ONLINE MOCK EXAM:1

Time : 2 hrs 45mins

Integumentary – 9 Questions

1. Patient presents with a stage III pressure ulcer of the sacrum and a stage III pressure ulcer of the
upper back. Physician performs an 18 sq.cm. debridement of the sacrum down to and including
the muscle. During the same session the physician also performed a 6 sq. cm. debridement of the
back down to and including the muscle. How should these services be reported?
a. 11011, 11011-59
b. 11043, 97597-59
c. 11043, 11046
d. 11043, 11043-59

2. Patient presents with ulcers of the ischium, left heel and upper back. The physician performs a 12
sq. cm. full thickness debridement of the ischium down to and including the muscle fascia. During
the same operative session the physician also performs a 10 sq. cm. debridement of the upper
back down to the muscle. The 4 sq cm heel ulcer was debrided down to the bone. How should
these services be reported?
a. 11043, 11043-59, 11044-59
b. 11043, 11046, 11044-59
c. 11043, 11044-59
d. 11043, 11046

3. The physician excised a 5mm excised diameter benign blue nevus from the patient’s arm and
performed a simple closure for a patient for which the physician reported CPT 11400. A month
later (outside the postoperative period), the same patient as in the above question returned to
her surgeon’s office with a 2 cm malignant lesion on her arm. In order to ensure that the entire
malignancy was removed, the surgeon excised the 2 cm lesion and 2 cm skin margin (1 cm above
the lesion and 1 cm below the lesion). This was the narrowest clinical margin required to
adequately excise the lesion. How should this be reported?
a. 11404
b. 11602
c. 11604
d. 11604-58

4. A surgeon excised a benign 5 cm lesion from a patient’s back. An adjacent tissue transfer was
performed to repair the defect resulting from the lesion excision. The defect repaired
encompassed 11 sq. cm (including both the primary and secondary defects). What are the correct
code(s) for these services?
a. 14001
b. 11406, 14001-51
c. 14000
d. 11406, 14000-51
5. A patient presents with an infected 3 cm sebaceous cyst on her right anterior lower leg. The
surgeon decides to excise the cyst. Based on the operative report, the cyst was involving the non-
muscle fascia. After excising the cyst the physician had to close the non-muscle fascia as well as
the skin and subcutaneous tissues. What are the correct codes to be reported?
a. 11423, 12002-51
b. 11403, 12032-59
c. 11404, 12042-51
d. 11403, 12032-51

6. A patient presents for destruction of premalignant lesions. The patient had five lesions. What are
the correct code(s) for these services?
a. 17000, 17003 x 4
b. 17000, 17003
c. 11200
d. 17000 x 5

7. A patient presents for destruction of three lesions. The pathologist confirmed that the lesions
were dermatofibrosarcomas. Cryosurgery was used to destroy a 1.2 cm back lesion, a 2.1 cm neck
lesion, and a 1.2 cm foot lesion. What are the correct code(s) for these services?
a. 17000, 17003
b. 17273, 17272-59, 17262-59,
c. 11602, 11602-59, 11623-59
D 17262 x 3

8. History: 21 year old cook at a local Waffle House was admitted to the burn center after
sufferingthird degree burns from scalding grease involving the left shoulder and chest. The total
body surface area with a third degree burn is 10%.Procedure: The patient was brought to the
operating room and placed in a supine position. After the induction of general anesthesia, the
subcutaneous tissue beneath the full-thickness burn is infiltrated with crystalloid solution
containing epinephrine to minimize blood loss during the procedure. The eschar involving the left
shoulder and anterior chest area is excised down to clean bloody bed of viable subcutaneous
tissue. A total area of 100 sq cm (40 sq cm on the arm and 60 sq cm on the chest) is excised and
readied for a staged graft procedure to be performed at a later date. Hemostasis is obtained with
electrocautery, epinephrine soaked pads and topical thrombin. The patient tolerated the
procedure well and was discharged to recovery in good condition. Estimated blood loss was
100ccs. Report the physician services.
a. 15002
b. 15002, 15220-51, 15221, 15200-51, 15201 x2
c. 15002, 15200-51, 15200 X 5
d. 15002 ,15200x6
9. A patient presented for a percutaneous biopsy of a lesion in her left breast. The procedure
was performed with ultrasound with clip palcement. What is the correct code for
procedure?
a. 19081
b. 11100
c. 19083
d. 19125

Musculoskeletal – 10 Questions

10. A 25 year-old construction worker presents to the emergency department with a penetrating and
traumatic open wound to his left arm. He has fallen from a ladder and a small piece of wood has
become lodged in his arm. The physician performs an exploration and enlargement of the
penetrating wound and removes the foreign body. How should these services be reported?
a. 20102
b. 20103, 24200-51
c. 20103
d. 10120

11. A driver suffered a closed LeFort fracture in a motor vehicle accident from striking a guardrail (on
a highway). The patient now presents for a midface reconstruction. The physician uses a LeFort III
technique involving a complete separation of the midfacial bones. The procedure requires bone
grafts, but is performed without LeFort I. How should these services be reported?
a. 21155
b. 21154
c. 21141
d. 21150

12. A physician performs an anterior interbody arthrodesis on C5-C7 including discectomy and
decompression of the spinal cord. How should the physician’s services be reported?
a. 22551, 22552, 63075-51, 63076
b. 22551, 22552, 63075-59, 63076
c. 22551, 22552
d. 22554, 22585, 63075-51, 63076

13. History: A 30 year old female fell while rollerblading (leisure). She suffered a closed fracture of
thedistal radius of her right arm as documented on plain films in the emergency room. Procedure: She is
brought to the operating room in stable condition. She is placed in a supine position on the operating
table. After induction of general anesthesia, site is cleaned and prepped. The distal radius is manipulated
and the fracture fragments are visualized using fluoroscopic imaging. It was determined with
fluoroscopic imaging that the fracture did not require reduction prior to placing the wires. The optimal
site for wire placement is determined and a small incision was made.
Tissue protector was placed over the wire and the wire and tissue protector were passed through the
incision. The wire is drilled into position at the fracture site. After insuring correct placement, the wire is
then drilled into the second site completing the fixation process. Two more wires are placed in similar
fashion for stabilization. The patient was moved to recovery in excellent condition. Report the physician
services for this procedure.
a. 25606, fluoroscopy included
b. 25606, 77002-26
b. 25600, 77002-26
c. 25574

14. In the morning, Dr. Jones attempted to treat a humeral shaft fracture with manipulation. The
procedure appeared to be successful. However, later that evening, the patient developed
additional problems relating to the fracture. Dr. Williams re-manipulated the fracture. The repeat
procedure was a success. What modifier should be appended to the code for the procedure
performed by Dr. Williams?
a. -77
b. -76
c. -62
d. -22

15. A patient with scoliosis was scheduled for major surgery to repair the shape of his spine. The
physician determined that 10 vertebral segments required surgical repair. She performs posterior
arthrodesis followed by posterior segmental instrumentation. How should these services be
reported?
a. 22802, 22843
b. 22802, segmental instrumentation is bundled
c. 22802, 22843-51
d. 22812, 22847

16. A patient presents for an excision of a benign bone tumor of the right clavicle with autograft. How
should these services be reported?
a. 23145-RT
b. 23140-RT; 20936-51
c. 23150-RT
d. 23155-RT

17. A general surgeon performed a deep biopsy of a soft tissue lesion in the area of the patient’s right
shoulder. The procedure was not a needle biopsy. While the patient is in the operating room, the
surgeon also excised a small 1 cm benign mass from the patient’s right hand. How should these
services be reported?
a. 23066, 11401-59
b. 23066, 11421-59
c. 23076, 11421-59
d. 23076, 11401-59
18. A patient injured his elbow in a motorcycle accident. The physician had to excise the radial
head and replace it with an implant. How should these services be reported?
a. 24130
b. 24999
c. 24365
d. 24366

19. Dr. Jackson and Dr. Barber, two orthopedic surgeons, performed an anterior interbody
arthrodesis of L2-L3. Dr. Barber then proceeded to insert a morselized allograft and apply
anterior instrumentation across L2-L3. How should each physician report their services?
Dr. Jackson Dr. Barber
a. 22558-62, 20930-62, 22845-62 22558-62, 20930-62, 22845-62
b. 22558-62, 22585-62 22554-62, 22585-62, 20930, 22845
c. 22558-62 22558-62, 20930, 22845
d. 22558-62, 22585-62 20930, 22845-51

Respiratory and Cardiovascular – 10 Questions

20. A patient has nasal polyps removed from both sides of her nose. A total of 3 polyps
were removed. How should the physician’s services be reported?
a. 30110 x 3
b. 30115-50
c. 30110 x 2
d. 30110-50

21. Mrs. Johnson underwent outpatient surgery for repair of a fractured left turbinate. The surgeon
ended up having to completely remove the left inferior turbinate using a surgical drill to sever it
from the lateral nasal wall. The procedure involved only mucousal nasal tissue and did not
extend into the submucousal tissue. How should the physician’s services be reported?
a. 30130-LT
b. 30140-LT
c. 30130-22-LT
d. 30140-52-LT

22. A patient presented to the emergency room with an acute pneumothorax. The ER physician
performed a thoracentesis with insertion of a tube under CT guidance. The hospital owned the
CT machine. How should the physician report for these surgical services?
a. 32551, 77012-26
b. 32555, 77012-26
c. 32555
d. 32551, 75989-26

23. Clara has had trouble breathing for two days. Her primary care physician referred her to an
ENT. The ENT performed a diagnostic maxillary sinusoscopy. How should the sinusoscopy be
reported?
a. 31237
b. 31231-50
 c. 31233
d. 31256-RT

24. Beverly had been hoarse for two weeks. Her surgeon scheduled a direct laryngoscopy with
injection of her vocal cords. During the surgery it became necessary for the surgeon to use
an operating microscope. How should the physician’s services be reported?
a. 31571
b. 31570, 69990
c. 31513-50
d. 31541-50

25. Mr. Baker was talking with his friends when he suddenly collapsed. He was admitted to the
hospital and scheduled for replacement of his dual chamber permanent pacemaker system.
The old pulse generator was replaced, and new atrial and ventricular electrodes were placed
transvenously. The skin pocket holding the pulse generator also required revision. How should
the physician’s services be reported?
a. 33214, 33222-51
b. 33228, 33235-51, 33217-51, 33222-51
c. 33235, 33208-51, 33222-51, 33233-51
d. 33235, 33208-51, 33233-51

26. A physician replaced a dual chamber pacing cardioverter-defibrillator system. The

electrodes were removed and replaced transvenously. How should the physician’s services
be reported?

a. 33223, 33243-51, 33249-51

b. 33241, 33244-51, 33249-51
c. 33244, 33249-51
d. 33218, 33243-51

27. History: 77 year old male with chronic renal failure is seen for VAD placement.
Procedure: Ultrasound was used to reveal a patent right subclavian vein. Permanent images
wererecorded. The region was anesthetized and access to the right subclavian vein was gained
under direct ultrasound guidance with a 19 gauge needle. A guidewire was advanced into the
venous system. The subcutaneous tunnel was anesthetized with Lidocaine with epinephrine.
Incisions were made at the venotomy and the chest wall exit site. A 24cm 14-FR Ashsplit
catheter was advanced from the chest wall exit site to the venotomy site with the supplied
tunneling device. Serial fascial dilation was then performed over a previously placed guidewire
with final placement of a 15-FR peel-away sheath into the subclavian vein. The dilator and wire
were removed followed by placement of the Ashsplit catheter into the venous system. The
catheter was positioned at the cavatorial junction under fluoroscopy. The peel-away sheath
was removed. The venotomy was closed with a single 3.0 Vicryl suture followed by
Dermabond tissue. Assuming the procedure is done at the facility and the ultrasound
equipment is owned by the facility; report the physician services for the procedure.
a. 36556, 77001-26, 76937-26
b. 36569, 76937-26
 c. 36558, 77001-26
d. 36558; 77001-26 and 76937-26

28. Mr. Davis had a single coronary artery bypass graft in 1998 using a venous graft.
Unfortunately, the 1998 graft later became occluded and additional blockages developed.
Today, the surgeon re-grafted the 1998 graft using a venous graft and performed two
additional grafts – one venous and one arterial. Due to Mr. Davis’s peripheral vascular disease,
the surgeon had to harvest a radial artery from the patient’s left arm for use in doing the
arterial graft. The saphenous vein was used for the venous grafts. How should the surgeon’s
services be reported?
a. 33533, 33530, 35600, 33512
b. 33533, 33530, 35600-51, 33518-51
c. 33533, 33530, 35600, 33518
d. 33533, 33530, 33518

29. A patient presents with a previously placed permanent biventricular pacemaker system (both
pulse generator and transvenous electrodes) in the right and left ventricles. During this
encounter the physician repositioned the pacemaker electrode in the patient’s left ventricle.
How should the physician’s services be reported?
a. 33215
b. 33216
c. 33207-76
d. 33226

Evaluation and Management – 10 questions

(A 59-year old male presented to the ED for treatment of trauma to the left kidney following an auto
accident. The ED physician took a history and examined the patient. The ED physician then called in a
urologist to consult on the case. Neither the urologist nor any other member of her group has seen
the patient before. The urologist saw the patient in the ED. She took a comprehensive history and
performed a comprehensive exam. Medical decision making was of high complexity. During the
course of this work-up, the urologist decided to schedule the patient for outpatient surgery the next
day. The urologist then properly documented the consult (including the request for the consult) and
communicated her opinion back the ED physician in writing (the consultant’s report was filed in the
patient’s medical record).

30. The patient was then released to home and instructed to return the next day for the
outpatient surgical procedure. How should the urologist’s E&M services be reported?

a. 99205-57
b. 99245-57
c. 99245-25
d. 99285-57

31. Dr. Lynn, a rheumatologist, had been treating Betty for severe rheumatoid arthritis for
years. Betty was recently in a bad car accident and was admitted into the hospital by Dr.
Marty, an orthopaedic surgeon, for treatment of a distal supracondylar fracture of the right
 femur. Dr. Marty asked Dr. Lynn to manage Betty’s rheumatoid arthritis while she was in
the hospital, however, he did not request a consult. Dr. Lynn saw Betty in the hospital. She
took a detailed history and performed a detailed exam. Medical decision making of
moderate complexity, including reviewing recent lab test results regarding Betty’s
qualitative rheumatoid factor. How should Dr. Lynn’s inpatient encounter with Betty be
reported?

a. 99253
b. 99221
c. 99233
d. 99233, 86430

32. An ED physician provided 2.5 hours of uninterrupted critical care services in the ED for a
critically ill 35 year-old established patient. A comprehensive exam was performed as a part
of the critical care services. Medical decision making was of high complexity.

a. 99285
b. 99291; 99292 x 3
c. 99285-25, 99291; 99292 x 3
d. 99285-22

33. Ms. Jones was seen by her primary care physician for her annual checkup one year ago. She
now presents to the same physician on her 40th birthday for another annual checkup. The
physician performed a comprehensive preventive medicine reevaluation including an age
and gender appropriate history and exam. During the preventive medicine examination, the
physician discovered that Ms. Jones had an arrhythmia. After completing the preventive
medicine service, the physician decided to take additional history and perform an additional
examination to determine whether Ms. Jones was developing atrial fibrillation. The
additional history consisted of a brief history of present illness and a problem pertinent
system review. The additional exam consisted of a complete examination of the
cardiovascular system. Medical decision making related to this follow-up work was of
moderate complexity. How should this encounter be reported?

a. 99396, 99214-25
b. 99396
c. 99214
d. 99396, 99213-25
34. George suffers from chronic hypertension. He has been a patient of Dr. Callahan’s for 15 years.
George last saw Dr. Callahan regarding his hypertension 3 days ago where he provided E & M
services. During that encounter Dr. Callahan changed George’s antihypertensive medication
from Lopressor to Cozaar. Today, George calls Dr. Callahan to discuss the fact that his new
medication makes him extremely dizzy. The call lasted 14 minutes. Dr. Callahan arranges to see
George the following day in the office to address his adverse effects of the Cozaar. How should
Dr. Callahan’s services for today be reported?

a. 99442
b. 98967
c. 99441
d. Not reported separately

35. Sandy saw Dr. Baker, her cardiologist, for a follow-up visit relating to her coronary artery
disease. She last saw Dr. Baker two months ago. At the time of her visit with Dr. Baker, Sandy
had been experiencing shortness of breath for three days. Dr. Baker took a detailed history and
performed a problem focused exam. Medical decision making was of moderate complexity. Dr.
Baker had some concerns about Sandy’s shortness of breath. The following day, he asked Dr.
Ross, one of his partners to evaluate Sandy’s breathing problems. Dr. Ross is also a cardiologist,
however, he has a lot of experience working with cardiac patients who also have respiratory
problems. Dr. Ross documented Dr. Baker’s request in Sandy’s chart. He took a comprehensive
history and performed a comprehensive exam. Medical decision-making was of moderate
complexity. Dr. Ross submitted a report back to Dr. Baker (which was filed in the patient’s
medical record) listing the services he had performed/ordered and providing his opinion on
Sandy’s breathing problems. What E&M codes would be used to report these services?

Dr. Baker Dr. Ross

a. 99213 99244
b. 99214 99244
c. 99213 99215
d. 99214 99215
36. Mr. Davis was awakened at 2 am by crushing chest pain. He called his primary care physician,
Dr. Henry, who asked him to go to the hospital emergency department immediately and wait
for him. Both Mr. Davis and Dr. Henry arrived at the ED at the same time. Dr. Henry took a
comprehensive history and performed a comprehensive exam. Medical decision making was
of high complexity.
Dr. Henry then admitted Mr. Davis with a diagnosis of an acute myocardial infarction. No ED
physician was involved in the case. Because of the comprehensive nature of the services
provided in the emergency department, no additional history, exam or medical decision making
was necessary to complete the admission. What E&M code(s) would be used to report Dr.
Henry’s services?

a. 99285
b. 99285, 99223-25
c. 99223
d. 99223, 99285-25

37. Mr. George gets regular allergy injections, however, he had not seen his allergist, Dr. Green,
for almost a year. He presented today to Dr. Green’s office complaining of mild asthma. Dr.
Green took a comprehensive history and performed a detailed exam. Medical decision
making was of moderate complexity. While Mr. George was in the office, Dr. Green gave Mr.
George his regular weekly allergy shot. How should the physician services provided during
this encounter be reported?

a. 95115, 99203-25
b. 95115, 99214-25
c. 99214, 95115-25
d. 99214

38. Dr. Jane saw Ralph, a 30-year old HIV patient, in the office for treatment of thrush relating to
his HIV disease. Dr. Jane had not seen Ralph for over six months. Dr. Jane performed a
comprehensive history and a comprehensive exam. Medical decision making was of
moderate complexity. The total encounter lasted 90 minutes. Of the 90 minutes, 50 minutes
were spent counseling Ralph on various aspects of managing his disease and coordinating
Ralph’s care. Ralph was present in the office with Dr. Jane for the entire 90 minutes. How
should Dr. Jane report this encounter?

a. 99215, 99354
b. 99214
c. 99214, 99354
d. 99215, 99354-25

39. Mr. Johnson is in the intensive care unit of the hospital. Mr. Johnson sustained a massive
hemorrhage in his brain two weeks ago. Mr. Johnson is no longer considered “critically ill”
but remains in the intensive care unit. The attending physician, Dr. Sampson sees Mr.
Johnson today. He performs a problem-focused history, a detailed exam and medical
decision making of moderate complexity. The total encounter time was 40 minutes. How
should Dr. Sampson report this encounter?
 a. 99232
b. 99291
c. 99251
d. 99252

ICD-10-CM – 11 Questions

40. Which of the following types of diagnosis codes should never be reported as the first
listed diagnosis code?
a. z-codes
b. disease elsewhere classified codes
c. Poisoning codes
d. Codes for signs or symptoms

41. Jimmy fell off his bicycle (leisure) and was taken to a local hospital’s emergency department.
The emergency physician did an expanded problem focused history, an expanded problem
focused exam and performed medical decision making of moderate complexity. The exam
reveals a 3cm laceration to Jimmy’s forehead and a large contusion to his right knee. The
knee x-rays were negative. The physician did a simple repair of the laceration. Select the
appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter.
a. S01.81XA, S80.1XA
b. S01.81XA, S80.1XA, 99201
c. S01.81XA
d. S01.81XS, S80.1XS

42. Susie presented to the emergency department vomiting blood. The emergency physician
determined that the vomiting was due to esophageal varices resulting from liver cirrhosis.
Select the appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter.
a. I85.10,K74.60
b. I85.00
c. I86.01
d. K74.60, I85.10

43. Mr. Morgan reports to his physician feeling very dizzy. It is discovered that his blood
pressure is elevated (210/190). The physician documents a diagnosis of end stage renal
failure due to malignant hypertension. Select the appropriate diagnosis code(s) for this
encounter.
a. I12.9
b. I10
c. I12.0, N18.6
d. I12.0

44. Mr. Barber reported to his primary care physician complaining of difficulty breathing. He is
HIV positive, but prior to today has never had any symptoms of HIV disease. The physician
examined Mr. Barber and documented that his breathing difficulty was due to pneumocystis
carinii pneumonia (PCP), a HIV related disease. Select the appropriate diagnosis code(s) for
this encounter.
 a. Z21,J18.9
b. B20, B59
c. Z21, B59
d. B59, J18.9

45. Mr. Sawyer was adding water to his car battery when the battery exploded. (He reported to
the local burn center that tracks the mortality of burns.) After examining Mr. Sawyer, the
emergency physician documented a diagnosis of third degree burns to the right palm and a
second degree burn to his left cheek and forehead. The physician determined that the burns
were caused by contact with the battery acid. Total body surface burned was documented as
less than 10%. Select the appropriate diagnosis codes for this encounter.
a. T23.302A
b. T20.20XA
c. T20.26XA, T23.301A
d. T23.301A, T20.26XA

46.Carrie reported to her physician with an acute sore throat. The physician diagnosed this as strep
throat, and gave her prescription for Ampicillin. After taking two doses as prescribed Carrie developed
a skin rash. She returned to the physician who determined that she was experiencing dermatitis as a
reaction to the Ampicillin. The physician discontinued the Ampicillin and called in a prescription for
another antibiotic. Select the correct diagnosis codes for this encounter.
a. L25.9
b. T36.0X1A
c. L30.9, T36.95XA
d. T36.95XA, L30.9

47.Russell has been a Type I insulin dependent diabetic for twenty years without any complications.
Two days ago he began to experience episodes of blurred vision. During one of these episodes
Russell stubbed his left big toe. Today it is extremely inflamed, painful and has a small ulceration. He
saw his primary care physician who determined that Russell had a diabetic ulcer of the left big toe.
Select the correct diagnosis codes for this encounter.
a. L97.529
b. E10.621, L97.529
c. E11.629, L97.529
d. E10.621, L97.529, Z79.4

48.Vanessa saw her primary care physician three days ago. At that time, the physician diagnosed a
urinary tract infection and prescribed an antibiotic. Today, the culture and sensitivity from the
earlier encounter was returned from the lab. Based on the lab report, the physician concluded that
the UTI was due to E Coli. The physician decided to change Vanessa’s antibiotic. After speaking
with Vanessa on the phone, the physician called in a prescription for a new antibiotic. Select the
correct diagnosis code(s) for the original encounter assuming that the physician reviewed the
culture and sensitivity (and documented her findings) prior to billing for the encounter.
a. R39.81
b. B96.2, N39.0
c. N39.0, B96.2
d. B96.2
49.Mrs. Ashworth is two months post partial mastectomy for breast cancer. She is still undergoing
radiation therapy for the breast cancer. During the hospitalization for her mastectomy, she was found
to have another primary malignancy in her kidney. She presents to her oncologist today for further
work-up relating to the kidney cancer. While she is in the office, the physician also examines her
breast and determines that, unfortunately, the cancer is still present in the upper outer portion of her
left breast. Select the correct diagnosis codes for today’s encounter.
a.C50.519
b.C50.419,C64.9
c C64.9, .C50.419,
d C64.1

50.Mrs. Ashworth is five months pregnant and presents to her OB/GYN for management of her
gestational diabetes during the antepartum period. Select the correct diagnosis codes for today’s
encounter.
a. E10.8
b. O24.419, E10.8
c. O16.9
d. O24.419

Coding Concepts – 5 Questions

51.Which of the following is a key difference between “add-on” codes and “modifier -51 exempt”
codes?

a. The modifier -51 exempt codes are never reported with a modifier
b. The add-on codes may be reported in addition to other codes for services provided
during the same encounter
c. Add-on codes are never reported as stand alone codes
d. An add-on code is never reported if the service provided is a component
of a more comprehensive service provided during the same encounter

52.The phrase “separate procedure” when listed in parentheses at the end of a CPT code description
means that:
a. The code should always be reported separately whenever the service described by
the code is performed
b. The code should not be reported separately if the service described by the
code was a component of a more comprehensive service provided during the
same encounter
c. The code should only be reported if the service described by the code was the
only service provided during the encounter
d. The code should only be reported when a separate physician performed the service
described by the code

53.Which of the following is not an acceptable method of reporting the CPT code(s) for surgical
services when no single code accurately and fully describes the services performed during a
particular outpatient surgical session?
a. Report the code that most closely reflects the physician work involved even if the code
does not exactly describe the specific services performed
b. Report a combination of codes that, taken together, accurately and fully describe the
services performed
 c. Report the code that most closely describes the services performed, modified by either a
-22 or a -52 modifier as appropriate to reflect the differences between the description for
the code and the actual services performed
d. Report the unlisted code that best describes the services performed

54. Which of the following is not considered a part of the CPT “surgical package”?
a. All E&M encounters on the day prior to the surgery and the day of the surgery
b. Local anesthesia
c. Evaluation of the patient in the recovery area
d. Typical uncomplicated follow-up care

55. Which symbol(s) is used in the CPT manual to indicate that the description of a particular CPT
code was revised for the current year?
a. A dot
b. A *
c. A triangle
d. A+


Medical Terminology and Anatomy – 22 Questions

56. Which term identifies the imaginary line that separates the body into upper and lower
halves?
a. Coronal
b. Transverse
c. Sagittal
d. Dorsal

57. Molluscumcontagiosum is a condition best described as a:

a. A malignant skin lesion caused by a virus
b. A benign skin lesion
c. A benign skin lesion caused by a virus
d. A skin lesion

58. Which of the following is not a term that is typically used to describe a type of fracture?
a. Comminuted
b. Linear
c. Percutaneous
d. Greenstick

59. Formation of new red blood cells takes place in the:

a. Liver
b. Bone marrow
c. Spleen
d. Lymph nodes
60. The ilium is:
a. A bone that is part of the pelvic girdle
b. The small intestine
c. The large intestine
d. A portion of the iliac artery

61. A “tenotomy” is:

a. A procedure involving an incision into the eardrum
b. A procedure involving an incision into the tenomatic membrane
c. A procedure involving the surgical cutting of a tendon
d. A procedure involving the complete removal of one or more tendons

62. According to CPT, which pair of organs are considered part of two separate body systems?
a. Thyroid and thymus
b. Ovary and testes
c. Gallbladder and jejunum
d. Epiglottis&larynx
 63. Which of following statements best describes the function of the arteries?
a.They carry oxygen-loaded blood from the heart to other parts of the body
b.They return blood to the heart from throughout the body
c.They carry blood from the heart to other parts of the body
d.They are used to reroute blockages in and around the heart and coronary vessels

64. A xenograft is a graft:

a. From another species
b. From the same body
c. From another human being
d. From a cadaver

65. Which of the following terms is used to describe a vertebral segment?

a. A single complete vertebral bone only
b. The non-bony compartment between two adjacent vertebral bodies and the
associated articular processes and laminae
c. The non-bony compartment between two adjacent vertebral bodies
d. A single complete vertebral bone with its associated articular processes and laminae

66. The term “adenosine” refers to:

a. A sine wave examination of the adenoids
b. A diagnostic study of the adenoids
c. A drug
d. A device used to treat the adenoids

67. The vestibule of the mouth includes:

a. Lips, tongue, cheek
b. Tongue, cheek
c. Mucosal and submucosal tissue of lips and cheeks
d. Lips, cheeks, pharynx

68. TURP is an acronym for:

a. Transurethral Renal Pyelotomy
b. Transurethral Resection of Prostate
c. Transurethral Renal Pelvectomy
d. Transurethral Repair of Prostate

69. The suffix “orrhaphy” means:

a.Resection
b.Suture/surgical repair
c.Grafting
d.Re-implantation
70. Cryotherapy involves the use of:
a. Heat treatment
b. Artificial tears
c. A freezing probe
d. Laser treatment

Medicine – 10 Questions

71. A primary care physician administers DTP by Im and MMR by SC. How should these injections
be reported?
a. 96372, 96374,96375,90700,90707
b. 90471, 90472 x 2, 90700, 90707
c. 90471, 90472 x 2, 90700, 90710
d. 90471,90472,90700,90707
72. A primary care physician administered 100 mg of RSV immune globulin by
intramuscular injection. How should these services be reported?
a. 96372, 90378 x 2
b. 96372, 90378
c. 96372 x 2, 90378 x 2
d. 99211-25, 90378 x 2

73. A psychiatrist saw his patient at a residential care facility. The psychiatrist provided 50 minutes
of face-to-face individual psychotherapy relating to the patient’s schizophrenia. The purpose of
the treatment was to attempt to help the patient modify his behavior to better manage his
disease.
How should the physician’s services be reported?
a. 90839
b. 90834
c. 90837
d. 90832

74. An ophthalmologist performed an intermediate medical examination and evaluation on an

established patient. He determined that the patient needed contact lenses. The
ophthalmologist prescribed and fitted one pair of contact lenses. The supply of the contact
lenses was considered included in the fitting service. This patient does not have aphakia. How
should these services, including the supply of the contact lens, be reported?
a. 92002, 92314-51
b. 92012, 92310-51
c. 92012, 92314-51
d. 92002, 92310-51

75. Dr. Fredericks performed a cardiac catheterization on Mrs. Dillon last week to determine the
extent of her coronary artery disease. She was subsequently admitted to the hospital for
surgery. The surgeon performed a PTCA on the left anterior descending coronary artery and
placed a stent in the left circumflex coronary artery. All of these services were performed
during the same operative session. How should this surgical session be reported?
a. 92928
b. 92920
c. 92920,92928
d. 92924