PANGMALAKASANG REVIEW CENTER: BACTERIOLOGY RATIONALE

Prepared by Francis Isaac T. Estrada, RMT MLS (ASCPi)cm

1.Process is mediated through viruses capable of infecting bacteria

a. Conjugation
b. Transduction
c. Transformation
d. Transconjugation
2. Bacteria are:
a. Unicellular, prokaryotic microorganisms
b. Multicellular, prokaryotic microorganisms
c. Unicellular, eukaryotic microorganisms
d. Multicellular, eukaryotic microorganisms
3. Laboratory professionals are at risk for disease transmission. The
majority of cases of laboratory-related infections are associated with:
a. Infectious aerosols
b. Contamination with abraded skin
c. Puncture wounds
d. Person-to-person transmission

4. Autoclaving infectious waste is set at:

a. 270C (132F) for 30-60 minute
b. 250C (121F) at 15 psi for 15 minutes
c. 132C (270F) for 30-60 minutes
d. 121C (250F) at 15 psi for 15 minutes
5. McFarland standards are prepared by mixing:
a. 1% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
b. 2% sulfuric acid and 1.175% barium chloride
c. 1% sulfuric acid and 2.175% barium chloride
d. 2% sulfuric acid and 1.75 barium chloride
6. The most important diagnostic tool in treating patients with clinical
infections in the emergency department is the:
a. Acid fast stain
b. Culture and Sensitivity
c. Gram stain
d. Catalase test
7. Which feature best describes the log or exponential phase
a. The organisms adapt to a new environment
b. The accumulation of toxic waste causes a decrease in rate of growth
c. cells divide at a constant rate
d. The number of bacteria begins to decrease
8. Which of the following antimicrobial agents acts by inhibiting
protein synthesis
a. penicillin
b. gentamicin
c. Rifampin
d. Colistin
9. The aseptic collection of blood cultures requires
that the skin be cleansed with:
a. 2% iodine and then 70% alcohol solution
b. 70% alcohol and then 2% iodine or an
iodophor
c. 70% alcohol and then 95% alcohol
d. 95% alcohol only

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 PANGMALAKASANG REVIEW CENTER: BACTERIOLOGY RATIONALE
Prepared by Francis Isaac T. Estrada, RMT MLS (ASCPi)cm

10. Disinfection of environmental surfaces destroys microorganisms, but

not:
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Anaerobes
c. Spores
d. Salmonella typhi
11. The growth phase in which microorganisms are most susceptible to
antimicrobial agent is:
a. Lag phase
b. Stationary phase
c. Decline phase
d. Exponential phase
12. What color would a gram-positive bacterium be if the bacteriologist
forgot to use mordant during the gram staining procedures
a. Pink
b. Purple
c. No color
d. Pink and Purple
13. Pasteurization of milk is carried out at:
a. 54C for 40 minutes
b. 63C for 30 minutes
c. 70C for 70 minutes
d. 82C for 45 minutes
14. Sugars, serum, and tissue extracts should be sterilized by
a. heat without pressure
b. special chemicals
c. Filtration
d. None of the above

15. What is the purpose of adding 0.025%–0.050%

sodium polyanetholsulfonate (SPS) to nutrient
broth media for the collection of blood cultures?
A. It inhibits phagocytosis and complement
B. It promotes formation of a blood clot
C. It enhances growth of anaerobes
D. It functions as a preservative
16. An aspirate of a deep wound was cultured on blood agar plates and
incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there was growth
in both media. This indicates that that organism isolated is:
a. nonfermenter
b. Obligate anaerobe
c. Aerobic
d. Facultative anaerobic
17. Infection resulting from unstoppered centrifuge tubes:
a. Airborne
b. Ingestion
c. Direct Inoculation
d. Arthropod infection
18. An epidemic that spans the world
a. Endemic
b. Epidemic

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c. Pandemic
d. Outbreak
19. Agents have the potential for aerosol transmission, and diseases
with these agents may have a serious lethal consequence.
a. BSL-1
b. BSL-2
c. BSL-3
d. BSL-4
20. Also known as Laminar Flow Biosafety cabinet
a. Class I BSC
b. Class II BSC
c. Class III BSC
d. Class IV BSC
21. Anticoagulant used for viral cultures and isolation of Mycobacterium
a. Heparin
b. Citrate
c. Sodium fluoride
d. EDTA
22. Which of the following is not a critical value in microbiology
a. S. pyogenes from throat swab
b. Positive blood culture
c. Positive blood smear for malaria
d. Positive acid-fast smears or Positive mycobacterium culture
23. All of the following requires sterile screw cap container, except:
a. Stool
b. CSF
c. Urine
d. Sputum
24. Which of the following should be submitted to the laboratory within
1 hour
a. gastric aspirate
b. hair, nails, skin scrapings
c. bone
d. gastric biopsy
25. CSF should be stored at:
a. -20C
b. 37C
c. Room temperature
d. 20-21C
26. Which of the following culture media contains phenol red as and
indicator
a. MacConkey
b. Urea Agar
c. HEA
d. MSA
27. What makes an MSA a selective media
a. Salt
b. Phenol Red
c. Mannitol
d. Acid pH
28. Which of the following is correct

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Prepared by Francis Isaac T. Estrada, RMT MLS (ASCPi)cm

a. alpha hemolysis- no change in agar

b. gamma hemolysis- greenish discoloration of area around colony
c. Beta hemolysis- clear area around the colony
d. alpha-prime- inner zone of beta hemolysis surrounded by a zone of
alpha
29. Enrichment and selective medium for isolation of Bordatella
pertussis
a. Regan Lowe
b. Kelly’s medium
c. Cystine-Tellurite blood agar
d. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar
30. Tomato juice agar is used for:
a. Gardnerella vaginalis
b. Lactobacillus acidophilus
c. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
31. Cary blair indicator changes from red to yellow color
a. Buffering capacity was overcomed
b. Change in the pH medium
c. Low temperature
d. Presence of contaminants
32. smooth and clay-like bacterial colony
a. P. aeruginosa
b. E.coli
c. M.catarrhalis
d. N.elongata
34. McCoy cells is used to cultivate
a. C.trachomatis
b. Brucella canis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi
d.Brucella abortus
35. Bacterial colony with mushroom odor
a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
b. Pasteurella multocida
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Haemophilus influenzae
36. CSF collected from a shunt
a. BAP, MAC
b. BAP, CAP
c. CAP, MAC
d. BAP, CAP, THIO
37. Sensitive to changes in temperature
a. Neisseria gonorrhoea
b. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Shigella
d. Moraxella catarrhalis
38. Blood agar is considered
a. nutritive medium
b. selective medium
c. nutritive and selective medium
d. nutritive and differential medium

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39. Moderate growth; growth is out to the third quadrant

a. 1+
b. 2+
c. 3+
d. 4+
40.Bone marrow toxicity is the major side effect associated with
a. Cephalosporin
b. Chloramphenicol
c. Penicillin
d. Sulfonamide
41. The 0.5 McFarland standard, which is commercially available,
provides an optical density comparable of a bacterial suspension of:
a. 0.5 x 10 8th CFU/mL
b. 1.0 x 10 8th CFU/mL
c. 1.5 x 10 8th CFU/mL
d. 2.0 x 10 8th CFU/mL

42. Diffusion of the drug in the agar establishes a concentration gradient

from high _____ to low _____.
a. High (periphery of plate) to low (center of plate)
b. High (center of plate) to low (periphery of plate)
c. Either of the choices is correct
d. Neither of the choices is correct
43. Differentiate clindamycin resistance among S.aureus
a. Aminoglycosides
b. D zone test
c. Oxacillin agar screen
d. Vancomycin agar screen
44. The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test inducible resistance on
S.aureus demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of
a. Erythromycin sensitive; clindamycin sensitive
b. Erythromycin resistant; clindamycin sensitive
c. Erythromycin resistant; clindamycin resistant
d. Erythromycin sensitive; clindamycin resistant
45. Methods other than packaged microsystems used to identify
anaerobes include:
a. antimicrobial susceptibility testing
b. Gas-liquid chromatography
c. Special staining
d. Enzyme immunoassay
46. Urine cultured from the catheter of an 18-year-old female patient
produced more than 1000,000 col/ml on a CAN plate. Colonies were
catalase positive, coagulase negative by the latex agglutination as well
as the tube coagulase test. The best single test for identification is:
A. Lactose fermentation
b. Catalase
c. Novobiocin susceptibility
d. Urease
47. An outbreak of S.aureus in the nursery department prompted the
Infection Control Committee to proceed with an environmental

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Prepared by Francis Isaac T. Estrada, RMT MLS (ASCPi)cm

screening procedure. The best screening media to use for this purpose
would be:
a. CNA Agar
b. THIO broth
c. MSA
d. PEA
48. An isolate of Staphylococcus aureus was cultured from an ulcer
obtained from the leg of diabetic 79-year-old female patient. The
organism showed resistance to methicillin. Additionally, this isolate
should be tested for resistance or susceptibility to:
a. Erythromycin
b. Gentamycin
c. Kanamycin
d. Vancomycin
49. An identifying characteristic of S. aureus is:
a. DNase negative
b. Coagulase negative
c. Mannitol fermentation positive
d. Growth inhibition in the presence of increased salt
50. S.saphrophyticus, a recognized pathogen is a cause of:
a. Furuncles
b. Impetigo
c. Otitis media
d. UTI
51.When streking a throat culture on 5% sheep blood agar, stabbing the
agar plate provide enhanced detection for:
a. Bile solubility
b. Bile esculin hydrolysis
c. Streptolysin O
d. Streptolysisn S
52. In the CAMP test, a single streak of a beta hemolytic Streptococcus
is placed perpendicular to a streak of beta-lysin-producing S.aureus.
After incubation, a zone of increased lysis in the shape of an arrowhead
is noted; this indicates the presumptive identification of:
a. S. agalactiae
b. S.bovis
c. S. equinus
d. S.pyogenes
53. A sputum specimen from 89-year-old male patient suspected with
bacterial pneumonia grew a predominance of gram-positive cocci
displaying alpha hemolysis on 5% SBAP. The colonies appeared donut
shaped and mucoidy and tested negative for catalase. The most
appropriate test for final identification are:
a.Cogulase, glucose fermentation, lyostaphin
b. Bile esculin, Hippurate hydrolysis
c. Optochin, bile solubility, Ethylhydrocupreine HCL susceptibility
d. Penicillin, bacitracin, CAMP
54. The salt tolerance test (6.5% salt broth) is used to presumptively
identify:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus bovis

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 PANGMALAKASANG REVIEW CENTER: BACTERIOLOGY RATIONALE
Prepared by Francis Isaac T. Estrada, RMT MLS (ASCPi)cm

c. Streptococcus equinus
d. Enterococcus faecalis
55. Which organism is the most often recovered gram-positive cocci
(catalase negative) from a series of blood cultures obtained from
individuals with endocarditis?
a. Streptococcus agalactiae
b. Pediococcus spp.
c. Clostridium perfringens
d. Enterococcus faecalis.
56. Abiotrophia, formerly known as nutritionally variant streptococci,
will not grow on routine blood or chocolate agars because they are
deficient in;
a. Hemin
b. Pyridoxal
c. Vitamin B2
d. Protein
57. The gonococcus can be best differentiated from meningococcus by:
a. Fermentation of dextrose and lactose
b. Fermentation of dextrose and maltose
c. Fermentation of maltose and lactose
d. Fermentation of glucose only
58. Necessary conditions to recover N.gonorrhoeae are:
a. 35C,CO2 incubator or candle jar, on sheep blood agar
b. 35C, aerobic incubator, on G.C chocolate agar
c. 35C, anaerobic jar, on GC chocolate agar
d. 35C, CO2 incubator or candle jar, on GC chocolate agar
59. What is the preferred reagent to perform oxidase testing on
N.gonorrhoeae:
a. para-dimethyl cinnamaldehyde
b. Ethyl hydrocupreine hydrochloride
c. optochin hydrochloride
d. P-aminodimethylamine monohydrochloride
60. Severe DIC often complicates cases of septicemia caused by:
a. Acinetobacter
b. Moraxella
c. N.meningitidis
d. None of these
61. Erythromycin eye drops are routinely administered to infants to
prevent infection by:
a. E.coli
b. H.influenzae
c. P.aeruginosa
d. N.gonorrhoeae
62.Biochemically, the Enterobactericeae are gram-negative rods that:
a. Ferment glucose, reduce nitrate to nitrite, and are oxidase negative
b. Ferment glucose, produce indophenol oxidase, and form gas
c. Ferment lactose and reduce nitrite to nitrogen gas
d. Ferment lactose and produce indophenol oxidase
63. The Voges-Proskauer test detects which end product of glucose
fermentation?
a. Acetoin

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b. Nitrite
c. Acetic acid
d. Mixed acid
64. Which of the following reagents is added to detect the production of
indole
a. p-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde
b. bromcresol purple
c. methyl red
d. cytochrome oxidase
65. An isolate of E.coli recovered from stool of a patient with severe
bloody diarrhea should be tested with which sugar before sending it to
a reference laboratory for serotyping?
a. Sorbitol
b. Mannitol
c. Raffinose
d. Sucrose
66. Which group of tests best identifies the Morganella and Proteus
genera?
a. Motility, urease, and phenylalanine deaminase
b. Malonate dehydrogenase, glucose fermentation, and
deoxyribonuclease.
c. Indole, oxidase, MR, and VP
d. Indole, citrate, and urease
67. A gram negative rod is isolated on EMB. It is citrate positive and the
TSI reaction is A/AG with no hydrogen sulfide. It probably is:
a. K.pneumoniae
b. Salmonella typhyi
c. E.tarda
d. E.coli
68. The indicator employed in TSI agar and urease test medium is:
a. Phenol red
b. Bromcresol purple
c. Bromthymol blue
d. Neutral red
69. Direct spread of pneumonic plague disease occurs by which route?
a.Fecal-oral route
b. Rat bite
c. Ingestion of contaminated tissue
d. Inhalation of contaminated airborne droplets
70. Which isolates of Enterobacteriaceae family most commonly
produce extended-spectrum beta lactamase?
a. E.coli and K.pneumoniae
b. Yersinia enterocolitica
c. Morganella morganii and Proteus vulgaris
d. S.typhi and S.sonnei
71.Three consecutive stool cultures from a 25-year old male patient
produced normal fecal flora on MacConkey and Hektoen agars.
However, colonies on CIN agar displayed ”Bulls-eye” colonies after 48
hours incubation. The patient had been suffering from enterocolitis with
fever, diarrhea, and abdominal pain for 2 days. What is the most likely
identification of this gram negative rod?

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A. E.coli
b. P.mirabilis
c. Y.enterocolitica
d. K.pneumoniae
72. A positive Simmons citrate agar slants, showing alkaline reaction
and utilization of citrate, would be indicated by the following color:
a. orange
b. yellow
c. red
d. blue
73.On desoxycholate, desoxycholate-citrate, EMB, SSA and MacConkey
agar, the members of Shigella-Salmonella group produce small colonies
which are:
a. Black
b. Green
c. Pink
d. Colorless
74. The characteristic of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease
negative, LDC negative, and nonmotile best describe which organism?
a. P.vulgaris
b. Y.pestis
c. S.arizonae
d. S.dysenteriae
75. The malonate test is most useful in differentiating which members
of Enterobacteriaceae
a. Salmonella and Enterobacter
b. Proteus and Providencia
c. Salmonella subgroups 2,3, and shigella
d. Serratia and Yersinia
76. A gram-negative rod is isolated from apatient with second and third
degree burns. The isolate produces a bluish green pigment and a
characteristic fruity odor. Other observations are:
TSI: K/K Motility: Pos
Oxidase:Pos OF Medium: Oxidative only
a.Acinetobacter
b.Alcaligenes
c.Moraxella
d. Pseudomonas
77.In MHA, what can cause an increased resistance of P.aeruginosa to
aminoglycosides
a. Decreased peptone
b. Decreased NaCl
c. Increased Ca++ and Mg++
d. Dec Ca++ and Mg ++
78. If present, a characteristic that is helpful in separating P.aeruginosa
from other members of the Pseudomonas family is:
a. Positive cytochrome oxidase
b. Oxidative metabolism in OF test
c. Production of fluorescein pigment
d. Growth at 42C

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79. Which organism has large, smooth, glistening colonies with a

lavender pigment and smells like ammonia?
a. Acinetobacter spp.
b. Bordetella spp.
c. Stenotrophomonas spp.
d. Burkholderia spp.
78. Besides P.aeruginosa, which of the following is an important cause
of lower respiratory tract infection in patients with cystic fibrosis?
a. C.meningosepticum
b. P.aeruginosa
c. B.cepacia
d. Serratia marcescens
79. The porphyrin (D-ALA) test was devised to detect strains of
Haemophilus capable of:
a. ampicillin degradation
b. capsule production
c. synthesis of hemin
d. chloramphenicol resistance
80. Which of the following Haemophilus species is an agent of a sexually
transmitted disease?
a. H.parainfluenzae
b. H.influenzae
c. H.ducreyi
d. H.segnis
81.Which encapsulated type of H.influenzae is most common?
a. Type A
b. Type B
c. Type C
d. Type D
82. Milk has classically been the primary food associated with
transmission of some diseases, especially for those diseases of cattle
transmissible to humans, such as:
a. Brucellosis
b. Glanders
c. Meliodosis
d. Pontiac fever
83. Which of the following is the optimal clinical specimen for the
recovery of L.pneumophilia?
a. Nasopharyngeal swab
b. Bronchial washings
c. stool
d. blood
84. Which of the following is the best rapid noncultural test to perform
when Gardnerella vaginalis is suspected in patients with vaginosis?
a. 10% KOH
b. 3%H2O2
c. 30% H202
d. All of these
85. Gram negative bacillus with gliding motility
a.Capnocytophaga
b. Chryseobacterium

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c. Kingella
d. Plesiomonas
86. All of the following are gram positive spore forming bacilli, except:
a. B.anthracis
b. B.fragilis
c. B.subtilis
d. B.cereus
87. To differentiate.anthracis from B. cereus:
a. B.cereus is beta hemolytic on BAP and motile; B.anthracis is
nonhemolytic on BAP and nonmotile
b. B.anthracis is beta hemolytic on BAP and non motile; B.cereus is
nonhemolytic and motile
c. B.anthracis produces acid from glucose and maltose; B.cereus does
not
d. B.anthracis is lecithinase positive; B.cereus is lecithinase negative
88. Which of the following is incorrect for Clostridium perfringens?
a. Lecithinase positive
b. Ferments glucose
c. Motile
d. Double zone of hemolysis on anaerobic BAP
89. To confirm a laboratory diagnosis of tetanus, it is essential to:
a. grow characteristic colonies through anaerobic cultures
b. finds typical sporulating bacilli in smears
c. demonstrates toxin production
d. study biochemical reaction
90. The production of H2S is one characteristic used to differentiate
which of aerobic gram-positive bacilli?
a. Corynebacterium
b. Erysipelothrix
c. Lactobacillus
d. Nocardia
91. Nocardia can be differentiated from actinomyces based on:
a. The partial acid fast staining reaction of Actinomyces
b. Nocardia being an obligate anaerobe
c. Production of sulphur granules in cases of nocardiosis
d. Nocardia being catalase positive
92. In the N-acetyl-cysteine-alkali method of processing sputum
specimens for mycobacterial culture, the NALC serves as
a. buffer
b. decontaminant
c. digestant
d. pH stabilizer
93. Which of the following Mycobacterium appears as buff-colored
colonies and is niacin positive?
a. M.bovis
b. M.scrofolaceum
c. M.tuberculosis
d. M.ulcerans
94. Which of the following is not true of M.leprae?
a. Causes Hansen disease
b. Difficult to grow in vitro

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c. Easily transmitted from person-to-person

d. Usually grows in peripheral limbs of infected patients
95. Gold standard test for leptospiral antibodies
a. Macroscopic slide agglutination test
b. microscopic slide agglutination test
c. Complement fixation
d. IgM ELISA
96. A genital specimen inoculated into 10B broth. After overnight
incubation, an alkaline reaction is noted without turbidity. What is most
likely explanation?
a. pH change due to molecules in clinical specimens
b. Presence of Mycoplasma genitalium
c. Presence of Mycoplasma hominis
d. Presence of Ureaplasma urealyticum
97. In the bacteriological analysis of water, the confirmed test consists
of:
a. Gram-negative, non-sporulating rods from agar slant
b. Gas in lactose broth
c. Typical coliform colonies EMB agar plates
d. Acid and gas lactose tubes
98. Human infection with the causative agent of Q fever is acquired by:
a. Inhalation of infectious material
b. The bite of a mite
c. The bite of a body louse
d. The bite of the arthropod Phlebotomus
99. Pre-reduced and vitamin K supplemented blood agar plates are
recommended isolation media for:
a. Mycobacterium marinum and Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare
b. Bacteroides, Peptostreptococcus, and Clostridium
c. Proteus spp.
d. Enterococcus
100. Antimicrobial susceptibility testing of anaerobes is done by which
of the following methods?
a. Broth disk elution
b. Disk agar dilution
c. Microtube broth dilution
d. Beta lactase testing

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