. Elders
c. Women
178. How many commissioners comprise the national Commission on Indigenous Peoples?
a. Five
b. Seven
c. Nine
d. Eleven
e. Four
179. It consists of resource flows provided by bilateral sources and multilateral institutions with the objective of
promoting the economic development and welfare of the recipient country.
a. World bank
b. Official Development Assistance
c. Internal Revenue Allotment
d. Development fund
180. This Law provides a liberalization environment more conductive to private sector investment.
a. RA 6657 and RA 7718 (BOT Law)
b. Retail Trade Liberalization Act
c. Urban Development and Housing Act
d. All of the above
181. What technique is useful for determining strategies?

a. Situational analysis
b. SWOT analysis
c. Land use survey
f. All of the above
182. What are the legal basis for the state’s regulation of land use?
a. Police power
b. laws against nuisance and pollution
c. The policy that property has social function
d. The rule that a person must not do wrong to another person.
183. What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?

a. Environmentally critical projects
b. Projects in environmentally critical areas
c. a and b
d. All projects
184. Where can we find the highest level policy statements on environmental protection?
a. Constitution
b. PD 1151
c. PD 933
d. PD 957
185. What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)

a. Environmentally critical projects
b. Projects in environmentally critical areas
c. Golf courses, major roads and bridges, infrastructure
d. All of the above
186. What law lays down the mandates and functions of the Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board?
a. EO 949
b. EO 90
c. PD 933
d. PD 957
187. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting land use is:
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
b. Zoning Ordinance
c. Cadastral Survey
d. tax Declaration
188. A special locational clearance which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of the zoning
ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the
property, compliance with height, area, bulk, setback and/or density would result in particular hardship upon the
owner is called:
a. Certified of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
189. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a Zoning ordinance where, because
of the specific use would result in a particular hardship to the owner.
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non- Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development
190. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and other built-up areas including
the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas and where at least 50% of the population area engaged in non-
agricultural activities:
a. Central business district
b. Urban area
c. City center
d. Suburban area
191. The 1987 Constitution seeks to classify all lands in the public domain into four categories. Name the one that
is not among four
a. Agricultural land
b. Mineral land
c. National park
d. Ancestral domain
e. Forest land
a. International Revenue Allotments
b. Budgetary Allocation
c. Local Development Allotment
d. LGU Budgetary Allotment
193. As provided for in the Water Code and the HLURB zoning guidelines, the required easement in urban areas
from the banks of rivers/streams, seas and lakes is:
a. 3 meters
b. 20 meters
c. 40 meters
d. 100 meters
194. Variances and exemptions from the land use plan/zoning map are secured from the:
a. Zoning Administrator/Officer
b. Municipal Mayor
c. Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator (MPDC)
d. Local Zoning Board of Adjustments and Appeals (LZBAA)
195. A kind of ad-hoc zoning that allows a small piece of land to deviate from the approved zone of t
he area for certain reason is called:
a. Spot zoning
b. Flexible zoning
c. Euclidean zoning
d. large lot zoning
196. Any amendment to the provisions of the zoning ordinance for component cities and municipalities can only
take effect approval and authentication by the:
a. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
b. HLURB
c. Local Zoning Review Committee
d. local Zoning Board of Adjustment and Appeals (LZBAA)
197. Alarm over increasing world population may be traced to Thomas Malthus’ theory that states
a. Population grows geometrically while food supply grows arithmetically
b. Population grows arithmetically while food supply grows geometrically
c. Population and food grows geometrically
d. Population and food grows arithmetically
198. Many industries want to locate near urban cities because they want to be
a. Close to large market
b. Close to a major transportation hub
c. Avail of urban services and facilities
d. All of the above
199. In general, an Economic Base ratio or Economic Base Multiplier expressed in terms of employment
indicates:
a. A total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in an industry
b. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of number of jobs created in the entire country
c. The total number of jobs created in a region as a result of a number of jobs created in the entire region
d. The total number of jobs created in a set of industries as a result of a number of jobs created in an industry.
200. Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering

a. The cost of marketing and advertising
b. labor wages
c. the cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished goods to the market
d. The costs of transporting consumers to market centers
201. Urban population growth in developing countries is unprecedented because

a. There are more urban areas in the developing world than in industrialized countries
b. Urban population growth in developing countries is based on agriculture
c. The population of large urban centers in developing countries is becoming much larger than those of
industrialized countries
d. Large urban centers in developing countries account for a larger share of the total population than in
industrialized countries
202. In many metropolitan centers in the developing world, the largest component of urban growth population is
a. Birth
b. In-migration
c. Increased territorial jurisdiction
203. In the Philippines, the total urban population is expected to become

a. Larger than the total rural population
b. Equal and will stabilized at the level of the rural population
c. Maintain its ratio with rural population
d. Decline until it equals rural population
204. Historically, in contrast to Thomas Malthus theory

a. Population has grown faster than food supply
b. Population has grown slower than food supply
c. Population and food supply have grown at approximately the same pace
d. Population and food supply have not grown
205. Metro Manila is considered a primate city because
a. It is the largest urban city of the country
b. It contains the country’s primary central business district
c. It has a very large population compared to all the urban centers of the country
d. It is a metropolitan center
206. Population growth is usually measured as a function of

a. The number of deaths, birth and fertility
b. The number of deaths, births, and out-migrants
c. The number of deaths, births and in-migrants
d. the number of deaths, births and net migrants
207. In central business districts, the highest land values are usually the areas where
a. Zoning is for commercial land use
b. Density is highest
c. Both A and B
208. A Lorenz Curve can give a graphical indications of how

a. An industry’s output has grown in a region
b. An industry’s forward and backward linkages have expanded in a region
c. An industry is distributed in a region
d. An industry’s exports compares with its imports in a region
209. If the location quotient in a region is high, it suggests that

c. The distribution of the industry in the region does not deviate much from the distribution of other industries
d. the region has a larger share of the industry relative to other regions
210. The Export Base theory argues that

a. The economic growth of a region is dependent on the growth of its export sector
b. Regional exports should not exceed regional imports
c. The ratio between regional exports and regional imports is the basis for determining economic performance
d. Regional exports should equal regional imports
211. The portion of the feasibility study (FS) that determines the project’s net contribution to the national
economy and social welfare is
a. Economic study
b. Demand analysis
c. Financial analysis
d. Technical evaluation
212. The standard distance of a commercial activity from an education center should be
a. 15 minutes by public transport
b. 15 minutes by private transport
c. 30 minutes minimum travel time by public transport
d. 60 minutes travel time by public transport
213. This represents the earning power of money invested in the project
a. Internal rate of return
b. Net present value
c. Annuity
d. Discounting
214. The process of finding the present value of future amount is called
a. Discounting
b. Acid test
c. Payback
d. Return of investment
215. The best measure of the project’s economic worthiness and its adaptation as a basis for project acceptability
is
a. Net present value
b. Discounted rate
c. EIRR
d. FIRR
216. The hurdle rate used by NEDA is
a. 15%
b. 18%
c. 12%
d. 20%
217. Patterned after the Batem/Johore/Singapore growth triangle, another growth triangle in Southeast Asia is
being considered which involves
a. Mindanao/Sulawesi/Sabah-Sarawak
b. Mindanao/Sarawak/Borneo
c. Zamboanga/Sulawesi/Sabah
d. Zamboanga/Sabah/Sarawak
218. This concept refers to the necessary combination of agricultural, industrial and institutional activities in ways
that are mutually reinforcing- fostering of small regional towns which are attractive enough with regards to
services, housing and cultural/social amenities to stabilize the population and industries closely tied to agricultural
production
a. Integrated area development
b. Agro-industrial development
c. Regional development
d. Rural development
a. Internal Revenue Allotments (IRA)
b. Budgetary Allocations (BA)
c. Local Development Allotments (LDA)
d. LGU Budgetary Allotments (LBA)
220. An urban area which has the following characteristics: It has a strong linkage with economy; it is the center
of the labor market; it is a major wholesale and retail trade area; it has a high level of tertiary functions; has a
good urban system; and has a population less that 250,000 is called
a. Growth center
b. Metropolitan area
c. Major urban area
d. Minor urban area
221. The first estate in the country which became operational in 1972, was the
a. Bataan IE
b. Dasmariñas IE
c. Mactan IE
d. Sapang Palay IE
222. Industrial density refers to

a. Number of manufacturing employees per gross industrially used hectarage
b. Number of manufacturing employees per net industrially used hectarage
c. Number of industries per gross land hectarage
d. Number of industries per net land hectarage
223. The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is

a. 0-18%
b. Above 50%
c. 16-50%
d. 0-8%
224. The elevation reserved for protection land use is

a. Above 500
b. Above 100
c. Above 2,000
d. Above 1,000 mtrs.
225. Under the 1998 Evolutionary Soil Classification System, the classification level depicted in the Bureau of
Soils and Water Management is the
a. Soil order
b. Soil type
c. Soil great group
d. Soil series
226. A Philippine climatic type characterized by rainfall evenly distributed throughout the years refers to:
a. Type III
b. Type II
c. Type IV
d. Type I
227. The Philippine forest type that is adapted to growing in steep slopes and in places with a distinct wet and dry
season is the
a. Pine/saleng
b. Dipterocarp
c. Molave/molawin
d. Mangrove
228. The law requiring LGUs to prepare their comprehensive, multi-sectoral development plan initiated by their
development councils and approved by their Sanggunians is:
a. PD 399
b. Executive Order No. 72
c. RA 7160
d. PD 1517
229. The law regulating the practice of environmental planning is

a. PD 1308
b. PD 1517
c. PD 957
230. The Law proclaiming of land certain areas and types of projects as environmentally critical and within the
scope of the EIS system
a. PD 1586
b. Proclamation No. 2146
c. PD 1152
c. DAO 96-37
231. Reclassification of land in highly urbanized areas, after conducting public hearing for the purpose, shall be
limited to
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 25%
232. A local legal measure which embodies regulations affecting the land use is
a. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
b. Zoning Ordinance
c. Cadastral Survey
d. tax Declaration
233. A special locational clearance which grants a property owners relief from certain provisions of the zoning
ordinance where, because of the particular physical surrounding, shape or topographical conditions of the
property, compliance with height, area bulk, setback and/or density would result in a particular hardship to the
owner
a. Certificate of Non-Conformance
b. Exception
c. Variance
234. A device which grants a property owner relief from certain provisions of a Zoning ordinance where, because
of the specific use would result in a particular hardship to the owner
a. Variance
b. Certificate of Non-Conformance
c. Exception
d. Development
235. This refers to all barangays or portion/s of which comprise the poblacion and other built-up areas including
the urbanizable land in and adjacent to said areas and whereat least 50% of the population area engaged in non-
agricultural activities:
a. Central business district
b. Urban area
c. City center
d. Suburban area
236. Cities with a minimum population of 200,000 inhabitants as certified by the National Statistics Office and
with latest annual income of at least P 50,000,000 based on 1996 constant prices as certified by the City Treasurer
are called
a. Independent component cities
b. regional centers
c. Highly urbanized cities
d. Component cities
237. Urbanized began around 4,000 B.C. in the area known as the
a. Fertile Crescent
b. Mediterranean
c. Babylon
d. Asia
238. The primary factor/s in the location of cities during the Bronze Age along the Indus Valley is/are:
a. Transport
b. Agriculture
c. Defense
d. None of the three
e. All of the above
239. He developed the first theoretical basis for physical planning

a. Hippodamus
b. Nicodemus
c. Nostradamus
d. Aristotle
240. They understood the importance of transportation and thus emerges as the first regional planners of the
world.
a. Greeks
b. Romans
c. Sumerians
d. Egyptians
241. In formulating its industrial program, the government should consider equity, technical efficiency and
______
a. Allocative efficiency
b. Comparative advantages
c. Resource collection
d. Availability of skilled labor
242. Republic Act 9003, otherwise known as the National Ecological Solid Waste Management Program seeks to:
a. Promote public health and environment protection
b. Encourage greater private sector participation while retaining the primary enforcement and responsibility with
the LGUs
c. mandates all LGUs to divert at least 25% of all solid wastes from disposal facilities through reuse, recycling,
composting and other resource recovery activities
d. A and C only.
e. All of the above
243. Under RA 9003, LGUs are required to divert at least 25% of their solid wastes from existing disposal
facilities within a period of:
a. 10 years
b. 2 years
c. 5 years
d. 1 year
244. At the national level, RA 9003 mandates the creation of National Solid Waste Management Commission
under the office of:
a. President
b. DENR
c. DILG
d. NEDA
245. The National Solid Waste Management Framework shall be formulated and shall include the following:
a. Analysis and evaluate of the current state, trends, projections of solid waste management on the national,
provincial, ad municipal levels
b. Identification of critical solid waste facilities
c. Characteristics and conditions of collection, storage, processing, disposal, operating methods, techniques and
practices are conducted, taking into account the nature of the waste
d. Proposed sites for sanitary land fill
e. All of the above
f. A and C only
246. It refers to the discipline associated with the control of generations, storage, collection, transfer and transport,
processing and disposal of solid wastes in a manner that is in accord with the best principles of public health,
economies, engineering, conservation, aesthetics, and other environmental considerations and which is also
responsive to public attitudes
a. Environmental Impact Assessment
b. Development Planning
c. Waste Segregation
d. Solid Waste Management
247. The Local Government Solid Management Plan shall include, but not limited to the following components:
a. City or Municipal profile
b. Waste characterization
c. Collection and transfer
d. Source reduction
e. All of the above
f. B and D only
248. Article 2, Sec 21 of RA9003 provides for the mandatory segregation of solid wastes. Specifically, the LGUs
shall promulgate regulations, requiring the owner or person in charge of premises containing…
a. Five residential units
b. Six residential units
c. Six or more residential units
d. At least ten residential units
…to provide for the residents a designated area and containers in which to accumulate source separated recyclable
materials to be collected by the municipal or private center..
249. The following are the minimum criteria siting of sanitary land fills
a. The site selected must be consistent with the overall land use plan of the LGU
b. The site must be accessible from major roadways or thoroughfares
c. the site should have adequate quantity of earth cover material that is easily handled and compacted
d. The site must be large enough to accommodate the community’s wastes for a period of ten (10) years during
which the people must internalize the value of environmentally sound and sustainable solid waste disposal
e. All of the above
f. All except D
250. Guidelines for identification of common solid waste management problems and are appropriate for clustered
solid waste management services shall be based on the following:
a. Preference of political leaders
b. Size and location of areas which should be included
c. Volume of solid waste which should be generated
d. Available means of cording local government planning between and among LGUs and for the integrated of
such with the national plan
e. Possible life span of the disposal facilities
f. A to E
g. B to E
251. An example of this is when government acquires land for public buildings, highways, and public welfare
purposes.
a. sovereignty
b. constitutional supremacy
c. eminent domain
d. seizure and confiscation
e. transfer & exchange
252. An LGU regulation prohibiting a landowner from using his/her private residential lot as a ‘firing range’ is
considered an exercise of the Power of the State called
a. escheat
b. eminent domain
c. taxation
d. moral suasion
e. sovereignty
253. 1987 Philippine Constitution XII Sec. 1 defines it as “preferential treatment for the least advantaged groups
and areas” through the “enactment of measures that protect and enhance the right of all the people to human
dignity, reduce social, economic and political inequalities, and remove cultural inequities by diffusing wealth and
political power…”
a. distributive justice
b. commutative justice
c. transitive justice
d. social justice
254. 1987 Constitution Art XII Sec. 2 “All lands of public domain, waters, minerals, coal, petroleum, and other
mineral oils, all forces of potential energy, fisheries, forests or timber, wildlife, flora and fauna, and other natural
resources are owned by the State. With the exception of agricultural lands, all other natural resources shall not be
alienated.”
a. Dominion and Supremacy
b. Regalian Doctrine
c. Res Judicata
d. Parens Patriae
255. This legal concept means holding a property by reference to a superior entity, such as the State.
a. management
b. tenure
c. trust
d. concession
e. franchise
256. This is a contiguous land area which is considered as a unit, legally recorded as a single piece, and subject to
single ownership.
a. plat
b. plot
c. parcel
d. partition
e. tract
257. Which is not an instrument to prove private property rights over land?
a. Certificate of Title
b. CLOA
c. Free Patent
d. Special Power of Attorney
e. Tax Declaration
f. CALT
258. In the language of Philippine Constitution 1987, ‘agricultural land’ is synonymous with
a. prime cropland
b. arable and cultivable
c. alienable and disposable
d. irrigated and irrigable
259. Philippine Constitution Article XII Sec. 3 classified land into four specific categories, namely:
a. arable land, arid land, cropland, and marginal land or wasteland
b. land for production, land for protection, land for settlements, land for infrastructure
c. public domain, ancestral domain, eminent domain, alienable and disposable land
d. forestland, agricultural land, mineral land, and national parks
260. In international environmental law, the principle that “the burden of proof in demonstrating that a particular
technology, practice or product is clean and safe lies with the developer and not with the general public and that
the produces must answer for any environmental damage such technology has created is called
a. extended producer responsibility
b. polluter pays principle
c. principle of externalities
d. precautionary principle
261. This economic phenomenon is internal to a firm, and refers to reduced marginal cost per unit and increased
overall savings as volume or quantity of output is increased utilizing the same throughputs or production
processes
a. Localization Economies
b. Economies of the Mill
c. Economies of Scale
d. Discounting
262. In 1897, he was the first to categorically state that knowledge, intellectual capital, and technology constitute
the chief engine of progress of the economy
a. Alfred Marshall
b. Albert Einstein
c. Frederick Taylor
d. Joseph Schumpeter

a. labor intensity
b. work efficiency
c. labor productivity
d. work ethic
264. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as
a. capital-labor ratio
b. liquid exposure
c. venture capital
d. operating expenditure
265. According to Nobel laureate Simon Kuznets, the three ways to determine national macro-economic accounts
(GNP, GDP, NNI) are “value-added”, “income-approach”, and “expenditure approach”. Which of the following is
‘expenditure’ approach?
a. final output of Primary sector + Secondary sector + Tertiary sector + etc
b. national income + (taxes – subsidies) + depreciation + etc
c. consumption + investment + government expenditure + (export – import)
d. consumption + taxes + FDI + balance of payments + NFIA
266. The Philippines GDP totaled 8.32 trillion pesos at nominal prices in 2010, but P4.74 trillion was consolidated
public sector debt stock of national government, LGUs, GOCCs, etc. The administration of President Gloria
Arroyo accumulated a debt stock of 2.57 trillion for 9 years. How much is the debt stock of 2010 as percent of
Gross Domestic Product?
a. 51%
b. 57%
c. 64%
d. 67%
267. An indicator of “Quality of Life” developed by Nobel Laureate Amartya Sen, this composite measure
combines life expectancy at birth, school enrollment rate, adult literacy rate, per capita income, and incidence of
poverty
a. Millennium Development Goals
b. Index of Sustainability
c. Human Development Index
d. GPI – Genuine Progress Indicator
268. Incidence of families below the poverty line stood at 39.9% in 1990 and averaged 33% between 2001 and
2010. Did the administration of President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo attain its MDG in poverty reduction?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Answer depends on one’s level of information, political bias, and personal loyalty
d. Attainment would have been substantial had it not been for the global economic recession of 2008-2009
269. Under MDG, what is the official target of government in terms of reducing family poverty below the food
threshold or subsistence threshold by year 2015?
a. 0.3%
b. 5.4%
c. 10.2%
d. 15.6%
270. Under which of the following MDGs has the Philippines achieved the greatest accomplishment in the period
2000-2010, according to official UNDP reports?
a. “Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger”
b. “Promote gender equality and empower women”
c. “Achieve universal primary education”
d. “Ensure environmental sustainability”
e. “Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria, and other diseases”
f. “Improve women’s reproductive health”
g. “Develop global partnership for development”
271. Which is not a benefit from having large greenspace in cities?

a. absorbs air pollution
b. gives off oxygen
c. cools the air as water transpires
d. provides habitat to wild beasts
e. provides shade with less electricity required
f. muffles noise and creates and island of peace
272. A ‘drainage basin’ is the total land area that contributes runoff to a given stream. What characteristic of a
drainage basin causes it to have an ‘efficient’ response to rainfall?
a. sloping topography in bowl-like formation
b. permeable soils
c. plasticity of clay bottom
d. filtration by its wetlands
273. Under RA 8371, this refers to “all areas generally belonging to ICCs/IPs comprising lands, inland waters,
coastal areas, and natural resources therein, held under a claim of ownership, occupied or possessed by ICCs/IPs,
by themselves or through their ancestors, since time immemorial, continuously up to the present”
a. tribal land
b. cultural heritage
c. autonomous region
d. ethnic realm
e. ancestral domain
274. According to RA 8749, the geographic-based document integrates primary data and information on natural
resources and anthropogenic activities on land as evaluated using various risk assessment and forecasting
methodologies, and evaluated environment quality and carrying capacity of an area in such a way that enables
planners and government decision makers to anticipate the type of development control necessary in the planning
area.
a. Natural Resources Inventory
b. Environmental Accounting
c. Biogeographic Compendium
d. Eco Profile
275. In HLURB guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the ‘social sector’?
a. Education
b. Tourism
c. Health
d. Police Protective Services
e. Sports and Recreation
276. In HLURB guidelines for CLUP, which of the following does not fall under the ‘economic sector’?
a. Housing
b. Mining
c. ICT and Business Process Outsourcing
d. Mariculture
e. Small Scale Industries
277. This process defines the physical platform of development at the local level, and proceeds by systematically
evaluating alternative patterns of resource use, choosing the use which meets specified goals, and drawing up
appropriate policies and program, directed to the best use of land in view of accepted objectives, and of
environmental and societal opportunities and constraints.
a. Framework Planning
b. Strategic Planning
c. Land Use Planning
d. Development Planning
278. This document consists of specific proposals to guide growth in a locality including statements about
community goals, priorities, strategies, and socially-desired mix of resource uses. These are illustrated by maps,
diagrams, charts, tables, that show a coherent spatial framework of environmental protection, economic
production, settlements, and infrastructure
a. Charrette
b. Chatroulette
c. Comprehensive Land Use Plan
d. Strategic Plan
e. Framework Plan
279. An essential part of land use planning, this activity occurs after strategic planning but before the detailed lay-
out of location, and aims to characterize and design a parcel of land or specific section of town so that it can
function effectively in relation to the complexity and scale of proposed development and the range of land uses
around it.
a. Estate Planning
b. Wards and Precincts Planning
c. Parcellary Planning
d. Site Planning
e. Project Planning
280. This concerns the arrangement, appearance and functionality of a whole town or city, in particular the shape
and form of city blocks, the uses of public space, the articulation of physical features in three dimensions, so that
residents and visitors alike can make high quality connections between people, places, and buildings
a. Architectural Masterplan
b. Cityscape and Streetscape
c. Urban Design
d. Form and Style
e. Visual Panorama
281. The first export processing zone in the Philippines which became operational in 1972 was
a. Bataan EPZ
b. Mactan EPZ
c. Baguio EPZ
d. Zamboanga de Ayala EPZ
e. Phividec Misamis Oriental
282. Although theoretically flawed, “Super Region” as conceived by the administration of PGMA sought to build
upon perceived comparative advantage of a cluster of territories such as agri-processing, tourism, commodity
logistics chain, or cyber-services. Which ‘super region’ ought to focus on ‘agri-business’?
a. Northern Luzon Quadrangle
b. Metro Luzon Urban Beltway
c. CALABARZON Industrial Heartland
d. Central Philippines
e. Subic-Clark Freeport complex
f. Bangsamoro Juridical Authority
283. Under the ‘super-region’ concept of the PGMA Adminsitration, Central Luzon as part of the Mega Manila
‘Extended Urban Region’ would focus on
a. hacienda farming
b. meat processing
c. commodity logistics chain
d. cyber services
e. tourism
284. Of the so-called ‘super regions’ which one is being promoted as having the comparative advantage in
‘tourism’?
a. North Luzon
b. Central Philippines
c. Baguio and CAR
d. Davao Silicon Gulf
285. Under the MTDP 2011-2016, what is closest to the meaning of ‘inclusive growth’?
a. compromise
b. transactional
c. equality
d. beneficial to all particularly lagging groups
e. only for the Yellow Army
286. The ‘center down’ paradigm of neo classical economics of the 1960s assumed that benefits from national
level or macro-economic growth tend to ______ to component regions and lower level communities
a. cascade
b. sprinkle around in spurts
c. pour down
d. trickle down
287. In John Friedman’s (1966, 1973) taxonomy of regions according to economic condition, which refers to
‘lagging regions’?
a. core regions
b. upwards transitional areas
c. resource frontier areas
d. downward transitional areas
e. special problem areas
f. latifundio-minifundio
288. The phenomenon of ‘urban primacy’ mostly in Third World countries wherein a single metropolis corners a
disproportionate share of a country’s population, resources, and investments by reason of historical or political
precedence, or as a result of foreign colonial influence is also called “Manila Imperialism” in the Philippines
a. It is desirable because of the efficient use of space and economies of scale
b. It proves that benefits from agglomeration outweigh the disbenefits from congestion and overconcentration
c. It demonstrates that Third World countries remain as colonies of Western imperialist powers
d. It shows polarization within a country and siphoning off of economic assets and human talent from ‘hinterland’
289. Which of the following is not among the Philippine government strategies to attain ‘concentrated
decentralization’?
a. regional industrial carriers
b. special economic zones
c. growth corridors, growth triangles, growth polygons
d. agora and agurbia
290. According to Francis Perroux (1955), this phenomenon in economics refers to a propulsive or expanding
firm/industry, or cluster of such firms/industries, which induces development of other firms/industries are
technically or functionally related to it, and stimulates prosperity of the locality or region through the flow of
goods and services
a. Market town
b. Entrepot
c. Axis Mundi
d. Growth Pole
e. Ecozone
291. This refers to the broad type of social research whose central objective is to solve urgent problems, develop a
tool for social technology, explain effects of policies or actions, and evaluate the impact of plans and programs on
people
a. Exploratory research
b. Pure/basic research
c. Evaluation research
d. Applied research
292. In scientific research, it refers to attribute of data that can take on different values; it may be a characteristic,
trait, or dimension of a person, object, process, or event that can be classified, measured, and studied
a. variable
b. factor
c. metrics
d. coefficient
293. In using descriptive statistics to study a population and a society, the three measures of central tendency are
a. midpoint, minimum and maximum
b. range, frequency, and threshold
c. occurrence, convergence, and divergence
d. mean, median, mode
294. In statistics, this is a value in a set of sample observations which occurs most often or with the greatest
frequency
a. recurrence
b. returns
c. mode
d. average
e. sum
f. minuend
295. ‘Linear regression’ is a statistical method used to

a. establish that as supplied increase, prices decrease
b. calculate the probability of a sample value being within 1.96 standard deviation of the mean
c. determine the influence of one or more independent variables on a dependent variable
d. estimate the degree to which research findings may be generalized
296. This measures the degree to which two variables are related but not necessarily in a cause-and-effect manner:
a. coefficient of correlation
b. coefficient of variation
c. multivariate function
d. chi-square statistic
297. In all distributions of data, the ‘median’ is equivalent to the:

a. mode
b. variance
c. 50th percentile
d. mean
298. Probability is at times used in relation to natural cycles with mean return period or recurrence interval. If a
flood that recurs once in 100 years has an annual probability of one percent, what would be the annual probability
of a 475-year earthquake?
a. 0.475
b. 0.2375
c. 0.0438
d. 0.002105
299. Which one of the following is not a research method?

a. questionnaire
b. interview
c. appraisal
d. case study
e. survey
300. A ‘problem tree’ is

a. a kind of tree that grows in the wrong place
b. a method of environmental impact assessment
c. a tool to understand cause and effect relations among problems
d. used to trace ancient roots of intractable development problems

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Direction: Select the best answer.

1. A ratio that measures output per worker is called

2. A measure that indicates the intensity of the factors of production is known as

9. Urban development tends to occur along major transportation routes because

11. The most efficient type of hierarchy of settlements is one wherein

12. Often, a hierarchy of settlements is characterized by the presence of

25. Kevin Lynch stresses

26. Albert Z. Guttenberg speculates

28. Morbidity refers to

35. A single detached dwelling units is defined as a house

36. A study which all the unites in the population is called

37. The difference between a census and a survey is that

42. ________ initially developed the concept of “growth pole of regions”

46. A ratio that measures output per worker is called

55. What is zoning?

56. What are the tools for plan implementation?

58. What is the highest planning body at the regional level?

76. Ancestral domains refer to areas that:

82. The garden City as a solution to urban planning problems

85. Rectangular streets are examples of the

93. Sex ratio is defined as:

97. Metro Manila is considered a primate city because

98. Ancestral domain refer to areas that

106. Which of these projects require an EIS?

107. A central business district usually has a

108. If the location quotient of an industry in a region is high, it suggest that

112. The factors for analyzing industrial location theory are:

122. Which of the maps listed below is not a thematic map?

123. What class of road is not part of hierarchy?

124. Which land use type is normally not classified as urban?

127. The agency responsible for coordinating the housing program is

128. The minimum lot area under PD 957 is

133. Each establishment protected area shall be administered by:

136. The M&E strategy should carefully examine

137. A project with negative NPV means;

140. Money is more valuable now than tomorrow not because of

143. One of these plans is not required under AFMA:

155. Which of these projects requires an EIS?

164. What body ratifies CLUPs of highly urbanized cities?

165. What body reviews CLUPs of independent component cities?

167. What body reviews CLUPs of provinces?

170. What are the techniques relevant to land use planning?

172. The rights of the IPs to cultural integrity shall include

176. RA No.8371 is also known as the

181. What technique is useful for determining strategies?

183. What kind of project requires an environmental compliance certificate?

185. What projects require an environmental impact statement (EIS)

200. Traditional location theory analyzes the location of industries by considering

201. Urban population growth in developing countries is unprecedented because

203. In the Philippines, the total urban population is expected to become

204. Historically, in contrast to Thomas Malthus theory

206. Population growth is usually measured as a function of

208. A Lorenz Curve can give a graphical indications of how

209. If the location quotient in a region is high, it suggests that

210. The Export Base theory argues that

222. Industrial density refers to

223. The slope range that is prescribed as production land use is

224. The elevation reserved for protection land use is