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GENERAL STUDIESPAPER- I Test Booklet

Series
A
GS - April Batch 2024 – Test 30
GS - June Batch 2024 – Test 21
CA - June Batch 2024 – Test 21

Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
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 Syllabus

Economy:
Banking sector-Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, Bad Banks & Developmental Financial Institution,
Types of Banks, Fiscal Policy (Budgeting, Taxation, FRBM etc.), Constitutional provisions related to
Taxes, Disinvestment, Basics of External sector (Balance of Payment).

Polity:
Judicial System: Supreme Court, High Court and Subordinate Courts, And Issues & challenges (ADR,
Legal Aid, Pendency of cases ,Appointment of Judges/Vacancies, Access to Justice, Judicial
infrastructure ,ICT in justice etc.), Centre-State relations: Basics, Emergency Provisions, Comparing
Features of India's constitution with other countries, Important Judgements, Important Amendments,
Misc. Constitutional Bodies, Services under Union and State, Official Language, Electoral Reform and
RPA.

Current Affairs:
November Booklet-1, 2 and 3

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Q1. With respect to Representation of People 1. The executive power of the Centre
Act (RPA) 1950, consider the following overrides the State’s executive
topics: power.
1. Qualification of voters 2. The State assembly is suspended till
2. Preparation of electoral rolls the emergency is in operation.
3. Delimitation of constituencies 3. The life of the Lok Sabha may be
4. Election offences extended beyond its normal term by
How many of the above mentioned a law of Parliament for one year at a
topics is/are included in RPA, 1950? time.
(a) Only one 4. All the fundamental rights are
(b) Only two suspended.
(c) Only three Select the correct answer using the code
(d) D. All four given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q2. With reference to adjudication of Inter-
(c) 1 and 3 only
state water disputes consider the
(d) 2 and 3 only
following statements:
1. Parliament may by law provide for
Q5. In context of the Finance Commission
the adjudication of any dispute or
consider the following
complaint.
recommendations:
2. Parliament cannot restrict Supreme
1. Distribution of the net proceeds of
Court to exercise its jurisdiction with
taxes to be shared between Centre
respect to such disputes.
and the States.
Which of the above given statements
2. The principles which should govern
is/are correct?
the grants-in-aid to the states by the
(a) 1 only
Centre out of the Consolidated Fund
(b) 2 only
of India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. Measures needed to augment the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Contingency Fund of States to
supplement the resources of the
Q3. Consider the following statements with
Panchayats and Municipalities in the
respect to national emergency:
State.
1. Resolution for approval of
4. Any other matter referred to it by
continuation of emergency needs to
the President in the interests of
be passed by both the Houses of
sound finance.
Parliament, while resolution for
How many of the above
disapproval of continuation required
recommendations is/are correct?
to be passed by the Lok Sabha only.
(a) Only one
2. Resolution of approval of
(b) Only two
continuation requires simple
(c) Only three
majority, while resolution of
(d) All four
disapproval of continuation require
special majority.
Q6. Consider the following statements
Which of the statements given above
regarding Inter-State Council:
is/are not correct?
1. Parliament can establish inter-state
(a) 1 only
council to enhance coordination
(b) 2 only
between the center and states.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. The council has concurrent powers
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
with Supreme Court to enquire and
Q4. Which of the following will be the
adjudicate upon inter-state disputes.
consequences of declaration of national
3. It is a permanent constitutional
emergency by the President?
body.

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 How many of the statements given 3. When Parliament has to implement
above is/are not correct? international treaties, agreements
(a) Only one and conventions.
(b) Only two Select the correct answer using the code
(c) All three given below.
(d) None (a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
Q7. With reference to Centre-States relations, (c) 2 and 3 only
consider the following statements: (d) 1 and 2 only
1. The Constitution provides for inter-
government delegation of executive Q10.Consider the following
functions. statements in context of delegation of
2. The President with the consent of power between Centre and States:
the state government can entrust to 1. The Centre can delegate its
that government any of the legislative functions to the States.
executive functions of the Centre. 2. Parliament can make law on state
3. The Constitution provides for the subject, only if atleast two states
entrustment of the executive pass a resolution to that effect.
functions of the Centre to a state Which of the statements give above
without the consent of that state. is/are not correct?
How many of the statements given (a) 1 only
above is/are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) Only one (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None Q11.Who acts as the chairperson of the Goods
Q8. Consider the following statements in and Services Tax Council?
context of Centre-States relations: (a) Prime Minister
1. The Constitution of India, being (b) Union Finance Minister
federal in structure divides all (c) RBI Governor
legislative, executive and judicial (d) President of India
powers between Centre and States.
2. The Centre-States relations are Q12. Which of the following
regulated in accordance with the Commissions/Resolution were
constitutional provisions and judicial constituted/adopted to examine the
interpretations. Centre-State relations in India?
Which of the statements given above 1. MM Punchhi commission
is/are not correct? 2. Dhar Commission
(a) 1 only 3. Anandpur Sahib Resolution
(b) 2 only 4. Rajamannar Committee
(c) Both 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q9. Which of the following are the conditions (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
under which Parliament can legislate on (c) 1, 2 ,3 and 4
state subjects? (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
1. When Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution with two-third majority of
the total members of the house.
2. When national emergency is in
operation.

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Q13. Which of the following is/are the
provisions of 74th Amendment Act?
1. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs
in proportion of their population in
municipal area of which not less than
one-third shall be for women.
2. Mandatory for states to hold
elections after every 5 years or
before expiration of a period of 6
months from the date of dissolution
of the urban local bodies.
3. Constitution of Nagar Panchayats for
smaller urban areas.
4. State Election Commission to have
the power of superintendence,
direction and control of the
preparation of electoral rolls and the
conduct of all elections to
municipalities.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. Focus on technology upgradation
and capacity building for
implementation of programmes and
initiatives.
2. Offer a platform for the resolution of
inter-sectoral and inter
departmental issues.
3. Design strategic and long-term
policy and programme frameworks
and initiatives.
4. Reforming the laws for maximizing
justice in society and promoting
good governance under the rule of
law.
How many of the statements given
above is/are the objectives of Niti
Aayog?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q15.Consider the following bodies:
1. State Finance Commission
2. State Election Commission
3. Ward Committee
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4. District Planning Committee
5. Metropolitan Planning Committee
6. Autonomous District Council
How many of the above bodies
was/were constituted in accordance
with the 73rd and 74th Constitutional
Amendment Acts?
(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All six
Q16.What is the maximum number of
directors in a co-operative society?
(a) Five
(b) Twenty-one
(c) Fifteen
(d) Three
Q17. Consider the following statements with
respect to Lok Adalat:
1. The first Lok Adalat in post-
independent India was organized in
Rajasthan.
2. Lok Adalat has been given statutory
status under the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q18. With reference to Lok Adalat, consider
the following statements:
1. It can adjudicate only in civil cases.
2. It can take up cases either pending
before the court or at pre-litigative
stage.
3. It can take up cases pending before
any court of the country.
4. The Award given by Lok Adalat is
final and binding on all the parties.
How many of the statements given
above is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q19. In context of Fast Track Court (FTC),
consider the following statements:
1. Setting up of FTCs and its functioning
lies within the domain of State
Governments in consultation with
the respective High Courts.
2. The financial assistance to set up
FTCs is provided by the Central
Government.
3. It deals with both civil and criminal
cases.
How many of the above statements
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q20. Nyayadhikari, who heads Gram
Nyayalaya, is appointed by
(a) The President
(b) State Government in consultation
with the High Court
(c) Central Government in consultation
with the Supreme Court
(d) Chief Justice of India
Q21. Consider the following statements with
respect to Gram Nyayalaya:
1. Gram Nyayalaya has both civil and
criminal jurisdiction.
2. Gram Nyayalayas are not bound by
the rules of evidence provided in the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
3. Gram Nyayalayas are established for
every Panchayat or a group of
contiguous Panchayats at
intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q22. Which of the following initiatives are
related to improving justice delivery
system in India?
1. DISHA
2. Tele-Law
3. Pro Bono Legal Services
4. Legal Literacy and Legal Awareness
Programme
5. NALSA
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Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 3 and 5 only
Q23. With reference to Election Commission,
consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution provides the
commission with one chief election
commissioner and not more than 2
election commissioners.
2. Election Commission is mandated to
hold all the elections in the country.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q24. Consider the following statements in
context of powers of the Election
Commission in India:
1. The Commission has the power to
registers and deregister a political
party.
2. The Commission has to advise the
President on the extension of
President’s rule beyond six months.
3. It acts as a court for settling disputes
related to allotment of election
symbols to political parties.
How many of the statements given
above is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Q25. Which of the following are the criteria for
recognizing a political party as national
party?
1. A political party must be recognized
as a state party in four or more
states.
2. A political party wins atleast 8 per
cent of the valid votes polled.
3. A political party has to win at least 2
per cent of the total seats in the Lok
Sabha from not less than three
states.
 Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q26. Consider the following statements:
1. A person under preventive detention
is entitled to vote in election.
2. Undertrials are not entitled to vote
in elections.
3. A person serving a sentence of
imprisonment after his conviction is
not entitled to vote.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q27.Which of the following category of
voter(s) can exercise their franchise
through postal ballots?
1. Special voters
2. Service voters
3. Voters on election duty
4. Electors subjected to preventive
custody
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q28.Consider the following statements with
reference to the University Grants
Commission?
1. It is a statutory body formed to
promote and coordinate university
education in the country.
2. It is the only grant-giving agency in
the country which provide funds to
institutions of higher education.
3. It determines and maintain
standards of teaching, examination
and research in universities.
How many of the statements given
above is/are not correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
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(d) None
Q29.Consider the following statements:
1. Indian Parliament can enact
legislation having an impact beyond
the territory of the country, in the
interest of Indian citizens.
2. Parliament can legislate on a state
subject when two-third of the total
strength of Rajya Sabha passes a
resolution to that effect.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q30.Consider the following statements with
respect to Civil Servant of the Union:
1. Civil servant of the union holds office
during the pleasure of the President.
2. Before removal, dismissal or
reduction in rank of a civil servant,
s/he has the right to be heard both
at the time of enquiry and at the
time of implementation of
punishment.
Which of the statements given above
is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q31.In which of the following situations the
Supreme Court exercises its exclusive
original jurisdiction?
1. Dispute between the Government of
India and one or more State
2. Dispute between the Government of
India and any State or States on one
side and one or more States on the
other
3. Dispute between two or more States
4. Enforcement of Fundamental rights
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q32. Consider the following personnels: Q36. Which of the following is the actual
1. Secretarial staff of the Parliament definition of Transfer payments?
2. Secretarial staff of the State (a) Transfer payments refer to the payments
Legislature made as compensation to the employees
3. Staff of the Supreme Court and the within an organisation
High Court (b) Transfer payments refer to the payments
4. Paramilitary Forces made to workers on transferring from one
5. Central Police Organisations job to another
How many of the above categories of
(c) Transfer payments refer to the payments
personnel cannot move to administrative
made without any exchange of goods and
tribunals set up under Article 323A and 323B
provided by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976? services
(a) Only two (d) None of the above
(b) Only three
(c) Only four Q37. If the GDP of a country is increasing
(d) All five constantly, what does it indicate?
1. It shows necessarily increase in overall
Q33. Q33. Consider the following pairs: standard of living or well-being of a country.
Case Subject Matter 2. It could mean growth in the consumption
1. Lily : Section 8(4) of the rate of the country.
Thomas Representation 3. It necessarily means the continuous
case of the People increase in exports of the country.
Act of 1951 as Select the correct answer using the code given
unconstitutional below.
2. I.R. Coelho : Ninth schedule items (a) 1 and 2 only
case are subject to (b) 3 only
judicial review (c) 2 only
3. D.C. : Mechanical (d) 2 and 3 only
Wadhwa repromulgation
case of ordinances as Q38. It is said that Net Domestic Product
unconstitutional (NDP) is a more realistic assessment of an
Which of the pairs given above is/are not economy’s resources than Gross Domestic
correct? Product (GDP). This is because:
(a) None 1. NDP takes into account taxes and subsidies
(b) 2 only paid which GDP does not.
(c) 3 only 2. NDP accounts for economic depreciation
(d) 1 only which GDP does not.
Which of the above is/are correct?
Q34. Which of the following schedules is a) 1 only
amended by simple majority? b) 2 only
(a) Eleventh Schedule c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Seventh Schedule d) None
(c) Fifth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule Q39. With reference to incremental capital
output ratio (ICOR), consider the following
Q35. Who is the chairman of the Inter-State statements.
Council? 1. ICOR is the marginal amount of investment
(a) President capital necessary for an entity to generate the
(b) Prime Minister next unit of production.
(c) Home Minister 2. A higher ICOR value indicates a highly
(d) Vice-President efficient economy.
Select the correct answer using the code
below.

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q40. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is often
calculated based on the “value added
method”. What do you understand by the
term “Value added”?
(a) Difference in the costs of input and output
(b) Difference in market price and subsidized
price
(c) Difference in export price and import
parity price
(d) Difference between earnings and taxes on
the product
Q41. Consider the following statements:
1. 'Factor Cost' is the 'input cost' the producer
has to incur in the process of producing
something.
2. 'Market Price' is derived after deducting the
indirect taxes to the factor cost of the
product.
Which of the statements above given is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q42. The concept of ‘invisible hand’ in relation
to an economy entails
(a) An unobservable market force that helps
the demand and supply of goods to reach
equilibrium automatically.
(b) Unregistered firms in a market which
destabilise the market equilibrium by their
distortive price policies.
(c) Invisible role of Government in controlling
the production of goods to maintain the
market equilibrium.
(d) Distortions in the demand-supply curve in a
market due to hoarding and black-
marketing of goods.
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Q43 . Consider the following statements:
1. Personal income is the income actually
received by the individual households from all
sources in the form of current transfer
payment and factor incomes.
2. Personal disposable income is the amount
available to the households and the non-
corporate businesses after the deduction of all
tax obligations to the government.
3. National Disposable Income (NDI) is the
maximum, the country can afford to spend on
consumption of goods or services during an
accounting year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q44. Consider the following statements:
1. The GVA is usually higher than GDP.
2. Increase in Net Indirect Taxes reduces the
divergence between GDP and GVA.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q45. Which of the following components
is/are the parts of the Gross Fixed Capital
Formation (GFCF)?
1. Creation of new assets, such as roads and
railways
2. Increment in livestock and plantation
3. Investment in R&D
4. Changes in the stock inventories
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
 Q46. Which among the following best
describes the concept of "Inflation Tax"?
(a) Increase in tax burden due to higher rate
of Inflation
(b) Increase in inflation due to decrease in tax
rates
(c) Increase in the tax revenue of Government
due to higher rate of Inflation
(d) Decrease in purchasing power of currency
Q47. The "Base Effect" in the measurement of
rate of Inflation in an economy refers to
(a) Change in the basket of commodities for
the measurement of Inflation
(b) Rate of inflation in present year depends
upon rate of inflation in previous year
(c) Change in the Base year for the
measurement of Inflation
(d) Change in the rate of Inflation due to
increase in monetary base.
Q48. Which of the following form part of
India's forex reserves?
1. Foreign currency reserve held by RBI
2. Financial derivatives having underlying
foreign currency assets
3. Gold Reserves of RBI
4. Reserve Tranche at IMF
Choose the correct answer using the code
given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q49. Consider the following statements
regarding the GDP deflator:
1. The GDP Deflator is measured as (Real GDP/
nominal GDP) × 100.
2. Unlike CPI, the GDP Deflator shows the rate
of inflation in all the Goods and services
produced within the Economy.
3. The GDP deflator does not take into
account exports and imports.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
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(d) 2 and 3 only
Q50. Which among the following factors can
possibly lead to increase in the rate of
Inflation in the long run?
1. Expansionary Monetary Policy
2. Rupee Devaluation
3. Shortage of Forex Reserves
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q51. With reference to Consumer Price Index
(CPI) and Consumer Food Price Index (CFPI),
consider the following statements:
1. Both these Indices are calculated by
National Statistical Office (NSO) by using the
base year of 2012.
2. While CPI takes into account 6 different
categories, the CFPI takes into account only
the category of "Food and Beverages".
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q52. Which among the following economic
conditions is/are denoted by ‘Stagflation’?
1. Decline in GDP Growth rates
2. Increase in the rate of inflation
3. Decrease in Unemployment
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q53. Consider the following statements:
1. Deflation refers to general decline in the
rate of Inflation accompanied by marginal
increase in prices of Goods and services.
2 Disinflation refers to general decline in the
prices of Goods and Services.
 Which among the statements given above 3. Currency in circulation
is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only below:
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q54. Consider the following pairs: Q58. Which among the following can be
Curve Relates to considered as legal tender in India?
1. Lorenz Curve : Income Inequality in 1. Cheques
a country 2. Bank notes
2. Philips Curve : Tax rates and Tax 3. Coins
Collection Select the correct answer using the code given
3. Laffer Curve : Inflation and below:
Unemployment (a) 1 only
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly (b) 2 and 3 only
not matched? (c) 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only Q59. Which among the following best
(d) 1, 2 and 3 describes the concept of ‘Seigniorage’?
(a) Expenditure incurred by the Central Bank
on printing currency notes.
Q55. Consider the following statements: (b) Liabilities of the Central Bank on printing
1. Higher inflation leads to increase in real Currency Notes
rate of interest in the economy. (c) Profits earned by the Central bank on
2. Higher inflation benefits the bond holders. printing currency notes
Which among the statements given above (d) Loss incurred by the Central bank on
is/are correct? printing currency notes of lower denomination
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q60. If the RBI decides to adopt Calibrated
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Tightening Policy stance, which among the
following steps would it not take?
1. Keep repo rate constant
Q56. Which of the following investments can
2. Reduce Reverse Repo
be considered foreign portfolio investment?
3. Increase MSF
1. An investment of more than 10% of the
Select the correct answer using the code given
post issue paid-up equity capital on a fully
below.
diluted basis of a listed Indian company.
(a) 1 only
2. Investment in an unlisted company.
(b) 2 only
Choose the correct answer using the code
(c) 3 only
given below.
(d) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 Q61. Consider the following statements
related to Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR):
1. The SLR must be maintained with the RBI
Q57. Which among the following is/are while the CRR must be maintained with the
considered as Assets of the RBI? banks itself.
1. CRR Deposits with the RBI 2. Both SLR and CRR must be maintained in
2. Ways and Means Advances (WMAs) the form of Cash, Gold or G-Secs.

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3. Unlike SLR, there is no scope for the Banks Which among the statements given above
to earn profits on CRR deposits. is/are correct?
4. The SLR is usually higher than CRR. (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 only
not correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only Q65. Which among the following is likely to
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only reduce Money Multiplier?
1. Decrease in Broad Money
Q62. With reference to Marginal Standing 2. Higher Currency Deposit Ratio
Facility (MSF), consider the following 3. Increase in Reverse Repo Deposits with RBI.
statements: Select the correct answer using the code given
1. It is a tool used by the banks to borrow below:
from the RBI on an overnight basis. (a) 1 only
2. The Banks can use G-Secs which are part of (b) 1 and 2 only
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) to borrow (c) 2 and 3 only
money from RBI. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Presently, there is no limit on the Banks'
borrowings under MSF. Q66. Which of the following measures can be
Which of the statements given above is/are adopted to promote the Fiscal Consolidation?
correct? 1. Increasing subsidies
(a) 1 only 2. Increasing the tax base
(b) 1 and 2 only 3. Supporting export-oriented industries
(c) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes
(d) 1, 2 and 3 given below.
(a) 2 and 3 only
Q63. Which among the following can be (b) 1 and 3 only
considered as Direct Monetisation of (c) 2 only
Government’s deficit? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Government borrowing money from the RBI
through the issuance of G-Secs. Q67. Which of the following measures is/are
2. Government borrowing money from the examples of expansionary fiscal policy?
market. 1. Increasing the subsidies
3. RBI carrying out the Open Market 2. Tax rebate to companies
Operations (OMOs) to inject money into 3. Providing loans at higher interest rates
economy. Select the correct answer using the codes
Select the correct answer using the code given given below
below. (a) 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q68. Which of the following can occur in
Q64. With reference to Monetary Policy economy of India due to deficit financing by
Committee (MPC), consider the following the government?
statements: 1. Rise in employment rates
1. The decisions of the MPC are not binding on 2. Inflation
the RBI. 3. Increase in money supply
2. If the Inflation target is not met for 3 4. Increased private investments
consecutive quarters, the RBI is required to Select the correct answer using the code given
submit report to the Government. below.

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(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Q73. Which of the following are the primary
objectives of fiscal policy in India?
Q69. Consider the following policy measures 1. Maintain economy’s growth rate
by the government: 2. Ensure liquidity in the market
1. Increasing foreign aid to underdeveloped 3. Maintain price stability
nations 4. Ensure proper functioning of financial
2. Increasing import duties intermediaries
3. Providing export subsidies 5. Achievement of full employment
Which of the policy measures given above Select the correct answer using the code given
may be used to reduce the Current Account below.
Deficit (CAD)? (a) 1 and 5 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q70. A progressive and a regressive taxation Q74. Occurrence of which of the following
system is differentiated on the basis of events may leads to Fiscal drag in the
a) Potential for revenue collection economy?
b) Equity in taxation 1. When higher tax rate increases the
c) Impact of taxation on industrial growth government’s tax revenue.
d) Sustainability and robustness of taxation 2. Individuals moved into higher tax bracket
system due to inflation.
3. Income growth pushes an individual to
higher tax bracket.
Q71. “Crowding out effect” of government 4. Consumer spending increases due to high
borrowing in domestic markets is likely to inflation.
reduce if: Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Government reduces domestic borrowing below:
and increases borrowing from abroad. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. Domestic savings base is substantially
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
increased.
(c) 2 and 3 only
Which of the above conditions is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (d) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 only Q75. Fiscal deficit will always cause inflation
(c) Both 1 and 2 when
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It increases aggregate demand without
addressing the supply side bottlenecks.
2. It promotes consumption spending by way
Q72. Which among the following measures of huge subsidies.
is/are not likely to be taken by the Which of the above is/are correct?
government as part of Counter Cyclical Fiscal (a) 1 only
Policy during inflation? (b) 2 only
1. Decrease in tax rates
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Cut down government expenditure
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Provide higher tax exemptions.
Select the correct answer using the code given Q76. Consider the following pairs:
below. River Flows into
(a) 1 only 1. Mekong : Andaman Sea
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. Volga : Black Sea

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 3. Amazon : Atlantic Ocean (a) 1, 2 and 3
4. Zambezi : Indian Ocean (b) 1 and 2 only
Which of the pairs given above are correctly (c) 2 and 3 only
matched?
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
Q81. Consider the following fauna:
(c) 3 and 4 only
1. Sambar Deer
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Moths
Q77. Which of the following countries form
3. Malabar Civet
part of Amazon River basin?
(a) Argentina, Peru, Chile, Columbia, Guyana How many of the above are generally nocturnal
or most active after sunset?
(b) Brazil, Peru, Ecuador, Columbia, Guyana
(a) Only one
(c) Brazil, Bolivia, Peru, Chile, Columbia
(b) Only two
(d) Brazil, Bolivia, Canada, Guyana, Argentina
(c) All three
(d) None
Q78. The Amazon Rainforest, referred to as
the “lungs of the earth," is currently facing an
unprecedented and severe drought. What are Q82. Which of the following are classified as
the impacts of the drought caused in Amazon ‘insects?’
rainforest? 1. Dragonflies
1. Drastic reduction in water levels of 2. Moths
tributaries of Amazon River 3. Butterflies
2. Increasing Wildfires How many of the given above is/are correct?
3. Loss of Biodiversity (a) Only one
4. Increasing human-animal conflict (b) Only two
Which of the statements given above are (c) All three
correct? (d) None
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 2 only Q83. Scientists have discovered a previously
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only unknown species of mushroom named as
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Candolleomyces Albosquamosus. Thriving in
its natural forest habitat, this delicate
Q79. “Champion of the Earth Award” is given mushroom displays an enchanting honey-
by: yellow cap adorned with unique white woolly
(a) International Union for Conservation of scale-like structures. It predominantly grows
Nature on dead logs and bamboo culms. In which part
(b) United Nations Environment Program of India has it been discovered?
(c) Ministry of Environment, Forest and (a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Climate change (b) Western Himalayas
(d) Food and Agriculture Organization (c) Western Ghats
(d) Eastern Himalayas
Q80. What is the purpose of introducing
Incremental Cash Reserve Ratio by RBI?
Q84. With reference to Pulse production in
1. To absorb the excess liquidity
India, consider the following statements:
2. To maintain stability of banking 1. India is the largest producer and
system
largest consumer in the world.
3. To curtail Inflation
Which of the statements given above are 2. India is the largest importer of pulses
correct? in the world.

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 Which of the statements given above is/are Organizations (SDSOs) and resolves
correct? disputes involving an SDSO.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
Q85. What are the reasons for domestic
(d) 1 and 2 only
shortage and reduction in per capita
availability of pulses in India?
1. Slow increase in area under pulse Q88. Consider the following pairs:
Peninsula Associated Country
cultivation 1. Kamchatka : Russia
2. Low productivity 2. Anatolia : Spain
3. Open ended procurement of pulses 3. Iberian : Turkiye
under MSP Which of the above given pair/s is/are
correct?
4. Less R&D on pulses (a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are (b) 2 only
correct? (c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only Q89. Consider the following statements
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 regarding Congo River:
1. It crosses Tropic of cancer twice
Q86. The terms “Hutu, Tutsi and Twa” was during its course.
recently seen in news, is related to 2. It is the longest river of Africa.
(a) Pre-historic cave paintings in Indonesia 3. It drains into Indian Ocean.
(b) Water irrigation techniques in ancient India Which of the statements given above are
(c) Ethnic groups in Rwanda correct?
(d) Regions of conflict in Israel (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
Q87. Consider the following statements (c) 1, 2 and 3
regarding Dam Safety Act, 2021: (d) None of the above
1. The Act provides for the surveillance,
inspection, operation and Q90. Consider the following statements
maintenance of all specified dams regarding ‘Chondrocyte’:
1. These cells are found in healthy
across the country. cartilage which connects tissues with
2. The National Committee on Dam bones.
Safety (NCDS) improvises policies and 2. They produce and maintain
recommends regulations regarding cartilaginous matrix.
3. They produce haemoglobin to form
dam safety standards.
eosin-positive bodies in their
3. The National Dam Safety Authority cytoplasm.
(NDSA) implements policies of the Which of the above given statements is/are
NCDS and provides technical correct?
(a) 3 only
assistance to State Dam Safety (b) 1 and 2 only

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(c) 2 only
(d) 1 , 2 and 3
Q91. CAR-T cell therapy is a type of
immunotherapy showing promising results in
treating cancer. What are its advantages over
other cancer fighting methods?
1. Precision targeting of cancer cells
2. Potential for long lasting effects
3. Minimal damage to surrounding
tissues
4. Potential for one time treatment
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
Q92. Consider the following statements
regarding Pink Bollworm:
1. It is one of the most destructive pests
of cotton.
2. It is an invasive species posing harm
to native cotton crop of India.
3. Cry1Ac toxin was encoded in Bt
Cotton to protect it from this pest.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q93. The term ‘PB Knot or PB Rope L’, was in
news recently, it refers to
(a) New gene editing tool
(b) Nearest Exoplanet discovered by NASA
(c) Technology to manage pink bollworm
(d) Nuclear-powered ballistic missile
submarine
Q94. The crop is subtropical in nature. It
requires uniformly high temperature between
21 to 30 degrees. It requires at least 210 frost
free days and 50 to 100 cm of rainfall for its
growth. Good sunshine is must at the time of
flowering. A light well-drained soil capable of
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retaining moisture is ideally suited for the
cultivation of the crop.
Which one of the following crops is
mentioned in the above paragraph?
(a) Jute
(b) Sugarcane
(c) Tea
(d) Cotton
Q95. With reference to type of cotton,
consider the following statements:
1. About 50% of the cotton produced in
the country is long staple type.
2. Extra Long Staple cotton is not yet
produced in India.
3. Short Staple cotton is used in making
inferior quality clothes and fetches
fewer prices.
Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Q96. Consider the following statements
regarding the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA):
1. It provides a legal guarantee for 100
days of employment in every financial
year to adult members of any rural
household willing to do public work.
2. It is an initiative by Ministry of Rural
Development.
3. Employment is to be provided within
15 kms of an applicant’s residence.
4. Social audit of the work is done by
Gram Sabha.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q97. Project Unnati is related to:
(a) Skilling project to upgrade skills of
MGNREGA workers
(b) Address bad loans problem in India’s
Banking sector
(c) Make Assam Secretariat Paperless
(d) Up skilling exercise to boost efficiency of
Employees of Indian Railways

Q98. Which of the following is not a

fundamental right?
(a) Right to marry
(b) Right to Information
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to privacy

Q99. Consider the following statements

regarding Lake Tanganyika:
1. It forms the boundary between
Burundi and Zambia.
2. It is not the part of African great lakes.
3. The lake drains into Congo River.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Q100. With reference to culture of India, the

term “Reang, Birhor, Kolgha, Kathodi”
pertains to:
(a) Types of Millets
(b) Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups
(c) Musical instruments
(d) Festivals of central India

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