Yakeen NEET (2025)

PRACTICE TEST - 01

DURATION ::200
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes DATE : 19/05/2024 M. MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics : Basic Maths & Calculus (Mathematical Tools) (Complete Chapter), Vectors (Complete Chapter)
Chemistry : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry (Complete Chapter), Redox Reaction (Complete Chapter)
Biology : (Botany) : Cell - The Unit of Life (Complete Chapter)
(Zoology) : Complete Animal tissue except cockroach and frog

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours 20 min. duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 200 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 50 Questions in each Subject and each
subject is divided in two Section, Section A consisting 35 questions (all questions are compulsory) and
Section B consisting 15 Questions (Any 10 questions are compulsory).
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong MCQ response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone,
any electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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 [Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET (2025) | 19/05/2024]

SECTION-(I) PHYSICS

SECTION-A 7. Given two vectors; A  iˆ  ˆj and B  iˆ  ˆj. Then

1. If P  Q   PQ , then angle between P and Q is: match the following columns:
(1) 0° (2) 180° List-I List-II
(3) 45° (4) 60° (I) ( A  B)/2 (A) iˆ
(II) ( A  B)/2 (B) ĵ
2.  
A force 2iˆ  2 ˆj N displaces an object through a (III) ( A · B)/2 (C) k̂
displacement (2iˆ  3 ˆj ) m . The work (W  F  S ) (IV) ( A  B)/2 (D)  k̂
done is: (E) zero
(1) 2 J (1) I-A, II-B, III-E, IV-D
(2) –2 J (2) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(3) 5 J (3) I-C, II-A, III-B, IV-D
(4) 13 J (4) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C

3. If a vector 2iˆ  3 ˆj  8kˆ is perpendicular to the 8. Given x2  7 x  12  0 , find the root of x

3
vector 4 ˆj  4iˆ  kˆ . Then the value of  (1) x  , 4 (2) x  3, 4
2
(1) –1 (2) 1/2 3 3
1 (3) x  , 4 (4) x  , 2
(3)  (4) 1 2 2
2
9. A and B are two vectors and θ is the angle
4. For the figure
between them, if | A B | 3( A.B), the value of
θ is
(1) 90° (2) 60°
(3) 45° (4) 30°

10. Correct value of cos (2°)

(1) A B  C

(1) 2° (2)
(2) B  C  A 50
(3) C  A  B (3) 1 (4) 0
(4) A B C  0
11. Find the value of cos (330°)
(1) sin 45° (2) –cos 30°
5. If two vectors 2iˆ  3 ˆj  kˆ and 4iˆ  6 ˆj  kˆ are (3) cos 60° (4) sin 60°
parallel to each other then value of  be
(1) 0 (2) 2 12. If tan  = 5/12; then what is the value of 3 sin  +
(3) 3 (4) 4 2 cos .
(1) 3 (2) 4
6. Statement-I: The scalar product of two vectors (3) –3 (4) 12
can be zero.
Statement-II: If two vectors are perpendicular to 13. If y = sin 2 then find ‘’ where y will be
each other, their scalar product will be zero. maximum:
(1) 90° (2) 60°
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(3) 45° (4) 32°
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
14. The sum of the series 1 + 1/4 + 1/16 + 1/64 + ⋯
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
∞ is
correct.
(1) 8/7 (2) 6/5
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
(3) 5/4 (4) 4/3
incorrect.
15. Find sum of infinite term 4
1 1 1 1 1
22.  x
dx
1 − + − + − ......
2 4 8 16 32
−8
1 2 (1) +C
(1) (2) x
2 3
3 2
(3) 2 (4) (2) +C
2 x
4
 /2
(3) +C
x
16. Value of  cos3t dt is:
(4) 8 x + C
0
2 1
(1) (2) −
3 3 d
23. ( sin 30) is equal to
2 1 dx
(3) − (4)
3 3 (1) cos 30°
(2) cosec 30°
(3) 0
 3x
2
17. dx
(4) sin 30°
(1) x3 + C (2) 6x + C
dy
(3) 2x2 + C (4) x2 + C 24. If y = 4x2 – 2x + 4 then find
dx
(1) 8x – 2x
 ( x + sin x + 3) dx
2
18. (2) 8x –2
x3
(3) 8x – 2 + 4
(1) + cos x + 3x + C (4) 4x + 4
3
x3
(2) − cos x + 3x + C dy
3 25. If y = x2 + 4x3 – 8x + 4, then find
dx
x3
(3) + cos x − 3x + C (1) 2x + 4x2 – x
3
(2) 2x + 12x2 – 8
x3
(4) − cos x − 3x + C (3) 2x + 4x3 – 8
3
(4) 2x + 12x2 – x
 1
  e
x
19. +  dx dy
x 26. y = (1 – x2)10, then find .
(1) ex – log x + C dx
1 (1) 10(1 – x2)9
(2) e x − 2 + C
x (2) 10(1 – x2)9 x2
1 (3) –20x (1 – x2)9
(3) e x + 2 + C (4) Not differentiable
x
x
(4) e + log x + C
27. (1 + x)3 find the value, if x << 1.
1 (1) 1 + x
e
x
20. dx (2) 1 – 3x
0 (3) 1 + 3x
(1) ex (2) 1 (4) 1 + 3x + 3x2 + x3
(3) 0 (4) e – 1
28. If y = e–x, then find double differentiation of y.
 /2
(1) e– αx
21.  ( sin  + cos ) d  (2) – e– αx
0
(1) 1 (2) 0 (3) e–αx
(3) 2 (4) –1 (4) 2 e– αx
29. Find the angle ΑΒC SECTION – B

36. The unit vector along iˆ − 2 ˆj is :

iˆ − 2 ˆj
(1) (2) iˆ + ˆj
5
iˆ + ˆj iˆ − ˆj
(3) (4)
2 5
(1) 0° (2) 60°
(3) 30° (4) 45° 37. If a unit vector is represented by 0.3iˆ − 0.4 ˆj + ckˆ ,
 then the value of ‘c’ is :
30. Convert angle from radian to degree rad:
3 (1) 0.75
(1) 60°
(2) 0.25
(2) 30°
(3) 0.01
(3) 45°
(4) 0° (4) 0.39
4
31. Convert angle from radian to degree rad: 38. Forces 7 N, 24 N, 25 N act at a point in mutually
3
(1) 120° (2) 240° perpendicular directions. The magnitude of the
resultant force is :
(3) 150° (4) 0°
(1) 19 N
(2) 13 N
32. Find the value of 0.98 (3) 26 N
(1) 0.99 (2) 1.02 (4) 25 2 N
(3) 0.95 (4) 0.90

39. The direction cosines of a vector 2iˆ + 2 ˆj + kˆ

33. If a particle moves from point P (2, 3, 5) to point
are.-
Q (3, 4, 5). Its displacement vector be
2 2 1
(1) iˆ + ˆj + 10kˆ (1) , ,
5 5 5
(2) iˆ + ˆj + 5kˆ
1 1 1
(2) , ,
(3) iˆ + ˆj 5 5 5
(4) 2iˆ + 4 ˆj + 6kˆ 1 1 1
(3) , ,
5 5 5
1 1 1
34. A = 2iˆ + ˆj , B = 3 ˆj − kˆ and C = 6i − 2kˆ. (4) , ,
5 5 5
Value of A − 2 B + 3C would be
(1) 20iˆ + 5 ˆj + 4kˆ 40. Vector P makes angles ,  &  with the X , Y
(2) 20iˆ − 5 ˆj − 4kˆ and Z axes respectively, then
2 2 2
(3) 4iˆ + 5 ˆj + 20kˆ cos  + cos  + cos  =
(1) 0
(4) 5iˆ + 4 ˆj + 10kˆ
(2) 1
(3) 2
35. If the sum of two unit vectors is a unit vector, then (4) 3
magnitude of difference is
(1) 2 41. 2 sin 45° cos 45° is equal to
(1) 2
(2) 3 (2) 1
1 1
(3) (3)
2 2
(4) 5 (4) none
42. Find the value of n if 46. If y = –x2 then draw graph between y and x.
3 5
=2+
n 2
(1)
(1) 3/2
(2) 3
(3) 2/3 (2)
(4) 5/2

43. Find the value of log10 25 + log10 4

(1) 25 (3)
(2) 10
(3) 4
(4) 2
(4)

44. Which graph is the best representation for the

given equation, y = 2x – 1
x2 dy
47. If y = 3x3 + + 3 then value of when x = 2
2 dx
is
(1)
(1) 20
(2) 11
(3) 0
(4) None of these

(2)
48. sin A is equal to -
A
(1) 2sin 2 1
2
A
(2) 2cos2 1
2
(3)
A A
(3) 2sin cos
2 2
(4) 2 sin A cos A

𝑑 1
49. (𝑥 + 𝑥 + 𝑙𝑜𝑔 𝑥 + 𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝑥)
(4) 𝑑𝑥
1
(1) 1 sec2 x
x2
1
(2) 1 sec2 x
x
45. Find the sum of given series 1 1
(3) 1 2 sec2 x
GMm  1 1  x x
F= 2 
1 + + + ....  
r  2 4 
(4) 1 –
1 1
sec2 x
2 x
x
2GMm
(1) F =
r2
dy
2GMm 50. y = sec x + tan x, value of is-
(2) F = dx
r (1) sec2 x + tan x
2GMm (2) tan2 x + sec x
(3) F =
r3 (3) sec x(tan x + sec x)
(4) None (4) sec x(1 + sec x)
 [Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET (2025) | 19/05/2024]

SECTION-(II) CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 57. In which of the following compounds, an element

51. Which one can act as oxidising and reducing exhibits two different oxidation states?
agent both? (1) NH2OH (2) NH4NO3
(1) HNO2 (2) H2O2 (3) N2H4 (4) N3H
(3) H2SO3 (4) All of these
58. The oxidation number of phosphorus in
52. In the following redox reaction, Ba(H2PO2)2 is:
xUO2+ + Cr2 O72− + yH + → 3UO22+ + zCr 3+ + 4H 2 O (1) +3 (2) +2
the value of coefficients x, y and z respectively (3) +1 (4) –1
are:
(1) 3, 8, 2 (2) 3, 8, 7 59. Calculate the equivalent weight of KHC 2O4 when
(3) 3, 2, 7 (4) 3, 1, 8 it is oxidised by MnO −4 in basic medium:
(1) 64 (2) 128
53. The oxidation number of C in CH4, CH3Cl,
(3) 32 (4) 15
CH2Cl2, CHCl3 and CCl4 are respectively:
(1) +4, +2, 0, –2, –4
(2) +2, +4, 0, –4, –2 60. Assuming complete ionisation, same moles of
(3) –4, –2, 0, +2, +4 which of the following compounds will require
(4) –2, –4, 0, +4, +2 the least amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete
oxidation?
54. The equivalent mass of potassium permanganate (1) Fe(NO2)2
in strong basic medium is: (2) FeSO4
Molar mass Molar mass (3) FeSO3
(1) (2)
5 3 (4) FeC2O4
Molar mass
(3) (4) Molar mass itself 61. The number of moles of KMnO4 reduced by one
2
mole of KI in alkaline medium is:
55. The oxidation number of the central atom in the (1) One fifth (2) Five
following species identify the incorrect option. (3) One (4) Two
(1) ClO3− is + 5
62. Assertion(A): All decomposition reaction are
(2) K 2 Cr2O7 is + 6
redox reactions.
(3) HAuCl4 is + 3 Reason(R): H2O upon decomposition forms H2
(4) Cu 2 O is − 1 and O2.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
56. Match the List-I with List-II and choose the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
correct option. of Assertion (A).
List-I List-II (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
(oxidation states of true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
central atom) of Assertion (A).
A. Cr O 2− I. +3 (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
2 7
false.
B. MnO −4 II. +5
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
C. VO3− III. +6 true.
D. FeF63− IV. +7
63. When sulphur dioxide is passed in an acidified
A B C D K2Cr2O7 solution, the oxidation state of sulphur is
(1) III IV II I
changed from:
(2) I IV II III
(1) +4 to +0 (2) +4 to +2
(3) III II IV I
(3) +4 to +6 (4) +6 to +4
(4) III IV I II
64. When of the following elements does not show 70. In the conversion of Br2 to BrO3− , the oxidation
disproportionation tendency?
number of Br changes from:
(1) Cl (1) Zero to +5
(2) Br (2) +1 to +5
(3) F (3) Zero to –3
(4) I (4) +2 to +5

65. Identify disproportionation reaction: 71. The oxidation state of oxygen atom in potassium
(1) CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O superoxide is:
(2) CH4 + 4Cl2 → CCl4 + 4HCl (1) Zero
(3) 2F2 + 2OH– → 2F– + OF2 + H2O (2) −
1
2
(4) 2NO2 + 2OH– → NO −2 + NO3− + H2O
(3) –1
(4) –2
66. Assertion (A): Formal oxidation number of
Sulphur in Na2S4O6 is 2.5. 72. Oxidation state of hydrogen in CaH2 is:
Reason (R): Two S-atom are not directly linked (1) +1
to oxygen atoms. (2) –1
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (3) +2
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (4) 0
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are 73. The average oxidation number of Fe in Fe3O4 is:
true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation (1) +2
of Assertion (A). (2) +3
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is 8
(3)
false. 3
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is 2
(4)
true. 3

67. Which of the following have been arranged in the 74. The oxidation number of phosphorus vary from:
decreasing order of oxidation number of sulphur? (1) –3 to +5
(1) Na2S4O6 > H2S2O7 > Na2S2O3 > S8 (2) – 1 to +1
(2) H2SO4 > SO2 > H2S > H2S2O8 (3) –3 to +3
(4) –5 to +1
(3) SO22+  SO42+  SO32−  HSO−4
(4) H 2SO4  H 2SO3  SCl2  H 2S 75. In which of the following compound oxidation
number of Cl is +3?
68. Which of the following is not an example of (1) ICl
redox reaction? (2) ClO3−
(1) CuO + H2 → Cu + H2O (3) ClF3
(2) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 (4) HClO4
(3) 2K + F2 → 2KF
(4) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + 2HCl 76. If 1/2 moles of oxygen combine with Aluminium
to form Al2O3 the weight of Aluminium metal
69. Equivalent mass of KMnO4 in acidic, basic and used in the reaction is [Al = 27];
neutral are in the ratio of: 4Al(s) + 3O2 (g) → 2Al2 O3 (s)
(1) 3 : 5 : 15 (1) 27 g
(2) 5 : 3 : 1 (2) 18 g
(3) 5 : 1 : 3 (3) 54 g
(4) 3 : 15 : 5 (4) 40.5 g
77. If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood 83. What is the empirical formula of a compound
is 0.9 g L–1 , what will be the molarity of glucose composed of O and Mn in equal weight ratio?
in blood? (Atomic weight of Mn = 55)
(1) 5 M (1) MnO
(2) 50 M (2) MnO2
(3) 0.005 M (3) Mn2O3
(4) 0.5 M (4) Mn2O7

78. Molarity of H2SO4 is 18 M. Its density is 1.8 84. Number of atoms in 55.85 gram Fe (atomic
g/cm2, hence the molality is: weight of Fe = 55.28 g mol–1) is:
(1) 18 m (1) Twice that of 60 g carbon
(2) 100 m (2) 6.023 × 1022
(3) 36 m (3) Half that of 8 g He
(4) 500 m (4) 5558.5×6.023×1023

79. The number of moles of methane required to 85. The neutralise 20 mL of M/10 sodium hydroxide,
produce 11g CO2(g) after complete combustion is: the volume of M/20 hydrochloric acid required is
(Given molar mass of methane in g mol–1 :16) (1) 10 mL
(1) 0.75 (2) 15 mL
(2) 0.5 (3) 20 mL
(3) 0.35 (4) 40 mL
(4) 0.25
SECTION-B
80. How many H-atoms are present in 0.046 g of 86. In a compound C, H and N atoms are present in
ethanol? 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. Gram Molecular weight of
(1) 6 × 1020 compound is 108 g/mol. Molecular formula of
(2) 1.2 × 1021 compound is:
(3) 3 × 1021 (1) C2NH2
(4) 3.6 × 1021 (2) C3H4N
(3) C6H8N2
81. The molarity of a solution obtained by mixing 750 (4) C9H12N3
mL of 0.5 M HCl with 250 mL of 2 M HCl will
be: 87. The mass of CaCO3 required to react with 25 mL
(1) 0.875 M of 0.75 M HCl is:
(2) 1.00 M (1) 0.94 g
(3) 1.75 M (2) 0.68 g
(4) 0.0975 M (3) 0.76 g
(4) 0.52 g
82. Assertion(A): The reactant which is present in
larger amount limits the amount of product 88. The metal oxide have 20% oxygen by mass, then
formed is called limiting reagent. equivalent weight of oxide is:
Reason(R): Amount of product formed depends (1) 30
upon the amount of reactants taken. (2) 32
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are (3) 40
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation (4) 44
of Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are 89. The empirical formula and molecular mass of a
true but Reason (R) is not a correct compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively. What
explanation of Assertion (A). will be the molecular formula of the compound?
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is (1) C9H18O9
false. (2) CH2O
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is (3) C6H12O6
true. (4) C2H4O2
90. In Haber’s process, 30 L of H2 and 30 L of N2
were taken for a reaction which yielded only 50%
of the expected product. What will be the
composition of the gaseous mixture under these
conditions?
(1) 10 L NH3, 25 L N2 15 L H2
96. Which of the following has the maximum number
of atoms?
(1) 1 g of Mg(s) [Atomic mass of Mg = 24]
(2) 1 g O2 (g) [Atomic mass of O = 16]
(3) 1 g of Li(s) [Atomic mass of Li = 7]
(4) 1g of Ag(s) [Atomic mass of Ag = 108]

(2) 20 L NH3, 10 L N2, 3 L H2

97. How many mL of 1M H2SO4 is required to
(3) 20 L NH3, 25 L N2, 15L H2
neutralise 10 mL of 1M NaOH solution:
(4) None of these
(1) 2.5
(2) 5.0
91. How many atoms in total are present in 1kg of
(3) 10.0
sugar:
(4) 20.0
(1) 7.92×1025 atoms
(2) 6 × 1023 atoms 98. The weight of one molecule of the compound
25
(3) 6.022 × 10 atoms C60H122 is:
(4) 1000 atoms (1) 1.09 × 10–21 g
(2) 5.025 × 1023 g
92. Which of the following pairs of substances (3) 1.4 × 10–21 g
illustrate the law of multiple proportions: (4) 16.023 × 1023 g
(1) CO and CO2
(2) H2O and D2O 99. Number of moles of water in 488.6 gm of BaCl2 .
2H2O are (molecular weight of BaCl2 . 2H2O =
(3) NaCl and NaBr
244.33)
(4) MgO and Mg(OH)2
(1) 2 Moles
(2) 4 Moles
93. Which one of the following pairs of gases
(3) 3 Moles
contains the same number molecules:
(4) 5 Moles
(1) 16 g O2 and 14 g of N2
(2) 8 g of O2 and 22 g of CO2 100. Assertion(A): Molecular formula shows the exact
(3) 28 g of N2 and 22 g of CO2 number of different types of atoms present in a
(4) 32 g of O2 and 32 g of N2 molecule of a compound.
Reason (R): Molecular formula can be obtained
94. A hydrocarbon contains 80% of carbon, then the directly from empirical formula which represents
hydrocarbon is: the simplest whole number ratio of various atoms
(1) CH4 present in a compound.
(2) C2H4 (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation
(3) C2H6
of Assertion (A).
(4) C2H2
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are
true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation
95. Which of the following has the maximum number
of Assertion (A).
of atoms of oxygen?
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is
(1) 10 mL of H2O(L) false.
(2) 0.1 mole of V2O5 (4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is
(3) 12 g O3 (g) true.
23
(4) 12.044 × 10 moles of CO2
 [Practice Test-02 | Yakeen NEET (2025) | 19/05/2024]

SECTION-(III) BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. Which of the following is correct regarding the 108. Which of the following part provides sticky
origin of lysosomes? character to the bacterial cell?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum → Golgi bodies → (1) Cell wall
Lysosomes (2) Mesosome
(2) Golgi bodies → Endoplasmic reticulum → (3) Plasma membrane
Lysosomes (4) Glycocalyx
(3) Nucleus → Golgi bodies → Lysosomes
(4) Mitochondria → Endoplasmic reticulum → 109. Protists have;
Golgi bodies → Lysosomes
(1) inclusion bodies and cell wall.
(2) plasmid and plasma membrane.
102. The leucoplasts that store oils and fats;
(3) mesosome and nucleoid.
(1) amyloplasts. (2) elaioplasts.
(4) plasma membrane and nucleus.
(3) aleuroplasts. (4) glyceroplasts.
110. Chromatophores;
103. The sedimentation coefficient of ribosome is a
(1) contain pigments.
measure of;
(2) present in cyanobacteria.
(1) density. (2) number.
(3) they are membranous extensions.
(3) structure. (4) None of these
(4) All of these
104. The diameter of cisternae of golgi apparatus is;
111. Which of the following statements is not true for
(1) 0.1 – 0.01 μm. (2) 0.5 – 1 μm.
the plasma membrane?
(3) 5 – 1 μm. (4) None of these
(1) It is present in both plant and animal cells.
(2) Lipids are present in it as bilayer.
105. How many of the following are correct for
(3) Proteins may be peripheral or integral in it.
mitochondria found in plant cell?
(4) Carbohydrates are never found in it.
(a) Membraneless structure.
(b) Contain ds linear DNA.
112. Golgi apparatus is the important site of formation
(c) Contain 70 S ribosomes.
of;
(d) Have cisternae.
(1) glycoproteins and glycolipids.
(1) One (2) Two
(2) vesicles.
(3) Three (4) Four
(3) lysosomes.
(4) All of these
106. Cells divide and new cells are formed from pre-
existing cells. This concept was given by;
113. Motility in bacteria is a function of;
(1) Matthias Schleiden.
(1) flagella. (2) mesosome.
(2) Theodore Schwann.
(3) fimbriae. (4) All of these
(3) Matthias Schleiden and Theodore Schwann.
(4) Rudolf Virchow.
114. In human beings, the membrane of the erythrocyte
has approximately;
107. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) 50 percent protein and 42 percent lipids.
(1) The organisation of the prokaryotic cell is
(2) 55 percent protein and 45 percent lipids.
fundamentally similar even though
prokaryotes exhibit a wide variety of shapes (3) 52 percent protein and 40 percent lipids.
and functions. (4) 42 percent protein and 50 percent lipids.
(2) The prokaryotic cells are represented by
bacteria, blue-green algae, mycoplasma and 115. Materials to be packaged in the form of vesicles
PPLO. from the ER fuse with the _____ of the golgi
(3) All prokaryotes have a cell wall surrounding apparatus.
the cell membrane. (1) cis face
(4) Prokaryotes are generally smaller and (2) trans face
multiply more rapidly than the eukaryotic (3) omega face
cells. (4) delta face
116. The quasi-fluid nature of lipid enables lateral 123. Match List-I with List-II to find out the correct
movement of _______ within the overall bilayer. option.
(1) lipids (2) proteins List-I List-II
(3) carbohydrates (4) glycolipids (A) Tonoplast (I) Contain digestive
enzyme
117. Most of the bacterial cell envelope consists of; (B) Contractile (II) Store metabolic
(1) only the cell membrane. vacuole gases
(2) cell wall and cell membrane.
(C) Food (III) Excretion
(3) tightly bound 3 layered structure.
vacuole
(4) only glycocalyx.
(D) Air vacuole (IV) Transport of ions
118. Most abundant lipid in the cell membrane is; in plants
(1) phospholipids. (1) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
(2) cerebrosides. (2) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
(3) glycolipids. (3) A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I
(4) None of these (4) A-I; B-III; C-II; D-IV

119. Statement I: Gas vacuoles are found in blue green
and purple and green photosynthetic bacteria.
Statement II: Inclusion bodies include phosphate
granules, cyanophycean granules and glycogen
granules.
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are
incorrect.
120. For the synthesis of protein and steroidal hormone
which organelle is associated?
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum and chloroplast
(2) Chloroplast and lysosomes
(3) Mitochondria and vacuoles
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum
124. Which one of the following cellular parts is
correctly matched with their characters ?
(1) Centrioles Sites for active RNA
synthesis.
(2) Lysosomes Disc shaped structures
(3) Thylakoids Flattened membranous sacs
forming the grana of
chloroplasts.
(4) Ribosomes Chloroplasts (80S).
125. Choose the wrong statement.
(1) Mycoplasma is the smallest cell (0.3 μm in
length).
(2) Bacteria are 3 to 5μm.
(3) The largest cell is the egg of an ostrich.
(4) Nerve cells are some of the smallest cells.
126. Choose the option which shows the correct
labelling of P and S in the given section of flagella.

121. The fluid mosaic model was proposed by;

(1) Singer and Nicolson.
(2) Beadle and Tatum.
(3) Robertson and Miller.
(4) Watson and Crick.

122. Select how many is/are true statement/s for

plasmodesmata.
I. It holds or glues the different neighbouring
cell wall together.
II. It connects the cytoplasm of neighbouring P S
cells. (1) Plasma membrane Central
microtubule
III. It is a layer mainly composed of calcium
pectate. (2) Cell wall Arm
IV. The cell wall and middle lamellae may be (3) Plasma membrane Interdoublet
bridge
traversed by plasmodesmata.
(4) Cell wall Radial spoke
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
127. Bacterial flagellum consists of all of the following 134. Algal cell wall consists of;
parts except; (1) cellulose.
(1) filament. (2) mesosome. (2) galactans.
(3) hook. (4) basal body. (3) mannans and minerals like CaCO3.
(4) All of these
128. Assertion (A): The pili are elongated tubular
structures made of a special protein. 135. The stroma of chloroplast contains enzymes
Reason (R): The fimbriae are small bristle like required for synthesis of;
fibres sprouting out of the cell. (a) carbohydrates.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (b) proteins.
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(c) minerals.
Assertion (A).
(d) vitamins.
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of (1) Only (b), (c) and (d)
Assertion (A). (2) Only (a) and (b)
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false. (3) Only (a)
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true. (4) All of these

129. In 70S ribosome S is; SECTION-B

(1) Svedberg’s unit. 136. Which of the following cell organelles is non-
(2) sedimentation coefficient. membrane bound and found in both prokaryotes
and eukaryotes?
(3) measure of size.
(1) Lysosomes (2) Ribosomes
(4) All of these
(3) Centrioles (4) Mitochondria
130. Nucleolus is;
137. Which of the following statement is incorrect with
(1) rounded structure found in cytoplasm near
respect to lysosomes?
nucleus.
(1) Lysosomes are simple tiny spherical sac-like
(2) rounded structure inside nucleus and having
structures.
rRNA.
(2) They are distributed in the cytoplasm of the
(3) rod-shaped structure in cytoplasm near the
cell.
nucleus.
(3) The enzymes of lysosomes work in basic
(4) None of these
condition.
(4) The enzymes of lysosomes are synthesised by
131. Which one of the following is not considered as RER.
part of the endomembrane system?
(1) Golgi complex
138. Select the mismatch.
(2) Peroxisome
(1) Gas vacuoles – Blue green bacteria
(3) Vacuole
(2) Large central vacuoles – Animal cells
(4) Lysosome
(3) Fungi – Eukaryotes
(4) Mycoplasma – Prokaryotes
132. Different neighbouring plant cells are held together
by;
139. Match the following and select the correct option.
(1) silicon pectate layer.
List-I List-II
(2) plasmodesmata.
(3) middle lamella. (A) Centriole (I) Infoldings in
mitochondria
(4) both (1) and (3)
(B) Chlorophyll (II) Thylakoids
133. Bacteria can be classified into 2 groups on the basis (C) Cristae (III) Osmoregulation
of; (D) Contractile (IV) Basal body, cilia or
(1) differences in the cell envelopes. vacuole flagella
(2) the manner in which they respond to the (1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
staining procedure developed by Gram.
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) occurrence of pili.
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) both (1) and (2)
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
140. Satellite means; 145. The membrane of the ER are continuous with the
(1) terminal part of the chromosome beyond membrane of;
secondary constriction. (1) nucleus.
(2) terminal part of the chromosome beyond (2) golgi body.
primary constriction. (3) mitochondria.
(3) terminal part of chromosome beyond tertiary (4) plastid.
constriction.
(4) None of these 146. __________ is a site for active ribosomal RNA
synthesis.
141. Axoneme with 9 + 2 microtubular arrangement (1) RER
occurs in; (2) SER
(1) cilia. (3) Nucleolus
(2) flagella. (4) Mitochondrion
(3) both (1) and (2)
(4) centriole. 147. Which of the following is incorrect about the
microbodies?
142. Match the following and select the correct option. (1) They are present in bacteria.
List-I List-II (2) Minute, membranous vesicles.
(Chromosome) (Position of (3) They are present in plants and animals.
Centromere) (4) They have various enzymes.
(A) Metacentric (I) At the tip
(B) Submetacentric (II) Almost near 148. Match the following and select the correct option.
the tip List-I List-II
(C) Acrocentric (III) At the middle
(A) RER (I) Intracellular and
(D) Telocentric (IV) Slightly away extracellular
from the digestion
middle (B) Cell wall (II) Provide
(1) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I structural
(2) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I support to the
(3) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV cell
(4) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
(C) Flagella (III) Protein synthesis
and secretion
143. Select the correct option for P, Q and R in the
(D) Lysosomes (IV) Responsible for
given sectional view of chloroplasts.
cell movement
(1) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
(2) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
(3) A-I; B-III; C-II; D-IV
(4) A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I

149. Assertion (A): Cells vary greatly in their shape.

(1) P - Thylakoid, Q - Stromal lamella and
R - Stroma
(2) P - Granum, Q - Thylakoid and R - Stromal
lamella
(3) P - Thylakoid, Q - Granum and R - Stromal
lamella
(4) P - Granum, Q - Thylakoid and R - Stroma
144. All of the following statements are correct about
plasmids except;
(1) they are extrachromosomal DNA.
(2) they are smaller, circular, double stranded
naked DNA that confer certain unique
phenotypic characters to some bacteria like
resistance to antibiotics.
(3) they are used in genetic engineering.
(4) it helps in the replication of nucleoid.
Reason (R): The shape of cell does not depend on
the function they perform.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
150. Which one of the following is/are enclosed by
double membrane?
P. Vacuoles Q. Mitochondria
R. Lysosomes S. Nucleus
(1) Only (R) is correct.
(2) Only (Q) and (R) are correct.
(3) Only (Q) and (S) are correct.
(4) All (P), (Q), (R) and (S) are correct.
 [Practice Test-2 | Yakeen NEET 2025 (2025) | 19/05/2024]

SECTION-(IV) ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A 160. Which of the following epithelium is commonly

151. Which of the following pair does not have similar found in ducts of glands and tubular parts of
kind of epithelial tissue? nephrons in kidneys?
(1) Blood vessels and alveoli. (1) Cuboidal (2) Squamous
(2) Stomach and intestine. (3) Columnar (4) Ciliated columnar
(3) Blood vessels and bronchioles.
(4) Buccal cavity and pharynx. 161. Assertion (A): The cells of connective tissue secrete
collagen fibres.
152. Salivary glands are; Reason (R): Fibres provide only strength and
(1) unicellular. (2) bicellular. elasticity to the tissue.
(3) multicellular. (4) acellular. (1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
153. Mucus, saliva, earwax and milk are secreted by; Assertion (A).
(1) exocrine glands. (2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
(2) endocrine glands. but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(3) heterocrine glands. Assertion (A).
(4) all of these (3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
154. Fibroblast and macrophages are seen in;
(1) epithelial tissue. 162. Which of the following is not present in neurons?
(2) loose connective tissue. (1) Axon (2) Dendrites
(3) skeletal muscle tissue. (3) Nerve endings (4) Adhering junctions
(4) smooth muscle tissue.
163. Match the List-I with List-II to find out the
155. Muscles are connected to bone by means of; correct option.
(1) cartilage. (2) ligament. List-I List-II
(3) tendon. (4) adipose tissue. (A) Fibroblasts (I) Histamine
(B) Exocrine (II) Secrete fibre
156. Presence of intercalated disc is the feature of; (C) Endocrine (III) Oil
(1) smooth muscle. (2) skeletal muscle.
(D) Mast cell (IV) Hormones
(3) cardiac muscle. (4) none of these.
A B C D
(1) I II III IV
157. Which of the following exerts the greatest control
(2) II IV III I
over the body’s responsiveness to changing
(3) II III IV I
conditions?
(4) I II IV III
(1) Epithelial tissue. (2) Connective tissue.
(3) Muscular tissue. (4) Neural tissue.
164. Which of the following tissue is present in
maximum amount and joins different tissues forms
158. Which of the following tissue present beneath the the packing between them and helping to keep the
skin and often it serves as a support framework for organs in place and normal shape?
epithelium? (1) Areolar (2) Adipose
(1) Areolar tissue (2) Adipose tissue (3) Tendon (4) Ligament
(3) Tendon (4) Ligaments
165. The functional junction between the axon of one
159. Which of the following tissue has a free surface and neuron and the dendrite of the next is called as;
faces either a body fluid or the outside (1) desmosome.
environment? (2) synapse.
(1) Epithelial tissue (2) Nervous tissue (3) intercalated disc.
(3) Connective tissue (4) Muscular tissue (4) tight junctions.
166. Which of the following is not the major function of 173. Select the correct statement w.r.t squamous
simple epithelium? epithelium.
(1) Excretion (1) The squamous epithelium is made of a single
(2) Absorption. thin layer of flattened cells with irregular
(3) Secretion. boundaries.
(4) Protecting the underlying tissues. (2) The squamous epithelium is made of a single
thin layer of flattened cells with regular
167. Identify the correct matching.
boundaries.
(3) The squamous epithelium is made of a single
thin layer of round cells with irregular
boundaries.
(4) The squamous epithelium is made of a double
thin layer of flattened cells with irregular
boundaries.
(1) A- Cartilage, P-Elastic fibres
(2) A-Bone, Q-Osteocyte 174. Which of the following are the main functions of
(3) B-Cartilage, R-Chondrocyte cuboidal epithelium?
(4) P- Collagen fibres, Q- Cartilage cells (1) Secretion and absorption.
(2) Secretion only.
168. The cells which secretes the matrix of cartilage are;
(3) Protection and support.
(1) platelets. (2) osteocytes.
(3) chondrocytes. (4) mast cells. (4) Provide resistance from mechanical stress.

169. Smooth muscles are; 175. Muscle fibres are composed of numerous fine
(1) involuntary, cylindrical, striated. fibrils called;
(2) voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate. (1) sarcosomes. (2) sarcomere.
(3) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated. (3) neurofibrils. (4) myofibrils.
(4) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical.
176. Cardiac muscles are contractile tissue found only
170. Ciliated epithelial cells are required to move particles in;
or mucus in a specific direction. In humans, these cells
(1) lungs. (2) heart.
are mainly present in;
(1) bile duct and bronchioles. (3) kidney. (4) limbs.
(2) fallopian tubes and pancreatic duct.
(3) eustachian tube and salivary duct. 177. On the basis of structural modification of cells, the
(4) bronchioles and fallopian tubes. simple epithelium is further divided into;
(1) two types – Ciliated and Glandular
171. Choose correct option which have all right statement epithelium.
for bones. (2) three types – Squamous, Cuboidal and
(A) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
Columnar epithelium.
substance.
(B) Matrix of bone is rich in calcium salt and free (3) three types – Squamous, Cuboidal and
from collagen fibres. Compound epithelium.
(C) Bone marrow in some bones is the site of (4) two types – Unicellular and Multicellular
production of blood cells. epithelium.
(D) Bone is a type of specialised connective tissue.
(1) A, B and C only (2) A, C and D only 178. Cardiac muscles are;
(3) A and D only (4) A, B, C and D
(1) elongated with tapering ends.
172. Which of the following option is correct regarding (2) striped, skeletal muscles.
epithelial tissue? (3) cylindrical, branched to form a network.
(1) The cells are not compactly packed with little (4) large myofibrils and distinct.
intercellular matrix.
(2) The cells are compactly packed with little 179. Intercalated discs at fusion points;
intercellular matrix. (1) allows the cells to contract as a unit.
(3) The cells are compactly packed with more (2) allows the cells to contract separately.
intercellular matrix.
(3) contract one after another as a unit.
(4) The cells are compactly packed with little
(4) none of these
intercellular solids.
180. Gap junctions help; 185. The excess nutrients which are not used
(1) to adhere the cells together. immediately are converted into fats and stored in;
(2) to stop leakage across the tissue. (1) muscle tissue.
(3) to allow the transfer ions and small molecules (2) adipose tissue.
from one cell to another. (3) blood.
(4) all of these (4) bone.
SECTION - B
181. Assertion (A): Adipose tissues are found beneath the 186. Identify the correct option with respect to the figures
skin. (A & B) given below.
Reason (R): Adipose tissue are a type of muscular
tissue.
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true A B
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of Function Location
Assertion (A). (1) A Provide protection against Stomach
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. chemical and mechanical
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true. stress
(2) B Secrete mucus, saliva, Blood vessels
182. Statement I: Epithelial tissues are specialised for earwax, oil, milk, digestive
linking and connecting other tissues/organs. enzymes
Statement II: Tendon and ligament are the type of (3) A Secretion and absorption Proximal
dense irregular connective tissues. convoluted
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. tubule
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (4) B Mainly present in the inner Fallopian tube
incorrect. surface of hollow organs
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. 187. Goblet cells of alimentary canal are modified from;
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are (1) columnar epithelial cells.
incorrect. (2) chondrocytes.
(3) compound epithelial cells.
183. Match the List-I with List-II to find out the (4) squamous epithelial cells.
correct option.
List-I List-II 188. Select the incorrectly matched pair.
(A) Blood (I) Nose (1) Neurons-Nerve cells
(B) Lacunae (II) Bone (2) Fibroblast-Areolar tissue
(C) Cartilage (III) Osteocytes (3) Osteocytes-Bone cells
(4) Chondrocytes-Smooth muscle cells
(D) Specialised (IV) RBCs
connective
189. In multicellular animals, a group of similar cells along
tissue
with intercellular substances perform a specific
A B C D
(1) I II III IV function. Such an organisation is called;
(2) IV III I II (1) epithelium. (2) organ.
(3) III I II IV (3) tissue. (4) organ system.
(4) II III I IV
190. Identify the types of cell junctions that help to stop the
184. The supportive skeletal structure present in the leakage of the substances across a tissue.
human external ears is; (1) Tight junctions (2) Adhering junctions
(1) bone. (2) collagen. (3) Gap junctions (4) All of these
(3) tendon. (4) cartilage.
191. Assertion (A): Cell junctions are present in the 196. Choose the correctly matched pair.
epithelium tissues. (1) Cartilage - Loose connective tissue
Reason (R): Only one type of cell junction is found in (2) Tendon - Specialised connective tissue
animal tissues. (3) Adipose tissue -Dense connective tissue
(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true (4) Areolar tissue - Loose connective tissue
and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
197. Which of the following is present between the adjacent
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true
but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of bones of the vertebral column?
Assertion (A). (1) Smooth muscle (2) Intercalated discs
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false. (3) Cartilage (4) Areolar tissue
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.
198. Select the correct statement w.r.t neurons.
192. Statement I: Muscle is an example of connective (1) It is the unit of neural system.
tissue. (2) They are excitable cells.
Statement II: Blood is an example of connective (3) It is the unit of circulatory system.
tissue. (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Statement I and statement II both are correct.
(2) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
incorrect. 199. Match the List-I with List-II to find out the
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct option.
correct. List-I List-II
(4) Statement I and statement II both are (A) Regular (I) Blood
incorrect. orientation of
fibres
193. Identify the correct order of cellular organisation.
(B) Irregular (II) Loose
(1) Cell< tissue< organ< organ system.
orientation of connective
(2) Cell< tissues< organ system< organ
(3) Cells< organs<tissues < organ system. fibres tissue
(4) Organs< tissue< cells< organ system. (C) Fibroblasts (III) Dense
absent irregular
194. Biceps and triceps are the example of _____ tissue
muscle. (D) Cells and (IV) Dense regular
Choose the correct option to fill the blank. fibres loosely tissue
(1) skeletal muscle (2) smooth muscle
arranged
(3) cardiac muscle (4) none of these
A B C D
195. Choose the correct statements. (1) I II III IV
(a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and (2) IV III I II
organs. (3) III I II IV
(b) Weight bearing function is served by limb (4) II III I IV
bones.
(c) Ligament is the site of production of blood 200. The cells other than neurons which make up more
cells. than one-half of the volume of neural tissue are;
(1) (a) and (b) only (1) axons. (2) fibroblasts.
(2) (b) and (c) only (3) neuroglial cells. (4) dendrites.
(3) (a) and (c) only
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

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