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10/2/23, 11:21 AM [50 Test Answers] English Part 1: General Education (Gen Ed) LET Reviewer – Test Pinoy
Gen Ed English reviewer, part 1

Question 1. _____ is an epic about the adventures of early Muslim
warriors who defended Islam.
A. Indarapatra and Sulayman
B. Bantugan
✅
C. Parang Sabu
D. Darangan
Question 2. During the 18th century, what kind of novel is most
common?
A. Religious
B. Epistolary
C. Picaresque
D. Gothic ✅
Question 3. This is a literary movement in America that looks through
life as it is.
A. Romanticism
B. Puritanism
C. Realism
D. Naturalism
✅
Question 4. All the cities below were centers of government, religion,
and culture in the 3rd Millennium B.C except _______.
A. Babylon
B. Nineveh
C. Baghdad
D. Thebes
✅
Question 5. What is the main idea that can be inferred from the stanza
below?
Time is a pair of scissors
And life, a bolt of brocade
When the lost section is done
A. Transitoriness of life
B. Cruelty of time
✅
The scraps are committed to a bonfire
C. Beauty of life
D. Destruction of beauty
A. Amado V. Hernandez
B. Vergilio Almario
✅
Question 6. “Ibong Mandaragit” was written by ____.
C. Lualhati Bautista
D. Edgardo Reyes
https://testpinoy.com/gened-english-1/ 1/8
Question 7. Poetry during the age of modernism is characterized by

_____.
A. Measure
B. Free Verse
C. Blank Verse
✅
D. Rhyme
A. Simile
B. Hyperbole
✅
Question 8. “Her dress is as blue as the sky” is an example of _____.
C. Metaphor
D. Onomatopoeia
Question 9. A Comedia usually ends with the _____.
A. Death of the Prince
B. Victory of Muslims
C. Death of the Queen
D. Victory of Christians ✅
Question 10. The American Renaissance also known as the American
Romantic Movements paved the way for the birth of _____.
A. Romanticism
B. Transcendentalism
C. Naturalism
✅
D. Realism
Question 11. What does Sappho tell the lesbian woman about her
death in the poem below?
To An Uncultured Lesbian Woman
“Yes, thou shalt die,
And lie
Dump in the silent tomb;
Nor of thy name
Shall these by any fame”
A. She will not be famous at death
B. She will find peace
C. She will be placed in a tomb
D. She will be forgotten ✅
Question 12. The Ifugao epic “HUDHUD” immortalized the hero _____.
A. Lumawig
B. Banna
C. Duluyan
D. Aligaynon ✅
A. Kalidasa
B. Tagore
✅
Question 13. Who is considered the Indian counterpart of Shakespeare?
C. Khagyam
D. Sadi
Question 14. Both Realism and Naturalism oppose ______.
A. Classicism
B. Symbolism
C. Romanticism
D. Neoclassicism
✅
Question 15. This is Geoffrey Chaucer’s collection of stories in poetic
form.
A. The Canterbury Tales
B. Lliad
✅
C. Decameron
D. Beowulf
Question 16. Which of the statements below supports this statement:
“The Homeric poems greatly influenced the development of Greek
Civilization.”
A. The Greeks became the great warriors
generations of the Greeks

C. The Olympian gods were worshipped
✅
B. The great epic characters became the models of conduct for the later
D. The Greeks became the good architects

Question 17. Filipino folks narratives’ function is _____.
A. To ward off evil spirits
B. To explain natural phenomena
C. To teach proper behavior
✅
D. To honor the gods
Question 18. Among the following statements, which best describes the
difference between the three canticles of the Divine Comedy?
A. In Inferno, they become more corporeal as Dante descends into the lower
circles
B. In Purgatorio, they have corporeal shape, but not corporeal
C. In Paradiso, they have neither bodies nor images but simply lights; in
Purgatorio, they have corporeal shape but not corporeal substance; and in
circles ✅
Inferno, they become more corporeal as Dante descends into lower
D. In Paradiso, they have neither bodies nor images but not a corporeal
substance
Question 19. _____ are at war in the lliad.
A. Trojans and Macedonians
B. Trojans and Minoans

C. Trojans and Acheans
D. Trojans and Phoenicians
✅
Question 20. The lines of the poem below describe Africa as a land that
is _____.
AFRICA
David Deop
Africa, my Africa
Africa of proud warriors
In ancestral savanna
Africa of whom my grandmother
Songs
A. Free and beautiful
B. Mysterious and unexplored
C. War town and undeveloped
D. Primitive and uncivilized
✅
Question 21. Because of his poetic style, Ezra Pound is considered a/an
_______.
A. Philosophical
B. Imagist
C. Metaphysical
✅
D. Romantic
Question 22. Oedipus _____ as a punishment for killing his father and
having sexual relations with his mother.
A. Castrated himself
B. Killed himself
D. Gouged his eyes ✅

C. Ordered his sons to murder him
Question 23. ______ can be inferred from Iseneses’ “answer.”

A. She respects Creon
B. She fears Creon
C. She understands Creon
✅
D. She likes Creon
A. William Blake
B. Robert Burn
✅
Question 24. The following are romantic poets except:
C. John Milton
D. John Keats
Question 25. _____ is famous for his plays that used the “alienation
effect”.
A. Henrick Ibsen
B. August Strindberg
C. Bertolt Brecht
D. Thomas Mann
✅
Question 26. In the poem below, what could be the author’s feeling
toward lesbian women?
To Uncultured Lesbian Woman
“Yes, thou shalt die,
And lie
Dump in the silent tomb;
Nor of thy name
A. Pity
B. Regret
✅
Shall these by any fame”
C. Sadness
D. Anger
Question 27. Who is speaking in the poem below:
“Sunset and the evening star
And one clear call for me
And may there be no moaning of the bar
When I put out to sea”
A. A dying man
B. A fisherman
✅
C. The certainty of more suffering
D. Understanding and progress
Question 28. Based on Zeus’ plan, _____ comes from suffering.
A. The consolation of death
B. The ecstasy of truth
C. The certainty of more suffering
✅
D. Understanding and progress
Question 29. The word Gospel is derived from a Greek word that means
_____.
A. Holy word
B. Good News
C. Law of God
✅
D. Message of God
Question 30. The line below expresses _____.
“While a cold hand snatched you away like a kite–I should have come
home”
A. Regret ✅
B. Sadness
C. Loss
D. Love
Question 31. Which statement best characterizes the Old Testament as

a literary piece?
A. A collection of religious anecdotes
B. A chronicle of Jewish events
C. An inspirational prose
D. An anthology of Jewish literature
Question 32. This line usually starts a/an _____.
✅
A. Supernatural tale
B. Legend
C. Folk tale
D. Creation myth ✅
A. Shintoism
B. Zen Buddhism
✅
Question 33. _____ greatly influenced the Japanese Noh Play
C. Hinduism
D. Buddhism
Question 34. Among the statements below, which is not an important
cultural influence in the development of Europe in the middle ages?
A. Greco-Roman civilizations
B. Christianity from Palestine
C. Germanic tribes from the north
D. Merchant trade from China ✅
Question 35. Pre-colonial literature is best described by _____ themes.
A. Sad and dramatic
B. Serious and imaginative
C. Playful and entertaining
D. Communal and functional ✅
Question 36. What lesson can be inferred in the passage below:
“All that we are is the result of what we have thought: It is founded on
our thoughts, it is made up of our thought. If a man speaks or acts with
an evil thought, pain follows him, as the wheel follows the foot of the
ox that draws the carriage.”
A. we must change for the better
B. we must think carefully
C. we must have the right thoughts
D. we must be hardworking like the ox
✅
Question 37. Among the following statements below, which is not an

accurate representation of ancient Greek religious beliefs?
A. The Greeks credited humanity with intervening in humanity
B. The Greek god Zeus was subject to the mysterious power of fate
C. The Greek gods were expressions of the world’s uncontrollable forces
✅
D. The Greeks blamed humanity for disorder in the universe
Question 38. Euripides produced the play “Medea” to _____.
A. Express his shock
B. Attack the deepest prejudices of the levels
C. Criticize Greek behavior
✅
D. Entertain the audience
A. Agamemnon
B. Ajax
✅
Question 39. The following are works of Sophocles except:
C. Antigone
D. Oedipus at Colonus
Question 40. This is considered the greatest contribution to the prose
of the 17th century.
A. the drama
B. the biology
✅
C. the essay
D. the novel
Question 41. _____ is the usual topic of lyric poetry

A. Women
B. Nature
C. Feelings or emotions
D. Religion
✅
Question 42. All are examples of Gnomic verses except:
A. Folktale
B. Legend
C. Fable
D. Riddle
✅
Question 43. Sappho is considered the _____.
A. The greatest woman poet of antiquity
B. model of women in Greece
✅
C. The leader of women in Lesbos
D. A very passionate poet
Question 44. Mistakes in pronunciation are immediately corrected in
the Audio-Lingual method because:
A. So that behaviors don’t become habits

B. To make learners conscious of their mistakes
C. So that learners will practice more
D. To develop accuracy and fluency ✅
Question 45. Which of the following statements below will help the
students, who are asked to listen to a set of instructions in English,
process the material?
A. Identifying the topic sentence
B. Identifying the keywords
C. Listening to every word
D. Repeating each sentence ✅
Question 46. Vowels are characterized by _____.
A. Freely flowing air through the nasal cavity
B. The little obstruction in the vocal tract
C. Friction that is present in the vocal tract
✅
D. Vibrations of the vocal cords
Question 47. This is the most appropriate “while listening” activity for a
text describing a family tree with three generations.
A. Completing a family tree
B. Copying a family tree
C. Writing down names
D. Writing the family history
✅
Question 48. Which statement below is a feature of Suggestopedia?
A. Learners share their feelings in a small group
B. Only listening activities are provided
C. Learners are in a relaxed and reclining position
D. Reading and writing are emphasized
✅
Question 49. If a teacher believes that a language is a system of a
structure composed of sounds, words, and sentences, then his syllabus
might focus on _____.
A. Communication tasks
B. Building blocks of language
C. Functions of language
D. Form and function of language
Question 50. Where is the primary stress in the word
✅
“characterization”?
A. Second
B. Fifth
C. Fourth
✅
D. First
Gen Ed English reviewer, part 2

Question 1. Which shows a minimal pair of /s/ and /z/?
A. Juice-peace
B. Lacy-lazy
C. Trace-craze
D. Seize-sees
Question 2. ______ is a grammar teaching approach where rules are
given after the learners have done an intensive pattern in various
contexts.
A. Inductive
B. Formal
C. Deductive
D. Functional
Question 3. This process of language learning is characterized by
repeated practice of sentence patterns until they become automatic.
A. Language performance
B. Hypothesis testing
C. Habit formation
D. Overgeneralization
Question 4. If a teacher follows the communicative approach, which
practices could be seen inside the classroom?
A. Teaching listening-speaking-reading-writing sequentially.
B. Focus on grammar rules.
C. Assesses the needs of the target listeners.
D. Emphasize oral proficiency.
Question 5. To emphasize the student’s need to identify why and for
whom he/she is writing, the teacher can use:
A. Process approach
B. Controlled writing approach
C. Free writing approach
D. Communicative writing approach
Question 6. Filipinos find it hard to learn tenses because:
A. Tense cannot be translated into Filipino.
B. English has many tenses.
C. It is not presenting the Philippine language.
D. The Filipino tense is different from English.
Question 7. It _____ unfair that she should stay on stage longer.
A. has to
B. tends to
C. needs
D. seems
Question 8. “She transformed a dragon into a pinworm” is an example

of _____.
A. Hyperbole
B. Metaphor
C. Metonymy
D. Alliteration
Question 9. This is the smallest unit of sound.
A. Allophone
B. Morpheme
C. Allomorph
D. Phoneme
Question 10. Krashen said that knowledge of grammatical rules in
language performance functions as _____.
A. monitor
B. output
C. affect
D. input
Question 11. If a teacher wants to make an intensive drill about the

basic sentence pattern, he/she should _____.
A. assign pair work
B. explain grammar rules
C. demonstrate the lesson
D. do pattern practice
Question 12. _____ will provide encouragement for a learner to team a
language.
A. Explanation of rules
B. Self-satisfaction
C. Learning environment
D. Language form
Question 13. A language learner tries out his/her rules of language with
a competent 2nd language speaker, he/she is _____.
A. Reviewing
B. Hypothesis testing
C. Generalizing
D. Practicing
Question 14. If a teacher adheres to the humanistic approach, the
materials would most likely be:
A. Providing background music while reading
B. Activities for sharing one’s values and viewpoint with others
C. Vocabulary words for writing

D. Completing entries in a grid
Question 15. If a teacher wants to teach about the range of meaning
between opposite words, he/she may use _____.
A. cline
B. context Clues
C. matching
D. pictures
Question 16. _____ is an example of information transfer.
A. Engaging in a small group
B. Listening and telling it to somebody
C. Competing grid based on a recorded talk
D. Doing a simulation
Question 17. If followed by _____ /t/, /p/, and/k/ are aspirated initial
sounds.
A. an unstressed syllable
B. s stressed syllable
C. two syllables
D. three syllables
Question 18. A behavior must be _____ if the teacher wants it to occur
again and eventually becomes a habit.
A. Corrected
B. Reinforced
C. Imitated
D. Modeled
Question 19. _____ will determine the difference in pronouncing “ice
cream” and “I scream”.
A. Juncture
B. Pitch
C. Intonation
D. Stress
Question 20. _____ will determine the difference between “English
teacher”- meaning a teacher who teaches English, and “English
teacher”- meaning a teacher from England.
A. Juncture
B. Pitch
C. Stress
D. Intonation
Question 21. Continue the chain: plays, cleans, approves, bothers, _____.
A. Prepares
B. Links
C. Collects
D. Realizes
Question 22. Wh – questions must have _____ intonation.
A. Level
B. Falling
C. Rising
D. Rising falling
Question 23. A teacher who adheres to the communicative approach
uses authentic materials because _____.
A. They are readily available
B. They are cheap
C. Learners are familiar with them
D. Communicative activities in real life can be built around them
Question 24. In the Philippines, English language teaching is aimed at:
A. Producing learners who can use English in the proper context.
B. Producing learners who have mastery of English pronunciation and
grammar.
C. Producing learners who can confidently speak English.
D. Producing learners who can communicate accurately, fluently, and
appropriately.
Question 25. Which is acceptable in English?
A. Gilbert cleaned the table up
B. Tess is eager to talk to
C. That she dances well surprises me
D. He desires that you go
Question 26. Choral reading is a type of reading.
A. Buddy
B. Reading aloud to students
C. Shared
D. Guided
Question 27. Which word in the lines below infers the moral?
A. Beauty
B. Praised
C. Favor
D. Feareth
Question 28. _____ states that children have the ability to relate new
information to prior knowledge.
A. Sociolinguistic
B. Constructivist
C. Reader response
D. Interactive
Question 29. _____ makes use of Children’s language and experiences.

A. Language experience approach
B. Directed reading thinking activity
C. Mastery learning
D. Individualized method
Question 30. Which theory emphasizes comprehension as students
read?
A. Constructivist
B. Interactive
C. Reader response
D. Sociolinguistic
Question 31. _____ states that children have the ability to organize and
integrate information in schemata.
A. Interactive
B. Reader response
C. Constructivist
D. Sociolinguistic
Question 32. _____ reading takes place when two students read the text
together.
A. Shared
B. Guided
C. Independent
D. Buddy
Question 33. _____ is a technique when the students crumple and throw
and read these pieces of paper.
A. Snowball Toss
B. Hot Seat
C. Quaker reading
D. Carousel
Question 34. What virtue is shown in the poem below?
It’s the little things we do or say
That makes or breaks the beauty of the
Average passing day.
Heart, like doors, will open with ease
To very, little keys,
And don’t forget that two of these
Are “I thank you” and “If you please”
A. Encouragement
B. Friendliness
C. Kindness
D. Confidentiality
Question 35. _____ reading takes place when the leaders read each line
and then the group repeats it.
A. Cumulative reading
B. Echo reading
C. Chorus reading
D. Small group reading
Question 36. This is an interdisciplinary unit that integrates reading and
writing with social studies, science, mathematics, and values education.
A. Learning log
B. Cluster
C. Theme study
D. Collaborative report
Question 37. _____ is the system students use in capitalization and
punctuation rules.
A. Semantic
B. Syntactic
C. Phonological
D. Pragmatic
Question 38. _____ is used to measure students’ reading comprehension.
A. Reading logs
B. Grand conversation
C. Anecdotal notes
D. Running record
Question 39. What paragraph development is most appropriate in the
main idea given below?
A. Cause-effect
B. Analysis
C. Process
D. Classification
Question 40. _____ views children as having the ability to relate new
information to prior knowledge.
A. Sociolinguist
B. Constructivist
C. Reader response
D. Interactive
Question 41. The press is considered the fourth estate because it _____.
A. checks all branches of government
B. is a powerful political force
C. is an adversary of the government

D. Acts as the fourth branch of government
Question 42. What can be implied from the statement below about
mass media?
“The most important effect of mass communication is its ability to
mentally order and organize the world for us.”
A. Mass media decides the type of program to air.
B. Mass media chooses advertisements for the program.
C. Selects the production number.
D. Determines what will be news and what won’t.
Question 43. _____ states that mass media should be state-owned to
best serve the government.
A. Social responsibility
B. Soviet
C. Libertarianism
D. Authoritarianism
Question 44. _____ is the 9th-century entertainment that is made up of
skits and musical acts that influenced modern-day TV.
A. Zarzuela
B. Comedia
C. Opera
D. Vaudeville
Question 45. _____ is also called the response in the communication
process.
A. Reaction
B. Gesture
C. Feedback
D. Signal
Question 46. _____ is the process by which media people control the
public’s access to news.
A. Correlating
B. Gatekeeping
C. Agenda-setting
D. Channeling
Question 47. What defense can a news reporter give when he is accused
of invasion of privacy?
A. Victim’s welfare
B. Victim’s consent
C. Honest reporting
D. Impartial reporting
Question 48. _____ is shown when the government prohibited the press
from interviewing President Estrada.
A. Media Law
B. Censorship
C. Prior Restraint
D. Gag order
Question 49. The article below is an example of:
“Residential customers of the Manila Electric Co. will see their bills go
down by 43 centavos per kilowatt-hour this month, due to reduction in
generation system low charges”
A. Editorial
B. Obituaries
C. Straight news
D. Feature article
Question 50. The phrase “human shield” in the given headline below
indicates that the phrase is:
“Army accuses rebels of using civilians as a human shield.”
A. extraordinary
B. important
C. not used correctly
D. newly coined
Answer key
1. B 11. D 21. A 31. C 41. A
2. D 12. B 22. D 32. D 42. D
3. B 13. B 23. D 33. A 43. A
4. C 14. B 24. D 34. C 44. A
5. D 15. B 25. B 35. B 45. C
6. D 16. B 26. D 36. D 46. B
7. D 17. C 27. D 37. B 47. D
8. A 18. B 28. B 38. C 48. D
9. D 19. D 29. A 39. A 49. C
10. A 20. C 30. C 40. B 50. D
10/2/23, 11:21 AM [50 Test Answers] Filipino Part 1: General Education (Gen Ed) LET Reviewer – Test Pinoy
Gen Ed Filipino reviewer

Question 1. Sa pamamagitan ng kautusang Tagapagpaganap Bilang 263
noong Hunyo 19, 1940. Ang wikang Pilipino ay pinasumulang ituro sa.
A. Sa lahat ng paaralang pampubliko sa buong bansa.
B. Lahat ng antas ng pag-aaral sa buong bansa.
C. Sa lahat ng paaralang bayan at pribadong paaralan sa buong bansa.
D. Lahat ng pamantasan at dalubhasaan sa buong bansa.
Question 2. Alin sa mga sumusunod na pahayag ang taliwas sa tuntunin
ng bilinggwalismo?
A. Nararapat din na ipatupad ang patakarang bilinggwalismo sa antas
tersyarya.
B. Ang edukasyong bilinggwalismo ay nangangahulugan na hiwalay ang
paggamit ng Filipino at Ingles bilang mga midyum na panturo sa mga tiyak
na asignatura.
C. Ang paggamit ng Ingles at Filipino bilang wikang panturo sa mga
kaukulang asignatura ay dapat magsimula sa unang taon.
D. Dapat na ituro ang Filipino at Ingles bilang asignatura sa lahat ng antas sa
mga paaralang elementarya at sekondarya.
Question 3. Ang batas na ito ay nilagdaan ni Pangulong Ferdinand E.
Marcos na nagtatadhana na dapat pangalan sa Pilipino ang mga gusali
at edipisyo ng pamahalaan.
A. Kautusang Tagapagpaganap Blg. 277
B. Kautusang Tagapagpaganap Blg. 96
C. Kautusang Tagapagpaganap Blg. 176
D. Kautusang Tagapagpaganap Blg. 308
Question 4. Siya ang pangulo ng Pilipinas na nag-utos na awitin ang
Pambansang awit ng Pilipinas sa wikang Filipino.
A. Manuel Roxas
B. Diosdado Macapagal
C. Manuel Quezon
D. Ferdinand Marcos
Question 5. Alin sa mga pahayag ang taliwas sa mga katangian n
wikang Filipino?
A. Ang Filipino ay Tagalog sa kalakhan na binigyan ng bagong pangalan sa
kadahilanang sosyopolitikal.
B. Modernisado ang bokabularyo ng Filipino na higit na pinagyaman ng
panghiram sa wikang lokal at dayuhan.
C. Ang wikang Filipino ay pinaghalu-halong wikang katutubo na ang
batayan ay Tagalog.
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D. Ang Filipino bilang wikang pambansa ay katawagang nakapagpapalubag-

loob sa mga rehiyonalistang di-Tagalog.
Question 6. Noong ika-13 ng Nobyembre, 1936, itinadhan ni
Pangulong Manuel L. Quezon ang pagtatag ng Surian ng Wikang
Pambansa (SWP). Ang hakbang na ito ay nakapaloob sa _____?
A. Batas Komonwelt Bilang 184
B. Batas Komonwelt Bilang 570
C. Seksyon 3, Artikulo XIII ng Konstitusyon ng Komonwelt Bilang 570.
D. Kautusang Tagapagpaganap Bilang 236
Question 7. Ito ang dahilan kung bakit tinawag na “Ama ng Balarilang
Tagalog” si Lope K. Santos.
A. Naglimbag at naglathala siya ng Balarilang Tagalog.
B. Hinirang siyang kagawad ng Surian ng Wikang Pambansa.
C. Nagsagawa siya ng pag-aaral tungkol sa gramatikang Pilipino.
D. Sumulat siya ng Balarila ng Wikang Pambansa na batay sa Tagalog.
Question 8. Pansamantalang nahinto ang pagtuturo sa lahat ng
paaralan sa buong bansa noong mga taong 1941 hanggang 1944 dahil
sa?
A. Tumutol ang ibang mga rehiyon na di-Tagalog
B. Pinatupad ang Patakarang Bilinggwal
C. Sinimulan ang pagtuturo sa Ingles
D. Ipinalit ang wikang Niponggo
Question 9. Ito ang bilang ng yunit ng asignaturang Filipino bilang
karagdagang yunit sa antas tersyaryo simula taong panuruan 1977-
1978.
A. 3
B. 9
C. 12
D. 6
Question 10. Siya ang Pangulo ng Pilipinas na lumagda sa batas na
nagtatadhana na inililipat ang pagdiriwang ng Linggo ng Pambansang
Wika mula sa Abril patungong Agosto.
A. Corazon Aquino
B. Ferdinand Marcos
C. Diosdado Macapagal
D. Ramon Magsaysay
Question 11. Siya ang Pangulo ng Pilipinas na lumagda sa

pagpapanibago ng pagdiriwang ng Linggo ng Wika sa Agosto bilang
Buwan ng Wika.
A. Fidel Ramos
B. Joseph Estrada
C. Benigno Simeon Aquino III
D. Corazon Aquino
Question 12. Noong 1959, ayon sa pag-aaral lumalabas na ang Filipino
ay Tagalog din sa?
A. nilalaman at istruktura
B. nilalaman at kultura
C. varayti at dayalekto
D. varayti at antas
Question 13. Noong 1959, nilinaw ng Kagawaran ng Edukasyon na
kailan ma’y tutukuyin ang Wikang Pambansa, Ito ay tatawaging _____.
A. Pilifino
B. Filipino
C. Filifino
D. Pilipino
Question 14. Samantalang nililinang, ang wikang pambansa ng
Pilipinas ay dapat payabungin at payamanin pa salig sa _____.
A. Mga pangunahing wikang dayuhan
B. Umiiral na wika ng Pilipinas at iba pang mga wika
C. Ingles ay Tagalog
D. Mga wikang katutubo sa mga lalawigan
Question 15. Ang patakarang sinimulang ipatupad sa mga paaralan
noong 1974 ay tinatawag na _____.
A. Edukasyong trilinggwal
B. Edukasyong bilinggwal
C. Edukasyong monolinggwal
D. Edukasyong multilinggwal
Question 16. Ang katutubong paraan Abakadang Pilipino ay binubuo
ng _____.
A. 5 patinig at 12 katinig
B. 18 titik
C. 3 patinig at 14 na katinig
D. 15 katinig at 2 patinig
Question 17. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang hindi kabilang sa pananaw ng
isang modernong lingguwista?
A. Ang katutubong kagandahan ng ating wika ay di-dapat lapastanganin.
B. Kailangan natin ang awtentiko ngunit dinamikong wika na magagamit sa
makabagong panahon.
C. Kailangan lumaya ang ating wika sa kung anu-anong walang katuturang
restriksyon.
D. Ang isang wikang pambansa ay kumakatawan sa lahat ng mga

katutubong wika sa iba’t ibang rehiyon.
Question 18. Ito ang kabuuang bilang ng ponema sa orihinal na
alpabeto.
A. 24
B. 21
C. 20
D.17
Question 19. Ito ang mga kadahilanan kung bakit ipinag-utos ang
pagpapatupad ng bagong Ortograpiyang Filipino. Alin sa mga
sumusunod ang hindi kabilang dito?
A. Lalo pang yayaman ang ating wika dahil sa impluwensya ng wikang
Ingles.
B. Ang purism sa larangan ng wika ay hadlang sa pagpapatupad nito.
C. Uunlad pang lalo ang ating wika sapagkat bukas ang pinto para sa
pagpasok ng iba pang wikain at dayuhang wika.
D. Maiiwasan ang rehiyonalismo sa hakbang na ito.
Question 20. Bago pa man dumating ang mga Kastila sa Pilipinas ay
mayroon na tayong katutubong paraan ng pagsulat na kung tawagin sa
Luzon ay Alibata: sa Mindanao ito ay tinatawag na _____.
A. Arabic
B. Creole
C. Sanskrito
D. Pidgin
Question 21. Ang ponemang /p/ /b/ at /m/ ay binibigkas ng paano?

A. panlabi
B. pangngipin
C. Panggilagid
D. velar
Question 22. Ang pag-aaral ng makabuluhang yunit ng isang salita.
A. Ponolohiya
B. Balarila
C. Morpolohiya
D. Sintaksi
Question 23. Ayon sa teoryang ito ang wika raw ng tao ay mula sa
panggaya sa mga tunog ng kalikasan.
A. Teoryang Ding-dong
B. Teriyang la-ta
C. Teoryang Yo-he-yo
D. Teoryang Bow-wow
Question 24. Ang kabuuang bilang ng titik ng makabagong alpabetong
Filipino.
A. 26
B. 28
C. 22
D. 20
Question 25. Ito ay nauukol sa kahulugan ng salita ayon sa
pagkakaugnayan nito sa iba pang salita.
A. Sintaktiko
B. Sistematiko
C. Semantiko
D. Iskematiko
Question 26. Ito ang tawag sa makabuluhang pagitan ng mga pag-
uusap at kung paano ginagamit ang mga pangungusap.
A. Diskurso
B. Wika
C. Balarila
D. Retorika
Question 27. Ano ang katawagang ibinibigay sa mga bahagi ng
pananalita na pang-ukol, pangatnig, at pang-angkop?
A. Pangnilalaman
B. Pang-asimilasyon
C. Pangkayarian
D. Pangdamdamin
Question 28. Siya ang pangulo ng Pilipinas na lumagda ng
Proklamasyong Blg. 1041 taong 1997 ng pagbabago ng Linggo ng
Wika tungo sa Buwan ng Wika?
A. Gloria Macapagal
B. Corazon Aquino
C. Ferdinand Marcos
D. Fidel Ramos
Question 29. Alin sa mga sumusunod ang tinatawag na nominal?
A. pangngalan at panghalip
B. pananda at pang-ukol
C. pantukoy at pangatnig
D. pang-abay at pang-uri
Question 30. “Si Titser Ana ang aking modelo.” Anong uri ng tayutay
ito?
A. pagwawangis
B. pagtutulad
C. paghahalintulad
D. pagmamalabis
Question 31. Ano ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito? “Pagtutulungan at

pagsama-sama ang dapat gawin ng mamamayan.”
A. karaniwan
B. tambalan
C. payak
D. hindi karamihan
Question 32. Anong pormasyon ng pantig ang ginagamit sa pantig na
TRANS mula sa salitang transportasyon?
A. KKPK
B. KPPK
C. KKPK
D. KPKK
Question 33. Ang alagang baboy ni Mang Baste ay nilitson ng nga
kabinataan para sa pista.
A. Instrumental
B. Actor
C. Gol
D. Direskyunal
Question 34. Nasaan na kaya ang diwa ng kabayanihan at kadakilaan
_____ ng mga bayani ng Himagsikan?
A. Ipinamalas
B. Ipinakita
C. Ibinuwis
D. Inilarawan
Question 35. Narinig niya ang tunog ng preno at _____ ng mga gulong
na nagpipilit na huminto ang malakas at nakabibinging pagbangga,
pagkatapos ay pagpapalahaw ng iyak.
A. kalabog
B. dagundong
C. sagitsit
D. tunog
Question 36. Namalasak ang anyo ng tulang ito noong panahon ng
Hapon at binubuo ng 17 pantig na nahahati sa tatlong taludtod; 5
pantig sa unag taludtod, 7 pantig sa ikalawa at 5 pantig sa ikatlo?
A. Tugamaan
B. Haiku
C. Pantum
D. Tanaga
Question 37. Ang mga awiting bayan ay palasak ng panahon ng
katutubo at sa lahat ng pagkakataon ay may awit ng mga katutubo.
Ang uyayi ay pag-awit sa pagpapatulog ng sanggol, alin naman ang
awit sa kasalan?
A. Tikam
B. Kumintang
C. Diona
D. Soliranin
Question 38. Mula sa talata sa Uhaw ang Tigang na Lupa. “huwag kang
palilinlang sa simbuyo ng iyong kalooban ang unang tibok ng puso ay
hindi pag-ibig. Halos kasing gulang mo ako ng pagtaliin ang puso
namin ng iyong ina. Huwag ikaw ang magbibigay sa iyong sarili ng
mga kalungkutang magpapahirap sa iyo habang buhay.” Sino ang nag-
uusap sa talata?
A. Mag-ama
B. Ina at anak
C. Mag-anak
D. Ama at anak
Question 39. Alin sa mga panlibangan na ito ang pagtatanghal na
patula batay sa alamat ng singsing na nahulog sa dagat at dapat sisirin
ng mga binata?
A. Tibag
B. Dupluhan
C. Karagatan
D. Karilyo
Question 40. Ayaw kong palupig sa hinalang ang mga dahilang tinubos
ng luha at dugo ay mga anino lamang ng mga dantaon ay tumawag at
walang nakarinig ay ang _____.
A. may kasiyahan
B. may paglupig
C. kabiguan
D. may pag-asa
Question 41. Sino ang may sagisag na Pingkian at Dimas-ilaw at may

akda ng kilalang sanaysay na Liwanag at Dilim?
A. Emilio Jacinto
B. Juan Luna
C. Marcelo H. del Pilar

D. Gregorio del Pilar
Question 42. Sino ang tinaguriang ama ng klasikang Tagalog ng
Panahon ng Kastila?
A. P. Aniceto dela Merced
B. P. Gaspar Aquino de Belen
C. P. Modesto de Castro
D. P. Mariano Pilapil
Question 43. Jose Rizal: El Filibustirismo; Graciano Lopez Jaena: _____
A. Noche Buena
B. Ninay
C. Cadaquilaan ng Dios
D. Fray Botod
Question 44. Ang isa sa mga katangian ng maikling kwentong pambata
ay _____.
A. nakakaaliw sa kanila
B. may kaunting tauhan
C. naiiba ang panahon
D. may iba’t ibang tagpuan
Question 45. “Nagpahinga ang makina sa pabrika” ang saknong ay
tumutukoy sa mga _____.
A. aluwage
B. panday
C. manggagawa
D. aktor
Question 46. Ang nangunguna sa mga nagugustuhang basahin ng mga
bata ay mga kwentong _____.
A. historikal
B. pabula
C. parabula
D. metolohiya
Question 47. Ano ang anyo ng panitikang gamitin ng mga
propagandista?
A. Dula at Tula
B. Nobela at tula
C. Tula at sanaysay
D. Maikling kwento
Question 48. Alin sa mga ito ang sagisag ni Florentino Collantes?
A. Kuntil-butil
B. Huseng Batute
C. Verdugo
D. Huseng Sisiw
Question 49. Alin sa mga panitikang ito ng katawagan sa Ibalon, Lagda,
Tuwaang, Bidasari at Alim?
A. Awiting Bayan
B. Epiko
C. Alamat
D. Kwentong Bayan
Question 50. May isang prinsesa sa tore nakatira. Balita sa kaharian,
panbihirang ganda. Bawal tumingala upang siya’y makita. Anong
gagawin ng binatang sinisinta?
I. Palaisipan
II. Salawikain
III. Bugtong
A. III lang
B. II at III
C. I lang
D. I at II
Answer key
1. C 11. A 21. A 31. C 41. A
2. A 12. A 22. C 32. A 42. C
3. B 13. D 23. D 33. C 43. D
4. B 14. B 24. B 34. A 44. A
5. C 15. B 25. C 35. C 45. C
6. A 16. A 26. A 36. B 46. B
7. D 17. A 27. C 37. C 47. B
8. D 18. C 28. D 38. D 48. A
9. D 19. A 29. D 39. C 49. B
10. D 20. C 30. A 40. D 50. C
Gen Ed Filipino reviewer

Question 1. Sino ang sumulat ng nobelang panlipunang ito sa
Kastila at may pamagat na Ninay?
A. Graciano Lopez-Jaena
B. Mariano Ponce
C. Pedro P. Paterno
D. Pascual Poblete
Question 2. Sa tuwi kong makikita ang bangkang papel ay
nagbabalik sa aking gunita ang isang batang lalaki. Isang batang
gumawa ng tatlong malalaking bankang papel na hindi nya
napapalutang kailanman.” Ano ang isinasagisag ng tatlong
bankang papel?
A. mga bilihin
B. mga pangarap
C. mga palaruan
D. mga dadalhin
Question 3. Alin sa mga akdang ito ang naghahangad na
mapalaganap ang nasyonalismong Pilipino na isinulat ni
Apolinario Mabini?
A. Kartilyang Katipunan
B. A Mi Madre
C. El Verdadero Decalogo
D. El Liberal
Question 4. Anong panahon nasulat ang may diwang makabansa,
disiplina at kamulatan sa pamamagitan ng panlipunang
kaunlarang panlahat?
A. Liberasyon
B. Aktibismo
C. Kasalukuyan
D. Bagong Lipunan
Question 5. Sino ang kinikilalang mananalumpating nagtatag ng
La Solidaridad at may- akda ng Fray Botod?
A. Graciano Lopez-Jaena
B. Jose Palma
C. Pedro Paterno
D. Mariano Ponce
Question 6. Mula sa kung “anong bukambibig siyang laman ng
dibdib” ay isang uri ng _____.
A. tula
B. bugtong
C. tugmaan
D. salawikain
Question 7. Alin ang genre ng panitikan ng nagbibigay ng kuro-
kuro, damdamin o opinyon sa mga bagay-bagay, tao o anumang
nais pag-ukulan ng pansin?
A. Kwento
B. Sanaysay
C. Tula
D. Dula
Question 8. Sino ang makatang bumuo ng mga tulang
matatagpuan sa Mga Gintong Dahon at Sa Dakong Silangan na
may taguring Batute sa panulaang Pilipino?
A. Jose Panganiban
B. Jose Garcia Villa
C. Jose dela Cruz
D. Jose Corazon de Jesus
Question 9. Sino ang kauna-unahang nagsalin sa Tagalog ng Mi
Ultimo Adios ni Jose Rizal?
A. Jose Gatmaitan
B. Apolinario Mabin
C. Andres Bonifacio
D. Jose Corazon de Jesus
Question 10. Ang mga paring misyunero ang may-akda at unang
nagsagawa ng mga pag-aaral sa wika na binubuo ng dalawang ito
ay ang _______.
A. pangungusap at talasalitaan
B. balarila at talasalitaan
C. bokabularyo at palapantigan
D. pangungusap at talatinginan
Question 11. “Aling pag-ibig pa ang hihigit kaya sa pagkadalisay at

pagkadakila gaya ng pag-ibig sa sariling lupa. Aling pag-ibig pa?
Wala na nga wala.” Ang saknong na ito ay buhat sa tulong _____.
A. Pag-ibig sa Tinubuang Lupa
B. Katapusang Hibik ng Pilipinas
C. Sa mga ka bataang Pilipino
D. Huling Paalam
Question 12. Ang tinaguriang ama ng nobelang Tagalog ay si _____.

A. Deogracias Rosario
B. Lope K. Santos
C. Severino Reyes
D. Valeriano H. Peña
Question 13. Ano ang pahayagang itinatag ni Marcelo H. del Pilar
upang ilathala ang pagbatikos sa maling pamamahala ng mga
Kastila?
A. El Resumen
B. La Solidaridad
C. El Porvenir
D. Diaryong Tagalog
Question 14. Sino ang gumamit ng sagisag na Tikbalang, Nanding
at Kalipulaki sa ating propagandista?
A. Andres Bonifacio
B. Emilio Jacinto
C. Antonio Luna
D. Mariano Ponce
Question 15. Ang aklat na isinulat ni Modesto de Castro na
patungkol sa kagandahang asal ay ang _____.
A. Doctrina Cristiana
B. Urbana at Feliza
C. Nuestra Señora del Rosario
D. Panubong
Question 16. Ano ang sagisag panulat ng ginamit ni Benigno
Ramos?
A. Dukha
B. Lotus
C. Fidel
D. Mithi
Question 17. Sino ang makata, nobelista, kwentista, mandudula at
mananalaysay sa panitikang Ilokano at kasama sa pangkat ng
makabago?
A. Alejandro Abadilla
B. Leon Pichay
C. Eriberto Gumban
D. Pedro Bukaneg
Question 18. Alin sa mga sumusunod sa unang aklat at itinuring na
pangalawang aklat na nalimbag sa Pilipinas?
A. Nuestra Señora de Paz
B. Nuestra Señora de Gui
C. Nuestra Señora de Pilar

D. Nuestra Señora del Rosario
Question 19. Ang wikang Tagalog tulad din sa Latin, sa Ingles,
Kastila’t sa salitang anghel sapagkat ang Poong maalam tumingin
ang siyang naggawad, nagbigay sa atin. Ang saknong na ito ay
nagpapahiwatig ng ____.
A. pagmamalaki sa wika
B. pagdaramdam sa wika
C. paghahangad
D. paghihinayang
Question 20. Alin ang itinanghal na Pambansang Alagad ng Sining
si Amado V. Hernandez dahil sa kanyang nobelang ito.
A. Panday
B. Luha ng Buwaya
C. Ibong Mandaragat
D. Bayang Malaya
Question 21. Higit na magagamit ang paraang Story Grammar sa

mga kwentong _____.
A. pangkauhan
B. pangkapaligiran
C. makabanghay
D. pangkaisipan
Question 22. Ibigay ang kahulugan ng “ILIBING SA LIMOT ang
malungkot na pangyayari sa buhay.” Alin ito?
A. alalahanin
B. iwasan
C. sariwain
D. kalimutan
Question 23. Ibigay ang pukos ng pangungusap na ito.
“Ikinaligaya ko ang pagdating mo.”
A. layon
B. lokatibo
C. sanhi
D. aktor
Question 24. Batay sa patnubay ng Wikang Pilipino, alin ang
nagpapakita ng wastong pagpapantig?
A. tuk-tole, eks-por-tas-yon
B. ma-a-ga; ka-pre
C. to-too; sob-re
D. kop-ya; eks-pe-ri-men-to
Question 25. Saan nakauri ang mga sumusunod sa salita katulad
ng website, cellphone, diskette at computer?
A. ligaw
B. hiram
C. likas
D. likha
Question 26. Sa mga pangungusap na Panahon na upang
MAGDILAT NA MATA at makisangkot sa mga usapin. Ano ang ibig
ipahiwatig ng nasa malaking titik?
A. umiwas sa usapin
B. idilat ang mga mata
C. kalimutan ang isyu
D. magising sa katotohanan
Question 27. Ano ang kagamitan mong dapat gamitin kung nais
mong matukoy ang layo ng iyong probinsya sa Bohol?
A. mapa
B. tsart
C. globo
D. grap
Question 28. Ang mga pagpapaliwanag ng mga tuntuning pang
gramatika sa tulong ng mga halimbawa ay pamaraang _____.
A. audio-lingual
B. cognitive code
C. tuwirang paraan
D. grammar translation
Question 29. Alin sa mga ito ang pagtuturo ng sabay ng mga
magkasamang gawain sa pakikinig, pagbasa at pagsulat?
A. tuwiran
B. komunikatibo
C. karanasang pangwika
D. grammar- salin
Question 30. Sa maraming uri ng tukuyang pagsusulit, alin ang
nakita ng mga palaaral na mabisang gamitin?
A. tama-mali
B. pasanaysay
C. pagpipilian
D. punan ang patlang
Question 31. Ano ang katangian ng pagsusulit na nagnanais

sukatin ang mga bagay na nais masukat?
A. baliditi
B.kahirapan
C. relayabiliti
D. praktikalidad
Question 32. Alin ang pinagkukunan ng guro ng mga kompetensi
na dapat matupad sa pagtuturo?
A. takdang aralin
B. lubusang pagkatuto
C. kompetensi sa pagkatuto
D. banghay aralin
Question 33. Ano ang katangian ng pagsusulit na ginagawa upang
maging matagumpay at hindi gaanong nakakapagod at matipid
gamitin?
A. baliditi
B. praktikalidad
C. back wash
D. relayabiliti
Question 34. Ang film, film strip, slide, television projection media,
tapes, records at radyo ay napapangkat sa tinatawag na
kagamitang ito. Alin dito?
A. audio-visual aid
B. manwal na gamit
C. audio-visual
D. visual aid
Question 35. Alin dito ang aklat na ginagamit ng guro na naka
ayos sa masistemang paraan ng mga paksang-aralin na binubuo
ng isang partikular na kaalaman para sa isang tiyak na aralin at
antas?
A. workbuk
B. teksbuk
C. manwal
D. magasin
Question 36. Upang masiguro na magkaroon ng mabuting aytem
sa pagsusulit naghahanda ng higit na kailangang bilang at _____.
A. aytem pool
B. bahagdan
C. talahanayan
D. layuning pangkagawian
Question 37. Alin dito ang pagsusulit na pasalaysay at pagsasalin

na kadalasan ay binubuo lamang ng kaunting bilang ng tanong?
A. objective test
B. receptive test
C. productive test
D. subjective test
Question 38. Alin dito ang isa sa dalawang uri ng pagsusulit na
ginagawa ng guro sa silid-aralan?
A. tukuyan
B. tama-mali
C. pagkilala
D. cloze test
Question 39. Aling aklat ang ginagamit ng guro na may teksto at
mga gawaing pagsasanay ng mag-aaral kaugnay sa aralin na
tinatalakay mula sa teksbuk?
A. batayang aklat
B. teksbuk
C. workbuk
D. karagdagan aklat
Question 40. Ang mga kagamitan sa pagtuturo katulad ng cut-
aways at mock-ups ay nakauri dito na kadalasan ay reprodaksyon
ng tunay na bagay. Alin dito?
A. tsart
B. larawan
C. flash card
D. model
Question 41. Sa kagamitang ito nakasama ang 2 dimensyonng

tulad ng globo, ito ay _____.
A. kagamitang panlabas
B. kagamitang biswal
C. kagamitang awdyo
D. kagamitang pansilid
Question 42. Anong uri ng kagamitan ang chalkboard, whiteboard,
still picture at bulletin board?
A. namamasid
B. naririnig
C. namamasid at naririnig
D. limbag
Question 43. Alin dito ang pagsusulit na pagpipilian na may higit

sa apat na pagpipilian ng sagot?
A. pagpili ng tamang letra ng sagot
B. pagsunod-sunuri
C. punan ang patlang
D. pagtapat-tapatin
Question 44. Ang mga sumusunod ay mga kabutihang natatamo
sa mga kagamitang pampagtuturo. Alin ang hindi?
A. nakakaganyak sa kawilihang mag-aaral
B. nakapagbabahagi ang mga mag-aaral ng karanasan
C.nakatutulong sa pagpapaliwanag ng mga konsepto
D. ang pagkatuto ay pansamantala
Question 45. Saan mo titingnan ang pahayag na “Binabati namin
ang milyun-milyong masisipag na mga magsasaka at mangingisda
na ang pang-araw-araw na gawain ay nag-aambag sa akmang
nutrisyon ng kabuuang bansang Pilipino?
A. lathalain
B. pamamahayag
C. editorial
D. balita
Question 46. Alin sa mga kagamitang ito ay itinuturing na mabisa
sapagkat ang mag-aaral ay diretsong nakikita ang problema ng
lipunan.
A. Community Environment
B. Community Aid
C. Community People
D. Community Resource
Question 47. Tila hawak ni Danding sa palad ang lihim na
tinatawag niya na pag-ibig. Naunawaan niya kung bakit ang
pagpapatapon ay isang mabigat na parusa at kung bakit ang mga
nawawalay na anak ay sasalungat sa bagyo makabalik lamang.
Aling damdamin ang isinasaad dito?
A. Pagbabalik sa sariling bayan
B. Pag-alis sa sariling baryo
C. Pagdating sa tinubuang lupa
D. Pagmamahal sa sariling lupa
Question 48. Sa taas ng mga bilihin ngayon kahit “kahig ka ng
kahig ay wala pa ring maipon. Ano ang ibig sabihin nito?
A. hanap ng hanap
B. gastos ng gastos
C. bawasan ang bili

D. walang mabili
Question 49. Saan matatagpuan ang:
Tuloy ang may baon
Ang wala’y sa silong.
A. alamat
B. duplo
C. mitolohiya
D. karagatan
Question 50. Ang kauna-unahang aklat na nalimbag sa Pilipinas ay
ang _____.
A. Doctrina Cristiana
B. Urbana at Feliza
C. Barlaan at Josaphat
D. Nuestra Señora del Rosario
Answer key
1. C 11. A 21. C 31. A 41. B
2. B 12. D 22. D 32. C 42. A
3. D 13. D 23. A 33. B 43. D
4. D 14. D 24. D 34. A 44. D
5. A 15. B 25. B 35. B 45. A
6. C 16. B 26. D 36. A 46. A
7. B 17. C 27. A 37. A 47. D
8. D 18. D 28. D 38. A 48. A
9. C 19. A 29. B 39. C 49. B
10. B 20. C 30. C 40. D 50. A
10/2/23, 11:22 AM [50 Test Answers] Science Part 1: General Education (Gen Ed) LET Reviewer – Test Pinoy
Gen Ed Science reviewer

Question 1. These are living things that use sunlight, chlorophyll, water,
and carbon dioxide to produce food.
A. Autotrophs
B. Consumers
C. Heterotrophs
D. Food chain
Question 2. It is described as a lifeline of the body. It is the body’s “pick
up” and delivery system.”
A. blood
B. nervous system
C. circulatory system
D. heart
Question 3. It carries the oxygen-rich blood to the head, arms, chest,
and down to the waist and legs.
A. heart
B. ventricles
C. aorta
D. arteries
Question 4. They are the transmitters of messages from the different
parts of the body to the brain and vice versa.
A. spinal cord
B. neurons or nerve cells
C. brain
D. arteries
Question 5. Which part of the brain controls the following activities:
breathing, blood pressure, heart rate, and alertness?
A. brainstem
B. hypothalamus
C. cerebrum
D. spinal cord
Question 6. Refers to a sequence of organisms in a community that
constitutes a feeding chain.
A. photosynthesis
B. ecosystem
C. consumers
D. food chain
7. Is a group of interacting plants, animals, and humans in a particular
area?
A. ecological community
B. environment
https://testpinoy.com/gened-science-1-let-reviewer/ 1/8
C. living organism
D. food chain
Question 8. Excessive presence of carbon dioxide in the air, trapping
heat near the earth’s surface causing a rise in temperature in the
environment.
A. El Niño
B. Greenhouse effect
C. Deforestation
D. Weather disturbance
9. The Earth’s shield against the sun’s harmful radiation.
A. Atmosphere
B. Air
C. Ozone layer
D. Forest
Question 10. The use of products containing ____ is discouraged
because they contribute to the depletion of _____.
A. Chlorofluorocarbon-solar radiation
B. Gas-ozone layer
C. Ozone layer-air
D. Chlorofluorocarbon-ozone layer
Question 11. What causes high and low tides?

A. Earth’s rotation on its axis
B. Moon’s gravitational pull
C. Sun’s solar energy
D. Earth’s gravitational pull
Question 12. How is coral a tool formed?
A. Volcanic eruption
B. Coral growing around a volcanic island
C. Underwater bedrock formations
D. Earthquake
Question 13. What is a longshore drift?
A. Movement of sand and shingles along the coast
B. Sand bars
C. Accumulation of sand at the river mouth
D. Island formed by volcanic eruptions
Question 14. How does an occlusion form?
A. Cold air moving up from the ground
B. Cold front pushing warm air up off the ground
C. Unbalance electrical reactions in the air
D. Cold and warm air mixing in the atmosphere
Question 15. What is heat haze?

A. A reflection caused by pollutants in the air
B. A distorted image resulting from the bending of sun’s light rays by
changes in air temperature
C. A movement of warm air over a vast expanse of land
D. Caused by extremely high temperature common in desert areas.
Question 16. What sort of rock formation do the world’s greatest
mountain ranges consist of?
A. magma
B. chalk deposit
C. fold eruptions
D. deforestation
Question 17. What is the force that wears down mountains?
A. Earthquake
B. Erosion
C. Volcanic eruptions
D. Deforestation
Question 18. How are volcanic islands formed?
A. Collision of two oceanic plates
B. Cooling of lava by seawater
C. Volcanic eruptions
D. Accumulations of corals
Question 19. When the Theory of plate Tectonic was generally
accepted?
A. 1900’s
B. 1930’s
C. 1950’s
D. 1960’s
Question 20. The weathering away of rocks by water, wind, and ice:
A. Denudation
B. Erosion
C. Volcanic rock
D. Metamorphic rock
Question 21. How do hormones work?

A. By releasing adrenaline
B. By controlling cell chemistry
C. By regulating water loss
D. By controlling blood pressure
Question 22. Name the male and female sex hormones.
A. Sperm cell and Ovum
B. Testosterone
C. Chromosomes
D. Red and white blood cells
Question 23. The unit of measurement of energy in a given amount of
food.
A. Pound
B. Kilo
C. Olfactory system
D. Calorie
Question 24. The growth of roots toward water is an example of?
A. Chemotropism
B. Geotropism
C. Hydrotropism
D. Phototropism
Question 25. DNA means:
A. Data nurturing analysis
B. Deoxyribonucleic acid
C. Deoxyribonucleic acid
D. Deotrixylnucleic acid
Question 26. The control center of the body is the?
A. Heart
B. Lungs
C. Brain
D. kidney
Question 27. Which part of the body is connected with the sense of
touch?
A. Nose
B. Skin
C. Ear
D. Eyes
Question 28. Which of the following is not a sense organ?
A. Eyes
B. Ears
C. Nose
D. Teeth
Question 29. A Barometer is used to measure _______.
A. wind direction
B. rainy water
C. temperature
D. atmospheric pressure
Question 30. Which of the following is the smallest bird in the world?
A. Hummingbird
B. Robin
C. Curlew
D. Greenfinch
Question 31. Which star is nearest to the sun?

A. Proxima centauri
B. Sirius
C. Alpha centauri
D. Spole star
Question 32. Which is the fastest animal on land?
A. Leopard
B. Cheetah
C. Deer
D. Kangaroo
Question 33. Who built the first telescope?
A. Galileo
B. Isaac Newton
C. Alexander Fleming
D. Benjamin Franklin
Question 34. Henry Ford invented the first _______.
A. Television
B. Telephone
C. Motor Car
D. Refrigerator
Question 35. Jaundice is an infectious disease, which spreads through
_____.
A. air
B. soil
C. water
D. clothes
Question 36. The telephone was invented by?
A. JL Baird
B. AG Bell
C. Thomas A. Edison
D. Marconi
Question 37. Wright brothers are inventors of the?
A. Balloon
B. Bicycle
C. Aeroplane
D. Television
Question 38. Which planet is closest to the sun?
A. Mars
B. Venus
C. Mercury
D. Jupiter
Question 39. The most poisonous plant is _____
A. pitcher
B. dodder
C. castor bean
D. mangrove
Question 40. Scientists who study the weather are known as?
A. Seismologists
B. Meteorologists
C. Astronomer
D. Anthropologist
Question 41. Which of the following birds cannot fly?

A. Emu
B. Rheas
C. Ostrich
D. All of these
Question 42. Who invented the sewing machine?
A. Elias Howe
B. Murray Spangler
C. Thomas Martin
D. Leslie Large
Question 43. Who invented the fountain pen?
A. Lewis Waterman
B. Lazlo Biro
C. C Clarke
D. Jhon Walker
Question 44. Parkinson’s disease is a brain disease that is characterized
by loss of nerve cells in which part of the brain?
A. Cerebrum
B. Cerebellum
C. Cerebral Cortex
D. Brain stem
Question 45. Symbiosis is defined by biologists as individuals of
different species living together in intimate association, regardless of
whether the association is harmful, neutral, or beneficial. All of the
following pairs are examples of symbiosis EXCEPT:
A. ants and tapeworms
B. human and tapeworms
C. cats and mice

D. dogs and cats
Question 46. Which of the following statement about atomic structure
is NOT right?
A. All atoms of the same atomic numbers are atoms of the same element.
B. An atom can gain or lose electrons without changing its charge.
C. Atoms are mostly empty spaces.
D. Most of the mass of the atom is concerned with its nucleus.
Question 47. Which of the following statement is TRUE of nuclear
fission?
A. The energy process is identical to that which occurs in the sun.
B. Energy is obtained by getting the nucleus of the atoms to break up or
split.
C. Matter from the lighter atoms is changed into energy.
D. Scientists can combine lighter atoms to form heavier atoms.
Question 48. All of the following statements about the routinary use of
pesticides are TRUE, EXCEPT:
A. Due to the widespread use of DDT, a new type of housefly emerged.
B. It results in the evolution of exciting new types of organisms.
C. It may not only kill the intended insects but also those that feed on them.
D. Pesticides tend to become progressively less effective as the organisms
become immune.
Question 49. The skull of a person increases in size rapidly during _____.
A. puberty
B. babyhood
C. adolescence
D. adulthood
Question 50. Apparently, the loss of weight of objects immersed in a
fluid is due to ______.
A. Archimedes principle
B. Specific gravity
C. Newton’s theory
D. Buoyant force
Answer key
1. A 11. B 21. B 31. A 41. D
2. C 12. B 22. A 32. b 42. A
3. D 13. A 23. D 33. A 43. A
4. B 14. B 24. C 34. C 44. C
5. A 15. A 25. C 35. C 45. D
6. D 16. C 26. C 36. B 46. B
7. A 17. B 27. B 37. C 47. B
8. B 18. A 28. D 38. C 48. B
9. C 19. D 29. D 39. C 49. C
10. D 20. B 30. A 40. B 50. D
Gen Ed Science reviewer

Question 1. Metabolism and combustion are chemically similar. They
both result in the oxidation of some compounds. If completely
oxidated, which of the following foodstuffs would yield the MOST
thermal energy?
A. A cup of ice cream
B. A cup of sugar
C. A cup of milk
D. A cup of flour
Question 2. In countries where medical skills and public understanding
of health and disease are widespread, which of the following changing
are evident?
I. Accidental deaths have decreased.
II. The communicable disease death rate has decreased.
III. Infant mortality rate has decreased.
IV. More people live a full life.
V. People who live long enough succumb to degenerative disease.
A. I, II, III
B. II, III, IV, V
C. I, II, III, IV, V
D. I, II, III, IV
Question 3. Which of the following parts of the circulatory system
carries digested fats away from the small intestines?
A. Pancreatic duct
B. Arterial capillaries
C. Pulmonary artery
D. Lacteals
Question 4. During processing and cooling which part of the food is
mostly destroyed?
A. Fats
B. Proteins
C. Vitamins
D. Carbohydrates
Question 5. When water evaporates, it changes into which of the
following states?
A. Solid
B. Matter
C. Gaseous
D. Liquid
Question 6. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about
comets?
https://testpinoy.com/gened-science-2/ 1/8
A. Comets are mostly frozen gases and cosmic dust.

B. Comets glow by their own lights
C. Comets generally have elongated elliptical orbits.
D. Comets may go around the sun in any direction.
Question 7. What is the first element in the periodic table?
A. Helium
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Carbon
Question 8. A change in the shape or size of an object can be classified
as _________.
A. mechanical change
B. physical change
C. nuclear change
D. chemical change
Question 9. In what state is most matter in the universe?
A. Gas
B. Liquid
C. Solid
D. Plasma
Question 10. Two glass tumblers that are stuck one inside the other
may be loosened by _______.
A. pouring cold water on the outside tumbler after filling the inside tumbler
with equally cold water.
B. pouring hot water on the outside tumbler after filling the inside tumbler
with equally hot water.
C. pouring cold water on the outside tumbler after filling the inside tumbler
with hot water.
D. pouring hot water on the outside tumbler after filling the inside tumbler
with cold water.
Question 11. A thermometer measures ____.
A. energy
B. heat
C. pressure
D. temperature
Question 12. What is the color of the hottest star in the Universe?
A. red
B. blue
C. yellow
D. orange
Question 13. Which of the following forms of energy travels in waves?
A. Chemical energy
B. Sound energy
C. Light energy
D. Electrical energy
Question 14. A British physician and bacteriologist, Sir Ronald Ross was
awarded the Nobel Prize in medicine for his research in the _____.
A. liquid fuel rocket
B. prevention of hepatitis
C. transmission of malaria
D. control of cholera
Question 15. When lighted, the energy of the alcohol in a lamp is?
A. lost while heating is done.
B. transformed from chemical to mechanical energy.
C. transformed from chemical energy to heat energy.
D. completely destroyed.
Question 16. Which process occurs solid is changed into gas?
A. Evaporation
B. Condensation
C. Sublimation
D. Decomposition
Question 17. The first Filipino who was declared a natural scientist and
who contributed much in discovering local plants that can be used as a
medicine is _____.
A. Dr. Pacifico Marcos
B. Dr. Henry Moseley
C. Dr. Eliseo Kintanar
D. Dr. Alfredo Santos
Question 18. Two items of similar shapes and weights are dropped
simultaneously in a building. Which of the following statement is
correct about falling objects?
A. The shape of the object has a minor effect on the falling rate.
B. The weight of the object has no effect on the falling rate.
C. The distance of the fall has an effect on the falling rate.
D. The resistance of the air has no effect on the falling rate.
Question 19. The thyroid can be destroyed through:
A. radioactive zinc
B. radioactive iodine
C. radioactive carbon
D. radioactive iodine
Question 20. A soda-acid type of fire extinguisher is recommended for
putting out fires that involve burning _______.
A. insulation on wires
B. vegetable oil
C. dry chemicals
D. panted chemicals
Question 21. An atom or a group of atoms that has an

excess/deficiency of electrons is called ______.
A. neutron
B. proton
C. ion
D. molecules
Question 22. Fossils are most likely to be found in?
A. Metamorphic rocks
B. Igneous rocks
C. Sedimentary rocks
D. Ocean floor
Question 23. If a doctor describes a patient as dehydrated, he means
that the patient ______.
A. has a contagious disease
B. needs insulin
C. needs oxygen
D. has lost a great deal of water
Question 24. Radium was discovered by:
A. Albert Einstein
B. Pierre and Marie Currie
C. Joseph John Thompson
D. Albert van Haller
Question 25. Acid becomes colorless when added with
A. Litmus indicator
B. Methyl Orange Indicator
C. Universal Indicator
D. Phenolphthalein Indicator
Question 26. Astronauts strap themselves to a wall or bunk when they
sleep. This is because during a change of shuttle velocity an unstrapped
sleeping astronaut would likely slump into the shuttle wall and be
injured. Do these astronauts have to be strapped down because?
A. They are unable to sleep while floating in free space.
B. Gravity is weak to have them remain in bed.
C. Their body functions have to be constantly monitored.
D. Their bodies have inertia.
Question 27. The history of the earth has been divided by scientists into
eras. Which of the following shows the arrangement of these eras into
a sequence from the oldest to the most recent?
A. Precambrian, Mesozoic, Cenozoic, Paleozoic.
B. Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Precambrian, Mesozoic.
C. Cenozoic, Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Precambrian.
D. Precambrian, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic.
Question 28. Which of the following is closest to normal body

temperature?
A. 32 degrees Fahrenheit
B. 50 degrees Celsius
C. 212 degrees Fahrenheit
D. 37 degrees Celsius
Question 29. Sulfuric acid is not used in
A. Making Fertilizers
B. Detergents
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Question 30. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
I. Water in a cup and water in a pot at 100 degrees Celsius have
molecules of the same degree of activity.
II. It takes more burning of fuel to produce a pot of boiling water than
to produce a cup full of water.
III. The unit used in measuring the quantity of heat is the calorie
IV. A pot full of water has a greater number of active molecules than
those a cup full of water.
A. II and IV only
B. All of these statements
C. None of these statements
D. I and III only
Question 31. Which of the following causes the seasons?
A. The rotation of the Earth around the Sun.
B. The rotation of the Sun around the Earth
C. The distance of the Earth around the Sun
D. The tilting of the Earth on its axis.
Question 32. Which of the following statements best explains why
copper is the metal most widely used in electrical wiring?
A. It is the best conductor of electricity
B. It is cheaper than aluminum.
C. It is a better conductor than aluminum and cheaper than silver.
D. It has high resistance to electricity.
Question 33. To achieve ecological balance, which of the following sets
of components should an aquarium contain?
A. Water, fish
B. Water, snail, fish
C. Water, plants, fish
D. Water, plants, snail, fish
Question 34. A solar eclipse occurs when ________.
A. The Moon is between the Earth and the Sun.
B. The Earth is between the Moon and the Sun
C. The Sun is between the Earth and the Moon.

D. The Earth is behind the Sun.
Question 35. What phase of the Moon is observed when it cannot be
seen at all because it passes directly between the Earth and the Sun?
A. New Moon
B. First Quarter
C. Last Quarter
D. Full Moon
Question 36. Tropical disturbances are classified as tropical depressions,
tropical storms, or typhoons. this classification is based on the ________.
A. Amount of rainfall
B. Strength of the accompanying winds
C. Amount of rainfall and strength of accompanying winds
D. Origin of formation
Question 37. The Philippines lies in the region where many volcanoes
are active. This region is known as:
A. Wheel of fire
B. Ring of fire
C. Volcanic Rim
D. Archipelagic Fault Line
Question 38. The following means help in controlling floods, EXCEPT:
A. Reforestation
B. Deforestation
C. Crop rotation
D. Construction of floodways
Question 39. Petroleum is formed by the _______.
A. decay of microorganisms under heat and pressure
B. heat from a radioactive substance found in the mantle
C. volcanic eruptions that burn living matters
D. steam trapped underneath a geologic column
Question 40. Farmers add commercial fertilizers to the soil to ______.
A. Speed up the decay of bacteria
B. Add mineral content
C. Activate the growth of earthworms
D. Enhance the growth of the roots
Question 41. All of the following are reasons why terraces are built in
Mountain Province, EXCEPT:
A. to accommodate excess run of water
B. To provide space for planting rice
C. to make the place beautiful
D. to provide steps for the natives to go uphill
Question 42. When a plant cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, the
plant cell will:
A. expand
B. rupture
C. shrink
D. have no effect on the plant cell.
Question 43. Which of the following organisms is included in the
Kingdom Plantae?
A. Magnolidae
B. Fungi
C. Protozoa
D. Prokaryotes
Question 44. Which part of the brain is responsible for intelligence,
memory, and learned behavior?
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Medulla
D. Thalamus
Question 45. What is most likely happen when a species cannot adapt
to the changes in the environment?
A. It will be transformed into another form
B. It will become extinct
C. It will be isolated
D. It will grow old
Question 46. A cold-blooded animal is one that _____.
A. lacks red corpuscles
B. lacks white corpuscles
C. has a variable body temperature
D. has a fixed body temperature
Question 47. Spiders can be distinguished from insects by the fact that
spiders have _______.
A. hard outer covering
B. four pairs of legs
C. large abdomens
D. biting mouthparts
Question 48. A lot of malnourished children in Africa are found to have
poor teeth and eyesight. This is believed to be caused by a deficiency in
______.
A. Vitamin A and D
B. Iodine
C. Vitamin C
D. Iron
Question 49. The two chemical factors that can cause decomposition
are:
A. death and cellular respiration
B. autolysis and photosynthesis

C. autolysis and putrefaction
D. putrefaction and respiration
Question 50. How will genetic drift affect the population of rabbits that
are living in a stable habitat with no changes in the environment?
A. It will increase the population of rabbits.
B. It will decrease the genetic variation of the rabbits.
C. It will develop the dominance and superior traits of the rabbits
D. It will enhance the appearance of new traits of the rabbits.
Answer key
1. A 11. D 21. C 31. D 41. C
2. D 12. B 22. C 32. C 42. C
3. D 13. B 23. D 33. D 43. A
4. C 14. C 24. B 34. A 44. B
5. C 15. C 25. D 35. A 45. B
6. D 16. C 26. B 36. B 46. C
7. B 17. D 27. D 37. B 47. B
8. B 18. C 28. D 38. B 48. A
9. D 19. D 29. D 39. A 49. C
10. D 20. A 30. B 40. B 50. C
10/2/23, 11:23 AM [50 Test Answers] Social Science Part 1: General Education (Gen Ed) LET Reviewer – Test Pinoy
Gen Ed Social Science reviewer

Question 1. After the accused, Rolando Cruz had consummated the
crime of rape upon a girl named Rosario Reyes, age 18, niece of his
deceased wife, he married the girl in a ceremony officiated by Minister
Roa. He was charged and convicted of rape. Based on the facts, why
was Rolando Cruz charged and convicted of rape after he married
Rosario?
A. The marriage was solemnized by Minister Roa who had no authority to
solemnize a marriage.
B. The offense of rape has been committed and the marriage was only a
cover-up.
C. There was no real consent.
D. There was no intention of entering into the actual marriage status.
Question 2. Which one is the human right to life?
A. Equal treatment before the law
B. Fair trial
C. Political independence
D. Freedom from inhuman punishment
3. Which of the following is MOST likely to be studied by a
macroeconomist?
A. What determines consumer demands
B. What causes high rates of unemployment
C. How a company make a profit
D. How firm price its products or services
Question 4. A conflict between property rights and freedom of speech
might arise in all situations, EXCEPT:
A. disgruntled employee passing out leaflets in front of a hairdresser’s salon
B. protesters carrying signs outside a cinema in an enclosed shopping mall
C. environmentalists carry signs at the entrance of an oil refinery
D. a religious order soliciting funds and converts in the swimming pool area
of a condominium
Question 5. The cooperative development Authority denied the
registration of the Farmers Cooperative Bank of the Philippines because
it has a minimum authorized share capital of _____.
A. P 300M
B. P 200M
C. P 400M
D. P 100M
Question 6. Which statement is guaranteed by the Civil Code of the
Philippines?
A. Both husband and wife are co-equal.
https://testpinoy.com/gened-social-science-1/ 1/9
B. Both are given the freedom to choose their occupations.

C. The husband has the right to object to the occupation of the wife.
D. The wife also has the right to object to the occupation of the husband.
Question 7. Which statements support the abolition of the death
penalty?
A. Conviction followed by execution is a deterrent.
B. Death penalty is an uncivilized, cruel, and unusual form of punishment,
depriving criminals of the ultimate right to life.
C. Recidivism in criminal cases is high.
D. Capital punishment fits the severity of the crime of murder.
Question 8. Who is taxed on the income derived from sources within
the Philippines?
A. a citizen of the Philippines
B. a non-resident citizen
C. a Filipino
D. a domestic corporation
Question 9. The government wants a piece of private land for a
government project. The owner resisted the government. How may the
government own the land?
A. right of eminent domain
B. right of government ownership
C. right of habeas corpus
D. right of a sovereign over the governed
Question 10. A radio station was padlocked after a midnight broadcast.
The operator accused the authorities of _____.
A. suppression of the right to express one’s views
B. suppression of the freedom of religion
C. suppression of the right to justice
D. suppression of the freedom of speech
Question 11. A man served his sentence of 8 years, although he was

sentenced to 20 years imprisonment.
A. a commutation of years
B. a pardon
C. total freedom
D. a parole
Question 12. A family built his house on an inner piece of land. He was
not allowed to go through a neighbor’s yard. He was accused of
trespassing on private property. The law allows such passage under the
_____.
A. right of travel
B. right of way
C. right of homeowners
D. right of eminent domain
Question 13. A child after birth has a right to a name. This is actually
_____.
A. right for just treatment
B. a right to survival
C. a right to suffrage
D. a right to his identity
Question 14. Mr. Sin was born as a Chinese national. He wants to run as
a congressman. He was naturalized at age 18. Can he run for a
congressional seat?
A. Yes, because he was a naturalized citizen.
B. Yes, because he is a citizen.
C. No, because a naturalized citizen can’t run for Congress..
D. No, because his parents are already a citizen.
Question 15. A child was born to a couple before the marriage vow. He
demands a share of his inheritance. How will he be classified?
A. natural born
B. adopted child
C. illegitimate child
D. legitimate child
Question 16. There are military confrontations in some parts of the
Philippines. How does the government address the situation?
A. declare ceased fire
B. declare amnesty for all
C. negotiate with the representatives of both panels
Question 17. In order to avoid conflict with China what does the
Philippines invoke in terms of Spratly Island?
A. Laws on territorial boundaries
B. Laws on sea limits
C. Territorial Supremacy
D. Laws on immigration
Question 18. Why are barangay chairmen assigned to settle barangay
cases?
A. They know all the residents
B. They are competent judges
C. They have training
D. They have biases
Question 19. An individual has the right to file the WRIT OF AMPARO
before the investigation of an administrative case is filed against
him/her. What fundamental right is invoked by the individual?
A. Right to be defended by a public attorney
B. Right to life, liberty, and security

C. Right to self-defense
D. Right to due process
Question 20. The logo of the Olympic Games represents the
interconnectedness of the countries in the world. While the game
highlights the strength of the nation in sports. What does this global
activity promote?
A. World tourism
B. World peace
C. World industry
D. World history
Question 21. All of the following constitute the meaning of political

science except:
A. A basic knowledge and understanding of the state
B. It is primarily concerned with the association of human beings in a
political community
C. Common knowledge of every event taking place in the society
D. It deals with the relationship between men and groups which are subject
to the control of state.
Question 22. It refers to the community of persons more or less
numerous, permanently occupying a definite portion of territory,
having a government of their own to which the great body of
inhabitants render obedience, and enjoying freedom from external
control.
A. Sovereignty
B. Nation
C. Citizenship
D. State
Question 23. It refers to the agency through which the will of the state
is formulated, expressed, and carried out.
A. Government
B. Sovereignty
C. Constitution
D. State
Question 24. What are the four elements of the state?
A. people. territory, sovereignty, government
B. people, constitution, territory, government
C. government, law, peace, territory
D. constitution, people, land, independence
Question 25. What theory asserts that the early states must have been
formed by a deliberate and voluntary compact among the people to
form a society and organize a government for their common good?
A. Necessity Theory
B. Divine Right Theory
C. Social Contact Theory
D. Social Compact Theory
Question 26. Government exists and should continue to exist for the
benefit of the people.
A. The statement is a general truth.
B. The statement is just an assumption.
C. The statement is a fallacy.
D. There is no basis for judgment.
Question 27. What are the forms of government in which political
power is exercised by a few privileged classes?
A. Oligarchy and Aristocracy
B. Aristocracy and Monarchy
C. Theocracy and Fascism
D. Democracy and Tyranny
Question 28. The pre-colonial Philippines has no established
government. Its villages and settlements were called barangays.
A. Only the first statement is true and correct
B. Only the second statement is true and correct
C. Both statements are true and correct
D. Both statements are untrue and incorrect
Question 29. There were four social classes of people in the precolonial
barangays. They were the nobles, freemen, serfs, and slaves.
A. Only the first statement is true and correct.
B. Only the second statement is true and correct.
C. Both statements are true and correct.
D. Both statements are untrue and incorrect.
Question 30. What are the two known written codes during the pre-
Spanish era in the Philippines?
A. Maragtas and Kalantiaw Codes
B. Sumakwil and Sulayman Codes
C. Panay and Subanon Codes
D. Hammarubi and Ur Nammu Codes
Question 31. Under the Spanish colonial government, who directly

governed the Philippines?
A. The Governor-General
B. The Viceroy of Mexico

C. The Royal Audiencia
D. The King of Spain
Question 32. What is the first city to be established in 1565 in the
Philippines?
A. Manila
B. Davao
C. Cebu
D. Ilo-ilo
Question 33. The government that Spain established in the Philippines
was defective. It was a government for the Spaniards and not for the
Filipinos.
A. Only the first statement is true and correct.
B. Only the second statement is true and correct.
C. Both statements are true and correct.
D. Both statements are untrue and incorrect.
Question 34. What was the secret society founded in 1896 that
precipitated the glorious revolution against the Spaniards?
A. The Katipunan
B. The Kalahi
C. The Biak na Bato Republic
D. The Ilustrado
Question 35. Arranged the sequence of governments during the
revolutionary era:
1. The Dictatorial Government
2. The Revolutionary Government
3. The Biak-na-Bato Republic
4. The First Philippine Republic
A. 2 3 1 4
B. 3 1 2 4
C. 4 1 3 2
D. 1 2 3 4
Question 36. Arranged according to its establishment during the
American Regime:
1. The Commonwealth Government
2. The Military Government
3. The Civil Government
A. 1 2 3
B. 2 3 1
C. 3 2 1
D. 2 1 3
Question 37. What was the civil government established during the
Japanese occupation of the Philippines?
A. The Japanese Imperial Government

B. The Philippine Republic
C. The Puppet Government of Japan
D. The Philippine Executive Commission
Question 38. The Constitution was used by the Philippine government
from the Commonwealth period until 1973.
A. The Malolos Constitution
B. The Biak-na- Bato Constitution
C. The 1935 Constitution
D. The 1901 Constitution
Question 39. What kind of government was installed under the 1973
Constitution under the Marcos regime?
A. Modified Presidential system
B. Modified Parliamentary system
C. Military system
D. Bicameral system
Question 40. A de facto government requires a de jure status when it
gains wide acceptance from the people and recognition from the
community of nations.
A. The statement is true and valid.
B. The statement is an assumption.
C. The statement is a fallacy
D. The statement is doubtful
Question 41. It is defined as a written instrument by which the

fundamental powers of the government are established, limited, and
defined and by which powers are distributed among the several
departments or branches for their useful exercise for the benefit of the
people.
A. Laws
B. Statutes
C. Constitution
D. Ordinances
Question 42. There is no Constitution that is entirely written or
unwritten.
A. The statement is true and correct.
B. The statement is incorrect.
C. The statement is partially correct.
D. There is no basis to conclude.
Question 43. Requisites of a well-written constitution.
A. Brief
B. Broad
C. Definite
D. All of the given options
Question 44. Who has the authority to interpret the Constitution?
A. Private individual
B. Courts
C. Legislative and Executive departments of the government
D. All of the given options
Question 45. “We the sovereign Filipino people, imploring the aid of
Almighty God, in order to build a just and humane society and establish
a government that shall embody our ideals and aspirations, promote
our common goods, conserves and develops our patrimony, and secure
to ourselves and our posterity the blessings of independence and
democracy under the rule of law and regime of truth, justice, freedom,
equality, and peace, do ordain and promulgate this Constitution”.
What part of Constitution is this?
A. General Provision
B. Amendments
C. Preamble
D. National Patrimony
Question 46. Which statement is TRUE of the pre-Spanish Filipino
government?
A. The datu exercised all power of government.
B. Laws were formulated by a law-making body elected by the datu.
C. Laws were formulated by a law-making body elected by the community.
D. There was a court created by the datu to hear complaints.
Question 47. What characteristic/s of government is established by the
1987 Constitution
I. Presidential system of government with three branches.
II. Parliamentary system of government.
III. The three branches of government are separate and independent of
one another.
IV. The three branches of government have a check and balance over
one another.
A. I only
B. II only
C. II, III, and IV
D. I, III, and IV
Question 48. If our present government is a democracy, where does
power reside?
A. In the Filipino People
B. In Congress
C. In the President
D. In the Supreme Court
Question 49. In President Quezon’s time, the country had the Philippine
Commonwealth. What is TRUE about the Philippine Commonwealth?
The Filipino people ______.
A. were fully independent
B. were partially independent
C. were granted total freedom to course their destiny only in matters of
education
D. were citizens of the United States
Question 50. In the decade of the 70s, one clamor of the activists who
staged street demonstrations on the streets was “Down with
the oligarchs!” What did they accuse the government of as suggested
by the underlined word?
A. A rule of the few rich
B. A form of dictatorship
C. Anti-poor
D. Elitist
Answer key
1. B 11. A 21. C 31. D 41. B
2. D 12. B 22. D 32. C 42. D
3. B 13. D 23. A 33. C 43. D
4. D 14. C 24. A 34. A 44. C
5. D 15. C 25. C 35. B 45. C
6. A 16. C 26. A 36. B 46. A
7. B 17. A 27. A 37. D 47. D
8. A 18. A 28. C 38. C 48. A
9. A 19. B 29. C 39. A 49. B
10. D 20. B 30. A 40. C 50. A
Gen Ed Social Science reviewer, part 2

Question 1. With the Batasang Pambansa performing legislative
and executive powers in the Marcos regime, which form of
government was implemented?
A. Parliamentary
B. Dictatorial
C. Monarchical
D. Presidential
Question 2. What form of government is characterized by the
separation of powers?
A. Parliamentary
B. Presidential
C. Aristocracy
D. Monarchical
Question 3. To which type of political system do we belong?
A. Colonialism
B. Totalitarianism
C. Democracy
D. Capitalism
Question 4. Which of the following represents the smallest sub-
unit of government in the Philippines at present?
A. Purok
B. Barangay
C. Sitio
D. Zone
Question 5. In which form of government does power or authority
reside in a few persons who govern for their interest?
A. Oligarchy
B. Monarchy
C. Democracy
D. Parliamentary
Question 6. The Philippine government is divided into three
branches: executive, legislative, and judiciary. Which among the
following doctrines best describes the model of governance in the
Philippines?
A. Tricameralism
B. Separation of powers
C. Emancipation of state
D. Division of labor
https://testpinoy.com/gened-reviewer-social-science-2/ 1/10
Question 7. The Philippine legislature is divided into two major

bodies, the Senate and the House of Representatives. Which
among the following best describes the division of the legislative
body of the country?
A. Bipartisanism
B. Co-Legislative power
C. Unicameralism
D. Bicameralism
Question 8. Which type of governance is characterized by a union
of partially self-governing states or regions united by a central
government?
A. Federalism
B. Socialism
C. Democracy
D. Totalitarianism
Question 9. In England, Queen Elizabeth acts as head of the state.
This country also has a parliament and a Prime Minister. Which
among the following best describes the form of government in
this country?
A. Absolute Monarchy
B. Constitutional Monarchy
C. Oligarchy
D. Aristocracy
Question 10. Which form of government where all citizens are
treated equally on certain dimensions such as religion, politics,
economics, social status, and culture?
A. Totalitarianism
B. Democracy
C. Socialism
D. Egalitarianism
Question 11. What human right is violated when one opens a letter
without permission from the addressee?
A. Right to the privacy of communication and correspondence
B. Right to read the letter
C. Right to open the envelope without permission
D. Right to private affairs
Question 12. When an individual is imprisoned without proper
investigation what right is violated?
A. Right to due process of law
B. Right to secure persons
C. Right to process paper

D. Right to protection
Question 13. What law was passed by the Philippine Congress in
1995 which affirms the total integration of persons with
disabilities into the mainstream of society?
A. Republic Act No. 7277
B. Republic Act No. 7784
C. Republic Act No. 7722
D. Republic Act No. 7776
Question 14. Which is the best definition of inclusive education
endorsed by DepEd?
A. It is a flexible and individualized support system for children
and youth with special education needs.
B. It is a mandate to include all children and youth in community
activities.
C. It is a system to support children and youth in exclusive schools.
D. It is special support for children and youth who cannot attend
school.
Question 15. Inclusion is a basic right of every Filipino child with
special needs to education, rehabilitation, support services, work
training and employment opportunities, community participation
and independent living. To prepare teachers to handle inclusive
education what specialization is offered in teacher education
institutions?
A. Special Education
B. Special Course
C. Kindergarten Courses
D. Pre School Education
Question 16. Article XIV Section of the 1987 Philippine
Constitution mandates that the “State shall protect and promote
the right of all citizens to quality education at all levels and shall
take appropriate steps to make such education accessible to all”.
Which of the goals of EFA 2015 aims to achieve the above-
mentioned constitutional mandate?
A. Universal completion of the full cycle of basic education schooling
with satisfactory achievement levels by all at every grade or year.
B. Universal completion of primary education with satisfactory
achievement levels at every grade level.
C. Universal completion of secondary education with satisfactory
achievement levels at every year level.
D. Universal elimination of dropouts and repetition by all at every
grade or year including satisfactory achievement levels.
Question 17. What is the best indicator of “quality education” as

invoked in the Constitution?
A. Generation of reliable measurements on the dropout rate.
B. Generation of reliable measurements on cohort Survival rate
C. Generation of reliable measurements of education outcomes
D. Generation of reliable measurements on the participation rate
Question 18. What is the writ of habeas data?
A. Right to information privacy
B. Right to accumulate data
C. Right to transmit data
D. Right to search for private information
Question 19. The Code of Ethics of Professional Teachers provides
that a “Teacher has the right and duty to determine the academic
marks and the promotion of learners”. What is the obligation of
the teacher in relation to the aforementioned right as mandated in
the Education Act of 1982?
A. Refrain from making deductions in students’ scholastic ratings for
acts not of poor scholarship.
B. Refrain from discriminating against high and low achievers in the
classes he/she handles.
C. Refrain from inflicting corporal punishment and make it a basis for
deductions in scholastic ratings.
D. Refrain from segregating the fast and slow learners for convenience
in rating them.
Question 20. When a teacher is charged with an administrative

case committed in the lawful discharge of professional duties,
what right may a teacher invoke for her defense?
A. Right to receive compensation for the duration of the case
B. Right to be given the due process of law
C. Right to be defended by the organization of teachers to which
he/she is a member
D. Right to be provided with free legal services by the appropriate
office
Question 21. What is the teacher’s accountability in the
achievement of quality education?
A. Be accountable for the grading performance of learners
B. Be accountable for the effective attainment of specified learning
objectives and outcomes
C. Be accountable for reporting the performance of learners to parents
D. Be accountable for reporting the performance to the school head

and stakeholders.
Question 22. Which is the overriding aim of the constitutional
mandate on social justice?
A. To bridge the gap between rich and poor
B. To protect the squatter in the possession of the premises occupied
by him because he is poor
C. To authorize the taking of what is in excess of one’s personal needs
and then giving it to another
D. To work for social equality
Question 23. Which principle states that no man in this country is
above the law and that law must be obeyed by all and applied to
everyone -rich or poor, lowly or powerful-without fear or favor?
A. Rule of law
B. Rule of the majority
C. Separation of Church and State
D. Social justice
Question 24. In connection with government transactions
involving public interest, which policy is adopted in the
Constitution to assure the public of accountability and
transparency?
A. Full public disclosure
B. Balanced and healthful ecology
C. Private enterprise and incentives for needed investments
D. Rural development and agrarian reform
Question 25. Filipino citizens have the power to participate in the
establishment or administration of government such as the right
to vote and be voted upon as an exercise of ________.
A. Political rights
B. Civil rights
C. Social rights
D. Economic rights
Question 26. Can the accused waive his right to remain silent and
to have competent and independent counsel?
A. No, except in writing and in the presence of counsel
B. Yes, if there is no counsel offering his services
C. No, it cannot be waived
D. Yes, if he voluntarily does so.
Question 27. Which is right violated by wiretapping?
A. Freedom of expression
B. The right of private property
C. The right of privacy in communication
D. The right to information on matters of public concerns
Question 28. Which act is deprivation of life without due process?

A. Killing in self-defense
B. Salvaging
C. Imposition of the death penalty
D. Death resulting from illness
Question 29. Is the grabbing of lands an act of deprivation of
property without due process?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Yes, if the land grabber is rich
D. No, if the land grabber is landless
Question 30. Can you be arrested without a warrant of arrest?
A. No, if you are a minor
B. No, if you are more than 60 years old
C. Yes, if you were reported to have committed a crime
D. Yes, if you are in the act of committing a crime
Question 31. Can religious instruction be taught in public schools?

I. Yes, if given free
II. Yes, if given outside class hours
III. Yes, only to those children whose parents give their consent in
writing.
A. I and III
B. II and III
C. I, II and III
D. III only
Question 32. Can the accused avail of free legal assistance?
A. No, there is no such thing as free lunch.
B. Yes, provided he is classified as a poor litigant by the court.
C. Yes, the act committed is a minor offense.
D. No, if the offense is grave.
Question 33. My right is another man’s duty. Which one
CORRECTLY illustrates this?
A. My right to my private property requires my neighbor’s duty not to
trespass the same.
B. I have freedom of speech but I see to it that I speak only what is true.
C. Suffrage is both a right and a duty.
D. I exercise my right in such a way that it does not violate another
person’s right.
Question 34. Every right has a built-in duty. Which of the following
illustrates this CORRECTLY?
A. I have the right to vote, and it is the duty of the COMELEC to allow
me to vote.
B. My right to privacy requires my neighbor to respect it.
C. I have the right to sell you my cellphone but it is your duty to pay for
it.
D. I have the right to drive my car but I must see it to that I obey traffic
rules.
Question 35. Can a person be imprisoned for debt?
A. No, if he can’t pay the interest on his debt.
B. Yes, if he has no property with which to pay his debt.
C. No
D. Yes, if he stubbornly refuses to pay.
Question 36. What does “presumption of innocence” mean in so
far as human rights is concerned?
A. A suspect is considered guilty until proven otherwise
B. A suspect has the right to remain silent
C. A suspect has the right to legal counsel.
D. A suspect remains innocent until proven guilty
Question 37. No person may be elected as President of the
Philippines unless he/she is a ______.
A. Natural-born citizen
B. Resident of the Philippines for at least 2 years
C. At least 21 years old.
D. Professional
Question 38. Who does the canvassing of votes for President and
Vice President in every election?
A. Comelec and Chief Justice
B. Senate and Congress
C. Supreme Court and Congress
D. Joint Committee of Congress
Question 39. All appropriations, revenue, or tariff bills shall
originate exclusively from the ______.
A. Senate
B. Sangguniang Panlalawigan
C. House of Representatives
D. Department of Budget
Question 40. Which department has the authority to make laws
and to alter them when needed?
A. Executive
B. Legislative
C. Judicial
D. Administrative
Question 41. A bill becomes a law even if not signed by the

President after ____ days.
A. 60
B. 40
C. 20
D. 30
Question 42. Who has the power to declare the existence of a state
of war?
A. Chief Justice
B. President
C. Senate President
D. Congress
Question 43. A losing senatorial candidate may file a protest
against the winner. What body will assume jurisdiction over the
case?
A. Supreme Court
B. Electoral Tribunal
C. COMELEC
D. Regional Trial Court
Question 44. How is the crime of rape classified?
A. Heinous
B. Homicide
C. Slander
D. Malicious Mischief
Question 45. All Filipino citizens have the right to vote and to be
voted upon as a government official. What is this constitutional
right called?
A. Passive right to vote
B. Political Franchise
C. Suffrage
D. Electoral right
Question 46. Any individual has the right to question why he is
being arrested and to summon his accusers to court so that due
process may be performed. This right is embodied in which of the
following?
A. Reclusion Perpetua
B. Res ipsa loquitur
C. Prison mayor
D. Habeas corpus
Question 47. Which of the following represents the political

process involved in amending or revising the Philippine
Constitution to adapt to the present Philippine situation?
A. Constitutional Convention
B. Citizen’s assembly
C. Charter change
D. Constitutional correction
Question 48. Which is TRUE of the historical development of the
Philippines?
A. It has never been an independent nation.
B. It has been an independent nation ever since.
C. It has evolved from a colony to a fully independent nation.
D. It has not achieved full independence from the very beginning.
Question 49. Which problem is common during the presidency of
Marcos, Aquino, Ramon, Estrada, Macapagal-Arroyo, and Benigno
Aquino III?
A. Social injustice
B. Peace and security
C. Poor governance
D. Moral degeneration
Question 50. Basically, the Philippine agrarian problem is a
question of _____.
A. Land distribution
B. Nepotism and corruption
C. Graft and corruption
D. Environmental degradation
Answer key
1. A 11. A 21. B 31. A 41. B
2. B 12. A 22. A 32. B 42. D
3. C 13. A 23. A 33. A 43. B
4. B 14. A 24. A 34. D 44. A
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. C 45. C
6. B 16. A 26. A 36. D 46. D
7. D 17. C 27. C 37. A 47. C

8. A 18. A 28. B 38. D 48. C
9. B 19. A 29. A 39. C 49. B
10. D 20. D 30. D 40. B 50. A
10/2/23, 11:14 AM [Math Part 1] General Education (Gen Ed) LET Reviewer – Test Pinoy
Gen Ed Math sample questions

Question 1. Which of the following numbers belongs to a whole
number?
A. -2/3
B. -20
C. 8
D. 2.12
Question 2. Which of the following is an integer?
A. 0.9
B. 0
C. 3/4
D. –4.6
Question 3. Which of the following statements is not true about real
numbers?
A. Every integer is a real number.
B. All rational numbers are real numbers.
C. Integer plus integer is a real number.
D. A real number is always positive.
Question 4. Which of the following statements is true about real
numbers?
A. All fractions are equal to integers.
B. Some fractions are equal to integers.
C. All irrational numbers are rational numbers.
D. Every real number is a rational number.
Question 5. Which of the given mathematical statements below is not
true?
A. 9/0 = 0 9 / 0 = 0
B. 9(0) = 0 9(0) = 0
C. 9 + (– 9) = 0 9 + ( – 9) = 0
D. 0/9 = 0 0 / 9 = 0
Question 6. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. All odd numbers are prime numbers.
B. All even numbers are composite numbers.
C. Not all even numbers are multiples of two.
D. Not all odd numbers are prime numbers.
Question 7. Which of the following numbers below is a prime number?
A. 3
B. 6
https://testpinoy.com/gened-math-1/ 1/7
C. 9
D. 12
Question 8. Which of the following numbers below is a composite odd
number?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Question 9. What is the largest prime number less than 100?
A. 96
B. 97
C. 98
D. 99
Question 10. Which of the factors below is the prime factor of 45?
A. 9 ⋅ 59 ⋅ 5
B. 3 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 53 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5
C. 3 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 23 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 2
D. 3 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 23 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 2
Question 11. Which of the following factors is the prime factor of 60?
A. 6 ⋅ 106 ⋅ 10
B. 3 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 103 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 10
C. 5 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 25 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 2
D. 6 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 26 ⋅ 5 ⋅ 2
Question 12. What is the greatest common factor (GCF) of the numbers
27 and 45?
A. 135
B. 9
C. 27
D. 45
Question 13. What is the greatest common divisor (GCD) of the
numbers 60 and 70?
A. 10
B. 40
C. 4200
D. 130
Question 14. Find the least common multiple (LCM) of the numbers 27
and 45.
A. 135
B. 9
C. 27
D. 45
Question 15. Find the least common denominator (LCD) of the numbers
60 and 70.
A. 10
B. 420
C. 4200
D. 130
Question 16. Which of the following mathematical expressions is true?
A. −10 > 8 −10 > 8
B. 0 > −0.1 0 > − 0.1
C. −16 < −17 −16 < − 17
D. 6 < 5 6 < 5
Question 17. Which of the following is an improper fraction?
A. 1/2
B. 3/4
C. 10/10
D. 3 3/4
Question 18. Which of the following equations below is true?
A. 61/2 = 7/2 61 / 2 = 7 / 2
B. 31/2 = 7/2 31 / 2 = 7 / 2
C. 2/1 + 5/1 = 7/2 2 / 1 + 5 / 1 = 7 / 2
D. 2/7 = 7/2 2 / 7 = 7 / 2
Question 19. 1/8 + 2/3– 2/5 1 / 8 + 2 / 3 – 2 / 5 is equal to:
A. 1/5
B. 47/120
C. 1/6
D. 4/5
Question 20. (3/5– 2/3) + (1/4 + 2/4) (3 / 5 – 2 / 3) + (1 / 4 + 2 / 4) is
equal to:
A. 41/60
B. 11/20
C. 4/12
D. 1/2
Question 21. (2/5 ∗ 3) ÷ (5 ∗ 3/4) (2 / 5 ∗ 3) ÷ (5 ∗ 3 / 4) is equal to
A. 24/75
B. 299/20
C. 90/20
D. 8/25
Question 22. Which of the following equations is true?

A. 2/5 + 3/4 = 5/9
B. 3/4 – 1/2 = 2/2
C. 3/4 * 1/2 = 6/4
D. 3/4 ÷ 1/2 = 6/4
Question 23. What is the value of 60% in decimal?
A. 0.060
B. 0.6
C. 60.0
D. 0.006
Question 24. What is the equivalent value of 36.3 in percent?
A. 0.363%
B. 0.363%
C. 3630%
D. 0.0363%
Question 25. Which of the following equations is true?
A. 25 = 1/4
B. 0.25% = 0.025
C. 25% = 1/4%
D. 0.25 = 1/4
Question 26. What is the value of the polynomial 7x3 – 2x2 + 5x if x=–
2?
A. –30
B. –74
C. 30
D. 74
Question 27. What is the value of the polynomial (x2 – 3)(2x + 3) if
x=0?
A. 0
B. –9
C. 9
D. 10
Question 28. Which of the following algebraic expressions results in an
even number if n=1?
A. n2 + n + 1
B. 3n2 + 2n
C. n2 + 3n
D. n2 + 4n
Question 29. Simplify 5 + {8 – (3 – 5) + 7} – 10.
A. 28
B. 18
C. 12
D. 10
Question 30. Simplify 2-1 • 3-1 (2-1 + 3-1).
A. 5/6
B. 5/36
C. 36/5
D. 6/5
Question 31. Find the value of the unknown variable n given the
proportion n:5 = 8:10.
A. 4
B. 60
C. 13
D. 6
Question 32. An elevator can carry a maximum load of 605 kg. How
many passengers weighing 50.5 kg each can the elevator load?
A. 10
B. 11
C. 12
D. 13
Question 33. If a man uses 20 gallons of gasoline to travel 350 km in his
car, how many gallons will he need for a 750 km trip?
A. 42.86
B. 52.86
C. 62.86
D. 72.86
Question 34. If Jet walked 16 km in 3 hrs, how far can he walk (in km)
at the same rate in 6 hrs?
A. 22
B. 32
C. 42
D. 52
Question 35. A 54 inches line is divided into pieces; the ratio of which is
5:13. Find the length (in inches) of each piece.
A. 14 and 40
B. 13 and 41
C. 15 and 39
D. 16 and 38
Question 36. Three men are paid 315.00 to do a certain job. The sum is
to be divided among them in the ratio of 4:5:6. How much does each
receive?
A. 84, 104, & 127
B. 84, 105, & 126
C. 83, 106, & 126
D. 83, 105, & 127
Question 37. 32.52 is 12% of what number?
A. 512
B. 271
C. 46.28
D. 198.72
Question 38. 0.0202 is what percent of 0.0808?
A. 0.25%
B. 2.5%
C. 25%
D. 250%
Question 39. What is 62% of 85?
A. 5,270
B. 25
C. 52.7
D. 57.2
Question 40. An article of clothing is on sale at 15% off the marked
price. If the marked price is 1,050, what is the sale price?
A. 132.15
B. 892.5
C. 157.5
D. 787.5
Answer key
1. C 11. C 21. D 31. A
2. B 12. B 22. D 32. B
3. D 13. A 23. B 33. A
4. B 14. A 24. C 34. B
5. A 15. B 25. D 35. C
6. D 16. B 26. B 36. B
7. A 17. C 27. B 37. B
8. D 18. B 28. C 38. C
9. B 19. B 29. C 39. C
10. B 20. A 30. B 40. B
10/2/23, 11:15 AM [Math Part 2] General Education (GenEd) LET Reviewer – Test Pinoy
Gen Ed Math reviewer

Question 1. Growing up, you lived in a tiny country village. When you
left for college, the population was 745. You recently heard that the
population has grown by 200%. What is the present population?
A. 102
B. 1440
C. 2235
D. 945
Question 2. On a 150-question examination, a student got 110 correct
answers. What percent is the student’s score with respect to the perfect
score?
A. 0.733%
B. 7.33%
C. 73.3%
D. 733%
Question 3. Mark wants to save his P10,000 money in the bank which
pays a simple interest rate of 8%. How much money will he have after 2
years?
A. P11,600
B. P11,050
C. P6,150
D. P6,250
Question 4. It is a figure found by two rays having a common endpoint
called a vertex.
A. line segment
B. angle
C. line
D. point
Question 5. If a motion is applied to a point until it reaches another
point, then the object so formed is called:
A. line segment
B. angle
C. line
D. rays
Question 6. Which of the following statements is TRUE about angles?
A. Some right angles measure exactly 90 degrees.
B. Straight angle measures exactly 180 degrees.
C. A full angle measures above 270 degrees.
D. All acute angles measure above 90 degrees
Question 7. Two angles are supplementary if their measure equals 180,

if angles A and B are supplementary and A=1250, what is the measure
of angle B?
A. 65 degrees
B. 55 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 75 degrees
Question 8. What is the name of the triangle whose two sides are equal
and one angle measures between 900 and 1800?
A. Scalene Right Triangle
B. Isosceles Obtuse Triangle
C. Scalene Obtuse Triangle
D. Isosceles Right Triangle
Question 9. In a triangle ABC, angle A= 650 and angle C= 600. What is
the value of angle B?
A. 55 degrees
B. –55 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 65 degrees
Question 10. Which of the following quadrilaterals below with exactly
one pair of parallel opposite sides?
A. Kite
B. Rectangle
C. Trapezoid
D. Rhombus
Question 11. What is the perimeter of a regular hexagon with a side

equal to 5m?
A. 20m
B. 30m
C. 40m
D. 50m
Question 12. Which of the following mathematical expressions below is
a formula for trapezoid?
A. A= 1/2 bh
B. A= 2L + 2W
C. A= bh
D. A=1/2h (a+b)
Question 13. What is the area of a rectangle whose length is equal to
20m and width equal to 10m?
A. 30m
B. 30m2
C. 200m2
D. 200m
Question 14. What is the sum of the interior angle of a regular
pentagon?
A. 720 degrees
B. 900 degrees
C. 180 degrees
D. 540 degrees
Question 15. What is the name of the polygon if the sum of the interior
angle measures 900?
A. pentagon
B. hexagon
C. heptagon
D. octagon
Question 16. The sum of the interior angle measures 900, what is the
measurement of one of the angles?
A. 90 degrees
B. 150 degrees
C. 112.5 degrees
D. 128.5 degrees
Question 17. How many unique diagonals can be drawn in a pentagon?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 10
Question 18. A piece of wire is shaped to form a rectangle with a length
of 15cm and its area is 150 sq. cm. Find the width of the rectangle.
A. 10 cm
B. 135 cm
C. 2250 cm
D. 0.1 cm
Question 19. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. A rectangle is a square
B. A parallelogram is a trapezoid
C. A rhombus is a rectangle
D. A square is a rhombus
Question 20. Arrange the following steps in chronological order in
conducting a statistical investigation.
1. Presentation of data
2. Analysis of data
3. Collection of data
4. Interpretation of data
A. 3241
B. 3142
C. 3124
D. 3214
Question 21. A hat contains 50 marbles. Of them, 31 are red and 19 are
green. if one marble is randomly selected out of this hat, what is the
probability that this marble is red?
A. 0.62
B. 52
C. 0.65
D. 1
Question 22. In a group of 70 executives, 25 have a type C personality.
If one executive is selected at random from this group, what is the
probability that this executive has a type C personality?
A. 0.35%
B. 0.57%
C. 35.7%
D. 357%
Question 23. Maria took a sample of 9 customers at a small stall at J
Mall. The following sale amounts in a day are observed: P320, P425,
P455, P495, P495, P495, P485, P525 and P328. Maria is asked by her
manager to compute for the mean, what would be the appropriate
mean value that she should give to her manager given the raw data
above?
A. P474
B. P447
C. P744
D. P444
P455, P495, P495, P495, P485, P525, and P328. Maria is asked by her
manager to find the mode, what would be the appropriate mode value
that she should give to her manager given the raw data above?
A. P474
B. P447
C. P744
D. P495
P455, P495, P495, P495, P485, P525, and P328. What type of mode is
shown above?
A. Unimodal
B. Bimodal
C. Multimodal
D. No Mode
Question 26. Which of the following factors below is the prime factor
of 50?
A. 50 • 1
B. 5 • 10
C. 5 • 0
D. 5 • 2 • 5
Question 27. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about real
numbers?
A. A real number is always positive
B. Integer plus integer is a real number
C. All rational numbers are real numbers
D. Every integer is a real number
Question 28. Find the greatest common factor (GCF) of the numbers 36
and 48.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 1728
D. 144
Question 29. Find the least common multiple (LCM) of the numbers 36
and 48.
A. 6
B. 12
C. 1728
D. 144
Question 30. Find the least common denominator (LCD) of the numbers
25, 15, 10.
A. 5
B. 150
C. 50
D. 250
Question 31. Which of the following is an irrational number?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 2.25
D. π
Question 32. Which of the following mathematical statements below is
NOT TRUE?
A. 6 + 8 = 8 + 6
B. 6 • 8 = 8 • 6
C. 6 + 8 = 6 – 8
D. 2 + (4 + 6) = (2 + 4) + 6
Question 33. Which of the given mathematical statements below is NOT
TRUE?
A. 8/0 = 0
B. 10 + (-10) = 0
C. 0 ( 0 ) = 0
D. 0/5 = 0
Question 34. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE about real
numbers?
A. All whole numbers are integers
B. π is an example of a rational number
C. Zero is an example of a whole number
D. Decimal is an example of a non-integer.
Question 35. Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?
A. all odd numbers are prime numbers
B. Some even numbers are composite numbers
C. All even numbers are multiples of two
D. Some odd numbers are prime numbers
Question 36. Which of the following numbers below is a prime
number?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Question 37. Which of the following number is a non-integer?
A. 3
B. 6
C. 2.25
D. 0
Question 38. Which of the following numbers will make it true—given
the equation –20 + ___ = 0?
A. 20
B. –1/20
C. 1/20
D. -20
Question 39. Which of the following is an improper fraction?
A. 4/5
B. 8/5
C. 5/6
D. 3 3/4
Question 40. Which of the following numbers below is a composite
even number?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 91
Answer key
1. C 11. B 21. A 31. D
2. C 12. D 22. C 32. C
3. A 13. C 23. B 33. A
4. B 14. D 24. D 34. B
5. A 15. C 25. A 35. A
6. B 16. D 26. D 36. B
7. B 17. A 27. A 37. C
8. B 18. A 28. B 38. A
9. A 19. D 29. D 39. B
10. C 20. C 30. B 40. B

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10/2/23, 11:21 AM [50 Test Answers] English Part 1: General Education (Gen Ed) LET Reviewer – Test Pinoy

Gen Ed English reviewer, part 1

Question 7. Poetry during the age of modernism is characterized by

generations of the Greeks

D. The Greeks became the good architects

B. Trojans and Minoans

D. Gouged his eyes ✅

Question 23. ______ can be inferred from Iseneses’ “answer.”

Question 31. Which statement best characterizes the Old Testament as

Question 37. Among the following statements below, which is not an

Question 41. _____ is the usual topic of lyric poetry

A. So that behaviors don’t become habits

Gen Ed English reviewer, part 2

Question 8. “She transformed a dragon into a pinworm” is an example

Question 11. If a teacher wants to make an intensive drill about the

C. Vocabulary words for writing

Question 29. _____ makes use of Children’s language and experiences.

C. is an adversary of the government

2. D 12. B 22. D 32. D 42. D

3. B 13. B 23. D 33. A 43. A

4. C 14. B 24. D 34. C 44. A

5. D 15. B 25. B 35. B 45. C

6. D 16. B 26. D 36. D 46. B

7. D 17. C 27. D 37. B 47. D

8. A 18. B 28. B 38. C 48. D

9. D 19. D 29. A 39. A 49. C

10. A 20. C 30. C 40. B 50. D

Gen Ed Filipino reviewer

D. Ang Filipino bilang wikang pambansa ay katawagang nakapagpapalubag-

Question 11. Siya ang Pangulo ng Pilipinas na lumagda sa

D. Ang isang wikang pambansa ay kumakatawan sa lahat ng mga

Question 21. Ang ponemang /p/ /b/ at /m/ ay binibigkas ng paano?

Question 31. Ano ang ayos ng pangungusap na ito? “Pagtutulungan at

Question 41. Sino ang may sagisag na Pingkian at Dimas-ilaw at may

C. Marcelo H. del Pilar

2. A 12. A 22. C 32. A 42. C

3. B 13. D 23. D 33. C 43. D

4. B 14. B 24. B 34. A 44. A

5. C 15. B 25. C 35. C 45. C

6. A 16. A 26. A 36. B 46. B

7. D 17. A 27. C 37. C 47. B

8. D 18. C 28. D 38. D 48. A

9. D 19. A 29. D 39. C 49. B

10. D 20. C 30. A 40. D 50. C

Gen Ed Filipino reviewer

Question 11. “Aling pag-ibig pa ang hihigit kaya sa pagkadalisay at

Question 12. Ang tinaguriang ama ng nobelang Tagalog ay si _____.

C. Nuestra Señora de Pilar

Question 21. Higit na magagamit ang paraang Story Grammar sa

Question 31. Ano ang katangian ng pagsusulit na nagnanais

Question 37. Alin dito ang pagsusulit na pasalaysay at pagsasalin

Question 41. Sa kagamitang ito nakasama ang 2 dimensyonng

Question 43. Alin dito ang pagsusulit na pagpipilian na may higit

C. bawasan ang bili

2. B 12. D 22. D 32. C 42. A

3. D 13. D 23. A 33. B 43. D

4. D 14. D 24. D 34. A 44. D

5. A 15. B 25. B 35. B 45. A

6. C 16. B 26. D 36. A 46. A