PRACTICE I

SITUATION: Elsa has a temperature of 38.50C with severe flank pain is admitted to the hospital.
1) Urine examination was ordered by the physician. When can the nurse collect urine specimen?
a) at 10 am if specimen is available d) Early in the morning only.
b) Evening before retiring c) Anytime as soon as there is specimen
2) IVP was also ordered by the physician, the nursing action would include the following except:
a) Give enema on the morning of the test c) Hydrating patient orally 4 hour prior to IVP
b) Asking patient for allergy of any drug d) NPO 8 hrs before the procedure
3) IVP is the visualization of:
1. Bladder 4. Ureter & kidney
2. Ureter and bladder 5. Ovary
3. Bladder and kidney
a) 1 & 5 b) 3 c) 1 & 4 d) 4
4) Acutrepyelopnephritis is suspected. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to assess?
a) lower abdominal pain, dysuria, urinary frequency c) flank pain, urinary frequency and ↑ WBC count
b) pyuria, hematuria, and pain on the groin d) urinary frequency and casts in the urine
5) Sulfamethoxazole and Phenazopyridine hydrochloride are ordered. Which therapeutic effect should this combination
drug have?
a) ↑ WBC count and relief of pain c) polyuria with reddish stain
b) equal fluid intake and output d) ↑ complaints of bladder spasm after 20 minute
6) The following are nursing interventions in the care of client with pyelonephritis except:
a) provide health teaching and discharge planning c) measure intake and output
b) administer antibiotics as ordered d) provide adequate comfort and rest
7) Which of the following is the least appropriate to be included in the health teaching?
a) compliance to low sodium diet c) follow up urine culture
b) take medications as ordered d) report recurrence of signs and symptoms

SITUATION: Robert, 15 yr old is admitted to the hospital and diagnosed with appendicitis.
8) Which of the following is an important nursing action in preparing Robert for surgery?
a) administer saline enemas c) measure abdominal girth
b) apply heat to reduce pain d) monitor pain continuously
9) Which of the following signs and symptoms indicate that Robert has ruptured appendix?
a) Sweating b) Loss of appetitec) Pain at M c) Burney’s point d) Relief from pain

SITUATION:MangPandoy, age 60 yr old a retired heavy equipment driver is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of
Parkinson’s disease.
10) Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to see during admission assessment?
a) muscle flaccidity and lethargy c) drooling and dry skin
b) mask like face and shuffling gait d) swayback stance and muscle cramps
11) The nurse is aware that Parkinson’s is caused by:
a) lack of oxygen supply to the brain c) imbalance in dopamine and acetylcholine
b) congenital abnormalities in neonatal transmission in the brain d) imbalance in glucose and adenosine triphosphate
levels
12) Benztropine 1 mg p.o. daily is ordered for Mang Juan. Which of the following findings suggest a favorable effect from
his medication?
Decreased:
a) Muscle rigidity b) Tremors c) Dizziness d) Confusion
13) Which of the following is the priority nursing action in the care of MangPandoy during hospitalization?
a) scheduling a frequent home visit by the CHN c) discontinuing OTC medications
b) scheduling daily session with a speech therapist d) maintaining daily exercise program
14) The Doctor ordered Levedopa to MangPandoy’s regimen. Which of the following should be included in the discharge
teaching?
a) take Vitamin B 12 with each dose of Levedopa c) wear elastic stocking to prevent orthostatic hypotension
b) eat foods high in protein d) take Levedopa with an empty stomach

SITUATION: Mary 55 year old is diagnosed with gout.

15) Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for Mary?
a) Pain c) Fatigue
b) Risk for infection d) Risk for peripheral neurovascular dysfunction
16) Foods that is allowed for Mary includes:
a) Cheese b) Beef c) Sardines d) Liver
17) Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in her teaching to minimize complications?
a) drink at least 3,000 ml of fluid daily c) walk at least 3 miles per day
b) eat at least food containing 2,500 calories/day d) take a rest for at least 3 hrs/per day
18) Zyloprim is ordered for Mary. To monitor effectiveness of the therapy. The nurse will monitor which of the ff. serum
laboratory values?
a) Uric acid b) Fasting blood glucose c) Serum calcium d) Alkaline phosphatase

SITUATION: Baby Mely, one yr old, is admitted to the Pediatric Unit with bacterial meningitis.
19) Baby Mely went into seizures. Which of the following nursing intervention to protect Baby Mely from injury?
a) Restrain the legs and arms c) Place a pillow under the baby’s head
b) Place a tongue blade in the mouth d) Provide a waterproof pad on the bed
20) Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
a) administer antibiotics as ordered soonest c) explain all the procedures to the patient
b) provide a quiet and dim room d) begin low-flow oxygen per mask
21) Which of the following room should be assigned to Baby Mely?
a) Rm 1 with a 2 yr old who had a repair of hernia c) Rm 3 with a 2 yr old who has cerebral palsy
b) Rm 2 with a 1 yr old who had pneumonia d) Rm 4, no room mate

SITUATION: Cora, 3 yr old was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome.
22) The diagnosis of Idiopathic Nephrotic Syndrome was confirmed. Which of the following is an unexpected finding would
the nurse report?
a) Proteinuria b) Distended abdomen c) Hematuria d) Increased serum lipid levels
23) Cora’s potential for impairment of skin integrity is related to:
a) Joint inflammation b) Drug therapy c) Edema d) Generalized body rash
24) Prednisone is ordered for Cora. The nurse is aware that effectiveness of the drug 20 kg is evaluated by:
a) Checking BP q 4 hrs c) Weighing daily before breakfast
b) Checking urine for protein d) Observing for behavioral change
25) Cora’s last check-up was 6 months ago. Her BP was 95/60mmHg, PR was 110bpm and weight was 15 kg. Which
unexpected assessment today would the nurse report to help established the diagnosis?
a) BP: 95/60 mm Hg b) Weight: 20 kg c) PR: 110 bpm d) Temp. 370C

SITUATION: Roy, a 29 yr old factory worker sustained painful hot water burns on his lower anterior trunk, and anterior
thighs.
26) When implementing first aid for Roy, the industrial nurse at the scene of accident should give priority to:
a) administer analgesic c) assess depth and extent of the burn injury
b) wet clothing over the involved area with cool water d) determine how the accident occurred
27) Roy is to be transported to the hospital. It is most appropriate for the nurse to cover the burn area with:
a) Cool saline water b) Ice packs c) Baseline gauze d) Dry dressings
28) The extent and severity for Roy’s burn is:
a) Full thickness burns involving a little more than 20% of his body surface.
b) Full thickness burns involving less than 10% of his body surface.
c) Partial thickness involving at least 33 ½ % of his body
d) Partial thickness involving approximately 20% of his body surface.
29) The nursing care for Roy during the initial phase of treatment should include:
a) encourage oral fluid to maintain body temperature c) provide psychological relief by preparing him for skin
grafting
b) restore fluid volume d) prevent respiratory complication by preparing him for intubation

SITUATION: Nori, 9 weeks pregnant, calls the clinic to inform the nurse that she is having slight vaginal bleeding with no
abdominal cramping.
30) The nurse recognized that Nori is having signs and symptoms of threatened abortion. The nurse most appropriate
action is to advice Nori to:
a) immediately come to the clinic c) elevate her legs when sitting
b) restrict her activities and call again if bleeding persist d) continue ADL but limit oral fluid intake
31) The nurse should advice Nori to
a) Take laxative c) Call clinic when bleeding stops
b) Save all pads, clots and expelled tissues d) Record fluid intake and urinary output for 48 hrs.
32) Nori asks the nurse, “Will I lose my baby?” The most appropriate response by the nurse is:
a) “There is always a possibility, but we will try to save the pregnancy.”
b) “Most women who have only mild bleeding without cramps continue their pregnancy.”
c) “You seem upset. This must be very difficult for you,”
d) “Don’t worry. Everything will be alright.”
33) Four days later, Nori has spontaneous abortion and the aborted fetus gross defect that is not compatible for life. Nori
began to cry. What is the most therapeutic nursing action? The nurse should:
a) Recommend genetic counseling for her and her husband
b) Explain why defects are the most common cause of spontaneous abortion c) Reflect Nori’s feelings
d)Suggest to talk to the physician to ask when she can begin another pregnancy
34) Nori asks the nurse when she and her husband resume sexual intercourse. The nurse’s response is based on the
knowledge that coitus maybe resumed after:
 a) 48 hours b) 1 week c) 2 weeks d) 6 weeks
SITUATION: Hannah is admitted to the CCU to rule out MI, and telling the nurse it is just angina. She says she does not
understand the difference between angina and MI pain.
35) The nurse’s response is based on the knowledge that: Anginal pain
a) lasts only 3-5 minutes
b) produces clenching of the fist over the chest while acute MI pain does not
c) requires morphine for relief
d) radiates to the left arm while acute MI pain does not
36) Two days after admission, Hannah develops congestive heart failure. Swan Ganz is inserted to monitor left ventricular
function because
it:
a) provides information about pulmonary resistance c) controls renal blood flow
b) measures myocardial oxygen supply d) controls after load
37) One morning while in the hospital, Hannah told the nurse that she must be home tonight to take care of her children
when her husband goes to work. The problem identified at this point is:
a) anxiety related to physical limitations c) inability of client/family to understand disease process
b) alteration in cardiac output d) Safety needs related to inability to cope.
38) Oxygen is ordered. Administering oxygen to a client with acute M.I. is related to which of the following problems:
a) Anxiety c) Alterations in myocardial perfusion
b) Chest pains d) Alteration in heart rate, rhythm and conduction

SITUATION: Carlo, 19 years old college student is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute renal failure.
39) ECG is ordered by the physician. Appearance of U waves in the ECG should alert the nurse to check laboratory values
for:
a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypokalemia c) Hypernatremia d)Hyponatremia
40) Which of the following nursing actions is not included in the care for a client with acute renal failure?
a) Administer oxygenb) Give anti emetic c) Provide skin care d) Restrict fluid intake
41) Carlo has manifested oliguria and proteinuria. He asks the nurse: “How long will it take me to be able to make ‘wewe’
again?” The most appropriate response by the nurse is based on the knowledge that this phase of renal failure will last
approximately:
a) 1-2 days b) 3-7 days c) 1-2 weeks d) 3-4 week
42) Which of the following nursing actions is the most important to assess fluid status of Carlo?
a) monitor urine specific gravity c) weigh daily
b) measure fluid intake and output d) record frequency of BM

SITUATION:Mario, a 20 year old college student sustained a motorcycle accident. He sustained a fracture of the right
femur and ulna. Open reduction of right femur is done and Steinman pin is inserted for skeletal traction. Close reduction
is done on the right ulna plaster cast was applied.
43) After the procedure, Mario complains of pain in his right arm. The priority intervention by the nurse should be to:
a) Administer analgesic b) Check the fingers c) Notify the physician d) Pad edges of cast
44) If Mario would show signs of confusion, anxiety and increased restlessness, the nurse should expect:
a) A concussion b) Impending shock c) Fat emboli d) Anxiety
45) The nurse is aware that the weights applied in the skeletal traction:
a) Should hang freely in place c) Remove the weight if the client is being moved up in bed
b) Hold the weight up if the client is being moved up in bed d) Lighten them for a short period if he client
complains of pain
46) Mario develops an acute localized osteomyelitis. He is placed on IV antibiotic therapy. The wound is incised and
drained and neomycin irrigated is ordered four times a day. The wound irrigation should be done:
a) With strict aseptic technique c) For at least 5 minutes
b) With a war solution d) At equal time intervals
47) To maintain proper alignment and immobilization of the femur, the physician ordered balanced skeletal traction with a
Thomas splint. The nurse caring for Mario should explain to him that:
a) Cannot turn or sit up c) Can turn but cannot sit up
b) Cannot turn but can sit up d) Can turn and can sit up

SITUATION: Simeon, a 63 year old farmer is admitted to the hospital with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia.
48) The nurse makes her admission assessment and would most likely reveal:
a) hematuria, urinary frequency, and dribbling c) urinary frequency, nocturia, decreased force of urine stream
b) flank pain and decreased caliber of urine stream d) hematuria, urinary hesitancy and pyuria
49) Simeon’s wife asked the nurse, “What age group that men are at risk for testicular cancer?” The nurse tells the wife
that men at risk of testicular cancer at:
a) 12 to 14 years b) 15 to 35 years c) 36 to 50 years d) Over 50 years of age
50) Foley catheter is inserted by the physician to relive Simeon’s urine retention. Which of the following nursing action
would not help maintain the patency of the drainage system?
a) taping the catheter to the inner aspect of the thigh c) keeping the drainage bag below the bladder level
b) forcing fluids of more than 3000 ml/day d) positioning the tubing with no dependent loops
51) Simeon is scheduled for TURP under spinal anesthesia. Before the surgery, the nurse explains that:
a) he may receive continuous bladder irrigation after the procedure
b) the procedure may cause impotency
c) the common complication is sterility
d) the entire prostate will be removed
52) After the procedure, Simeon has continuous 3-way bladder irrigation. The nurse notes that the drainage is dark red
with no clots. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a) increase the rate of the irrigation c) continue monitoring the drainage
b) notify the physician d) irrigate the catheter manually
53) Because of the position during the procedure, the nurse should assess the patient postoperatively for:
a) infection of the incision site b) thrombophlebitis c) atelectasis d) water intoxication
54) The catheter was removed on the 4 th day after the procedure. Simeon complains of wetting his pajamas. Which
nursing action is most appropriate?
a) advising Simeon to periodically contract his perineal muscles c) applying condom catheter
b) restricting fluid intake d) encouraging to void as soon as the urge occur
55) Simeon is ready for discharge. Discharge instruction will not include:
a) call physician if urine turns pink or reddish c) do not take ASA for pain
b) avoid alcoholic beverages d) no sexual intercourse for six weeks

SITUATION: Henry, 26 year old, is an AIDS patient with pneumonia. He is admitted to the hospital with isolation
precaution with no visitors allowed.
56) The collapse of the immune re4sponse defenses in an Aids patient is a defect from:
a) insufficient amount of immunoglobulin c) reduction in the number and change in the function of CD-4 T cells
b) overproduction of immature B lymphocytes d) decreased amount of tissue macrophage
57) Henry was initially tested positive for AIDS. He asked the nurse, “What does HIV positive means?” The most
appropriate response by the nurse is:
a) The test has isolated HIV virus in your blood
b) You got AIDS
c) It is too early to tell you if you will eventually develop or not develop AIDS
d) The test detected antibodies against the AIDS virus in your blood 58) HIV is transmitted in all of the following
except:
a) through sexual intercourse c) through infants of infected mothers
b) through sharing of drug user’s needles d) through mosquito and tick bites
59) CD4 cell count is ordered. The nurse explains that this test is to:
a) identify level of antibody formation against the AIDS virus c) measure the activity replicating AIDS
virus
b) monitor the progress of the disease d) identify if HIV antibodies are present are present in his
blood 60) Retrovir is ordered for the patient. Which of the following statement is not correct about this drug?
a) Will prevent transmission of AIDS to other patients.
b) Will not cure AIDS but slow progression
c) Patient should take this drug as scheduled, 30 minutes before or 1 hour after meals.
d) Has adverse reactions like, sore throat, bleeding gums, muscle wasting, and nausea 61) The most common
opportunistic infection that may develop is:
a) Tuberculosis c) Candidiasis
b) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia d) Herpes zoster infection
62) Henry’s strongest feeling at this time is most likely:
a) Loss b) Rejection c) Rejection d) Anger
63) Due to the incidence of AIDS is high among IV users. Health Teaching Session is to be conducted to a group of college
students. To prevent infection among IV users, the nurse told the group:
a) Not to inject c) Clean injection paraphernalia with full strength bleach
b) Not to share injection paraphernalia d) None of the above

SITUATION: Gina, 30 year old is admitted to the hospital because of muscle fatigue on exertion. The physician suspects
myasthenia gravis.
64) Which of the following assessment findings are most likely manifested by a client with Myasthenia Gravis?
a) unequal papillary response, diplopia, and inability to hold her mouth closed
b) restless, decreased LOC and history of extreme muscle weakness in the morning
c) frequent changed in facial expressions, exopthalmos and low pitched sound
d) ptosis, dysphagia, and a soft nasal sound
65) Which test confirms a diagnosis of myasthenia gravis?
a) Stress test b) Glucose tolerance test c) Tensilon test d) Sweat chloride test
66) The patient is to undergo plasmaphresis. Which of the following teaching regarding this treatment is incorrect?
a) The treatment will remove toxic substances in the blood and make the blood purer
b) Patient’s blood will be removed to separate the plasma and will be discarded and will be replaced with albumin c)
Effective when patient has improved muscle strength.
d) Performed over a period of 5-7 days
67) The physician ordered Neostigmine to Gina. Possible favorable results include:
a) Increased ability to do ADL and decreased dysphagia c) Improved papillary and tactile stimulation response
b) Increased WBC and improved memory d) Mild sedative effects without “hang-over” symptoms

SITUATION: Mrs. Frias, a 40 year old accountant, is admitted to the hospital with symmetrical weakness of her lower
extremities. The diagnosis is GuillaineBarre syndrome.
68) The cause of GuillaineBarre syndrome is:
a) A postoperative complication b) Gastroenteritisc) A respiratory infection d) Not known
69) The pathophysiologic mechanism of GuillaineBarre syndrome is:
a) Demyelination and degeneration of the myelin sheet b) Defective impulse transmission between nerve and muscle
cells
b) Loss of pigmented myelin d) An unexplained loss of basal ganglia cells
70) Checking which of the following should be included in the routine assessment?
a) Check for impaired gag and swallowing reflex c) Check for ptosis
b) Check for impaired hearing d) Check for facial twitching
71) Which of the following manifestations would alert the nurse to report at once?
a) Urine output of 50 ml for the last 2 hours c) Tingling sensation in the arms and hands
b) Confusion and drowsiness d) Muscle pain in the shoulder and thighs
72) Mrs. Frias told the nurse that she and her husband are planning to have 2 more children. She asks if the disease will
recur if she gets pregnant. The most appropriate nurse’s response is:
a) Yes, the risk of recurrence is highest on the 3rd trimester
b) No, it is a onetime disease that does not recur and will not affect offspring of pregnancy
c) Yes, the risk of recurrence is highest on the 1st trimester
d) No, pregnant women has immunity to the disease during pregnancy but may recur if not pregnant

73) Which outcome is most likely for Mrs. Frias?

a) Frequent exacerbations b) Chronic infections c) Death d) Slow but complete recovery

SITUATION: Melania, 30 year old is at 32 weeks gestation and admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pregnancy
induced hypertension.
74) Magnesium sulfate IV is ordered. Which of the following should the nurse report to the obstetrician before giving the
drug?
a) BP: 180/100 mm Hg c) RR: 12 bpm
b) Urine output: 40 ml/hr d) (+) deep tendon reflex
75) The nurse knows that Melania is aware about the occurrence of PIH when she says:
a) “It usually appears anytime during pregnancy. c) “PIH occurs during the 1st trimester.”
b) “It is similar to cardio-vascular disease.” d) “PIH occurs after the 20th week AOG.” 76) Several hours after giving
Mg SO4, the patient should be observed for clinical manifestations of:
a) Hyperkalemia b) Hypermagnesemia c) Hypoglycemia d) Hypercalcemia
77) The nurse instructs Melania to report prodromal symptom of seizures associated with PIH. Which of the following will
she likely identify?
a) 15 ml.hr urine output c) Sudden increase in BP
b) (-) deep tendon reflex d) Epigastric pain

SITUATION: Irish, 17 year old is admitted due to rapid loss of weight associated with anorexia nervosa.
78) On admission, the nurse would note which of the following signs and symptoms?
a) Bradycardia and hypotension c) Tachycardia and hypertension
b) Palpitation and hypertension d) Nausea and vomiting
79) Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for Irish?
a) Impaired gas exchange c) Decreased fluid volume
b) Sensory perceptual alteration d) Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
80) After eating, Irish was observed purging in the bathroom. Which of the following is the appropriate nursing
intervention? a) Observe Irish for 24 hours for an incidence of purging
b) Tell Irish that she will be forced to eat the food served soon after purging
c) Tell Irish that she would be given extra food
d) Irish should be observed for 2 hrs. after each meal
81) Which of the following is the most important goal for patients with anorexia nervosa?
a) Be Able to cope with stresses and conflicts c) Be able to identify and express feelings and concerns
b) Develop more realistic body image d) Be able to identify significant others

Individual Questions:
82) The most therapeutic diet for a client with hepatic cirrhosis would be:
a) High protein, low carbohydrate, low fat
b) Low protein, low carbohydrate, high fat,
c) High carbohydrate, low saturated fat, 1200 calories
d) Low sodium, protein to tolerance, moderate fat, high calorie, high vitamin
83) The nurse is assessing a 18 month old with iron deficiency anemia. Which of the following signs and symptoms the
nurse would expect to find?
a) Overweight, poor activity tolerance and flushed face
b) Pallor, fatigue, and irritability
c) Pallor, average muscle tone and accelerate growth rate
d) Activity tolerance, good muscle tone, and average growth rate
84) 20 mEq of potassium chloride is to be added to the IV solution of a client with diabetic ketoacidosis. The primary
purpose for giving this drug is:
a) treat hyperpnea c) prevent flaccid paralysis
b) replace potassium deficit d) treat cardiac dysrhythmias
85) A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The physician made his pre-operative orders. Which of the following
would the nurse prioritize?
a) removing all jewelries c) informing family or next of kin
b) checking that all laboratory tests were done d) having all consent papers signed
86) In order to obtain a comprehensive medical history from a client for admission, it is important for the nurse to:
a) make sure the client is comfortable with the environment c) ask about the family dynamics last
b) ask the most difficult problem first d) document events and dates in chronological order
87) Spinal anesthetic is given to a client scheduled for surgery. Immediately following the administration, the nurse will
position the client:
a) On his abdomen c) In semi-fowler’s position
b) In slight trendelenburg’s position d) On his back or side with head raised
88) When the client’s potassium level is 5.8 mEq/l, The nurse should first:
a) Call laboratory and repeat the test c) Obtain ECG strip and have lidocaine available
b) Call cardiac arrest team to alert them d) Take the vital signs and notify the physician
89) A client is to have an enema to reduce flatus. The rectal catheter should be inserted up to mark:
a) 2 inches b) 6 inches c) 4 inches d) 8 inches
90) A nurse is teaching a client how to irrigate a colostomy. The nurse indicates that the distance of the container above
the stoma should be no more than:
a) 6 inches b) 12 inches c) 10 inches d) 18 inches
91) The physician ordered a rectal tube to relieve abdominal distention following surgery. To achieve maximum
effectiveness, the nurse should leave the tube in place for a period of:
a) 15 minutes b) 30 minutes c) 45 minutes d) 60 minutes
92) The nurse is performing a physical assessment of a newborn with Down syndrome. The nurse should carefully evaluate
the infant’s:
a) Heart sounds b) Pupillary reaction c) Anterior fontanel d) Lower extremities
93) After closure of a newborn’s meningomyelocele. Which of the following is an essential nursing intervention?
a) Strict limitation of leg movement c) Measurement of head circumference daily
b) Decrease environmental stimuli d) Observe for serous drainage from the nares
94) A viral disease caused by one of the smallest human viruses that infect the motor cells f the anterior horn of the spinal
cord is
a) Rubella b) Chickenpox c)Rubeola d) Poliomyelitis
95) Autism can be diagnosed around the age of:
a) 2 years b) 6 months c) 6 years d) 1-3 months
96) Following the last dose of methadone hydrochloride, withdrawal symptoms are expected to peak in:
a) 8 to 24 hours b) 24 to 48 hours c) 48 to 72 hours d) 72 to 96 hours
97) A severely depressed client is admitted to the hospital. The most therapeutic activity for the client is:
a) specific, simple instructions to be followed c) monotonous, repetitive projects and activities
b) simple, easily completed, short-term projects d) allowing the client to plan his own activities 98) A
nurse is caring for a drug dependent mother and infant. Before discharge, the nurse should:
a) ]refer the mother to a drug rehabilitation program
b) support the mother’s positive maternal responses
c) keep the mother and the baby separated until the mother is drug free.
d) help the mother to understand that the baby’s problem are due to her drug intake
99) Many people control anxiety by ritualistic behavior. When taking care of these individuals, it is important for the nurse
to:
a) void mentioning the ritual c) allow time to carry out the ritual
b) explain the meaning of the ritual d) prevent them from carrying out the ritual
100) A male client, aged 26 with delusion of persecution and auditory hallucination is admitted for psychiatric
evaluation after stabbing his friend. The nurse in the unit greets him, “Good morning. How are you?” The client who
has been referring to himself as “man” answers, “The man is mad.” This is an example of:
a) Dissociation b) Transference c) Displacement d) Reaction formation
101) A child with rubeola (measles) is being admitted to the hospital. In preparing for the admission of the child, the
nurse plans to place the child of which precautions?
a) Contact b) Enteric c) Respiratory d) Protective
102)Several children have contracted rubeola (measles) in a local school. The school nurse conducts a teaching session to
the mothers of the school children. Which statement made a mother indicates a need for further teaching regarding
 this communicable disease? a) “Respiratory symptoms such as a profuse runny nose, cough and fever occur before the
development of a rash.” b) “Small, blue, white spots with a red base appear in the mouth.”
c) “The rash usually begins behind the ears and spreads downward toward the feet.”
d) “The communicable period ranges from 10 days before the onset symptoms to 15 days after the rash appears.”
103) A mother of a 15-month-old brings the child to the clinic and reports that the child has a fever and has developed a
rash on the neck and trunk of the body. Roseola is diagnosed. The mother is concerned that her other children will
contract the disease. The nurse provides which of the following instructions to the mother regarding the prevention of
the transmission of the disease?
a) The disease is transmitted through the urine and feces so the other children should use a separate bathroom b)
Disease transmission is unknown
c) The disease is transmitted through the respiratory tract so the child should be isolated from the other children as
much as possible
d) The disease is transmitted by contact with body fluid so any items contaminated with body fluids need to be
discarded in separate receptacle
104) A nurse provides instructions to the mother of a child with mumps regarding respiratory precautions. The mother
asks the nurse about the length of time required for respiratory precautions. The nurse most appropriately responds
that: a) “Respiratory precautions are necessary for the entire time illness.”
b) “Respiratory precautions are necessary until the swelling is gone.”
c) “Respiratory precautions are indicated during the period of communicability.”
d) “Respiratory precautions are indicated for 18 days after the onset parotid swelling.”
105) A mother brings her 6-year-old child to the clinic because the child has developed a rash on the trunk and on the
scalp. The mother reports that the child has had a low-grade temperature, has not felt like eating, and has been
generally tired. The child is diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother inquires about the communicable disease period
associated with chickenpox. The nurse plans to base the response on which of the following?
a) The communicable period is unknown
b) The communicable period is 1 to 2 days after the onset of lesions and the crusting of lesions
c) The communicable period is 10 days before the onset of symptoms to 15 days after the rash appears
d) The communicable period ranges from 2 weeks or less up to several months
106) A nurse assists is preparing home care instructions to the parents of a child hospitalized with pertussis. The child is
in convalescent stage is being prepared for discharge. Which of the following will not be included in the instructions? a)
Maintain respiratory precautions and a quite environment at least 2 weeks
b) Coughing spells may be triggered by dust or smoke
c) Encourage fluid intake
d) Good handwashing techniques must be instituted to prevent spreading the disease to others
107) A 6-month-old infant receives a DtaP (diptheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis) immunization at the well-baby
clinic. The mother returns home and calls the clinic to report that the infant has developed swelling and redness at the
site of injection. The nurse tells the mother to:
a) Apply a warm pack to the injection site c) Apply an ice pack to the injection site
b) Bring the infant back to the clinic d) Monitor the infant for a fever
108) A child is diagnosed with scarlet fever. The nurse collects data on the child knowing that which of the following is
not a clinical manifestation associated with this disease?
a) Maintain the child on bed rest for2 weeks
b) Maintain respiratory precautions for 1 week
c) Notify the physician if the child develops a fever
d) Notify the physicians if the child develops abdominal pain or left shoulder pain
109) A nurse provides home care instructions to the parents of a child with infectious mononucleosis. The nurse tells
the parents to: a) Maintain the child on bed rest for 2 weeks
b) Maintain respiratory precautions for 1 week
c) Notify the physician if the child develops a fever
d) Notify the physician if the child develops abdominal pain or left shoulder pain
110) The mother of a pre-schooler who attends day care calls the clinic nurse and tells that the child constantly itching the
perineal area that the area is irritated. The nurse suspects the possible of pinworm (enterobiasis) infection. The nurse
instructs the mother to obtain the specimen:
a) ]When the child is put to bed c) After bathing
b) After toileting d) In the morning when the child awakens
111) The insurance company is covering all hospitalization expenses of Mr. Roman after a car accident in South super
highway. The patient requests a breakdown of all charges.
a) Hospital of Great Mercy does not have to release the records to the patient
b) The patient has the right to examine the bill
c) The patient has the right to a respectful care
d) The hospital has the right to decide when and where the patient should receive information on fiscal matters
112) Dr. Dela Costa informs Mr. Duran who is a Jehovah’s Witness that he must have a blood transfusion or he will die. The
patient does not want to have such treatment
a) The patient has an obligation to himself and family to go with the treatment
b) The patient recognizes the physician expertise and agrees to the treatment
c) The patient has the right to refuse treatment to the extent permitted by the law
 d) The patient has the right to ask for and to be given an early death
113) Team leader Camilla recognized that team members are avoiding “difficult” patient in the geriatric ward so she
decided to a conference on behalf of that client. As a nurse manager, she supports or defends someone and
recommends or pleads on another’s behalf which illustrates a role of a nurse as a:
a) Health counselor b) Patient’s advocate c) Change agent d) Ancillary personnel
114) In the emergency room for St. Champagnat Hospital, where the victims of the ship mishap are confined, several press
persons would like to interview and photograph the victims. It is best for Nurse Brisa to be guided with the following;
a) Concept victims to accept interview and photography
b) Let the victims sign a waiver if they refuse
c) Without victim consent, such are considered violations of their right to privacy
d) Refer such request by the media men to the doctor
115) With medical and surgical patients, Nurse Maria said, “respect for human dignity is most important.” This is
comprehensively described in:
a) Letting a patient sign as informed consent c) Patient’s Bill of Rights
b) Keeping in confidence information and privileged communication d) Labor Code of the Philippines
116) When teaching about child abuse, the nurse tells the parent group that the best legal definition of assault is:
a) Threats to do bodily harm to the person of another person
b) The application of force to another person without lawful justification
c) A legal wrong committed by one person against the property of another
d) A legal wrong committed against the public and punishable by law through the state and courts
117) The nurse emphasizes that the term battery means:
a) A legal wrong committed by one person against the property of another
b) Maligning the character of and individual while threatening to do bodily harm
c) The application of force to the person of another person without lawful justification
d) Doing something that a reasonable person with the same education or preparation would not do
118) Which of the following statements best exemplifies the concept of autonomy?
a) The professional staff of physicians defines the client’s best interest
b) The nurse provides the client with the facts and then allows the client to reach an unassisted decision
c) The nurse respects a client’s choice not to know particular information
d) The health care team makes health and treatment decisions
119) Signing of an informed consent is one of the legal responsibilities of a nurse before surgery is done. It is valid when.
a) Signed by a person below 18 years of age c) Signed by a consenting adult given due explanation
b) Witnessed by a blind or a deaf man d) Signed by a witness
120) The client’s identification armband was removed to start an intravenous line as part of the preoperative preparation.
The operating room transport team has arrived to transport the client. What is the best nurse’s response? a) Send the
removed armband with the chart and the client to the operating room
b) Place a new identification armband on the client’s wrist before transport
c) Tape the cut armband back onto the client’s wrist
d) Send the client without an armband because she can verbally identify herself.
121) A young child with acute nonlymphoid leukemia is started on induction chemotherapy. Nursing interventions that
would be appropriate to avoid the complications associated with neutropenia include:
a) Encouraging a well-balanced diet, including iron-rich foods, and helping the child avoid overexertion
b) Placing the child with a private room, restricting ill visitors and using strict handwashing techniques
c) Avoiding rectal temperatures, avoiding injections and applying direct pressure for 5 to 10 minutes after
venipuncture
d) Offering a moist, bland, soft diet, using toothettes rather than a toothbrush, and providing frequent saline
mouthwash
122) Based on developmental norms for a 5-year-old, the nurse should withhold a scheduled dose of digoxin (Lanoxin)
elixir and notify the physician when the child’s apical pulse rate first drops below:
a) 60 beats per minute b) 80 beats per minute c) 90 beats per minute d) 100 beats per minute
123) After administration mebendazole (Vermox) to a 4-year-old for pinworms, the nurse should observe the child for:
a) Constipation b) Hypertension c) Intestinal bleeding d) Worms in the stool
124) The major depriving factor in long-term hospitalization of which the nurse should be aware is usually the:
a) Lack of play objects c) Care provided only by a mother substitute
b) Lack of multi-sensory inputs d) Absence of interaction with a mother figure
125) When teaching a mother how to prevent accidents while caring for her 6-month-old, the nurse should emphasize that
at this age child can usually
a) Sit up b) Roll over c) Crawl lengthy distances d) Stand while holding onto
furniture
126) A 2-year-old boy, admitted to the hospital for further surgical repair of a clubfoot, is standing in his crib crying. The
child refuses to be comforted and calls for his mother. As the nurse approaches the crib to provide morning care the
child screams louder. The nurse. Recognizing that this behavior Is typical of the stage of protest decides to: a) Pick him
up and carry him around the room
b) Fill the basin with water and proceed to bathe him
c) Sit by his crib and bathe him later when his anxiety decreases
d) Skip the bath because a child this upset does not really need a bath
127) When successfully learning autonomy and independence, the toddler would be learning:
a) Superego control b) Trust and security c) Roles within society d) To accept external limits
128) The nurse observes a 2-year-old at play and notes that his age toddler:
a) Builds houses with locks c) Attempts to stay within the, lines when coloring
b) Is extremely possessive of toys d) Amuses self with a picture book for 15 minutes
129) When ordering a regular diet for a young toddler the nurse should choose foods such as:
a) SpaghettiO’s and raisins c) Hamburger with bun and grapes
b) Corn dog and French fries d) Hot dog with bun and potato chips
130) The nurse teaching a mothers’ class tells them that the best way to position their infants during the first couple of
weeks of life is to lay them on their:
a) Stomachs with their heads flat c) Right side with their heads slightly elevated
b) Backs or sides with their heads flat d) Stomachs with their heads slightly elevated

SITUATION: The following questions refer to the Public Health Nurse’s (PHN) roles and functions.
131) As a service provider the PHN can provide family planning services by:
a) Supporting beneficiary choice with necessary services
b) Supporting changes in choice with necessary services
c) Giving accurate information about alternative choice for family planning
d) Performing all of these activities
132) For a group for children where interaction with causative agents of diseases have not taken place, the nurse’s concern
is to provide
a) Diagnostic and curative care c) Promotive and preventive care
b) All of these types of care d) Rehabilitative care
133) As a supervisor, the PHN does the following:
a) Provide nursing care to family with complicated nursing problems
b) Assess the effects of her nursing care provided to the family
c) Assist the doctor in the treatment of cases
d) Review the management of patients, done by the midwife
134) As a supervisor the PHN conducts periodic visits to the family Rural Health Midwives (RHM), in order to:
a) Provide the necessary assistance in carrying out her functions effectively
b) Make sure that the RHM is in her station
c) Know why RHM have not referred cases to the main health center
d) Graph weekly incidence of disease cases in the municipality and display this is the Rural Health Unit
135) The PHN performs the following in relation to her role in disease surveillance and epidemiology EXCEPT:
a) determine the causes of epidemics as needed for disease control measures
b) make sure that the RHM is in her station
c) teach midwives the proper reporting of diseases
d) graph weekly incidence of diseases cases in the municipality and display this is the Rural Health Unit

SITUATION: The following questions pertain to concepts and principles on Community Health Nursing.
136) A framework utilized by the Public Health Nurse to establish a nurse patient relationship that is appropriate to the
needs of the individual patient is:
a) Nursing process c) Family-based research
b) Nursing diagnosis d) Partnership approach
137) A guide of scheme used by the nurse in providing care to individuals and families is:
a) Nursing process b) Nursing assessment c) List of health problems d) Nursing care plan
138) For the nursing care plan to be effective, this must be planned with and accepted by the:
a) Patient c) Rural health midwives in the catchments area
b) Rural health physician d) Other membranes of the family
139) In order to determine to determine the effectiveness of the nursing care plan for an individual patient, the nurse
must:
a) Specify the nursing diagnosis c) Implement the plan
b) Involves a responsible member of the family d) Evaluate the plan
140) Which of the following serves as basis for evaluation the nursing care plan for the patient and/or family?
a) Activities undertaken c) Baseline information
b) Nursing diagnosis d) Set objectives of the plan
141) A client is voluntarily admitted to the psychiatric unit. Later the client develops severe pain in the right lower quadrant
and is diagnosed as having acute appendicitis. When preparing the client for an appendectomy the nurse should: a)
Have two nurses witness the operative consent as the client signs it
b) Have the surgeon and the psychiatrist sign of the surgery, because it is an emergency procedure
c) Phone the client’s next to kin to come in to sign the consent form because the client is on the psychiatric unit
d) Ask the client to sign the preoperative consent form after being informed of the procedure and required care
142) In relation to obtaining an informed consent from a 17-year old adolescent, the nurse should remember
that the adolescent a)Does not have the legal capacity to give consent
b) Is not able to make an acceptable or intelligent choice
c) Is able to give voluntary consent when parents are not available
 d) Will most likely be unable to choose between alternatives when asked to consent
143) The physician prescribes “NPO after midnight” for a hospitalized client who is scheduled for a diagnostic test. The
morning of the test the clients eats breakfast. The test is cancelled and the client must stay an extra day. The client is
very disturbed and insists on not paying for additional day because of the error. In situations such as this:
a) The client is responsible for the hospital bill and must pay
b) A full explanation of tests or treatments is the right of the client
c) The order should have been written more clearly by the physician
d) Things go wrong and hospital personnel are not responsible unless there is gross negligence
144) A newborn is admitted to the nursery. During the newborn assessment the nurse notes that the temperature,
pulse, respirations are within normal range. Other physical characteristics are also normal. The nurse records all
observations on the baby’s chart. The nurse’s action were:
a) Correct, because the nurse met the requirements set forth in the Nurse Practice Act
b) Incorrect, because making this type of medical diagnosis is not within the purview of the nurse
c) Correct, because the assessment by the nurse is not equivalent to the physician’s assessment
d) Incorrect, because the initial assessment of the infant’s physical status is responsibility of the physician
145) A client with a history of emphysema is now terminally ill with cancer of esophagus. The client is weak, dyspneic,
emaciated and apathetic. The plan of care includes a soft diet, modified postural drainage, and nebulizer treatments.
The nursing care plan of this client should give priority to:
a) Intake and output c) Hygiene and comfort
b) Diet and nutrition d) Body mechanic s and posture
146) A terminally ill client is visited frequently by the spouse, a 16-year-old daughter and a 20-year old son. In view of
the clients extreme weakness and dyspnea, nursing care plans should include: a) Allowing self-activity whenever
possible
b) Encouraging family members to feed and assist the client
c) Limiting family visiting hours to the evening before the client sleeps
d) Planning all the necessary care at one time with long rest periods in between
147) When preparing a client for ambulation of crutches, the nurse should recognize the need for further teaching when
the client states, “I must practice”
a) Sitting down and standing up c) Standing and maintaining balance
b) Should be considered and planned for early in the client’s care d) Doing active exercises for
muscle straightening
148) Rehabilitation plans for a client who has paraplegia as a result of spinal cord severance:
a) Should be left up to the client and the client’s family
b) Should be considered and planned for early in the client’s care
c) Are not necessary, because the client will return to former activities
d) Are not necessary, because the client will probably not be able to work again
149) The nursing process can be defined as the:
a) Implementation of nursing care by the nurse c) Process the nurse uses to determine nursing goals
b) Steps the nurse uses to determine nursing goals d) Activities a nurse employs to identify a client’s problem
150) To utilize the nursing process, the nurse must first:
a) Identify goals for nursing care c) Obtain information about the client
b) State the client’s nursing needs d) Evaluate the effectiveness of nursing action
PROFESSIONAL ADJUSTMENT AND NURSING JURISPRUDENCE

Situation 1: Bads successfully passed the PNLE. He has just received his professional identification card as a registered
nurse. 151) Which of the following would BEST prevent Bads from malpractice suit?
a) Performs his duty as prescribed in his job description
b) Records the intervention and outcomes of care
c) Does not allow patient’s relatives to participate in the care of patients
d) Performs her functions pursuant to the law
152) If Bads divulges the information that he is caring for the child of a patient with STD, he can be liable for unprofessional
conduct specifically:
a) Libel
b) Slander
c) Breach of confidentiality
d) Invasion of privacy
153) Which of the following information NOT indicated in professional identification card issued to Bads?
a) A signature of the Chairman of the Board
b) Registration date
c) Date of issuance and expiration
d) License number
154) Bads knows that he is duty-bound to renew his professional identification card
every how often?
a) Every 5 years
b) Every 3 years
c) Annually
d) Biannually
155) Bads is aware that as a professional nurse, he must submit to the PRC proof of participation to CPE activities. How
many credit units are needed for him to submit for a 3-year period?
a) 60
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40
Situation 2: Mr. Ronald is the Health Education Program Officer of the Municipal Health Unit Office. He plans to develop
programs based on the various laws and directives from the DOH.
156) He knows that all prescriptions of the municipal health officer should be in generics. What law provides
for this mandate? a) RA 9173
b) RA 6675
c) RA 1080
d) RA 7160
157) Ronald has to consider managing the resources of the MHO. He knows that the delivery of basic services and
facilities of the national government was transferred to the local government units. Which of the following laws
mandated this? a) RA 7305
b) RA 7160
c) RA 1080
d) RA 8423
158) Which of the following does not apply to RA 7305?
a) Promotes and improves the socio-economic well being of health workers
b) Develop their skills and capabilities
c) Encourage those qualifies and with abilities to remain in government service
d) Standardizes the salaries of nurses working in the environment
159) He deems it necessary for him to undergo continuing professional education. Which of the following
supports this objective? a) PRC Resolution No. 2004-179
b) BON Resolution No. 220 s.2004
c) EO No. 220
d) BON Resolution No. 425 s. 2003
160) He encourages patients to make use of traditional and alternative medicines as recommended by the DOH. Which of
the following laws created the Philippine Institute of Traditional and Alternative Health Care?
a) RA 7392
b) RA 8423
c) RA 1082
d) RA 7305
161) He develops programs on Drug Prevention. As a basis for his program, he quoted which of the
following facts? a) RA 9165
b) RA 6125
c) RA 6675
d) RA 2382
162) Which of the following is NOT considered a dangerous drug?
a) Ecstacy
b) Opium
c) Shabu
d) Morphine
163) Ms. Perez conducts counseling to parents of newborns about heritable diseases. Which of the following procedures is
covered by RA 9288?
a) Newborn Apgar Score
b) Newborn Screening
c) DDST
d) Metro Manila Developmental Screening Test
164) RA 9257 provides for the following benefits of a senior citizen, which one is NOT included?
a) Exception from payment of income taxes
b) Free medical and dental services, diagnostic and laboratory fees in government and private facilities
c) 20% discount in fare for domestic air and see travel, public railways, skyways and bus fares
d) Provision for express lanes for senior citizens
Situation 3: Nurse Benjam is aware of his ethical and legal responsibilities as a professional nurse. He sees to it that he
complies with the ethical principles in the care of his patients.
165) Which of the following principles apply to the action of Benjam to refrain from discussing disease condition of the
patient with those who are not involved in his care?
a) Beneficence
b) Non-maleficence
c) Justice
d) Autonomy
166) Ms. Hanna is diagnosed to acute MI and is recommended for admission. She refuses to be admitted and ask to
be transferred to a tertiary hospital instead. Which of the following principles should Benjam use as a guide for
his action?
a) Autonomy
 b) Justice
c) Non-maleficence
d) Beneficence
167) The present code of ethics nurses in the Philippines was approved by the BON through?
a) BON Resolution No. 1955
b) BON Resolution No. 633
c) BON Resolution No. 110
d) BON Resolution No. 220
168) When conflict arises regarding management of patient care, which of the following
should be upheld?
a) Physician’s orders
b) Preference of the family
c) Patient’s rights
d) Institutional policy
169) Which of the following are qualifications of a witness?
a) 18 years of age and older
b) Not designated as the patient’s health care representative or alternate
c) Relative of the patient
d) Attending physician
a) A &B
b) B & C
c) A & D
d) C & D
Situation 4: Japo is nurse researcher assigned in a tertiary hospital. He is assigned to collect data about the incidence of
infection among admitted patients.
170) Japo’s job includes collecting secretions form the surgical site of one of the patients. If the patient refuses and
Kathleen still continue to do it she could be liable for:
a) Slander
b) Assault
c) Battery
d) Invasion of privacy
171) He saw the security guard reading the chart of a meningococcemia suspect. Which of the following actions of Japo
would be appropriate?
a) Tell him that this is not allowed for those not directly involved in the care of the patient
b) Ask the guard if there is something he needs to know about the patient
c) Inform the supervisor about what he saw
d) Ignore this as this is not against hospital rules
172) One of the patients confided that his companion is not the legal wife. What liability will Japo be exposed when he
divulge the information to others?
a) Slander
b) Libel
c) Breach of confidentiality
d) Assault
173) Ms. Melane, a German who is a SARS suspect is advised to be confined in a negative pressure room with strict
protective gadgets of the health workers taking care of her. she vehemently resented being confined in that room.
Moreover, she was denied visitors. She threatened to sue the hospital. Which case will she file most likely?
a) Illegal detention
b) Defamation
c) Incompetence
d) Battery
174) Ms. Golda refers to the infection control nurse about the proper disposal of infectious wastes. Which of the following
laws refer to the Code of Sanitation?
a) PD 825
b) PD 856
c) PD 965
d) PD 791
175) Ms. Lyra knows that as a researcher she needs to follow the provision of RA 6713
otherwise known as: a) Generic Act of 1998
b) Sanitation Code
c) Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards of Public Officials and Employees
d) Salary Standardization of Government Employees
Situation 5: Steffi is a staff nurse in a community hospital. She is assigned at the Emergency Department of the
hospital. 176) Which of the following actions of Steffi needs a special training prior to its performance?
a) Administration of intravenous therapy
b) Health education
c) Suture of perineal lacerations
d) Internal vaginal examination
177) Ms. Sushmita knows that the chief nurse of the hospital is mandated by law to be a graduate of a
master’s degree in: a) Public Health/ Community Health Nursing
b) Nursing Administration
c) Public Administration
d) Hospital Administration
178) Which of the following laws refer to Comprehensive Dangerous Drug Act of 2002?
a) RA 6425
b) RA 9165
c) RA 6675
d) RA 7875
179) When a case is filed against him in court for an injury to a patient, Niel is referred to as:
a) Respondent
b) Complainant
c) Accomplice
d) Accessory
180) Fe was asked to appear in court to testify. Which of the following terms refer to this legal order?
a) Subpoena duces tecum
b) Subpoena ad testificandum
c) Arraignment
d) Summon
Situation 6: Seneca is a new graduate of Bachelor of Science of Nursing and intends to practice her profession in the country
upon acquiring his professional license.
181) Seneca understands that the duty and power to regulate the practice of nursing in the Philippines is vested
on what agency?
a) PNA
b) BON
c) Technical Committee on Nursing Education
d) ANSAP
182) Which of the following reports of his rating would grant Cherille license to practice nursing?
a) General rating of 70 anf a rating of 65 in Preventive Test
b) General rating of 75 and a rating of 60 in Curative Test
c) General rating of 80 and a rating of 59 in Rehabilitative Test
d) General rating of 75 and a rating of 55 in Promotive Test
183) His friend failed to pass the examination for three consecutive attempts. Which of the following
actions can he take?
a) Take the examination for the fourth time
b) Enroll in a refresher course
c) Shift to another profession that suits his level of competence
d) Apply as a nursing assistant in a hospital
184) Which of the following are elements of professional negligence?
a) Existence of a duty on the part of the person charged to use due care
b) Failure to meet standards of due care
c) Foreseeability of harm resulting from failure to meet the standard
d) The power of control over the agency or instrumentality
a) A, b, c
b) B, c,d
c) A, c, d
d) A, b, c, d
185) Which of the following conditions will NOT establish the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor for Karla?
a) The injury done to the patient was such nature that it would not normally occur unless Karla was not
negligent
b) The injury was caused by a voluntary action on the part of the private duty caregiver
c) The injury was due to the assistance of the clinical assistant who was instructed by Karla to help her
d) The injury was not due to the voluntary participation of the family
186) Which of the following doctrines will apply if it is proven that Karla did not go through a rigid training before being
deployed as a staff nurse due to acute demand for her services?
a) Res ipsa loquitor
b) Respondeat superior
c) Force majeure
d) Epikia
187) Karla is ordered by the Legal Department to bring along with her the initial assessment form and the progress notes
she used for the patient. What legal order from the hearing officer refers to this?
a) Subpoena duces tecum
b) Subpoena ad testificandum
c) Summon
d) Writ
188) His classmate Marnellie passed the examination but was not allowed to be registered. The following are grounds for
such, which one is unlikely?
 a) She was 18 years old
b) She was convicted by final judgment of criminal act involving moral turpitude
c) Unsound mind
d) Guilty of immoral or dishonorable conduct
189) She knows that patient (minor) and her husband (minor) are both emancipated. When securing for an informed
consent. Melane should remember that:
a) Either the husband or patient can sign the consent
b) The consent should be signed by the parents of the patient because she is a minor
c) If the order is written she can administer the drug
d) If the manager of the department allows it, she would follow the order
190) Which of the following laws prohibits the practice of midwifery without the
license to practice?
a) RA 7392
b) RA 7305
c) RA 7600
d) RA 7432
RESEARCH
191) Which among the following best explains the significance of nursing research?
a) It is a systematic inquiry designed to show the importance of nursing practice to the general public.
b) It is a systematic inquiry designed to improve the health and quality of life of the nurses’ clients.
c) It is designed to answer practical questions in one’s daily life.
d) It is designed to improve the work conditions of nurses in different care settings.
192) All of the following provides significance to research in nursing, EXCEPT:
a) Research measures outcomes of nursing interventions
b) Research facilitates identification of the best clinical evidence in making patient care decisions
c) Research develops and validates nursing theories which serve as guides to nursing practice.
d) Research documents social issues in nursing practice
193) A research construct is defined as an abstraction or concept deliberately invented by researchers for a scientific
process. All of the following are research constructs, EXCEPT:
a) Self-care requisites
b) Id, Ego, Superego
c) Levels of Disease Prevention
d) Culture care diversities
194) The term refers to any quality of an organism, group or situation that takes on
different values.
a) Variable
b) Construct
c) Element
d) Concepts
195) In the research entitled, “The Effects of Kalachuchi Ointment Use in Controlling Fungal Infection among School Age
Children in Barangay
Rosario, the dependent variable is the
a) Number of school age children treated
b) Use of Kalachuchi ointment
c) Availability of Kalachuchi in Barangay Rosario
d) Prevalence rate of fungal infection
196) The independent variable in the research entitled, ““The Effects of Kalachuchi Ointment Use in Controlling Fungal
Infection among
School Age Children in Barangay Rosario” is
a) Number of school age children treated
b) Use of Kalachuchi ointment
c) Availability of Kalachuchi in Barangay Rosario
d) Prevalence rate of fungal infection
197) The dependent variable in a research is also known as:
a) Presumed cause
b) Presumed effect
c) Presumed attribute
d) Presumption
198) The independent variable in a research is also known as:
a) Presumed cause
b) Presumed effect
c) Presumed attribute
d) Presumption
199) The term depended variable in a research may be used interchangeably with the term:
a) Independent variable
b) Criterion variable
c) Treatment variable
d) Attribute variable
200) Variables such as inherent characteristics of research subjects like age, sex, health beliefs, weight and others are
also known as:
a) Extraneous variables b) Criterion variables
b) Treatment variables c) Attribute variables