METALLURGY ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT

GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

PRACTICAL: 7
Numerical/MCQ based on VI and LT.
Date:

AIM: Numerical/MCQ based on VI and LT.

Relevant CO:
1. To learn the principles, working and applications of Visual inspection, liquid
penetrant testing and magnetic particle testing.
2. Inspect different metals and alloys by visual inspection method.

1. What is the tube diameter of rigid borescope?

a) 0.1 to 10 mm b) 0.5 to 90 mm c) 0.2 to 100 mm d) 0.9 to 70 mm
Answer: d
What is the field of view range of borescope?
a) 30 to 180 degree b) 10 to 90 degree c) 60 to 360 degree d) 10 to 180 degree
2. Answer: b
What type of fibre is present in the optical tube of mini borescope?
a) Quartz fibre b) Asbestos fibre c) Plastic fibre d) Resin fibre
Answer: a
3. Which of the following option is true about hybrid borescopes?
a) Use rod lenses combined with concave lenses
b) Use rod lenses combined with concave mirror
c) Use rod lenses combined with convex lenses
d) Use rod lenses combined with convex mirror
Answer: c
4. Upto which length the flexible fiberscopes are available?
a) 12 m b) 14 m c) 16 m d) 18 m
Answer: a
5. Which of the following can not be detected with visual inspection.
a) Blow hole b) Crack within the casting c) Tears d) Rattails
Answer: b
6. Visual inspection is essentially carried out using magnifying glass.
a) True b) False
Answer: b
7. A common inspection instrument that is used to visually inspect internal bore surfaces
is
a. magnifying glass b. borescope c. phototube d. microscope
Answer: b
8. During a visual examination, a welding discontinuity that could not be detected would
be:
a. undercut b. cracks c. porosity d. side wall lack of fusion

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Answer: d
9. An inherent discontinuity in forgings that cannot be detected using visual testing is:
a. bursts b. cracks c. seams d. laps
Answer: a
10. To examine areas around bends inside a pipe section, the visual examiner uses a:
a. telescope b. fiber-optic borescope c. bore scope d. microscope
Answer: b
11. The visible portion of the electromagnetic spectrum extends form:
a. 100-400 nm b. 210-370 nm c. 380-770 nm d. 570-891 nm
Answer: c
12. The portion of the eye that regulates the quantity of light admitted is called:
a. iris b. pupil c. retina d. cones
Answer: b
13. In general, the total magnification of borescopes is in the range of:
a. 3x – 4x b. 2x – 8x c. 4x – 10x d. 5x – 15x
Answer: c
14. A method used for copying the topography of a surface that cannot be moved or one
that would be damaged in transferal is called:
a. NDT b. in-situ NDT c. replication d. surface metallography
Answer: c
15. When should the visual inspection be performed for most effectiveness?
a) After Welding b) Before Welding c) During Welding d) All the Above
Answer: d
16. Which of the following NDT can detect only surface defects?
a) Radiographic b) Ultrasonic c) Visual Inspection d) None of the above
Answer: c
17. Which of the following are visual examination methods?
a) Shear and Longitudinal b) Visible and Fluorescent c) Direct and Indirect d) Manual
and Automatic
Answer: c
18. In normal healthy eye, incoming light is focused on
a) Retina b) Iris c) Optic Disc d) Cornea
Answer: a

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

Leak Testing

Which of the following is the basic type of true defect that would be indicated during a
bubble leak test by a continuous flow of bubbles?
A. A hole or crack through the test boundary
B. Slag inclusion in center of weld
C. Extended area of surface defects or cracks
D. Lack of fusion at room of weld
What parameter can directly affect the sensitivity of any vacuum box bubble leak test?
A. Ambient air dew point temperature is more than -4 oC (25 oF).
B. Slight residual magnetism in test specimen
C. Amount of pressure differential created with the box
D. Test specimen size
Which of the following factors can most affect the sensitivity attainable by a pressure
bubble leak test?
A. Operator alertness and technique
B. Size and shape of test specimen
C. Time of day testing is done
D. Number of test technicians
Which type of leaking discontinuity is most likely to go undetected during a pressure
bubble leak test?
A. A discontinuity (such as a crack) that shows up well on a radiograph
B. A very small leak or a very large leak
C. A defect in a mechanically rolled joint
D. A defect in a welded joint
When performing a bubble leak test, the reason for periodically checking a leak detector
solution against a known path leak would be to:
A. Determine the viscosity of the solution
B. Measure the size of the leak
C. Verify that the leak still existed
D. Verify that the solution functioned as required
Which of the following systems or components are not good candidates for leak testing?
A. Piping and pressure vessels
B. Refrigerator piping
C. Vacuum chambers
D. Sintered material components

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

A helium mass spectrometer is used in which of the following NDT techniques or methods?
A. X-Ray spectrocopy
B. Optical holography
C. Acoustic holography
D. Leak testing
Which of the following is a technique of leak testing?
A. Static
B. Gaseous diffusion
C. Dynamic
D. Direct probe
Potentially, the most sensitive leak testing technique is the?
A. Bubble test
B. Pressure change test
C. Mass spectrometer test
D. Liquid penetrant test
Establishing differential pressure between the test object and environment is an essential
element in which of the following NDT methods?
A. X-Ray diffraction
B. Neutron radiography
C. Leak testing
D. Eddy current testing
Which of the following best describes the type of leak test used when the interior of the test
object is evaluated and the tracer gas is applied to the exterior, while the leak detector is
connected to the evacuating system?
A. Static leak test
B. Helium leak test
C. Dynamic leak test
D. Halogen leak test
Assuming no significant leakage, if the temperature increased during a pressure drop leak test,
the pressure in the system under test would?
A. Increase
B. Remain the same
C. Decrease
D. First increase, then decrease to its former level
If the sensitivity of the halogen leak detector is constant throughout a test, which of the
following is true upon completion of the test?
A. No leaks smaller than a certain size have gone undetected
B. The total leak rate of the test object is less than a certain amount
C. The instrument and the test procedure were capable of detecting leakage of a certain size
during the test
D. The instrument and the test procedure were only capable of detecting leakage of a certain
size upstream from the tracer gas during the test.
All leak detection methods are dependent upon:
A. Barometric pressure
B. Gas or fluid flow
C. Mass spectrometer analysis

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

D. Mean free paths of helium flow

In an evaluated system, sensitivity of a pressure change leak test is dependent not only on the
pressure change observed, but also on the degree of outgassing. Outgassing is best defined as:
A. The viscosity of the pressurizing gas
B. Being directly proportional to the temperature of the gas
C. The release of gas from materials in a vacuum
D. The drop in test pressure due to leakage from the vacuum manifold

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

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 METALLURGY ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT
GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

PRACTICAL: 8
Numerical/MCQ based on LPT.
Date:

AIM: Numerical/MCQ based on LPT.

.
Relevant CO:
1. To learn the principles, working and applications of Visual inspection,
liquid penetrant testing and magnetic particle testing.
2. Apply liquid penetrant testing and magnetic particle testing NDT
methods for a given problem and identify defects.

1. Liquid penetrant testing is based on the principle of:

A. Polarized sound waves in a liquid
B. Magnetic domains
C. Absorption of X rays
D. Capillary action
Answer: D
2. When a small diameter tube is placed in a glass of water, water rises in the tube
to a level above the adjacent surface. This is called:
A. Viscosity
B. Capillary action
C. Surface tension
D. Barometric testing
Answer: B
3. How is the size of a liquid penetrant indication usually related to the
discontinuity it represents:
A. Larger than
B. Smaller than
C. Equal to
D. Not related to
Answer: A
4. A penetrant that is self-emulsifying is called:
A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post-emulsified
D. Dual sensitivity method
Answer: B
5. A penetrant process which employs an emulsifier as a separate step in the
penetrant removal process is called:
A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post-emulsified
D. Dual sensitivity method

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

Answer: C
6. A penetrant process in which excess penetrant is removed with an organic
solvent is called:
A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post-emulsified
D. Dual method
Answer: A
7. Which of the following statements accurately describes the capabilities of liquid
penetrant testing?
A. Liquid penetrant testing is useful for locating subsurface discontinuities in a test piece
B. Liquid penetrant testing is useful for locating discontinuities in porous materials
C. Liquid penetrant testing is useful for locating discontinuities which are open to the surface
in non-porous materials
D. none of the above
Answer: C
8. Which of the following discontinuity types could typically be found with a liquid
penetrant test?
A. Internal slag in a weld
B. Internal slag in a casting
C. Sensitization in austenitic stainless steel
D. Fatigue cracks
Answer: D
9. Which of the following chemical elements are normally held to a minimum in
liquid penetrant materials, when testing stainless steel and titanium?
A. Hydrogen
B. Chlorine
C. Carbon
D. Oil
Answer: B
10. Which of the following chemical elements are normally held to a minimum in
liquid penetrant materials when testing nickel based alloys?
A. Sulphur
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon
D. Nitrogen
Answer: A
11. Which of the following is the most desirable method of pre-cleaning a test piece
prior to penetrant testing?
A. Sand blasting
B. Vapour degreasing
C. Emery cloth
D. Wire brushing
Answer: B
12. Which of the following pre-cleaning processes is not recommended?
A. Detergent cleaning

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B. Vapour degreasing
C. Shot blasting
D. Ultrasonic cleaning
Answer: C
13. A wire brush should be used for pre-cleaning:
A. When grease and oil must be removed
B. Only as a last resort
C. When rust is to be removed
D. When grinding burrs must be removed
Answer: C
14. A hydrometer is used to measure:
A. Penetrant viscosity
B. Specific gravity of water based wet developers
C. Penetrant specific gravity
D. Cleaner specific gravity
Answer: B
15. Visible, solvent removable penetrants are most advantageous for:
A. Inspecting parts with rough surfaces
B. Inspecting batches of small parts
C. Inspecting parts at remote locations
D. Inspecting parts with porous surfaces
Answer: C
16. For adequate test results, the black light used in fluorescent penetrant
examination should provide what minimum black light intensity at the test
surface?
A. 100 foot candles per square centimetre
B. 1000 microwatts per square centimetre
C. 800 foot candles
D. 35 microwatts per square centimetre
Answer: B
17. What minimum warm-up time is required for acceptable performance of a
mercury Vapour arc black light?
A. None
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 10 minutes
Answer: C
18. Which of the following penetrants contains an emulsifying agent?
A. Solvent removable
B. Water washable
C. Post emulsifiable
D. Fluorescent
Answer: B
19. Which of the following penetrants must be treated with an emulsifier prior to
water removal?
A. Solvent removable

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

B. Water washable
C. Post emulsifiable
D. Fluorescent
Answer: C
20. What is the function of an emulsifier?
A. To remove the excess penetrant
B. To develop indications with a post emulsifiable penetrant system
C. To assist penetration with a post emulsifiable penetrant system
D. To make a post emulsifiable penetrant water washable
Answer: D
21. An oil based emulsifier is called:
A. Hydrophilic
B. Hydrophobic
C. Lipophilic
D. Fluoroscopic
Answer: C
22. A water based emulsifier is called:
A. Hydrophilic
B. Hydrophobic
C. Lipophilic
D. Fluoroscopic
Answer: A
23. Methylene chloride, isopropyl, alcohol, naptha and mineral spirits are examples
of:
A. Emulsifiers
B. Developers
C. Solvent removers
D. None of the above
Answer: C
24. What type of solvent removers may be used with a solvent removable
penetrant?
A. Any organic solvent
B. Only the cleaner recommended by the manufacturer of the penetrant
C. Any alcohol based solvents
D. Only chlorinated hydrocarbons
Answer: B
25. Which of the following is a prerequisite for a penetrant test?
A. Developer must be applied in a thin, even coat
B. Any surface coatings or soils must be completely removed
C. All traces of penetrant materials should be removed after testing is complete
D. The test object must be non-magnetic
Answer: B

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 METALLURGY ENGINEERING DEPARTMENT
GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

PRACTICAL: 9
Numerical/MCQ based on MPT.
Date:

AIM: Numerical/MCQ based on MPT.

.
Relevant CO:
1. To learn the principles, working and applications of Visual inspection,
liquid penetrant testing and magnetic particle testing.
2. Apply liquid penetrant testing and magnetic particle testing NDT
methods for a given problem and identify defects.

1. Selection of magnetic particle colour is based on:

A. Optimum performance of magnetic particle/developer
B. Colour of inspection light available
C. Obtaining maximum contrast with the test piece background
D. Optimum colour response of the human eye
Answer: C
2. The residual method is applicable to:
A. Surface discontinuities only
B. Subsurface discontinuities only
C. Either surface or subsurface discontinuities
D. All but tight surface cracks
Answer: A
3. Highest sensitivity to fine surface cracks would be obtained by which of the
following techniques?
A. Residual field, wet method
B. Residual field, dry method
C. Continuous field, wet method
D. Continuous field, dry method
Answer: C
4. A residual field is always less than a continuous field because?
A. The magnetic field, as shown by a hysteresis curve, is zero when there is no
magnetising force
B. The magnetic field, as shown by a hysteresis curve, is less when there is no
magnetising force
C. The magnetic field, as shown by a hysteresis curve, is greater when there is no
magnetising
force
D. None of the above
Answer: B
5. Where possible, circular magnetisation is preferable to longitudinal

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magnetization because:
A. Less current is required
B. Stronger fields are obtained
C. Fewer confusing secondary poles are produced
D. None of the above is true
Answer: D
6. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the dry method?
A. Ease of application with portable equipment
B. Superior sensitivity for fine surface cracks
C. Good particle mobility with AC and HWDC
D. Good sensitivity for subsurface discontinuities
Answer: B
7. Which of the following is an advantage of the dry method
A. Good sensitivity for subsurface discontinuities
B. Faster than wet method for quantities of small test pieces
C. Easily applied in an automated system
D. Easy coverage of surfaces of irregularly shaped test pieces
Answer: A
8. Loss of fine particle sizes due to re-use of dry particles would probably lead
to:
A. Loss of sensitivity to larger discontinuities
B. Loss of sensitivity to finer discontinuities
C. Unpredictable results
D. Slower inspection speeds
Answer: B
9. Which of the following is a disadvantage of the wet method?
A. It is the most sensitive method for detection of very fine surface cracks
B. Rapid testing of large quantities of small test pieces
C. Readily adaptable to mechanised equipment
D. Excellent detection of completely subsurface discontinuities
Answer: D
10. Which of the following is an advantage of the wet method?
A. Excellent detection of completely subsurface discontinuities
B. Ease of bath recovery and re-use
C. Low flash point ensures freedom from fire hazards
D. Relatively clean and easy to work with
Answer: B
11. The primary reason for using water rather than oil as a suspension
medium for
wet method baths is that:
A. Water is more chemically inert than oil
B. Bath flammability hazards are eliminated
C. Water has the capability to dissolve the needed rust inhibitors
D. Water baths may be used at lower temperatures than oil baths

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Answer: B
12. A disadvantage of fluorescent magnetic particles is:
A. Darkened area and black light are required
B. Abnormally high sensitivity
C. Only dry particles are available
D. Only wet concentrate is available
Answer: A
13. A common physiological effect of black light inspection on the inspector
is:
A. Burned retinas of the eyes
B. Rejected cornea syndrome
C. Eye fatigue
D. Retarded iris control
Answer: C
14. A common physiological effect of black light inspection on the inspector
is:
A. Burned retinas of the eyes
B. Rejected cornea syndrome
C. Eyeball fluorescence
D. Retarded iris control
Answer: C
15. Which of the following represents ultraviolet light of wavelengths which
are
potentially injurious (1 Å = 10-10m)
A. 2000 to 3200Å
B. 3200 to 4000 Å
C. 4000 to 4600Å
D. 4600 to 5200 Å
Answer: A
16. Dyes which receive light at one wavelength and re-emit light of another
wavelength are called:
A. L.E.Ds
B. Phosphorescent
C. Luminescent
D. Fluorescent
Answer: D
17. Most fluorescent dyes used for magnetic particle testing fluoresce what
colour?
A. Blue green
B. Yellow green
C. Blue black
D. Red orange
Answer: B
18. The best available source of black light for inspection is:

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

A. The mercury vapour lamp

B. The fluorescent tube
C. The incandescent bulb
D. Sunlight
Answer: A
19. Which of the following would be likely to cause variations in the output of
an inspection black light?
A. Voltage fluctuations
B. Aged bulb
C. Dirty filter
D. All of the above
Answer: D
20. The temperature above which steels become nonmagnetic is called the:
A. Zero retentivity
B. Curie point
C. Demagnetisation temperature
D. Random polar point
Answer: B
21. The temperature above which most soft steels become nonmagnetic is
about:
A. 440ºC(770oF)
B. 523ºC (975ºF)
C. 626ºC (1160ºF)
D. 754ºC (1390ºF)
Answer: D
22. The most common method of demagnetising small test pieces is:
A. Heat treatment
B. Shot peening
C. Passing through an AC coil
D. Direct contact with AC current
Answer: C
23. Demagnetisation with reversing DC is more effective than AC because:
A. DC is more penetrating
B. Demagnetisation is assisted by the skin effect
C. DC is more direct
D. Not true - AC is more effective
Answer: A
24. The type of discontinuity which magnetic particle testing most effectively
locates is:
A. Slag inclusions
B. Magnetic writing
C. Porosity
D. Surface cracks
Answer: D

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GOVERNMENT ENGINEERING COLLEGE, SECTOR-28, GANDHINAGAR

25. An indication which is formed when two pieces of magnetised steel come
in contact with each other is called:
A. A metallurgical discontinuity
B. Magnetic writing
C. Magnetic transfer
D. A ferromagnetic notch
Answer: B

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