TEST ( EVIDENCE)

1. The object of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is to:-

• consolidate the law
• define and amend the law only
• define or amend the law only
• both (a) and (b)
2. In English law the evidence which is neither oral nor documentary is:-
• real evidence
• no evidence at all
• secondary evidence
• substantive evidence
The court shall presume a fact as proved unless and until it is disproved:
• whenever is provided by this act
• whenever is directed by this act
• whenever is declared by this act
• whenever is considered by this act
When the presumption of law are certain legal rules defining the amount of evidence
requisite to support a particular allegation is:-
• conclusive proof
• rebuttable presumption of fact and law
• rebuttable presumption of law
• presumption of fact
In an indecent assault upon a boy, shortly after the Incident the boy made certain
statements to his mother by which he described the offence and man who assaulted
the box-
• the evidence of statement is included in Res gesta
• the evidence of statement is excluded in Res gestae
• discretion of the court
• no provision is made for this
The fact without making a/complaint that she had been ravished.
• is relevant as conduct
• is not relevant as conduct
• is relevant as motive
• is relevant as issue
Section 10 of Indian evidence act 1872 is applicable to:-
• civil proceedings
• criminal proceedings
• both civil and criminal procaedings
• only criminal not quir proceedings
A is accused of receiving stolen goods knowing ther to be stolen. This fact is
relevant as:-
• knowledge
• intention
• ill-witt-
• all of the above
No person would declare anything against him onless it were true. What is the
exception to this rule:-
admission falling uis 32 only
(b1
(C)
slatements faling u/s 21(3) of hdian evidence act 1872
cither (a) or (t)
(d)
only ke） not（bx.
10. In judging the sufficiency of the inducement, threat or promise, it has to be
judged trom:-
 • the point of view of accused
• the point of view of person in authority
• the point of view of both of them
• discretion of the court
in which case, there is *iebuttable presumpion" uncer the Indian @vidence act
1872.-
• may presume
• shall presume
• conclusive prouf
• will presume

A is accused of the murder of B by beating him whatever were said by the usual
crowd that gathers after the
event are:-
• relevant u/s 6
• relevant u/s 7
• relevant u/s 8
• irrelevant
13. Admission can be used against the other persons also, the statement is:-
• true, because all admissions are usally used against other persons
• false, because admissions are used against its maker
• true, because admissions are conclusive proof of fact admitted
• none of the above
The evidentiary value of admission may be:-
• conclusive proof
• estoppel
• presumption
• any of the above
15. The relevancy of entry in public record made in performance of a duty is
provided under.-
• section 33
• section 34
• section 35
• section 36
16. Under Indian evidence act opinion as to existence of right or custom deals
with:-
• all kinds of customs
• generat customs
• particular customs
• any of the above customs
17. Under the Indian evidence act Hearsay evidence implies:-
(a) Rumour or gossip
• (b) whatever a person declares on information given by some one else
• statement made out of court
• all of the above
18. Oral account of the contents of document is admissible when given by a person:-
• who has seen and read the document
• who has seen but not read the document
• - whom the document was read over.
• when given by any of the above person-
19. Where both oral as well as documentary evidence are admissible:-
• the court may go by the evidence which seems to be more reliable
• the documentary evidence should prevail over the oral evidence
• both (a) and (b) are correct
• both (a) and (b) are incorrect
20. section 102 of Indian evidence deals with:-(a)burden of proof
-(b) onus of proof (c)general burden of proof
(d) particular burden of proof
21. When the question is whether a man is alive or dead and it is shown that he was
alive within prescribed period:-
• the burden of proving that he is dead on the person who affirms it
• the burden of proving that he is dead on the person who does not
affirmis it
• the burden of proving that he is alive or dead on the relatives of the
person in issue
• the burden of proving the fact is on-the prosecution
22. In case of burden of proof of ownership through possession, then the
possession.-
• must be of actual possession
• may be constructive possession
• may be symbolic possession
• either (a) or (b) or (c)
23. Section 113B of Indian evidence act deals with: -
• presumption as io abetment of suicide
• presumption as to dowry death.
• presumption of existence of certain facts
• prosi of cession of territory
24. Which of the following condition is not necessary for the application of rule
of estoppel:-
(a) a representation is made by a person to another other person believes and
alters his position
• only representative shall be allowed to deny the truth of
representation
• parties shall not be allowed to deny the truth of representation
25. Under the evidence act, evidence given-by a dumb witness shall be deemed to
be:-
• real evidence
• documentary evidence
• oral evidence
• formal evidence
26. Protection to professional communication is not available where any
communication made:-
• in the furtherance of any illegal purpose
• which shows that any crime or fraud has been committed since the
commencement of his employment
• all of the above
• only (b) is correct
1 27. If a person is induced by the police to take part in crime for purpose of
collecting evidence is called:-
• police witness
• informer
• trap witness
• gamshee witness
28. Under the Indian evidence act, witness to character.-
• may be cross-examined
• may be re-examined
• both (a) and (b)
• neither (a) nor (b)
29. The prohibition laid down in section 146 for asking questions from prosecutrix
as to her immoral character is:-
• absolute prohibition
• partial prohibition
• constructive prohibition
• moral prohibition
30. Which is the most appropriate definition of Hostile witness a hostile witness:-
• is one who from the manner in which he gives the evidence shows that he
is not desirous of telling the court
• a witness who is gained over by the opposite party
 • is one called by a party to prove a particular fact who fails to prove
• is one who is not produced out of fear that he might disfavour the
party who has to produce him
1. The Indian Evidence Act, 1972 came into force on:-(a) 1-1-1872(b) 1-3-
1872(c) 1-4-1872(d) 1-9-1872
2. "Fact" means and includes;-
-(a) anything, state of things or relation of things capable of being perceived by
the senses
• any mental condition of which any person is conscious
• all of the above
• only (a) not (b)
33. On proof of one fact the court regards the other as proved and:-
• may allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it
• shall not allow evidence to be given for the purpose of disproving it
(c)either allow the evidence or not discretion of the court
(d) may allow evidence only with the law of Higher court
34. Presumption of fact is derived from:-
• prevalent customs and human experience
• established judicial norms (c)established negative law
(d) all of the above
35. Who was the chief Justice in case of "R vs Bedingfield":-
• Cockburn
• Atkinsen
• Anson
• Borrough
36. A is tried for murder of B by poison. The fact that before the death of B. A
procured poison similar to that which was administered to B:-
• is relevant as motive
• is relevant as previous conduct (c)
is relevant as prepration
(d) is relevant as intention
37. A person is liable for conspiracy under Indian evidence act, when any thing:-
• said by any one of such persons in reference lo their common Intention®
• done by any one of such persons in reference to their common intention
only
• written by any one of such persons in reference to their common
intention
• any of the above
38. A is tried for murder of B by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A
on the other occasion shot at B is relevant under.-
• section 8 explanation I
• section 9 explanation I (c)section 14 explanation I
(d) section 15 explanation I
39. Oral admissions as to the contents of documents are relevant under.-
• section 17
• section 20
• section 22
• section 23
40. Under Indian evidence act, 1872 a confession which has been obtained from
accused through moral or religious exhortations:-
• will be excluded
• will not be excluded
• will be included only with the leave of High court
• will be considered as oppose to public policy
41. Which of the following provision of evidence act the word " forming part of the
same transaction occurs:-
• under section 6
• under section 5
• under section 7
 • under section 8
42. The word "occasion" mentioned in section 7 means:-
• cause
• opportunity (c)effect
(d) both (a) and (b)
43. Admissions are relevant and may be proved:-
• against the person who makes them
• against representative in interest also-
• both (a) and (b)
• only (a) not (b)
44. To make a statement relevant under section 32 incapacity to give evidence dces
not include incapacity:-
• due to old age
• due to insanity
• due to temporary illness
• all of the above
45. Under the Indian evidence act, the presumption of truth created by public
record is:-
• rebuttable
• irrebuttable
• conclusive
. (d) none of the above
46. Opinion as to relationship in case of marriage:-
• is admissible in case of offences against marriage
• is admissible in proceedings under Indian divorce act
• either (a) or (b)
• neither (a0 nor (b)
- 47. In which of the following case secondary evidence of the contents of a
document can not be given:-
• when the original is a public document
• when the original has been found to be inadmissible
• when the original has been destroyed
• all of the above
48. In which of the following case notice shall not be required in order to render
secondary evidence admissible:
• when the document to be proved is itself a notice
• when the adverse party or his agent has admitted the loss of the
document
• either (a) or (b)
• notice can not be avoided in any case

49. Indian evidence act prohibits admissions of oral evidence in respect of a

written document for the purpose of:-
• contradicting its terms
• varing its terms (c)adding to its terms
(d)
all of the above
50. Which chapter of Indian evidence act 1872 deals with * of burden of proof:-
• chapter IV
• chapter V (c)chapter VI
(d) chapter VII
51. For presumption of death the person is shown not to be not heard for a period
of:-
• 3 years
• 7 years
• 12 years
• 30 years
52. Under the evidence act birth during marriage is a:-
• rebuttable presumption of law
 • rebuttable presumption of fact (c)conclusive proof
(d) Either (b) or (c)
53. The court may presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have
happened. regard being had to the:-
• common course of natural events
• human conduct only
• public and private business
• all of the above
54. Under the evidence act a promise to make a gift.-
• will crate an estoppel
• will create friendly promise
• will not create an estoppel
• court will decide
55. Husband and wife are competent witness against each other under section 120
in:-
• civil proceedings
• criminal proceedings
• both civil and criminal proceedings
• neither civil nor in criminal proceedings
56. If the client during examination of the legal practitioner as witness asked the
question on confidential communication, then:-
• it shall be deemed waiver of privilege
• it shall not be deemed waiver of privilege
• court will decide
• can not say
•57. Section 114 is based on:-
• law of procedure
• law of evidence
• law of prudence
• law of equity
58. Which of the section of evidence act deals with leading-question:- -
• section 139
• section 140
• section 141
• section 142
59. Under section 145 the question to be asked in cross-examination should be:-
• lawful
• moral
(C) may be unlawful
(d) valid
60. Objections as to admissibility of a document in evidence can be made:-
• at any stage during trial
• at the first opportunity when the document is tendered in evidence
• can be raised for the first time in appeal
• any of the above
61. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 extends to whole of India except:-
(a) State of Jammu and Kashmir (b) Nagaland and Tribal areas (c)Either (a) or (b
(d) Both (a) and (b)
62. A man holds a certain opinion, has a certain Intention is a.-
• fact
• presumption
• circumstance
• conduct
I 63. The evidence may be given of fact in issue in any:-
• suit only
• proceedings only (c)either (a) or (b)
(d) only (a) not (b)
64. Presumption of law under the Indian evidence act 1872 is :-
• mandatory
 • discretionary
• directory
• transitory
65. A contemporaneous tape record of relevant conversation:-
• it is part of Res gestae
• it is not a part of Res gestae
• it is a part of procedural law
• tape record is not a relevant fact under this act
66. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts are provided under:-
• section 8
• section 9
• section 10
- (d) section 11
67. When such intention to commit an offence was first entertained by any one of
the conspirators is a relevant fact as:- (a)
against the person who first has entertained his intention
• against the person to whom he has shared his intention
• against each of the person believed to so conspired
• against any of the person believed to so conspired
168. Facts bearing on question whether act was intentional or accidental are
mentioned under.-
• section 8-
• section 10
• section 14
• section 15
69. Oral admission as to contents of documents are relevant when:-
• the party proposing to prove that he is entitled to give secondary
evidence of the contents of the contents of such document
• the genuiness of the document produced itself in question
• either (a) or (b) •
• both (a) and (b)
70. If the statement of the accused is such that a part of it incriminates him
where as the other part of it exculpates him from the liability then generally:-
• the court can take only inculpatory part of statement
• the court can take only exculpatory part of statements
• Court must accept the whole statement
• Either (a) or (b) or (c)
• 71. In a trial of murder of B by A which fact is not relevant.-
• A was absconding immediately after murder
• A and B were seen together before murder
• A was in Patna on that day while murder of B was committed in Banglore
• A has borrowed Rs.50,000/- from B
172. That which incites or stimulates action is called:-
• intention.
• motive
• act *
• relevant fact
: 73.
State true or false oral admission as to the contents of document are relevant.-
• true in some case
• faise in all cases

(c)
true in all cases
(d) can not say
74. Whose statement among the following is relevant under section 32 of the act.-
• A person who is dead
• A person who can not be found
• A person who is incapable of giving evidence
 • All of the above
75. Under the Indian evidence act 1872, admission can be:-
• formal only
• informal only
• either formal or informal
• only formal not informal
76. List of facts which the judicial notice has to be taken under Indian evidence
act is:-
• exhaustive
• illustrative
(C) presumption
(d) only (a) and (c)
77. The contents of the documents may be proved by:-
• primary evidence only
• secondary evidence
• either (a) or (b)
• only (a) not (b)
78. Under which section of evidence act the court itself can compare the
handwriting:-
• section 73
• section 75 (c)section 77
(d) section 79
79. Which proviso of section 92 of Indian evidence act deals with oral evidence of
a fact invalidating the document is admissible:-
• proviso 1
• proviso 2 (c)proviso 3
(d) proviso 5
80. Burden of proving that case of accused comes with exception is provided under:-
• section 103
• section 104
• section 105
• none of the above sections
81. Presumption of death is contained under.-
• section 106
• section 107 (c)section 108
(d) section 109
82. There is a presumption of legitimacy where the person it born within how many
days after dissolution of amarnage:-
• 180 days
• 280 days
• • 270 days
• 380 days
83. Which of the iilustration provided for presumption of certain fact says that an
accomplice is unworthy of credit. unless he is corroborated in material
particulars.- -
• - illustration (a)
• illustration (b)
• illustration (c)
• illustration (0)
84. Under evidence act estoppel operates in case of a tenant:-
• during the continuance of tenancy
• remains in possession after termination of tenancy-
• both (a) and (b)
• either (a) or (b)
85. A judge or a magistrate can waive his privilege and voluntary offer to explain
his conduct as judicial officer, the statement is:-
• true
• false (c)
• with the law of superior court
 • (d) can not say
• 86. A is accused of attempting to murder a police officer during the
conduct of his trial whether the judge may be examined as to what occurred in his
presence:-
• (a) can not be examined about his conduct
• (b) can be examined
• (c) a judge can never be a witness
• (d) none of the above
• 87. The only safeguard against the risk of condemning the innocent with
the guilt lies in insisting upon:-
• (a) supportive evidence
• (b) relative evidence
• (c) independent evidence
• (d) any of the above evidence
• 88 After the re-examination of witness, the adverse party:-
• (a) has a right to cross-examination on any matter
• (b) ha no right to cross-examination
• (c) has a right to cross-examination if new matter is introduced by re-
examination
• (d) either (a) or (G)
• 89. Which of the statement is not correct:-
• (a)
• (b)
• question may be asked to tend the veracity of witness
• questions may be asked to discover witness's position in life
• (c) a person summoned to produce does not become a witness
• (d) all of above statements are correct
• 90. To an answer to adverse question, the adverse party:-
• (a) has a right to cross-examination as a matter of right
• (b) has a night to cross-examine only with the permission of the court
• (c) has no right to cross examine the witness
• (d) either (a) or (c)
• | 91. This act will not apply to any court martial which has been
established under any of the following Act:-
• (a) the army act
• (b) the Indian Navy (Discipline) Act, 1934
• (c) the Naval Discipline Act only
• (d) all of the above
• 92. Under the Indian evidence act 1872, the word "Relevent defines as:-
• (a) factual relevancy
• (b) legal relevancy only
• (c) both factual and legal relevancy
• (d) none of the above
• 93. A suitor does not bring with him and have in readiness for
production at the first hearing of the case, a bond on which he relies:-
• (a) provision of act does not enable him a produce the bond or prove
its contents at a subsequent stage
• (b) provision of act enables him to produce the bond or prove its
contents at a subsequent stage
• (c) provision only permits to produce the bond not to prove its
contents
• (d) none of the above
• 94. Facts are declared to be relevant facts by the provisions of:-
• (a) section 5 to 55
• (b) section 6 to 55
• (c) section 5 to 39 (d)
• section 4 to 40
• 95. Which of the section of Indian evidence act contains the *Doctrine
of Res gestae" -
 • (a) section 5
• (0) section 6
• (c)
• section 7
• (d) section 9
• 96. A fact is relevant under the Indian evidence act 1872:-
• (a) which support or rebut the inference
• (b) which estabiish the identity of anything or person
• (c) either (a) or (b)
• (d) both (a) and (b)
• 97. The purpose of proving the existence of conspiracy is to show
that:-
• (a) such person was the party to it
• (b) who was not the party to it
• (c) what was the object of conspiracy
•
• of the above
• 98. The mode of proving a custom or right is:-
• by transaction
• by particuíar instance (c)eitlier (a) or (b)
(d) by long usage of custom only
99. Section 23 of Indian evidence act deals with:-
• admissions in civil cases when relevant
• oral admissions as to contents of electronic records
• oral admission as to contents of documents
• any of the above
100. No confession is admissible if it is made to:-(ai police officer
• magistrate
• to any other person
• all of the above
101. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to evidence act:-
• sir H. S. Maine prepared the draft bill of the act
• sir James Stephen prepared the draft bill of the act
• the draft bill of the act was prepared by Indian law commission
• none of the above
102. A determination to act in particular manner is called:-
• intention
• motive
• act
• relevant fact
103. Mark the incorrect statement:-
• confession are not recorded on oath
• confession of co-accused is a weak kind of evidence (C)confession of
co-accused can not be used to corroborate other evidence
(d) ali statements are correct
104. Which of the following provision of the Indian evidence act deals with dying
declaration:-
• section 32(1)
• section 32(2)
• section 32(3)
• section 32(4)
105. "Rule of necessity" as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in:-
• section 31 of Indian evidence act
• section 32 of Indian evidence act
• section 60 of Indian evidence act
• section 61 of Indian evidence act
106. Under the Indian evidence act, previous good character is relevant in:-
• civil proceedings
• criminai proceedings
 • both in civil and criminal proceedings
• only in civil not in criminal proceedings
107. Under the Indian evidence act,
"Primary evidence* means:-
• copy of document produced for inspection of the court
• document itself produced for the inspection of the court (c)
counterparis of documents as against the parties who did not execute them
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c)
108
Under the evidence act, public documents could be proved by:-
• certified copies
• cral evidence
• evidence of the person wno has witten
• all of the above
109.
When the court has to form an opinion about digital signature of any person, the
opinion of which authority
is relevant:-
• expert of computer science
• certified authority
• gazetted officer
• none ci the above
• 110. Burden of proving thai case of accused comes within exception,
such exceptions are provided in:-
• (a) Indian evidence act 1872
•
• Indian Penal code 1860
• Criminal procedure code
• Either (a) or (b)
111. Section 109 of Indian evidence act is based on:-
• rule of evidence
• ruie of estoppel
• rule of convenience
• rule of procedure
112. There is a presumption of legitimacy where the person born after the
dissolution of.-
• valid marriage
• void marriage (c)either (a) or (b)
(d) court will decide
113
Sertion 114-A evidence act deals with:-(a)
presumption as to absence of consent in all rape case
• presumption as to absence of consent in some cases of rape
• presumption as to absence of consent in case of rape under section 37,5
(1)
114.
(d) presumption as to absence of consent in case section 376 (2)
Section 116 and 117 of Indian evidence act deals with:-
• all kinds of estoppel
• general kinds of estoppel (c)specific kinds of estoppel
(d) customary estoppel
115. The protection for communications during marriage can be waved by:-
• without the consent of husband and wife
• with the consent of husband and wife
• without the consent of husband
• with the leave of the court
115. A witness who is not a party, can not be compelled to produce:-
• his title deeds to any property only
• the pledge or mortgage deed of any property
 • any document which might tend to criminate him
• all of the above
117. Which of the provision of evidence act lays down the rule that "evidence
should be weighted not counted":-
• sestion 133
• section 134
• section 136
• section 138
118. Leading question may be asked in:- •
• examination in chief
• cross-examination
• re examination
• any of the aboye
119. If the court is of the opinion that any such question was asked without
reasonable grounds, it may if it was asked by any barrister, pleader or Vakil:-
• report the circumstances of the case to service tribunal
• report the circumstances to bar council of Indian
• report the circumstances to high court
• any of the above authority -
120
Under section 165 of Indian evidence act, judge has a power to ask question or
order production of any
document to:-
(a) ary witness
• any party
• either (a) or (o)
• oniy (a) not (b)
121. The Indian evidence act 1932 was drafted by:-
• 1st law commission
• 2' law commission
• 3'* law commission
• None of the above
122. A is accused of the murder of B, A intended to cause death of B is:-
• relevent fact
• fact in issue

(c)
evidence against A
(d) all of the above
123. How many chapters are contained in the Indian evidence act 1872:-
• 9 chapters
• 10 chapters
• 11 chapters
• 12 chapters
124. Which of the following facts are relevant but not admissible:-
• communication between spouses during marriage
• communication between and advocate and his client
(C) both (a) and (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)
25. As a general rule, hearsay evidence are inadmissible. In which of the following
case the court allowed the hearsay evidence to be given:-
• R Vs Christie
• R Vs Gibson
• R Vs faster
• None of the above
126. A is tried for a riot and is proved to have marched at the head of a mob. The
cries of mob are relevant-
• as conduct of the nature of transaction
• as support the nature of transaction
 • as explanatory of the nature of transaction
• none of the above
127. Which section of Indian evidence act 1872 deals with the facts not relevant
otherwise relevant:-
• section 10
• section 11
• section 12. (de section 13
128
Admission defined under section 17 is a:-
• oral statement
• documentary statement only
• statement in electronic form
• any of the above
129. Under the Indian evidence act 1872, which statements of the person amount to
confession:-
• exculpatory statements
• inculpatory statements
• either exculpatory or inculpatory statements
• neither exculpatory nor inculpatory statements
130. Since law of evidence is a part of "Adjective law" it is also called:-
• lex loci
• lex fori (c)lex talioais
(d) lex loci solectioais
131. Chapter Il of Indian evidence act 1872, can be classified into:-
• seven groups
• six groups
• eight groups
• no classification possible
132. Motive is a psychological fact and the accused's motive will have to be proved
by:-
• direct evidence
• circumstances evidence
• hearsay evidence
• none of the above
133. Under section 24, the inducement, threat or promise must proceed from:-
-
• only a policeman
• only person
• any person in authority
• a magistrate on.y
134
Which of the clause of section 32 has no say in matter of proof of customs or
rights of public or general
nature:-
(a) clause (4)
(bi clause (5)
• clause (8)
• none of these
•
• 135.
• 136.
• 137.
• 138.
• 139.
• 140.
• 141
• 142.
• 143.
• 144.
 • 145
• 146.
• 147.
• Under the Indian evidence act, a statement of a person who is dead to
be admissible:
• (a)
• must relate to the cause of his own death (b)
• (c)
• either (a) or (b)
• may relate to the cause of someone else's death
• (d) both (a) and (b)
• receive is:-
• The fact that the character of any person is such as to affect the
amount of damages which he ought to
• (a) relevant in civil cases (b)relevant in criminal cases
• (C)
• relevant in civil and criminal cases
• (d) relevant in criminal cases and not relevant in civil cases
• Secondary evidence of a document means:-
• copies made from the original
• copies compared with the original
• oral accounts of the contents of a document
• either (a) or (b) or (c)
Which of the following is not a public document:-
• records of the acts of the sovereign authority
• records of the acts of any part of commonwealth country (c). all of the
above
(d) none of the above
Which among the following is an important consideration u/s 6:-
(a) proximity of time and place
• (b) continuity of action
• community of purpose only
• all of the above
-Where a person is accused of any offence the burden of proving the existence of
the circumstances bringing the case within any of:-
• general exceptions
• special exceptions
• both general an special exceptions
• only general not special exceptions
Under the law possession is:-
• seven point of law
• eight point of law
• - nine point of law
• ten point of law
The period mentioned in the evidence act for presumption of legitimacy after the
dissolution of marriage is
known as:-
• period of expectation
• period or restation
• period of gestation
• any of the above period
Chapter VIII of Indian evidence act deals with:-
• estoppel
• of witness
• of the burden of proof
• none of the above
Who is incompetent to testify as witness:-
• a lunatic
• a child of 6 years (c)all of the above
(d) none of the above
Communication during marriage can be disclosed by:-
• husband
• wife
• third party
• none of the above
Under the Indian evidence act. privileged communication relate to:--
• matters which a witness can not be compelled to disclose
• matters which a witness is willing to disclosed but can not be
permitted io disclose
• both (a) and (b)
• only (a) not (b)
• How many witnesses are required for proving any fact under evidence
act:-
•
• two
• three
• no particular number
• court will decide
Leading question can be asked with the permission of the court in.-
(a) re-examination (b)examination in chief
• both (a) and (b)
• neither (a) nor (b)
When a witness has been asked and has answered any question which is relevant to
the inquiry only in so for as it tends to shake his credit by injuring his
character.-
• evidence can be given to contradict him
• evidence may not be given to contradict him
• no evidence shall be given to contradict him
• evidence shall be given to contradict him
Which section of Indian evidence act deals with refreshing memory.-
• section 157
• section 158 (c)section 159
• (d) section 160