10.

BOARD EXAM11.
TRIAL
LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION
12.
13. Top1 June 2022 CLE
Prepared by Prof. Lyen Carel Garcia,
14.

LAW ENFORCEMENT ORGANIZATION AND

ADMINISTRATION WITH INTER-AGENCY APPROACH the:
A. Congress
1. A consciously coordinated social entity, with a B. Department of Interior and Local Government
relatively identifiable boundary, that functions on a C. Local Government Executives
relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal D. National Police Commission
or sets of goals.
A. Organization C. Administration
B. Police Organization D. Police Administration 15. A single uninterrupted line of authority – often represented
by boxes and lines of an organizational chart – is run in order
by what we call -
2. According to RA 6975, the nature of the PNP shall be
A. organizational control
_____.
B. administrative control
A. Nucleus of the police organization
B. Attached with the military C. scalar chain
C. Civilian in nature D. span of control
D. The primary police organization of the land

16. As provided by the Phil. Constitution of 1987, the PNP

3. An officer who has the more senior rank/higher in a shall be
group or team. A. Absorbed by the former PC and shall become
a) Sworn Officer a national police.
b) Commanding Officer B. National in character and civilian in scope.
c) Superior Officer C. National in scope and civilian in character.
d) Ranking Officer D. The leading law enforcement agency in the
country.
E. None of the Above.
4. A police organizational structure used by the PNP at
present particularly at the central office is called 17. Under RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been
_____. promoted for a continuous service shall be retired or
A. Line C. Functional separated if the said period of non promotion gained
B. Line and Staff D. Line and Functional with in

5. The principle of organization that is adopted when the A. 20 yrs

organization is too big and men are scattered in B. 10 yrs
different areas of the country. C. 15 years
A. Span of Control D. 18 months
B. Unity of Command E. none of these
C. Delegation of authority
D. Scalar Principle 18. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the
NAPOLCOM who shall conduct management audit,
and prepare a proposed reorganization plan. Who
6. To improve delegation, the following must be done, shall approve the said plan?
EXCEPT: A. DILG Secretary
A. establish objectives and standards B. C/PNP
B. count the number of supervisors C. Congress
C. require complete work D. President
D. define authority and responsibility

7. The police organization can be structured to attain 19. What is the term of office of the four regular and full-
effective, efficient and economical police service. time Commissioners of the NAPOLCOM?
Following are the organic units that form part of the A. 6 years
components, EXCEPT: B. 4 years
A. Operational Unit C. Auxiliary Unit C. 5 years
B. Service Unit D. Administrative Unit D. 9 years
E. None of these
8. The administrative control and operational supervision
over the PNP is a power of; 20. The placement of subordinate into the position for
A. DILG C. Congress which their capabilities best fit them is referred to as
B. NAPOLCOM D. Mayors
A. Staffing
B. None of these
9. The operational supervision and control over the PNP C. Planning
assigned at cities and municipalities is a power of D. Organizing

1|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 E. Directing a. 1 police officer for every 500 residents
b. 1 police officer for every 1000 residents
21. What is the principle of organization suggesting that c. 1 police officer for every 500 residents
communication should ordinarily go upward and d. 1 police officer for every 1,500 residents
downward through establish channels in the
hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Unity of Command 29. The “rule of thumb” regarding the manning level of
C. Span of Control the police in urban areas:
D. Delegation of Authority a. 1 police officer for every 500 residents
b. 1 police officer for every 500 residents
22. The study of the processes and conditions of the Law c. 1 police officer for every 1000 residents
Enforcement pillar that is also called “police in action.” d. 1 police officer for every 1,500 residents

A. Police Management
B. Police Organization 30. Decisions from the PLEB involving demotion or
C. Organizational Structure dismissal from the service are appealable to?
D. Police Administration a. Court of Appeals
b. National Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM
c. Regional Appellate Board of the NAPOLCOM
23. If the CPNP assumes his office in July 8, 2005, his last d. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
day in office as the CPNP will be on

A. July 7, 2009
31. When is the operational supervision and control
B. July 7, 2010
powers conferred to mayors by the NAPOLCOM is
C. July 7, 2011
suspended and temporarily given to the COMELEC?
D. July 7, 2002
a. 30 days before and after any national,
local or barangay elections
24. What is the law provides the National Police
Commission to conduct Police examination?
b. 60 days before and after any national, local
or barangay elections
A. RA 2260
B. RA 6040
c. 90 days before and after any national, local
C. RA 4864
or barangay elections
D. RA 6141
d. 180 days before and after any national, local
or barangay elections
25. It is an agency of a community or government that is
responsible for enforcing the law, maintaining public
order, and preventing and detecting crime. 32. Direction that is provided on a one-to-one basis is
A.Police called __________.
B. Law Enforcement Agency A. Administration
C. PNP B. Management
D. Law enforcer C. Supervision
D. Organization

26. What article and specific section of the 1987 Philippine

Constitution that provides for the establishment and
maintenance of one police force which shall be
national in scope but civilian in character that shall be
administratively controlled and operationally
supervised by the National Police Commission?
a. Art. III, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
b. b Art. VI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
c. Art. XVI, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine
Constitution
d. Art. XVII, sec. 6, 1987 Philippine Constitution
27. Responsible for the processing of claims and benefits
of personnel PNP personnel, retirees and separated
PNP personnel and their direct dependents.
a. Information Technology Management
Service
b. Directorate for Plans
c. Communications and Electronic Service
d. Personnel and Retirement Benefits
Service
33. An illustration in the form of a chart which represents
the organizational structure. The mechanical means
of depicting the organizational structure.
A.Organizational Chart
B. Organizational Structure
C. Organization
D. PNP Organizational Chart
34. What will happen to a police officer who, after a given
time period fails to satisfy a continuing specific
requirement for employment with the PNP?
A. Separated from the service if he is below 50 years
of age and has served in government for less than 20
years
B. Retired if he is from the age of 50 and above and
has served the government for at least 20 years
without prejudice in either case to the payment of
benefits he may be entitled to under existing laws
C. Dismissed from the service if he is either below or
above 50 years of age and rendered less that 20 years
service
D Both A or B

28. The standard manning level in rural areas is:

2|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 42. The ESS or Enforcement Security Service under
35. The appointment of Police Inspectors up to Police Bureau of Customs is composed of 3 divisions except:
Superintendent is vested in the; A.Customs Police Division
B.Water Patrol Division
A. Chief, PNP C.Radio Communications Division
B. President D. Investigation Division
C. Civil Service Commission
D. NAPOLCOM 43. Complaints against personnel of the IAS shall be
brought either to the Inspector General's office or to
36. The first Insular Police Force created by virtue of the;
Organic Act No. 175. A. Chief of PNP C. Congress
A. Philippine Constabulary B. NAPOLCOM D. President
B. Guardia Civil
C. Philippine National Police 44. Dr. Johnny is a Doctor of Philosophy in Education; he
D. PC/INP opted to join the Philippine National Police. What
would be his initial rank upon entry?
37. How many Deputy Director General ranks A. Senior Inspector
are there in the PNP? B. Chief Inspector
C. Inspector
A. 1
D. NONE
B. 3
C. 2 45. Which of the following statement is TRUE?.
D. 4 A. Performance evaluation measures credibility of the
police personnel.
38. The fourth man in command of the PNP is the B. Performance evaluation is not a basis for salary
__________. increases of promotion.
A. DDG for operation C. Performance evaluation is done once a year
B. Chief, Directorial Staff among police personnel.
C. DDG for administration D. Performance evaluation is implemented to
D. Chief, PNP determine the quality of work performance or
personnel.
39. How many percent is added for every year of active
service rendered beyond 20 years? 46. It administers and attends to cases involving crimes
a. 5% against chastity.
b. 3%
c.10% A. CIDG
d. 2.5% B. DSWD
C. IAS
D. Women’s Desk
40. Formulates plans and policies on the career
development of PNP members; formulates doctrines 47. The following are the management process except
pertaining to organization, administration and one:
operations of PNP; and determines training A. Planning B. Organizing
requirements of the PNP personnel and units and C. Leading D. Coordinating
formulates training programs and directives for the
purpose. 48. Maintenance of intended delegation requires that the
a. Directorate for Human Resource and decisions within its authority of individual commander
Doctrine Development should be made by them and not be referred upward
b. Directorate for Investigation & Detective or downward in the organizational structure is
Management referred to as;
c. Directorate for Information and A. principle of delegation by result expected
Communication Technology Management B. principle of absoluteness of responsibility
d. Directorate for Plans C. principle of parity and responsibility

D. authority level principle

49. When can the President extend the tenure of service

41. The following are the appropriate eligibilities for Police of the Chief, PNP?
Officer 1, except: a. after 4 years
a. Honor Graduates pursuant to P.D. 907 b. there is no successor
b. Licensed Criminologists pursuant to R.A. c. during martial law
6506 d. national emergencies
c. Bar and PRC Board Passers pursuant to R.A.
1080 50. Benefits derived by a PNP officer qualified for early
d. Holder of a Master’s Degree pursuant to retirement
CHED Memorandum Order a. two ranks higher
b. one rank higher
c. his present rank
d. one year gratuity

3|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 60. In this form of authority, personnel do not give orders
but they offer advice. Frequently, this advice is based
51. An association or group of individuals with a common on a high level of expertise but the advice carries no
goal. formal requirement for acceptance.
a. Police organization A. Democracy C. Functional
b. Law enforcement group B. Line D. Staff
c. Non-government organization
d. Organization 61. The forecasting in detail of the results of an officially
recognized program of operations based on the
highest reasonable expectations of operating
efficiency.
52. The Philippine Coas Guard in an agency directly a. Budgeting
under DOTC. c. Controlling
b. Reporting
A. True
d. Staffing
B. False

C. Partially True 62. The replacement of the old Police Anti-Crime and
Emergency Response Force or PACER.
D.Partially False a. Anti-Cybercrime Group
b. Anti-Kidnapping Group
53. The lowest administrative penalty c. Aviation Group
a. reprimand d. Highway Patrol Group
b. restriction
c. admonition 63. Formulates and implements information technology
d. forfeiture of pay policies, plans and programs of the PNP.
a. Information Technology Management
54. MNSA or Master’s in National Security Administration Service
is offered and administered by an institution known as b. Directorate for Plans
a. PPSC c. Communications and Electronic Service
b. NAPOLCOM d. Personnel and Retirement Benefits Service
c. National Defense Office
d. National Defense College

55. Waiver system in the PNP will apply if 64. . A promotion granted to police officers meeting the
a. recruitment falls on summer mandatory requirements for position.
b. qualified applicant falls below quota a. Regular Promotion
c. ordered by the President b. Promotion by Virtue of Position
d. none of them c. Special/Meritorious/Spot Promotion
d. Posthumous Promotion
56. Caloocan City maintains a police force with a total
manpower of 2000 officers and men. How many PLEB
must be established? 65. Disciplinary authority where the offense is punishable
a. two by withholding of privileges, restriction to specified
b. four limits, suspension or forfeiture of salary, or any
c. three combination thereof, for a period of not less than
d. five sixteen (16) days but not exceeding thirty (30)
days.
57. Insubordination is an administrative infraction a. Chief of Police
referred to as c. People’s Law Enforcement Board (PLEB)
a. citizens complaint b. City or Municipal Mayors
b. grave misconduct d. National Police Commission (NAPOLCOM
c. breach of internal discipline
d. none of them 66. It refers to an act or omission not involving moral
turpitude but affecting the internal discipline of the
58. PLEB is composed of how many person? PNP.
a. 3 a. Grave offense
b. 5 c. Criminal offense
c. 4 b. Minor offense
d. 6 d. Breach of Internal Discipline

59. What is the length of service before a PNP member

would be qualified for optional retirement?
a. 5 years 67. Permanent Physical Disability of the PCOs and PNCOs
b. 10 years is compensable provided that the following requisites
c. 15 years are present, except:
d. 20 years
A. Finding and certification by the appropriate medical
officer that the extent of the disability and sickness
renders them unfit or unable to perform duties of the
position

4|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 B. Duly recommended by the Regional Director D.Civil Security Group (CSG)
and Chief PNP
C. Injuries suffered or sickness contracted resulting to
permanent disability is due to the performance of 74. Which of the following agencies attest
official duties
appointments of PNP Non-Commissioned Officers?
D. Certification by the NAPOLCOM
National Police Commission
68. The term Time-in-Grade as criteria for promotion Commission on Election
refers to: C. Commission on Appointment
A. total length of service in the PNP D. Civil Service Commission
B. Over-all length of service in the government
C. over-all length of service in the present
rank 75. To defend Against external and internal threats To
D. Length of permanent status in the present rank
territorial integrity and sovereignty And promote the
69. No person in an organization can do all the tasks
necessary for accomplishing group objective. Also, welfare of the people in order to create a secure and
A. chain of command
B. command responsibility stable environment Conducive to national
C. delegation of authority
development Is the mission of
D. unity of command

70. The orderly and organized physical movement of A. DND

elements or units of the PNP.
A. employment B. PNP
B. deployment
C. assignment
D. designation C. DDB

71. transfer and assignment of personnel as well as the D. DILG

adjustment of qualification standards; assesses
personnel fitness and performance; and records,
76. The following are the Bureau of Immigration core
processes and administers application of leaves and
other benefits.
a. Directorate for Personnel and Records values, except;
Management
b. Directorate for intelligence A. Integrity

c. Directorate for Operations

B. Patriotism
d. Directorate for Logistics
C. Commitment

72. Manages the recruitment and appointments of PNP D. Professionalism

personnel; plans for the
It exercises control, direction, coordination and
monitoring of all PNP operations, including 77. Davao City as a Chartered city located in Region XI
patrolling, conduct of search, arrest and seizures,
aviation security, maritime security, civil has a highest position of?
disturbance management, civil security and traffic
management; and prepares, coordinates and A. City Director
issues operational plans, orders and directives.
a. Directorate for Personnel and Records B. Chief of Police
Management
b. Directorate for intelligence C. Regional Director

c. Directorate for Operations D. Provincial Director

d. Directorate for Logistics 78. What is the law that established the Council of

National Defense, forerunner of Department of

73. The following are under administrative units of PNP
except: National Defense?

A. Logistics Support Service (LSS)

B. Finance Service (FS) A.Executive Order number 2 series of 1935

C.Legal Service (LS)

B. Executive Order number 3 Series of 1935
5|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER
C. Executive Order number 230 series of 1939 A1

D. Executive Order number 94 series off 1947 B2

79. The Department of Agriculture is composed of how C4

many bureaus? D6

A. 5

B. 7 78.Border control to prevent entry of smuggled goods is one of

C. 8 the functions of the Bureau of Custom . This statement is -

D. 15 A true

80. It is a Bureau under DA which is tasks to ensure B. False

availability of quality seeds, safety of plant food and C. partly through

development of crop farming technologies and D. partly false

safeguard the plant industry.

A Bureau of Animal industry 79.It is responsible for the administration and enforcement of

B. Bureau of Fisheries and aquatic resource immigration, citizenship and alien admission and registration

C.Bureau of Plant Industry laws in accordance with the provisions of the Philippine

D Bureau of Soils and Water Management Immigration Act Of 1940. It also plays a role in enforcement of

RA 9208, Also known as the anti trafficking in Person Act of

67. What is the parent agency of the Bureau of Customs? 2003.

A DOJ A Bureau of customs

B. DoF B. Bureau of immigration

C. DILG C. Bureau of Fire Protection

D. DENR D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology.

80.What is the parent agency of the Bureau of Immigration?

76.It is charged with assessing and collecting customs
A. DOJ
revenues, curbing illicit trade and all forms of customs fraud
B. DILG
and facilitating trade through an efficient and effective customs

management system. C. DND

A Bureau of customs D. DOTR

B. Bureau of Treasury
81.The Bureau of Immigration is headed by -
C. Bureau of Internal Revenue
A. Commissioner
D Bureau of Local Government Finance
B. Chairperson
77.The Bureau of Customs is headed by the Customs
C. Chief of Immigration
Commissioner who is assisted by how many deputy
D. None of these
commissioners?

6|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

82.The following organization Is mandated and responsible to
86. What is the maximum tenure of Coast Guard Admiral?
perform maritime search and rescue, maritime law
A. 3 YEARS
enforcement, maritime safety, marine Environmental
B. 4 YEARS
Protection and maritime security?
C. 5 YEARS
A. Bureau of customs
D. 7 YEARS
B. PNP Maritime group

C. Philippine Navy
87. Formerly known as Videogram Regulatory. It operates
D. Philippine Coast Guard
against proliferation of fake and pirated VHS,DVD, VCD, CD

tapes.
83.The function of PCG, designed to help prevent or minimize
A. OMB
unnecessary loss of lives and properties at sea
B. MTRCB
A. MARSAF
C. LTO
B. MARSEC
D. PNP cyber crime unit
C. MARSAR

D. MARLEN
88. The PCG shall consist of the following categories of officers
E. MAREP
and employees - except

A. PCG officers;
84.To enforce regulations in accordance with all relevant
B. PCG non-officers;
maritime international conventions, treaties or instruments and
C. Probationary ensign; and
national laws for the promotion of safety of life property at sea
D. Cadets and Cadettes
within the maritime jurisdiction of the Philippines and conduct
E. Non of the above
port state control implementation This is function of PCG. This

statement is -
89. It acts as a national clearing house of criminal records and
A. TRUE
other related information for the benefit of the government;
B. FALSE
A. NBI
C. PARTLY TRUE
B. PNP
D. PARTLY FALSE
C. NICA

D. PDEA
85. What is the highest rank in the Philippine Coast Guard?

A.Commandant
90. An Act Reorganizing and Modernizing the National Bureau
B. Coast Guard Admiral
of Investigation (NBI)
C. Coast Guard Vice Admiral

D. Coast Guard Rear Admiral

7|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

A. RA 10867 A. Undertake investigations pursuant to the mandate of the

B. RA 10687 NBI;

B. RA 10768 B. Conduct searches, arrests, and seizures in accordance with

C. RA 10876 existing laws, rules and regulations;

C. Take and require sworn statements of any person or persons

91. The ____ acts as the principal law agency (EO No. 292) so summoned in relation to cases under investigation;

and legal counsel of the government. D. Administer oaths in cases under investigation; and

A. NATIONAL PROSECUTORS OFFICE E. None of these

B. DOJ

C. SUPREME COURT 95. “The Philippine Immigration Act of 1940.”

D. COURT OF APPEALS A. Commonwealth Act no. 613

B. Commonwealth Act no. 612

92. The following are constituent agencies/units under DOJ - C. Commonwealth Act no. 614

I. National Bureau of Investigation D. Commonwealth Act no. 615

II. Bureau of Immigration

III. Bureau of Corrections 96. Responsible for the efficient and effective law enforcement

IV. Board of Pardons and Parole of all the provisions on any dangerous drug and/or controlled

V. Parole and Probation Administration precursor and essential chemical as provided in RA 9165.

A. PDEA

A. I,II B. DDB

B. I,II,III C. DEA

C. I,II,III,IV D. PNP

D. I,II,III,IV,V

97. PDEA highest rank is

93. The NBI is headed by a Director and assisted by how many A. Director General

deputies? B. Secretary

A. 1 C. Undersecretary

B. 2 D. Chief, PDEA

C. 3

D. 4 98. DDB or Dangerous Drugs Board has the power to

Administer oath,issue subpoena and subpoena duces

94. The following are powers and functions of NBI tecum relative to the conduct of investigation involving the

agent,except violations RA 9165. This statement is -

A. TRUE

8|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 B.Common law systems
B. FALSE
C. Socialist system
C. PARTLY TRUE D. Islamic system

D. PARTLY FALSE
4. The theory of comparative policing that sees problem as
society is becoming too complex.
A. Deprivation theory
99. Also known as the “Customs Modernization and Tariff Act
B.Demographic theory
(CMTA)” C. Modernization theory
D. Opportunity theory
A. RA 10863
E.Theory of anomie and synomie
B. RA 10683

C. RA 10368 5. This theory suggests that people report more crime to

police and demand the police to become more effective in
D. RA 10836
solving crime problems.
A.Alertness to crime theory
B. Economic or migration theory
100. This Act shall be known as the "Philippines Coast Guard
C.Opportunity theory
Law of 2009“ D.Modernization theory
E. Deprivation theory
A. RA 9933

B. RA 9993 6. The first Arab country to recruit women to its police

force and opened a Women’s Police Academy for the
C. RA 9339 purpose.
A. Jordan
D. RA 9939 B. Dubai
C. Kuwait
D. Abu Dhabi
COMPARATIVE POLICING SYSTEM (LEEA2)

1. An agency mandated to promote police co-operation in all 7. Similar unit of the PNP Aviation Security Group in Hongkong.
cases of international crime except those of political, A.Airport Security Unit
military, religious or racial character. B. Auxiliary Police Force
A. INTERPOL C. Custom’s Police
B.United Nation D. Air Transportation Office

C. Commission on Human Rights

8. In the PNP the highest rank is Director General, in the
D. International Red Cross
Indonesian National Police the highest is:
E. Geneva Conventions
A. Police General
B. Police Grand Commissioner
2. This type of society has not only codified laws but also laws C. Police Commissioner General
D. Police Brigadier General
that prescribe good behavior and a specialized police
system and principle based system of punishment,
being followed by England and the US:
A. Bureaucratic society 9. The equivalent rank of Chief PNP in the Royal
B. Urban-industrial society Thailand Police.
C. Post-modern society A. Police Commissioner
D. Folk-communal society B. Police General
C. Policeman Constable
E. Urban-commercial society
D. Police Lieutenant General

3. The type of police and criminal justice system are

10. Pertains to all those forms of policing that in some
distinguished by a strong adversarial system where lawyers
sense, transgress national borders.
interpret and judges are bound by precedent.
A. Civil law systems A. Global policing
B. International policing

9|Page AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 C. Preventive policing 18. Religious police in Saudi Arabia whose duty is to
D. Transnational policing ensure strict adherence to established codes of
conduct.

11. It is now a common form of policing practiced in A. Taliban

most advance countries that involves information
exchange, has a common monopoly around the world.
A. Community oriented policing
B. Broken window policing
C. Intelligence led policing
D. Problem oriented policing
12. These police force are often referred to as “Bobbies or
Peelers” of London that became the model for the police
forces in the US and the British Empire.
A. Gendarmerie Police Force
B. Prefectural Police Force3
C. Marine Police Force
D. Metropolitan Police Force
13. All except one uses a centralized system of policing.
A. Israel
B. France
C. United States
D. Philippines
B. Schupo
C. Mutawa
D. Ngā Pirihimana o Aotearoa
19. These are residential police box in Japan is usually
staffed by a single officer. It is typically located
outside of urban districts in villages and is operated
by one community officer, who resides with his
family in this police facility.
A. Sokoiya
B. Chuzaisho
C. Koban
D. Kobun
20. Riot police in Japan whose criteria for selection is
their physical strength, command of the martial arts
and ability to cope in stressful situation is called:

14. Established to detect and fight transnational crime and A. Bushido

provide for international cooperation and coordination of B. Ninja
other police activities, except political crimes. C. Samurai
A. UN Peacekeeping Forces D. Kidotai
B. Visiting Forces Agreement
C. Joint Military Exercises 21. What is the minimum rank of Indonesia National
D. International Criminal Police Organization Police?

15. The police force in Thailand is known as A. PO1

a. ROYAL THAI POLICE B. Junsa
b.ROYAL THAILAND POLICE C. Police Constable
D. 2nd bhayangkara
c. THAILAND POLICE FORCE
d. ROYAL THAIL POLICE FORCE 22. The present Police Force of the Republic of
Singapore.
16. In the Philippines the PNP is under NAPOLCOM, Japan
National Police is under the: A. Republic of Singapore Police Force
A. National Police Agency B. Singapore Federal Police
B. Public Safety Bureau C. Singapore Police Force
C. National Public Safety Commission D. Singapore National Police
D. Police Administrative Bureau

17. The PNP has the Police Community Relations unit, the 23. The Philippines has PNP; the Hong Kong has
Royal Bahamas Police has the: ________________.
A. Community and Neighborhood
Policing Unit A. Royal Hong Kong Police Force
B. Special Response Unit B. Hong Kong National Police
C. Detective/Scenes of Crime Unit C. Federal Police of Hong Kong
D. Civil Relations Unit D. Hong Kong Police

10 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 24. This country practices the “shame-based” rather D. The President
than “guilty-based” approach because of the shame
it would bring to the family if such member of a
Family commits crime. 31. At the INTERPOL, the Executive Committee,
A. China composed of the President, VPs and Delegates are
B. India mandated to meet ___ in a year prior to the General
C. Japan Assembly.
D. Egypt A. 3 times
B. 2 times
25. A court system where the accused is innocent until C. 5 times
proven guilty. D. Every month
A. Adversarial
B. Inquisitorial 32. Which of the following is not one among the official
C. Plea Bargaining language of the INTERPOL?
D. Communal A. English
B. German
26. The motto of HongKong Police force: C. Spanish
A. Law and Order C. French
B. Safer Communities together
C. To Serve and Protect
D. We serve with pride and Care
33. The final modification of the INTERPOL flag was
made in __.
27. With high standard of living, victims become more
A. 1923
careless of their belongings, and opportunities for
B. 1973
committing crime multiply. What theory describes
C. 1953
this?
D. 1983
A. demographic theory
B. alertness to crime theory
34. There are seven Regional offices of the INTERPOL,
C. economic theory
which one of the following is not one among them?
D. opportunity theory
A. Thailand
B. Zimbabwe
C. Kenya
28. In Japan Police Force, it is the highest rank in the
D. Malaysia
system, the chief of metropolitan police
department.?
A. Commissioner General
B. Superintendent General 35. The National Headquarter of the Royal Malaysian
C. Chief Superintendent Police is located in –
D. Corporal
A. Mabes
B. Bukit Aman
C. Phnom Phen
29. The Filipino president of the INTERPOL in 1980-1984
D. Bangkok
was –
A. Roger Delos Santos
36. What is this law that gives Japanese police the
B. Ernesto Maceda
authority to arrest people with “wrong thoughts”.
C. Jolly R. Bugarin
A. Peace process law
D. Pablo San Jose
B. Peace talk law
C. Peace preservation law
30. At the INTERPOL, each member country has its own
D. Preserved peace law
National Central Bureau (NCB). In the Philippines,
which of the following is the chairman of the NCB
Manila?
A. NBI Director 37. This center is created by virtue of Executive Order No. 62 to
B. Sec. of DOJ establish a shared database among concerned agencies for
C. Chief PNP information on criminals, methodologies, arrests and
convictions on transnational crime

11 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 A. Philippine National Police (PNP) D. opportunity theory
B. National Commission on Anti Hijacking (NACAH)
C. Philippine Center on Transnational Crimes 44. Under the rules and function of Australian Federal Police,
(PCTC)
the AFP falls under the portfolio of:
D. International Criminal Police Organization (ICPO)
A. Home Affairs Ministry
B. Attorney-General
C. Minister for Home Affairs
38. This is a package of transnational flows of people, D. Minister for Justice and Customs
production, investment, information, ideas and
authority.
45. It is traditional in nature as it is based its crime control
A. Manufacturing
efficiency to the number of arrest and people being put to
B. Globalization
jail for punishment.
C. Internationalization
A. continental policing
D. Transnational
B. modern policing
C. modernization
39. What notice is being applied to help locate missing
D. colonization
persons including children, or to help people to
identify themselves.
46. The primary threat to law enforcement brought about by
A. Blue notices B. Green notices
globalization which is evidenced by genocide or mass
C. Red notices D. Yellow notices
killing.
A. Unfair access to global mechanism by the under
40. The researcher communicates with foreign researcher
for his research. Which method is appropriate for that privilege
research? B. Occupation of nations by the most powerful
A. Communication method C. Conflict between nations
B. Safari method D. Increasing human rights violations
C. Collaborative method
D. Collective method

41. Which one below that suggests that progressive lifestyles 47. The type and form of government in northern Asia (Russia)
and norms result in the disintegration of older norms that consist of composite systems which includes federal state,
once held people together, but in other cases, people can semi-presidential and republic. Which type of government
come together and achieve social consensus or social which is characterized by a union of partially self-governing
cohesion over values; states or regions united by a central government?
A. Alertness to crime theory A. Republic state
B. Economic theory
C. Opportunity theory B. federal state
D. Anomie and Synomie theory C. semi-presidential state
D. presidential state
42. his system uses measurement of crime control efficiency
and effectiveness based on absence of crime or low crime
rate? 48. Which one below is NOT a benefits that the Philippines
A. continental policing Derive as Member of the INTERPOL?
B. modern policing A. Access to police information on international Criminal
C. modernization Cases.
D. colonization B. Access to International Summaries of Criminal Cases.
C. Attend meetings and symposiums on case of special
43. As a nation develops, people’s alertness to crime is topics
heightened. They report more crime to police and demand D. Access to funds against transnational Crimes
the police to become more effective in solving crime E. Access to information dealing with economic and
problems. What theory best describes this situation? financial crime in an international level
A. modernization theory
B. alertness to crime theory
49. The collation of international covenants and treaties on war
C. economic theory
crimes and for the protection of the rights of women and
12 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 children; 56. Interpol as an organization became known as such in
A. International bill of human rights A. 1936
B. Geneva conventions B. 1946
C. universal declaration of human rights C. 1956
D. covenant on civil and political rights D. 1966

57. The Organization known simply as Interpol is the

50. In problem oriented policing, it uses SARA model, which
means
a. SCANNING, ANALYSIS, RESPONSE,
ASSESSMENT
b. SEARCHING, ANALYSIS, RESPONSE, ASSESSMENT
c.SCANNING, ANALYSIS, REPORT, ASSESSMENT
A. International Police Association
B. Association of Chief of Police
C. International Criminal Police
Organization
D. None of the Above
58. The Present Interpol was officially created as the

d. SEARCHING, ANALYSIS, RESPONSE, ANNOUNCEMENT International

Criminal Police Commission in what year?
A. 1913
51. Consist of all the United Nations conventions which seeks to
B. 1923
safeguard life and human dignity in a global scale.
C. 1933
A. union of domestic concerns for global governance
D. 1943
B. Universal convention
C. universal protections and safeguards 59. It is the world’s largest international police
D. universal declarations organization, with
190 member countries.
52. When poor person commits a crime, the government goes A. International Police Organization
to work analyzing the family, education and employment B. Aseanapol
needs of everyone in that poor person’s family. It is C. Interpol
referring to? D. Borderpol
A. Congo Police B. Egypt Police
60. It is the Interpol's supreme governing body. It
C. Ireland Police D. Switzerland Police
meets annually to take all important decisions
related to policy, resources, working
53. Can be defined as the police responding to specific request
methods, finances, activities and programmes.
from the individual or groups in the community.The
A. General Assembly
opposite of Pro Active policing.
B. Executive Committee
A. Problem oriented policing
C. General Secretariat
B. Reactive policing
D. National Central Bureaus
C. predictive policing
D Nodal policing
61. Elected by the General Assembly, It is headed by
. the President of the Interpol. It provides guidance
54. This is the kind of policing system where police control is and direction to the Organization and oversees the
under direct control of the national government: implementation of decisions made at the annual
A. Fragmented B. Centralized General Assembly.
C. Integrated D. None of these A. General Assembly
B. Executive Committee
C. General Secretariat
55. This is a very broad category, encompassing everything D. National Central Bureaus
from illegal immigration to international prostitution,
slavery, and child pornography. 62. It is considered the lifeblood of INTERPOL because it
A. Flow of people B. Migration contributes to the criminal databases and
C. Human trafficking D. Sex slavery cooperating together on cross-
border investigations, operations and arrests.

13 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 A. General Assembly
69. Police officers in England were referred to as
B. Executive Committee
C. General Secretariat A. Public servants
D. National Central Bureaus
B. State servants

63. Interpol has how many member countries? C. law enforcers

A. 180
D. bobbies
B. 185
C. 190 70. Police officers in the Philippines is generally regarded
D. 195
as.
64. this was a body of rural police by the Royal Decree
of 18 January 1836, this decree provided that 5% of A. Public servants
the able-bodied male inhabitants of each province
were to be enlisted in this police organization for B. state servants
three years
C. Peace officers

A.GUARDRILLEROS D. public safety officers

B. GUARDIA CIVIL 71. The Insignia usually worn by the law enforcer with

C. CARABINEROS DE SEGURIDAD PUBLICA the highest police post.

D. CUERPO DE CARABINEROS DE SEGURIDAD PUBLICA
A. 1 star
65. The Permanent seat of the Aseanapol secretariat is
B. 2star
in what place?
A. Manila C. 3 star
B. Kuala Lumpur
D. 4 star
C. Hanoi
D. Jakarta 72. Police as a social agency historically started as a

66. In police parlance, the term cop would refer to? function of the?
A. Law enforcer
A. State
B. A beat police officer
C. An investigator B. Royalty
D. A metal
C. Civic Society
67. Period whereby most civilized countries have
D. Military
organized their police forces which is separate and
80. Following countries advocated the home rule theory
distinct from that of the military
except
A. 12th century
A. USA
B. 13TH CENTURY
B. Japan
C. 17th century
C. Great Britain
D. 18th century
D. Italy
68. The first organized modern police organization.

A. Metropolitan Police force

81. Around the world police organizations are usually
B. Scotland Yard
governed by
C. Interpol
A. Commission
D. FBI
B. Department

14 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 C. Bureau D. Absolutely true

D. None of these
87. They are responsible in enforcing law within the whole
country of USA including outside boarders.
a. county
82. Organized police organization begun around this period b. city
c. federal
A. 11th century d. state

B. 12th century
88. In the Philippine National Police, we use the word
C. 17th century "trainees" to refer to those newly recruited members. In the
Indonesian Police, police trainees are called
D. 18th century A. Kamara
B. Kama
C. Kamra
83. This is the broad police mandate to keep the peace or
D. Karma
otherwise prevent behavior which might disturb others.

A. Peace and order

89. The National Central Bureau of the Interpol in the
Philippines is located in what city?
B. Order maintenance
A. Makati City
B. Quezon City
C. Law enforcement
C. City of Manila
D. City of Pasay
D. Criminal apprehension
90. A French term which claimed to be the origin of the term
84. This police organization tend to exist only in metropolitan Police Officer.
A. Officer de la Paix
countries and have county wide jurisdiction in some areas B. Praetorian guards
C. Constabuli
there is Sheriff Department which only handles minor issues D. Sheriff

such as service of papers, such as constable in other areas 91. The one which organized the first formal policing in China.
A. Japanese Yakuza
along with security for the local courthouse B. Japanese Colonial Government
C. Keihoryo
A. Federal police D. Japan National Police Agency

B. State police 92. Is a special unit of Royal Malaysia Police with a vital role
in maintaining national security with thorough surveillance
C. Local police and patrol from the air
A. Royal Malaysian Police Air Wing Unit
D. County police B. Federal Reserve Unit
C. UNGERI
D. The Police Field Force

93. Considered as the largest city police in the US with 29,000

85. Rank and file officers are usually referred to us.
police officers?
a. LAPD
A. Uniform officers
b. Manila Police District
c. NYPD
B. Officers
d. Boston Police Department
C. non commissioned officers
94. The following are the three types of policing, except:
D. None of these. a. Service
b. Watchman
86. Police organizations around the world usually utilizes c. Legalistic
d. Social
military ranks. This statement is.
95. Colloquially known as Mounties
A. True a. ROYAL CANADIAN MOUNTED POLICE
b.CANADIAN MOUNTED POLICE FORCE
B. False c. CANADA POLICE FORCE
d. NATIONAL POLICE AGENCY OF CANADA
C. Partly true

15 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

96. The first secretary general of the Interpol. B. ordinary pilferer
A. Johann Schober C. casual pilferer
B. Oskar Dressler D. unusual pilferer
C. Jurgen Stock
D. Kim Jong Yang 4. A security force maintained and operated by any
private company/corporation utilizing any of its
employees to watch, secure or guard its business
97. In 1981, the first formal meeting of The establishment premises, compound or properties is
Chiefs of ASEAN Police was attended by 5 called:
original member countries. These are: a. Company Guard Force
I. Malaysia b. Government Guard Unit
II. Indonesia c. Private Security Agency
III. Brunei d. All of these
IV. Philippines
V. Singapore 5. The vault door should be made of steel at least in
VI. Thailand thickness?
A. I, II, III, IV and V A. 7 inches
B. I, II, IV, V and VI B. B. 9 inches
C. I, III, IV, V, VI C. C. 6 inches
D. II, III, IV, V and VI D. D. 20 feet or more

6. The maximum number of private security personnel

98. Also known as “Continental Justice or Romano-Germanic that a PSA/CGF/PDA may employ shall be:
Justice” a. 500
A. Islamic System b. 1500
B. Common Law System c. 1000
C. Socialist System d. 2000

D. Civil Law System 7. The importance of the firm or installation with

reference to the national economy security
a. relative vulnerability
99. UNCTOC means: b. relative necessity
a. Unites Nation Center on Transnational c. relative criticality
Organized Crime d. relative security
b. Unknown and Not Constitutionally e.
Transparent On Countries 8. A type of fence that is constructed in such a way
c. United Nation Crime Through Organized that visual access through the fence is denied is
Convention called:
d. United Nations Convention against Transnational a. Chain link fence
Organized Crime
b. Solid fence
c. Concertina wire fence
d. Full-view fence
100. INTERPOL global communication for the enforcement
community called? 9. The minimum age requirement for Security Manager
a. I-360/24/7
or Operator of a security agency is :
b. I-7/24
A. 40 yrs old
c. I-24/7
B. B. 25 yrs old
C. C. 30 yrs old
d. I-24/360/7
D. 35 yrs old

INDUSTRIAL SECURITY CONCEPT (LEA3) 10. What is the exposure and teaching of employees on
security and its relation to their work?
1. This is otherwise known as the Private Security
A. Indoctrination
Agency Law.
B. Education
A. RA 5478
C. Training
B. RA 5487
D. Inspection
C. RA 8551
D. RA 8515
11. Which of the following DOCTRINES is governing
2. A new Private Security Agency shall be issued a planning, organizing and employment of PNP force
temporary license to operate that is good for: in the accomplishment of basic security mission in
A. six months maintaining peace and order?
B. one year and six months A. Complimentary
C. one year B. Operational
D. two years C. Fundamental
D. Functional
3. How is one classified if he steals primarily because
of irresistible urge due to unexpected opportunity 12. What security is involve in the protection of
and little chance of detection? classified papers from loss, damage and
A. systematic pilferer compromised through disclosures?
A. Industria
16 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 B. Warrant B. security survey
C. Document C. security check
D. Physical D. security education
E.
13. What are documents or records which are 22. Is the process of conducting physical examination to
irreplaceable or any reproduction do not have the determine compliance with establishment security
same value as the originals? policies and procedures?
A. Secured A. Security Education
B. Important B. Security Inspection
C. Vital C. Security Planning
D. Useful D. Security Survey

14. A Private Security Agency who is applying for 23. What is the required capital investment for
regular license to operate must have a minimum of: organization of private security agency?
a. 100 Guards A. P 500,000
b. 500 Guards B. P 1,000,000
c. 200 Guards C. P 100,000
d. 1000 Guards D. D. P 50,000

15. If Paco Alvarado wants to become a SG, how many 24. It is a natural, man-made or physical device which is
hours of training is needed to acquire his license as capable of restricting, deterring or delaying illegal
SG? access to an installation.
A. 150 Hours A. Fence
B. 48 Hours B. barrier
C. 72 Hours C. wall
D. 300 Hours D. hazard
E.
16. All EXCEPT one are the line leadership staff: 25. What is the most active terrorist organization in the
A. Detachment Commander Philippines wherein the efforts of PNP and AFP with
B. Chief Inspector the support of the government show that there is a
C. Post-in-Charge decline in cases?
D. Security Supervisor 1 A. Al Qaeda
B. NPA
17. What type of SECURITY is when an architect C. ISIS
assumed the owners of quality steel for the D. Muslim militants
perimeter wall, steel doors will be used for the main
entrance to prevent an unauthorized entrance? 26. The president and the consultant of a corporation
A. Natural were invited to be the speakers for the opening of
B. Safe barrier another company, what type of security was
C. Plain provided?
D. Physical A. Special
B. Personal
18. What term is applied to a device or system that in C. Operational
the event of failure of a component the incapacity D. Critical
will be signaled?
A. Doppler effect 27. The president and the consultant of a corporation
B. Peterman were invited to be the speakers for the opening of
C. Duress code another company, what type of security was
D. Fail safe provided?
A. Special
19. A type of protective alarm system where the B. Personal
protective alarm located outside the installation. C. Operational
A. Local Alarm system D. Critical
B. Central Station System
C. Auxiliary System 28. These are barbed wires placed above the vertical
D. Proprietary fence in order to increase physical protection of
establishments or installations
20. New employees should be briefed on security rules A. Top tower
and regulations of the organization and the B. Top guard
importance of observing them. This process is C. Cellar guard
called________. D. Tower guard house Guard Control Station
A. Security promotion
B. Security reminders 29. It refers to a protection against any type of crime to
C. Security orientation. safeguard life and assets by various methods and
D. Security investigation device.
a. Physical Security
21. What should be undertaken by a Security Officer b. Operational Security
before he can prepare a comprehensive security c. Perimeter Security
program for his industrial plan? d. Security
A. security conference
17 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 30. A portable and detachable lock having or sliding b. Tamed tigers and lions
hasp which passes through a staple ring or the like c. Geese
and is then made fast or secured. d. Ducks
a. Lock
b. Padlock 39. Today there are three categories of security guards
c. Code Operated belonging to the “Blue Army”. One of those listed
d. Card Operated below does not belong to the group.
a. Body guards
31. Barbed wire fences standard wire is twisted, double b. Agency guards
strand, 12-gauge wire with 4 point barbs spaces in c. Company guard
an equal part. Barbed wire fencing should not be d. Government Security guards
less than ___ high excluding the top guard.
a. 8 feet 40. There are many types of electronic and electric
b. 7 feet protective devices available for security buildings,
c. 9 feet storehouses and compounds. One of the following is
d. 6 feet true.
a. Electronic/ electric devices eliminated human guards
32. An act or condition, which results in a situation b. Each building or compound requires particular
conducive to a breach of the protection system, or electronic/ electrical protective devices
that, could result to loss. c. Types of alarms needed can best be given by the
a. Hazards dealers of said devices
b. Natural Hazards d. Electronic/ electric devices provide total protection for
c. Human Hazards the place to be safeguarded
d. Security Hazards
41. What is the “program” given to employees of an
33. Which among the following aspects of Security is installation by lecture and other means pertaining to
the weakest of them all? measures and safeguards to be taken to protect the
a. Physical security interest of the installation from loss, damage,
b. Personnel security sabotage, pilferage, and other criminal acts?
c Personal Security
d Document Security a. Security Survey
b. Security Planning
34. What LINE of defense is considered by using c. Security Inspection
perimeter fence, security guards and barriers? d. Security Education
A. Third
B. First
42. VIP Security, Armored Car and Aviation Security are
C. Alternative
what kind of security training programs?
D. Second
a. Pre-licensing
b. Refresher
35. The minimum number of guards required for a
c. Specialized
Company Security Force is:
d. Supervisory
a. 1000
b. 100
43. An authenticated list of personnel allowing entry to
c. 30
the plant, facility or room with classified work is
d. 200
called what?
a. Access List
36. Common weakness for a sentry dog when used as
b. I.D. System
an animal barrier.
c. Personnel List
a. Ability to check identity
d. VIP List
b. Keen sense of smell and hearing
c. Incorruptible
44. A stationary luminary lighting devised in a way that
d. Loyalty
its light beam is directed towards the intruder.
a. Controlled Illumination
37. If utility opening such as air intakes, sewers, and
b. Movable Lighting
exhaust tunnels have a cross section of ninety-six
c. Stationary Luminary
inches or more, as a security consultant what
d. Glare-projection Type
should be the appropriate recommendation?
a. It should be protected by filters and bar grills
45. What is an electronic or mechanical device that
b. It should be closed immediately to avoid entry of
serves to warn of danger by means of a sound or
persons with petit physique
signal? It provides an electrical and mechanical
c. It should be manned with an armed guard at all times
means of detecting intruders and announcing their
d. should be place on it to detect movements
proximity which endanger the security of a restricted
area, a facility, or its components.
38. Protective guarding in a compound can be done by
a. Signaling System
the use of electronic hardware, human guards and
b. Fire Alarm
even animals. In England, an owner to protect his
c. Alarm
compound used this and they are not only effective
d. Siren
but also the cheapest to maintain. This man is using
___
a. Doberman dogs
18 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 46. A term used in England for lock pickers, individual or a private detective agency or private
safecrackers, and penetrators of restricted areas. security agency/company security force.
a. Peter Pan a. Security Guard License
b. Peter Pat b. Security Agency License
c. Peter Piper c. License to Operate
d. Peter Man d. Business Permit
e.
47. . Private Detectives of Private Detective Agencies 55. The prescribed ratio of firearm to security guard that
are mandated to carry firearms. a PSA must adhere to.
a. Yes, it is needed in their line of work. a. 1:1
b. Yes, they also have licenses issued by the PNP. b. 1:2
c. No, they are not allowed by law. c. 2:1
d. No, their use of firearms is optional. d. 2:2

48. How many number of firearms ammunition is a 56. Key to a single lock within a master keyed system.
private security guard allowed to have in his or her a. change key
possession. b. sub-master key
a. Fifty (50) rounds per firearm c. master key
b. Twenty-five (25) rounds per firearm d. grand master key
c. Seventy (70) rounds per firearm
d. one-hundred (100) rounds per firearm 57. Can natural hazards be prevented by security force
of a plant?
49. Those that carry sabotage work are called what in A. Yes, by monitoring warning from the weather bureau
intelligence parlance? B. No, it is an act of God and nobody can prevents it
a. provocateur C. No, but its effects which can cause damage to life
b. infiltrators and property
c. spies D. Yes, by proper planning and constant drills
d. saboteurs
58. Which of the following types of lock is generally
50. Pilferage means theft, sabotage is the malicious used in car doors?
disruption of plant operations, vandalism relates to A. Warded lock
destruction of company property and espionage is B. Lever lock
about covert gathering of information. These are C. Disc tumbler lock
collectively known in security as what? D. Combination lock
a. Natural Hazards
b. Occupational Hazard 59. Sir Robert Peel’s concept of modern police are 1.
c. Man-made Hazards Organized along military lines who are screened
d. Operational Hazards and trained 2. Hired on a probationary basis and
deployed by time and area 3. Accessible to the
51. Comparing pilferage, sabotage, vandalism and people and maintains records 4. Good appearance
espionage, what is the most annoying of all and commands respect. 5. Public security demands that
why? every police be given a code
a. Pilferage, because of its regularity in occurrence. A. 1, 3 and 5
b. Sabotage, because it stops company operations. B. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
c. Vandalism, because it destroys company property. C. 2 and 4
d. Espionage, because important information is lost. D. 2, 3, 4 and 5

52. Basic Security Guard Course and Security Officers 60. What unit of PNP handles the processing and
course are examples of this type of security guard issuances of license for private security personnel?
training. A. PNP SOSIA
a. Pre-licensing Training ‘ B. PNP FED
b. Refresher Training C. PADPAO
c. Specialized Training D. PNP SAGSD
d. Supervisory Training
61. America’s most famous private investigator and
53. A written order/schedule issued by a superior officer founder of Criminal Investigation.
usually the private security agency/branch manager A. Allan Pinkerton
or operations officer assigning the performance of B. Cesar Nazareno
private security/detective service duties. C. Frederick the Great
a. General Duty Order D. Robert Peel
b. Duty General Order
c. Duty Detail Order 62. In security survey, who is NOT involved in crime
d. Guard Detail Order prevention, but creates a situation that defer crime?
A. Manager
54. Document issued by the Chief, Philippine National B. Investigator
Police or his duly authorized representative, C. Surveyor
authorizing a person to engage in employing D. Personnel
security guard or detective, or a juridical person to
establish, engage, direct, manage or operate an 63. Involve the installation of physical barriers, security
lighting, use of vaults, locks and others.

19 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 a. Active measures a. True
b. Passive measures b. False
c. All of the above c. Partially True
d. None of the above d. Partially False

64. Those that will deter man from committing such act
of fear of being caught, charge in court or get 73. The following are the basis for the confiscation of
dismissed firearms, except.
a. Active measures a. When the firearm is actually being used in the
b. Passive measures commission of a crime
c. All of the above b. When the firearm has just been used in the commission
d. None of the above of a crime
c. When the firearm being carried by the security guard is
65. Unobstructed area maintain on both sides of the unlicensed or a firearm is not authorized by law and
perimeter barrier. regulation for his use.
a. Zone d. When the confiscation of the firearm is directed by the
b. Clear zone order of the prosecutor
c. Zoning
74. It is an irresistible urge to steal items of trivial value.
d. All of the above
a. The need or desire
66. Is a visual or audible signaling device, which initiates b. The criminal tendency
conditions of associated circuits. c. The psychological need
a. Alarm d. All of the above
b. Barrier
c. Protective Alarm 75. The susceptibility of the plant or establishment to
damage, loss, or disruption of operation due to
d. Annunciator
various hazard.
67. Type of perimeter barrier made of chain link designed a. Relative vulnerability
with mesh openings not larger than two inches b. Relative criticality of operations
squares. c. Relative humidity
a. Wire fence d. Relative security
b. Fence
c. barrier 76. Practical test or exercise of plans or any activity to
test its validity, an operational readiness exercise
d. All of the above
a. Dry run
68. Type of barbed wire that is formed in large coils. b. Exercises
a. Top guard c. Drill
b. Fence d. All of the above
c. Wire Fence
77. Type of code system so that security personnel or
d. Concertina wire
any employee when forced by armed men intending
69. Defined as mechanical, electrical, hydraulic or to enter an installation can five alarm by the use of
electronic device designed to prevent entry to a certain words.
building or room. a. Duress Code
a. Physical barrier b. Coded Code
b. Man made barrier c. List Code
c. Lock d. Secret Code
d. All of the above
78. A cubicle in a building constructed a little lighter than
70. Private security agency/private detective a vault but of bigger size to accommodate limited
agency/company security force/government security people to work on the records inside
force is allowed to possess firearms in excess of five a. Vault room
hundred (500) units. b. Restricted area
a. True c. File room
b. False d. Exclusion area
c. Partially True
79. A grant given by the government to an inventor,
d. Partially False
conveying and securing to him the exclusive rights to
71. The title of the Republic Act 5487, as amended. make, use and sell his invention.
a. Private Security Guard Law a. Patent
b. Private Security Agency Law b. Intellectual property
c. Private Security Detective Law c. Ownership
d. None of the above d. Proprietary

72. The numbers of security personnel to be maintained 80. Any information and material, the unauthorized
to secure regular license to operate by the private disclosure of which would cause exceptionally grave
security agency is a minimum of one hundred damage to the nation, politically, economically or
licensed private security personnel and a maximum militarily.
of one thousand. a. Restricted
b. Secret
20 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 c. Confidential b. Discretion
d. Top Secret c. Morals
d. Reputation
81. Any information and materials, the unauthorized
disclosure of which would be prejudicial to the 90. The following are the advantages of the company
interest or prestige of the nation or governmental guard force, except.
activity or would cause administrative a. High caliber and receives higher salary
embarrassment or unwarranted injury. b. Provides better service
a. Restricted c. Can be trained to handle some of the more complex
b. Secret security duties
c. Confidential d. May be required to join the union;
d. Top Secret
91. The following are the qualifications of the Security
82. Term given to the requirement that the dissemination Officer, except.
of classified matters be limited strictly to those a. Filipino citizen
persons whose official duties require knowledge b. Holder of a Masters degree
thereof. c. Physically and mentally fit
a. Need to know d. Has graduated from a Security Officer Training Course or
b. Dissemination its equivalent
c. Classification
d. Tagging 92. Involves the protection of top-ranking officials of the
government , visiting persons of illustrious standing
83. Refers to the grant of access to classified matter only and foreign dignitaries.
to properly cleared persons when such classified A. V.I.P. security
information is required in the performance of their B. School Security
official duties. C. Hotel Security
a. Security Clearance D. Document Security
b. Access
c. Document Security 93. A barrier and which have cross sectional area of 96
d. Compartmentation square inches or more should be protected by bars,
grills and water.
84. Is an administrative determination that an individual A. Utilities opening
is eligible from a security standpoint for access to B. Gates and Door
classified matter of a specific category C. Sidewalk elevator
a. Security Clearance D. Clear Zone
b. Access
c. Document Security 94. A system of alarm which required pressure on both
d. Compartmentation side of the device and therefore the probability of
accidental alarm is reduce.
85. One of the purposes of the perimeter barrier is to A. Foot button
expose the perimeter of the area to be secured. B. Double Squeeze buttons
a. True C. Foot Rail activation
b. False D. Microwave device
c. Partially True
d. Partially False 95. A person not a regular police force or member of the
A.F.P., who does detective work for hire, reward or
86. Interception of communication using an electronic commission.
device A. Security guard
a. Eavesdropping B. Security survey
b. Wiretapping C. Security planning
c. Bugging D. Private detective
d. Encoding
96. In which the badge or pass coded for authorization to
87. The Court may allow any Law Enforcement Agency enter specific areas issued to an employees who
to conduct wiretapping in any offense under RPC. keeps it in the possession until his authorization is
a. True change or until he terminates.
b. False A. Single Pass
c. Partially True B. Pass exchange system
d. Partially False C. Visitors pass system
D. Multiple Pass System
88. A house like structures above the perimeter barrier
which increases the range of observation. 97. Which of the following is NOT a false key?
a. Top guard A. picklock or similar tool .
b. Wire Fence B. A duplicate key of the owner.
c. Towers C. A genuine key stolen from the owner.
d. Security lighting D. Any key other than those intended by the owner

89. Distinctive identifying qualities which serve as an 98. PADPAO stands for:
index to the essential or intrinsic nature of a person
a. Integrity
21 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 A. Philippine Association of Detective and Protective 5. What plan is designed to take future possible event into
Agency Operators, Inc. consideration?
B. Philippine Alliance of Detective and Protective Agency A. Synoptic
Operators, Inc.
C. Philippine Association of Detective and Protector B. Strategic
Agency Operators, Inc. C. Tactical
D. Philippine Agencies of Detective and Protective D. Contingency
Associations Operators, Inc.
6. What type of PLAN is a series of preliminary decisions
99. Who exercises the power to remove, for cause, on framework which in turn guides subsequent decisions
license issued to security guards. that generate the nature and direction of an organization?
A. Any of these
A. Procedural
B. Secretary, DILG B. Operational
C. Chairman, NAPOLOCOM C. Strategic
D. D. C/PNP D. Police

100. The combination type of locks in that no key are

7. It is the formal process of choosing the organizational
used. There are open by pressing a series of
mission and overall objective for both the short and long
numbered buttons in the proper sequence.
term as well as the divisional and individual objectives
A. Warded Locks
based on the organizational objectives.
B. Disc Tumble Locks
C. Level locks a. Directing
D. Code-Operated Locks b. Planning
c. Organizing
d. Managerial decision-making
LAW ENFORECEMENT OPERATIONS AND
PLANNING WITH CRIME MAPPING 8. As much as possible, the preparation of over all
(LEA4) development plan of the police organization should be
participated in by the head of all staff service and
1. One of the operative functions of the police personnel operational/administrative support units. This policy is:
which is directly related to the study of the labor supply of
jobs, which are composed of the demands for employees a. Desirable; offices can be properly trained in
in the organization to determine future personnel planning
requirement’s which either to increase or decrease. b. Undesirable; the presence of too many officers will
create confusion
a. Police recruitment c. Undesirable; there will be problems of credit
b. police personnel planning grabbing after plan is formulated
c. police placement d. Desirable; the officers will know the
d. police compensation organization better and a sense of
ownership of the plan is promoted
2. Which of the following criteria is necessary in obtaining
an EFFECTIVE operational plan? 9. This model is especially appreciated for police agencies
as it based on problem oriented approach to planning. It
A. Identification of unseen scenarios that are relies heavily on the problem identification and analysis of
possible to happen the planning process and can assist police administrator in
B. Need for an increased logistics formulating goals and priorities is called;
C. More available space for conference
D. More man power A. Long range planning
B. Synoptic planning
3. What PLAN prepares what to accomplish by special C. Transactive planning
divisions of the PNP of each of the police rank? D. Problem oriented planning

A. Tactical 10. Planning is essential in every police organization

B. Procedural because _____.
C. Operational
D. Extra office A. it identifies activities and determines task of
everyone.
4. It is the formal process of choosing the organizational B. it combines all aspects of police works for efficient
mission and overall objective for both the short and long and effective performance.
term as well as the divisional and individual objectives C. It utilizes the easiest method of crime prevention
based on the organizational objectives. and control.
D. All of these
a. Directing
b. Planning 11. Which of the following is a characteristic of effective
c. Organizing plan?
d. Managerial decision-making
A. Give police department a clear direction
B. Increase personnel involvement

22 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 C. Clearly define objectives and goals a. Management plans
D. Contain a degree of flexibility for the b. Operating plans
unforeseen c. Procedural plans
d. Tactical plans
12. The planning process generally consists of five (5)
steps in sequential order. Which is the first step? 20. It is the process of developing methods or procedure
or an arrangement of parts intended to facilitate the
a. Formulation of the details of the plan accomplishment of an objective.
b. Gathering and analysis of the data
c. Setting up planning objectives a. Management
d. Recognition of the need to plan b. Budgeting
c. Functioning
13. The first step in the planning process is to recognize d. Planning
the need to plan. Which of the following is NOT a way of
discovering the need to plan? 21. This planning includes a face to face interactions with
the people who are to be affected, it also include field
a. Conduct of research
surveys and interpersonal dialogue marked by a process
b. Conduct of training
of mutual learning is called;
c. Conduct of inspection
d. Conduct of management audit A. Incremental planning
b. Transactive planning
14. This particular procedure calls for the recognition of c. Sypnoptic planning
the predicament and comprehending all the history and d. Strategic planning
record then seek for possible solutions for the dilemma.
This statement is pertaining to what step of planning: 22. This type of plan is intended to guide PNP members on
routine and field operations and some special operations.
A. collecting of facts
B. analyzing facts A. Extra Departmental plan
C. clarifying the problem B. Tactical Plan
D. developing alternative plan C. Operational Plan
D. Policy or procedural plan
15. What is the next planning step after the need to plan
is recognized? 23. During the confrontational stage, truncheon or baton may
be utilized to ________ demonstrators.
a. Evaluate alternatives A. push back
b. Execute the plan B. deter
c. Formulate the objectives C. strike
d. Gather and analyze data D. disable

16. Procedures that relate to reporting, raids, arrest, 24. They are concerned with the specific purpose and conclude
stopping suspicious persons, touring beats and when an objective is accomplished or a problem is solved..
investigation of crimes are example of;
A Standing Plan
a. Field procedure B. Functional Plan
b. Headquarters procedure C. Time Specific Plan
c. Special operation procedure D. Procedural Plan
d. Standing operating procedure
25. Who shall be responsible in determining whether there is a
17. Line units such as the patrol section or investigation permit for the holding of the public assembly?
section in police stations prepare their work programs A. The Ground Commander
B. The District Director
which are called;
C. The Chief PNP
a. Budgets D. The Chief of Police
b. Management plan
26. Incrementalism concludes that long range and
c. Operational plan
comprehensive planning are not only too difficult, but
d. Tactical plan
inherently bad. This refers to:
18. These are work programs of line divisions which relate a. Synoptic planning
to the nature and extent of the workload and the
availability of resources. b. incremental planning

a. Administrative plan c. transactive planning

b. Operational plan
d. advocacy planning
c. Strategic plan
d. Tactical plan 27. Beneficial aspects of this approach include a greater
sensitivity to the unintended and negative side effects of plans.
19. What police plans refer to actions to be taken at
designated location and under specific circumstances? a. Synoptic planning
b. incremental planning

23 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 c. transactive planning D. operational plans
d. advocacy planning
36. A type of plans, that considers plans for the operations of
28. It is the systematic and orderly determination of facts and special divisions like, patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile
events as basis for policy formulation and decision affecting law delinquency control.
enforcement management.
A. Policies or procedures
a. Plan B. Tactical plans
b. Planning C. Operational plans
c. Police planning D. extra-office plans
d. Calendar
37. Refers to the production of plans, which determine the
29. Broad design or method; or a plan to attain a stated goal schedule of special activity and are applicable from one
or objectives. week or less than year duration. Plan that addresses
immediate need which are specific and how it can be
a. Tactics accomplished on time with available allocated resources.
b. Strategy
c. Procedure a. Strategic or long range planning
d. Guidelines b. Intermediate or medium planning
c. Operational or short range planning
30. It relates to plans, which determine quantity and d. Police planning
quality efforts and accomplishments. It refers to the
process of determining the contribution on efforts that can 38. Criminal Investigation and Detection Group (CIDG)
make or provide with allocated resources. Strategic Plan against Organized Crime Groups.

a. Strategic planning a. Oplan Salikop

b. Intermediate or medium planning b. Oplan Jumbo
c. Operational planning c. LOI Pagpapala
d. Police planning d. Oplan Bantay Dalampasigan

31. In police parlance, “S.O.P.” stands for? 39. Anti-Illegal Drugs Master Plan

A. STANDARD OPERATION PROCEDURES a. Master Plan Sandigan-Milenyo

B. STANDARD OPERATING PROCEDURES b. Master Plan Sandugo
C. SPECIAL OPERATION PROCEDURES c. Master Plan Banat
D. SPECIAL OPERATING PROCEDURES d. Master Plan Sang-ingat

32. It refers to the Anti – Crime Master Plan of PNP. 40. Essential statements that identify the role of the police
in the community and a future condition or state to which
A. Master Plan Sandigan Milenyo the department can aspire. It may also include a statement
B. Master Plan Sandugo of values to be used to guide the decision making process
C. Master Plan Banat in the department.
D. Master Plan Saklolo
a. Reactive plans
33. In SWOT analysis, “W” means: STRENGTH, WEAKNESSES, b. Proactive plans
OPPORTUNITIES AND THREATS c. Visionary plans
d. Operational plans
A. Vulnerabilities
B. Threats 41. Developed in anticipation of problems. Although not all
C. Intelligence police problems are predictable, many are, and it is
D. Win possible for a police department to prepare a response in
advance.
34. In simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance on what
is to be done and how it is to be accomplished; it is in essence, a. Reactive plans
preparations for action. b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
A. Operations
d. Operational plans
B. management
C. planning 42. Designed to meet the long-range, overall goals of the
D. administration organization. Such plans allow the department to adapt to
anticipated changes or develop a new philosophy or model
35. Standard operating procedures, that is includes the
of policing (community policing).
procedures and the duties of dispatcher, jailer, matron and
other personnel concerned which may be reflected in the duty a. Reactive plans
manual. b. Proactive plans
c. Visionary plans
A. headquarters procedures
d. Strategic plans
B. special operating procedures
C. field procedures

24 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 43. 4A doctrine that provides guidance for specialized a. Management
activities of the PNP in the broad field of interest such as b. Operational
personnel, intelligence operation, logistics, planning etc. c. Tactical
d. Extra-departmental
A. Operational
B. Functional 51. If you are a police officer of the investigation
C. Ethical department and you are encountered a day-to-day
D. Fundamental operation problem, what solution do you and your
department needs?
44. 4These are procedures in coping with specific
situations at known locations and plans for dealing with an a. None of these
attack against buildings, special community events and b. Operation program
other street affairs is called; c. Standard operating seminar
d. Regular operating program
A. policy plan
B. tactical plan 52. Is a linear- progressive decision-making process which
C. operational plan displays the array of police reasonable responses
D. extra office plan commensurate to the level of suspect/law offender’s resistance
to effect compliance, arrest and other law enforcement actions.
45. These are basic principles in planning, organization
and management of the PNP in support of the overall A. Force Continuum
pursuits of the PNP vision, mission, and strategic action
plan of the attainment of the national objectives, B. Lethal Approach

a. Fundamental Doctrine C. Force Continum

b. Operational Doctrine D. Maximum Tolerance
c. Functional Doctrine
d. Complimentary Doctrine

46. Formulated jointly by two or more bureaus in order to 53. A police officer who fires his/her service firearm or
effect a certain operation with regard to public safety and weapon during a confrontation with an offender or offenders
peace and order. must

a. Fundamental Doctrine A. surrender his firearm

b. Operational Doctrine
B. voluntarily surrender himself
c. Functional Doctrine
d. Complimentary Doctrine C submit an incident report outlining the
circumstances necessitating the use of his/her
47. Police personnel cannot not interfere with the holding of a firearm.
public assembly. However, to ensure public safety and to
maintain peace and order during the assembly, the police D. bring the offender to the nearest hospital
contingent under the command of a Police Captain may be
detailed and stationed in a place at least _________ away from 54. It is imposed by command or self-restraint to insure
the area of activity. supportive behavior.
A. 100 meters
B. 10 meters a. Discipline
C. 100 feet b. Cooperation or Coordination
D. 50 yards c. Authority
d. Doctrine

55. It provides for the organizations objectives. It provides

48. In a pat-down search, officers are permitted to
the various actions. Hence, policies, procedures, rules and
___________ clothing of the suspect.
A. feel the outer regulations of the organization are based on the statement
B. feel the outer and inner of doctrines.
C. search the
a. Discipline
D. frisk the inner
b. Cooperation or Coordination
49. What type of PLANNING is appropriate for police agencies c. Authority
based on a problem-oriented approach? d. Doctrine

a. Operational 56. Plans that are developed as a result of crisis

b. Synoptic
c. Radical a. Reactive Plans
d. Transactive b. Proactive Plans
c. Visionary Plans
50. The team SPO1 Elda was assigned to secure the Palarong d. Operational Plans
Pambasa events, peace and order must be provided for the
welfare of the participants and all the people present, what
classification of plan must be applied by the team?

25 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 57. This SOP prescribes the basic procedures to be A. The police officer may stop an individual for the
observed by all PNP Units and mobile patrol elements in purpose of conducting a spot check only when he is
the conduct of visibility patrols. armed with search warrant.
B. In stopping, the police officer must be able to point to
a. SOP #01 specific facts that when taken together with rational inferences,
b. SOP #02 reasonably warrant the stop.
c. SOP #03 C. When approaching the individual, the police officer shall
d. SOP #4 clearly identify himself as a police officer.
D. Before approaching more than one individual, police officers
58. A Patrol officer’s act of performing pat-down search if a should determine whether the circumstances warrant a request
person was legitimately stopped with reasonable suspicion is for back-up.
known as –
A. entrapment
65. The principle describing explicitly the flow of authority
B. stop and frisk
C. field operation refers to;
D. Checkpoint
A. principle of balance
B. principle of unity objective
59.If after conducting a spot check/accosting or pat-down C. scalar principle
search, the police officer has no basis for making an arrest, he D. unity of command
should _________ of such spot check/accosting or pat-down
search and forward a report to the appropriate authority. 66. That defines the fundamental principles governing the rules
A. draft an investigation report of conduct, attitude, behavior and ethical norm of the PNP.
B. record the facts
C. report to higher authorities A. ETHICAL DOCTRINE
D. informed the superior officers B. COMPLIMENTARY DOCTRINE
C. FUNDAMENTAL DOCTRINE
60. The most common method of mapping. D. OPERATIONAL DOCTRINE
a. Grid method
67. When responding to calls from owners of beerhouses, bars
b. Point method or inns or any other similar
c. Zone method establishments during night time, You, the responding officer
d. Nota must direct the business operator or any person in-charge
thereof to ______________ before entering the
61. General statements and/or understandings which guide or establishments.
channel thinking and action of subordinate is called A. show his means of identification
B. put the lights on first
A. Objectives C. provide the business permit granted for its operation
B. Programs D. empty his pocket and be ready for body frisking
C. Policies
D. Decisions

62. Include service of warrant of arrest, implementation of
search warrant, enforcement of visitorial powers of the
Chiefs of Police, and other anti-criminality operations.
A. Law Enforcement Operations
B. Internal Security Operations
C. Public Safety Operations
D. Investigation Operations.
63. The following are basic requirements in conducting police
operations, except:
a. With unmarked police vehicle;
b. Led by a Police Commissioned Officer (PCO) or the most
senior Police Non-Commissioned Officer (PNCO) in the absence
or unavailability of a PCO; and
c. With personnel in prescribed police uniform except for covert
operatives when serving warrant of arrest provided personnel
in uniform shall be present during the arrest
d. With the use of Body Worn Cameras (BWCs) and/or
Alternative Recording Devices (ARDs) during the conduct of
searches and arrests.
68. The body of principles officially accepted and taught
about as the best way of conducting public safety functions
namely: law enforcement, crime prevention and control,
maintenance of peace and order, fire safety protection, jail
management and penology and social defense in general,
is called –
A. Public Safety Doctrine
B. Police Operational Doctrine
C. Public Trust Doctrine
D. The Peel Principles
69. What is the first action that a dispatcher must take when a
crime is in progress call has been received either by telephone
or by a direct alarm signal?
A. assign an investigator to investigate the witness
B. clear the air for emergency broadcast
C. call for investigators to report the crime scene
D. send augmentation force
70. If the suspects or criminals have fled the scene before the
arrival of the patrol team, immediately relay the composition,
armament, appearance, and mode and direction of escape of
the suspects to the Operations Center for the conduct of –
A. checkpoint

64. All of the statements are correct, EXCEPT one. B. stakeout

26 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

C. arrest operations A. incidental to lawful arrest
D. dragnet operations B. plain view doctrine
C.consented search
71. While acting as desk officer of the day, you received a D inflagrante delicto
telephone call from a concerned citizen saying that a street
brawl between two rival gangs was going on
in front of a popular bar joint. The FIRST thing that you should
79. Checkpoint, roadblock and civil disturbance management
do in this situation is to___.
operations are classified as –
A. inform the station’s roving patrol to proceed to the area to
A. special police operations
pacify the warring groups
B. law enforcement operations
B. ask the name of the caller and note down all
C. police operations
available data as to the nature of the call
D. internal security operations
C. tell the caller that police officers were already dispatched
and on their way to the area
D. inform your immediate superior officer so he can dispatched
a response team to the area 80. Ocular inspection by the RTC judge of city/province shall
be done within how many hours after the confiscation of the
dangerous drugs?
72. A good plan is good image builder. This statement connotes
A. 72 hours
that?
A. Experience and training will be reflected on B. 24 hours
the plan you make
B. People know what you want to do C.48 hours
C. A plan establishes the basis for what you are doing
D. 36 hours
D. It is best to solve a problem before it happens

73. The plan must be Proactive not Reactive. This statement 81. This type of crime analysis looks at the long-term and
implies that? an-going issues.
A. Experience and training will be reflected on the
plan you make A. Tactical Crime Analysis
B. People know what you want to do B. Strategic Crime Analysis
C. A plan establishes the basis for what you are doing C. Long term crime analysis
D. It is best to solve a problem before it D. Crime analysis
happens
82. What is becoming central to policing and crime
74. “Seeing ahead and making sound assumptions” refers reduction in 21st century?
to what skill needed in planning?
A. Investigation
A. Prioritizing B. Surveillance
B. Forecasting C. Crime mapping
C. Monitoring
D. Patrol
D. Documenting 83. In consented warrantless search, it is fundamental that
to constitute a waiver, it must first appear that:
75. PMaj Alday drafted a Patrol Plan which requires the
personnel to bring poncho (raincoat) especially during I. the right exists;
rainy days. This statement implies what? II. the person involved had knowledge, either actual or
A. Flexibility constructive, of the existence of this right;
B. Contingency III.that person had an actual intention to relinquish the
C. Interoperability right.
D. Documenting

76. Monitoring as one of the skills needed in planning A. I

means?
B. I,II
A. Identifying success indicators and follow-up
B. Know where you are going and how to get there C.I,II,III
C. Keep a record of what is happening
D. Part of the plan, are the sets of success criteria or D.I,III
indicators of success.
84. Is a system that creates, manages, analyzes, and maps all
types of data, connects data to a map, integrating location data
77. PNP PATROL PLAN 2030 AND BEYOND, aims to
transform the PNP personnel to become effective and with all types of descriptive information, helps users
understand the patterns, relationships and geographic context
credible police by 2030, what type of plan is this?
A. Medium Term Planning
B. Tactical Planning A. Geographic System for Police
C. Strategic Planning B. Geographic Information System
D. Operational Planning C. Geographic Manual for Police
D. Geographical Police System
78. The following are circumstances that constitutes valid
warrantless search and seizure, except:
27 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 A. Point
86. Is similar to a wall map, in that the computer is used to B. Line
place a point at a specific location just as a person would put a C. Polygon
pin on a wall map. D. Image
93. It is also known as grid data. It provides a
A. Computer Mapping representation of the world as a surface divided up into a
B. Crime Mapping regular grid array, or cells.
C. Conventional Mapping
D. All of these A. Raster Data
87. A special- purpose, single topic, statistical mapping
that focuses on the spatial variability of a specific B. Vector Data
distribution or theme C. Attribute Data
D. Point Data
A. Thematic Mapping Approach
B. Computer Mapping 94. Is any type of data that directly or indirectly
C. Mapping references a specific geographical area or location
D.GIS
A. geodata
B. spatial data
88. It is the process of using a geographic C. attribute data
information system in combination with crime D. vector data
analysis techniques to focus on the spatial context
of criminal and other law enforcement activity 95. Are information data sets that have a common feature
a. Crime Analysis Mapping or attribute placed in the same layer of spatial data. This
b. Thematic Crime Mapping guide is arranged by general spatial themes.
c. Computer Mapping
A. Thematic Data
d. GIS
B. Spectral Data
89. A type of crime mapping which offers limited utility
because they are difficult to keep updated, keep accurate, C. Pictures (imagery)
make easy to read and can only display a limited amount
of data – D. raster data

a. Mapping
b. Computer Mapping 96. Is the relation ship between the dimensions of the map
c. Thematic Crime Mapping and the dimensions of the earth.
d. Manual Pin Mapping
A. Scale
90. Spatial Data quality can be categorized into, EXCEPT b. Measurement
C.Topography
A. Data Completeness
d. None of these
B. Data Precision
97. Kind of map that measures density across a map.
C. Data Accuracy Darker shades indicates higher density areas while lighter
shades shows lower density rates.
D. Data Consistency
A. Heat maps
E. NOTA b. Isoleth map
c. Dot density map
91. The GIS can help you to:
d. Graduated symbol maps
I. Understand events and dynamics in the
neighborhood including persons, events and 98. The following are advantages of Crime mapping:
crime hazards
II. Identify risk factors including building or other I. It helps reveal crime patters
location that draw crime II. It allows the identification of hot spot areas
III. Rapidly configure beats and reallocate resources III. It creates a profile of characteristic for criminals
after analyzing crime trend is over IV. It enhances the implementation of the various
IV. develop plans for special crime abatement teams policing methodology and approaches in reducing
to address regional and seasonal hotspot location overall criminal activities and disorders.
V. Capture repeated call of service locations to apply V. It allows to understand places that requires high
additional help and assistance allocation of preventive resources
A. I,II,IV A. I, II, III
B. I,II,III B.I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III,IV C.I,II,IV
D. I,II,III,IV,V D.I, II, III, IV, V

92. A feature of GIS data representation which is 99. Defined as a set of systematic analytical processes
analogous to a pin placed on a paper wall map. providing timely and useful information on crime patterns and
trends
28 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
A. crime analysis b. Integrity

B. crime data d. humility

C. crime systematic analysis

D. crime rate 5. It is one of the most revealing traits of a leader who is

ethical and moral.
100. is simply a visualization tool that is used to display raw
geographic data output from analysis, which is done through a. honesty
GIS c. humility
A. mapping
b. empathy
B. crime mapping
d. humane
C. crime mapping analyis

D. computer mapping
6. These skills are absolutely crucial who can be able to
express yourself openly and

LEADERSHIP AND MANAGEMENT (LEA5) build empathy with other people.

1. This is a practical skill encompassing the ability of an a. Listening

individual, group or organization
c. communication
to influence or guide other individuals, teams, or entire
organizations. b. Service

a. Leadership d. integrity

c. Decision Making

b. Humility 7. This is the act of believing enough to lead, knowing

that your plans and vision are not
d. Service
only viable for the team but the absolute best decision
possible.

2. It means to work to their greatest potential toward a. confidence

preventing crime, serve and give
c. honesty
themselves toward a greater good with the highest work
ethic possible. b. trust

a. Trust d. integrity

c. service

b. Integrity 8. It means shifting from doing to leading by entrusting

works to other members they
d. purpose
must be more essential and less involved.

a. Resilience
3. It means being humble and vulnerable focus on
problem-solving and team dynamics c. influence

much more than self-promotion. b. Delegation

a. Honesty d. empathy

c. mentoring

b. Humility 9. This is a leader who is not afraid to do what they truly

believe to be right – even if it
d. constructive attitude
is unpopular, unprofitable, or inconvenient.

a. Ethical leaders
4. It is the ability to rely or place confidence to someone,
perform a job effectively and c. leadership

work harder for the benefit of the team. b. Efficient leaders

a. Honesty d. good leader

c. trust

29 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 10. This is the best interest of the organization and of 15. It is one of the most important traits of ethical
others in order to gain their trust leadership.

and follow us. a. Honesty

a. Trust c. humane

c. honesty b. Leadership by example

b. Integrity d. respect others

d. accountability

16. It is a sense of community and team spirit within the

organization.
11. This is a certain level of leadership status given to
them but it must be earned, can a. Encourages initiative

connect with people emotionally and make others feel c. leadership by example
important.
b. Focus on teambuilding
a. Resilience
d. value awareness
c. influence

b. Delegation
17. This is the process of applying police leadership
d. empathy knowledge and skills.

a. Trait leadership

12. This means inspiring their team on their exhibited c. process leadership
behavior, life outlook, and
b. Ethical leadership
attitude in any given situation.
d. all of the above
a. humility

c. influence
18. It is an early assumption that leaders are born and
b. Positivity due to this belief, those that

d. resilience possess the correct qualities and traits are better suited
to leadership.

a. Trait leadership
13. This is the act of setting the organizational direction,
making new ideas, ensuring c. process leadership

team members know the bottom line, and understand the b. Ethical leadership
goals and the mission of
d. all of the above
the organization.

a. Mission
19. This theory or personality traits may lead people
c. vision naturally into leadership roles.

b. Purposes a. Great event theory

d. function c. trait theory

b. Transformational theory

14. This means always fair and just, have no favorites, d. process theory
and treat everyone equally.
20. This is a theory wherein people can choose to
a. Equality become leaders or people can learn

c. due process leadership skills.

b. Justice a. Great event theory

d. all of the above c. trait theory

b. Transformational theory

30 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 d. process theory C. accomplishment

B. result

21. An art of getting people to comprehend and believe in D. goals

the vision set for the organization and to work with others
to achieve goals is known as –

A. management 26. Law enforcement organization that have no apparent

centralized command structure is classified as what type
C. directing of police forces?

B. administration A. Decentralized Command Structure

D. leadership B. Coordinated Centralized Police Force

C. National Centralized

22. Management is more about administering and making D. Combined police forces
sure the ___________ are happening as they should.

A. day-to-day activities
27. Which statement is NOT true about the
C. goal set characteristics of leaders in the law enforcement
organization?
B. mission
A. They motivate personnel to want to produce.
D. objectives of the organization
B. They accomplish things by placing increased
pressure on their personnel to produce results.
23. In management the manager __________ or directs C. They understand that while they provide a service,
people/resources in a group according to principles or there are some issues that they cannot handle.
values that have been established.
D. They believe in what they are doing, and convey that
A. controls to their subordinates.
C. supervises

B. uses 28. In the uniformed services many officers started as

leaders, but upon promotion and over time, they become
D. spearhead
managers because they___

A. are pressured by their superior officers to produce

24. Which is the BEST description of a leader in an
organization?
A. He is the one who helps the organizations and
people to grow
B. He makes work processes more effective in the
organization
C. He is the most important person in the organization
results
B. played politics in the area where they are assigned so
that they can stay there for long
C. adopted a skewed customer service mentality in
which the “customer” always comes first.
D. want to accomplish their legal mandate to “serve and
protect” the people.

D. He serves as a base of a successful organization

24. Creating vision, setting direction, inspiring and

aligning people to accomplish organizational goals are
29. Which statement is FALSE about law enforcement
essential functions of a –
leadership?
A. manager
A. It should go above and beyond for nuisance
C. superior complaints, because it is part of the job.

B. commanding officer B. To be truly effective, there is a need to instil a change

D. leader
25. Managers plan, organize, budget, coordinate, control
and execute activities within existing structures, therefore
managers focus on functions, while leader focus on –
in the mind set of the agency.
C. Personnel are reflection of leadership hence personnel
development is of the utmost importance.
D. The transition towards being a leader or to a
manager is based in part on unconscious choice.

A. roles
31 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 30. In a meeting, the division chief give his/her B. personalized
subordinates a few decision-related options. They then
open a discussion about each option, by which the former D. individual
took his/her thoughts and feedback into consideration.
35. Community-based policing is both a philosophy
What leadership style was used?
and an organizational strategy that –
A. Strategic
A. promotes harmonious relationship between the police
C. Transformational
and
B. Democratic
the community they were assigned
D. Transactional
B. enable to explore creative new ways to address
31. Mr. Clifford changed the hours of work shifts of his 15
neighborhood concerns beyond a narrow focus on
subordinates without consulting anyone, especially those
who are affected by the sudden change. What individual crime incidents
leadership style did Mr. Clifford exercised? C. will bridge the gap between the police and the people
in
A. Strategic
the community
C. Bureaucratic
D. allows the police and the community to work
B. Transactional
closely
D. Autocratic
in creative ways to solve the problems of crime and

other social issues that breed crimes.

32. Mr. Arcega listed basic set of tasks and goals that

his subordinates will complete for every week, month,

year until the end of his four years term of office.
Consequently, he constantly push his subordinates 36. In the bureaucratic type of leadership, the leader
outside of their comfort zone or capability. What
leadership style does Mr. –

Arcega used? A. goes by the book

A. Transformational B. focus on strategies that will enable their team work

better
C. Transactional
together
B. Autocratic
C. reward their employees for precisely the work they do
D. Coach-style
D. put full trust into their employees
33. To motivate his men to exert utmost effort to

serve and protect the public, PCOL Vargas is actively

and consistently gives awards and incentives to his men 37. Which is/are TRUE about Laissez-faire leaders?
for
1. They make no major office policies around work hours
every good work they have accomplished. PCOL Vargas or

used ___________ leadership style. deadlines.

A. transformational 2. They put full trust into their employees while they focus
on
C. laissez-faire
the overall workings of running the organization.
B. transactional
3. Empower subordinates by trusting them to work.
D. coach style
4. Sit at the intersection between an

organization’s main
34. One of the philosophy of Community Based
operations and its growth opportunities
Policing is to provide decentralized, _____________
police 5. Subordinates have a basic set of tasks and goals that
they
service to the community.
have complete on schedule
A. effective
A. 1, 3, 5
C. one-on-one

32 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 C. 1,2 3 B. Identify the decision, identify alternatives, choose
among
B. 2,4
alternatives, gather information, weigh the evidence, take
D. 3, 4,5
action and review the decision

C. Identify the decision, gather information, identify

38. Staffing as one of the management function aims
alternatives, weigh the evidence, choose among
mainly to –
alternatives, take action and review the decision
A. put right man on right job
D. Identify the decision, weigh the evidence, identify
B. fill in the position with a highly qualified person in the
alternatives, choose among alternatives, gather
organization
information, take action and review the decision
C. put trusted person for the job

D. choose the right person supported by co-employees

43. Herbert Simon suggested his model of decision-
making into three stages, which
39. Which management function is considered as the is not included?
life-spark of the organization? a. Intelligence
A. Planning c. Design
C. Staffing b. Problems
B. Organizing d. Choice
D. Directing

44. It deals with the problem identification and the data

collection on the problem.
40. According to Henry Fayol to manage means is to
a. Intelligence
forecast and plan, to organize, to command, and to –
c. Design
A. monitor
b. Problems
C. budget
d. Choice
B. supervise

D. control
45. . It means selecting the ‘best’ solution from amongst
the alternative solutions using
41. The first step in making the right decision is –
some criterion.
A. getting others on board with the decision
a. Intelligence
B. asking what need to know in order to make the right
c. Design
decision
b. Problems
C. recognizing the problem or opportunity and
d. Choice
deciding to address it.

D. gathering relevant information related to the problem

46. It deals with the generation of alternative solutions to
at
the problem at hand.
hand
a. Intelligence

c. Design
42. Decision-making involves the following process.
b. Problems
Which are the correct steps in making sound decisions?
d. Choice
A. Gather information, identify the decision, identify

alternatives, choose among alternatives, weigh the

evidence, take action and review the decision

33 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 47. This model is considered the first attempt to know the a. Postponing the decision
decision-making-process.
b. failure to assess the reliability of information
a. Garbage can model
c. indecisiveness
c. Retrospective decision-making model
d. failure to isolate the root cause of the problem
b. Rational or classical model

d. Administrative bounded rationality model

53. This is the characteristics of the situation in which the
decision is faced—

48. This model assumes that no organizational process including time pressure, cognitive load, and social
for finding a solution to a problem exists and that context.
decision-makers are disconnected from problems and
a. Decision features
solutions.
c. situational factors
a. Garbage can model
b. Individual differences
c. Retrospective decision-making model
d. cultural differences
b. Rational or classical model

d. Administrative bounded rationality model

54. The impact of this decision are the framing of choice
options, the ordering of

49.This is an element of problem solving which develop choice options, and the requirement of choice
solutions to bring about justification.

lasting reductions in the number and extent of problems a. Decision features

a. Scanning c. situational factors

c. analysis b. Individual differences

b. Response d. cultural differences

d. Assessment

55. This measure refers to the ability or set of skills

needed to make good decisions,
50. This is an element of problem solving which identify
and prioritize problems. based on normative models of decision making.

a. Scanning a. Competence measures

c. analysis c. approach measures

b. Response b. Style measures

d. Assessment d. choice measures

51. In management the manager __________ or directs 56. This refers to the administrative activities of
people/resources in a group according to principles or coordinating, controlling and directing
values that have been established.
police resources, activities and personnel.
A. controls
a. Police administration
C. supervises
c. Police management
B. uses
b. Police supervision
D. spearhead
d. Police direction

57. It is an organizational process concerned with the

52. It means those persons who are not good in making implementation of objectives
decision because of timidity
and plans and internal operating efficiency.
which result in taking a long time for making a decision
and the opportunity may be a. Administration

lost. c. management

34 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 b. Supervision C. Planning

d. direction D. Staffing

63. This maintains an understanding of the situation and

ensures proper implementation of plans and involves
58. One of the features which indicates that science and giving guidance and reviewing the performance of a job.
management are the same is the universal acceptance of
scientific laws are the same in every case and in every
part of the world. Which of the following serves as an
example of this statement? A. Supervision

B. Monitoring

A. Unity of Direction Principle C. Planning

B. Unity of Command Principle D. Organization

C. Scalar Chain Principle

D. Motivational Principle 64. ______________ is the secret to efficient operations.

Teamwork is important to the entire order, from the
59. A leadership trait that make sure each of the smallest unit.
subordinate is responsible for what they do by giving
them a pat on the back if they do well but when they fail
make them realize their mistakes and work together to
A. Reconciliation
improve.
B. Cooperation

C. Coordination
a. Commitment and Passion
D. Correlation
b. Good Communicator 65. People and materials should be in the right place at
the right time.
c. Accountability

d. Creativity and Innovation

A. Equity

B. Initiative
60. This power shows influence based on special skills or
knowledge as it relies on the notion that experience and C. Order
knowledge give the person respect.
D. Centralization

A. Informational Power
66. This is shown when the group promotes team spirit
B. Referent Power that build unity and harmony within the organization.
C. Influential Power

D. Expert Power a. Esprit de Corps

61. What is a structured lesson designed to give people
the knowledge and skills to perform a task? b. Brotherhood

c. Gallantry
A. Evaluation d. Team Building
B. Supervision

C. Training 67. Which is considered as supreme in aiming for what’s

best for the business?
D. Coaching

62. This managerial concept is important for employing

different types of people and performing different a. Individual Interest
activities such as training, growth, evaluation,
compensation, welfare etc. b. General Interest

c. Financial Interest

A. Controlling d. Operational Interest

B. Organizing

35 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 68. Employees obeying and respecting the rules and
regulations which governs the organization are
manifesting this managerial concept.
a. Discipline
75. Such leaders use eloquent communication and
persuasion to unite a team around a cause, instead of
promoting actions by strict instructions.

b. Authority a. Democratic

c. Unity of Command b. Charismatic

d. Respect c. Bureaucratic

d. Laissez-Faire

70. An approach in decision-making when people will

point to a "gut feeling" or "hunch" as the cause for a
choice, reflecting that explanation is not accessible
through conscious thought.
A. Rational
76. Leaders let their team members make decisions,
solve problems, and get their work done without having to
worry about their every move being obsessively watched
by the leader.

B. Intuitive

C. Analytical a. Democratic

D. Random b. Autocratic

c. Bureaucratic

71. Also known as “Collaborative Decision-Making’’, is a d. Laissez-Faire

situation faced when individuals collectively make a
choice from the alternatives before them.

A. Individual Decision-Making 77. With this style of leadership, there is a specified

collection of boxes to check to be a true leader. Also
B. Group Decision-Making means “by-the-book.”

C. Bidirectional Decision-making

a. Democratic
D. Partnered Decision-making
b. Autocratic

c. Bureaucratic
72. The Basic Functions of Administration are all but one:
d. Laissez-Faire
A. Planning
78. Which of the following is not a positive outcome of
B. Staffing practicing self - leadership?

C. Directing

D. Controlling A. Proactive participation with the group

B. Disciplined members

73. Line of authority from top management to the lower C. independent decision maker
ranks represents the hierarchy.
D. too overwhelmed
A. Unity of Direction
79. Herbert Simon suggested his model of decision-
B. Unity of Command making into three stages, which is not included?

C. Scalar Chain a. intelligence

D. Centralization b. problems

74. This type of leaders see themselves as having c. design

absolute power and making decisions on their
subordinates' behalf. They decide not just what needs to d.choice
be done, but how to accomplish certain tasks too.
80. What do you call a set of principles relating to the
a. Democratic roles of planning, coordinating, directing and regulating
and the implementation of those principles in the efficient
b. Autocratic use of physical, financial human and information capital
to achieve organizational objectives?
c. Bureaucratic

d. Laissez-Faire
36 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 A. Administration d. Leaders can be influenced

B. Management

C. Decision-making 86. What does the statement "keep improving yourself"

means?

D. Leadership a. You have to learn something new

b. Not making the same mistake twice

81. They include all levels of management between the c. Start acting like a great leader
supervisory level and the top level of the organization.
These managers may be called functional managers, d. Have a clear purpose
plant heads, and project managers.

87. This requires giving instructions and motivating sub-

A. first line managers ordinates to accomplish their goals.

B. middle level managers a. planning

C. top managers b. organizing

D. last managers c. staffing

d. directing

82. Which quality of good leaders makes them visionary? 88. What is the other term for first line managers?

A. Confident a. superiors

B. Accountable and responsible b. supervisors

C. Self-motivated c. leaders

D. Long-term thinkers d. boss

83. A ___________ leader gives people a little direction 89. It allows leaders or senior officers, who undergo very
to help them tap into their ability to achieve all that they're little or no supervision, to prepare and set targets on their
capable of. own, as well as to control their own self to execute such
plans.
A. Coaching
A. Leadership
B. Laissez-faire
B. Organizational Leadership
C. Democratic
C. Planning
D. Affiliative
D. Self-leadership

84. Treating people equally and advocates for their rights

and doesn't let personal feelings bias decisions. Which 90. It’s a process whereby an individual influences other
quality of a good leader is this? and guides the organization in a manner that makes it
more cohesive and coherent.
A. Compassion
A. Leadership
B. Fairness
B. Organizational Leadership
C. Accountable and responsible
C. Planning
D. People oriented
D. Self-leadership

85. Which of the following statement is conclusive?

91. Different people expect different leadership styles.
a. Leaders must be influenced The basic starting point is to have a clear understanding
of human nature such as needs, feelings and motivation.
b. Leaders are influencers This is a factor concerning _________.
c. Leaders must influence and should be A. Leader
influenced
B. Followers

37 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 C. Supervisors 97. Influence based on individual or desirable possession
of wealth or personal traits. Sometimes this is seen as
D. Top Management beauty, elegance, or appreciation. You like the individual
and you want to do things for him or her.

92. You have to use your discretion to determine the best

course of action and the style of leadership needed for A. Coercive Power
each situation. This is a factor concerning _______.
B. Legitimate Power
A. Leader
C. Referent Power
B. Followers
D. Reward Power
C. Situation

D. Communication
98. The power a person receives in an organization's
93. This theory states that some personality traits may formal hierarchy as a consequence of his or her role. The
lead people naturally into leadership roles. person has the right to expect you to comply with valid
demands, given his or her status and your job
A. Process Leadership Theory
responsibilities.
B. Great Events Theory

C. Trait Theory
A. Coercive Power
D. Personality Theory
B. Legitimate Power

C. Referent Power
94. Today, it is the widely accepted theory. People can
D. Reward Power
opt for leadership. People can learn the ability to take
leadership.

A. Process Leadership Theory 99. The following are considered as Leadership traits
except one:
B. Great Events Theory

C. Trait Theory
A. Confidence
D. Personality Theory
B. Overruling

C. Integrity
95. A crisis or important event can cause a person to rise
to the occasion, putting forth extraordinary qualities of D. Empathy
leadership in an ordinary person.

A. Process Leadership Theory

100. Leaders prioritize working together and actively
B. Great Events Theory engaging their colleagues in the decision-making
process. This type of leader respects other people’s
C. Trait Theory
ideas and feedback, and encourage discussion of those
D. Personality Theory inputs.

96. . This is based on fear. Employees who work for A. Transformational

someone having this are unlikely to commit themselves,
B. Transactional
and are more likely to resist the manager.
C. Servant

D. Democratic
A. Coercive Power

B. Legitimate Power
PATRIOTISM AND NATIONALISM (LEA6)
C. Referent Power

D. Reward Power 1. __________ defines the nation as an

association of people who identify themselves as
belonging to the nation, who have equal and
38 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER
shared political rights, and allegiance to similar
political procedures .
a. Civic Nationalism
b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism
d. Ethnic Nationalism
2. ___________ nationalism refers to the ideology
that emerged in independence movements among
the creoles (descendants of the colonizers),
especially in Latin America in the early 19th
century .
a. Civic Nationalism
b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism
d. Ethnic Nationalism
3. __________ nationalism is a type of nationalism
similar to creole or territorial types of nationalism,
but which defines belonging to a nation solely by
being born on its territory.
a. Civic Nationalism
b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism
d. Ethnic Nationalism
4. __________ nationalism, also known as ethno-
nationalism, is a form of nationalism wherein the
“nation” is defined in terms of ethnicity.
a. Civic Nationalism
b. Creole Nationalism
c. Nativist Nationalism d.
Ethnic Nationalism
5. __________ nationalism seeks to preserve a
given race through policies such as banning race
mixing and the immigration of other races.
a. Civic Nationalism
b. Creole Nationalism
39 | P a g e
c. Nativist Nationalism
d. Ethnic Nationalism
e. Racial Nationalism
6. __________ nationalism defines the nation in
terms of ethnicity, which always includes some
elements Civic nationalism (or civil nationalism) is
the form of nationalism in which the state derives
political legitimacy from the active participation of
its citizenry. from the degree to which it
represents the –will of the people of descent from
previous generations.
a. Ethnic
b. Civic
c. State
d. Expansionist
7. __________ nationalism (or civil nationalism) is
the form in which the state derives political
legitimacy from the active participation of its
citizenry, from the degree to which it represents
the-will of the people.
a. Ethnic
b. Civic
c. State
d. Expansionist
8. __________ nationalism is a radical form of
imperialism that incorporates autonomous,
patriotic sentiments with a belief in expansionism
and in superiority or dominance.
a. Ethnic
b. Civic
c. Expansionist
d. State
9. __________ nationalism is a variant of civic
nationalism, often combined with ethnic
nationalism
AMICI REVIEW CENTER
 a. Ethnic c. World
b. Civic d. Spanish
c. Expansionist
d. State
14. The first president of the Philippine
Commonwealth.
10. __________ nationalisms occur in those a. Emilio Aguinaldo
nations that have been colonized and exploited.
b. Carlos P. Garcia
Religious nationalism is a particular religious belief
or affiliation. c. Sergio Osemena
a. Ethnic d. Manuel L. Quezon
b. Civic
c. Expansionist
15. The expulsion of __________ priests from the
d. State
country resulted to a shortage of priests in the
e. Third World parishes.
a. Filipino
b. Tagalog
c. Spanish
d. Foreign
11. The term __________ originally referred to the e. Jesuit
Spanish criollos of the Philippines.
16. Patriotism is a concept that has intrigued
a. Filipino philosophers and political theorists for centuries.
b. Tagalog It is defined by __________.
c. Philippines a. Stephen Nathanson
d. guardia civil
b. Leo Tolstoy
c. Marcia Baron
12.The decline of __________ trade between
d. George Kateb
Manila and Acapulco was caused by the arrival of
the ship Buen Consejo in 1765. 17. __________ argues that patriotism is not
morally legitimate under two arguments - first,
a. Commercial
that patriotism promotes one's country's interests
b. Galleon
at the expense of other nations, through whatever
c. World means necessary.
d. Spanish
a. Stephen Nathanson
b. Leo Tolstoy
13. Shortly after opening Manila to __________
c. Marcia Baron
trade, the Spanish merchants began to lose their
commercial supremacy in the Philippines. d. George Kateb
a. Commercial
b. Galleon

40 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

18. __________ argues that patriotism can be 23. In contrast, feelings of nationalism are based
compatible with morality, as love for our country on a belief that one's country is superior to all
need not override all other moral considerations. others.
a. Stephen Nathanson a. Patriotism
b. Leo Tolstoy b. Decentralization
c. Marcia Baron c. Marxism
d. George Kateb d. Humanism

19. He argues that "citizens” are not discernable. 24. Another big problem of patriotism is that
people may feel __________ to other nationalities
individuals, and social ties are impersonal and
and countries.
invisible.
a. Patriotism
a. Stephen Nathanson
b. Leo Tolstoy b. Decentralization
c. Marcia Baron c. Marxism
d. George Kateb
d. Superior

20. A __________ is a country's national song.

25. The act of patriotism and feeling patriotic are
a. Lupang Hinirang things which will make for a stronger nation.
b. Bayang Magiliw a. Patriotism
b. Decentralization
c. Bayan ko
c. Marxism
d. Inang Bayan
d. Superior
e. national anthem
e. Patriotic

21. __________ in the sense that you are loyal to

26. The word __________ is a noun that means
the state you are living in, and want it to flourish
"devoted love, support, and defense of one's
so good for the development of the nation.
country; national loyalty.”
a. Patriotism
a. patriotism
b. Nationalism
b. patriotic
c. Marxism
d. Humanism c. national pride
d. any of the above
22. __________ to create a fair power-balanced
multipolar world.
27. A __________ person is always on the side of
a. Patriotism his own nation and supports its leaders if they are
b. Decentralization deserving.
c. Marxism a. patriotism
d. Humanism
b. patriotic

41 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 c. national pride a. Patriotism
b. Cosmopolitans
d. any of the above
c. Loyalty
d. Nationalistic
28. __________ is the feeling of love, devotion
and sense of attachment to a homeland and
alliance with other citizens who share the same 33. Every __________ is honor-bound to serve his
sentiment. country with all his strength.
a. patriotism a. patriotism
b. patriotic b. cosmopolitans
c. national pride c. patriot
d. any of the above d. Nationalistic

29. __________ through its protectionist beliefs, is 34. __________ probably the most popular among
the polar opposite of globalism. the grounds adduced for patriotic duty.
a. Patriotism a. Patriotism
b. Patriotic b. Cosmopolitans
c. National pride c. Patriot
d. Nationalism d. Gratitude
30. The soldiers showed exemplary patriotism
defending their country from __________.
35. __________ patriotism has always sought to
a. patriotism protect our democracy - defending the right to
vote and seeking to ensure that more Americans
b. patriotic
are heard.
c. national pride
a. Patriotism
d. nationalism b. Cosmopolitans

e. attack c. Patriot
d. Gratitude
e. Inclusive Patriotism
31. __________ is defined as a special concern for
one's country's well-being, and that is not the
same as an exclusive and aggressive concern for it.
36. Nationalism may prevent people from learning
a. Patriotism new languages. This statement is true?

b. Nationalism a. Yes

c. Loyalty b. No

d. Nationalistic c. Maybe

32. __________ serve their country and seek to d. Uncertain

uplift it intellectually, materially and morally.

42 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

37. Scholars never used cosmopolitanism to gain d. Feast
similar interests when the situation required a
cosmopolitan attachment. This statement is true?
43. Shall mean places of hilarity marked by or
a. Yes b. No
providing boisterous merriment or recreation;
c. Maybe d. Uncertain
a. Official Residences
b. Institute
38. __________ emerged in the late eighteenth
c. Places of Fidelity
century appearing first in Europe, then in North
and South America. d. Places of Frivolity
a. Racism b. Patriotism
c. Nationalism d. Fascism 44. The flag shall be flown on merchant ships of
Philippine registry of more than ______ gross tons
e. Liberalism
and on all naval vessels.
a. 1000
39. In the twentieth century, nationalism spread
b.10
to many Asian countries and to the new
independent nations of __________. c.100
a. Asian countries b. Europe d10000
c. Dubai d. Africa
e. None of the Above 46. When the Philippine flag is flown with another
flag, the flags, if both are national flags, must be
40. Nationalism is a relatively modern concept
flown on separate staffs of the same height and
emerged in the eighteenth to nineteenth
shall be of equal size. The Philippine flag shall be
centuries.
hoisted first and lowered last.
a. Yes b. No
a. TRUE
c. Maybe d. Uncertain
b. FALSE
c. PARTIALY TRUE
41. This act shall be known as the “Flag and
d. PARTIALY FALSE
Heraldic Code of the Philippines.”
a. RA 8491
47. Upon official announcement of the death of
b. RA 9184
the President or any former president, how many
c. RA 8419 days the flag will put into half-mast?
d. RA 8914 a. 10 days
42. Shall mean the part of the flag outside the b. 7 days
hoist or length
c. 15 days
a. Festoon
d. 5 days
b. Flag
c. Fly

43 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

48. The period from ______________ of each year d. United Nations Economic, Scientific and
is declared as Flag Days. Cultural Organization.
a. from June 12-14
b. from May 25-28 53. Civilian authority is, at all times, _______the
military.
c. from May 28 to June 12
a. Supreme always
d. from June 28-July 12
b. Supreme over
c. Supreme above
49. The following are the National Motto of the
Philippines except: d. Nota
a. Maka-Diyos 54. The separation of Church and State shall be
inviolable. Inviolable means_____
b. Maka-Tao
a. Prone to tarnish
c. Makakalikasan
b. Never to be broken, infringed, or
d Maka Hayop
dishonored
c. Indispensable
50. When hoisting the flag to the top, it should be
d. Nota
done ___
55. The national language of the Philippines is
a. Ceremoniously
Filipino.
b. Briskly
a. Bisaya
c. Slowly
b. Jejemon
d. Solemnly
c. Tagalog
d. English
51. Section 1 of Art. II of 1987 Constitution states
e. Nota
that the Philippines is a _________State.
56. This is one of the most popular qualities of
a. Democratic and Sovereign
Filipinos.
b. Democratic and republican
a. Respect
c. Republican and Sovereign
b. Strong Family Ties and Religions
d. All of the above
c. Hospitality
52. UNESCO means ___
d. Generosity and Helpfulness
a. United Nations Educational, Social and
57. It is in the Filipino value of going out of the
Cultural Organization.
way to help, without being asked, i.e., unsolicited
b. United Nations Environmental, Scientific help.
and Cultural Organization.
a. Pakikiramay
c. United Nations Educational, Scientific and
b. Pakikisama
Cultural Organization.
c. Bayanihan

44 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 d. Galang d. Culture

58. This is also known as character building by

which an individual develops his stable pattern of
62. There are five factors that determine character
functioning, thinking and feeling as a result of his
or personality traits, which is not included?
interaction biologically and environmentally.
a. Openness
a. Character development
d. Extraversion
c. Character formation
b. Conscientiousness
b. Character
e. Nueroticism
d. Good character
c. Covetous
f. Agreeableness

59. It refers to all habitual ways of feeling and

reacting of a person which distinguish one from
another.
a. Character development 63. This is a personality trait which means being
sociable, energetic and talkative.
c. Character formation
a. Openness
b. Character
b. Conscientiousness
d. Good character
e. Nueroticism
c. Covetous
60. This contributing factors for character
formation influences one’s personality and social f. Agreeableness
development.
a. Family
c. School 64. This is a personality trait which means being
kind, sympathetic and happy to help.
b. Home
a. Openness
d. Culture
d. Extraversion
b. Conscientiousness
61. This contributing factors for character
formation is the cradle of human character and e. Nueroticism
personality that contribute to the formation of the c. Covetous
child.
f. Agreeableness
a. Family
c. School
b. Home

45 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

65. A type of characters which only becomes bad
when it’s over and turns a person to become
69. This is a negative Filipino trait and attitude
unpredictable.
where they tend to push each other down to clear
a. Superstitious character the way for their own gain.
c. Self-realized character a. Fatalism
b. Covetous character c. Procrastination
d. Anti-social character b. Ningas cogon
d. Crab mentality

66. A type of character with a damn-care-attitude

and thinks that he can do everything and
70. This is a “bahala na” or “come what may”
everybody must respect him.
attitude tendency to surrender the future to luck
a. Insincere character and leaving everything to God.
c. Egoistic/overbearing/bossy a. Fatalism
b. Complacent character c. Procrastination
d. Covetous character b. Ningas cogon
d. Crab mentality

67. This type of character is ever enthusiastic for

he knows his potentialities and limitations.
71. It refers to a Maῇana habit or an attitude of
a. Insincere character causing delays in accomplishing things or making
transactions and do not care of what lies ahead.
c. Self-realized character
a. Fatalism
b. Complacent character
c. Procrastination
d. Anti-social character
b. Ningas cogon
d. Crab mentality

68. The well-known positive Filipino trait and

attitude which is characterized by heart-warming
generosity and friendliness exhibited to foreigners
72. This a trait of being good only at the start and
and locals alike.
become too lazy to finish it.
a. Loving and caring
a. Fatalism
c. Strong family ties and religions
c. Procrastination
b. Hospitality
b. Ningas cogon
d. Loving and caring
d. Crab mentality

46 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 77. This is an ideology and movement define by
73. This is any philosophy that considers
promoting the interests of a particular nation with
personality the supreme value and the key to the
the aim of acquiring and maintaining sovereignty.
measuring of reality.
a. Leadership
a. Familiarism
c. Allegiance
c. Particularism
b. Patriotism
b. Personalism
d. Nationalism
d. all of the above

78. This is a sense of love, dedication and

74. It is the subordination of the personal interests
attachment to a country and an alliance with
and prerogatives of an individual to the values and
other people who share the same impression.
demands of the family.
a. Leadership
a. Familiarism
c. Allegiance
c. Particularism
b. Patriotism
b. Personalism
d. Nationalism
d. all of the above

79. This nationalism refers to the active

75. This is a traits underscoring Filipino values with
involvement and the wills of the individual to
the exclusive attachment to the interests of one
contribute to the state’s maintenance and
group, class, sect, etc.
strength.
a. Familiarism
a. Romantic nationalism
c. Particularism
c. Ethnic nationalism
b. Personalism
b. Cultural nationalism
d. all of the above
d. Civic nationalism

76. The "bahala na" attitude is the outcome of the

80. This nationalism refers contributes to a sense
_____when the tasks are left undone.
of domestic unity and a mutual bond between the
a. Mañana Habit nation’s people.

b. Fatalism a. Stateless nationalism

c. Crab Mentality c. Diaspora nationalism

d. Hypocrisy b. Cultural nationalism

d. Religious nationalism

47 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

 c. Courteous

81. It involves the concept of a shared culture and

shared language to promote domestic group
85. This means being adjusted and learned to be
family and social life.
powerful in moments of need and in difficult
a. Romantic nationalism circumstances that life throws at us even in times
of disaster.
c. Ethnic nationalism
a. Stable
b. Cultural nationalism
d. Enthusiastic
d. Civic nationalism
b. Thankful
e. Self-sacrificing
c. Courteous
82. It is otherwise known as organic and identity
nationalism which is based on historical ethnic
culture.
a. Romantic nationalism
86. It means police are committed in doing and
c. Ethnic nationalism making things occur effectively and efficiently in
all of their efforts as they strive to accomplish
b. Cultural nationalism
more consistently and outstandingly with tangible
d. Civic nationalism outcomes and far beyond their best.
a. Empowerment

83. This an aspiration which is always grateful for c. excellence

enjoying life and grateful to our God.
b. Responsibility with accountability
a. Stable
d. servant hood
d. Enthusiastic
b. Thankful
e. Self-sacrificing
87. It means police draw their collective and
c. Courteous individual power of approach to always accept
difficult duties, and they are ready to speak out
against temptation, anomalies, corruption and
exploitation and stand firm.

84. It means doing everything we can, to get of a. Courage

what we dream not only for ourselves but also for
c. empowerment
our family and loved ones.
b. Integrity
a. Stable
d. excellence
d. Enthusiastic
b. Thankful
e. Self-sacrificing

48 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER

88. It means police reach out and create bridges of
collaboration, nurture volunteerism and operate
in harmony with their clientele by training
individuals for a better and safer society in the 92. A flag worn out through wear and tear, shall
process. not be thrown away. It shall be _____________ to
avoid misuse or desecration.
a. Courage
A. buried
c. empowerment
C. ceremoniously burned
b. Integrity
B. solemnly burned
d. Excellence
D. solemnly kept

89. Patriotism ultimately derives from Greek word

patriotes, “fellow-countryman or lineage
member.” The root of this word, in turn,
means______
a. fellow-countryman
b. lineage member
c. Fatherland
d. Nota
90. The flag of the Philippines shall be blue, white
and red with an ______golden-yellow sun and
three _____stars, as consecrated and honored by
the people.
a. Ten-rayed, five-pointed stars
b. eight-rayed, five-pointed
c. five-rayed, ten-pointed
d. five-rayed, eight-pointed
91. Section 6 of RA 8491, the flag shall be
permanently hoisted, day and night throughout
the year, in front of the following, except;
a. Malacanang Palace
b. The Congress of the Philippines building
c. Barasoain Shrine in Malolos
d. International Ports of Entry
e. Nota
49 | P a g e
93. The national Motto shall be____
a. MAKA-DIYOS, MAKA-TAO,
MAKAKALIKASAN AT MAKABANSA.”
b. MAKA-DIYOS, MAKA-TAO, MAKAKALIKASAN AT
MAKABAYAN”
c. MAKA-DIYOS, MAPAGMAHAL, MAKAKALIKASAN
AT MAKABANSA.”
d. MAKA-DIYOS, MAPAGMAHAL, MARUPOK AT
MAKABAYAN
94. The flag shall be replaced ___________ when
it begins to show signs of wear and tear.
A. upon approval
C. with permission from the NHC
B. within 24 hours
D. immediately
95. Religious nationalism pertains to the –
A. relationship of nationalism to a
particular religious belief, church, or affiliation
B. politicization of religion and the converse
influence of religion on politics
C. shared religion that contribute to a sense of
national unity,
AMICI REVIEW CENTER
a common bond among the citizens of the nation 100. EXCEPT one, Philippine territory is consists of
the following domains:
D. influence of religion on politics
A. Terrestrial

96. What form of nationalism that is compatible C. Aerial

with values of freedom, tolerance, equality, and
B. Fluvial
individual rights?
D. Airspace
A. Liberal
C. Emancipated
B. Democratic
D. Republican

97. How the Philippine National Anthem be

rendered?
A. In accordance with the musical arrangement
and composition of Jose Rizal
B. In accordance with the musical arrangement
and composition of Levi Celerio
C. In accordance with the musical arrangement
and composition of Noel Cabangon
D. In accordance with the musical arrangement
and composition of Julian Felipe

98. The BLUE color of the Philippine Flag

represents –
A. purity and peace
B. high political purpose and ideals
C. courage, bravery, heroism and willingness to
shed blood in defense of the Country
D. peace
99. Which of the following is considered as the
most important unit of a Filipino's life?
A. Friends
C. Colleagues
B. Family
D. Spouse

50 | P a g e AMICI REVIEW CENTER