Biology 2011 Esslce

ETHIOPIAN UNIVERSITY ENTERANCE EXAMINATION (EUEE)
BIOLOGY, GINBOT 2011/JUNE 2019

1. Which of the following is the Greek word for life?
A. ‘Logos’
B. ‗Bios’
C. ‗Scientia’
D. ‗Cell‘
Explanation:
 The word biology is derived from two Greek words: bios meaning life and logos meaning
study.
 In Greek, the word scientia means knowledge.
 The word cell is not a Greek word. It is an English word derived from the Latin word
cellula, which means ―small room‖.
Answer: B
2. What is the shape of an enzyme molecule?
A. Globular
B. Linear
C. Branched
D. Pleated
Explanation:
 All enzymes are globular proteins which have a tertiary structure that resembles a globule
or ball. Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
 The primary structure of a protein or an enzyme is linear or unbranched. However, the
final tertiary structure of enzymes formed from the folding of the secondary structure has
a globular shape. Thus, choice B is not the answer.
 Enzymes are formed from a linear chain of amino acids, which gives rise to a three-
dimensional structure without branching. Therefore, choice C is not the answer.
 The secondary structure of enzymes and other proteins is either an α-helix or a β-pleated
sheet. However, the secondary structure further folds to form the globular tertiary
structure of enzymes. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: A
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3. In which of the following groups of organisms are all the members unicellular?
A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Bacteria
D. Viruses
Explanation:
 Not all algae are unicellular. Examples of multicellular algae include brown algae, such
as the giant kelp and fucus, and green algae like ulva. Hence, choice A is not the answer.
 Most fungi are multicellular. The only unicellular fungi are yeasts. Therefore, choice B is
not the answer.
 All bacteria are unicellular prokaryotes. Thus, choice C is the correct answer.
 Viruses are not considered as living organisms because they do not carry out any of the
functions of normal living organisms except reproduction, and they can only reproduce
by taking over another living cell. Hence, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: C
4. Which of the following chromosomal errors creates a cell with an extra chromosome?
A. Non-disjunction
B. Inversion
C. Deletion
D. Duplication
Explanation:
 Non-disjunction is a type of chromosomal mutation that occurs when a pair of

homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids fail to separate during meiosis. This
results a lack of a chromosome in one of the gametes and an extra chromosome in the
other. Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
 Inversion is a type of chromosomal mutation caused when an area of DNA on a
chromosome reverses its orientation on the chromosome. Besides turning a section of the
DNA upside down, inversion does not add extra chromosome to a cell. Hence, choice B
is not the answer.
 Deletion is a type of chromosomal mutation that involves the loss of one or more
nucleotides from a segment of DNA during replication. Other than causing a decrease in
the number of genes of a chromosome, deletion does not add extra chromosome to a cell.
Therefore, choice C is not the answer.
 Duplication is a type of chromosomal mutation in which a section of a chromosome is
abnormally copied or replicated. Apart from resulting extra copies of the duplicated
section on the chromosome, duplication does not add extra chromosome to a cell. Thus,
choice D is not the answer.

Answer: A
5. What is the type of scientific research that is directly concerned with studies of the way
of solving problems related to human needs?
A. Basic research
B. Applied research
C. Space research
D. Current science
Explanation:
 Basic research, also called pure research or fundamental research, is a type of scientific
research conducted with the aim of improving scientific theories for better understanding
and prediction of natural or other phenomena.
 Applied research is the use of scientific method and knowledge to solve practical
problems related to human needs. Thus, choice B is the answer.
 Space research is the scientific research that takes place in the outer space, or concerns
any aspect of space or space travel.
 Current science is a research journal that publishes research related to all branches of
science and technology.
Answer: B
6. For which of the following purposes do biologists use centrifuges?
A. Measuring volume
B. Culturing microorganisms
C. Magnifying cell parts
D. Fractionation of cell contents
Explanation:
 A centrifuge is not used to measure volume. For measuring volume, biologists use tools
like beakers, graduated cylinders, burette and pipette.
 A centrifuge is not used to culture or grow microorganisms. Petri dishes and test tubes are
commonly used to culture microorganisms like bacteria.
 A centrifuge is not used to magnify cell parts. Microscope is the instrument that
biologists use to magnify cell parts.
 Centrifuge is used for fractionation or separate cell components by a method known as
ultracentrifugation. Therefore, the answer is choice D.
Answer: D

7. What is the function of DNA polymerase?
A. It hydrolyzes the DNA molecule.
B. It forms DNA by joining nucleotides.
C. It converts the DNA molecule to RNA.
D. It joins two RNA molecules to form DNA.
Explanation:
 DNA polymerase is not used to hydrolyze the DNA molecule; rather, deoxyribonuclase
enzyme is used to hydrolyze the DNA molecule.
 DNA polymerase is the enzyme capable of synthesizing DNA by joining nucleotides.
Thus, the choice B is the answer.
 DNA polymerase does not convert the DNA molecule to RNA. The enzyme involved in
transcription (converting a gene's DNA sequence to RNA) is RNA polymerase.
 It is impossible to form DNA by joining two RNA molecules with or without DNA
polymerase.
Answer: B
8. Which one of the following is commonly called the code of life?
A. Cell
B. Organelle
C. Nucleus
D. DNA
Explanation:
 In biology, a cell is the smallest unit of life that can live on its own.
 Organelle is a subcellular structure that has a specific function.
 Nucleus is an organelle in a eukaryotic cell that contains the chromosomes. This
organelle is sometimes referred to as the directory of the cell.
 DNA is the genetic material that carries an organism's genetic information in the form of
a triplet code. Because of this, it is commonly termed the code of life. Hence, choice D is
the correct answer.
Answer: D

9. Which is another name for secondary consumer?
A. Producer
B. Carnivore
C. Herbivore
D. Decomposer
Explanation:
 A producer is an organism that can make its own food. It is not even a consumer. In any
food chain, the producer always occupies the first trophic level. Hence, choice A is not
the answer.
 In a food chain, the third trophic level is occupied by the secondary consumer. The
secondary consumer can be a carnivore or an omnivore. Thus, choice B is the correct
answer.
 In a food chain, the second trophic level is occupied by the primary consumer. The
primary consumer can be a herbivore or an omnivore. Thus, a herbivore cannot be a
secondary consumer as one herbivore does not eat another herbivore. Therefore, choice C
is not the answer.
 A decomposer is an organism that breaks down the organic matter of dead organisms.
Although decomposers do not usually fill an independent trophic level, they recycle
waste materials from all other trophic levels, and thus, can be placed in all trophic levels
that involve consumers. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: B
10. Which type of chromosome mutation causes the human genetic defect known as trisomy
16?
A. Duplication
B. Deletion
C. Translocation
D. Chromosome inversion
Explanation:
 Trisomy 16 is a genetic disorder characterized by having three copies of chromosome 16.

This defect leads to babies being born with a range of medical issues, such as poor fetal
growth, muscular and skeletal anomalies, congenital heart defects and underdeveloped
lungs. Trisomy 16 is caused by a type of chromosomal mutation called duplication in
which a section of a chromosome or the whole chromosome is abnormally copied or
replicated. Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
 The types of chromosomal mutations given in alternatives B to D do not cause trisomy
16, although they cause other types of genetic disorders when they occur in humans.

 Deletion can result in a variety of genetic disorders, such as Prader-Willi syndrome,
which results from a malfunction of the hypothalamus.
 Translocation is the chromosome mutation which is often responsible for chronic
myelogenous leukemia.
 Inversion is a type of chromosomal mutation which can cause leukemia if it happens on
chromosome 16.
Answer: A
11. In which geologic period is the evolution of humans most probably believed to have
happened?
A. Tertiary period
B. Jurassic period
C. Quaternary period
D. Cretaceous period
Explanation:
 The tertiary period was characterized by dramatic evolutionary diversity of mammals. It

was not the period when human evolution took place.
 The Jurassic period was the period when the diversity of dinosaurs and the appearance of
the first birds took place. It was not the period when human evolution took place.
 The quaternary period was the period when human evolution is believed to have
happened. Thus, choice C is the correct answer.
 The cretaceous period is believed to be the period when the extinction of dinosaurs and
the first appearance of primates and flowering plants happened. It was not the period
when human evolution took place.
Answer C
12. Of the following patterns of innate behavior in animals, which one is considered the
simplest?
A. Instinctive behavior
B. Reflex action
C. Taxis movement
D. Kinesis movement
Explanation:
 Instinctive behavior is a pre-programmed behavioral pattern that often involves a

complex sequence of actions, as opposed to a reflex action which involves a single action
to a specific stimulus. Therefore, choice A is not the answer.
 Reflex action is the simplest of the innate behaviors in which a single action is performed
in response to a specific stimulus. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.

 Orientational behavior, such as taxis and kinesis, is a complex behavior that results in an
organism behaving in a way that it is most likely to move from unfavorable conditions
and remain in favorable conditions. Taxis movement is a directional animal response to a
directional stimulus in which the animal moves either towards the greatest intensity of the
stimulus (positive taxis) or away from the greatest intensity (negative taxis). Kinesis
movement is a non-directional animal response in which a change in the intensity of the
stimulus brings about a change in the rate of movement of the animal. Thus, alternative C
or D is not the answer.
Answer: B
13. The hypothesis which a scientist is to disprove is called:
A. Alternative hypothesis
B. Ad hoc hypothesis
C. Null hypothesis
D. Auxiliary hypothesis
Explanation:
 Alternative hypothesis is the hypothesis which states that there is a relationship between
the two variables being studied (one variable has an effect on the other). It is a statement
that a researcher is testing to accept or prove it. Thus, choice A is not the answer.
 An ad hoc hypothesis is a hypothesis added to a theory in order to save it from being
falsified. Thus, choice B is not the answer.
 Null hypothesis is an opposing hypothesis to the alternative hypothesis. It is the
hypothesis which states that there is no relationship between the two variables being
studied (one variable has no effect on the other). Null hypothesis is generally the
hypothesis a researcher tries to reject or disprove in order to accept the alternative
hypothesis. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
 An auxiliary hypothesis is a hypothesis other than the test hypothesis that is assumed to
be accurate in order for the test to work as planned. Therefore, choice D is not the
answer.
Answer: C

14. What are the compounds that have the same chemical different arrangement of atoms?
A. Anomers
B. Isomers
C. Polymers
D. Monomers
Explanation:
 Anomers are cyclic monosaccharides that differ in the position of the -OH group in one
location. They are different from each other in the configuration of C-1 if they are aldose
or in the configuration at C– 2 if they are ketose.
 Isomers are molecules with the same chemical composition, but different arrangement of
atoms. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
 Monomers are molecules with low molecular weight that can combine with each other to
form large chemical compounds known as polymers.
 Polymers are macromolecules consisting of a long-chain backbone of smaller repeating
units (monomers) and side groups.
Answer: B Grade 11 unit 2 Level 1
15. Which one of the following conditions is least like to denature an enzyme?
A. A high temperature
B. An extreme PH
C. Heavy metal ions
D. A low temperature
Explanation:
 Extreme values of pH disrupt the tertiary structure of an enzyme, and so distort the active
site and denature the enzyme.
 High temperature causes increased denaturation of an enzyme by changing the shape of
the active site of the enzyme.
 Heavy metals can inhibit the activities of enzymes by interfering with the enzyme-
substrate complex, denaturing the enzyme protein, and interfering with the active sites.
 A decrease in temperature causes fewer collisions but they will restore most of their
activity when temperatures increase again. Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D

16. Respiration is
A. Anabolic and exergonic
B. Catabolic and exergonic
C. Anabolic and endergonic
D. Catabolic and endergonic
Explanation:
 Respiration involves the breaking down of complex food molecules, such as glucose, into
simpler molecules. Hence, it is a catabolic process. It is also accompanied by the release
of chemical energy, so it is an exergonic process.
Answer: B
17. Both photosynthesis and respiration are involved in
A. A Nitrogen Cycle
B. Phosphorus Cycle
C. Water Cycle
D. Carbon Cycle
Explanation:
 Nitrogen cycle involves several processes that include nitrogen fixation, ammonification
through decomposition or putrefaction, nitrification, assimilation and denitrification.
Since photosynthesis and respiration are not directly involves in the nitrogen cycle,
choice A is not the answer.
 The main processes involved in the phosphorus cycle include weathering, assimilation,
decomposition and sedimentation. Since photosynthesis and respiration are not directly
involved in the phosphorus cycle, choice B is not the answer.
 The major processes involved in the water cycle include evaporation, transpiration,
condensation and precipitation. Although respiration contributes to the water cycle by
producing the water vapor that animals and plants release into the atmosphere,
photosynthesis is not directly involved in the water cycle. Thus, choice C is not the
answer.
 The main processes involved in the carbon cycle are photosynthesis, feeding and
assimilation, respiration, fossilization and combustion. Photosynthesis removes carbon
dioxide from the environment, whereas respiration returns carbon dioxide to the
atmosphere. Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D

18. Which of the following statements best describes the role of bacteria in nitrogen cycle?
Bacteria turn
A. oxygen into nitrogen for plants to use.
B. nitrogen into a usable form for plant use called ammonia.
C. nitrogen into a usable form in a process called transpiration.
D. carbon dioxide into oxygen during the process of photosynthesis.
Explanation:
 Bacteria involved in the nitrogen cycle do not change oxygen to nitrogen for plant use.
Thus, choice A is not the answer.
 Nitrogen fixing bacteria free in the soil and in nodules on the roots of legumes change
nitrogen gas into ammonia. The ammonia is then oxidized into nitrates by nitrifying
bacteria, adding to the amount of nitrogen available to the plants. Therefore, choice B is
the correct answer.
 Transpiration is the loss of water as water vapor from plants at their aerial parts, mainly
through the stomata of the leaves. This process has nothing to do with turning nitrogen
into a usable form by bacteria. Hence, choice C is not the answer.
 Bacteria involved in the nitrogen cycle do not change carbon dioxide into oxygen.
Although certain types of nitrogen fixing bacteria, such as cyanobacteria, use light energy
to convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose and oxygen, the source of oxygen
released during photosynthesis is water, not carbon dioxide. Thus, choice D is not the
answer.
Answer: B
19. Which one of the following terms best describes the number of different species in the
biosphere or in a particular area?
A. Biodiversity
B. Ecosystem diversity
C. Genetic diversity
D. Species diversity
Explanation:
 Biodiversity is the number of different species that are present in an ecosystem, or it is

the extent to which an ecosystem contains different species. It includes ecological
diversity, genetic diversity and species diversity or variability.
Answer: A

20. The daily cycle of activity that occurs over a 24-hour period of time is
A. Stimulus-response
B. Circadian rhythm
C. Kinesis behavior
D. Taxis behavior
Explanation:
 Stimulus is any change in the external or internal environment of an organism that evokes
a specific functional reaction in an organ or tissue. Response is a reaction or a movement
made by an organism to a particular stimulus.
 Circadian rhythm is the natural cycle of the physical, mental and behavioral changes that
the body goes through in a 24-hour cycle. It is mostly affected by light and darkness and
is controlled by a small area of the hypothalamus of the brain, called the suprachiasmatic
nucleus. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
 Kinesis behavior is a non-directional response of an organism characterized by a change
in the rate of movement of the organism in response to a change in the intensity of a
stimulus.
 Taxis behavior is a directional response of an organism to a directional stimulus. This
behavior involves the movement of the organism towards the greatest intensity of the
stimulus (positive taxis) or away from the greatest intensity (negative taxis).
Answer: B
21. Within a few weeks after a heavy rain, pools become teemed with tadpoles. What is the
source of the tadpoles?
A. The rain water
B. The eggs laid by frog
C. The decaying vegetation of the pond
D. The mud on the floor
Explanation:
 Tadpoles are the larvae of amphibians like frogs and toads. The tadpoles we see in ponds
within a few weeks after a heavy rainfall develop from the eggs laid by the female frogs
in the water. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
 One of the main ideas of the cell theory states that new cells can only arise from pre-
existing cells by cell division. This means that cells could not arise from non-living
things spontaneously. Thus, toads could not arise from non-living things, such as rain
water, decaying vegetation or mud. Therefore, alternative A, C or D is not the answer.
Answer: B

22. In what way does an antiretroviral drug help AIDS patients? It
A. stops the multiplication of HIV.
B. kills opportunistic infectious agents.
C. stimulates multiplication of T-helper cells.
D. provides immunity.
Explanation
 Antiretroviral therapy stops HIV multiplication and slows down its progression to AIDS
by blocking the reproduction of the virus in the CD4 lymphocytes. Thus, choice A is the
correct answer.
 Opportunistic infection is any infection that causes a disease only when the host's
immune system is impaired. Antiretroviral drugs are not used to kill opportunistic
infectious agents. Opportunistic infectious agents associated with HIV infection are
treated with drugs, such as antivirals, antibiotics and antifungals. Thus, choice B is not
the answer.
 Although antiretroviral drugs improve the T-helper cell count by suppressing HIV
replication, they do not directly stimulate the multiplication of T-helper cells. Thus,
choice C is not the answer.
 Antiretroviral drugs do not provide immunity to HIV infection. So far, no vaccine ha
been developed to give immunity against HIV infection. Therefore, choice D is not the
answer.
Answer: A
23. Of the following four elements, which one is the least abundant in living things?
A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon
D. Sulfur
Explanation:
 The most common elements in many cells are hydrogen 59%, oxygen 24%, carbon 11%,
nitrogen 4% and others, such as phosphorus and sulphur, 2% combined. Thus, the least
abundant element in living organisms from the list is sulfur.
Answer: D

24. If a homogenate of eukaryotic cells is spun in a centrifuge, which of the cellular
organelles settles out first?
A. Nucleus
B. Ribosome
C. Chloroplast
D. Mitochondria
Explanation:
 Cell fractionation is a technique used to separate different organelles based on their

densities by spinning their mixture in a centrifuge at different speeds. The order of
settlement of the organelles in a centrifuged mixture, from the densest organelle that
settles first to the least dense organelle that settles last, is as follows: nucleus, chloroplast,
mitochondrion, and ribosome.
Answer A
25. In which part of mitochondria does the Krebs‘s cycle take place?
A. In the matrix
B. On the inner membrane surface
C. on the outer membrane surface
D. In the inner-membrane space
Explanation:
 Krebs‘s cycle takes place in the fluid matrix of a mitochondrion. Thus, choice A is the
correct answer.
 On the inner mitochondrial membrane, the reactions of the electron transport chain and
chemiosmosis take place. The inner mitochondrial membrane transduces energy through
oxidative phosphorylation, the main process responsible for the production of energy in
the form of ATP in eukaryotic cells. The Krebs cycle does not take place on the inner
mitochondrial membrane.
 The mitochondrial outer membrane separates the mitochondria and the inter-membrane
space from the cytosol. The Krebs cycle does not take place on the outer mitochondrial
membrane.
 The inter-membrane space is the space located between the inner and outer mitochondrial
membranes. This space contains higher concentration of protons than the mitochondrial
matrix due to the actions of the proton pumps on the inner mitochondrial membrane that
move protons from the matrix of the mitochondrion to the inter-membrane space. The
proton gradient created results in protons diffusing through the ATP synthase molecule,
powering the production of ATP from ADP and Pi by oxidative phosphorylation. The
Krebs cycle does not take place in the inter-membrane space.
Answer: A

26. What is the ultimate source of the electrons that replaces those lost from the photosystem
II during photosynthesis?
A. Photosystem I
B. Chlorophyll b
C. Chlorophyll
D. Water
Explanation:
 When photosystem I absorbs light energy, electrons are emitted from the chlorophyll
molecules of its reaction center. These electrons are not transferred to photosystem II;
rather, they pass along the second electron transport chain and react with hydrogen ions
and NADP in the stroma to form reduced NADP.
 Chlorophyll b is an accessory pigment in a photosystem which absorbs light energy and
transfers it to the chlorophyll a molecule in the reaction center. Hence, chlorophyll b does
not replace the electrons lost from photosystem II.
 The chlorophyll molecule in the reaction center of photosystem II is the one that loses
electrons excited by light energy during photosynthesis.
 The electrons from photolysis of water (2H20→4H+ + O2 + 4e-) replace those lost from
the chlorophyll molecules of PS II. Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D
27. Which one of the following human diseases is NOT correctly matched with its mode of
transmission?
A. Malaria-vector
B. Sleeping sickness-physical contact
C. Cholera-contaminated water
D. Influenza-droplet infection
Explanation:
 Malaria is a vector borne disease which is transmitted by a bite from an infected female
anopheles mosquito.
 Sleeping sickness is a vector borne disease which is transmitted by a bite from an
infected tsetse fly. This disease is not spread by direct physical contact. Thus, choice B is
the correct answer.
 Cholera is a bacterial disease which can be spread by eating or drinking contaminated
food or water.
 Influenza is a viral disease which is transmitted through the air in droplets when someone
with the infection coughs, sneezes or talks.
Answer: B

28. Which clinical test is routinely performed to diagnose patients for AIDS?
A. Culturing opportunistic infectious agents
B. Culturing the virus on a special media
C. Serological test for anti-HIV antibody
D. Determining hemoglobin amount
Explanation:
 Opportunistic infectious agents invade the body when the immune system is weakened.
Since the immune system could also be weakened due to various causes such as cancer
chemotherapy, culturing opportunistic infectious agents is not a diagnostic test for HIV
infection. Thus, choice A is not the answer.
 Although culturing HIV on a special media can be used to diagnose HIV infection in
infants of HIV positive mothers, the test is expensive, labor intensive, has a biohazard
potential, and requires 2-3 weeks before the result can be obtained. Thus, it is not
routinely performed to diagnose patients for AIDS. Hence, choice B is not the answer.
 Serological test for anti-HIV antibody is the most commonly used test to diagnose HIV
infection. The test involves detecting the presence of anti-HIV antibody produced by
lymphocytes that target any free HIV in the blood. Thus, choice C is the correct answer.
 Determining hemoglobin count is used to screen for anemia, to identify the severity of
anemia, and to assist in evaluating the patient's response to anemia therapy. This clinical
test is not performed to diagnose patients for AIDS. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: C
29. Which of the following pairs of processes add CO2 to the atmosphere?
A. Combustion and respiration
B. Respiration and photosynthesis
C. Photosynthesis and fossilization
D. Decomposition and combustion
Explanation:
 Combustion, which is burning fossil fuels, releases large amounts of CO2 into the
atmosphere. Respiration also releases inorganic carbon dioxide from organic compounds.
Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
 Although respiration releases carbon dioxide from organic compounds, photosynthesis
removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. Therefore, choice B is not the answer.
 Photosynthesis does not release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere; rather, it removes
carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. As a result of fossilization, fossil fuels are formed
from the organic matter of dead organisms. The carbon stored in fossil fuels is released
back into the atmosphere when the fossil fuels are burned. Hence, choice C is not the
answer.

 Decomposition, which is the breaking down of dead organic matter by decomposers like
bacteria, releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Combustion of fossil fuels also
releases carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere. Thus, choice D can also be the answer.
Answer: A/D
30. Which bacterial genus fixes nitrogen in the nodules of leguminous plants?
A. Agrobacterium
B. Escherichia
C. Rhizobium
D. Azobacter
 Although the species Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a nitrogen fixing bacterium, it is
pathogenic and causes tumors in plants. The bacterium does not form symbiotic
association with legumes. Thus, choice A is not the answer.
 Escherichia is a genus of Gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria which contains a number of
pathogenic species. The bacteria belonging to this genus do not fix nitrogen for
leguminous plants. Therefore, choice B is not the answer.
 Legumes are able to form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria in the
genus rhizobium. The bacteria in this genus fix nitrogen gas into ammonium ions in
nodules on the roots of legumes. Hence, choice C is the correct answer.
 Although Azotobacter is a group of nitrogen fixing bacteria, the bacteria in this genus fix
atmospheric nitrogen in the soil. They do not form symbiotic associations with roots of
leguminous plants. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: C
31. One of the following agricultural practices does NOT have a negative effect on
biodiversity.
A. Use of pesticide
B. Use of insecticides
C. Growing improved varieties
D. Growing landraces
Explanation:
 Use of pesticides including insecticides poses significant risks to the environment and
non-target organisms. Pesticides can cause contamination of soil, air, surface and ground
water. They can be toxic to a host of other organisms including beneficial soil
microorganisms, beneficial insects, fish, birds and other non-target plants and animals.
Thus, choice A or B is not the answer.
 Introduction of improved crop varieties reduces the genetic diversity of the particular
crop plant as only the ‗improved‘ variety is used. Hence, choice C is not the answer.

 Landraces are domesticated, locally adapted, traditional varieties of plants or animals that
have developed over time, through adaptation to the natural environment. Therefore,
growing land races has no negative effect on biodiversity.
Answer: D
32. On which of the following points do Lamarck‘s and Darwin's theories of evolution agree?
A. Evolution produces new species.
B. Evolution occurs by natural selection.
C. All living things tend to over reproduce.
D. New structures arise by use-and disuse.
Explanation:
 Lamarck and Darwin both agreed that evolutionary change takes place gradually and
leads to the origin of new species. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer.
 The theory of evolution by natural selection was suggested by Charles Darwin; Lamarck
suggested his theory of evolution based on the inheritance of acquired traits. Thus,
Lamarck's theory of inheritance of acquired traits and Darwin's theory of natural selection
disagree on how advantageous traits develop and pass on from individuals to their
offspring.
 The idea that "all species tend to produce more offspring than can possibly survive." was
used by Darwin, not Lamarck, as a basis for his deduction that there exists a ‗struggle for
existence‘ between members of a species because they over-reproduce, and resources are
limited.
 The theory of use and disuse was suggested by Lamarck. Lamarck claimed that if a body
structure is continually used, it will become enlarged or more developed. Conversely, any
structure that is not used or little used will become reduced in size or less developed. This
theory disagrees with Darwin's idea that there is a natural variation in features (structures)
among members of a species and the variations are heritable.
Answer: A
33. What is the behavior that an animal learns to ignore a trivial stimulus that repeated many
times?
A. A Sensitization
B. Habituation
C. Insight learning
D. Latent Learning
Explanation:
 Sensitization is an increase in the response to a harmless stimulus when that stimulus

occurs after a harmful stimulus.

 Habituation is a process which results in a decreased response to a stimulus after repeated
exposure to that stimulus over a period of time. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
 Insight learning involves finding solutions to problems that are not based on actual
experience (as with trial and error) but on `trials᾽ occurring mentally.
 Latent Learning happen when the brain acquires knowledge at a certain time, without
reinforcement, but does not use it until later, at a time that knowledge is needed.
Answer: B
34. One of the following is true about a behavior that has a fixed action pattern.
A. It is a learned behavior.
B. It is always done in the same way.
C. It can be perfected through experience.
D. It does not need a stimulus to trigger it.
Explanation:
 A fixed action pattern is fully functional the first time it is performed. It requires
no learning. Thus, choice A is not the answer.
 Fixed action pattern is a predetermined behavior produced as a response to the
key stimulus that is always the same. It is always done in the same way for each
key stimulus. Therefore, choice B is the correct answer.
 Since a fixed action pattern is fully functional (perfectly done) the first time it is
performed, it needs no experience to get perfected. Hence, choice C is not the
answer.
 A fixed action pattern always needs a stimulus to trigger it. Thus, choice D is not
the answer.
Answer: B
35. If a chimpanzee piles up boxes and climbs on it to reach a bunch of banana hanging from
a ceiling, which behavior is manifested?
A. Operant conditioning
B. Insight learning
C. Trial and error learning
D. Latent learning
Explanation:
 Operant conditioning is a method of learning that uses reward and punishment to modify
a behavior. Since the chimpanzee discovered the solution (piling up boxes and climbing
on it) to the problem without any reinforcement or actual experience to guide it to the
solution, the behavior manifested by the chimpanzee cannot be an operant conditioning.

 Insight learning is a cognitive form of learning involving the mental rearrangement or
restructuring of the elements in a problem to achieve a sudden understanding of the
problem and arrive at a solution. Since piling up boxes to reach the banana requires the
ability to visualize the problem and the solution internally, the behavior manifested by the
chimpanzee is an example of insight learning. Thus, the answer is choice B.
 Trial and error learning is a type of learning in which the organism successively tries
various responses in a situation, seemingly at random, until one is successful in achieving
the goal. Since piling up boxes and climbing on it to reach the banana require mental
processing and restructuring of the elements in the problem, the behavior manifested by
the chimpanzee cannot be a simple trial and error learning.
 Latent Learning happen when the brain acquires knowledge at a certain time, without
reinforcement, but does not use it until later, at a time that knowledge is needed. Since
the chimpanzee's ability to solve the problem could not be due to some 'hidden'
knowledge it acquired due to previous experience, the behavior manifested is not latent
learning.
Answer: B
36. In which of the following is the current state of biology more of promises than realized
major contributions?
A. Food production by GMO and genetic engineering
B. Pest control and understanding about diseases
C. Food production and population control
D. Understanding of health and biodiversity conservation
Explanation:
 Although a lot of progresses have been made in genetic engineering and food production
by GMO, these technologies are still in promising stages as compared to the demands of
the alarmingly increasing world population. Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
 Biological knowledge has been used successfully in attaining its goals in pest control,
understanding about diseases, food production, population control, understanding of
health and biodiversity conservation.
Answer: A

37. Which of these elements is known to have less than 10% occurrence in many cells?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Oxygen
Explanation:
 The most common elements in many cells are hydrogen (59%), oxygen (24%), carbon
(11%), nitrogen (4%) and others like phosphorus and sulphur 2% combined. Among the
given alternatives, the element which has less than 10% occurrence in many cells is
nitrogen. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
Answer: C
38. One of the following is non-carbohydrate molecule.
A. Starch
B. Cellulose
C. Glycogen
D. Collagen
Explanation:
 Starch, cellulose and glycogen are carbohydrates which are formed from many sugar
units combined together in a condensation reaction. Thus, they are polysaccharides.
 Collagen is the most abundant protein in the body. It is the main structural protein in
bones, cartilages, skin, muscles and other connective tissues like tendons and ligaments.
Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D
39. The industrial use of enzymes is helpful for the environment as it contributes to reduction
of CO2 emission. In which of the following is there more mass of CO2 emissions saved
per ton of products by using enzyme technology rather than traditional methods?
A. Bread making
B. Manufacture of cosmetics
C. Paper making
D. Cheese making
Explanation:
The mass of CO2 emissions saved per ton in some industrial processes that use enzyme
technology include: cheese making (230Kg CO2/ton), manufacture of cosmetics (190Kg
of CO2/ton), paper making (6-150Kg CO2/ton) and bread making (1-10Kg CO2/ton).

From these industrial processes, the greatest mass of CO2 emission per ton of product is
saved in cheese making. Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D
40. Which model of enzyme action requires that the shape of the substrate molecule is
complementary to that of the active site?
A. The induced-fit model
B. The lock-and-key model
C. The activation energy model
D. The enzyme function model
Explanation:
 There are two models used to describe the way enzymes interact with substrates. These
are the lock-and-key model and the induced-fit model.
 The induced-fit model suggests that the active site of an enzyme and the substrate are not
naturally complementary in shape, but the binding of substrate molecule produces a
conformational change (change in shape) in the active site which allows the substrate and
active site to bind fully.
 Lock-and-key model proposes that the shape of the substrate molecule is complementary
to that of the active site. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
Answer: B
41. If the average diameter of the human red blood cell is 0.000007m, which one is its correct
diameter when expressed in a smaller unit?
A. 0.00007μm
B. 0.007μm
C. 7mm
D. 7000nm
Explanation:
 1m=1 000 000μm

0.000007m=0.000007×1 000 000μm=7μm
Thus, neither choice A nor choice B is the correct answer.
 1m=1000mm
0.000007m=0.000007×1000mm=0.007mm
Thus, choice C is not the correct answer.
 1m=1000 000 000nm
0.000007m=0.000007×1000 000 000nm=7000nm
Answer: D

42. Which procedure allows biologists to separate different cellular organelles and study their
structures and compositions separately?
A. Dehydrogenation
B. Cell fractionation
C. Phosphorylation
D. Polymerization
Explanation:
 Dehydrogenation is a chemical reaction that involves the removal of hydrogen, usually

from an organic molecule.
 Cell fractionation is the process that separates subcellular components and organelles of a
cell by centrifugation. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
 Phosphorylation is a process that involves the addition of a phosphate group to a
molecule or an ion.
 Polymerization is a process in which relatively small molecules, called monomers,
combine chemically to produce a very large molecule called a polymer.
Answer: B
43. How many ATP molecules are produced during the complete cellular respiration of one
glucose molecule?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 18 D. 36
Explanation:
 The total number of ATP molecules that could be produced from aerobic respiration of a
glucose molecule is 38ATP molecules. In practice, this is not achieved because about 2
molecules of ATP are used to drive the proton pumps during cellular respiration. Hence,
the actual yield is about 36 molecules of ATP per molecule of glucose.
Answer: D
44. What is the main method of transmission of botulism?
A. Direct contact
B. Droplet infection
C. Eating contaminated food
D. Drinking contaminated water
Explanation:
 Direct contact — many skin infections, such as athlete‘s foot and ringworm, are spread
by direct contact with an infected person or a surface carrying the organism.

 Droplet infection — the pathogens are carried in tiny droplets through the air when an
infected person coughs or sneezes. This mode of transmission is common in respiratory
diseases, such as common cold, tuberculosis and pneumonia.
 Botulism is a rare and potentially fatal illness caused by a toxin produced by the
bacterium Clostridium botulinum. It is commonly transmitted through eating
contaminated food. Thus, choice C is the correct answer.
 Drinking contaminated water — the microorganisms transmitted in this way often infect
regions of the gut. Examples of water-borne diseases include cholera, typhoid fever and
gastroenteritis.
Answer: C
45. From which group of microorganisms was the first antibiotics produced?
A. Members of viruses
B. Members of the fungi
C. Gram-negative bacteria
D. Gram-positive bacteria
Explanation:
 In 1928, Sir Alexander Fleming discovered the first antibiotics (penicillin) from a fungus
called Penicillium notatum.
Answer: B
46. What is a capsid?
A. The genetic material of a virus
B. The DNA of a virus
C. The RNA of a virus
D. The protein shell of a virus
Explanation:
 The genetic material of a virus could be DNA or RNA. Capsid is not a genetic material.
 A capsid is the protective protein coat of a virus that encloses the genetic material.
Answer: D
47. What is the general name of crop plants that add nitrogen to the soil because of their
symbiotic association with certain types of bacteria?
A. Nodules
B. Legumes
C. Cereals
D. Herbs
Explanation:

 Root nodules are swellings in roots of certain plants, such as legumes, where nitrogen-
fixing bacteria are found. A nodule is not a name given to a crop plant.
 Legumes are plants that form symbiotic relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria called
rhizobia. This association forms nodules on the roots of leguminous plants, within which
the bacteria can convert atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia that can be used by the
plants.
 Cereals are herbaceous plants cultivated mainly for their edible grains. Nitrogen-fixing
microbial associations are limited in cereals.
 Herbs are seed-bearing plants without woody stems in which all aerial parts (i.e. parts
above ground) die at the end of each growing season. Nitrogen-fixing microbial
associations are limited in herbs.
Answer B
48. If two parents with genotypes "Aa" are cross-bred and that there is no codominance in the
inheritance pattern, what proportion of the offspring would have genotypes exactly like
that of their parents?
A. 50%
B. 75%
C. 100%
D. 25%
Explanation:
X A a
A AA Aa
a Aa Aa
 Genotypic ratio of the offspring: 1AA: 2Aa: 1aa=25%AA:
50%Aa: 25%aa
 The proportion of the offspring that would have genotypes exactly like that of their
parents (Aa) is therefore 50%.
Answer: A
49. Which of the following is an example of a cell formed by reduction division?
A. Nerve cells
B. Kidney cells
C. Bone cells
D. Sperm cells
Explanation:

 Body (somatic) cells are cells of an organism other than the reproductive cells. These
cells include nerve cells, muscle cells, skin cells, kidney cells and bone cells. Somatic
cells are formed by a type of cell division called equational division (mitosis), by which
each of the somatic cells formed gets the same number of chromosomes as the parent
cell.
 Sperm cells, egg cells, pollen grains and ovules are reproductive cells or gametes.
Gametes are formed by a type of cell division called reduction division (meiosis), by
which the number of chromosomes in gametes is reduced to half than that of the parent
cell. Gametes are haploid as compared to somatic cells, which are diploid.
Answer: D
50. One of the following sources of evidence provides a more direct support to the process of
Charles Darwin's theory of evolution.
A. Physiology
B. Anatomy
C. Genetics
D. Geographical distribution
Explanation:
 Although physiology, genetics and geographical distribution of organisms can be used as

evidences for Charles Darwin's theory of evolution, comparative anatomy provides a
more direct support to Charles Darwin's theory of evolution. Comparative anatomy is one
of the strongest forms of evidence for evolution. It looks at structural similarities of
organisms, such as homologous structures, and uses these to determine their possible
evolutionary relationships. It assumes that organisms with similar anatomical features are
closely related evolutionarily, and that they probably share a common ancestor.
Answer: B
51. Which animal behavior pattern is best illustrated by the famous Pavlov's dog?
A. Associative Learning
B. Instinctive behavior
C. Latent learning
D. Habituation
Explanation:
 Ivan Pavlov's research on dogs was successful in demonstrating a type of learned

behavior called classical conditioning. In classical conditioning, a conditioned stimulus
(ringing a bell) is associated with the unconditioned stimulus (the sight or smell of food)
to produce a conditioned response (salivation), which is the same as the unconditioned
response to the unconditioned stimulus. Therefore, the behavioral pattern of Pavlov's

dogs observed in his research is an example of associative learning. Thus, choice A is the
correct answer.
 Instinctive behavior is a pre-programmed pattern of behavior which often involves a
complex sequence of actions. The behavioral pattern illustrated by Pavlov's dogs is not an
instinctive behavior because an instinctive behavior is an innate or natural behavior in
which there is a fixed action pattern in response to the key stimulus that is always the
same.
 Latent Learning happens when the brain acquires knowledge at a certain time, without
reinforcement, but does not use it until later, at a time that knowledge is needed. The
behavioral pattern illustrated by Pavlov's dogs is not an example of latent learning
because the conditioned response (salivation to a ringing bell) produced by the dogs in
Pavlov's research was not the result of a previously acquired knowledge.
exposure to that stimulus over a period of time. The behavioral pattern of Pavlov's dogs
observed in his research is not an example of habitation because the dogs did not stop
salivating when the bell was rung although they had heard the ringing of the bell
repeatedly every time they were fed at regular intervals.
Answer: A
52. Through which of the following methods can blood be separated into its cellular and fluid
parts?
A. Separating funnel
B. Fractional distillation
C. Centrifugation
D. Simple distillation
Explanation:
 Separating funnel is a piece of laboratory glassware that is used to separate two

immiscible liquids with different densities. Thus, a separating funnel is not used to
separate blood into its cellular and fluid parts.
 Fractional distillation is a method of separating two or more miscible liquids that have
very close boiling points. Thus, fractional distillation is not used to separate blood into its
cellular and fluid parts.
 Centrifugation is a process which involves the use of a centrifuge to separate solids from
liquids where simple filtration is not adequate for the task. This method is used to
separate plasma (the liquid portion of the blood) from blood cells. Thus, choice C is the
correct answer.
 Simple distillation is the method used to separate two or more miscible liquids with
significantly different boiling points. Thus, simple distillation is not used to separate
blood into its cellular and fluid parts.

Answer: C
53. The most abundant inorganic molecule in the atmosphere that traps heat is:
A. H₂S
B. O2
C. H₂O
D. CO₂
Explanation:
 H₂S and O2 are not greenhouse gases and do not contribute to the warming of the Earth's
atmosphere by absorbing radiation from the Earth's surface.
 The primary greenhouse gases in the Earth's atmosphere are water vapor (H2O), carbon
dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O) and ozone (O3). Among these gases,
water vapor is the most abundant greenhouse gas in the atmosphere, which accounts for
over 60% of the greenhouse effect. Thus, choice C is the correct answer.
Answer: C
54. When glucose molecules are joined by α-linkage, which of the following carbohydrate is
obtained?
A. lactose
B. starch
C. glycogen
D. cellulose
Explanation:
 Lactose (milk sugar) is derived from a β-glucose molecule and a β-galactose molecule.
Therefore, choice A is not the answer.
 Starch and glycogen are polymers of α-glucose molecules. Thus, B and C can be answers.
 Cellulose is a polymer of β-glucose molecules. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: B or C
55. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the effect of temperature on
enzymes?
A. Raising the temperature increases the kinetic energy of molecules.
B. A ten-degree centigrade increase in temperature may increase the activity of most
enzymes by 50% to 100%
C. Most enzymes are insensitive to temperature at low ph.
D. Many enzymes are denatured at 40 degree centigrade
Explanation:

 When the temperature is raised, molecules are given more kinetic energy. As a result, the
molecules move around more quickly. Thus, choice A is a correct statement.
 Like most chemical reactions, the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction increases as the
temperature is raised. A ten-degree centigrade increase in temperature will increase the
activity of most enzymes by 50% to 100%. Therefore, choice B is a correct statement.
 Most enzymes are very sensitive to changes in temperature whether the pH is low or
high. Therefore, choice C is not correct.
 Most animal enzymes rapidly become denatured at temperatures close to 40°c and above.
Thus, choice D is a correct statement.
Answer: C
56. Organelles in the cytoplasm that are known as 'power houses of the cell are:
A. Mitochondria
B. Chloroplast
C. ribosome
D. cellulose
Explanation:
 Mitochondria are organelles where most of the reactions of aerobic respiration take place.
These reactions form ATP molecules, which releases energy in relatively small amounts
that are closely matched to the amounts of energy required in many biological processes
occurring inside cells. Because of this, mitochondria are also known as the 'power houses
of a cell'. Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
 Chloroplast is an organelle in a plant cell that converts light energy into chemical energy
via photosynthesis. Although the chloroplast is involved in energy transformation, the
energy stored in the chemical bonds of glucose is not in the form that can be used directly
by cells.
 A ribosome is an intercellular structure which is involved in protein synthesis. It is not
involved in energy transformation.
 Cellulose is a polysaccharide consisting of a linear chain of several hundred to many
thousands of β-linked glucose units. It provides strength and elasticity to the cell wall of
plant cells.
Answer: A
57. Which of the following is NOT a function of lysosomes?
A. Autophagy
B. Autolysis
C. Digestion
D. Synthesis
Explanation:

 Lysosomes are involved in autophagy. Autophagy is the process of reusing old and
damaged cell parts.
 Lysosomes are involved in autolysis of cells. Autolysis is the enzymatic digestion of a
cell by the action of its own enzymes. This process mostly occurs in dying or dead cells.
 Lysosomes are involved in the digestion of worn-out organelles and engulfed bacteria by
using their hydrolytic enzymes.
 Lysosomes do not synthesize (build) chemical substances from smaller units; rather, they
break down worn-out organelles and engulfed bacteria by using their hydrolytic enzymes.
Answer: D
58. The different steps for complete aerobic respiration are:
A. Glycolysis and oxidative phosphorylation
B. Glycolysis and Krebs cycle.
C. Glycolysis, Krebs cycle and terminal oxidation.
D. Krebs cycle and terminal oxidation
Explanation:
 In the correct order, the main stages of aerobic respiration of glucose are glycolysis, the
link reaction, Krebs cycle and electron transport chain. Therefore, choice C is the correct
answer.
Answer: C
59. Which of the following processes indicate the process of photosynthesis?
A. Reductive, exergonic and catabolic
B. Reductive, endogenic and catabolic
C. Reductive, exergonic and anabolic
D. Reductive, endergonic and anabolic
Explanation;
 Photosynthesis is a reductive process as it involves the reduction of carbon dioxide to

glucose. This process involves endergonic reactions, which take in light energy to drive
the reduction of carbon dioxide to glucose. Photosynthesis is an anabolic process as it
builds a large glucose molecule from smaller molecules of carbon dioxide and water.
Answer: D
60. In the active sludge method, sewage treatment is based on the principle of
A. Decomposition and removal of organic matter.
B. Removal of polluting organic matter through filtration.
C. Denitrification.

D. Anaerobic respiration
Explanation:
 The activated sludge method of sewage treatment uses microorganisms to break down
(decompose) and remove the organic matter present in the sewage. Thus, choice A is the
correct answer.
 In the activated sludge method of sewage treatment, removal of polluting organic matter
is not achieved through filtration. The micro-organisms from the added activated sludge
oxidize and remove the polluting organic matter present in the sewage. Hence, choice B
is not the answer.
 Denitrification is the process by which nitrates in the soil are reduced to nitrogen gas. It is
one of the processes involved in the nitrogen cycle. Denitrification is not involved in the
activated sludge method of sewage treatment. Therefore, choice C is not the answer.
 The activated sludge method of sewage treatment involves aerobic respiration rather than
anaerobic respiration. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: A
61. When an organism containing a gene which does NOT belong to it and is derived from
somewhere else, the organism is said to be:
A. hybrid
B. transgenic
C. mutant
D. clonal
Explanation:
 Hybrid is an offspring resulting from a cross-breeding between two organisms of

different breeds or different species through sexual reproduction.
 Transgenic organism is a genetically modified organism that contains a gene or genes
transferred from another organism belonging to a different species. Hence, choice B is
the correct answer.
 Mutant is an organism that is different from others of its type because of a permanent
change in its gene.
 Clonal is the genetically identical daughter cell produced when cells divide by mitosis.
Answer: B
62. When is reverse transcriptase a useful enzyme? It is useful when:
A. nutrients are scarce.
B. there are no host cells present.
C. spikes are forming in the new virus.
D. an RNA virus converts its RNA to DNA.

Explanation:
 Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme used to generate complementary DNA from an RNA

template in a process termed reverse transcription. RNA viruses, such as retroviruses, use
the enzyme to reverse-transcribe their RNA genomes into DNA, which is then integrated
into the host genome and replicated along with it. Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D
63. If you were to travel from the Arctic Circle to the Equator, what sequence of biomes
would you most likely pass through?
A. Tundra, temperate forest, taiga, tropical rain forest
B. Taiga, tundra, temperate forest, tropical rain forest
C. Tundra, taiga, temperate forest, tropical rain forest
D. Tropical rain forest, temperate forest, taiga, tundra
Explanation:
 Moving from the Arctic Circle towards the Equator, the major biomes found are tundra,
taiga (boreal forest), temperate forest and tropical rain forest.
Answer: C
64. The fact that Ethiopia is a regional center of biological diversity which of the following
diversity is expressed?
A. The many mountain, valleys, rivers and scenic beauty.
B. High number of endemic wild and domestic plant species.
C. Wide range of altitude and climate.
D. The number of different biomes in the country.
Explanation:
 Ethiopia is a regional center of biological diversity. Biological diversity is a measure of

the overall variability of life in an area. This includes species richness and diversity as
well as the ecological and the genetic variability of each species. Ethiopia has very high
plant and animal species richness. It is estimated that there are between 6500 and 6700
plant species in the country. This represents the fifth most diverse flora in Africa.
Ethiopia is also one of the most significant countries in mainland Africa in terms of the
biodiversity of its avifauna (birds). Over 861 species are found in the country. Therefore,
choice B is the correct answer.
 The wide range in altitude and climate, the isolation of the highlands of Ethiopia, and the
fact that there are so many different biomes present in the country, are some of the
reasons why Ethiopia has high biodiversity.
Answer: B

65. Under ideal conditions and unlimited resources, continuous population growth pattern is
known as:
A. density dependent growth
B. logistic growth
C. exponential growth
D. population distribution growth
Explanation:
 Density-dependent growth is the growth pattern in a population which is regulated by the

population density due to density dependent factors, such as disease, competition and
predation. Population growth decreases as the population density increases. Thus, choice
A is not the answer.
 Logistic growth is a model of population growth in which population expansion
decreases when the resources become limited and the carrying capacity of the
environment is reached. Thus, choice B is not the answer.
 Exponential growth, also referred to as unrestricted growth, is an accelerating population
growth that usually occurs in an ideal environment with unlimited resources. Thus,
choice C is the correct answer.
 Population distribution refers to the way in which the members of a population or of a
specified subgroup of a population (for example, defined by age, sex, or ethnic status) are
dispersed (spread out) physically in a specific area. The main factors determining
population distribution include climate, landforms, topography, soil, energy and mineral
resources. Therefore, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: C
66. If color-blindness is sex linked and a colour-blind man marries the daughter of a color-
blind person, which of the following is their progeny?
A. None of her daughters are colour-blind
B. All her sons are colour-blind
C. All her daughters are colour-blind
D. Half of her sons are colour-blind
Explanation:
Let color blind man has XbY genotype and carrier woman has XbX genotype. Offspring
genotypes are XbXb, XbX, XbY and XY.
Xb Y
Xb Xb Xb Xb Y

X Xb X XY XbXb: color blind daughter
XbX: carrier daughter
XbY: color blind son
XY: normal son
Answer: D
67. Transfer of a gene or genes through a virus is called:
A. transformation
B. transduction
C. genetic engineering
D. conjugation
Explanation:
 Transformation is the genetic alteration of a cell resulting from the direct uptake and
incorporation of exogenous genetic material from its surroundings through the cell
membrane(s). Since transformation takes place without involving any intermediate
organism, such as a viral vector, choice A is not the answer.
 Transduction is the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another using a
viral vector or bacteriophage. Hence, choice B is the correct answer.
 Genetic engineering, also called genetic modification, is the direct manipulation of DNA
to alter an organism's characteristics (phenotype) in a particular way. In genetic
engineering, genes can be transferred into other cells using either viruses or plasmids
(small pieces of circular DNA found in bacteria). Thus, choice C is not the answer.
 Conjugation is the process by which one bacterium transfers genetic material to another
through direct cell-to-cell contact or by a bridge-like connection between two cells. Since
conjugation does not involve any Intermediate organism, such as a viral vector, choice D
is not the answer.
Answer: B
68. Which of the following concept is attributed to Charles Darwin?
A. Use and disuse of organs is of great importance in evolution.
B. Every cell must come from a pre-existing cell.
C. In the struggle for existence, the fittest would survive.
D. The gametes will carry only one of pair of contrasting characters.
Explanation:
 The theory of use and disuse was not suggested by Charles Darwin. It was forwarded by
the French biologist Jean-Baptiste Lamarck. Lamarck claimed that by continually using a
structure, that structure will become enlarged or more developed. Conversely, any

structure that is not used or little used will become reduced in size or less developed.
 One of the ideas of the cell theory states that all cells come from pre-existing cells. This
idea was not stated by Charles Darwin. It was Rudolf Virchow who declared that: ‗Omnis
cellula e cellula‘, which means that every cell can only arise from pre-existing cell. Thus,
choice B is not the answer.
 In 1858, Charles Darwin put forward the theory of natural selection, which suggests that
there will be a ‗struggle for existence‘ between members of a species due to limited
resources in the environment, and in the struggle, those members of a species which are
best adapted (the fittest) to their environment will survive and reproduce in greater
numbers than others less well adapted. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
 The idea that gametes carry only one of the pair of contrasting characters was not stated
by Charles Darwin. It was Gregor Mendel who forwarded his ‗law of segregation‘, which
states that heritable factors (what we now call alleles) that determine a trait of an
organism separate when gametes are formed; each gamete therefore contains only one
heritable factor (allele) controlling the trait. Hence, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: C
69. Occurrence of endemic species in Ethiopia is due to:
A. the fact that these species have been extinct from other regions.
B. continental separation.
C. The fact that there is no terrestrial route to these places.
D. retrogressive evolution.
Explanation:
 Endemic species are species that are found only in a particular area. Endemic species are
especially likely to develop in geographically and biologically isolated areas, such as
isolated mountainous regions like the Ethiopian Highlands, where there is no terrestrial
route to these places. Due to geographical isolation, interbreeding between the
populations becomes impossible and mutations that arise in one population cannot be
passed to the other. As a result, the isolated population evolves locally into a new species,
which becomes unique to an area or a country.
Answer: C
70. "Skinner box" is used for experiments in:
A. operant conditioning
B. classical conditioning
C. migration
D. taxis
Explanation:

 B F Skinner carried out a great deal of pioneering research in operant conditioning, a
method of learning that uses reinforcement and punishment to modify complex, voluntary
behaviors. Skinner carried out much of his research on rats and other animals using what
is now called a Skinner box. Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
 Classical conditioning involves modifying an innate response by pairing it with a
previously neutral stimulus. This type of learned behavior does not use reinforcement or
punishment to modify behaviors. Therefore, choice B is not the answer.
 Migration is the seasonal movement of animals from one region to another, especially as
part of a large scale and continuing movement of population. It is an innate behavior
which is not the result of behavioral modification through experiments. Hence, choice C
is not the answer.
 Taxis is a type of innate behavior which involves a directional movement of an animal
either towards or away from the greatest intensity of a stimulus. As taxis is a type of
innate behavior, it is not the result of behavioral modification through experiments. Thus,
Answer: A
71. Which of the following factors affects enzyme activity without denaturing the enzyme
molecule?
A. High temperature
B. Low temperature
C. High pH
D. Low pH
Explanation:
 High temperature, high pH and low pH denature enzymes by breaking ionic bonds that
hold their tertiary structures in place and by altering the charge on some of the amino
acids that form the active sites of the enzymes. Therefore, choice A, C or D is not the
answer.
 Although low temperature slows down the activity of an enzyme, it usually preserves the
enzyme in its inactive state rather than denaturing the enzyme molecule. Thus, choice B
is the correct answer.
Answer: B
72. Which of the following can reverse or reduce an allosteric enzyme inhibition?
A. Adding more substrate
B. Adding more end products
C. Depleting the substrate
D. Depleting the end product
Explanation:

 Adding more substrate or depleting the substrate cannot reverse allosteric inhibition
because the allosteric inhibitor does not structurally resemble the substrate and competes
with it for the active site of the enzyme. Thus, alternative A or C is not the answer.
 As the end product in a series of reactions acts as the allosteric inhibitor of the enzyme
catalyzing the first reaction, adding more end products further increases the allosteric
inhibition. Thus, choice B is not the answer.
 Allosteric inhibitors, such as the final product of a series of reactions, bind to a region
away from the active site. This produces a conformational change in the enzyme that
prevents the substrate from binding to the first reaction of the series. Since the end
product of the series is the allosteric inhibitor, depleting (removing) the end product
reverses the enzyme inhibition so that the substrate is able to bind to the enzyme
catalyzing the first reaction. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D
73. In what way do retroviruses differ from other RNA viruses?
A. Their genetic material is RNA.
B. They are parasitic.
C. They copy RNA to DNA.
D. They are smaller in size.
Explanation:
 Retroviruses are not the only viruses that have ribonucleic acid (RNA) as their genetic
material. Other viruses that have RNA as their genetic material include the common cold
virus, influenza virus, Ebola virus, rabies virus and coronavirus. Thus, choice A is not the
answer.
 Retroviruses are not the only RNA viruses which are parasitic. Other parasitic RNA
viruses include the common cold virus, influenza virus, Ebola virus, rabies virus and
coronavirus. Therefore, choice B is not the answer.
 Retroviruses are RNA viruses that use the enzyme reverse transcriptase to convert or
copy their genetic information from RNA into DNA after they have infected their hosts.
Other RNA viruses reproduce by inserting RNA into the host cells. The RNA contains
the instructions for making copies of the virus. Thus, choice C is the correct answer.
 Retroviruses are not the smallest RNA viruses. There are RNA viruses, such as hepatitis
D virus (HDV), which are smaller in size than retroviruses. Thus, choice D is not the
answer.
Answer: C
74. As an ecological succession passes from a lower to a higher seral stage, which of the
following will NOT happen?
A. The community gets more complex.

B. Ecological niches increase.
C. Species get more diverse.
D. They are smaller in size.
Explanation:
 As an ecological succession passes from a lower to a higher seral stage:

 The total biomass of the community increases.
 The species diversity and size increase.
 The community becomes more complex.
 The number of ecological niches increases.
 The complexity of the food web increases.
 The stability of the community increases and becomes climax community.
Answer: D
75. What is the population growth phase of the current world population?
A. Exponential phase
B. Lag phase
C. Decline phase
D. Static phase
Explanation:
 The global population has grown from 1 billion in 1800 to 8 billion in 2022. The
population has been increasing particularly quickly over the past two hundred years,
because we have generally increased the quality and quantity of food available and we
have decreased the impact of disease-causing organisms with improved sanitation and
medical care. Due to this, the world‘s human population is currently experiencing
exponential (log) phase. Thus, choice A is the correct answer.
 The lag phase of a population growth curve is the period of time immediately following
the establishment of a population, when the population remains small and fairly constant.
Since we have already established and adapted to Earth, we are not in the lag phase.
Therefore, choice B is not the answer.
 Decline phase of a population growth curve is the stage characterized by a decrease in
population size when the population size increases beyond the carrying capacity. The
decline in population size can be caused by factors like shortage of food supply and
accumulation of toxic wastes. Since we haven't yet reached the decline phase, choice C is
not the answer.
 Static phase of a population growth curve is the stage characterized by a fairly constant
population size when the carrying capacity is reached. Since the world population hasn't
yet reached the Earth's carrying capacity (which is estimated to be 10 billion), we are not
in the static phase. Thus, choice D is not the answer.

Answer: A
76. If allowed to self-pollinate, which of the following pea genotype produce progeny with
9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio?
A. RRYY
B. RrYY
C. RRYy
D. RrYy
Explanation: Possible gametes of genotype ―RrYy‖ for each parent are RY, Ry, rY, ry. The
following table summarizes the results that could be obtained from self-pollination of RrYy pea
plants.
RY Ry rY ry
RY RRYY—round RRYy—round RrYY—round RrYy—round

yellow yellow yellow yellow
Ry RRYy—round RRyy—round RrYy—round Rryy—round green

yellow green yellow
rY RrYY—round RrYy—round rrYY—wrinkled rrYy—wrinkled

yellow yellow yellow yellow
ry RrYy—round Rryy—round rrYy—wrinkled rryy—wrinkled

yellow green yellow green
 Phenotype ratio of the progeny: 9 round yellow: 3 round green: 3 wrinkled yellow: 1
wrinkled green
 If you follow the same procedure for the other pea genotypes, you will not get progeny
with 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio.
Answer: D
77. How many nucleotides are needed to form codons for a protein that is 100 amino acids
long?
A. 100 nucleotides
B. 200 nucleotides
C. 300 nucleotides
D. 640 nucleotides
Explanation:
 Proteins are synthesized assembling amino acids and the sequence of amino acid is
determined by mRNA codons.

 The genetic code is a triplet code. Each amino acid in the protein is coded for by a triplet
(sequence of three) of bases. The triplets of bases in mRNA that code for amino acids are
called codons.
 Since three nucleotides code for one amino acid, 300 nucleotides code for 100 amino
acids. Thus, choice C is the correct answer.
Answer: C
78. Which of the following is the common idea held by all the creationists?
A. Life is eternal.
B. Life was created by a supernatural being.
C. All life was created in six days.
D. Life came to earth from elsewhere in the universe.
Explanation:
 The idea that life is eternal is not even a view held by creationists. Eternity of life theory
claims that there is no beginning and no end to life on Earth and so it neither needs
special creation nor does it need to be generated from non-living matter. Thus, choice A
is not the answer.
 Although there are different views among different versions of creationism, all
creationists agree that a supernatural power created life. Thus, choice B is the correct
answer.
 The idea that all life was created in six days is held by young Earth creationists. This idea
is not accepted by all creationists. For example, Gap creationists and Day-age creationists
argue that it has taken much longer than six Earth days for life to be created. Therefore,
choice C is not the answer.
 The idea that Life came to Earth from elsewhere in the universe is not even a view held
by creationists. It is an idea held by the supporters of cosmozoan theory, who claims that
life on Earth originally came from elsewhere in the Universe possibly from another
planet. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: B
79. Among the following, which one had the cranial capacity of about the same size as that
of Homo sapiens?
A. Homo habilis
B. Homo erectus
C. Lucy
D. the Neanderthal man
Explanation:

 Homo habilis had a cranial capacity of 650-800 cubic centimeters. It is much smaller than
the cranial capacity of Homo sapiens which is close to 1500cm2. Thus, choice A is not
the answer.
 Homo erectus had a cranial capacity of about 900 cubic centimeters. It is much smaller
than the cranial capacity of Homo sapiens which is close to 1500cm2. Thus, choice B is
not the answer.
 Lucy had a cranial capacity of about 450 cubic centimeters. It is much smaller than the
cranial capacity of Homo sapiens which is close to 1500cm2. Thus, choice C is not the
answer.
 During the course of human evolution, the brain has got bigger. The cranial capacity of
both Homo sapiens and Neanderthal man is close to 1500cm2. Therefore, choice D is the
correct answer.
Answer: D
80. One of the following behavioral patterns of human babies is more or less similar to the
imprinting of newly hatched goose?
A. Fixed action pattern
B. Attachment-formation
C. Habituation
D. Breast suckling
Explanation:
 Imprinting is an instinctive behavior in which newly born or hatched organisms become

attached to the first thing they see, often their mother. This instinctive behavior is
observed in newly hatched goose that form attachment with the first moving thing they
see and follow it around. A similar pattern of attachment formation is found in human
infants; it involves the formation of a strong emotional bond between an infant and its
primary caregiver – often, but not exclusively, the mother. Thus, choice B is the correct
answer.
 Fixed action pattern is the predetermined behavior produced as a response to the key
stimulus. This behavioral pattern is seen in instinctive behaviors in which there is always
a-fixed action pattern in response to each key stimulus. Although a fixed action pattern is
involved in imprinting of newly hatched goose, it does not clearly associate the similar
pattern of attachment formation observed in human babies and newly hatched goose.
exposure to that stimulus over a period of time. The similar pattern of attachment
formation observed in human babies and newly hatched goose is not the result of
habituation because the attachment formed does not decrease due to repeated exposure to
the caregiver, rather it gets stronger. Hence, choice C is not the answer.

 As newly hatched geese are not breastfed by their mother, breast suckling has nothing to
do with the similar pattern of attachment formation observed in human babies and newly
hatched goose. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: B
81. In the human body, which conditions are generally considered optimum for most
enzymes?
A. 37°C and pH 1.0
B. 90°C and pH 7.0
C. 5°C and pH 9.0
D. 37°C and pH 7.0
Explanation:
 The majority of enzymes in the human body function most efficiently at the optimum
temperature of 370C and optimum pH of 7.0. Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D Grade 11 unit 3 Level 2
82. Which of the following has the highest water potential than all the other?
A. Animal cells
B. Different solutions
C. Pure liquid water
D. Different suspensions
Explanation:
 Water potential of a system is the concentration of free water molecules in that system.
Pure, liquid water has only water molecules, and thus, it has a higher water potential than
any other system. The water potential of pure, liquid water is defined as zero. Thus,
choice C is the correct answer.
 When a solute is added to pure, liquid water, some of the water molecules form hydration
shells around the solute molecules. This reduces the number of free water molecules in
the system and so the water potential is reduced. All other systems (cells, solutions and
suspensions) have a water potential that is lower than that of water. Since pure water is
assigned a water potential of zero, all other systems, such as cells, solutions and
suspensions, must have a negative water potential values.
Answer: C
83. Which of the four stages in the aerobic respiration of glucose does NOT produce ATP?
A. Glycolysis
B. The link reaction.
C. Krebs cycle

D. Electron transport and chemiosmosis
 Glycolysis, Krebs cycle and the electron transport and chemiosmosis are the three stages
of cellular respiration that produce ATP molecules. Glycolysis and Krebs cycle produce a
net of 2 ATP molecules each. The electron transport chain and chemiosmosis produce
around 32 ATP molecules. Therefore, choice A, C or D is not the answer.
 Although the link reaction produces 2 NADH molecules, it does not produce ATP
molecules. Hence, choice B is the correct answer.
Answer: B
84. In an experiment to study photosynthesis, a plant was provided radioactive carbon
dioxide as a metabolic tracer and the radioactive carbon was incorporated first into
oxaloacetate. Which one of the following would best characterize this plant?
A. C4 plant
B. C3 plant
C. CAM plant
D. Heterotrophic plant
Explanation:
 A C4 plant forms oxaloacetate as its first compound in the light-independent reactions

when carbon dioxide reacts with a C3 compound called PEP in mesophyll cells. Since the
radioactive carbon is incorporated first into oxaloacetate in C4, choice A the correct
answer.
 C3 plants do not form oxaloacetate as their first compound in the light-independent
reaction; instead, they form two GP molecules when carbon dioxide reacts with RuBP.
Since oxaloacetate is not formed by C3 plants, the plant used in the experiment could not
be a C3 plant. Therefore, choice B is not the answer.
 Although a CAM plant is able to form oxaloacetate at night, its first stable compound in
the light-independent reactions during the day time is 3-phosphoglycerate. Thus, choice
C is not the best answer.
 Since a heterotrophic plant cannot carry out photosynthesis, it could not be used in the
experiment. Thus, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: A
85. Which of the following is a correct statement about the difference between a bacterium
and a virus?
A. DNA is present in the former, but absent in the latter.
B. The former is cellular, but the latter is acellular.
C. Protein is absent in the former, but present in the latter.
D. The former causes malaria, but the latter causes cholera.
Explanation:

 A bacterium contains DNA as the genetic material. Although the genetic material of
some viruses is RNA, others contain DNA as the genetic material. Thus, choice A is not
the answer.
 A bacterium is a prokaryotic cell, which can carry out any of the processes common to all
living organisms. The basic virus, on the other hand, is not even a cell – it has no nucleus
and no cytoplasm. Thus, a virus is acelluar. Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
 A bacterium has ribosomes, which are involved in protein synthesis. Thus, it has proteins.
However, a virus is a particle which contains a genetic material surrounded by a protein
coat. Since a virus does not have ribosomes, it cannot produce proteins. Thus, choice C is
not the answer.
 Malaria is not a bacterial disease. It is caused by parasitic protozoa of the genus
Plasmodium. Cholera is not a viral disease. It is caused by a bacterium called Vibrio
cholerae. Therefore, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: B
86. Which of the following statement about transgenic organisms is correct?
A. A bacterium that contains genes from another organism.
B. A plant that has been cross-pollinated with another plant.
C. Any animal that has been reared in isolation in the laboratory.
D. Any organism in which a foreign gene is added to its genome.
Explanation:
 A transgenic organism is a genetically modified organism that contains a gene or genes

transferred from another organism belonging to a different species.
 Although a bacterium that contains genes from another organism is a genetically
modified or transgenic bacterium, not all transgenic organisms are necessarily transgenic
bacteria. Thus, choice A is not our best option.
 Cross pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from an anther of a flower of one plant to
a stigma of a flower of another plant of the same species. It is a natural process in the
sexual reproduction of flowering plants, which helps increase the genetic diversity of the
plants. Since cross pollination does not involve the transfer of a gene or genes from one
organism to another, it does not produce a transgenic plant. Thus, choice B is not the
answer.
 Rearing or breeding of an animal in the laboratory often involves artificial insemination.
Artificial insemination is the technique in which semen with living sperms is collected
from the male and introduced into female reproductive tract at proper time with the help
of instruments. This technique has been found to result in a normal offspring with
desirable characteristics. Since rearing an animal in isolation in the laboratory does not
involve the transfer of a gene or genes from one species of animal to another, it does not
produce a transgenic animal. Thus, choice C is not the answer.

 Any organism in which a foreign gene is added to its genome is a transgenic organism.
Thus choice D is the best answer.
Answer: D
87. If a radioactive substance that weights 5600 grams and has a half-life of 100 years is left
with 700 grams, for how long has the decaying activity been undergoing?
A. 100 years
B. 200 years
C. 300 years
D. 500 years
 Half-life is the time required for 50% of the radioactive substance to decompose into non-
radioactive element.
 Since the half-life of the radioactive substance that weights 5600 grams is 100 years,
2800 grams of the radioactive substance remains after 100 years. After 200 years, 1400
grams of radioactive substance remains. After 300 years, 700 grams of the radioactive
substance remains.
Answer: C
88. What is the survival value of a social behavior in which some birds move in large
groups?
A. Protection of a territory
B. Protection from predators
C. Technique for trapping prey
D. Displaying courtship activities
Explanation:
 Birds usually defend their territory that contains their nests. They often threaten an
intruder by using vocalizations and with visual displays, such as exaggerating the body
size. Since birds usually build their nests in trees, bushes, the ground and on cliffs, the
movement of birds in large groups is not often a means of defending their territory. Thus,
choice A is not the answer.
 Some birds like starlings flock in massive swirling groups in which the movement of the
whole group is co-ordinated; rapid movements one way and then another make it more
difficult for a predator to attack. Hence, choice B is the correct answer.
 Some birds of prey like Harris's hawk hunt in groups of 3 to 5. when a suitable the prey is
spotted, the whole group converges on the prey trapping it from various angles so that if
one misses, others surprise it from a different direction. However, moving together in
large groups is not a useful hunting technique for them as they can easily be detected by
their prey, reducing the element of surprise. Therefore, choice C is not the answer.

 Courtship behaviors, such as songs, producing piercing sounds, mutual preening, and
dance moves, are a way for birds to show off their strength, health and ability to produce
offspring. Moving in large groups are not often courtship behaviors displayed by birds.
Thus, choice D is not the answer.
 Answer: B
89. What is the biome of the world where succulent plants are commonly found?
A. Hot deserts
B. Thorn forests
C. Deciduous forests
D. Temperate grasslands
Explanation:
 The following table summarizes the four biomes and the dominant plants they have.
Biome type Plants in the biome
1 Hot deserts succulents like cactus, sage brush and palm trees
2 Thorn forests Shrubs, some woodland like scrub oak, acacias, palms and
euphorbias
3 Deciduous forests Deciduous forests which include trees like maple, oak and elm
4 Temperate grasslands Different species of grasses like purple needle grass, blue grama
and buffalo grass
Answer: A
90. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. Employers may not dismiss an employee because of his/her HIV status.
B. HIV-positive people are forced by law to disclose their HIV status.
C. There is no medication that can reduce your chances of contracting HIV.
D. Mothers can give their babies HIV by means of breastfeeding.
Explanation:
 Except choice B, all the statements are correct. People living with HlV/AlDS have the
right to work and can contribute much to the society. So far, no medication or vaccine has
been found to prevent the initial infection of HIV. AIDS can pass from a mother to her
baby in the womb, during birth or when she breastfeeds.
 There is no law that forces HIV-positive people to disclose their HIV status.
Answer B

91. Lipids to become sphingolipids must contain:
A. Glycerol
B. Nitrogen
C. Alcohol
D. Triglycerides
Explanation:
 Sphingolipids do not contain glycerol. They are composed of amino alcohol instead of
glycerol. Thus, choice A is not the answer.
 Unlike most lipids, sphingolipids contain nitrogen in addition to carbon, hydrogen and
oxygen atoms. Thus, lipids must contain nitrogen in order to become sphingolipids.
Hence, choice B is the correct answer.
 Since most lipids contain alcohol, it is not a must for lipids to have alcohol in order to be
sphingolipids. Thus, choice C is not the answer.
 Since triglycerides are not the building blocks of sphingolipids, choice D is not the
answer.
Answer: B
92. If other conditions were to remain constant, which one of the following changes would
explain a reduced rate of activity in an enzyme-controlled reaction? Increase in
A. concentration of end-product.
B. substrate concentration
C. enzyme concentration
D. temperature towards the optimum.
Explanation:
 If more substrate is present than enzyme, all the enzyme binding sites will have substrate
bound, and further increases in substrate concentration cannot increase the rate.
 Accumulation of end products retards the enzyme activity mainly because the active sites
of the enzymes are more crowded by them and substrate molecules will have
comparatively lesser chance of combining with the active sites..
 Increasing enzyme concentration increases the activity of the enzyme because there are
more active sites to attach to the substrates present.
 Each enzyme has a temperature range in which a maximum rate of reaction is achieved.
Answer: A
93. Which of the following statements best describes an induced fit-model?
A. An active site alters shape such that it is ready to accept a substrate.
B. A substrate adopts the correct binding conformation before entering an active site.
C. A substrate binds to an active site and alters the shape of the active site.

D. An active site alters the shape of the substrate such that it can adopt the necessary
active conformation for binding.
Explanation:
 The induced-fit model of enzyme action suggests that the active site and the substrate
aren‘t naturally complementary in shape, but the binding of substrate molecules produces
a change in shape in the active site which allows the substrate and active site to bind
fully.
 The active site of an enzyme does not change its shape by itself unless the substrate
molecules bind to it. Thus, choice A is not the answer.
 A substrate adopts the correct binding conformation after it binds to the active site of an
enzyme. Thus, choice B is not the correct answer.
 In an induced-fit model of enzyme action, a substrate binds to an active site and changes
the shape of the active site. Therefore, choice C is the correct answer.
 In an induced-fit model of enzyme action, an active site does not change the shape of a
substrate; it is the binding of the substrate to the active site that produces a change in
shape in the active site which allows the substrate and active site to bind fully. Hence,
Answer: C
94. Which of the following happens if a nucleolus is missing in a cell?
A. Nuclear pores will be blocked.
B. Endoplasmic reticulum will be unfolded.
C. DNA synthesis will be enhanced.
D. Ribosomal functions will be disrupted.
Explanation:
 The nucleolus is a membraneless organelle in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells which is

used to synthesize the components of ribosomes.
 The nuclear pores in the nuclear membrane will not be blocked if the nucleolus is missing
in a eukaryotic cell. Thus, choice A is not the answer.
 Since the nucleolus is not involved in the synthesis of the endoplasmic reticulum, its
absence in a cell will not affect the membrane system of the endoplasmic reticulum.
Therefore, choice B is not the answer.
 As the nucleolus is not involved in the inhibition of DNA synthesis, its absence in a cell
will not enhance DNA synthesis. Hence, choice C is not the answer.
 Because the nucleolus is used to synthesize the components of ribosomes, its absence in a
cell will disrupt ribosomal functions. Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D

95. Which one is first inhibited if a cell contains excess of ATP?
A. Krebs cycle
B. Oxidative phosphorylation
C. Glycolysis
D. Electron transport
Explanation
 Cells need to make enough ATP to meet their energy needs, but it's important to slow
oxidative phosphorylation down when ATP isn't being used rapidly. Like many
biochemical pathways, cellular respiration is controlled in part by feedback inhibition of
ATP: ATP, the end product of cellular respiration, inhibits the beginning of glycolysis.
 When ATP concentration increases in a cell, it allosterically inhibits phosphofructokinase
(PFK), an enzyme that catalyzes an early step in glycolysis which converts fructose-6-
phosphate into fructose-1,6-biphosphate. Once phosphofructokinase is inhibited, all the
subsequent steps in glycolysis will also be slowed. Thus, choice C is the correct answer.
Answer: C
96. Which of the following results in the production of oxygen during photosynthesis?
A. Reducing NADP+
B. Splitting of the water molecules
C. Electron transfer system of photosystem I
D. Electron transfer system of photosystem II
Explanation:
 During photosynthesis, NADP+ is reduced when it reacts with hydrogen ions at the end of
the second electron transport chain. This reaction forms reduced NADP (NADPH) rather
than oxygen. Thus choice A is not the answer.
 During light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, light energy causes the splitting of
water molecules into hydrogen ions, electrons and oxygen in photosystem II (2H2O
O2+ 4H+ + 4e-). Thus, choice B is the correct answer.
 The electron transfer system of photosystem I allows electrons to pass along a series of
carriers until they finally react with hydrogen ions and NADP to form NADPH. Since it
does not result in the production of oxygen, choice C is not the answer.
 The electron transfer system of photosystem II allows electrons to pass along a series of
carriers until they finally get to photosystem I. Since it does not result in the production
of oxygen, choice D is not the answer.
Answer: B
97. Which one of the following happens during integration of viruses in host cells?
A. The virus takes over the host cell machinery.

B. The viral DNA enters the host cell.
C. The virus attaches to a host cell receptor.
D. The viral DNA is inserted into the host DNA.
Explanation:
 All the processes listed from choice A to C are common to all viral cycles (lytic cycle,
chronic release cycle and lysogenic cycle). A virus attaches first to a host cell receptor.
Next, the viral DNA enters the host cell. Then, the virus takes over the host cell
machinery and makes new viral particles.
 In viruses that reproduce by lysogenic life cycle, the virus‘s DNA becomes integrated
into the DNA of a host cell. During integration of viral DNA in the host cell, the viral
DNA is inserted (incorporated) into the DNA of the host cell. As the host cell DNA
duplicates, the viral DNA also gets copied. Thus, choice D is the correct answer.
Answer: D
98. The following statements are correct regarding ecological succession EXCEPT:
A. Ecological succession is a random process.
B. The food chain relationship becomes more complex.
C. The role of decomposers becomes more and more important.
D. Species diversity increases as succession proceeds
Explanation:
 Ecological succession is not a random process. It is an orderly, gradual process of

development involving changes in species composition and community processes over
time. Therefore, choice A is not correct.
 In an ecological succession, successive producers colonise an area creating more and
different habitats and niches for other organisms to occupy. As a result, succession
usually involves an increase in the complexity of food chains and food webs. Thus,
choice B is correct.
 In any succession, the species diversity andthe total biomass of the community increases
as the succession progresses. When the organisms die, organic matter is added to the soil.
As time passes, more and more organic matter is added and the role of decomposers
becomes more and more significant. Decomposers play a critical role in the ecosystem by
recycling nutrients and increasing soil fertility. They break apart the organic matter of
dead organisms into simpler inorganic materials, making nutrients available to producers.
Thus, choice C is correct.
 Each stage in a succession changes the abiotic (physical) conditions of an area and makes
it more suitable to a wider range of organisms, increasing species diversity. Therefore,
choice D is correct.
Answer: A

99. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in
organic evolution?
A. Development of transgenic animals
B. Production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning
C. Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
D. Development of organs from 'stem cells' for organ transplantation
Explanation:
 One of the features of Darwinism is 'survival of the fittest'. This states that the organisms
possessing favorable characteristics would survive, because they are best adapted
(naturally selected) to face their surroundings, while those who are unfit perish.
 Insect populations develop resistance to an insecticide through natural selection. Insects
with genes that confer resistance to a particular insecticide survive treatment and are
thereby ―selected‖ to pass on this resistance to later generations. Thus, choice C is the
correct answer.
 The development of transgenic animals, the production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning,
and the development of organs from 'stem cells' for organ transplantation are examples of
biotechnology that could be achieved through artificial selection, which involves the
deliberate manipulation of genes of organisms. Thus, alternative A, B or D is not the
answer.
Answer: C
100. One of the following is NOT true about operant conditioning.
A. It is based on innate behaviors.
B. It is based on reward and punishment.
C. It is concerned with learnt behavior.
D. It is based on consequences of actions,
Explanation:
 Operant conditioning is not an innate behavior. It is a type of learned behavior which

occurs when the animal learns to associate the behavioral response to a stimulus with a
reward or a punishment. In operant conditioning, the consequences of response determine
the probability of the behavior being repeated; a behavior which is reinforced (rewarded)
will likely be repeated, and a behavior which is punished will occur less frequently. Thus,
all the statements are correct about operant conditioning except choice A.
Answer: A

Biology 2011 Esslce

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Biology 2011 Esslce

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ETHIOPIAN UNIVERSITY ENTERANCE EXAMINATION (EUEE)

BIOLOGY, GINBOT 2011/JUNE 2019

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 Non-disjunction is a type of chromosomal mutation that occurs when a pair of

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 Trisomy 16 is a genetic disorder characterized by having three copies of chromosome 16.

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 The tertiary period was characterized by dramatic evolutionary diversity of mammals. It

 Instinctive behavior is a pre-programmed behavioral pattern that often involves a

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 Biodiversity is the number of different species that are present in an ecosystem, or it is

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 Cell fractionation is a technique used to separate different organelles based on their

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 Sensitization is an increase in the response to a harmless stimulus when that stimulus

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 1m=1 000 000μm

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 Dehydrogenation is a chemical reaction that involves the removal of hydrogen, usually

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 Although physiology, genetics and geographical distribution of organisms can be used as

 Ivan Pavlov's research on dogs was successful in demonstrating a type of learned

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 Separating funnel is a piece of laboratory glassware that is used to separate two

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 Photosynthesis is a reductive process as it involves the reduction of carbon dioxide to

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 Hybrid is an offspring resulting from a cross-breeding between two organisms of

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 Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme used to generate complementary DNA from an RNA

 Ethiopia is a regional center of biological diversity. Biological diversity is a measure of

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 Density-dependent growth is the growth pattern in a population which is regulated by the

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 As an ecological succession passes from a lower to a higher seral stage:

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RY RRYY—round RRYy—round RrYY—round RrYy—round

Ry RRYy—round RRyy—round RrYy—round Rryy—round green

rY RrYY—round RrYy—round rrYY—wrinkled rrYy—wrinkled

ry RrYy—round Rryy—round rrYy—wrinkled rryy—wrinkled

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 Imprinting is an instinctive behavior in which newly born or hatched organisms become