UCAT

COLLEGE OF MEDICINE AND HEALTH
SCIENCES
CLINICAL APTITUDE TEST FOR BASIC MEDICAL EDUCATION AND DENTAL SURGERY
PROGRAMMES
General Information and Test Format
1. This clinical aptitude test assesses a range of mental abilities identified as important by
Medical and Dental Schools.
2. The test examines innate skills and not curriculum content.
3. The total duration of the test is 150 minutes (2 hours 30 minutes) and timing is very strict!
4. The test is composed of 5 sections written in a multiple-choice format, and each is
separately timed.
5. You will be notified at the beginning and at the end of each section to help you to switch
from one section to another to move from a section to another.
6. Sections, objectives, number of questions, and timing per section are detailed in the Table
below.
Sections Objectives Number of Time (including

Questions instructions)
1-Verbal To assess the candidate's ability 44 questions 27 minutes 30
Reasoning to critically evaluate information seconds
that is presented in a written
form.
2-Decision Making To assess the candidate's ability 29 questions 40 minutes
to apply logic to reach a decision
or conclusion, evaluate
arguments and analyze statistical
information
3-Quantitative To assess the candidate's ability 36 questions 31 minutes 15
Reasoning to critically evaluate information seconds
presented in a numerical form
4-Abstract To assess the candidate's ability 55 questions 17 minutes 30
Reasoning to use the convergent and seconds
divergent thinking to infer
relationships from information
5-Situational To measure the candidate's 69 questions 33 minutes 45
Judgement capacity to understand real world seconds
situations and to identify critical
factors and appropriate behavior
in dealing with them.
7. You are advised to attempt all questions.

8. There will be additional instructions specific to each section.
9. You must put your answers on a separate answer sheet on where you will mark only one
best answer per question by filling a circle corresponding to the best answer letter.
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SECTION 1: VERBAL REASONING
Instructions
o The section comprises 11 text passages, each with four questions in form of a statement,
making a total of 44 questions.
o This examination section must be completed within 27 minutes and 30 seconds. This
includes one minute and half to read instructions and 26 minutes to answer questions.
o For each statement, there are three answer options.
• Option A – True: This means that, based on the information in the text passage,
the statement is true or logically follows from the passage.
• Option B – False: This means that, based on the information in the passage, the
statement is false.
• Option C – Can’t tell: This means that you cannot tell from the information in
the passage whether the statement is true or false.
o Base your answers only on information in the passage and not on any other knowledge
you may have about the topic.
o Please answer all items.
o All unanswered items will be scored as incorrect.
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Text Passage 1
The development of toothpaste began as long ago as 500 BC in China and India. It was known
even back then, in China, that cleaning the teeth could alleviate toothache. Crushed bone,
crushed egg and oyster shells, were some of the things used to clean debris from teeth. Tooth
powders were the next step in teeth hygiene, consisting of powdered charcoal, powdered bark
and some flavouring agents. This would be applied to teeth using a simple stick. Toothpowder
or dentifrice was first available in Britain in the late 18th century; it usually came in a ceramic
pot and was available either as a powder or paste. The rich applied it with brushes and the poor
with their fingers. Modern toothpastes were developed in the 1800s. A dentist called Peabody
was the first to add soap to toothpaste in 1824. Chalk was first added to toothpaste by John
Harris in the 1850s. In 1873, toothpaste was first mass produced into nice smelling toothpaste
in a jar.
1. Dentifrice was first available in Britain in the 1800s.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
2. The development of toothpaste predated the development of toothbrushes.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tel
3. By the introduction of toothpowder in Britain, only the rich could afford toothbrushes.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
4. Dentifrice came before crushed bone.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 2
The Haber Process (or Haber-Bosch Process) is the chemical reaction between nitrogen and
hydrogen to produce ammonia. The reaction is reversible, which means that although ammonia
is formed in the “forward” reaction, it can just as readily “unreact”, re-forming nitrogen and
hydrogen, in the “reverse” reaction. The direction of the reaction depends on external
conditions such as temperature and pressure. Usually the reaction is carried out at between
450OC and 5000C and at pressures of 250 times atmospheric. An iron catalyst is used to increase
the rate of ammonia production. Although a pressure of greater than 250 times atmospheric
would result in more ammonia production, very high pressures are not economically beneficial.
This is because the energy required to build a plant to withstand high pressures and to maintain
high pressures would not out- weigh the economic gains made from the increased production of
ammonia. Ammonia is vital for agriculture since it is used to make fertilizers. Our demand for
fertilizers is so great that in 2002, 1% of the total world energy consumption was consumed in
the Haber process.
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5. The end-product of the Haber process is fertilizer.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
6. The iron catalyst increases the quantity of ammonia produced.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
7. A reaction occurring at a pressure of 500 times atmospheric would be economically

unviable.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
8. Since 2002 world demand for fertilizers has increased.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 3
The skin is composed of several layers one of which is eponymously entitled the Malpighian
layer after Italian anatomist Marcello Malpighi (1628–1694). While studying the skin, Malpighi
also described the patterns on the finger pulps which were to be termed fingerprints by others
in the late 19th century. The characteristics of fingerprints are now routinely used to detect
crime by matching suspects to the scene of a crime or to a murder weapon. Standard patterns
such as loops and whorls as well as composite patterns have necessitated various classification
systems to be developed. This ensures all prints can be categorized and hence identified with
confidence between specimens.
9. Marcello Malpighi discovered fingerprints in all but name in Italy in the 17th century.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
10. Fingerprints are a routine method of detecting crime in modern usage.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
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11. Loops, whorls and other composite patterns are standardized to ensure a classification
system can be developed.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
12. If the fingerprint patterns on a murder weapon match the fingerprint patterns of a
suspect, then that suspect is guilty of committing a crime.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 4
One reason which is sometimes used against the possibility of time travel and expanded upon
by Steven Hawking is that if time travel were possible then where are all the time travel
tourists? A similar argument is made to disprove the existence of intelligent life elsewhere in
the universe: if there was intelligent life other than on this planet, Earth would be surrounded
by aliens. There are many reasons that could be used to explain why time travel is possible and
yet there are apparently no time travelers amongst us. For example, it may be that time travel is
only possible into the future and not into the past. Alternatively, the laws of time travel may be
such that one can only travel back in time to the point at which one invented a time machine
and no further. Since no time machine yet exists, there will be no time travel tourists.
13. Time travel, argues Steven Hawking, is impossible.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
14. Intelligent life must not exist elsewhere in the universe if aliens have not visited Earth in
great numbers.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
15. Time travel is governed by laws which state that one can only move forward in time.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
16. If a time machine had been invented in the future, we would have heard about it by now.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
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Text Passage 5
Killing another person is often seen as inexcusable and wrong. However, many countries still
enforce the death penalty. Although it seems common- sense for society to have some
restriction on killing other people, the rules vary greatly between cultures and across the ages.
Killing a human is seen as worse than killing an animal or plant. However, in some cases merely
belonging to the species Homo sapiens does not necessarily imbue a person’s life with intrinsic
value. For example, the Greeks and Romans would routinely sacrifice slaves, deformed
newborns or so-called “barbarians” guided by dogma which changed from time to time. The
only tempering of this view was brought about by religious concepts of immortal souls and that
to kill a person usurps the position of God to decide when we live and die.
17. Countries which still support the death penalty are acting against common-sense.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
18. Killing animals is more acceptable than killing humans because animals do not feel pain.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
19. The ancient Greeks and Romans were not Christian because they routinely killed
humans.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
20. A “barbarian” although belonging to the species Homo sapiens was not considered as
having human value.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 6
Consumers becoming more environmentally friendly have driven a move towards “greener”
chemicals by manufacturers and retailers. Customers that demand a company with an
environmental conscience will be listened to if it means larger profits for the businesses
concerned. Environmental groups like Greenpeace advise companies about reducing certain
harmful chemicals from the product repertoire. Natural chemicals like citric acid are less
complex than synthetic chemicals, more easily broken down and less polluting. Such
biodegradable ingredients in products ranging from toilet cleaner to kitchen disinfectant are
proving to be just as effective and certainly more popular.
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21. Concern for the environment by large companies is fueling consumer opinion to
purchase new “greener” products.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
22. If customers do not demand a company to have scruples concerning the

environment, businesses will not change their practices.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
23. Citric acid is less polluting than other chemicals because it is less complex.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
24. New “green” products have to be biodegradable in order to be popular.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 7
Imports of olive oil to the US in the early eighties were approximately 10 million gallons. A
decade and a half later the figure was five times that amount. Although olive cultivation
originated in Syria, the major producers are now Spain, Italy and Greece. Indeed, the
Mediterranean rim accounts for 99% of all olive oil. Two tons of olives picked from the olive
trees of the Andalusian hills of Spain for example give about a hundred gallons of oil. The freshly
picked olives are crushed whole (including the pit). The solid is separated from the liquid and
then the water is separated from the oil. This is then bottled for consumption. A secondary
benefit to Italians or Spaniards, to whom olive oil is regarded as the essence of a meal, is the
healthy properties it is perceived to have. The high concentration of monounsaturated fat (the
healthy sort) and antioxidants (such as vitamin E) and the lack of cholesterol may be the reason
for the lowest rate of heart disease in Mediterranean people compared to other Western
nations.
25. Olive oil imports to the US peaked in the early eighties.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
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26. At least half of the olive oil produced comes from the Andalusian hills.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
27. By 1995 over 100,000 tons of olives were picked from olive trees just to satisfy the
American market for olive oil.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
28. The most important reason Italians and Spaniards consume olive oil is to reduce
their risk of heart disease.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 8
The term “elitist” and the concept of elitism has colloquially become a term of abuse. Popularly
many people believe that elitism is the same as belonging to a hereditary class system and
having an elevated position as a consequence of birthright. Strictly speaking however, elitism is
the belief that a society should contain groups of people pre-eminent in any given field. Thus,
specialization in medicine, politics, the arts and other areas leads to an elite cadre in these
areas. Unless those members of the hereditary class system have any particular talent, they do
not, technically, belong to an elite. Indeed, the existence of an elite should make it possible for
any person of any class to reach any position in society if they have the talent. Hence, if certain
conditions exist such as the ability to nurture talent and the presence of social mobility then the
natural variation among human talents which occur should inevitably lead to elitism.
29. Elitism is misunderstood by the public as a whole.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
30. The concept of elitism is to produce a subgroup of the population who excel in a.
particular field.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
31. Those who fear the true meaning of elitism are the people considered elite by the
misinformed public.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
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32. Being called “elitist” could be seen as derogatory.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 9
In ancient Greece many people conspicuous by their valour or conquests were honoured by
being crowned with a wreath of laurel or bay leaves. This plant was sacred to the god Apollo. In
ancient mythology, Apollo was the Greek and Roman god of the sun as well as being the god
most closely associated with the arts. In the 15th century a new term was coined: “laureate”
which was attributed to “a person worthy of receiving laurels” which was conferred on various
poets. This title, Poet Laureate, still exists today, but the modern status of the title was only
acquired in the late 17th century. At this time the Poet Laureate was granted a stipend as a
member of the royal household and it was within his bailiwick to write verses celebrating
noteworthy occasions. The Romantic poet William Wordsworth was the first Poet Laureate to
accept his appointment on the condition that he was not obliged to compose poetry specifically
for special occasions, but others have continued the practice.
33. Apollo was the Roman sun god with some association with the art of poetry.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
34. The ancient Greeks honoured all those who were strong and brave with laurel
wreaths.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
35. All Poet Laureates had the responsibility of creating poems commemorating royal
events.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
36. Wordsworth made sure he never composed poetry specifically for special occasions.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 10
The price of oil changes depending on the supply of and demand for petroleum which
themselves are affected by many factors. Oil is bought and sold on international commodity
markets. If people want more oil than producers can supply, prices go up (and vice versa)
because petrol comes from oil and the prices people pay at the pump generally reflects the price
of oil in the commodity markets. Most oil production is controlled by OPEC which can modulate
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the supply of oil to keep prices relatively stable. Sometimes demand rises so much or so quickly
that organized attempts at tweaking supply is ineffective in stopping prices rising. On the other
hand, uncontrollable events such as natural disasters mean supply falls too drastically for
anything to be done about it.
37. When the supply of oil increases the price of oil drops.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
38. OPEC is the main factor controlling the price of oil on the international market.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
39. The price of oil is kept relatively stable.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
40. It is not always possible to control the price of oil.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
Text Passage 11
Cinnamon bark is widely used as a spice. Strictly speaking though, only Sri Lankan cinnamon
bark is deserving of the name. There are related species of cinnamon known as cassia which is
sometimes sold labelled as cinnamon. It is easy to distinguish cinnamon from cassia when the
whole bark is examined. However, since much of the cinnamon sold is already processed as a
ground spice it is more difficult to tell powered cinnamon from powdered cassia. Cinnamon
sticks can easily be ground into a powder using a spice grinder. If the same is attempted with
cassia the spice grinder is likely to be damaged since cassia sticks are harder and thicker. If you
suspect that your powdered cinnamon is actually powdered cassia, the iodine test (for starch)
can be performed. This involves adding orange iodine to the powder in question. If it turns blue-
black, this indicates cassia: with pure cinnamon the iodine remains orange.
41. Most of the spice sold with the cinnamon label is actually cassia.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
42. Cassia and cinnamon are not indistinguishable.
A. True
B. False
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C. Can't Tell
43. Cassia sticks are so hard that they can damage spice grinders.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
44. Cinnamon does not contain any starch.
A. True
B. False
C. Can't Tell
END OF VERBAL REASONING SECTION
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SECTION 2: DECISION MAKING
Instructions
o The section comprises 29 questions that may refer to text, charts, tables, graphs or
diagrams.
o This examination section must be completed within 40 minutes (one minute for
instruction and 39 minutes for questions)
o All questions are standalone and do not share data.
o For each question choose only one best answer among four answer options presented.
o Calculators are accepted in this section.
o Answer all items.
o All unanswered items will be scored as incorrect.
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Question 1
Every year Madrigal School has a school photograph taken. Eight teachers sit at the front in a
row.
o Mr None sits fifth from the left with Mrs O’Rourke and Mr Percival on either side.
o Mr Rowley sits as far away from Mrs O’Rourke as possible.
o Mr Stephen sits next to Mr Percival.
o Miss Zenzer does not sit beside Mrs O’Rourke or Miss Trollope.
o Mr Warlock sits three seats away from Mr None.
Mrs
O’Rourke
Which one of the following statements MUST be true?

A. A Miss Zenzer sits at the far left of the row.
B. Mr Stephen sits next to Mrs O’Rourke.
C. Mr Warlock sits next to Mr Percival.
D. Miss Trollope sits at the far right of the row.
Question 2
I walk my dogs daily. Barker and Dainty have to walk alone. Boxer goes for an afternoon walk.
Dainty is the only dog who has two walks each day. Rex always has his morning walk with
another dog.
Which one of the following MUST be true?

A. Boxer is Rex’s companion.
B. Boxer has more than two walks a day.
C. I have at least five dogs.
D. Each day I have to make a minimum of six walks with my dogs.
Question 3
In a prize draw, two boys (Alec and Daniel) and three girls (Betty, Carole and Edna) each picked
a prize (Pram and doll set, Roller blades, Chemistry set, Teddy bear, and Jigsaw puzzle).
The Pram and doll set was not picked out by a girl.
Edna and Carole were disappointed when the Roller blades were picked by one of the others.
The Chemistry set did not go to either Edna or Betty.
Daniel was quite amused when he picked the giant Teddy bear.
What gift did Edna pick?

A. Chemistry set
B. Jigsaw puzzle
C. Pram and doll set
D. Teddy bear
Question 4
W, X, Y and Z are playing football in the garden. One of them breaks a window by mistake.
W says, ‘It was X’.
X says, ‘It was Y’.
Y says, ‘It was not me’.
Z says, ‘It was not me’.
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Which one MUST be lying?

A. W is lying
B. X is lying
C. Y is lying
D. Z is lying
Question 5
Four people H, I, J, K are a Doctor, a Manager, a Teacher and a Lecturer, not necessarily in that
order. They each own a different type of vehicle.
H is a Doctor.
J owns a sports car.
K owns an electric car.
The person who owns a motor bike is not a Teacher.
The Manager polishes her scooter every weekend.
Which one of the following MUST be true?

A. K is a Teacher
B. J is a Teacher
C. I is a Manager
D. K is a Manager
Question 6
Should we focus more on rehabilitating offenders rather than punishing them for the crimes
they commit?
Select the strongest argument from the statements below.

A. Yes, crimes are often committed by people with serious personal issues.
B. Yes, focusing on the cause of crime will ultimately lead to a reduction in crime.
C. No, it doesn’t matter what causes the crime, a crime is still a crime.
D. No, victims of crime need to see that justice has been done.
Question 7
Should the Government of Rwanda maintain the decision of making uniform wearing
compulsory in schools?

A. Yes, uniform prevents students from being judged by the clothes they wear.
B. Yes, compulsory uniform prepares students for the world of work.
C. No, enforcing uniform would add to a Head Teacher’s workload.
D. No, uniforms are expensive for parents to purchase.
Question 8
Should the maximum speed limit on motorways in our major cities be reduced from 80 Km/h to
50 km/h to improve road safety?
A. Yes, reducing the speed limit will cut harmful fuel emissions.
B. No, the accident rate at the lower limit is no different to the one at the higher speed
limit.
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C. No, it is difficult to stop drivers ignoring the present speed limit; a new speed limit
would be ignored in the same way.
D. No, the real problem is slow drivers; it would be better to have a minimum speed limit.
Question 9
Should the number of university student places in UR arts/humanities courses be drastically

cut?

A. Yes, as they are not academically rigorous.
B. Yes, because the country does not need people with arts backgrounds.
C. No, because otherwise all the arts lecturers would be without work.
D. No, because many students benefit from the transferable skills they teach.
Question 10
The town’s new Academy for Girls specializes in sport and all pupils at the academy are
required to take three sports.
Which letter shown above represents pupils participating in boxing, athletics and swimming?
A. Letter G
B. Letter M
C. Letter P
D. Letter R
Question 11
The diagram shows the status and occupation of a number of people. Each shape shows a
different status or occupation.
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What does the letter ‘A’ represent in the diagram above?

A. Unmarried women who are in education.
B. Unmarried men who are in work.
C. Married men who are education.
D. Married men who are neither in work nor in education.
Question 12
The water sports center offers three different activities. The table below shows the activities
taken on one particular day.
Activity Number of customers

Windsurfing only 5
Water-skiing only 11
Canoeing only 4
Windsurfing and Canoeing 12
Canoeing and water-skiing 8
Windsurfing and water-skiing 7
All three activities 13
There were 60 customers that day. How many did canoeing?

A. 4
B. 33
C. 37
D. 39
Question 13
Twelve couples attended the tea dance, but they did not all join in every dance.
Four couples danced the quickstep; they took no further part in the dance.
Three couples danced the foxtrot and the waltz but not the quickstep or samba.
The five couples who danced the samba also danced the foxtrot and the waltz.
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Which of the following represents the group of twelve couples?
Question 14
The diagram gives information about the numbers of people who had holidays in certain
countries:
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

A. More people went to France than went to Spain.
B. More than half of the people who went to Spain also went to Greece.
C. 8 people went to exactly two countries.
D. 20 people went to only one country.
Question 15
One night at a youth club 8 people played snooker.

12 people (of which 4 also played snooker) played table tennis.
9 people played darts (none of these played either snooker or table tennis).
6 people played no game; they just talked.
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Which one of the following represents the activities taking place at the youth club that night?
Question 16
There are 48 people in a room. They are asked what they enjoy doing in their spare time.
29 of the people say they enjoy reading.
9 of the people say they enjoy watching television.
Which of the following MUST be true?

A. Between 10 and 19 (inclusive) people neither like reading nor like watching television.
B. There are exactly 20 people who like reading but do not like watching television.
C. There are more people who do not like reading than who do not like watching
television.
D. There are 38 people who like either reading or watching television.
Question 17
Martin’s journey home from work involves taking the bus to the station, catching the six o’clock
train and then a short walk to his house. If the bus is late, he has to catch a later train.
On 10 days out of the past 50, the bus has not reached the station in time for him to catch the six
o’clock train. Similarly, on 10 days out of the past 50, the six o’clock train has arrived late at
Martin’s home station.
Is it more likely than not that Martin will get home on time tomorrow?
A. Yes, the buses and the trains each meet the requirements of the timetable 40 out of 50
times respectively, so he should get home on time tomorrow.
B. Yes, if the bus is late, the train may be too, so he would get home on time.
C. No, on 20 occasions over the 50 days either the train or bus has been late, so it is
unlikely he will get home on time.
D. No, every day is different, so predictions are no more than guesses and wholly
unreliable.
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Question 18
Father Christmas has a sack of wrapped presents from which visiting children can randomly
select a gift. At the start, there are 15 presents of a harmonica and 15 of a drum in Father
Christmas’s sack. By lunchtime, 5 harmonicas and 4 drums have been chosen.
Has the chance of a harmonica being randomly selected now increased when the next child
collects a present?
A. Yes, it was 1/2 and is now 10/21.
B. Yes, it was 1/2 and is now 11/21.
C. No, it was 1/2 and is now 11/21.
D. No, it was 1/2 and is now 10/21
Question 19
Three students, Sarah, Simon and Paul test the same coin for bias. The table gives information
about their results.
Sarah Simon Paul

Throws 50 100 160
Heads 37 73 88
Sarah and Simon pool their results to give their estimate of the probability that when the coin is
thrown once it lands Heads. Paul uses his results to give his estimate.
Will Sarah and Simon’s estimate be better than Paul’s estimate?

A. Yes, because it comes from two different tests.
B. Yes, because their separate estimates are very close to each other.
C. No, because Paul had more throws in total.
D. No, because Paul’s estimate will be nearer one half.
Question 20
Pilbury is south of Westside, which is south of Harrington. Twotown is north of Pilbury and
Crewville, but not further north than Westside.
Crewville is:
A. South of Westside, Pilbury and Harrington but not necessarily Twotown.
B. North of Pilbury, and Westside.
C. South of Westside and Twotown, but north of Pilbury.
D. South of Westside, Harrington and Twotown but not necessarily Pilbury.
E. South of Harrington, Westside, Twotown and Pilbury.
Question 21
On a specific day at a GP surgery 150 people visited the surgery and common complaints were
recorded as a percentage of total patients. Each patient could use their appointment to discuss
up to 2 complaints. 56% flu-like symptoms, 48% pain, 20% diabetes, 40% asthma or COPD,
30% high blood pressure.
Which statement must be true?

A. A minimum of 8 patients complained of pain and flu-like symptoms.
B. No more than 45 patients complained of high blood pressure and diabetes.
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C. There were a maximum of 21 patients who did not complain about flu-like symptoms or
high blood pressure.
D. There were actually 291 patients who visited the surgery.
E. None of the above.
Question 22
During a GP consultation in 2015, Ms Smith tells the GP about her grandchildren. Ms Smith
states that Charles is the middle grandchild and was born in 2002. In 2010, Bertie was twice the
age of Adam and that in 2015 there are 5 years between Bertie and Adam. Charles and Adam are
separated by 3 years.
How old are the 3 grandchildren in 2015?”

A. Adam = 16, Bertie = 11, Charles = 13
B. Adam = 5, Bertie = 10, Charles = 8
C. Adam = 10, Bertie = 15, Charles = 13
D. Adam = 10, Bertie = 20, Charles = 13
E. Adam = 11, Bertie = 10, Charles = 8
Question 23
The physician must be able to tell the antecedents, know the present, and foretell the future;
must mediate these things, and have two special objects in view with regard to disease, namely,
to do good or to do no harm – Hippocrates.
Which of the following statements is true with regards to the above statement?
A. A physician must be all-knowing and not make any mistakes.
B. It does not matter how well trained a physician is.
C. Avoidance of harm is one of the guiding principles of medicine.
D. Techniques of the past are still the best today.”
Question 24
A farmer has a forest planted. It contains exclusively needle trees, except for some oaks and
beeches. It also contains fruit trees.
Which of the following is true?

A. The forest will only deliver lumber.
B. There are only 2 types of trees in the forest.
C. One can harvest Christmas trees from the forest.
D. The forest covers a large area.
Question 25
Should people stop burning fossil fuels immediately?

A. Yes, because they represent old technology that has since been overcome.
B. Yes, there is little oil and coal in the world and therefore fossil fuels are economically
unsound.
C. No, fossil fuels represent a safe and plentiful source of energy.
D. No, we are too dependent on energy to be able to source adequate supply from non-
fossil sources.
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Question 26
In a national election 60% of the population go to vote. Some people did not like the candidates
of any party.
Does this mean that 40% of people decided not to vote? Please choose the most appropriate
answer.
A. Yes, because the total would equate to 100%.
B. Yes, because there was discontent with the candidates up for election.
C. No, because not the entire population is allowed to vote.
D. No, because voting is more about intuition than actual decisions.
Question 27
With increasing parental age, the risk of congenital abnormalities in babies increases. This is
thought to be due to a variety of factors including accumulation of genetic defects in egg cells as
well as an increased degradation of sperm quality.
Which of the following consequences is true?

A. Older parents are less likely to have children with chromosomal abnormalities.
B. From a genetic perspective, it is safer to have children at a younger age.
C. Congenital abnormalities are due to poor sperm quality as sperm cells are present at
birth and exposed to environmental mutagens.
D. None of the above
Question 28
In a group of 4 friends, each has a 50% chance that they are currently smoking. Given at least
two of them are currently non-smokers.
Is the probability that there are 2 smokers 50%?

A. Yes, since there is a 50% chance of one of the friends smoking.
B. Yes, since two friends are non-smokers.
C. No, since any one of them might have smoked in the past.
D. No, since the chance of both of them being smokers is 25%.
Question 29
A pediatric unit conducts a study into the prevalence of allergies in the children that are
admitted to the unit. They find that 15% of children have allergies, with the majority of them,
65%, being food intolerances such as nut allergies. This was followed by contact allergies to
latex, accounting for 10% of allergies. Other common allergies included dust and pollen.
Which of the following conclusions are correct?
A. Allergies are a problem affecting a large proportion of children.
B. Roughly 10% of all children have food allergies.
C. Nuts are the most common reason for allergies.
D. Dust and pollen allergies are much more common in adults.
END OF DECISION MAKING SECTION
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SECTION 3: QUANTITATIVE REASONING
Instructions
1. In this section of the exam, you will be presented 9 tables, charts or graphs containing
data, each with four questions, making a total of 36 questions.
2. For each table, chart or graph, there will be four items, each with five answer options.
3. Choose only one best option.
4. This examination section must be completed within 31 minutes 15 seconds (one
minute and 15 seconds for instruction and 30 minutes for questions).
5. Answer all questions.
6. All unanswered items will be scored as incorrect.
7. Calculators are permitted.
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Item 1
The chart shows the average sale value (in thousands of pounds) for houses sold in two towns,
Whittlesford and New Port between the months of January and June.
1. During which month was the average house sale price highest in Whittlesford?
A. January
B. March
C. April
D. May
E. June
2. Between which of the two months below was there the greatest absolute change in
average sale price in New Port?
A. January–February
B. February–March
C. March–April
D. April–May
E. May–June
3. What is the percentage difference in average house price between the two towns at the
beginning of the year (expressed in terms of the New Port price)?
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
E. 60%
4. What is the average change in sale price over the 6 months for both towns?
A. £20,000
B. £25,000
C. £30,000
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D. £35,000
E. £40,000
Item 2
The table below shows electricity consumption for households in the state of Oberfranken over
a 5-year period.
5. What was the average total consumption per household in MW over the 5 years?
A. 2,461,000
B. 2,486,000
C. 2,435,000
D. 2,412,000
E. Can’t tell
6. During which year did household consumption vary the most?
A. 1995
B. 1996
C. 1997
D. 1998
E. Can’t tell
7. Between which 2 years was there the greatest percentage increase in total consumption?
A. 1994–1995
B. 1995–1996
C. 1996–1997
D. 1997–1998
E. Can’t tell
8. If mean household consumption followed the same overall trend in absolute terms, what
would the predicted mean household consumption be in 2003?
A. 800
B. 950
C. 1,150
D. 1,420
E. 1,500
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Item 3
The table shows a record of time (in hours) and cost (in £) for various jobs carried out by a
repairman, including estimates for each job made before undertaking them.
9. What was the total time taken to complete all the jobs?
A. 45 hours 45 minutes
B. 46 hours 30 minutes
C. 55 hours 30 minutes
D. 62 hours 45 minutes
E. 64 hours 45 minutes
10. Which job was the most delayed?

A. Wardrobe
B. Garage door
C. Leaking tap
D. TV aerial
E. Insulation
11. What was the overall income per hour made by the repair-man in £?
A. 8.30
B. 8.50
C. 9.00
D. 9.20
E. 9.50
12. What was the difference between estimated and actual total cost per hour in £?
A. 6.15
B. 8.55
C. 8.62
D. 11.80
E. 21.80
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Item 4
The following information shows the fees charged (in £’s) by a company for the sale of a
property.
13. What is the cost of the estate agent for a house sold at £167,000?
A. £167
B. £1,670
C. £16,700
D. £167,000
E. None of the above
14. What would be the most expensive item for a property worth £50,000?
A. Estate agent
B. Land registry
C. Solicitor
D. Stamp duty
E. Valuation
15. What would the total bill of fees come to, for a house worth £100,000?
A. £1,750
B. £2,000
C. £3,750
D. £4,500
E. £21,750
16. What is the percentage difference in stamp duty if a house’s sale price rises from
£100,000 to £120,000?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 30%
D. 40%
E. 50%
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Item 5
The chart shows the dimensions of various rectangular boxes of equal height, with the number
alongside each marker displaying the weight in kilograms.
17. What are the dimensions of the heaviest box?
A. 35 m 140 m 55 m
B. 55 m 180 m 35 m
C. 80 m 320 m 55 m
D. 55 m 270 m 80
E. Can’t tell
18. What is the average length of the boxes in meters?

A. 165
B. 182
C. 201
D. 218
E. 236
19. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Box B could fit into Box A

B. Box C could fit into Box E
C. Box E could fit into Box C
D. Box B could fit into Box D
E. Box F could fit into Box D
20. Which box has the lowest density (mass for a given volume)?
A. Box A
B. Box B
C. Box C
D. Box D
E. Box E
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item 6
The table summarizes viewing-figures for all BBC television channels.
21. What is the difference between average weekly viewing per person for terrestrial BBC
channels and non-terrestrial BBC channels?
A. 273
B. 305
C. 358
D. 405
E. 481
22. What proportion of total non-terrestrial TV viewing do the BBC channels account for?
A. 21%
B. 32%
C. 58%
D. 84%
E. Can’t tell
23. What proportion of the day does an average person spend watching television?
A. 18%
B. 73%
C. 54%
D. 99% (virtually all day)
E. Can’t tell
24. Of a group of 45 people who watch BBC 1 at least once during the week, how many of
them on average would you expect to watch this channel on any given day?
A. 18
B. 21
C. 23
D. 26
E. Can’t tell
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Item 7
The table below shows mean times taken to travel between 3 hubs (A, B and C) by different
airlines. Each journey is associated with a “delay” shown in brackets.
25. Which airline, on average is associated with the greatest delay?

A. Aerotravel
B. Akon
C. Celeriter
D. Douglas Airlines
E. Jet Air
26. Which hub, on average is associated with the smallest delay?

A. Hub A
B. Hub B
C. Hub C
D. All hubs are associated with approximately equal delay
E. Can’t tell
27. If I want to arrive at A by 09:20 a.m., which is the last plane I can catch from B
without fear of being late?
A. Aerotravel service departing at 08:00
B. Akon service departing at 08:10
C. Celeriter service departing at 07:40
D. Celeriter service departing at 08:30
E. Jet Air service departing at 06:47
28. How many return journeys on average can I safely make from B to A with Jet
airways in the same time it takes me to travel once from B to C using the same
company?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. Can’t tell
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Item 8
The chart below shows the relative contributions to GDP (gross domestic product) of various
industries in the year 2020.
29. What is the GDP attributable to Textiles?
A. $15,000
B. $18,000
C. $20,000
D. Can’t tell
E. None of the above
30. What is the greatest difference in GDP contribution between industries?
A. $380,000
B. $3,807,000
C. $3,960,000
D. $27,090,000
E. $30,960,000
31. If, the following year, total GDP falls by 12% and the relative contribution of
Financial Services increases by 10% compared to its current contribution, what
would be the approximate contribution of Financial Services in 2021?
A. 35 million
B. 37 million
C. 40 million
D. 42 million
E. 45 million
32. If over the next 5 years the proportion of Agriculture:Mining is projected to decrease
by a proportion of 25%, whilst the contribution of Mining is projected to increase by
a proportion of 50% of its current contribution, what would be the relative
contribution of Agriculture in 5 years time?
A. 20%
B. 21%
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C. 22%
D. 24%
E. 28%
Item 9
The table shows the base price and additional costs for 5 car models sold at Jimmy’s car
dealership. All values shown are in £.
33. Which car is associated with the most expensive combination of optional extras? (Ignoring
the combination supplement)
A. Alfa
B. Escort
C. Orion
D. Thrift
E. Dosker
34. A customer wants a car with leather seats, air-conditioning and heated and electric seats. He
decides to buy the Escort. How much dearer would an Orion with the same specifications
have been?
A. £378
B. £485
C. £870
D. £1,101
E. Can’t tell
35. A car without alloy wheels depreciates at a rate of 10% a year and one with alloy wheels
depreciates at a rate of 5% per year. What will be my total savings or losses over 3 years if I
buy a Basic Orion with alloy wheels instead of one without alloy wheels? [Assuming there is
no inflation]
A. £1,253 loss
B. £3,850 loss
C. £2,550 saving
D. £3,512 saving
E. £4,765 saving
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36. Any car can be bought on a scheme of hire-purchase, whereby the total amount due is paid
in monthly instalments over a 5-year period. Paying by this method also incurs an interest
of 10%. If I buy an Alfa by hire- purchase, what would be the difference to my monthly
premiums caused by adding all the available extras as opposed to getting the basic package?
A. £52
B. £57
C. £65
D. £70
E. £77
END OF QUANTITATIVE REASONING SECTION
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SECTION IV: ABSTRACT REASONING
Instructions
1. In this section of the exam, you will be presented with two sets of shapes labelled “Set A”
and “Set B”.
2. All shapes in Set A are similar in some way, as are the shapes in Set B.
3. Set A and Set B are not related to each other.
4. You have to work out in what way the shapes in Set A are similar to one another, and in
what way the shapes in Set B are similar to each other.
5. For the two sets of shapes, you will be shown five test shapes. Your task is to determine
whether each test shape belongs to:
i. Set A (choose option A),
ii. Set B (choose option B), or
iii. Neither set (choose option C).
6. You will have 17 minutes 30 seconds to answer 65 questions (1 minute for
instructions and 16 minutes 30 seconds for questions.
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Item 1 (Questions 1-5)
Question 1: Test shape 1 belongs to:

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
Question 2: The test shape 2 belongs to:
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
Item 2 (Question 6-10)

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
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A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
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A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
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A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
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A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
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A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
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A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
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A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set

A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
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A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
A. Set A
B. Set B
C. Neither Set
END OF ABSTRACT REASONING SECTION
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SECTION V: SITUATIONAL JUDGMENT
Instructions
1. In this section of the exam, you will be presented 14 scenarios with 69 Questions.
2. Each scenario will have 4-5 questions.
3. For each table, chart or graph, there will be four items, each with five answer options.
4. Choose only one best option.
5. This examination section must be completed within 33 minutes 45 seconds (one minute
for instructions and 32 minutes 45 seconds for questions).
6. Answer all questions.
7. All unanswered items will be scored as incorrect.
8. Calculators are permitted.
9. The four possible appropriateness choices are:
o A very appropriate thing to do – This is an ideal action.
o Appropriate, but not ideal – This option can be done but not necessarily the best thing
to be done.
o Inappropriate, but not awful – This should not be done, but if it does occur the
consequences are not terrible.
o A very inappropriate thing to do – This should not be done in any circumstances, as it
will make the situation worse.
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Scenario 1
A conversation is taking place between a midwife Kate and the senior Dr Herbert: Jacob, the
medical student, is observing. Dr Herbert is being rude to Kate and is acting superior. When Dr
Herbert leaves, Jacob overhears Kate talking to the other midwives about his behavior, and how
it happens frequently, and makes both the midwives and the patients feel uncomfortable.
How appropriate are the following actions from Jacob?
1. Tell Kate that you will help to file a complaint against Dr Herbert.
A. A very appropriate thing to do
B. Appropriate, but not ideal
C. Inappropriate, but not awful
D. A very inappropriate thing to do
2. Make Dr Herbert aware that perhaps he should be kinder the next time he speaks to Kate
and patients.
3. Ignore the situation and do nothing.

4. Alert his supervisor as to what he saw, and to get advice on what to do.
5. Tell Dr Herbert that his behaviour was making patients and midwives feel uncomfortable.

Scenario 2
A medical student, George, is sitting in a foot clinic with Dr Walker. George notices that Dr
Walker hasn’t been washing his hands between patients, despite examining the feet of all of his
patients without gloves. In his training George was told that he must wash his hands properly
before and after touching each patient to prevent the spread of infections.
How appropriate are each of the following responses by George in this situation?
6. Alert Dr Walker that he ought to wash his hands more after the current consultation has
finished.
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7. Wash his hands before and after each patient in the hopes that Dr Walker will follow by
example.
8. Do nothing because Dr Walker is an experienced consultant.

9. Tell the nurse in charge of the foot patients after the clinic has finished.
10. Write in the patient notes that Dr Walker didn’t wash his hands before examining them.
Scenario 3
A medical student, Linh, is working on a project with a small group of other students. The
students have to examine real skull bones, which were provided by the medical school’s
museum, and are very valuable. One of the students in Linh’s group accidentally drops the skull
and some of the smaller delicate bones shatter.
How appropriate are the following responses by Linh?
11. Ignore what happened, throw the skull remains away, and borrow another group’s skull to
finish the project.
12. Alert the museum curator about what happened as a group, and write a letter of apology
together.
13. Pretend that the skull was stolen.

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14. Tell the museum curator in private about who dropped the skull.
15. Tell her supervisor.

Scenario 4
A medical student, Henry, is living in a set of halls with students that study many different
subjects. The other students find it funny to joke about Henry’s work. Henry is finding it difficult
to keep up with his work, and silently takes offense every time the other students joke with him.
The night before one of Henry’s exams, the other students make a joke that really affects Henry,
and he is unable to concentrate on finishing up his revision.
How appropriate are each of the following responses by Henry?
16. Speak to his personal tutor about how he can organize himself and tackle his work in the
future.
17. Retaliate by insulting the other students.

18. Do nothing because he doesn’t want to offend anyone and is embarrassed about not being
able to cope with the workload.
19. Move out of the halls.

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20. Speak to his medical student friends about how annoying he finds his flat mates.
Scenario 5
Mark, a medical student, is working with a group of nursing and physiotherapy students to learn
about integrated care. Mark is mistaken for a junior doctor, as he is not in uniform, and is asked
to test the urine of an elderly patient on the ward using a dipstick. Mark is familiar with the
patient, and knows exactly how to do the test. Unfortunately, the doctor that asked him to do the
test has left, and there are no other members of staff that are able to do the test for another 5
hours. The results of the test will determine the patient’s management.
How appropriate are the following responses by Mark?
21. Get the most senior student in his study group to perform the test and write the results in
the patient’s notes.
22. Do the test himself and write the results in the patient’s notes.
23. Bleep the doctor that is in charge of the patient to alert him about his mistake.
24. Pretend that the doctor never asked him to do the test.
25. Try to find another member of staff that would be capable of performing the test.
Scenario 6
A medical student, Adele, is studying for her first-year exams. She has started to panic and does
not feel as though she will be able to complete her revision before the exams start. If Adele fails
the exams, she would have to resit them in her holidays, which she has come to terms with. She
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is embarrassed of the possibility of failing and would rather tell her friends and family that she
was ill and unable to take the exams than face the embarrassment of failure. It is against the
Medical School rules to opt out of an exam without a medical reason and a Doctor’s letter.
How appropriate are the following actions for Adele to take?
26. Fake an illness and postpone her exams.

27. Speak to her parents and her personal tutor about her struggle to get through the revision.
28. Speak to the other medical students to see if they all felt the same way about their work.
29. Refuse to turn up to the exams on the day and pretend that she had food poisoning.
30. Make an efficient revision plan for her remaining days before the exams and attempt to do
the exams as best as she can.
Scenario 7
Rohan, a final year medical student, notices that Dijam, one of the medical students on his ward
who had been drinking a lot the previous night is on call.
How appropriate are the following actions by Rohan?
31. Advise Dijam to go home.

32. Ignore the situation because Dijam wasn’t actually treating any of the patients.
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33. Inform the doctors that are on call with Dijam.

34. Joke with Dijam about how he managed to make it into work on time.
35. Inform the Doctor that is in charge of Dijam and Rohan’s attachment about Dijam’s state.
Scenario 8
Patrick is a medical student and is working with another group of students on a project that
they will receive a joint mark for. Patrick has noticed that there are a couple of loud dominating
people in the group, and that the rest of the group are very shy and quiet, and rarely contribute
to the conversations. Jina is one particularly loud student that is involved; however, she has
been making some excellent points and is happy to do a lot of the work.
How appropriate are the following responses by Patrick?
36. Ignore the situation and allow Jina to do the majority of the work.
37. Ask his personal tutor for advice on how he should tackle the situation.
38. Ask the quieter members of the team about what they think of Jina.
39. Subtly hint to everyone to try to contribute more during the sessions so that it is a more
even contribution from everyone.
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40. Confront Jina and tell her to be less dominating during the sessions.
Scenario 9
Nazia, a medical student, has been working on busy hospital ward. She has been writing up
notes from the patient’s notes into her notebook so that she can construct a presentation on the
case for her study group. No-one is allowed to remove the patient’s notes from the hospital.
However, she has noticed that one of her friends, Joshua, has a set of patient’s notes sticking out
of his bag. He has an appointment to get to, and has no time to write the notes up whilst at the
hospital. Joshua says that he will return the notes first thing in the morning after he completes
the work at home.
How appropriate are the following responses from Nazia?
41. Tell Joshua to do the presentation the next day instead when he has more time.
42. Ignore what he is doing.

43. Tell the ward nurses after Joshua leaves with the notes.
44. Seek advice from your clinical supervisor.

45. Tell Joshua that you will write the notes for him, so he doesn’t have to take the notes away
from the hospital.
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Scenario 10
Mr. Marshall has been seeing Dr Kelly regularly for years to check up on his diabetes. Recently,
Mr Marshall has been seen by a different specialist doctor, Dr O’Brien. Dr O’Brien runs a test
that shows that Mr. Marshall has cancer. He is then booked to see Dr O’Brien the following week
who will break the diagnosis. Mr. Marshall is currently in clinic with Dr Kelly and asks her; is
everything okay?
How appropriate are the following responses by Dr Kelly?
46. Tell Mr. Marshall that everything is fine.

47. Reassure Mr. Marshall that Dr O’Brien will be able to answer his question better.
48. Tell Mr. Marshall that she is not allowed to discuss that information with him yet.
49. Look away and say nothing to try to express the seriousness of the situation.
50. Tell Mr. Marshall that he has cancer.

Scenario 11
Mary, a patient, has been in hospital for a long time whilst she recovers from a leg wound, and is
desperate to return home. One day, Dr Anil is speaking to her on the ward. He has to leave
urgently to answer his bleep call. Mary is left with a junior medical student, Julia. She asks Julia
why she is still in the hospital and wants to know if she can leave that day.
How appropriate are the following responses by Julia?
51. Explain to Mary that she is unable to answer her question, and that the doctor will be back
soon.
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52. Tell Mary that in most cases people wouldn’t be able to leave the hospital at her stage of
recovery.
53. Tell Mary that she can “self-discharge from hospital if she is very keen to leave, but that it
might be against medical opinion.
54. Tell Mary that she will find out and let her know.
55. Answer Mary’s questions directly.

Scenario 12
Daniel, a first-year medical student, is visiting a hospital for the first time since he started
medical school. The doctor supervising them asked Hannah, another student to let the group
know that they would be having a hand washing assessment consisting of practical and
theoretical aspects. Unfortunately, Daniel was not been about the assessment, and doesn’t know
how to wash his hands properly.
How appropriate are the following responses by Daniel?
56. Ask to have his turn once a few of his colleagues had been so he can observe.
57. Confront Hannah and ask her why she didn’t tell him about the assessment.
58. Tell the doctor that it was Hannah’s fault.

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SCIENCES

59. Ask the group to see how many people were prepared for the assessment.
60. Ask the doctor if he can have his assessment another day so he can learn the skill and the
theory properly.
Scenario 13
Helen, a medical student, is waiting for her exam results. She was very worried because she
didn’t feel as though she was ready for them. When the results come out, she realizes that she
has to retake her exams. She had booked to go travelling with a friend in South America over the
summer holidays, but the resit exams are during the holidays and she is now worried that she
will be unable to go, or that if she goes she will not have enough time to revise for the exams.
She is also worried that her friend will be left to travel by herself if she doesn’t go.
How appropriate are the following responses by Helen in this situation?
61. Call her friend and cancel the holiday.

62. Go travelling but take her revision with her and revise every day.
63. Go for part of the holiday and come home early to revise for the exams.
64. Go travelling and cram in the revision in the few days between coming back and taking the
exams.
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SCIENCES
65. Try to get another friend to replace her so she can stay at home and revise but without
leaving her friend to fend for herself.
Scenario 14
Celia, a medical student, is living at home instead of at halls because she doesn’t live far away
from the medical school. She found it hard to make friends in first year and wants to move out
“for her second year or she fears that she will be further isolated from everyone. Unfortunately,
that would depend on financial support from her parents. Celia’s parents are unable to provide
much financial aid, and Celia doesn’t have time to take up another job.
How appropriate are the following responses by Celia?
66. Confront her parents and demand the money because they are ‘denying her a student
experience’.
67. Live at home but join a sports team so she can meet more people and join in with the
student lifestyle a little more.
68. Start spending every night at her friend’s room in halls.

69. Live at home in resentment and isolate herself from her university friends.
END OF SITUATIONAL JUDGMENT SECTION
END OF THE EXAM
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COLLEGE OF MEDICINE AND HEALTH

General Information and Test Format

Sections Objectives Number of Time (including

7. You are advised to attempt all questions.

SECTION 1: VERBAL REASONING

1. Dentifrice was first available in Britain in the 1800s.

2. The development of toothpaste predated the development of toothbrushes.

4. Dentifrice came before crushed bone.

5. The end-product of the Haber process is fertilizer.

6. The iron catalyst increases the quantity of ammonia produced.

7. A reaction occurring at a pressure of 500 times atmospheric would be economically

8. Since 2002 world demand for fertilizers has increased.

10. Fingerprints are a routine method of detecting crime in modern usage.

13. Time travel, argues Steven Hawking, is impossible.

22. If customers do not demand a company to have scruples concerning the

24. New “green” products have to be biodegradable in order to be popular.

25. Olive oil imports to the US peaked in the early eighties.

29. Elitism is misunderstood by the public as a whole.

32. Being called “elitist” could be seen as derogatory.

39. The price of oil is kept relatively stable.

40. It is not always possible to control the price of oil.

42. Cassia and cinnamon are not indistinguishable.

44. Cinnamon does not contain any starch.

END OF VERBAL REASONING SECTION

SECTION 2: DECISION MAKING

Which one of the following statements MUST be true?

Which one of the following MUST be true?

What gift did Edna pick?

Which one MUST be lying?

Which one of the following MUST be true?

Select the strongest argument from the statements below.

Select the strongest argument from the statements below.

Should the number of university student places in UR arts/humanities courses be drastically

Select the strongest argument from the statements below.

What does the letter ‘A’ represent in the diagram above?

Activity Number of customers

There were 60 customers that day. How many did canoeing?

Which of the following represents the group of twelve couples?

Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

One night at a youth club 8 people played snooker.

Which of the following MUST be true?

Sarah Simon Paul

Will Sarah and Simon’s estimate be better than Paul’s estimate?

Which statement must be true?

How old are the 3 grandchildren in 2015?”

Which of the following is true?

Should people stop burning fossil fuels immediately?

Select the strongest argument from the statements below.

Which of the following consequences is true?

Is the probability that there are 2 smokers 50%?

END OF DECISION MAKING SECTION

SECTION 3: QUANTITATIVE REASONING

6. During which year did household consumption vary the most?

10. Which job was the most delayed?

17. What are the dimensions of the heaviest box?

18. What is the average length of the boxes in meters?

19. Which one of the following statements is true?

A. Box B could fit into Box A

The table summarizes viewing-figures for all BBC television channels.

25. Which airline, on average is associated with the greatest delay?

26. Which hub, on average is associated with the smallest delay?

29. What is the GDP attributable to Textiles?

30. What is the greatest difference in GDP contribution between industries?

END OF QUANTITATIVE REASONING SECTION