S/N Question Op on1 Option2 Option3 Answer

1 If y = (2x/3) + 1 and z = (2y/3) + 1, then the value of z when x = 33 is 16 23 15⅓ 16⅓

Five years ago, a father was four times as old as his son. In five years time the father
will be twice as old as the son. If p and q are the present ages of the father and the
2 son respectively, the equations relating p and q are: 4q ─ p = 0; p ─ 2q = 1 p ─ 4q = 15; q + 2p =5 4p ─ q = 25; p ─ 2q = 5 4q ─ p = 15; 2q ─ p = 5
Lee was 35years old in 1995 while his father was 60. In what year was Lee exactly
3 half his father's age? 1990 1975 1980 1985
4 Divide y³ ─ y ─7 + 7y² by (─1 + y²) y² ─ 7y─+7 y² ─ 7 y─7 y+7
5 Factorise 2x² ─ 3x + 1 (x ─1)(2x + 1) (2x + 1)(x ─3) (2x ─ 3)(x ─ 1) (2x ─1)(x ─ 1)
6 What must be added to the expression y² ─ 14y to make a perfect square? 36 81 7 49
7 Given that the quadratic equation 3m² ─ 7m + K is a perfect square, the value of K is ⁴⁹⁄₂₄ ⁴⁹∕₃₆ ⁴⁹∕₁₆ ⁴⁹∕₁₂
8 Factorise completely: b³ ─ 4ab + ab³ ‒ 4b b(1 ─ a)(b ─ 2)(b ─ 2) (b ─ ab)(b ─2)(b + 2) (b + ab)(b + 2)(b ─ 2) b(1 + a)(b + 2)(b ─ 2)
9 What is the common factor to the expressions: y² ₋ y, 2y² + y = 1 and y² ─ 1? y² ─ y y─1 y+1 None
10 Evaluate (xy² ─ yz²)(x²z ─ xyz) when x = 2, y = ─2 and z = ─½ 0 ─28 ─ 30 ─34
A father and his son can work a piece of land in 10 days. The father can do it alone in
11 y days while the son alone will take five days longer. The equation which is y² ─ 15y + 20 = 0 y² + 35y ─ 50 = 0 y² ─ 10y + 5 = 0 y² ─ 15y ─ 50 = 0
6x² + 3y² + 4z² ─ 9xy + 6x² ─ 3y² + 4z² ─11xy + 6x² + 3y² + 4z² ─ 2xy + 6x² + 3y² + 4z² ─11xy +
12 Expand (2x ─ 3y + z)(3x ─ y + 4z) 8xz ─ 12yz 3xz ─ 12yz 11xz ─ 13yz 11xz ─ 13yz
13 If s = ut + ½at², then t is equal to ⅟ₐ[u ± √(u² ─ 2as)] ⅟ₐ[u ± √(u² + 2as)] ⅟ₐ[─u ± √(u² ─ 2as)] ⅟ₐ[─u ± √(u² + 2as)]
T is jointly proportional to the cube of y and the fourth power of z. If y is halved and Increased in the ratio 1 decreased in the ratio 4 : Increased in the ratio
14 z is doubled, then the value of T is Left unchanged :4 1 2:1
z is partly constant and partly varies inversely as the square of d. When d = 1, z = 11
15 and when d = 2, z = 5. Find the value of z when d = 4. 2 5 5.5 3.5
A quantity r varies inversely as x and y varies directly as r³. Express y in terms of x
16 given that y = 1 when x = 2. y = 2/ ³√x y = 8x³ y = ³√x/2 y = 8/x³
17 Solve for x and y in the equations below: x² ─ y = 4, x + y = 2 x = 0, y = 0 x = 2, y = 2 x = 0, y = ─2 x = 2, y = 0
18 Solve the quadratic inequality: x² ─ 5x + 6 ≥ 0 x ≤ ─3, x ≥ 2 x ≤ ─2, x ≥ ─3 x ≤ 2, x ≥ 3 x ≤ 3, x ≥ 2
19 If p varies inversely as the square of q and p = 8 when q = 4. Find q when p = 32 ±16 ±8 ±4 ±2
20 Factorize completely (4x + 3y)² ─ (3x ─ 2y)² (7x ─ y)(x ─ 5y) (7x ─ y)(x + 5y) (7x + y)(x ─ 5y) (7x + y)(x + 5y)
If y ─ 3 is directly propor onal to the square of z and y = 5 when z = 2, find y when z
21 = 8 18 12 30 35
22 Find y if √12 ─ √147 + y√3 = 0 1 7 3 5
23 Simplify (⁷⁄₉ ─ ⅔) + (⅓ + ⅖ ÷ ⅘) ⅓ ⅚ ¹¹⁄₁₂ ¹⁷/₁₈
If p varies inversely as the cube of q and q varies directly as the square of r, what is
24 the relationship between p and r? p varies inversely as r³ p varies inversely as ⁶√r p varies directly as r⁶ p varies inversely as r⁶
25 Evaluate (81^¾ ─ 27^⅓) / (3 x 2³) ⅛ ⅓ 3 1
26 Divide 6x² ─ 13x + 5 by 2x ─ 1 5x ─ 3 5x + 3 3x + 5 3x ─ 5
The time taken to do a piece of work is inversely proportional to the number of men
employed. If it takes 25 men to do a piece of work in 6 days, how many men are
27 required to do the work in 3 days? 35 60 45 50
28 Factorize completely 4abx ─ 2axy ─ 12b²x + 6bxy 2x(3b ─ a) (2b ─y) 2x(a ─ 3b) (y ─ 2b) 2x(2b ─ a) (3b ─y) 2x(a ─ 3b) (2b ─y)
29 If log₁₀2 = 0.3010 and log₁₀3 = 0.4771, evaluate Log₁₀4.5 0.9542 0.3010 0.4771 0.6532
30 Factorize completely ac ─ 2bc ─ a² + 4b² (a ─ 2b)(c + a ─ 2b) (a ─ 2b)(c + a + 2b) (a ─ 2b)(c ─ a + 2b) (a ─ 2b)(c ─ a ─ 2b)
31 What are the integral values of x which satisfy the inequality ─1 < 3 ─ 2x ≤ 5? (─2, ─1, 0, 1) (0, 1, 2) (1, 0, ─1) (─1, 0, 1)
32 Find the remainder when 3x³ + 5x² ─11x + 4 is divided by x + 3 4 ─4 ─1 1
The length a person can jump is inversely proportional to his weight. If a 20kg
33 person can jump 1.3m, find the constant of proportionality 15 60 20 26
34 Find the values of x and y respectively if 3x ─ 5y + 5 = 0 and 4x ─7y + 8 = 0 ─4, ─5 ─5, ─4 4, 5 5, 4
35 Find the range of values of x satisfying the inequalities 5 + x ≤ 8 and 13 + x ≥ 7 3 ≤ x ≤ ─3 ‒6 ≤ x ≤ 6 ‒6 ≤ x ≤ ─ 3 ‒6 ≤ x ≤ 3
36 If ─2 is the solu on of the equa on 2x + 1 ─ 3c = 2c + 3x ─ 7, find the value of c 1 4 3 2
37 Without using tables, evaluate ³√(343) x (0.14)⁻¹x √(25)⁻¹ 7 5 12 10
38 Make r the subject of the formula: x/(r + b) = b/r r = b/x─b r = b²/x+b r = b/x+b r = b²/x─b
Find the integral values x and y satisfying the inequality 3y + 5x ≤ 15 , given that y >
39 0, y < 3 and x > 0. (1, 1), (3, 1), (2, 2) (1, 1), (2, 1), (1, 3) (1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3) (1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1)
40 Divide m³ˣ ─26m²ˣ + 156mˣ ─ 216 by m²ˣ ─ 24mˣ + 108 mˣ ─ 6 mˣ ─ 4 mˣ ─ 18 mˣ ─ 2
A girl saves ₤100.00 in her first year of work and each year saves ₤20.00 more than
41 in the preceding year. In how many years will she save ₤5800? 40 years 58 years 29 years 20 years
42 Solve the equation m² + n² = 29, m + n = 7 (5, 2) and (5, 3) (5, 3) and (3, 5) (2, 3) and (3, 5) (2, 5) and (5, 2)
(2t ─ 3v + 5)(2t ─ 3v ─
43 Factorize 4t² ─ 9v² + 20t +25 5) (2t ─ 3v)(2t + 3v) (2t + 5)(2t + 9v +5) (2t ─ 3v + 5)(2t + 3v +5)
44 If α and β are the roots of the equa on 3x² + 5x ─ 2 = 0, Find the value of ¹/α + ¹/β ⅔ ─⁵⁄₂ ½ ⁵⁄₂
45 Solve the inequality 2 ─ x > x² x > ─1s or x < ─2 ─1 < x < 2 x > 2 or x < ─1 ─2 < x < 1
46 Divide 4x³ ─ 3x + 1 by 2x ─ 1 2x² ─ x + 1 2x² ─ x ─ 1 2x² + x + 1 2x² + x ─ 1
47 Factorize completely X² + 2xy + y² + 3x + 3y ─ 18 (x ─ y ─ 6)(x ─ y ─ 3) (x ─ y ─ 6)(x + y ─ 3) (x + y + 6)(x + y + 3) (x + y + 6)(x + y ─ 3)
Three consecutive positive integers k, l, m are such that l² = 3(k + m). Find the value
48 of m. 4 5 6 7
49 If b³ = a⁻² and ³√c = (√a)b, express c in terms of a. a^⁻³⁄₂ √a a^³⁄₂ √1/a
50 Factorize r² ─ r(2p + q) + 2pq (r ─2q)(2r ─ p) (r ─q)(r + p) (2r ─q)(r + p) (r ─q)(r ─ 2p)
When the expression tm² + sm + 1 is divided by (m ─ 1), it has a remainder 2 and
51 when divided by (m + 1) the remainder is 4. Find t and s respectively 2, ─1 ─2, 3 3, ─2 ─1, 2
52 Divide 2x³ + 11x² + 17x + 6 by 2x + 1 2x² + 5x ─ 6 2x² + 5x + 6 x² ─ 5x + 6 x² + 5x + 6
53 Solve for n if √(5ⁿ) = ³√25 ³⁄₂ ⁴⁄₉ ⅔ ⁴∕₃
 Find the range of values of m for which the roots of the equation 3x² ─ 3mx + (m² ─
54 m ─ 3) = 0 are real. ─4 ≤ m ≤ 8 ─1 ≤ m ≤ 7 ─3 ≤ m ≤ 9 ─2 ≤ m ≤ 6
55 Make y the subject of the formula x = (a + y)/(a ‐ y) y = (ax ‐ 1)/(x + 1) y = ax/(a + 1) y = (2a ‐ x)/(a + x) y = a(x ‐ 1)/(x + 1)
(1/ 3x + 1) + (3/ 2x ─
56 Express in partial fractions 11 + 2/ (6x² ─ x ─ 1) (1/ 2x + 1) + (3/ 3x ─ 1) (3/ 3x + 1) + (1/ 3x ─ 1) (3/ 3x + 1) ─ (1/ 2x ─ 1) 1)
57 Find the range of values of x which satisfies the inequality 12x² < x + 1 ¹/₄ < x < ‒¹/₃ ‒¹/₄ < x < ‒¹/₃ ¹/₄ < x < ¹/₃ ‒¹/₄ < x < ¹/₃
58 What value of g will make the expression 4x² ─ 18xy + g a perfect square? 9y²/4 9 81y² 81y²/4
59 Factorize completely the expression abx² + 6y ─ 3ax ─2byx (ax ─2y)(bx ─ 2y) (bx ─2y)(ax ─ 3a) (ax ─2y)(ax ─ b) (ax ─2y)(bx ─ 3)
60 Solve the following inequality (x ─3)(x ─ 4) ≤ 0 3≤x<4 3<x<4 3<x≤4 3≤x≤4
Find a positive value of p if the expression 2x² ─ px + p leaves a remainder of 6 when
61 divided by x ─ p 9 6 4 2
62 Simplify (x² ─ 1)/ (x² + 2x² ─ x ─ 2) x + 2/ x─2 1/ x─2 (x + 1)/(3x ‒ 2) (x + 1)/(3x + 2)
63 Express in partial fraction (5x ─12)/ (x ─ 2)(x ─ 3) (4/ x─2) + (5/ x─3) (5/ x─2) + (4/ x─3) (2/ x─2) ─ (3/ x─3) (2/ x─2) + (3/ x─3)
64 Factorize a²x ─ b²y ─ b²x ─ a²y (x + y)(a ─ b) (y ─ x)(a + b)(a ─ b) (x ─ y)(a ─ b)(a + b) (x + y)(a + b)(a ─ b)

65 Find the values of r and t such that (x ─ 1) and (x ─ 3) are factors of rx³ + tx² + 11x ─ 6 6, ─1 1, 6 ─1, ─6 1, ─6
66 If √(x² + 9) = x + 1, solve for x 1 3 5 4
67 Which of the following is a factor of 15 + 7x ─ 2x² x+3 x─3 x+5 x─5
68 Solve the following equation (3x ─ 2)(5x ─ 4) = (3x ─ 2)² ⅔, ⅘ ‒⅔, 1 1 ⅔, 1
69 Make x the subject of the relation 1 + ax/ 1 ─ ax = P/q p + q/ a(p ─ q) pq/ a(p ─ q) p ─ q/ apq p ─ q/ a(p + q)
70 Solve the following simultaneous equation for x. x² + y ─ 5 = 0, y ─ 7x + 3 = 0 2, 4 ─2, 4 ─1, 8 1, ─8
71 Solve the inequality y² ─ 3y > 18 y > ─3 or y < 6 y < ─3 or y < 6 y < ─3 or y > 6 ‒3 < y < 6
72 Divide the expression x³ + 7x² ─ x ─ 7 by ─1 + x² x ─ 14 x³ + 7x x─7 x+7
73 Given that x² + y² + z² = 50 and x = 5, √y = 2, find z ─3 ⅓ 23
74 Make t the subject of the formula s = ut + ½at² ¹/ₐ{u ± √(u² + 2as)} ¹/ₐ{u ± √(u² ─ 2as)} ¹/ₐ{─u ± √(u + 2as)} ¹/ₐ{─u ± √(u² ─ 2as)}
75 Find all values of x satisfying the inequality ─11 ≤ 4 ─ 3x ≤ 28 7 ≤ x ≤ ─5 5 ≤ x ≤ ─5 8 ≤ x ≤ ─5 ─8 ≤ x ≤ 5
76 If x + 1 is a factor of x³ + 3x² + kx + 4, find the value of K. ─8 ─6 8 6
(m ─ 3n + 3r)(3m ─ 3n (3m ─ n + 3r)(3m ─ n ─
77 Factorize 9m² ─ n² + 6nr ─ nr² ─ 3r) (m ─ n ─ r)(3m ─ n ─ 3r) (3m ─ n + 3r)(m ─ 2n ─ 3r) 3r)
78 Resolve 3/ x²+x─2 (1/ x ─ 2) ─ (1/ x + 3) (1/ x + 1) ─ (1/ x + 3) (1/ x + 1) ─ (1/ x + 2) (1/ x ─ 1) ─ (1/ x + 2)
79 Factorize 1 ─ (a ─ b)² (1 + a ─ b) (1 + a + b)(1 + a + b) (1 ─ a ─ b)(1 ─ a ─ b) (1 + a ─ b)(1 ─ a + b)
80 If g(x) = x² + 3x + 4, find g(x + 1) x ─2 x² + 4 x² ‐ 5x ‐ 8 x² + 5x + 8
81 Evaluate 313₄ ─ 131₄ + 333₄ 123₄ 221₄ 1312₄ 1121₄
82 If 641ₓ + 156ₓ = 807ₓ, the number base x is 11 8 10 9
83 Simplify 4⅓ ─ (2½ ─ 1⅗) ⁷⁄₃₀ 2½ 3¹⁄₁₀ 3¹³⁄₃₀
84 The sum of the prime numbers between 1 and 15 is 40 43 42 41
85 The number 15.5714275, correct to 5 decimal places 15.57100 15.57140 15.57142 15.57143
The difference between 0.003468 correct to three significant figures and 0.003468
86 correct to four decimal places is 0.000001 0.00001 0.0003 0.00003
87 The value of √42,000 correct to three significant figures is 64.8 648 20.5 205
88 Convert the 110101₂ to base ten. 23 35 49 53
The number 537,036 was corrected to 537,000. Which of the following can exactly
describe the degree of approximation used? I. to 3 significant figures II. to 4
89 significant figures III. to the nearest hundred IV. to the nearest thousand I and III only II and IV only I, II and III only I, II, III and IV
90 Which of the following is equal to ¹² ⁸⁄₄₉ 2³ x 4² x 7² 2² x 4² x 7ˉ² 2³ x 4³ x 7ˉ² 2³ x 4² x 7ˉ²
91 Simplify (0.064)^ˉ¹⁄₃ ¼ 4 2 2½
92 The value of x which satisfies the equation 9² ˣ/9³ˣ = 3 2 ─2 ½ ─0.5
93 If log₁₀6 = 0.778 and log₁₀3 = 0.477, evaluate log₁₀54 3.369 2.745 1.304 1.732
94 Express y in terms of p and q if log p = 0.5 logy + 2log q pq² p/q² √p/q p²/q⁴
95 Evaluate 0.00557/ 0.310, leaving your answer in standard form. 17.97 x 10ˉ¹ 17.97 x 10³ 17.97 x 10ˉ² 17.97 x 10ˉ³
96 The square of 3 ─√2 is 7 13 ─ 6√2 6√2 11 ─ 6√2
97 If √5 = 2.236, find the value of 2√5 without using tables 3.542 2.472 4.427 4.472
98 Find the value of n if log ₄n = 4.5 128 256 64 512
99 Simplify (√8 - √2)/(√8 + √2) ²/₃ ¹/₂ √2 ¹/₃
A student measured the length of a certain bar as 50cm, which exceeded the actual
100 length by 20%. The actual length of the bar was 20 21.2 40 41.7
101 Simplify (2⅔ x 1½) / 4⅘ 1¼ 1⅙ ⅘ ⅚
102 Simplify (√6 + 2)² ─ (√6 ─ 2)² √6 16√6 2√6 8√6
103 Evaluate 21/9 to 3 significant figures 2.32 2.31 2.30 2.33
If X = {prime factor of 84} and Y = {prime factor of 315}, the elements of X ꓴ Y and X
104 ꓵ Y are respectively {3, 7} and {3, 4, 5, 7, 9} {5, 7} and {3, 4, 5, 7} {2, 7} and {2, 3, 5, 7} {3, 7} and {2, 3, 5, 7}
S and T are two sets such that n(S ꓴ T) is 50, n(S) is 40, and n(T) is 18. what is n(S ꓵ
105 T)? 32 108 58 8
If the universal set U = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10}, Y = {2, 3, 6, 9}, and Z = {1, 2, 4, 6,
106 10}, which of the following is equal to (Y ꓴ Z)' ? YꓴZ (Y' ꓴ Z') (Y ꓵ Z)' (Y' ꓵ Z')
In a class of 45 students, every student has to offer either Biology or Commerce or
both. If 25 students offer Biology while 34 offer Commerce, how many student offer
107 both subjects? 20 15 11 14
108 The universal set U has subsets M and N such that M ₵ N. The set of M ꓵ (M ꓵ N)' is N M U Ø
33 of the students in a class play either football or table tennis. If 22 students play
109 football and 18 play table tennis, how many students play football only? 7 11 17 15
 If the universal set U = {c, a, t, a, l, o, g, u, e}; X = {c, a, t}, Y = {a, a, o, u, e} and Z = {c,
t, l, g}, which of the following statements are correct? I. n(Y ᴗ Z) = n(U) II. (X ᴗ Y ᴗ Z)'
110 = Ø III. Y' = Z II and III only I and II only I and III only I, II, and III
The universal set U is the set of all integers and the subsets P, Q and R of U are given
111 as P = {x : x > 0}, Q = {x : x is odd}, R = { ─5 ≤ x < 5}. Q ꓵ R is given by {─5, ─3, ─1, 1, 3, 5} {1, 3, 5} {0, 1, 3, 5} {─5, ─3 ─1, 1, 3}
The universal set U is the set of all integers and the subsets P, Q and R of U are given
112 as P = {x : x > 0}, Q = {x : x is odd}, R = { ─5 ≤ x < 5}. P' ꓵ R is given by {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} {1, 2, 3, 4} {─5, ─4 ─3, ─2, ─1} {─5, ─4, ─3 ─2, ─1, 0}
The universal set U is the set of all integers and the subsets P, Q and R of U are given
113 as P = {x : x > 0}, Q = {x : x is odd}, R = { ─5 ≤ x < 5}. (P ꓵ Q) is {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5} {─10, ─8, ─6, ─2, 0} Ø an infinite set
114 If log₁₀2 = 0.3010 and log₁₀7 = 0.8451, evaluate log₁₀280 1.4071 3.4471 1.4471 2.4471
115 Evaluate (81.91 + 99.44) /(20.09 + 36.16) correct to 3 significant places 3.20 3.24 3.23 3.22
An operation * is defined on the set of real numbers by a * b = ab + 2(a + b+ 1). Find
116 the identity element 2 1 ─2 ─1
A binary operation * on the set of rational numbers is defined as x * y = (x² ─ y²) ÷
117 2xy. Find ─6 * 4 ⁵/₁₂ ¹⁷⁄₁₅ ‒¹⁷⁄₁₅ ‒⁵/₁₂
118 Find m if 451₆ ─ m₇ = 305₆ 142₇ 611₇ 62₇ 116₇
119 If 321₄ is divided by 23₄ and leaves a remainder R, what is the value of R? 3 0 1 2
120 Simplify 213₄ x 23₄ 10321₄ 10332₄ 13213₄ 12231₄
Given: S = {Even numbers between 0 and 30}, T = {Multiples of 6 between 0 and 30},
121 V = {Multiples of 4 between 0 and 30}. Find (T ꓴ V)ᶜ {0, 2, 6, 22, 26} {0, 10, 14, 18, 26} {2, 4, 14, 24, 26} {2, 10, 14, 22, 26}
122 The addition of four numbers is 1214₅. Find the average expressed in base 5? 411₅ 401₅ 114₅ 141₅
123 Simplify √98 ─ √50 /√32 1 3 ¼ ½
124 Find(¹⁄₀.₀₆ ÷ ¹⁄₀.₀₄₂)⁻¹, to three decimal places 1.349 1.430 1.428 1.429
125 If y varies directly as √n and y = 9 when n = 9, find y when n = ¹⁷⁄₉ √3 4 27 √17
Evaluate (0.21 x 0.072 x 0.00056) ÷ (0.008 x 1.68 x 0.062) correct to four significant
126 figures 0.00116 0.1016 1016 0.01016
An operation * is defined on the set of real numbers by a * b = a + b+ 1. If the
127 identity element is 1, Find the inverse of the element 2 under *. 4 0 ─4 ─2
128 Evaluate 21.05374 ─ 1.6742 x 0.43 to three decimal places. 21.343 20.333 20.758 20.334
129 Simplify (³√(64r³))⁻¹ 8r 4r ⅛r ¼r
Let M = {1, 2, u, v, w, x} N = {2, 3, u, v, w, 5, 6, y} and L = {2, 3, 4, v, x, y}. Determine
130 (M ─N) ꓵ L φ {x, y} {1, x} {x}
131 If X344₆ ─ 23X2₆ = 2XX2₆, find the value of digit X 2 3 4 5
132 If (2√3 ─ √2) ÷ (√3 + 2√2) = p + q√6, find the values of p and q respectively. 2, ⅗ ⅖, 1 1, ─2 ─2, 1
Evaluate (2.813 x 10⁻³ x 1.063) ÷ (5.637 x 10²), reducing each number to three
133 significant figures and leaving your answer in three significant figures 0.0535 0.529 0.535 0.0529
A binary operation * is defined by a * b = a ᵇ. If a * 2 = 2 ─ a, Find the possible values
134 of a. 1, ─1 2, ─2 1, 2 1, ─2
Find the inverse of p under the binary operation * defined by p* q = p + q ─pq,
135 where p and q are real numbers and zero is the identity p/ p+1 p⁻¹ p p/ p─1
A binary operation * is defined by m * n = mn + m + n for any real number m and n.
136 If the identity element is zero, Find the inverse of 2 under this operation. ─½ ½ ⅔ ‒⅔
137 If 2₉ x (W3)₉ = 3₅ x (W3)₅, find the value of W. 4 3 2 1
If U ={1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} T = {3, 4, 5} V = {2, 4, 6} W = {1, 2, 3, 4}, list the elements of (T ꓴ
138 V)' ꓵ W. φ {1, 2, 3, 4} {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} {1}
139 If (a²b⁻³c)^³⁄₄ ÷ (a⁻¹b⁴c⁵) = aᴾbᴿcᵀ, what is the value of p + 2r? ⁵⁄₂ ⁵⁄₄ ²⁵⁄₄ ─10
A group of market women sells at least one yam, plantain, and maize. 12 of them
sell maize, 10 of them sell yam, and 14 sell plantain. 5 sell plantain and maize, 4 sell
yam and maize, 2 sell yam and plantain only while 3 sell the three items. How many
140 women are in the group? 14 18 20 25
141 If m*n = (m/n) ─ (n/m) for m, n, eA, evaluate ─3 * 4 ‒⁷⁄₁₂ ²⁵⁄₁₂ ‒²⁵⁄₁₂ ⁷⁄₁₂
142 Evaluate [(1/0.06) ÷ (1/0.036)]⁻¹ correct to two decimal places. 1.70 1.66 1.25 1.67
143 Find the value of D if D/ (√3 + √2) = D√(3 ─ 2) √3 2 3 √2
144 If 1011₂ + R₇ = 25₁₀, solve for R 25 24 14 20
Given that log₄(b─1) + log₄(½a) = 1 and log₂(b+1) + log₂a = 2, solve for a and b
145 respectively ─3, ─2 2, 3 3, 2 ─2, ─3
A man is paid r naira per hour for normal work and double rate for overtime. If he
does a 35─hour week which includes q hours of over me, what is his weekly earning
146 in naira? q(35 + r) q(35r ─ q) r(35 + q) None of the above
The binary operation * is defined by x * y = xy ─ y ─ x for all real values x and y. If x *
147 3 = 2 * x, find x. 10 0 ─1 1
148 If p is a positive real number, find the range of values for which 1/3x + ½ > ¼x. x>0 0<x<4 >─⅙ 0<x<⅙
149 if x * y = x + y + xy, find x when (x*2) + (x*3) = 68 24 22 ─12 ─21
Two binary operations * and Ꚛ are defined as m * n = mn ─ n ─ 1 and m Ꚛ n = mn +
150 n ─ 2 for all real numbers m, n. find the value of 3 Ꚛ (6 * 3) 60 45 57 54
151 Simplify log₂ 96 ─ 2log₂ 6 log₂3 ─ 2 2 ─ log₂3 log₂3 ─ 3 3 ─ log₂3
152 Given that logₐ2 = 0.693 and logₐ3 = 1.097, find logₐ13.5 2.790 1.404 1.790 2.598
153 Find the value of (0.007)³ + (0.004)³ in standard form 2.8 x 10⁻⁷ 4.07 x 10⁻⁹ 4.07 x 10⁻⁸ 4.07 x 10⁻⁷
154 Evaluate 64.853² ─ 35.716² correct to 3 significant figures 2970 2913 2910 2930
155 If (1P03)₄ = 115₁₀ 0 1 2 3
156 Convert 7.4115946 to 5 decimal places 7.41200 0.74115 7.41160 7.41159
157 Express the product of 0.0015 and 0.012 in standard form 18 x 10⁻⁵ 1.8 x 10⁻⁴ 18 x 10⁻⁷ 1.8 x 10⁻⁵
158 If S = (x: x² = 9, x > 4), then S is equal to {0} 0 {φ} φ
159 Given that for sets A and B in a universal set E, A ⊆ B then Aꓵ (A ꓵ B)' is A B E φ
160 Given that √2 = 1.414, find without using tables, the value of 1/√2 0.667 0.301 0.141 0.707
A binary operation * is defined on the set of all positive integers by a*b = ab for all
161 positive integers a, b. Which of the following properties does NOT hold? Direct Closure Identity Inverse
162 Simplify √48 ─ 9/√3 + √75 18√3 8√3 5√3 6√3
163 Solve without using tables log₅ (62.5) ─ log₅ (½) 8 5 4 3
164 Change 71₁₀ to base 8 17₈ 71₈ 106₈ 107₈
165 If log₃y + log₃x² = 4 4/x 4/ log₃x² 9/x 4 ─ log₃x²
166 Evaluate 3523 ÷ 0.05 correct to 3 significant figures 705 70, 400 70,460 70, 500
167 Simplify 5√18 ─ 3√72 + 4√50 12√4 4√17 17√4 17√2
168 If x = 3 ─ √3, find x² + 36/x² 9 18 27 24
If x = (all prime factors of 44) and y = (all prime factors of 60), the elements of x ꓴ y
169 and x ꓵ y respectively are (2, 4, 3, 5, 11) and (4) (4, 3, 5, 11) and (3, 4) (2, 5, 11) and (2) (2, 3, 5, 11) and (2)
If U = (0, 2, 3,6, 7, 8, 9, 10) is the universal set. E = (0, 4, 6, 8, 10) and F = is odd. Find
170 (E ꓵ F), where means (x:x² = 2⁶), x the complement of a set (8) (0) U φ
If the binary operation * is defined by m * n = mn + m + n for any real number m and
171 n, find the identity of the elements under this operation. e=2 e = ─2 e=1 e=0
172 Simplify [(1.25 x 10⁴) x (2.0 x 10⁻¹)] ÷ (6.25 x 10⁵) 2.0 x 10⁻¹ 5.0 x 10⁻³ 5.0 x 10⁻² 4.0 x 10⁻³
173 Express 62 ÷ 3 as a decimal correct to 3 significant figures 20.67 20.6 20.667 20.7
174 Simplify 3⅓ ─1¼ x ⅔ +1⅖, to an approximated answer 1 2 3 4
175 In a class of 80 students, 50 speak Yoruba while 25 speak Hausa and 10 students 45 7 30 15
176 Simplify 3log₆9 + log₆12 + log₆64 ─ log₆72 log₆7776 log₆6 7776 5
177 Correct 263.34(3 x 10⁻³)² to 4 significant figures 0.00237 0.0024 0.00237006 0.002370
178 Simplify ³√(64p⁶)^½ ½p 1/2p 2/p 2p
When two straight lines intersect? I. adjacent angles are equal II. adjacent angles are
supplementary III. Vertically opposite angles are equal IV. vertically opposite angles
179 are supplementary. Which of the above statements are true? I and III only II and IV only I and IV only II and III only
The sides AB and AC of a triangle ABC are produced to D and E respectively such that
180 DBC = 135° and BCE = 85°. Find the value of BAC. 55° 90° 65° 40°
The diagonals bisect the
Opposite angles are The diagonals bisect angles through which The diagonals are
181 Which of the following statements about a rhombus is not necessarily true? equal each other they pass equal
The exterior angles of a quadrilateral are given as x, 2x + 5, x + 15 and 3x ─ 10. The
182 value of x is 51.86° 60° 61.43° 50°
The size of each interior angle of a regular polygon with n sides is 160°. The value of
183 n is 12 14 16 18
Four of the five interior angles of a pentagon are equal. If the size of the first angle is
184 100°, then the size of each of the four equal angles is 115° 120° 136° 110
A triangle has two of its angles specified as 45° and 45°. Which of the following is
(are) true? It is I. an equilateral triangle II. an isosceles triangle III. A right ─angled
185 triangle I only II only I and III only II and III only
X is a variable point that is equidistant from two parallel lines PQ and RS of equal
186 lengths such that PQRS forms a rectangle. If XPQ = 25°, then RXS is 65° 25° 50° 130°
Which of the following specified sets of data is not necessarily sufficient for the Two sides and an Two sides and a right
187 construction of a triangle? Three sides included angle angle Three angles

Pair of lines on
opposite sides of LN Pair of parallel line on
Line parallel to LN and and parallel to it, each Line distance 10cm from one side of LN and
188 The locus of a point which is 5cm from the line LN is a 5cm from LN distance 5cm from LN LN and parallel to LN parallel to LN
In a triangle ABC, the bisector of BAC meets BC at D. The line AB is produced to E
189 and the bisector of EBC meets AD at F. If BAC is 52° and BDF = 70°. Calculate BFD 37° 68° 75° 42°
190 The angle of a quadrilateral are 4x, x + 10, 2x ─ 30 and 3x + 20. the value if x is 28° 63° 40° 36°
The ratio of the interior angle to the exterior angle in a regular polygon is 4 : 1. The
191 number of sides in the polygon is 5 6 8 10
A regular polygon with (2m + 1) sides has each interior angle equal to 144°. The
192 value of m is 5 8 10 4¹⁄₂
A variable point P (x, y) traces a graph in a two dimensional plane . (0, 3) is one
position of P. If x increases by 1 unit, and y increases by 4 units. The equation of the
193 graph is ─3y = 4 + x ʸ⁄ᵪ = ‐³⁄₄ 4y = ─3 + x y + 3 = 4x
A straight line y = mx meets the curve y = x² ─ 12x + 40 in two dis nct points. If one
194 of them is (5, 5), find the other (8, 8) (8, 5) (7, 7) (7, 5)
Find the equation of the straight line through ( ─2, 3) and perpendicular to 4x + 3y ─
195 5 = 0 3x ─ 3y ─ 11 = 0 5x + 4y + 3 = 0 3x + 2y ─ 18 = 0 3x ─ 4y + 18 = 0
If the angle of a sector of a circle with radius 11 cm is 120°, find the perimeter of the
196 sector. 40cm 43cm 48cm 45cm
197 If line p = 5x + 3 is parallel to line p = wx + 5, find the value of w. 7 3 6 5
Find the area of a triangle PQR where /PQ/ = 36cm, /QR/ = 15cm and angle PQR =
198 90°. 220cm² 250cm² 240cm² 270cm²
If the angles of a quadrilateral are (3y + 20)°, (2y + 30)°, (y + 20)° and 4y°. Find the
199 value of y 12° 30° 42° 29°
200 In a triangle PQR, q = 10cm, r = 8 cm and Cos P = ¹ ⁄₁₆. Calculate the value of P 10cm 164cm √92cm √154cm
 The interior angles of a quadrilateral are (x + 15)°, (2x ─ 45)°, (x ─ 30)° and (x + 5)°.
201 Find the value of the least interior angle . 112° 32° 83° 53°
202 If the two smaller sides of a right angled triangle are 4cm and 5cm, find its area. 10cm² 8cm² 24cm² 10cm²
If the hypotenuse of a right angled isosceles triangle is 2cm, what is the area of the
203 triangle? 2√2cm² √½cm² √2cm² 1cm²
WX and YZ are two parallel lines. If the coordinates of W, X, Y, Z are (1, q), (3, 5), (4,
204 4), (5, 4q) respectively, Find the value of q. 1 3 4 2
PQRS is a cyclic quadrilateral and the diagonals PR and QS intersect at T. If SPR = 42°
205 and PTQ = 95°, calculate PRQ 145° 95° 61° 53°
Two chords AB and DE of a circle when produced meet at F. If FAE = 30° and AFD =
206 32°, what is DBF? 7° 57° 94° 118°
The two parallel sides of a trapezium are 6cm and 12cm and are separated by a
207 distance of 5cm. The area of the trapezium is 60cm² 40cm² 25cm² 45cm²
One of the diagonals of a rhombus is 15cm long. If the rhombus has an area of
208 60cm², the length of the other diagonal is 4cm 12cm 5cm 8cm
An open rectangle wooden box of internal depth 40cm has a base of internal
dimensions 50cm by 25cm. If the box is made of wood of thickness 1cm. The total
209 volume of wood in the box is 7,908cm³ 9,888cm³ 8,224cm³ 7,564cm³
An open rectangle wooden box of internal depth 40cm has a base of internal
dimensions 50cm by 25cm. Find the cost to the nearest naira of painting the box if it
210 costs ₦100 to one square metre ₦855 ₦85 ₦100 ₦79
The arc of a circle of radius 6.1cm subtends an angle of 45° at the center of the
211 circle. If π = ²²∕₇, the length of the arc is 4.4cm 8.8cm 6.0cm 4.8cm
212 The angle of a sector if a diameter 12cm is 75°. Find the area of the sector 11⁵∕₇ cm² 18³∕₇ cm² 25¹∕₇ cm² 23⁴⁄₇ cm²
A right circular cone has a radius of 15 cm and a vertical angle of 60°. The height of
213 the cone is 15√2 cm 15√3 cm 5√2 cm 5√3 cm
The ratio of the heights of two circular cylinders is 1:3 and the ratio of their base
214 radii is 5:4. the ratio of their volumes is 45:4 5:36 75:16 25: 48
Two chords AC and BD of a circle intersect inside the circle at E. If BAC = 32°, CAD =
215 42° and ABD = 70°. Find ACB 42° 70° 74° 36°
A cylindrical container if radius 10cm and height 20cm is filled to the brim with
water. A steel ball of radius 6cm is now dropped into the cylinder so that the excess
216 water flows out. How much water is left in the container? 288πcm³ 2000πcm³ 2.288πcm³ 1712πcm³
A cone of height 12cm has a volume of 300cm³. The volume of the cone with the
217 same radius but of height 8cm 300cm³ 250cm³ 146²⁄₃cm³ 200cm³
A solid sphere of radius 4cm has a mass of 64kg. What will be the mass of a shell of
218 the same metal whose internal and external radii are 2cm and 3cm respectively? 2.5 kg 1.25 kg 10 kg 5 kg
219 A cone of height 12cm has a volume of 616cm³. If π ₌ ²²⁄₇, the radius of the cone is 10.5cm 3.5cm 14cm 7cm
A cube and a cuboid have the same base area. The volume of the cube is 64 m³
220 while that of the cuboid is 80 m³. Find the height of the cuboid 2m 3m 6m 5m
The sides of a triangle are (x + 4)cm, xcm and (x ─ 4)cm, respec vely. If the cosine of
221 the largest angle is ⅕ find the value of x 20cm 28cm ⁸⁸⁄₇cm 24cm
A cone is formed by bending a sector of a circle having an angle of 270°. Find the
222 radius of the base of the cone if the diameter of the circle is 12cm. 1.75cm 2.21cm 3.5cm 4.5cm
A right circular cone has a base radius r cm and a vertical angle 2y°. The height of the
223 cone is r cos y° cm r sin y° cm r tan y° cm r cot y° cm
The angles of a polygon are given by x, 2x, 3x, 4x and 5x respectively. Find the value
224 of x 26° 33° 30° 36°
A circular arc subtends angle 160° at the centre of a circle of radius 12cm. Calculate
225 the area sector of the arc 120ꙥcm² 140 ꙥcm² 60ꙥcm² 64ꙥcm²

226 Calculate the volume of a cuboid of length 0.81cm, breadth 2.5cm and height 0.60cm 3.92cm³ 2.13cm³ 1.62cm³ 1.22cm³
A square tile has side 40cm. How many of these tiles will cover a rectangular floor of
227 length 8.2m and width 5.2m? 420 576 336 266½
A chord of a circle subtends an angle of 120° at the centre of a circle of diameter 4 √3
228 cm. calculate the area of the major sector. 16ꙥ cm² 36ꙥ cm² 4ꙥ cm² 8ꙥ cm²
A radius of a circle is increasing at the rate of 0.02 cms ˉ¹, find the rate at which the
229 area is increasing when the radius of the circle is 7cm. 0.75 cm²sˉ¹ 0.35 cm²sˉ¹ 0.53 cm²sˉ¹ 0.88 cm²sˉ¹
A cylindrical tank has a capacity of 6720 cm³. What is the depth of the tank if the
230 radius of its base is 30cm. 5.30cm 8.01cm 2.41cm 2.38cm
The angle of the sectors representing the numbers 5, 8, 12, 15, 20 on a pie chart are
231 respectively, 5°, 8°, 12°, 15°, 20° 15°, 24°, 36°, 45°, 60° 40°, 64°, 96°, 120°, 160° 30°, 48°, 72°, 90°, 120°
The distribution of grades in a mathematics examination taken by the class of 72
students is represented on a pie chart. If the angle of the sector representing the
number of students who scored the A grades is 60°, the actual number of A grades
232 scored is 6 8 9 12
The numbers 2, 5, 7, 8, 10, 15, and 13 are represented on a pie chart. The sum of the
233 angles representing all numbers equal to or greater than 8 is 228° 84° 48° 276°
If a 24─hour day is represented on a pie chart, what is the angle of the sector
corresponding to the period between 3pm on a Monday and 6am on the following
234 Tuesday? 270° 240° 180° 225°
 The distribution of a housewife's expenditure on four food items is as follows: item
A (₦80), Item B (₦45), Item C (₦30), item D (₦25). The sum of the angle of the
235 sectors representing the expenditure on Items B and D is 70° 90° 220° 140°
236 The following are measures of dispersion except mean deviation standard deviation range mode

In an experiment, the mean of 25 observations was 6. One of the observations,

237 which has the value of 30, was cancelled. The mean of the remaining observations is 3.5 4.5 4.8 5
The mean weights of three groups of students are 40kg, 45kg and 50kg respectively.
If the number of students in the groups are 45, 30 and 25 respectively, the mean
238 weight of all the students is 46kg 45kg 43kg 44kg
For the set of numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 10. The mean, mode, and median
239 respectively are 4.5, 4 and 4.5 5, 4 and 4 4.5, 4 and 5 5, 4 and 4.5
The mean age of a class of twenty school pupils is 13. If their teacher's age is
240 included, the mean becomes 14. the age of the teacher is 25yrs old 28yrs old 33yrs old 34yrs old
For the set of numbers 4, 6, 2, 10, 8, the difference between the range and the
241 variance is ─1 1 2 0
The heights of eight children are: 1.0m, 1.2m, 0.9m, 0.8m, 1.4m, 0.8m, 1.2m and
242 1.1m. The sum of the mean and range is 2.45 1.11 1.85 1.65
The following data were obtained from the analysis of six observations of a variable
x. n = 6, ∑x = 42, ∑x² = 348, ∑ |x─x| = 18, ∑ (x─x)² = 61. The mean deviation and the
243 variance are, respectively 2.3 and 5 0.4 and 3 3 and 1.17 3 and 10.17
The average age of the three children in a family is 9yrs. If the average age of their
244 parents is 39yrs, the average age of the whole family is 27yrs 20yrs 24yrs 21yrs
The letters of the word MISSISSIPPI are cut and placed in a bag. If one letter is drawn
245 randomly from the bag. The probability that it is neither an I nor an S is ⁸∕₁₁ ⁶⁄₁₁ ¹⁄₂ ³⁄₁₁
Two fair dice are thrown together. The probability that the sum of the outcomes is
246 at least 10 is ¹⁄₃₆ ¹⁄₄ ¹⁄₁₂ ¹⁄₆

A photograph is to be taken of seven people including a married couple. If the

247 married couple insists on sitting next to each other, the number of arrangements is 2520 5040 720 1440
How many different three─digit numbers can be formed using the integers 1 to 6 if
248 no integers occurs twice in a number? 100 60 240 120
Two cards are drawn, one after the other, with replacement from a pack of 52 cards
containing four aces and four queens. The probability that the cards are either both
249 aces or both queens is ⁴⁄₁₃ ²⁄₁₃ ²⁄₂₂₁ ²⁄₁₆₉
The probability of an event X is ² ⁄₃ and that of another event Y is ¹⁄₄. If the
250 probability of both X and Y is ¹ ⁄₆, the probability of either X or Y is 1 ¹⁄₃ ¹¹⁄₁₂ ³⁄₄
In how many different ways can the letters of the word GEOLOGY be arranged in
251 order? 5,040 720 2,520 1,260
252 Solve the equation (log₃a)² ‐ 6log₃a + 9 = 0 9 18 81 27
253 Evaluate (log₃27)/(log₃¹/₉) ¹/₅ 5 ³/₂ ‒³/₂
254 Solve for a if 5log(a + 9) = log 32 ‒11 11 7 ‒7
A resonance air column of length 30 cm resonates with a tuning fork of frequency
255 400 Hz. Ignoring end correction, the speed of sound in the air will be 320 ms⁻¹ 240 ms⁻¹ 160 ms⁻¹ 480 ms⁻¹
The rotating disc in a siren has 58 holes and makes 60 revs. per second. The
256 frequency of the sound emitted by the siren is 1.03 Hz 1740 Hz 2 Hz 3480 Hz
Water waves are generated by dropping stones at regular intervals at a point in a
pool of water. The first crest reaches another point, 18 m away, in 6 s. If the distance
257 between two successive crests is 1.5 m, the frequency of the wave is 8 Hz 1 Hz 4 Hz 2 Hz
A wave is represented by the equa on y = 0.80 sin [0.5π(x ─ 30t)], where x and y are
258 in cm and t is in second. The velocity of the wave is 20 cms⁻¹ 60 cms⁻¹ 15 cms⁻¹ 30 cms⁻¹
A wave is represented by the equa on y = 0.80 sin [0.5π(x ─ 30t)], where x and y are
259 in cm and t is in second. The wavelength of the wave is 0.5 cm 2 cm 0.25 cm 4 cm
The velocity of a sound wave traveling in air is 330 ms ⁻¹. If the period of the sound
260 wave is 10⁻⁵ s, the distance between rarefac on and an adjacent compression is 3.3 × 10⁻² cm 1.65 × 10⁻² cm 1.65 × 10⁻³ cm 3.3 × 10⁻³ cm
A vibrating plate is used to generate waves in a pool of water. The distance between
successive troughs is 14 cm and the crest travels from the vibrator to the edge of the
261 pool, 45 cm away, in 1.5 s. The frequency of the vibrator is 4.70 Hz 3.50 Hz 1.07 Hz 2.14 Hz
A rarefaction and an adjacent compression of a sound wave traveling in the air are
separated by a distance of 18 cm. If the velocity of sound in air is 330 ms ⁻¹, the
262 frequency to 3 significant figures is 459 Hz 458 Hz 916 Hz 917 Hz
The echo from a sound wave sent out from a ship towards the seabed is received on
the ship 3.6 s later. Taking the velocity of sound in water is 3.5 kms ⁻¹, the depth of
263 the sea is 3.75 km 7.5 km 3.15 km 6.3 km
A girl claps her hands at regular intervals such that the echo of a clap coincides with
the next clap. If her claps are reflected by the cliff 250 m away and the speed of
264 sound is 330 ms⁻¹. The frequency of clapping is 0.76 Hz 0.33 Hz 1.52 Hz 0.66 Hz
A woman shouts and receives the echo from a nearby hill 4s later. If the sound
emitted by the woman has a frequency of 500 Hz and wavelength of 2.4 m, how far
265 is she from the hill? 4800 m 600 m 1200 m 2400 m
Radio waves emitted from an antenna and reflected by an aircraft are picked up by a
radar 0.08 s after emission. If the speed of light is 3 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹, the distance of the
266 aircraft from the antenna is 18,000 km 12,000 km 6,000 km 24,000 km
 A sound pulse projected vertically downwards into the earth is reflected from
different layers of the earth such that the echoes are received after 2.5 s and 3.0 s. If
267 the speed of the pulse of 4500ms⁻¹, the distance between the layers is 6,750 m 5,625 m 2,250 m 1,125 m
A boy receives the echo of his clap reflected by a nearby hill 1.8 s later. If the speed
268 of sound in air is 340 ms⁻¹, how far is he from the hill? 756 m 378 m 612 m 306 m

The echo of a sound of wavelength 2.5 m and frequency 250 Hz emitted by a source
269 is heard at the source 2.0 s later. The distance of the source from the reflector is 345 m 100 m 1250 m 625 m
270 ________ is the phenomenon that does not apply to longitudinal waves. Refraction Interference Diffraction Polarization
To increase the To increase the To reduce the To reduce the effect
Which of the following justifies the covering of the walls and ceilings of a standard intensity of sound frequency of sound interference effect of of reverberations of
271 auditorium with perforated pads? waves waves sound waves sound waves
A sound wave moving at 340 ms⁻¹ in air approaches a pool of water in which its
wavelength is five times that of the wavelength in air. The speed of the wave in the
272 water is 34 ms⁻¹ 850ms⁻¹ 68 ms⁻¹ 1700 ms⁻¹
Which of the following waves exhibits both mechanical and transverse
273 characteristics? Radio waves Sound waves X‐rays Water waves
The frequency of the beats produced when two tuning forks of frequencies 456 Hz
274 and 542 Hz are sounded close to each other is 43 Hz 499 Hz 998 Hz 86 Hz
One of two identical tuning forks is loaded so the 15 beats per second are heard
when they are sounded together. If the natural frequency of the tuning forks is 281
275 Hz, the frequency of the loaded tuning fork is 133 Hz 148 Hz 296 Hz 266 Hz
276 The wavelength of the fundamental notes of a three ─meter─long guitar string is 1200 cm 150 cm 300 cm 600 cm
A stretched string has a fundamental frequency of 30 Hz. The number of overtones
277 between 30 Hz and 185 Hz is 4 7 6 5
A piano wire which is 40 cm long has a total mass of 10 g. The fundamental
278 frequency of the wire under a tension of 250 N is 250 Hz 185 Hz 500 Hz 125 Hz
The frequencies of the notes produced by two strings having the same length and
placed under the same tension are in the ratio 3: 5. The corresponding ratio of the
279 masses of the string is 6 : 10 10 : 6 9 : 25 25 : 9
The tension in a sonometer wire is nine times the initial. The ratio of the new
280 frequency to the initial frequency is 81 : 1 1 : 81 1:3 3:1
When the tension of a vibrating sonometer wire is increased in the ratio 16 : 1, the
281 velocity of the wave produced is Decreased 4 times Decreased 16 times Increased 16 times Increased 4 times
A string of length 50 cm and mass 10⁻³ kg vibrates in 5 loops. If the tension in the
282 string is 20 N, the frequency of vibration is 50 Hz 100 Hz 250 Hz 500 Hz
A vibrating sonometer wire under a tension of 40 N emits a note of frequency 150
283 Hz. If the tension is adjusted to 160 N, the new frequency is 75 Hz 150 Hz 600 Hz 300 Hz
The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe organ is 66 Hz. If the speed of sound in
284 air is 330 ms⁻¹, the length of the pipe is 40 cm 63 cm 80 cm 125 cm
If the speed of sound in air is 340 ms⁻¹, the frequency of the fundamental note of an
285 organ pipe 65 cm long, closed at one end is 87 Hz 175 Hz 65 Hz 131 Hz
In a resonance tube experiment performed with a vibrating tuning fork of frequency
450 Hz, the length of air column at first resonance is 60 cm. The velocity of sound in
286 air is 135 ms⁻¹ 540 ms⁻¹ 270 ms⁻¹ 1080 ms⁻¹
An organ pipe open at both ends has a fundamental frequency of 600 Hz. The
287 frequency of the third overtone is 900 Hz 1200 Hz 1800 Hz 2400 Hz
A stationary wave pattern is formed by a wave of frequency 25 Hz and velocity 75
288 cms⁻¹. The distance between adjacent nodes is 0.5 cm 1 cm 3 cm 1.5 cm
Transverse stationary waves of frequency 120 Hz are generated in a long, thin wire.
If the distance between successive nodes on the wire is 25 cm, the speed of the
289 waves is 240 ms⁻¹ 120 ms⁻¹ 30 ms⁻¹ 60 ms⁻¹
A progressive wave of frequency 30 Hz and speed 180 cms⁻¹ is reflected upon itself
such that a stationary wave is formed. The distance between a node and an adjacent
290 antinode is 12 cm 3 cm 6 cm 1.5 cm
two successive points
a node and an two successive points that are exactly in
291 A wavelength of a waveform can be defined as the distance between adjacent antinode successive nodes that are out of phase by π phase
Water particles move The wave velocity is the Water particles move
outwards from the distance covered by a vertically up and
Which of the following is true of a stick made to oscillate up and down in the middle Longitudinal waves centre of the water particle in one down but not
292 of a pool of water? are set up in the water disturbance second sideways
Stationary waves in a Stationary waves in a
293 The following are examples of transverse waves EXCEPT Ripples on water X‐rays vibrating string resonance tube

The distance between

a node and an The node is always It is formed when a wave It is formed whenever
adjacent antinode is stationary while the traveling in a medium is two waves traveling
equal to one quarter antinode is a point of reflected normally upon in opposite directions
294 Which of the following is not a characteristic of a stationary wave? of the wavelength maximum displacement itself interfere in a medium
It varies with the cross‐ It decreases as the
Which of the following is not true of the frequency of the note produced by a sectional area of the density of the string It increases with the It increases with the
295 vibrating string? string material increases tension in the string length of the string
 travels with the same
speed in air,
can be reflected, regardless of air
is a mechanical and refracted, diffracted is a longitudinal and pressure or frequency
296 Sound _______ transverse wave and polarized electromagnetic wave of the sound
The following phenomena are consequences of rectilinear propagation of light Sharp shadows of Image formation in a
297 EXCEPT opaque objects Eclipse of the sun pinhole camera Diffraction of light

virtual and formed by erect and formed by Diminished and

298 The image in a pinhole camera is Virtual and inverted dispersion refraction through a lens inverted
is brought to a sharper
299 If the size of the hole in a pinhole camera is increased, the image ____ becomes upright focus is enlarged becomes blurred

the image is real if the

the image is inverted and object is placed at any
a real image of the sun the image can always magnified if the object is distance greater than
can be observed at the be observed on a placed beyond the centre the focal length of the
300 In a concave mirror centre of curvature screen of curvature mirror
An object of height 40 cm is located at a distance of 60 cm from a pinhole camera. If
301 the distance of the pinhole from the screen is 45 cm, the height of the image is 53 cm 68 cm 15 cm 30 cm
The distance between the object and the pinhole of a pinhole camera is reduced by
302 a quarter. The size of the image of the object ____ is quartered remains the same is doubled is quadrupled
A ray of light strikes a plane mirror at an angle of incidence 37°. The angle made by
303 the reflected ray with the surface of the mirror is 74° 37° 143° 53°
A woman walks toward a plane mirror at a speed of 2 ms ⁻¹ along a direction normal
304 to the surface of the mirror. Her image moves toward her at a speed of 3 ms⁻¹ 1 ms⁻¹ 2 ms⁻¹ 4 ms⁻¹
An object is placed between two mirrors inclined at 60° to each other. The number
305 of images observed is 2 4 6 5
A man in a barber's shop sits between two parallel mirrors. Th number of images
306 observed by him will be 6 0 12 infinite
A ray of light is incident on a plane mirror. If the plane mirror is rotated through an
307 angle α, the reflected ray will be rotated through 4α α α/2 2α
Increases then
308 When temperature increases, the frequency of the sound from an organ pipe ____ decreases Remain unchanged Decreases Increases

directly proportional directly proportional to directly proportional

to the amplitude of the square of the directly proportional to to the square of the
309 Loudness of a note of sound is the wave velocity of the wave the velocity of the wave amplitude of the wave
An object is placed 36 cm from a concave mirror of a focal length of 12 cm. The
310 linear magnification of the image produced is 0 1 2 ¹/₂
A concave mirror positioned at a distance of 8 cm from an object gives a linear
311 magnification of 5. If the image is upright, the radius of curvature of the mirror is 13.33 cm 6.67 cm 10 cm 20 cm
An object is placed 18 cm in front of a concave mirror of a focal length of 54 cm. The real and 9 cm from the virtual and 9 cm from real and 18 cm from the virtual and 18 cm
312 image formed is mirror the mirror mirror from the mirror
An object of height 4.5 cm positioned 15 cm from a concave mirror produces an
313 image 45 cm from the mirror. The height of the image is 27 cm 3 cm 1.5 cm 13.5 cm
A concave mirror having a radius of 48 cm produces a real image six times the size of
314 the object. The distance of the object from the mirror is 12 cm 24 cm 14 cm 28 cm
If u and v are the object and image distances from a concave mirror of radius r, the
315 magnification can be expressed as (2u/r) ─ 1 (u/r) ─ 1 (v/r) ─ 1 (2v/r) ─ 1
A pin is positioned at 24 cm from a concave mirror of radius 42 cm. The
316 magnification of the image formed is 2.6 4.5 5.3 6.1
The image formed on a screen by a concave mirror of radius 40 cm is four times the
317 size of the object. The distance of the screen from the mirror is 75 cm 50 cm 25 cm 100 cm
A ray of light that passes through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is
318 reflected by the mirror at an angle of 180° 90° 45° 0°
The image of an object placed halfway between the principal focus and the pole of a At the centre of One‐half focal length One focal length
319 concave mirror will be located where? curvature behind the mirror At the principal focus behind the mirror
An object is placed 20 cm from a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm. The 17.1 cm in front of the 17.1 cm behind the 8.6 cm in front of the 8.6 cm behind the
320 image is located mirror mirror mirror mirror
An object is located at a distance of 25 cm from a concave mirror of radius of
321 curvature 40 cm. The separation between the object and its image is 50 cm 100 cm 125 cm 75 cm

between the principal

An enlarged image of an object is to be produced on a screen placed in front of a at the centre of beyond the centre of focus and the centre
322 concave mirror. The object must be positioned ____ curvature at the principal focus curvature of curvature

A real image of a pencil produced by a concave mirror is located midway between between the centre of beyond the centre of
323 the candle and the pole of the mirror. The pencil must have been positioned _____ curvature and the pole at the principal focus at the centre of curvature curvature
 It emerges from the It suffers no deviation It suffers no
Which of the following is not true of a ray of light which is incident on a rectangular It is partly reflected at slab parallel to the upon emergence at the displacement at the
324 glass slab which is located in air? the point of incidence incident ray opposite face of the slab point of emergence
is the angle of is the angle of
incidence whenever remains unchanged if is independent of the incidence beyond
total internal one of the two media speed of light in the which no light is
325 When a ray of light crosses from one medium to another, the critical angle ____ reflection occurs is changed media refracted
Layers of air close to
the road surface
When total internal Through the processes of having varying
Hot road surface being reflection occurs on reflection, refraction, and refractive indices in
326 Which of the following leads to the formation of a mirage? good reflectors of light the road surface diffraction hot weather
The speed of light in air is 3 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹. If the refractive index of water ⁴/₃, the speed
327 of light in water is 3.46 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹ 4.33 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹ 4.5 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹ 2.25 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹
The speed of light in a glass medium is 2.5 × 10 ⁸ ms⁻¹. If the speed of light in air is 3 ×
328 10⁸ ms⁻¹, the refractive index of the glass is 1.3 1.7 0.83 1.2
Light of wavelength 5 × 10⁻⁷ m has a speed of 3 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹in air. Its wavelength in
329 the glass of refractive index 1.5 is 6.66 × 10⁻⁷ m 7.50 × 10⁻⁷ m 5.00 × 10⁻⁷ m 3.33 × 10⁻⁷ m
An object is placed between two mirrors inclined at 180° to each other. The number
330 of images observed is 4 3 2 1
A ray of light traveling in air is incident at an angle of 45° on the surface of water of
331 refractive index ⁴/₃. The angle of refraction is 35° 29° 15° 32°
A ray of light traveling in air is incident at an angle of 60° on the surface of water of
332 refractive index ⁴/₃. The angle of refraction is 30° 35° 43° 41°
The speeds of light in air and in glass are 3.0 × 10 ⁸ ms⁻¹ and 1.5 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹
respectively. If the angle of refraction of a ray of light incident on an air/glass
333 interface is 30°, the sine of the angle of incidence is 0.57 1.00 0.35 0.83
A ray of light which is incident normally on an air glass interface is, upon refraction
334 in the glass, deviated through an angle of 90° 30° 45° 0°
335 The refractive index of a medium is 2. The critical angle is 60° 45° 90° 30°
336 The refractive index of a medium is 4. The critical angle is 21° 7° 28° 14°
The critical angle for light traveling from a transparent medium to air is measured as
337 30°. The refractive index of the medium is 1.5 1 0.5 2
The critical angle for light traveling from a transparent medium to air is measured as
338 60°. The refractive index of the medium is 0.84 0.67 1.42 1.15

A glass block of thickness d cm is placed on a coin. If the refractive index of the glass
339 is n, the apparent displacement of the coin to an observer directly above the glass is n/d dn² d/(d ─ n) d(n ─ 1)/n
When viewed vertically from above, a pool of water appears to be 2.5 m deep. If the
340 refractive index of water is ⁴/₃, the actual depth of the pool is 3.75 m 1.86 m 6.67 m 3.33 m
A fish is located at the bottom of a pond which is 3 m deep. By how much would the
fish appear to be displaced when viewed directly from above the pond if the
341 refractive index of water is ⁴/₃? 1.5 m 1m 2.25 m 0.75 m

Because the angle of Because the refractive Because the critical

Because it is reflection is equal to index of glass is greater angle of glass is less
342 Why is a 45° triangular glass prism used as a reflector of light? transparent the angle of incidence than 1 than 45°
An object placed 18 cm in front of a convex lens produces a virtual image of
343 magnification 4.0. The focal length of the lens is 18 cm 36 cm 12 cm 24 cm
An object placed close to a convex lens of focal length 10 cm produces a real image
344 that is five times the size of the object. The image distance from the lens is 120 cm 15 cm 30 cm 60 cm
To obtain a real image of magnification 5.5, the object distance from a converging
345 lens of focal length 30 cm is 50 cm 28 cm 71 cm 35.5 cm
An object is placed 8.5 cm from a converging lens of a focal length of 13 cm. The real, inverted and real, erect and virtual, erect and virtual, erect and
346 image formed is magnified magnified diminished magnified
What is the image distance of an object placed at a distance 2f from a converging
347 lens of focal length f? f/8 f/2 f 2f
An object is placed 36 cm from a converging lens. If a virtual image is formed which
348 is four times the size of the object, the focal length of the lens is 36 cm 24 cm 12 cm 48 cm
Magnified, virtual and Diminished, real and Diminished, virtual and Diminished, virtual
349 What is the nature of the image formed by a diverging lens? erect inverted inverted and erect

situated between the

350 The image of a real object formed by a diverging lens is always inverted real magnified object and the lens
The most suitable lens for a microscope objective is a lens with which of the
351 following focal length? ─2 cm +2 cm ─2 mm +2 mm
magnified, real and magnified, virtual and magnified, virtual,
352 The image in a simple microscope is inverted inverted magnified, real and erect erect
353 Which of the following waves has the shortest wavelength? Radio waves Ultraviolet rays Infrared rays X‐rays
An object is placed between two mirrors inclined at 30° to each other. The number
354 of images observed is 8 9 12 11
 The readiness to start The ability to The reluctance to keep The reluctance to
moving if in a state of overcome the earth's moving if already in change its velocity if
355 Which of the following defines the inertia of a body? rest gravitational pull motion in uniform motion
A bus traveling at a uniform speed of 120 kmh ⁻¹ spends 45 minutes moving from
356 point X to point Y along its route. The distance between X and Y is 270 km 180 km 45 km 90 km
A train with an initial velocity of 45 ms ⁻¹ is subjected to a uniform deceleration of 18
357 ms⁻². The time required to bring the train to a complete halt is 3s 1.5 s 5s 2.5 s
A body accelerates uniformly from rest at 7 ms⁻², its velocity after traveling a
358 distance of 14 m is 98 ms⁻¹ 196 ms⁻¹ 28 ms⁻¹ 14 ms⁻¹
A body accelerates uniformly from rest at 12 ms⁻² for 12 seconds and then
decelerates uniformly to rest in the next 10 seconds. The magnitude of the
359 deceleration is 12.0 ms⁻² 7.2 ms⁻² 28.8 ms⁻² 14.4 ms⁻²

A body undergoing a uniformly accelerated motion has two points (2 s, 15 ms ⁻¹) and
360 (6 s, 40 ms⁻¹) on the velocity time graph of its motion. The acceleration of the body is 1.25 ms⁻² 3.12 ms⁻² 12.50 ms⁻² 6.25 ms⁻²
A motorist traveling at 108 kmh⁻¹, on spotting a STOP road sign applies the brakes
such that under constant deceleration the car is brought to a stop within a distance
361 of 25 m. The magnitude of the deceleration is 6 ms⁻² 12 ms⁻² 9 ms⁻² 18 ms⁻²
A bike starting from rest with a uniform acceleration of 12 ms ⁻². The distance it
362 covers in the tenth second of its motion is 300 km 600 km 0.3 km 0.6 km
A fruit drops from the top of a tree 80 m tall. The time it takes the fruit to reach the
363 ground is 16 s 8s 2s 4s
A block of mass 16 kg at rest on a smooth horizontal surface is subjected to
364 horizontal force of 80 N. The velocity of the block after 6 s is 7.5 ms⁻¹ 45 ms⁻¹ 15 ms⁻¹ 30 ms⁻¹
A body of mass 5 kg initially at rest is subjected to two mutually perpendicular forces
365 of 5 N and 12 N. The acceleration of the body is 2.2 ms⁻² 1.3 ms⁻² 4.2 ms⁻² 2.6 ms⁻²
An 800 g mass initially at rest is subjected to a force F. If the object attains a speed of
366 10 ms⁻¹ after moving a distance 50 m, the value of F is 3.2 N 0.4 N 1.6 N 0.8 N
The acceleration of a body that slides down freely on a smooth plane inclined at 45°
367 to the horizontal is 8.67 ms⁻² 5.00 ms⁻² 10.0 ms⁻² 7.07 ms⁻²
A stationary block of mass 15 kg is set in motion by a force of 75 N. The object
368 attains a speed of 8 ms⁻¹ in time t. The value of t is 3.2 s 0.63 s 1.3 s 1.6 s
A boy of mass 60 kg stands on a weighing scale inside a lift. As the lift starts to
369 ascend with an acceleration of 2.5 ms⁻², its reading will be 70 kg 50 kg 51 kg 75 kg

A mass of 15 kg is suspended from the ceiling of a lift with a light inextensible string.
370 As the lift moves upward with an acceleration of 3 ms ⁻², the tension in the string is 97.5 N 52.5 N 105 N 195 N
A girl of mass 70 kg stands on a scale inside a lift that descends at constant velocity.
371 The reading indicated by the scale is greater than 70 kg less than 70 kg zero equal to 70 kg
An elevator of mass 1500 kg moves vertically downwards with an acceleration of 4.0
372 ms⁻². The tension in the suspending cable is 10 kN 21 kN 18 kN 9 kN
The property of a body due to which it resists any change in its state of rest or
373 motion is termed as velocity momentum force inertia
The push and pull that moves or tend to move, stops or tends to stop the motion of
374 a body is known as momentum velocity friction force
Find the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 250g of copper from
375 16°C to 116°C. (Assuming the specific heat capacity of copper = 400Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹) 12kJ 14kJ 16kJ 10kJ
A current of 8 A and a voltage of 25V are supplied to a copper calorimeter with a
specific heat capacity of 400Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ and the temperature rises to 50 K at 10 seconds.
376 Find the mass of copper used in the experiment. 0.1 g 10 g 1000 g 100 g
Determine the mass of steel with a specific heat capacity of 330Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹, if the
change in temperature from an immersion heater is 40 K with a current of 40 A from
377 33 V and the time taken is 3400 seconds. 1020 kg 680 kg 170 kg 340 kg
Estimate the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 250g of copper
378 from 40°C to 120°C. (Assuming the specific heat capacity of copper = 400Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹) 11.2kJ 12kJ 14.4kJ 8kJ
What quantity of heat is required to raise the temperature of 2000g of copper from
379 16°C to 116°C. (Assuming the specific heat capacity of copper = 400Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹) 78kJ 56kJ 40kJ 80kJ
If the thermal energy of metal with a specific heat capacity 40Jkg ⁻¹K⁻¹ is 40J, find the
thermal energy of another metal of the same temperature, if the specific heat
380 capacity of the metal is 0.3Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹. 0.552J 0.700J 0.275J 0.300J
A current of 120 A and a voltage of 200 V are supplied to a copper calorimeter with a
specific heat capacity of 400Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ and the temperature rises to 100 K at 5 seconds.
381 Find the mass of copper used in the experiment. 2 kg 1.5 kg 6 kg 3 kg
A car of mass 45 kg traveling at 72 kmh⁻¹ is brought to rest by applying the brakes.
Assuming that the kinetic energy of the car becomes transferred to internal energy
in four steel brake drum of equal mass, find the rise in the temperature of the drums
if the total mass is 5 kg. The specific heat capacity of steel is 450Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ and the work
382 done is equal on all four drums. 28.1 K 56.25 K 2K 4K

The following properties can be used to measure the temperature of a substance Electrical resistance of
383 EXCEPT a metallic conductor Volume of a gas Pressure of a gas Expansion of water
 the pouring of hot
liquids into thick glass the construction of the construction of
384 The thermal expansion of a solid is an advantage in _____ containers steel rail lines balance wheel of a watch large steel bridges
The lower fixed point corresponds to a length of 20 mm on the stem of a
thermometer while the upper fixed point corresponds to 160 mm. The temperature
385 corresponding to a length of 52 mm is 11.4 °C 15 .8 °C 25.8 °C 22.9 °C
The two fixed points in a thermometer are 75 mm apart. When the thermometer
386 reads 35 mm above the ice point, the temperature is 28 °C 41 °C 23 °C 47 °C
A faulty mercury─in─glass thermometer has 2.5 °C and 105 °C as its ice and steam
points respectively. When the true temperature is 50 °C, the reading on the
387 thermometer is 55.9 °C 54.6 °C 51. 5 °C 53.8 °C
A constant volume gas thermometer indicates a pressure of 250 mmHg at the ice
point and 750 mmHg at the steam point. The temperature when the thermometer
388 indicates a pressure of 500 mmHg is 323K 223 K 50 K 323 K

Variation of pressure Variation of resistance Variation of volume with Variation of emf with
389 What is the working principle of thermocouple? with temperature with temperature temperature temperature
A wire of length 5 m is heated from a temperature of 10 °C to 60 °C. If it undergoes a
390 change of length of 60 mm, the linear expansivity of the wire is 1.2 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹ 2.4 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹ 1.2 × 10⁻⁴ K⁻¹ 2.4 × 10⁻⁴ K⁻¹
A wire of length 10 m is heated from a temperature of 20 °C to 70 °C. If it undergoes
391 a change of length of 50 mm, the linear expansivity of the wire is 5.0 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹ 1.0 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹ 5.0 × 10⁻⁴ K⁻¹ 1.0 × 10⁻⁴ K⁻¹
A steel bridge is 250 m in length. If the temperature varies from a daytime of 30°C to
a night‐time low of 5°C, and the linear expansivity of steel is 1.2 × 10 ⁻⁵ K⁻¹, the daily
392 variation in the length of the bridge is 75 cm 0.075 cm 0.75 cm 7.5 cm

The linear expansivity of aluminium is approximately four times that of steel. A piece
of aluminium and a piece of steel undergoes the same increase in length per degree
393 rise in temperature. The ratio of the original aluminium to that of the steel is 4.0 2.0 1. 0 0.25
Steel bars each 3 m long, are used to construct a rail line. The linear expansivity of
steel is 1.2 × 10⁻⁵ K⁻¹ and the maximum daily variation in temperature is 20°C. The
394 safety gap that must be left between successive bars is 3.6 mm 7.2 mm 0.36 mm 0.72 mm
A square plate of side 12 cm is made of a metal of linear expansivity 2 × 10 ⁻⁵ K⁻¹. As
the plate is heated from 20°C to 100°C, the area of one face of the plate will increase
395 to 12. 4 cm² 12.5 cm² 144. 4 cm² 144.5 cm²
The increase in the volume of a metal cube of volume V and linear expansivity α
396 heated through a temperature T is given as αVT/3 αVT 2αVT 3αVT
A metal cube of 7 cm and linear expansivity 2 × 10 ⁻⁵ K⁻¹ is moved from an ice water
397 mixture into boiling water. The increase in the volume of the cube is 1.30 cm³ 2.60 cm³ 1.03 cm³ 2.06 cm³
A glass bottle of initial volume 4 × 10⁴ cm³ is heated from 40°C to 60°C. If the linear
398 expansivity of glass is 9 × 10⁻⁶ K⁻¹, the volume of the bottle at 60°C is 4011.6 cm³ 4,021.6 cm³ 40,011.6 cm³ 40,021.6 cm³
A fixed mass of gas occupies a volume of 1400 cm³ at a temperature of 37°C. The
399 change in volume as the gas is cooled at constant pressure to 0°C is 103 cm³ 67 cm³ 190 cm³ 167 cm³
A given mass of gas has a pressure of 80 Nm⁻² at a temperature of 57°C. If the
temperature is reduced to 17°C with the volume remaining constant, the new
400 pressure is 35 Nm⁻² 80 Nm⁻² 85 Nm⁻² 70 Nm⁻²
Steam possesses Steam spreads more
greater heat energy easily over a wider Steam penetrates more Steam is at a higher
Which of the following best explains why a person suffers a more severe burn when per unit mass than area of the skin than deeply into the skin than temperature than
401 his skin is exposed to steam than when boiling water is poured onto his skin? boiling water boiling water boiling water boiling water
Which of the following statements about radiant heat is/are not correct? I. Radiant
heat cannot travel through a vacuum. II. Rough surfaces emit radiant heat better
than polished surfaces III. Dark surfaces absorb radiant heat better than bright
402 surfaces II only III Only I and II only I only
A gas occupies a certain volume at 27°C. If it is heated at constant pressure, its
403 volume is exactly tripled at a temperature of 545°C 450°C 900°C 627°C

The ice block absorbs

The reaction force of The ice block absorbs heat from the
A block of ice at its melting point is left on a table in the atmosphere and, it is the table on the ice Heat extracted from heat from the atmosphere and its
observed to melt gradually. Which of the following statements is true about the breaks the ice into the ice block makes the atmosphere and its temperature remains
404 melting process? water molecules ice block cold temperature rises constant as it melts

Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. Pure water freezes at O°C under
405 normal pressure II. Water has its highest density at 4°C III. The volume at 4°C. I only II only I and III only I and II only
Steam spreads more Steam possesses
Steam is at a higher easily over a wider Steam penetrates more greater heat energy
Which of the following best explains why a person suffers a more severe burn when temperature than area of the skin than deeply into the skin than per unit mass than
406 his skin is exposed to steam than when boiling water pours on his skin? boiling water boiling water boiling water boiling water
A metal of mass 2.5kg was heated from 37°C to 77°C in 8 minutes by a boiler ring of
75 W rating. Calculate the specific heat capacity of the metal. (Neglect heat losses to
407 the surrounding) 36 Jkgˉ¹ °Cˉ¹ 18 Jkgˉ¹ °Cˉ¹ 180 Jkgˉ¹ °Cˉ¹ 360 Jkgˉ¹ °Cˉ¹
 A fixed mass of gas at standard temperature and pressure is heated at constant
volume. The temperature at which its pressure becomes equal to 202 cm of mercury
408 is 556.5°C 356.9°C 725. 6°C 452.6 °C
A gas occupies a volume of 819 m³ at 0°C. If the gas is cooled at constant pressure,
409 the temperature at which its volume drops to 480 m³ is 80°C 0°C ─56.5°C ─113°C
A certain mass of gas exerts a pressure of 20 Nm⁻² at a temperature of 137°C. If the
gas is heated while maintaining its volume constant, the pressure exerted by the gas
410 at 257°C is 27.5 Nm⁻² 35.9 Nm⁻² 25.9 Nm⁻² 37.5 Nm⁻²
A tyre is pumped to a pressure of 60 Nm ⁻² at 27°C. When the tyre heats up to 57°C
411 the new pressure, assuming no change in volume, is 57 Nm⁻² 132 Nm⁻² 33 Nm⁻² 126.66 Nm⁻²
A fixed mass of gas occupying a certain volume has its pressure reduced to 25
percent of its original value while the temperature is maintained constant. The ratio
412 of the new volume to the original volume is 2:1 1:2 1:4 4:1

The water becomes The iron becomes

much hotter than the The iron becomes The iron becomes much much hotter than the
iron because the much hotter than the hotter than the water water because
specific heat of water water because iron is because the specific heat specific heat capacity
What happens when equal masses of iron and water are supplied with equal is higher than that of solid while water is capacity of iron is higher of iron is less than
413 quantities of heat? iron. liquid. than that if water that of water.
The temperature of
As the ice melts, latent The temperature of the The temperature of the the ice will continue
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of a block of ice at ─10°C placed inside a heat is absorbed and ice will remain ice will rise until melting to rise until all the ice
414 container that is gradually supplied with heat? volume decreases constant during melting starts has melted
The presence of The volume of the
415 The boiling point of a liquid depends on the following EXCEPT impurities External pressure The nature of the liquid liquid
The area of the
exposed surface of the The temperature of the The volume of the
416 The rate of evaporation of a liquid depends on ____ EXCEPT Atmospheric pressure liquid liquid liquid
A piece of iron of mass 500 g and specific heat capacity 460 Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ cools from 80°C
417 to 40°C. The heat released by the iron is 276000 J 27600 J 92000 J 71990 J
If the specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 × 10³ Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ and g = 10 ms⁻², the
difference in temperature of the water between the top and the bottom of a 186 m
418 high waterfall is 2°C 4°C 0.2°C 0.4°C
Two liquids A and B having the same mass are supplied with the same quantity of
heat. If the temperature rise in A is four times that of B, the ratio of the specific heat
419 capacity of A to that of B is 2:1 1:2 4:1 1:4
A body of mass 240 g and specific heat capacity 400 Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ loses 360 J of heat
420 energy. The change in temperature of the body is 6.2 K 2.65 K 7.5 K 3.75 K
A body of specific heat capacity 900 Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ initially held at a height of 270 m falls to
the ground. Neglecting heat loss to the surrounding, the rise in temperature of the
421 body on striking the ground is (if g = 10 ms ⁻²) 0.5K 1K 2K 3K

1 litre of hot water at temperature T is added to 3 litres of cold water at a

422 temperature of 15°C. If the final temperature of the mixture is 60°C, the value of T is 55°C 75°C 135°C 195°C
A 1500 W immersion heater is used to heat a liquid of mass 5 kg through a
423 temperature rise of 40°C in 80 seconds. The specific heat capacity of the liquid is 180 Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ 300 Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ 124 Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹ 76.6 Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹
any temperature if a temperature greater a temperature less
424 When the atmospheric pressure is 750 mm of mercury, water will boil at heated rapidly a temperature at 100°C than 100°C than 100°C
decreases if a sheet of increases as the
The quantity of electric charge which can be stored in a parallel plate capacitor increases as the dielectric is placed separation of the plates increases as the area
425 ______ capacitance decreases between the plates increases of the plates increases

In an electrically neutral
atom, the total charge on
A negatively charged A positively charged the electrons is equal to Electrons and protons
atom contains an atom contains a deficit the total charge on the reside in the nucleus
426 Which of the following is NOT TRUE? excess of electrons of electrons protons of an atom
Which of the following set of materials can the electric charge be transmitted stone, rubber, and the human body,
427 through? wood paper, clay, and plastic cloth, acid, and glass metals, and water
The leaves of a negatively charged electroscope collapse completely as an object is less quantity of less quantity of an equal quantity of an equal quantity of
428 brought close to the cap of the electroscope. The object possesses _____ positive charge negative charge positive charge negative charge
The force acting on an electron carrying a charge of 1.6 × 10 ⁻¹⁹C in an electric field of
429 intensity 7.5 × 10⁷ Vm⁻¹ is 2.4 × 10⁻¹² N 2.4 × 10⁻¹¹ N 1.2 × 10⁻¹² N 1.2 × 10⁻¹¹ N
An electron (charge 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C) initially at rest is accelerated from a plate at zero
volt to another plate at 100 kV. The kinetic energy acquired by the electron at the
430 second plate is 1.6 × 10¹⁶ J 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁶ J 1.6 × 10¹⁴ J 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁴ J
431 Electric potential is a _____ None Fictitious quantity Vector quantity Scalar quantity
An electrostatic force F acts between two stationary charges. If the distance
432 separating the charges is doubled, the new electrostatic force between them is F/2 2F 4F² F/4
The force between two charges is 240 N. If the distance between the charges is
433 doubled, the force will be 480 N 30 N 120 N 60 N
 There is an electric A stationary charge
field near an isolated produces both electric
434 Which of the following is NOT TRUE of electrostatics? charge at rest Charge is conserved Charge is quantized and magnetic fields
When the distance between two charged particle is quartered, the force between
435 them becomes eight times one sixteenth double sixteen times
436 If Q = 12.5 coulomb and the force on it is 150 N, the value of the field intensity is 6 NC⁻¹ 144 NC⁻¹ 1875 NC⁻¹ 12 NC⁻¹
The electric field intensity at a point situated 5 m from a point charge is 400 NC ⁻¹. If
437 the distance is reduced to 2 m, the field intensity will be 256 NC⁻¹ 64 NC⁻¹ 1250 NC⁻¹ 2500 NC⁻¹
the same as that at a the same as that at a
A hollow metal sphere of radius 10 cm is charged such that the potential on its point 100 cm away point 10 cm away from
438 surface is 12 V. The potential at the centre of the sphere is from the surface the surface zero 12 V
The electric potential at a distance d from a point charge q in the air of permittivity
439 ɛ₀ is q²/4πɛ₀d q/πɛ₀d q/4πɛ₀d² q/4πɛ₀d
What is the magnitude of an electric field at a distance d from the point charge q in
440 the air of permittivity ɛ₀? q/4πɛ₀d q/4πɛ₀²d q²/4πɛ₀d q/4πɛ₀d²
Two unequal, insulated, charged spheres carrying unlike charges are connected
together with a short wire. Charges will flow from one sphere to the other until both carry equal charges of carry equal charges of are at the same
441 spheres _____ opposite signs the same signs become uncharged potential
When a charged ball is placed in contact with the inner wall of a hollow conducting on the surface of the inside and outside the
442 sphere, the resulting electric field is ball sphere inside the sphere outside the sphere
If 40 mJ of work is done in moving 12 μC of charge between two points in an electric
443 field, the potential difference between the two points is 3.0 × 10⁻⁹ V 3.0 × 10⁻³ V 3.33 × 10⁹ V 3.33 × 10³ V
A charge of magnitude 2.4 × 10⁻⁵ coulomb experiences a force of 120 N in an electric
444 field, the potential difference between the two points is 2 × 10⁸ NC⁻¹ 2 × 10⁶ NC⁻¹ 5 × 10⁸ NC⁻¹ 5 × 10⁶ NC⁻¹
A potential difference of 6.5 V is maintained between two plates that are 50 cm
445 apart. The electric field intensity between the two plates is 0.16 Vm⁻¹ 26 Vm⁻¹ 0.08 Vm⁻¹ 13 Vm⁻¹
The magnitude of force experienced by a charge of 3.2 × 10 ⁻⁷ C in a uniform electric
446 field of intensity 1.2 × 10⁴ NC⁻¹ is 3.84 × 10⁻¹ N 3.84 × 10⁻⁴ N 3.84 × 10⁻² N 3.84 × 10⁻³ N
It is independent of the It increases as the It is directly
It increases as its temperature of the diameter of the wire proportional to its
447 Which of the following is TRUE of the resistance of a wire? conductivity increases wire increases resistivity
A current of 360 mA passes through a conductor for 15 minutes. The quantity of
448 electricity transported is 162 C 2.7 C 5.4 C 324 C
120 mC of electricity passes through a conductor for 4 minutes. The current through
449 the conductor is 60 mA 120 mA 30 mA 0.5 mA

The amount of water

displaced when a unit The mass of the solid
The volume of a unit mass of the solid is compared to the mass of The mass per unit
450 Which of the following correctly defines the density of a solid? mass of the solid immersed in it an equal volume of water volume of a solid
It is proportional to the
distance of the point It varies with the
It is exerted equally in It is the same at the below the surface of the shape of the
451 Which of the following is NOT TRUE of pressure at any point in a liquid? all direction same level in the liquid liquid containing vessel
It is a good conductor It has a low vapour
452 Why is mercury a better barometric fluid than water? of heat It expands uniformly It has a high boiling point pressure
Cold oil of volume 500 cm³ has a density of 0.6 gcm⁻³. When heated, the density of
453 the oil decreases to 0.25 gcm⁻³. The volume of the heated oil is 417 cm³ 208 cm³ 600 cm³ 1200 cm³
The relative densities of gold, silver, copper, and zinc are given as 19.3, 10.5, 8.9, and
7.1 respectively. A piece of ornamental metal weighs 0.525 kg and displaces 5 ×
454 10⁻⁵m³ when completely immersed in water. The metal is gold zinc copper silver
Seawater has a specific gravity of 1.03. Neglecting the atmospheric pressure, the
force exerted by seawater on the hatch door of a submarine of area 1.5 m² at a
455 depth of 400 m is 3.09 × 10³ N 3.09 × 10⁶ N 6.18 × 10³ N 6.18 × 10⁶ N
Oil of mass 2 g and relative density 0.5 forms a thin film of area 0.025 m² on the
456 surface of the water. The thickness of the oil film is 1.6 × 10⁴ m 1.6 × 10⁻² m 3.2 × 10⁻⁴ m 1.6 × 10⁻⁴ m
457 Which of the following is not a force? Weight Upthrust Tension Centre of gravity
The force required to just make a 12 kg object move along a horizontal surface
458 where the coefficient of friction is 0.45 is 10.2 N 102 N 540 N 54 N
A book of mass 450 g is pushed against a vertical wall with a horizontal force of F N.
If the coefficient of friction between the book and the wall is 0.15, the minimum
459 value of F required to hold the book in place is 5N 60 N 15 N 30 N
A horizontal force of 50 N is required to just slide a block of mass 8 kg on a
horizontal platform. The coefficient of limiting friction between the block and the
460 platform is 0.44 0.81 0.52 0.63
The limiting frictional force on a body of mass 8 kg resting on an inclined plane is 40
461 N. The angle of inclination θ of the plane is 80° 45° 60° 30°

Density, capacitance Velocity, volume and Weight, displacement

462 Which of the following is a set of vectors Mass, force, impulse and distance upthrust and moment
Which of the following properties of a steel bar can be measured in terms of the
463 dimension of length only? Watt Force Density Volume
 Which of the following is likely to be the least possible error when using a scale
464 graduated in millimetres? 1.0mm 0.1mm 0.2mm 0.5mm
A spiral spring extends by 15 cm under a load of 125 N. When the load is replaced by
465 a steel block, the new extension is 25 cm. The weight of the steel block is 80 N 416 N 104 N 208 N
An elastic string of force constant 5000 Nm⁻¹ undergoes a strain of 0.02 under load
466 of 20 N. The natural length of the string is 25 cm 10 cm 30 cm 20 cm
A pulley of velocity ratio of 6 and an efficiency of 60%. The effort needed to lift a
467 load of mass 250 kg is 462 N 450 N 550 N 694 N
A wheel and axle is used to raise a weight of 700 N with an effort of 200 N. If the
radii of the wheel and the axle are 100 cm and 20 cm respectively, the efficiency of
468 the machine is 60% 75% 65% 70%
A girl of weight 600 N climbs to the top of a hill of height 50 m. The work done by
469 the girl against the force of gravity is 15,000 J 144 J 12 J 30,000 J
A body initially at rest is accelerated at the rate of 0.4 ms ⁻² for 10 seconds under a
470 constant force of 450 N. The work done on the body is 2250 J 1800 J 4500 J 9000 J
An object is acted upon by two forces 6 N and 10 N inclined at 60° to each other. If
the object is moved through a distance of 12 m by the resultant force, the work
471 done is 42 J 336 J 84 J 168 J
A car of mass 400 kg initially at rest is accelerated at the rate of 8 ms ⁻². The kinetic
472 energy of the car after 6 seconds is 2.3 × 10⁶ J 2.3 × 10⁵ J 4.6 × 10⁶ J 4.6 × 10⁵ J
An object of mass 60 kg is released from a height of 20 m above ground level. The
473 kinetic energy of the object just before it hits the ground is 0J 24000 J 6000 J 12000 J
A bullet of mass 80 g traveling at 200 ms⁻¹ strikes a target normally and penetrates a
distance of 40 cm in the target before coming to rest. The average force exerted on
474 the bullet by the target is 1000 N 8000 N 2000 N 4000 N
A crate of mass 120 kg is dragged up a smooth plane inclined at 30° to the
horizontal. If the final height of the crate above the ground level is 10 m, the force F
475 applied parallel to the plane to drag the crate is 3000 N 6000 N 300 N 600 N
A 140 kg man ascends a flight of stairs of height 6 m in 10 s. The power expended by
476 the man is 42 W 84 W 420 W 840 W
A pump lift water into an overhead tank at height of 24 m at the rate of 15 kgs ⁻¹. The
477 power of the pump is 7200 W 900 W 1800 W 3600 W
A 60 kg girl climbing a flight of stairs expends energy at the rate of 100 W. The time
478 taken for her to reach a height of 40 m is 280 s 60 s 120 s 240 s
An engine develops a power of 1500 W while moving a car at constant velocity 6
479 ms⁻¹. The force exerted on the car by the engine is 75 N 125 N 500 N 250 N
An object of mass 250 kg is held at a height of 15 m above the ground for 15
480 seconds. The work done within this period is 500 J 250 J 3750 J 0J
A water pump of 2.4 kW rating pumps 90 kg of water into an overhead tank at a
481 height of 10 m in 6 seconds. The efficiency of the pump is 37.5% 73.5% 54.6% 62.5%
An object having a mass of 36 kg on earth is taken to a planet where the
acceleration due to gravity is one─half of its value on earth. The mass of the object
482 on the planet is 9 kg 18 kg 72 kg 36 kg
An object of mass 60 kg will experience a gravitational force of 80 N on a planet on
483 which the intensity of the gravitational field is 2.66 Nkg⁻¹ 1.5 Nkg⁻¹ 0.75 Nkg⁻¹ 1.33 Nkg⁻¹
What is the escape velocity of a body on the surface of a planet of radius R and mass
484 M if the universal gravitational constant is G? √GR/M √2GR/M √GM/R √2GM/R
The radius of the earth is 6.4 × 10⁶ m and the accelera on due to gravity is 10 ms⁻².
485 The escape velocity of a rocket launched from the earth's surface is 4.0 kms⁻¹ 24.1 kms⁻¹ 4.5 kms⁻¹ 11.3 kms⁻¹

486 Machines can be used as _____ EXCEPT force multiplier speed multiplier displacement multiplier energy multiplier
The work input into
the machine for a
given work output The efficiency The mechanical The velocity ratio
487 Which of the following is NOT TRUE as friction in a machine increases? increases decreases advantage decreases decreases
488 Which of the following applies the lever principle? Single pulley Inclined plane Screw jack Sugar tongs
489 Which of the following systems may be classified as simple machine? Thermocouple Electric heater Magnetic relay Scissors
A machine has an efficiency of 60%. The work done when the machine is used to
490 raise a load of 40 kg through a vertical distance of 12 m is 5760 J 2880 J 4800 J 8000 J
A machine with an efficiency of 70% is used to overcome a load of 120 N through
491 the application of a force of 80 N. The mechanical advantage of the machine is 1.33 0.67 3.0 1.5
A machine having a velocity ratio of 5 requires a weight of 30 kg to overcome a
492 weight of 90 kg. The efficiency of the machine is 85% 33.3% 40% 60%
A pulley system has a velocity ratio 5 and an efficiency of 80%. The effort needed to
493 lift a load of mass 200 kg is 100 N 1000 N 50 N 500 N
A block and tackle system made up of four pulleys is used to raise a load of 1000 N
494 with an effort of 800 N. The efficiency of the system is 30% 70% 68.75% 31.25%
495 The velocity ratio of a plane inclined at an angle of θ to the horizontal is sin θ tan θ 1/tan θ 1/sin θ
A body of mass 50 kg is pushed up a smooth plane inclined at an angle of 30° to the
496 horizontal. The force needed to push the body up the plane is 125 N 1000 N 500 N 250 N
Two intermeshing gear wheels have 30 and 90 teeth respectively. If the smaller
497 wheel rotates at 75 rev.s⁻¹, the larger wheel rotates at 150 rev.s⁻¹ 50 rev.s⁻¹ 15 rev.s⁻¹ 25 rev.s⁻¹
 A screw jack has a pitch of 0.8 cm and a tommy bar of length 50 cm. The velocity
498 ratio is 80π 80π 250π 125π

If two wires of
identical dimensions
are subjected to the The slope of the force
same stress, the one versus extension plot Within the elastic
with the higher for an elastic string is The elastic limit is the limit, the strain in a
Young's modulus will equal to the Young's load at which an elastic wire doubles if the
499 Which of the following is TRUE? show larger strain. modulus of the string. material breaks stress is doubled
The nature of the
The diameter and material from which
500 The young's modulus for a wire depends on which of the following? The stress in the wire length of the wire The load on the wire the wire is made
A spiral spring extends by 12 cm under a load of 360 N. When the load is replaced by
501 a metal block, the new extension is 15 cm. The weight of the metal block is 100 N 225 N 900 N 450 N
A 40 gwt. Causes an extension of 0.25 cm in a spring. The extension caused by a load
502 of 80 gwt., assuming Hooke's law is obeyed by the spring, is 0.25 cm 0.75 cm 1.0 cm 0.5 cm
A spring with a force constant of 4 × 10⁴ Nm⁻¹ is used to measure the mass of an
object. If the spring extends by 2.5 cm when the object is hung from it, the mass of
503 the object is 50 kg 500 kg 1000 kg 100 kg

Because the upthrust

Because the upthrust Because there is no on it when completely
Because the surface of on it when completely upthrust on it when it is immersed in water is
the water acts like an immersed in water is completely immersed in greater than its
504 Why does a piece of cork floats in water? elastic skin equal to its weight in air water weight in air
The pressure of a gas supports 0.65 m of mercury of relative density 13.3. The height
505 of a water column which the gas pressure will support is 6.65 m 4.32 m 17.30 m 8.65 m
The volume of water which has the same mass as 8.1 m³ of petrol of relative density
506 0.72 is 2.95 m³ 5.63 m³ 11.25 m³ 5. 83 m³
A 100 litre petrol tank of mass 25 kg is filled with petrol of relative density 0.70. The
507 mass of the filled tank is 60 kg 45 kg 70 kg 95 kg
The normal atmospheric pressure at sea level is 10 ⁵ Nm⁻². If the atmosphere has a
508 uniform density of 1 kgm⁻³, the height of the atmosphere is 10² m 10³ m 10⁵ m 10⁴ m
If the pressure in a confined liquid is changed at any point, the change is transmitted
509 equally to all points in the liquid. This principle is called Archimedes' principle Flotation principle Charles' Law Pascal's Law
510 Which of the following has the highest surface tension? Soapy water Oily water Hot water Cold water
increase because the decrease because the increase because the decrease because the
A plastic object floats in water at room temperature. If the water is heated, the part density of water density of water density of water density of water
511 of the plastic above water level will increases increases decreases decreases

The floating of a The floating of a The floating of a boat in The floating of a steel
512 In which of the following phenomena is surface tension important? plastic sphere in water balloon in air water wire in water
A body of mass m falls through a liquid. If V is the viscous force and U the upthrust,
513 then at the terminal velocity V = U/mg V ─ U = mg V + mg = U V + U = mg
An elastic string of force constant 2000 Nm⁻¹ undergoes a strain of 0.02 under load
514 of 40 N. The natural length of the string is 30 cm 20 cm 40 cm 10 cm
515 Which of the following controls the metabolic activity of the cell ? Chloroplast Ribosomes Lysosomes Nucleus
516 Euglena uses flagella for Respiration Fighting Protection Locomotion

517 The function of the contractile vacuole in paramecium is Remove excreta For locomotion Produce enzymes Get rid of excess water
A chain of reactions through which almost all living cells produce energy in aerobic
518 respiration is called Protozoans cycle Carbon cycle organisms cycle Krebs cycle
519 Which of the following is known as the powerhouse of a cell? Ribosomes Cytoplasm Nucleus Mitochondria
520 Which of the cell organelles contains the DNA ? Cell membrane lysosomes Cell wall Nucleus
521 The cell found in the brain is called Chloroplast leucoplast Nephron Neuron
522 The organelle responsible for removal of water from the body of protozoa is called Nucleus Cell wall Chromatin Contractile vacuole
523 Which of these cell organelles is not found in animals ? Cell membrane Ribosomes Mitochondria Chloroplast
524 What is the name given to group of similar cells performing the same function ? Organelle System Organ Tissue
Cell membrane and Nucleus and
525 The living materials of the cell consist of Cell wall Vacuole and ribosomes Cell wall and Cytoplasm Cytoplasm
526 The structure in cell concerned with the synthesis of proteins is the Nucleus Cell membrane Golgi bodies Ribosomes
When the solute concentration of a cell is higher than the intracellular solute
527 concentration , then it is said to be Dilute Isotonic Hypotonic Hypertonic
528 The highest level of organization in living organisms is organ Tissue cell System
529 Which of the following solutions causes shrinkage of living cells? Isotonic solution Hypotonic solution Deionised water Hypertonic solution
530 Which of the following cells is a specialized cell? Plasmodium Meristematic cells Amoeba Guard cell
531 Which of the following organisms consist of two or more cell? Paramecium Euglena Amoeba Volvox
532 Which of the following organisms does not have a definite shape ? Protozoa Paramecium Euglena Amoeba
533 The organelle used for defence in paramecium is known as Endoplasm Pellicle Cilia Trichocyst
534 The organelle responsible for protein synthesis is called Cell wall Mitochondrion Nucleus Ribosomes
 cytoplasm and cytoplasm and
535 The two major parts of protoplasm are _________ nucleolus chromosome cytoplasm and ribosomes cytoplasm and nucleus
536 The mode of nutrition undergoes by amoeba is autotrophic Saprophytic Halophytic Holozoic
537 The suicide bags of the cell is called Mitochondrion Chloroplast Ribosomes Lysosomes
538 The method of reproduction common to paramecium and amoeba is Transpiration pull Budding Conjugation Binary fission
539 The process by which organism maintains a constant internal environment is called Hydrolysis Osmosis Dialysis Homeostasis
540 The final stage in both meiosis and mitosis in a eukaryotic cell is known as Anaphase Interphase Metaphase Telophase
541 Which of the following modes of nutrition do organisms manufacture their food ? Commensalism Symbiosis Parasitism Chemosynthesis
542 The organelle where oxidative phosphorylation takes place is Ribosomes Cytoplasm Cell wall Mitochondria
The process of cell duplication, in which one cell divides into two genetically
543 identical daughter cells is called Diuresis Duplication Meiosis Mitosis
544 Which of the following cell doesn’t contain a cell wall? Plant cell Bacteria Fungi Animal cell
545 In absence of oxygen, ________ acid is converted to alcohol in plants. tartaric citric lactic Pyruvic
546 Which of the following is a biotic factor which affects a population ? Pressure Wind Temperature Parasite
547 Which of the following reduces overcrowding in a population ? Loose immigration Increased birth rate Limited space Reduced birth rate
548 An anemometer is used for measuring Temperature Pressure Humidity Wind speed

has high oxygen it cant supply usable

549 Soil is said to be infertile if It is black content It is waterlogged nutrients to the plants
550 Which of the following types of soil has the least water retaining capacity ? Sand Loam Clay Gravel
551 Temperature is an example of a factor in an ecological system referred to as Biome Edaphic Biotic Abiotic
552 A natural environment where organisms live is called Organisation Environment Ecosystem Habitat
553 The thin film on the surface of the earth in which all life exists is called Hydrosphere Troposphere Atmosphere Biosphere
The area composed of a community and the physical environment it occupies is
554 called Community Population Ecology Ecosystem
555 The following are abiotic components of the environment except Wind Light Soli Bacteria
556 The organisms that manufacture their foods are called Herbivores Decomposers Saprophytes Autotrophs
557 The organism that eat only the meats from other animals are called Detritivores Omnivores Herbivores Carnivores
The process that uses organisms to return the natural environment altered by
558 contaminants to its original condition is called Bio indication Bioaccumulation Bio concentration Bioremediation
The net weight of all organisms living in an ecosystem which increases as a result of Net secondary
559 its net production is called Gross productivity Ecological biome productivity Biomass
A complete description of how organism relates to its physical and biological
560 environment is called System Population Biome Niche
The study of how a specie population interacts with the environment and its
561 resulting dynamics is called Zoology Ecology Oncology Autecology
562 The study of how organism live and how they interact with their environment Zoology Ecosystem Botany Ecology

563 The relationship whereby two organisms mutually benefit from each other is called Parasitism Saprophytic Commensalism Symbiosis
A complicated feeding relationship that exist among organisms in a natural
564 environment is called Food Chain Parasitism Niche Food web
565 The position occupied by an organism in a food chain is known as Food level Biome Habitat level Trophic level
566 Which of the following has the total amount of energy entering a food chain ? Carnivores Decomposers Consumers Producers
567 Which of the following processes does not add carbon to the atmosphere ? Condensation Respiration Burning Photosynthesis
An organism X lives entirely on another organism Y to derive nourishments from it.
568 In this association X is a Commensal Symbiont Saprophyte Parasite
What is the primary consumer in the given sequence ;Grass, grasshopper, snake,
569 toad, hawk ? Toad Snake Hawk Grasshopper
570 Which of the following factors is edaphic ? Bacteria Water Virus Soil
An association between two organisms in which one benefit and the other derives
571 neither benefit nor harm is called Saprophytic Symbiosis Parasitism Commensalism
Which of the following steps is the first in carrying out ecological studies in a Measuring edaphic
572 terrestrial habitat ? factors Quadrat sampling Collection of organisms Mapping out the area
The following components of an ecosystem contribute to the biomass of the system
573 except Micro─organisms Consumers Producers Community
574 Which of these factors is not common to both aquatic and terrestrial habitats? light Rainfall Temperature Tide
575 A change in the environment to which an organism respond is called Reaction Impulse Response Stimulus
576 The least amount of energy in an ecosystem occurs at the level of the Producers Decomposers Herbivores Carnivores
Organisms that feed essentially on both plants and animals within any ecosystem
577 may be referred to as Halophytes Herbivores Carnivores Omnivores
Which of the following practices does not contribute to the conservation of natural Establishment of
578 resources? Game reserves Contour ploughing Afforestation Bush burning
579 The following substances are conservable natural resources except ? Minerals Water Soil Air
580 Over─grazing causes soil Conservation Textures Fertility Erosion
Which of the following biological association contributes directly to succession in a
581 community is Commensalism Parasitism Symbiosis Competition
582 The community of plants in which the same species occur from year to year is Perennial species Pioneer vegetation Annual species Climax vegetation
583 The process by which plants prevent overcrowding is known Water uptake Seeds germination Pollination Seeds dispersal
584 The south western part of Nigeria belongs to which of the following biomes ? Temperate forest Sudan savannah Sahel savannah Tropical rain forest
Can manufacture its
585 Spirogyra is an autotrophic organism because it is found in water has plant features Move slow food.
586 The group of tissues performing particular functions in the body is called a system an organelle a tissue an organ
 The branch of Biology that deals with the principles of classification of organisms is
587 known as Nomenclature Ecology Biological index Taxonomy

588 In which of the following groups of animals are earthworms and sandworms found? Flatworms Nematodes Protozoa Annelids
589 The snail and squid belong to the class Arachnids Insect Annelids Molluscs
590 Which of the following animals is warm blooded? Toad Lizard Frog Cat
591 In which of the following groups of animals are pseudopodia and cilia found? Nematodes Mammals Arthropods Protozoa
592 Which of the following organisms is not an arthropod ? Spider Cockroach Millipede Snail
Which of the following phyla have members with both internal and external
593 segmentation? Nematoda Mollusca Platyhelminthes Annelida

594 Which of the following organisms feeds both autotrophically and heterotrophically? Mucor Amoeba Hydra Euglena
595 The most advanced in the evolutionary trend of animals is Arachnid Coelenterate Protozoa Mammal
A process by which a new plant grows from a fragment or cutting of the parent plant Vegetative
596 is called Spore formation Budding Fission propagation
597 What is the basic unit of classification of living things ? Kingdom Class Phylum Species
598 Which of the following enables mammals to maintain balance? Ossicle Cochlea Pinna Semi─ circular canal
The ability of a living organism to detect and respond to changes in the environment
599 is called Movement Growth Taxis Irritability
600 The following organisms are producers except Cactus Euglena Spirogyra Mushroom
601 Which of the following is not a unicellular organism ? Chlamydomonas Amoeba Euglena Spirogyra
602 Which of the following organisms has hydrostatic skeleton ? Arthropods Amoeba Millipede Earthworm
603 The following organisms are vertebrates except Toad Fish Lizard Tapeworm
604 Angiosperms belong to which of the following? Cellophytes Pteridophytes Bryophyte Spermatophyte
The vascular tissues that transports water and nutrients from the soil to the stems
605 and leaves is known as Sclerenchyma Collenchyma Phloem Xylem
606 The organ which is sensitive to light in Euglena is the Gullet Flagella Cilia Eye spot
607 The organism with a pair of jointed appendages are Platyhelminthes Protozoans Annelids Arthropods
608 Which of the following organisms is not an exo ─parasite? Aphid Flea Tick Tapeworm
609 The lowest level in the hierarchical organisation of multicellular organisms is Organ Tissue Organism Cell
610 Which of the following is an example of an organism? skin a nerve cell a skull a mouse
611 The highest taxon among the following is Genus phylum Order Kingdom
612 Plants which complete their life cycles within a year is known Diennial plant Perennial plant Biennial plant Annual plant
613 Which of the following is not an oviparous animal? Birds Frogs Fishes Cat
614 Which of the following is NOT an amphibians? Spotted salamander Toad Frog Tick
615 The mode of nutrition exhibits by a tapeworm is Halophytic Saprophytic Holozoic Parasitic
The partition of the serially homologous arthropod body plan into discrete region is
616 known as Vacillation Ecdysis Metamorphosis Tagmosis
The study of body structures of different species of animals in order to understand
617 the changes they have undergone is called Biochemical similarity Bilateral symmetry Molecular records Comparative anatomy
618 Which of the following organisms does not exhibit intracellular digestion ? Euglena Paramecium Amoeba Rhizopus
A microscopic single─celled organism which has neither a dis nct nucleus with a
619 membrane nor other specialized organelles is called Amphibians Protista Eukaryotes Prokaryotes
The terrestrial plants which are neither adapted to particularly dry nor particularly
620 wet environments are called Bryophytes Halophytes Epiphytes Mesophytes
621 The first terrestrial vertebrates evolved from Protozoans Reptiles Amphibians Pisces
622 Which of the following animals has mammary glands ? Arthropods Insects Earthworms Mammals
can survive wet show alternation of
623 One common feature of the spirogyra and euglena is that they conditions generation can survive dry conditions are photosynthetic
624 The following animals are metamerically segmented EXCEPT Tapeworm Crayfish Centipede Shark
625 Which of these animals absorbs digested foods through its body? Lizards Fish Frog Tapeworm
626 The plants that grow in deserts or very dry areas are known as Halophytes Epiphytes Mesophytes Xerophytes
627 A plant tissue that transports food substances is called Stem Cortex Xylem Phloem
628 Which of these plants exhibits double fertilisation ? Algae Pteridophytes Bryophytes Angiosperms
629 The ovule─bearing female reproduc ve organ of flowering plants is petal Sepal Stamen Carpel
630 Fertilized egg is otherwise known as Oval Foetus Ovum Zygote
require moisture for
631 The bryophytes and pteridophytes are similar in that they are microscopic plants have no vascular tissue are sea weeds fertilization

632 ________ involves the study of normal functions of living organisms and their parts. Zoology Oncology Metamorlogy Physiology
633 Organisms that feeds on dead and decaying organic matters are called Parasites Heterotrophs autotrophs Saprophytes
634 Which of the following animals belongs to a group called Arachnida? Millipede Cockroach Zebras Spiders
635 The cell responsible for transmission of impulses is called bone cell epidermal cell muscle cell nerve cell
636 Which of the following belongs to the class reptilia? Fishes Toad Cat Lizard
637 Which of these organisms exists at tissue level ? Tapeworm Bat Anabaena Hydra
638 The structure found only in plant cell is lysosomes Cell membrane Cytoplasm Chloroplast
A small, worm─like animal that feeds on plants and eventually develops into a
639 butterfly or moth is called Wriggler Grub Maggot Caterpillar
640 The main vector for trypanosomes is Blackfly Butterfly House fly Tsetse fly
The process by which one bacterium transfers genetic material to another through
641 direct contact is called Weaning Budding Fission Conjugation
642 Which of the following features links birds to reptiles in evolution ? Skeletal system Feathers Beak Scales
643 Euglena reproduces asexually through Sporulation Budding Fragmentation Binary fission
644 The examples of autotrophic organisms include the following except Spirogyra Euglena Algae Hydra
Oestradiol and Prolactin and Cholecystokinin and
645 Which of these two hormones are secreted by duodenum? Progesterone Parathormone Kinase and Oestrogen Secretin
Which of the following are present on the surface of epithelial cells that are
646 responsible for food absorption? Phagocytic vesicles Zymogen granules Pinocytic vesicles Microvilli
______ is the mammalian cell that is not capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon
647 dioxide aerobically. Involuntary muscle cell White blood cell Liver cell Red blood cell
In the absence of the pancreas, which of the following compound will remain
648 undigested? Carbohydrates Proteins Fats All
649 Where in the body are most of the fat digested? Large intestine Liver Stomach Small intestine

They are all produced They act at a pH lower They are all proteolytic
650 What is common with renin, trypsin, and amylase? in the stomach than 7 enzymes They are all proteins
651 The food chain in a pond start with _____ Aquatic insects Zooplankton Small fishes Phytoplankton

652 The blood vessel that carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs is ____ Vena cava Aorta Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery
653 The small tubes that end in the alveoli are called Oesophagus Trachea Bronchi Bronchioles
The movement of ions or molecules across a cell membrane into a region of a higher
654 concentration, assisted by enzymes and requiring energy is called Facilitated diffusion Diffusion Osmosis Active transport
655 The movement of molecules under a concentration gradient is called Facilitated diffusion Osmosis Active transport Diffusion
656 The valve in the heart that divides the left atrium and the ventricle is called Semi─lunar valve Pocket valve Tricuspid valve Bicuspid valve
657 In the digestive system of human, the longest segment is Bile duct Oesophagus Large intestine Small intestine
The digestion of proteins in the human body starts with which of the following
658 enzymes? Trypsin Renin Amylase Pepsin
659 The gland responsible for the production of insulin in human body is Salivary glands Adrenaline glands Pituitary glands Pancreas
660 The excess water from the indigestible food is absorbed where? Stomach Food pipe Pancreas Large intestine
661 Which of the following organs is J─shaped? Kidney Brain Liver Stomach
662 Which of the following is a portion of the stomach? Bronchi Bowman Ileum Body
663 The majority of the digestive processes occurs in the ______ Stomach Mouth Large intestine Small intestine
664 Which of the following enzymes functions in an acidic environment? Peroxidases Hydrolases Amylases Proteases
665 The bile juice is formed in the human body by the ____ Spleen Kidney Lung Liver
666 Which of the following enzymes converts complex carbohydrates to simple ones? Pepsin Renin Trypsin Diastase
667 Which of the following organs is affected by cirrhosis? Pancreas Lung Kidney Liver
668 Renin is secreted in the _____ Duodenum Pancreas Liver Kidney
669 into glycogen for storage in the liver and muscles is called Carbogenesis Zygogenesis Glucogenesis Glycogenesis
670 _____ is the multibranched polymer of glucose produced and stored in the liver cells. Galactose Lactose Arabinose Glycogen
671 Which class of food is digested by the saliva? Fat Protein Fibre Starch
672 The procedure for ingesting food is known as Digestion Assimilation Egestion Ingestion
673 What is the end product of protein digestion? Sucrose Glucose Fat Amino acid
674 Which pancreatic cells are secreted by insulin hormone? δ─cells γ─cells α─cells β─cells
675 The part of the body part called a kind of blood bank is the ___ Heart Liver Lungs Spleen
676 The following arteries carries oxygenated blood EXCEPT Cardiac Hepatic Systemic Pulmonary
677 Which of the following has a closed type of circulatory system? Ant Mollusca Scorpion Fish
678 Which of the following are not a component of the circulatory system? Capillaries Arteries Veins Villi
679 The red blood cells are produced in the ____ Lymph nodes Heart Liver Bone marrow
680 The largest artery in the human body is the _____ None Pulmonary artery Coronary artery Aorta
681 _____ is the components that serve as doors to regulate the heart's blood flow Heart dams Aorta Chambers Valves
682 Which of the following blood component acts as an anticoagulant? Fibrinogen Thrombin Globin Heparin
683 ____ is the mineral ion that play the main role in blood clotting K Na Mg Ca
684 The normal human blood pressure is 100/80 mm of Hg 80/100 mm of Hg 80/120 mm of Hg 120/80 mm of Hg
685 When the right ventricle contracts, the blood is pump into ____ Superior vena cava Dorsal artery Pulmonary vein Pulmonary artery
686 The blood leaving the lungs is richer in ____ than blood entering the lungs Moisture Hydrogen Carbon dioxide Oxygen
687 Where is the bicuspid valve located? and the superior vena and right ventricle the left ventricle auricle and left
688 caron dioxide? Lymphocytes Thrombocytes Leucocytes Erythrocytes
689 called Pericardium Intercostal muscle Epiglottis Diaphragm
690 Which of the following defines deamination? which excess amino which excess glucose is fats and oils are which excess amino
691 ______ is the pigment in the Malpighian layer responsible for skin colouration. Hemerythrin Chlorocruorin Haemoglobin Melanin
692 Blood in mammals transport oxygen due to the presence of a pigment called Hemerythrin Chlorocruorin Melanin Haemoglobin
693 atmosphere is called Guttation Diffusion Osmoregulation Transpiration
694 plants Diffusion Osmoregulation Transpiration Guttation
695 The upward movement of the sap in the xylem vessels is brought about by Guttation Osmosis Capillarity Transpiration stream
696 Which of the following is not a function of the mammalian skeleton? delicate parts of the shape for muscles relaxes to bring about
697 _____ keeps the stem of young herbaceous plants uprightly Suction pressure Transpiration pull Osmotic pressure Turgor pressure
698 Toad carries out gaseous exchange using cavity spiracle and lungs and lungs
699 diaphragm and Pleural cavity Vertebral column Floating ribs Intercoastal muscles
700 The total number of bones in the average person's body is 33 85 105 206
701 Which of the following is not a type of skeleton? Hydrostatic skeleton Endoskeleton Exoskeleton skeleton
702 An adult man has about ________ 2─6 litres of blood 5─7 litres of blood 4─6 litres of blood 5─6 litres of blood
703 There are ______ types of blood cells 2 5 4 3
704 What type of circulatory system do arthropods exhibit? Double Single Close Open
705 In which of the following can chondroblast be found? Blood Cuticles Bones Cartilages
706 The cup─shaped part of the Bowman's capsule contains the Nephron Loop of Henle Nephridium Glomerulus
707 known as Shivering Sweating Vasoconstriction Vasodilation
708 Muscles are attached to bones by means of Connective tissue Cartilage Ligaments Tendons
709 Which of the following parts of the mammalian skin is directly involved in excretion? Malpighian layer Horny layer Sebaceous gland Sweat gland
710 Infective hepatitis is a disease of the Stomach Heart Kidney Liver
711 called Lamellae Filaments Arches Rakers
712 The manufacture of carbohydrates by plants takes place only in The leaves The green stems Flowering part Chlorophyllous parts
713 These may be due to the deficiency of Sodium Calcium Iron Magnesium
714 precipitate is produced which turns ____ Blue on heating Green on heating Yellow on heating Red on heating
715 In which of the following organs do regulation of blood sugar take place? Pancreas Lung Kidney Liver
716 bodies by the process of diffusion because they have made of cellulose in the nutrients area ratio volume ratio
717 The heart of adult frog is divided into ventricles ventricle auricle ventricle
718 The cells which lack nuclei in adult mammalian blood are the Phagocytes Leucocytes Lymphocytes Erythrocytes
719 excretory organ? Flatworms, and and Centipedes Lizards, snakes, and Frogs and Grasshoppers
720 seeds. Schizocarp Legume Capsule Follicles
721 Which of the following makes human skin a sense organ? from cold and heat content of the body dead cells It has nerve endings
722 _____ can be used to detect the loss of water vapour from the leaves of plants. Red litmus paper Lead acetate paper Hydrated copper sulphate paper
723 The respiratory organ found in termites is the Lung Lung book Air sac Trachea
724 Which of the following structures functions as an excretory system in flat worms? Nephridium Contractile vacuole Malpighian tubule Flame cell
725 _______ is the function of lenticels from the atmosphere water Food storage Gaseous exchange
726 Hormones are _____ substances in the the target organs through ducts the blood stream
727 Why is the pituitary called master gland? organ that produces the brain muscular movements controls other
728 Which of the following specialized structures are stimulated by touch? Synapse Myelin sheath Relay neurone Receptors
729 reaction are Dendrites Ganglia Axons Synapse
730 is Cranial nerves Cerebellum Medulla oblongata Cerebrum
731 ____ is the hormone which regulates the amount of glucose in the blood. Ptyalin Adrenalin Auxin Insulin
732 The following stimuli are perceived by the skin of mammals EXCEPT Cold Heat Pressure Light
733 The following part of the tongue correspond to the taste indicated against it EXCEPT Side ─ sour Centre ─ salt Tip ─ sweet Back ─ sour
734 Which part of the ear is responsible for the maintenance balance? Eustachian tube Ossicles Cochlea Semi─circular canals
735 The organ which is sensitive to smell in a centipedes is Mandible Anal cercus Nostril Antenna
736 _____ is the most sensitive spot of the retina Blind spot Cornea Conjunctiva Fovea centralis
737 The hormone which tones up the muscles of a person in time of danger is from the Thyroid gland Pancreas Liver Adrenal gland
738 Which of the following best describes the accommodation of the human eye? of the iris and lower eyelids objects distant objects
739 A wind─pollinated flower is characterized by Produces nectar Tubular shaped Brightly coloured Well exposed stamens
740 In which of the following experiment will alkaline pyrogallol be used? Excretion Photosynthesis Transpiration Germination
741 A true fruit is formed from and other floral parts other floral parts calyx A fertilized ovary
742 The following statements are true of menstruation EXCEPT If occurs monthly uterus It may cause pains contains amniotic fluid
743 is called Hypogyny Perigyny Protogyny Protandry
744 Where in the kidney does ultrafiltration takes place Pelvis Renal vein Loop of Henle Bowman's capsule
745 The natural tendency of organisms as they evolve is to feed indiscriminately increase in number decrease in size structures
746 crevices? flattened body Claws on the legs body Compound eyes
747 Which of the following caste of termites lacks pigmentation? King Queen Soldier Worker
748 ____ Population Niche Colony Community
749 One of the ways in which body cells differ from gamete cells is in the they contain chromosomes pairs contain chromosomes they
750 The theory of spontaneous generation stated that spontaneously, both living and forms only non─living things
751 Which of the following is linked to evolution? Competition Reproduction Extinction Variation
752 Discontinuous variations are due to which of the following? assortment chromosomes Crossing over Mutation
753 ________ is the evolutionary history of an organism. Palaeontology Ancestry Ontogeny Phylogeny
754 Evidence to proof of Evolution is mostly provided by Vestigial organs Morphology Embryo Fossils
755 Who proposed the theory of use and disuse? Darwin Mendel Aristotle Lamarck
756 Genetic drift is on the account of Variations Mutation Increase in population Decrease in population
757 Soil erosion can be effectively checked by the following EXCEPT Cultivating cover crops Practising strip cropping Constructing terraces vegetation
758 to short plant in the offspring will be 1:2 1:3 3:1 1:1
759 dwarf plant? 3 tall : 1 short 2 tall : 2 short 0 tall : 4 short 4 tall : 0 short
760 The character normally displayed by an organism is as a result of the effect of Environment Chromosomes Mutations Hormones and Genes
761 Which blood group is generally known as the universal donor? B AB A O
762 _____ are the character─producing factors in living organisms Alleles Chromatids Chromosomes Genes
763 The character by which an organism is recognized are termed its Anatomy Genotype Physiology Phenotype
764 _____ is the hereditary material in a cell. RMA DMA RNA DNA
765 Which of the following chlorides is insoluble in water? KCl NH₄Cl NaCl AgCl
766 When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be Adiabatic Exothermic Isothermal Endothermic
The energy which accompanies the addition of an electron to an isolated gaseous Ionisation energy
Atomisation Electronegativity Electron affinity
767 atom is
Which of the following apparatus can be used to measure a specific volume of a Beaker
Conical flask Pipette Measuring Cylinder
768 liquid accurately?
769 An aqueous solution of (NH₄)₂SO₄ is Amphoteric Basic Neutral Acidic
770 The refreshing characteristic taste of fizzy drinks is due to the presence of Oxygen Glucose Sucrose Carbon (iv) oxide
 Which of the following salts when dissolved in water will form a solution that will KCl
NaCl AgBr NH₄Cl
771 change blue litmus to red?
What is the force of attraction that hold the molecule of sodium chloride together? Coordinate
Covalent Hydrogen Ionic
772
773 The weakest binding power is provided by ___ Hydrogen bonds Ionic bond Metallic bonds Vander waal forces
The minimum amount of energy required for effective collisions between reacting Bond energy
Potential energy Lattice energy Activation energy
774 particles is known as
If 11 and 17 are the atomic numbers of elements A and B respectively, the Dative
Covalent Metallic Ionic
775 interatomic bond between these elements is
776 The compound with the highest ionic character among the following is CCl₄ PCl₅ BCl₅ CaCl₂
777 Molecules of naphthalene are held together by Ionic forces Covalent forces Dative bond Vander Waals forces
778 What is the volume occupied by 3 moles of oxygen at s.t.p? 22.4dm³ 44.8dm³ 11.2dm³ 67.2dm³
779 The oxidation number of Fe in [Fe(CN) ₆]²⁻ is ─3 ─2 ─1 4
780 The type of hybridisation found in the molecules of ammonia is sp sp² sp²d sp³
The separation technique used in separating kerosene from water is called Sublimation Separating funnel
Filtration Centrifugation
781 method
782 Potassium atom undergoes ionisation by gaining one electron gaining one proton sharing one electron losing one electron
783 Which of the following bonds exist in the molecules of water ? Dative bond Covalent bond Metallic bond Hydrogen bond
784 The following molecules possess hydrogen bond except H₂O HF NH₃ H₂S
785 Which of the following is used in the manufacture of glass? NaCl NaNO₃ NaBr Na₂CO₃
786 A substance with a pH of 3 suggests that it is Neutral Alkaline Normal Acidic
The colour of phenolphthalein indicator in alkaline solution at the end ─point of an Blue
Orange Red Pink
787 acid─base tra on is
788 The bond formed between NH ₃ and H⁺ to form ammonium is called Covalent Metallic Ionic Dative
According to kinetic theory, an increase in temperature causes the kinetic energy of be zero
decrease Remain constant increase
789 particles to
Which of the following separation techniques is used in removing stones from yam Sublimation
Filtration Decantation Sieving
790 powder ?
791 What is the mass of 4 mole of oxygen ? 64g 32g 48g 128g
The balancing of chemical reaction is based on the law of Multiple proportion
Reciprocal proportion Definite proportion. Conservation of mass
792
793 Consider the reaction : 3Cl₂ + 2NH₃ → N₂ + 6HCl , Chlorine acts as Oxidising agent Catalyst Hydrolysing agent Reducing agent
794 Which of the following pH values indicates that a solution is a strong acid? 6 9 11 3
How many moles of oxygen would contain 3.6 x 10² ⁴ molecules? [ Avogadro's 5
7 2 6
795 number = 6.02 x 10²³ ]
Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of chemical reaction ? Presence of a catalyst
Temperature Reactants concentration Enthalpy change
796
797 What does X stands for in the following expression; pH = Log ₁₀ [X] Solubility product Equilibrium constant Degree of acidity Hydrogen ion
798 The number of atoms in 2.4g of magnesium is 1.2 × 10²³ 2.4× 10²³ 3.6 × 10²³ 6.02 × 10²²
Consider the reaction : Fe₂O₂ + xCO → yFe + 3CO₂ , the values of x and y respec vely 5 and 4
3 and 4 2 and 6 3 and 2
799 are
800 What is the volume occupied by 4 moles of ammonia at s.t.p? 22.4dm³ 44.8dm³ 67.4dm³ 89.6dm³
801 CuO + H₂ → Cu + H₂O , in the equa on above , hydrogen func ons as Oxidising agent Hydrolysing agent Catalyst Reducing agent
The average amount of energy associated with breaking or making one mole of a Potential energy
Activation energy Lattice energy Bond energy
802 particular bond in its gaseous state is…………
803 Which of the following metals is common to both brass and bronze? Aluminium Lead Iron Copper
804 The positively charged particle in an atom is called ___ Electron Neutron Deuteron Proton
805 The shape of molecule of carbon (iv) oxide is Tetrahedral Pyramidal Octahedral Linear
806 Which of the following halogens is solid at room temperature? Chlorine Fluorine Bromine Iodine
The number of unpaired electrons in an element that has atomic number of 9 is ___ 4
2 5 1
807
808 Which of the following oxides is acidic? Cao Na₂O NO SO₂
809 If X is a group IV element, its oxide would be represented as XO₃ X₂O XO XO₂
810 Nucleon of an atom consist of Electron and Proton Neutron and Electron Neutron and Nucleon Proton and Neutron
811 Which of the following elements can form more than one acidic oxide? Carbon Aluminium Hydrogen Sulphur
812 Which of the following elements has the highest ionisation energy Carbon Oxygen Lithium Fluorine
813 The compound used in fire extinguisher is Oxygen Sulphur Ammonia Carbon dioxide
814 Polyvinyl chloride is used to produce Pencils Ink Pen Pipes
815 An element used in the production of matches is Copper Aluminium Nitrogen Sulphur
816 Which of the following metals will not displace hydrogen from water or steam Sodium Calcium Iron Copper
817 The extraction of aluminium from its ore is done by Floatation Roasting Convection Electrolysis
818 Which of the following elements is a non metal? Sodium Calcium Magnesium Oxygen
Atoms of the same element having the same number of protons but different mass Allotropes
Isomers Isotones Isotopes
819 numbers are called
820 Transition metals includes the following except Nickel Manganese Iron Sulphur
821 Which of the following is used in water treatment as a germicide Oxygen Fluorine Iodine Chlorine
822 The following are noble gases except Neon Argon Helium Nickel
823 Bauxite is the ore of which of the following metals Copper Iron Calcium Aluminium
824 The valence electrons of the element ₁₃Al are in the 1s orbital 2p orbital 2s orbital 3s and 3p orbitals
825 The purest form of iron is Pig iron Cast iron Steel Wrought iron
826 Which of the following has the highest metallic property Sodium Lithium Potassium Caesium
Which of the following elements would not displace copper from a solution of Calcium
Lead Potassium Mercury
827 copper ions?
828 The noble gas used in filling electric lamps is called Helium Neon Krypton Argon
829 Which of the following halogens is used in the treatment of goitre? Chlorine Fluorine Bromine Iodine
830 What class of element is Nickel? Alkali metal Non ─metal Metalloid Transition metal
831 The metal extracted from cassiterite is Calcium Magnesium Copper Tin
832 The hardest known substance is Copper Graphite Sulphur Diamond
833 The use of diamond as abrasive is due to its Metallic lustre Durability Ductility Hardness
834 Which of these halogens prevents tooth decay ? Iodine Chlorine Bromine Fluorine
If the atomic number of an element X is 15 and its relative atomic mass is 31, how 18
17 20 16
835 many neutrons does an atom X contain?
Be, Mg and Ca are in the same group in the periodic table because they have same electronic shell same number of
same ionisation energy same atomic radius
836 valence electrons
837 Which of the following is often referred to as laughing gas ? NO₂ NO HNO₃ N₂O
838 Which of the following is not an allotrope of sulphur ? Rhombic sulphur Monoclinic sulphur Amorphous sulphur Dihydric sulphur
839 The use of sulphur to vulcanize rubber is mainly to make it softer Blacker cheaper tougher
840 Metals are good conductors of Positive ions Negative ions Not malleable Heat and electricity
841 Non metals react by Losing electrons Rejecting electrons Ejecting electrons Gaining electrons
842 Metals generally have High solubility poor conductivity low conductivity High melting points
843 Which of the following is not in group 1 in the periodic table ? Sodium Potassium Lithium Calcium
844 The most abundant metal in the earth crust is Sodium Calcium Magnesium Aluminium
845 Which of the following is often used as catalysts in chemical reactions ? Alkali metal Non metal Noble gases Transition metals
846 When two elements react they form Mixtures Ions Elements Compounds
847 Which of the following is an element ? HCl CO NO Mg
848 How many different elements are present in calcium trioxocarbonate (iv) ? 2 6 4 3
849 When metals are mixed with other metals , then ──────── is made Compound Mixture Element Alloy
850 Atoms are joined together by Mass Number Charges Chemical bond
851 The following are transition metals except Cobalt Chromium Iron Calcium
852 What is the name of the metal whose atomic number is 12 ? Vanadium Copper Sodium Magnesium
853 The noble gas used in filling balloons is Neon Argon Krypton Helium
854 Which of the following is not amphoteric oxide ZnO PbO SnO CuO
855 The molecule which has a bent shape is NH₃ O₂ CH₄ H₂O
856 Which of the following elements is diatomic? Sodium Potassium Helium Oxygen
857 Aqueous salt which loses its water of crystallisation when exposed to air is Hygroscopic Deliquescent Effervescent Efflorescent
858 If the electronic configuration of an atom is 2, 8,8,1, what is its atomic number ? 21 22 16 19
Neutral atom of argon with atomic number 18 has the same number of electrons as O²⁻
Mg²⁺ Na⁺ K⁺
859
860 When atom loses an electron , it becomes Negatively charged Anion Chemically inactive Cation
Four elements W, X, Y and Z have atomic numbers 3, 6, 9 and 17 respectively. Which Z
Y X W
861 of these elements is a metal ?
862 The number of atoms in one mole of a substance is equal to the Oxidation number Mass number Atomic number Avogadro's number
An element with the electronic configuration of 1S² 2S² 2P ⁶ 3S¹ would have a 3
0 2 1
863 combining power of
864 Which of the following is not an isotope of Hydrogen ? Protium Deuterium Tritium Elaterium
865 Which of the following ions has the electronic configuration 2, 8 ? Cl⁻ K⁺ Ca²⁺ Mg²⁺
What is the name of the element whose electronic configuration is represented as Sodium
Sulphur Potassium Phosphorus
866 1s² 2s² 2s⁶ 3s² 3p³ ?
867 The process by which a substance changes directly from gas to solid is known as Precipitation Crystallisation Centrifugation Sublimation
868 Which of the following molecules has the highest boiling point HF NH₃ HI H₂O
When the temperature of 2dm³ of an ideal gas is decreased from 100k to half, 16dm³
8dm³ 32dm³ 4dm³
869 calculate the final volume of the gas
A process whereby a vapour loses some of its kinetic energy to a colder body and Coagulation
Sedimentation Flocculation Condensation
870 changes into the liquid state is called
What pressure will be required to compress 200cm³ of Hydrogen at 400mmHg to 600mmHg
400mmHg 1200mmHg 800mmHg
871 100cm³, provided temperature remains constant ?
872 Which of the following is a neutral oxide ? NO₂ CO₂ SO₂ NO
Which of the following separation techniques is routinely applied in petroleum Crystallisation
Evaporation Precipitation Fractional distillation
873 industry ?
The following methods can be used to remove hardness in a sample of water except Addition of washing
Boiling Distillation Filtration
874 soda
875 The following are products of destructive distillation of coal except Coke Coal gas Coal tar Producer gas
The existence of two or more forms of the same element in the same physical state Isomerism
Isotopy Resonance Allotropy
876 is known as
877 Electrons enter into orbitals singly before pairing is an expression of Aufbau principle Pauli's principle Dalton's law Hund's rule
878 The products of reaction of acid and base are Acid and water Base and water Water and alkalis Salt and water only
879 The following acids are monobasic except HCl CH₃CH₂COOH CH₃COOH H₂SO₃
An aqueous solution is alkaline if It contain more HO₃⁺
its pH is low its pH is constant its pH is high
880 than OH⁻
881 Greenhouse effect is associated with the presence of excess Hydrogen Ammonia Nitrogen Carbon ( iv) oxide
882 The element used in the vulcanisation of rubber is Chlorine Phosphorus Calcium Sulphur
883 The number of replaceable hydrogen atoms in one acid indicates its Acidity Reactivity pH value Basicity
884 The measure of disorderliness or randomness in a chemical system is called Enthalpy Free energy Equilibrium Entropy
885 If the value of ∆H for a reaction is positive, it means that the reaction is Exothermic Spontaneous Irreversible Endothermic
886 An atom with 11 protons, 11 electrons and 12neutrons has a mass number of 30 42 18 23
 Substances which absorb water from the atmosphere until it dissolves in the Efflorescent
Hygroscopic Saturated Deliquescent
887 absorbed water and forms a solution are said to be
The atomic number of calcium is 20. What is the number of electrons in a calcium 14
16 22 18
888 ion?
889 Which of the following gases is lighter than air HCl CO₂ SO₂ NH₃
890 The oxidation number of manganese in KMnO ₄ is 6 5 4 7
The atomic number of an element will be equal to its mass number if it has fully filled
exhibits isotopy it has no electron It has no neutron
891 valence shell
892 Which of the following is not an ionic compound ? CaCl₂ KCl NaCl NH₃
The initial volume and pressure of a given mass of gas are 2V and 4P respectively. 4P
6P 10P 8P
893 Find its pressure when its volume is halved.
894 How many electrons are present in Al³ ⁺? 12 electrons 13 electrons 14 electrons 10 electrons
Which of the following processes does not take place in domestic water treatment ? Sedimentation
Chlorination Flocculation Hydration
895
896 The shape of a graphite crystal is Pyramidal Tetrahedral Linear Hexagonal
Rare gases are stable because they Contain more protons
are chemically active than electrons are isotopic in nature have octet structure
897
898 Which of the following scientists discovered electron ? John Dalton Rutherford Millikan J.J Thompson
A solution which contain more of the solutes than it can normally dissolve at that Colloids Super saturated
Saturated solution Unsaturated solution
899 temperature is called solution
900 The compound responsible for temporary hardness of water is CaCO₃ Cao CaCl₂ Ca (HCO₃)₂
901 An intermediate between a true solution and a suspension is called Solution Dispersant Dilute solution Colloids
Hard water can be converted to soft water through Filtration The use of ion
Chlorination Aeration
902 exchange resin
903 The pollution from petroleum spillage can best be dispersed by Evaporation Aeration Chlorination Pouring detergents
When a drop of water is added to anhydrous copper (ii) sulphate, it changes from Pink
Red Purple Blue
904 white to
905 Corrosion of metals result from the combined action of Nitrogen and water Hydrogen and water Carbon and Water Water and Oxygen
906 The methods of preventing iron from rusting include the following except Painting Galvanising Electroplating Drying
The release of unwanted substances into the environment by natural force is called Transpiration
Evaporation Precipitation Pollution
907
908 How many isotopes does hydrogen have ? 4 2 5 3
A solution which undergoes a negligible change in pH on addition of moderate Weak solution
Saturated solution Strong solution Buffer solution
909 quantities of acid and alkali is called
910 Which of the following is produced by Haber process CO₂ Cl₂ O₂ NH₃
Acid is a substance which donates a proton is an expression given by Lewis theory Bronsted ─ Lowry
Arrhenius theory Robert theory
911 Theory
912 Which of the following is not a strong acid ? HCl HNO₃ H₂SO₄ CH₃COOH
913 The region around the nucleus where electrons can be located is called? Spectra Field Quanta Orbital
What is the maximum number of electrons an M shell of the atom can 32 electrons
16 electrons 2 electrons 18 electrons
914 accommodate?
If the electronegativity difference of two elements is large, the type of bond that can Hydrogen bond
Covalent Metallic bond Ionic
915 be formed between them is
916 Which of the following gases is denser than air ? O₂ NH₃ H₂ SO₂
917 Which of the following is an acidic salt ? Zn ( OH) Cl (NH₄)SO₄ Mg(NO₃)₂ NaHSO₄
Diamond does not conduct electricity because Is a solid at room It contains no bonded It has no free valence
It is a giant molecule
918 temperature electrons electrons
A solution which contain lower concentration of the solutes than it can normally Super saturated Colloids
Saturated Unsaturated solution
919 dissolve at a given temperature is called solution
920 Which of the following gases can be collected by upward delivery HCl CO₂ SO₂ NH₃
921 The determination of heat of combustion is carried out with Thermometer Desiccator Boiling tube Bomb calorimeter
922 The rate of chemical reaction of solids is not affected by Catalyst Concentration Particle size Pressure
923 A gas that is collected by downward delivery is likely to be Lighter than air Insoluble in water Dissolve in water Denser than air
924 Which of the following substances contribute to global warming ? Ammonia Oxygen Nitrogen Chlorofluorocarbon
925 A material consisting of only one phase is said to be Heterogeneous Multidimensional Complex Homogenous
the rate of formation the rates of the
all the reactants have of the products all the products have forward and
Equilibrium is said to be attained in reversible reaction when
been used up decreases with time been formed backward reactions
926 are equal
sodium
caustic soda Tetraoxosulphate (iv) acid dyes
927 The following are heavy chemicals except trioxocarbonate (IV)
Nitrogen and oxygen Carbon monoxide,
Hydrogen and Carbon
Methane and Hydrogen Hydrogen and
(iv) oxide
928 Producer gas is a mixture of? Nitrogen
929 Which of the following gases can be used to bleach moist litmus paper? Hydrogen Oxygen Ammonia Chlorine
930 Which of the following pollutants is biodegradable ? Metal scrape Lead compounds Hydrogen sulphide Sewage
931 A river contaminated by acid will have a pH of about___ 7 9 11 3
The component of air that is removed when air is bubbled into alkaline pyrogallol Nitrogen
Carbon dioxide Ammonia Oxygen
932 solution is
Water gas is a mixture of Water and Oxygen Carbon monoxide and
Hydrogen and Nitrogen Hydrogen and Sulphur
933 Hydrogen
934 The components of universal indicator solution can best be separated by Filtration Sedimentation Sublimation Chromatography
 Slightly ionizes in Does not conduct completely ionises in
Sparingly soluble
935 A strong acid is one which water electricity water
In order to remove one electron from a 4s orbital of gaseous calcium atom, about Activation energy
Electron affinity Potential energy Ionisation energy
936 300KJMol─1 of energy is required. This energy is referred to as
937 A change which involves the formation of new substance is called Physical change Spontaneous change Radical change Chemical change
938 Which of the following is not a mixture ? Sea water Soil Urine Glucose
939 The separation technique often employed in the manufacture of sugar and drugs is Sublimation Sieving Filtration Crystallisation
940 The major raw material for cement industry is Air Water Dyes Limestone
The heat evolved when one mole of substance is burned completely in oxygen under Heat of Solution
Heat of Neutralisation Heat of Formation Heat of Combustion
941 standard condition is known as
A reaction which has potential to occur on its own without the assistance of any Enthalpy
Entropy Combination reaction Spontaneous reaction
942 external agent is known as
943 Which of the following is the purest form of natural water ? Spring water Well water Lake water Rain water
944 Which of the following is a peroxide ? MgO Fe₂O₃ CO₂ H₂O₂
Trioxonitrate (v) acid is described as a strong acid because it is concentrated it is highly ionized in
it is corrosive soluble in water
945 water
Magnesium is Magnesium is an alkali Copper is a transition Magnesium is more
946 Magnesium displaces copper from an aqueous solution of copper (ll) salt because amphoteric metal metal reactive than copper
A chemical reaction which can be made to proceed in either direction is called Spontaneous reaction
Exothermic reaction Endothermic reaction Reversible reaction
947
948 A substance that is reduced in a chemical reaction is the Reducing agent Hydrating agent Catalyst Oxidizing agent
Which of the following does not influence preferential discharge of ions during Position of ions in the Concentration of ions
Nature of electrodes Types of ions
949 electrolysis activity series
950 The measure of acidity or alkalinity of a solution is called Dissociation Equilibrium constant Alkalinity Ph
951 Which of the following is not a pure substance? Gold Copper Water Sugar solution
Pure substances that have fixed compositions is known as Heterogeneous Pure substances
Elements Homogenous mixtures
952 mixture
953 Which of the following is an example of a compound ? Hydrogen Oxygen Air Ammonia
954 Which of the following is a not physical property ? Colour Odour Density Composition
955 Soil is an example of a Element Compound Pure substances Mixture
956 Which of the following represents hybridisation in ethene ? sp sp²d sp³ sp²
957 The following are natural polymers except Protein Starch Rubber Polyethene
958 The following are monosaccharides except Glucose Fructose Galactose Cellulose
959 Tollen's reagent is used to differentiate between alkanals and ──────── Alkanoates Alkane Alkanol Alkanones
960 The process of removing carbon dioxide from carboxylic acid is known as Methylation Acetylation Acidification Decarboxylation
Which of the following is not an alkane ? Pentane
Cyclohexane Heptane 1,2 ─ dimethyl hexene
961
962 The geometry of methane is Linear Trigonal planar Trigonal pyramidal Tetrahedral
963 Which of the following reactions is common to all hydrocarbons? Polymerisation Addition Condensation Combustion
964 An acid present in proteins is lactic acid Citric acid Ascorbic acid Amino acid
965 Which of the following compound is aromatic? Pentene Hexane Propane Benzene
966 An unsaturated hydrocarbon used for welding purposes is Pentane Propene Hexan─2─ol Acetylene
967 A compound with general formula R ₂CO is Ester Alkane Alkanol Alkanone
968 The process of converting starch to glucose is called __ Fermentation Condensation Dehydration. Hydrolysis
969 Which of the following hastens the ripening of fruits ? Ethanol Esters Ether Ethylene
970 The general formula of alkanals is RCOOR' RCOOH R₂CO RCHO
971 The reaction between ethene and Hydrogen iodide is called Combustion Substitution Polymerization Addition
972 Alkanes react with halogens mainly by Addition Reduction Oxidation Substitution
973 The complete oxidation of butanol gives Butane Butanal Butene Butanoic acid
974 Which of the following element has ability to catenate ? Chlorine Nitrogen Bromine Carbon
975 The general formula of alkanoic acid is given as RCHO RCOR' ROH RCOOH
976 The compound represented as CH₃CHOHCH₃ belong to which class of alkanols Tertiary alkanol Primary alkanol Trihydic alkanol Secondary alkanol
977 The major raw material in a plastic industry is Ethanol Esters Ethane Ethene
978 How many carbon atoms are there in methyl benzene? 5 3 4 7
979 An alkene can be converted to alkane by Halogenation Dehydration Decomposition Hydrogenation
980 An elimination reaction occurs when chloroethane is converted to Propanol Esters Ethanoic acid Ethene
981 Esterification is a reaction between alkanoic acids and Alkanoates Alkene Alkanone Alkanol
982 The reaction between ethanol and concentrated sulphuric acid produces Ethanol Acetone Ether Ethene
983 The formula (CH3)₃COH is that of a Primary alkanol Secondary alkanol Primary alkanol Tertiary alkanol
984 The end product of complete hydrolysis of starch is Maltose Sucrose Fructose Glucose
985 Which of the following compounds will undergo resonance? Pentane Butene Heptane Benzene
986 Hydrogenation of pentene yields Pentanoic acid Pentanal Pent─ 2─one Pentane
987 Hydrocarbons includes the following except Butane Ethane Benzene Methylbutanoate
Which of the following compounds can be represented by the molecular formula Butanol
Ethanol Hexane Propanol
988 C₃H₈O ?
989 Catalytic hydrogenation of benzene produces Hexane Pentane Cyclohexene Cyclohexane
990 The property which makes alcohol soluble in water is the Ionic character Boiling point Covalent nature Hydrogen bond
991 Petroleum product that is used in making candles is Bitumen Asphalt Petroleum ether Paraffin wax
992 Fractions of petroleum includes the following except Petrol Kerosene Diesel Chlorine
The conversion of straight chain hydrocarbons to branched and cyclic hydrocarbons Distillation
Cracking Polymerisation Reforming
993 is known as
994 The unsaturated hydrocarbons includes the following except propyne Ethene Cyclohexene Butane
995 Which of the following petroleum fractions is used for paving roads ? Lubricating oil Kerosene Gasoline Asphalt
 996 The following gases decolorize bromine water except Ethene Ethyne Propyne Propane
997 Examples of polymers include the following except Starch Nylon wool Glass
The reaction between alkanoic acids and alkanols in the presence of a mineral acid is Addition
Saponification Substitution Esterification
998 known as
999 The alkaline hydrolysis of fats and oils is otherwise known as Esterification Hydration Addition Saponification
1000 Which of the following has the lowest boiling point Water Ethanol Propanoic acid Hexane
1001 The type of isomerism exhibited by cis and trans isomers is Positional Functional Optical Geometrical
1002 The IUPAC name of the compound Cl ₂CHCH₂OH 1,2─chloropropanol 2─chloro ethanol 4─chloropropanol 2,2─dichloro ethanol
The condensation of two units of glucose molecules produces a disaccharide called Fructose
Sucrose Lactose Maltose
1003
1004 Which of the following compounds is a secondary alkanol ? Ethanol Propanol Hexan─1─ol Propan ─2─ol
1005 The formation of ethene from dehydration of ethanol can be described as ─────── Addition reaction Substitution reaction Displacement reaction Elimination reaction
1006 Which of the following halogens has the lowest electro positivity ? Bromine Chlorine Iodine Fluorine
1007 An element that has atomic number 15 belongs to which period 4 2 5 3
1008 The valence electrons of potassium are contained in 3s orbital 2s orbital 1s orbital 4s orbital
1009 A physical property that increases across the period is Electro positivity Atomic radius Ionic Size Ionisation
1010 Which of the following is not alkaline earth metal Magnesium Beryllium Calcium Potassium
X is an element with atomic number 14. To which group in the periodic table does X 2
6 5 4
1011 belong?
To which group and period respectively does an element with 16 electrons belong? 2 and 5
3 and 4 3 and 8 6 and 3
1012
1013 Which of the following is not a P ─ block element ? Sulphur Phosphorus Carbon Potassium
1014 Which of the following elements is a d ─block element? Fluorine phosphorus Sodium Manganese
1015 Which of the following elements has the least atomic radius ? Potassium Sodium Caesium Lithium
1016 The number of orbitals in a d ─sub level of an atom is 3 4 2 5
1017 Which of the following properties increases down a group in the periodic table? Electron affinity Ionisation energy Electronegativity Electro positivity
1018 Which of the following halogens is the least reactive? Bromine Fluorine Chlorine Iodine
1019 In the periodic table, all the element in the same period have the same Valence electrons Atomic number Proton number Energy level
1020 Which of the following is not an alkali metal ? Lithium Sodium Potassium Magnesium
1021 Which of these metals will not react with cold water or steam ? Magnesium Calcium Sodium Beryllium
1022 Group( ii) elements are also known as Alkali metal Rare gases Metalloids Alkaline earth metal
1023 All the following exist as diatomic molecules except Fluorine Iodine Bromine Sulphur
1024 The element with electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p ⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ is Halogen A non─ metal Metal An inert gas
Which group does an element having the highest electronegativity in a periodic Group II
Group V Group III Group VII
1025 table belong?
Calcium atom undergoes ionisation by Sharing one electron
Gaining two electrons Gaining one electron losing two electrons
1026
1027 To which block in the periodic table does ₂₆Fe belong ? s ─ block p ─ block f ─ block d ─ block
W is an element with atomic number 18. To which group in the periodic table does 4
2 6 0
1028 W belong ?
Which of the following values will decrease as you move left to right in a period of Electronegativity
Ionisation energy Electron affinity Atomic radius
1029 the periodic table
Elements that have similar properties will have the same __________ on the atomic radius
period atomic mass group
1030 periodic table
1031 Which of these elements has the smallest atomic radius? Silicon Lead Germanium Carbon
1032 How many valence electrons does the element oxygen have? 4 5 2 6
1033 Which group of elements are characterized by stability and lack of reactivity? Alkali metal Halogens Metalloids Noble gases
They conduct They are ductile They form negative
They lose electrons
1034 Which of the following qualities is not typical of metals? electricity ions
1035 Which of the following elements is not diatomic? Fluorine Oxygen Chlorine Helium
1036 Which of the following elements is not considered to be a metalloid? Silicon Arsenic Antimony Calcium
If a solid element is dull, brittle, not conductive of electricity, and not reactive with Transition metal
Alkaline earth metal Alkali metal Non metal
1037 water, what type of element will it likely be?
Transition metals are Transition metals
They conduct malleable and ductile Transition metals form have valence
electricity and heat ionic compounds electrons in more
1038 In what way are transition metals different than alkali metals? than one shell
1039 The group in the periodic table that is the least chemically reactive is ________ Group V Group II Group III Group O
1040 The periodic table of elements is structured in order of increasing _ Atomic mass Atomic radius Atomic size Atomic number
Which group on the periodic table contains elements that are known for their Group 0
Group V Group VI Group 1
1041 reactivity with water?