17 Dec 2023 Test QP

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Syllabus
Economy: Entire Economy except Agriculture and

Industries.
Polity: Entire Indian polity.
History: Ancient India, Medieval India and Art & Culture

During Ancient and Medieval India.
Geography: Entire India and World Geography.
Current Affairs: June – December-3 Booklet.
Q1. India and Bhutan share which of the Q5. Consider the following statements
following multilateral forums? regarding India - Sri Lanka relations:
1. BBIN 1. SLINEX is a naval exercise conducted
2. BIMSTEC between the countries.
3. SAARC 2. Both are members of SAARC,
4. BRICS BIMSTEC and Indian Ocean Rim
5. SCO Association (IORA).
Select the correct answer using the code 3. India is planning to sign free trade
given below: agreement with Sri Lanka to boost
(a) Only two trade between the countries.
(b) Only three 4. Over the last decade, India has been
(c) Only four the largest trading partner of Sri
(d) All five Lanka.
How many of the above statements is/are
Q2.Consider the following pairs: correct?
International Headquarters (a) Only one
Organizations (b) Only two
1. SAARC Dhaka (c) Only three
2. BIMSTEC Kathmandu (d) All four
3. World Bank Washington D.C.
How many of the above pairs is/are Q6. Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. Project DANTAK is a project of the
(a) Only one Border Roads Organization (BRO).
(b) Only two 2. DANTAK was tasked to construct the
(c) All three pioneering motorable roads in Bhutan.
(d) None 3. The BRO works under the
administrative control of the Ministry
Q3. Consider the following statements of Home Affairs.
regarding the World Bank: Which of the statements given above
1. The Bretton Woods Conference of is/are correct?
1944 created the International Bank (a) 1 and 2 only
for Reconstruction and Development (b) 2 only
(IBRD) which later became the World (c) 3 only
Bank. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The World Bank was created along
with the World Economic Forum. Q7. “Rapid Financing Instrument",
3. The International Finance Corporation “Extended Fund Facility” and "Rapid
is an institution of the World Bank Credit Facility" are related to the
group but the International provisions of lending by which one of the
Development Association is not. following?
Which of the statements given above (a) World Bank
is/are correct? (b) Asian Development Bank
(a) 1 only (c) International Monetary Fund
(b) 1 and 2 only (d) UN Environment Program Finance
(c) 2 and 3 only Initiative
(d) 3 only
Q4. With which of the following countries

does India perform Exercise MITRA
SHAKTI?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Nepal
(c) Maldives
(d) Sri Lanka
Q8. Consider the following pairs: How many of the above statements is/are
Mission/Operations Country correct?
(a) Only two
1. Operation All Clear Bhutan
(b) Only three
2. Operation Ajay Israel (c) Only four
3. Operation Cactus Maldives (d) All five
4. Operation Dost Ukraine

Q11. Consider the following statements:
5. Operation Ganga Turkey 1. Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC)
How many of the above pairs are correct? is an African landlocked country.
(a) Only two 2. Congo River flows from Congo and
(b) Only three cuts Tropic of Capricorn twice.
(c) Only four 3. DRC is the world's largest producer of
(d) All five cobalt ore.
How many of the above statements are
Q9. With reference to the Comprehensive NOT correct?
Nuclear Test Ban Treaty (CTBT), consider (a) Only one
the following statements: (b) Only two
1. The objective of the treaty is to ban all (c) All three
nuclear explosions everywhere by (d) None
everyone.
2. It was adopted by the United Nations Q12. Consider the following statements
General Assembly in 1996. regarding ‘Deepfakes’:
3. India and China have not ratified the 1. Generators and discriminators are
treaty. part of generative adversarial
How many of the above statements is/are networks that are used in the creation
NOT correct? of deepfakes.
(a) Only one 2. Restoring lost voices of persons,
(b) Only two enhancing artistic expression, and
(c) All three enhancing medical training and
(d) None simulation are some of the positive
uses of deepfakes.
Q10. Consider the following statements 3. Sections 67 and 67A of the
regarding Vienna Convention on Information Technology Act (2000)
Diplomatic Relations: have provisions that explicitly deal
1. It provides a comprehensive basis for with all the aspects of deep fakes.
the establishment, maintenance and How many of the above statements are
termination of diplomatic relations NOT correct?
with the consent of independent (a) Only one
sovereign states. (b) Only two
2. It was adopted in 1961 by the United (c) All three
Nations Conference on Diplomatic (d) None
Intercourse and Immunities.
3. Article 36 of the treaty provides Q13. Consider the following statements
exemption from customs duties on regarding United Nations Security Council
diplomatic imports throughout a (UNSC):
diplomat’s posting. 1. India has been a non-permanent
4. Article 22 imposes a special duty on member of the UNSC for 3 times as of
the ‘receiving State/host’ to protect 2023.
the premises against intrusion, 2. The ten non-permanent seats of UNSC
damage, disturbance of the peace or are distributed on a regional basis.
infringement of dignity. 3. Any member of the United Nations can
5. India has not yet ratified the treaty. participate at the UNSC discussions.
4. Bhutan has been elected once as the Select the correct answer using the code
non-permanent member of UNSC. given below:
Which of the above statements is/are (a) Only two
correct? (b) Only three
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (c) Only four
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) All five
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only Q17. Which of the following are
disputed territory between Bhutan and
Q14. With reference to the Special China?
Drawing Rights (SDR), consider the 1. Doklam Region
following statements: 2. Jakarlung
1. The SDR is allocated to the members 3. Tawang valley
of the IMF in proportion to their 4. Pasamlung
existing quotas. 5. Sakteng
2. The SDR basket of currencies includes Select the correct answer from the code
only the US dollar, Japanese yen and given below:
Euro. (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3. The makeup of SDR is re-evaluated (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
after every 3 years. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Which of the above statements is/are (d) 1, 3 and 5 only
correct?
(a) 2 and 3 only Q18. Consider the following statements
(b) 3 only regarding Cotton crop cultivation:
(c) 1 only 1. India has the world's second largest
(d) 1, 2 and 3 area under cotton cultivation.
2. India produces more than half of the
Q15. Consider the following statements total organic cotton production of the
regarding International Monetary Fund world.
(IMF): 3. In Tamil Nadu, it can be grown both
1. It along with World Bank is known as as kharif and rabi crop.
Bretton woods twins. How many of the above statements is/are
2. It publishes Global Financial Stability NOT correct?
report. (a) Only one
(b) Only two
3. It was established in 1944 in the
(c) All three
aftermath of the Great Depression of
(d) None
the 1930s.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
1. The red blood cells are also known as
(a) 3 only
erythrocytes.
(b) 1 and 3 only
2. Hemoglobin is an iron containing
(c) 1 only
protein found in red blood cells that
(d) 1, 2 and 3
carries oxygen from the lungs to the
body’s tissues.
Q16. Which of the following
3. Only erythrocytes can produce
reports/indices are released by World
hemoglobin.
Bank?
1. Logistics Performance Index
correct?
2. Global economic Prospects
(a) Only one
3. World Development Report
(b) Only two
4. Trade and Development Report
(c) All three
5. Human Capital Index
(d) None
Q20. Consider the following statements Q23. Which of the following initiatives are
regarding National Disaster Management related to Elderly in India?
Authority (NDMA): 1. SAMPANN Project
1. It is a constitutional body. 2. SACRED Portal
2. The Union Home Minister acts as a 3. Project Unnati
chairperson of NDMA. 4. Atal Vayo Abhyuday yojana
3. It is responsible for framing policies, 5. SAGE Portal
laying down guidelines and best- Select the correct answer code using the
practices for disaster management. options given below:
4. The Scheme ‘Aapda Mitra’ is (a) Only two
implemented by NDMA. (b) Only three
How many of the above statements is/are (c) Only four
correct? (d) All five
(a) Only one
(b) Only two Q24. Which of the following is/are correct
(c) Only three about India's new Foreign Trade Policy
(d) All four 2023?
1. The government has set a target of
Q21. Consider the following statements achieving $2 trillion in the export of
regarding Miyawaki plantation method: goods and services by 2030, up from
1. This method involves planting two to the $900 billion target of the previous
four different types of indigenous trees policy.
within every square meter. 2. The new policy aims to shift from an
2. The plants absorb the dust particles of incentive to a tax remission-based
the area and also help in regulating regime.
surface temperature. 3. The new policy has abolished all
3. The plants used in this method are import tariffs to promote trade.
not self-sustaining and require regular Choose the correct answer using the code
maintenance like manuring and given below:
watering. (a) 1 and 2 only
How many of the above statements are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Only one (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q25. Consider the following pairs:
(d) None Scheme/Initiative Ministry
1. PM MITRA Ministry of Textiles
Q22. Which of the following rules are 2. Atal Vayo Ministry of Social
followed while naming tropical cyclones? Abhyuday Justice and
1. The name should be neutral to politics yojana Empowerment
and religious believes. 3. PM POSHAN Ministry of Health
2. The name should not hurt the and Family welfare
sentiments of any group of population 4. PM Bhartiya Ministry of Chemical
over the globe. Janaushadhi and Fertilizers
3. The name should be short and easy to Pariyojna
pronounce. How many of the above pairs is/are NOT
4. The maximum length of the name will correct?
be six letters. (a) Only one
How many of the above statements is/are (b) Only two
correct? (c) Only three
(a) Only one
(d) All four
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q26. Which of the following have been in Q29. Consider the following statements:
news for Russia- Ukraine Conflict? Statement-I:
1. Transnistria Region 7th August is declared as the National
2. Zmiinyi Island Handloom Day.
3. Kherson Statement-II:
4. North Kivu It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi
5. Mariupol Movement was launched on the same day.
6. Ituri Which one of the following is correct in
Select the correct answer code using the respect of the above statements?
options given below: (a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II
(a) 1, 2 ,5 and 6 only are correct and Statement-II is the
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only correct explanation for Statement-I.
(c) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only correct and Statement-II is not the
correct explanation for Statement-I.
Q27. Consider the following pairs: (c) Statement-I correct but Statement-II
Navigation system Country/Region is incorrect.
1. GLONASS Russia (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
2. Galileo Europe Statement-II is correct.
3. Quasi Zenith China
4. NaviC India Q30. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above pairs is/are 1. The South China Sea is connected by
correct? Taiwan Strait with the East China Sea
(a) Only one and by Luzon Strait with the
(b) Only two Philippine Sea.
(c) Only three 2. The Strait of Malacca is a waterway
(d) All four that connects the Andaman Sea and
the South China Sea.
Q28. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above
regarding Himalayan Brown Bear: is/are correct?
1. It is the largest mammal found in (a) 1 only
highlands of Himalayas. (b) 2 only
2. The IUCN status of Himalayan Brown (c) Both 1 and 2
Bear is vulnerable. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The species shows sexual
dimorphism. Q31. With reference to Seagrasses,
4. It can be seen in Hemis National Park. consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements is/are 1. Seagrasses are non-flowering plants
correct? which are found in sea beds and
(a) Only one ocean floors.
(b) Only two 2. Seagrasses exist only in the west coast
(c) All three of India.
(d) All four 3. They support marine mammals such
as sea cows or dugongs.
4. They help in carbon sequestration.
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Q32. Consider the following statements sustainable groundwater
regarding the benefits of management.
Internationalization of Rupee: How many of the above statements is/are
1. Bargaining power of Indian businesses correct?
will decrease. (a) Only one
2. Reduces risk to economy due to (b) Only two
sudden withdrawal of capital from (c) All three
market. (d) None
3. Promote ease of doing business.
4. Reduced transaction costs. Q36. Consider the following statements:
5. Boost to trade and investment. 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is
How many of the above statements is/are mandatory on the part of the
correct? Government of India to protect and
(a) Only two conserve all the wetlands in the
(b) Only three territory of India.
(c) Only four 2. Deepor bheel is the only Ramsar site
(d) All five of Assam.
3. Kanwar tal and Wular Lake are
Q33. Consider the following initiatives Ramsar sites in India.
taken to tackle plastic waste: How many of the above statements is/are
1. Ban on single use plastics correct?
2. Clean seas campaign (a) Only one
3. Setting up of plastic parks (b) Only two
4. One plastics Initiative (c) All three
Which of the above initiatives are (d) None
specifically taken by India?
(a) 1 and 2 only Q37. Consider the following statements:
(b) 1 and 3 only 1. Russia borders both Black Sea and
(c) 3 and 4 only Baltic Sea.
(d) 2 and 4 only 2. Ukraine borders both Black Sea and
Sea of Azov.
Q34. Consider the following statements 3. Vietnam borders both South China
regarding groundwater usage: Sea and Andaman Sea.
1. India is the second largest user of How many of the above statements is/are
ground water in the world after China. correct?
2. Most of the ground water extracted in (a) Only one
India is for industrial use. (b) Only two
Which of the above statements is/are (c) Only three
correct? (d) None
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q38. Consider the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 regarding Methane:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Methane has higher global warming
potential than carbon dioxide.
Q35. Consider the following statements: 2. As per UNEP, Methane is responsible
1. Central Ground Water Board is under for 30% of the global warming since
Ministry of Jal Shakti. pre-industrial times.
2. Central Ground Water Authority is 3. Rice fields are one of the major
constituted under the Water Pollution sources of methane gas emissions.
Act, 1974. 4. India has promised to cut its methane
3. Atal Bhujal Yojana is a centrally gas emission by at least 30% from
sponsored scheme for facilitating 2020 levels by 2030 as part of Global
methane pledge.
How many of the above statements is/are and General, in proportion to their
NOT correct? population.
(a) Only one How many of the above statements is/are
(b) Only two correct?
(c) Only three (a) Only one
(d) All four (b) Only two
(c) All three
Q39. Which of the following bird/animal (d) None
species are categorized as Critically
endangered by IUCN? Q42. Consider the following pairs about
1. Jerdon’s courser the portfolios held by the members of the
2. Himalayan Quail First Cabinet of Free India:
3. Clouded Leopard Member Portfolios
4. Andaman Crake 1. B.R. Ambedkar Law
5. White bellied sea eagle 2. Raj Kumari Amrit Industries &
Select the correct answer option using the Kaur Supplies
code given below: 3. Shyama Prasad Health
(a) Only two Mukherji
(b) Only three 4. Sardar Baldev Singh Defence
(c) Only four How many of the pairs given above are
(d) All five correctly matched?
(a) Only one
Q40. With reference to Global Biofuels (b) Only two
Alliance, consider the following (c) Only three
statements: (d) All four.
1. It is an India led initiative launched at
recent G20 meeting in New Delhi. Q43. Article 3 of the Indian constitution
2. It aims to facilitate cooperation and authorizes the Parliament to
intensifying the use of sustainable 1. Form a new state by separation of
biofuels. territory from any state.
3. It will facilitate transfer of 2. Increase the area of any state.
technologies and mobilization of 3. Alter the name of any state.
international climate funds. How many of the above statements is/are
4. USA is not a part of this initiative. correct?
How many of the above statement/s (a) Only one
is/are correct? (b) Only two
(a) Only one (c) All three
(b) Only two (d) None
(c) Only three
(d) All four Q44. The term “State” has been used in
many provisions concerning the
Q41. Consider the following statements
with respect to the Constituent Assembly: fundamental rights. Which of the
following comes under the definition of
1. The representatives of each community
were to be elected by the method of the “state” for the purpose of Part-III of
the Indian constitution?
proportional representation, by means
of single transferable vote. 1. Local authorities
2. Board of control for cricket in India
2. The representatives of the princely
states were elected by the people with 3. A private body or agency carries out
public functions on behalf of the
the heads of the princely states having
veto power. government.
4. Public Sector Banks
3. Seats allocated to each British
province were to be divided among the
two principal communities - Muslims
Select the correct answer using the code which are declared to be of national
given below. importance.
(a) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer code using the
(b) 2 and 4 only options given below:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
Q45. Which of the following are the (d) 2, 3 and 5 only
Federal features of the Constitution of
India? Q48. Consider the following statements
1. Division of Powers about the exception(s) to Equality before
2. Appointment of the Governor by the law under the Indian constitution:
President 1. No criminal proceedings shall be
3. Single Constitution for Union and instituted or continued against the
States President or the Governor in any court
4. Upper House in Parliament during his term of office.
5. Independence of Judiciary 2. No Member of the Parliament shall be
Select the correct answer code using the liable to any proceedings in any court
options given below: in respect of anything said or any vote
(a) 1, 2 & 4 only given by him in Parliament or any
(b) 1, 4 & 5 only committee thereof
(c) 2, 3 & 5 only 3. Foreign sovereigns (rulers),
(d) 1, 2 & 5 only ambassadors and diplomats enjoy
immunity from civil proceedings but
Q46. Which of the following statements not against criminal proceedings.
about ‘Negative liberty’ is correct? How many of the above statements is/are
(a) It pertains to situations where one correct?
person's liberty results in adverse (a) Only one
outcomes for others. (b) Only two
(b) It refers to an inviolable area of non- (c) All three
interference in which the individual (d) None
can express himself.
(c) It reflects the negative aspects of Q49. Consider the following statements:
liberty for the individual himself. 1. Right to Privacy is a fundamental right
(d) Negative liberty relates to the under Article 21.
existence of conditions for fullest 2. Right to carry trade or business is a
development of individual’s fundamental right under Article 21.
personality. 3. ‘Procedure established by the law’ is
explicitly mentioned in Article 21.
Q47. Which of the following are part of Which of the statements given above is/
the Directive Principles of State Policy? are correct?
1. Providing the right to adequate means (a) 1 only
of livelihood for all citizens. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, (c) 1 and 3 only
unity and integrity of India. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Promotion of harmony and the spirit
of common brother-hood amongst all
the people of India.
4. Raising the level of nutrition and the
standard of living of people and to
improve public health.
5. Protect monuments, places and
objects of artistic or historic interest
Q50. Consider the following statements the financial position of
regarding the territorial extent of the the panchayats.
Central and State Legislation: Direct elections to all seats
1. The laws made by a State Legislature 3. Compulsory in panchayats at the
can never be applied outside the state. Provision village, intermediate and
2. The Parliament can make ‘extra- district levels.
territorial legislation’. Granting powers and
3. The President may repeal or amend authority to the
any act of the Parliament in relation to panchayats to enable them
4. Voluntary
the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. to function as institutions
Provision
Which of the statements given above of self-government (in
brief, making them
is/are NOT correct?
autonomous bodies).
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only How many of the pairs given above are
(c) 1 and 3 only correctly matched?
(d) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q51. Consider the following statements: (c) Only three
1. If a person, having been elected to (d) All four
both the Houses of Parliament, does
not intimate within 10 days in which Q53. Consider the following statements:
House they desire to serve, their seat 1. The notification for general election to
in the Lok Sabha becomes vacant. the Lok Sabha and the State
2. If a person is elected to the Parliament Assemblies is issued on the advice of
as well as the state legislature, they the Election Commission.
shall resign from state legislature 2. The notification for general election to
within 10 days, else their seat in the the Lok Sabha and the State
state legislature becomes vacant. Assemblies is issued by the President
3. If a person is elected to two seats in a of India.
House and they do not exercise the Which of the statements given above
option for any one, both seats become is/are correct?
vacant. (a) 1 Only
How many of the above statements is/are (b) 2 Only
correct? (c) Both 1 & 2
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
(c) All three Q54. Which of the following are the duties
(d) None of the Returning Officer?
1. Preparation and revision of electoral
Q52. Consider the following pairs about rolls.
the compulsory and voluntary provisions 2. Accepting and scrutinizing the
of 73rd Constitutional amendment act, nomination forms.
1992: 3. Publishing the affidavits of the
Nature of candidates.
Description 4. Allotting symbols to the contesting
Provision
candidates.
Granting financial powers
to the panchayats, that is, 5. Preparing the EVMs and the VVPATs.
1. Compulsory authorizing them to levy, Select the correct answer using the code
Provision collect and appropriate given below:
taxes, duties, tolls and (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
fees. (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Constitution of a State (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
2. Voluntary
Provision Finance Commission after (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
every five years to review
Q55. Consider the following statements Q58. Consider the following statements
about the procedure relating to the with respect to the Balance of Payments
removal of a judge of the Supreme Court (BoP):
by the process of impeachment laid down 1. The current account measures the
by the Judges Enquiry Act (1968): transfer of real resources (goods,
1. A removal motion, signed by 50 services, income and transfers)
members in the case of the Lok Sabha between an economy and the rest of
and 50 members in case of Rajya the world.
Sabha, is to be given to the 2. The capital and financial account
Speaker/Chairman. reflects the net changes in financial
2. The Speaker/Chairman may admit the claims on the rest of the world.
motion or refuse to admit it. 3. The compilation and dissemination of
Which of the statements given above BoP data is the prime responsibility of
is/are correct? the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
(a) 1 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 only given below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
Q56. Consider the following statements (d) 1, 2 and 3
with respect to ‘Headline inflation’ in the
Indian context: Q59. Consider the following statements
1. Headline inflation represents about Real Effective Exchange Rate
structural inflation and thus, excludes (REER) and Nominal Effective Exchange
the effects of seasonal factors, like Rate (NEER):
fluctuations in food and energy. 1. NEER measures the value of a
2. Inflation, that is targeted under the country's currency against a weighted
Monetary Policy Framework, is average of currencies from all
‘Headline inflation’. countries in the world.
Which of the statements given above 2. REER takes both inflation and
is/are correct? exchange rates in account.
(a) 1 only 3. REER is a better indicator of measuring
(b) 2 only country's competitiveness in
(c) Both 1 and 2 international trade, when compared to
NEER.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the above statements are
correct?
Q57. Consider the following statements (a) 2 and 3 only
with respect to the Hybrid Annuity Model (b) 1 and 3 only
(HAM): (c) 1 and 2 only
1. HAM is a mix between the Build - (d) 1, 2 and 3
Operate - Transfer (BOT) Annuity and
the Engineering - Procurement - Q60. Arrange the following in the
Construction (EPC) models. increasing order of their trade integration:
2. It provides for the allocation of risks 1. Preferential Trade Agreement
between the public-private 2. Most Favoured Nation Status
partnership (PPP) members. 3. Free Trade Agreement
3. Under it, the developer enjoys 4. Customs Union
absolute right over toll collection. 5. Monetary Union
How many of the above statements is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) Only one (a) 1-3-4-5-2
(b) Only two (b) 2-1-3-4-5
(c) All three (c) 2-3-1-4-5
(d) None (d) 2-3-1-5-4
Q61. Consider the following statements 3. They are the facilities of a second
regarding Higher inflation: resort, which the countries can tap
1. Higher inflation has a regressive effect after formal credit tranche.
on lower-income families and older Which of the statements given above
people in the society. is/are correct?
2. Higher inflation can lead to a decrease (a) 1 only
in pay claims, as individuals are less (b) 1 and 2 only
inclined to seek increased wages to (c) 2 and 3 only
safeguard their real incomes. (d) 1 and 3 only
3. Higher inflation can lead to an increase
in real incomes. Q64. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above statements is/are 1. Bank Rate is the minimum interest
correct? rate, below which the financial
(a) Only one institutions cannot lend.
(b) Only two 2. MCLR is the minimum rate of interest,
(c) All three which a central bank charges, while
(d) None lending loans to the domestic banks.
3. Repo Rate is the interest rate charged
Q62. Consider the following statements by the RBI, when it lends money to
about Non-Banking Financial Companies the banks against securities for short
(NBFCs): term only.
1. NBFCs cannot accept demand Which of the statements given above
deposits. is/are correct?
2. NBFCs do not form part of the (a) 1 only
Payment and Settlement System. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. NBFCs are covered under the purview (c) 3 only
of the deposit insurance facility of (d) 1 and 2 only
Deposit Insurance and Credit
Guarantee Corporation. Q65. Consider the following statements
4. Housing Finance Companies (HFCs) about the Priority Sector Lending:
are regulated by National Housing 1. The Small Finance Banks, the
Bank (NHB). Payments Banks and the Rural Co-
5. Nidhi and Chit fund companies are operative Banks have to follow the
mainly regulated by RBI. Priority Sector Lending targets of the
Which of the statements given above are RBI.
NOT Correct? 2. Loans for education, start-ups and
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only export credit are classified as Priority
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only Sector.
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only 3. The banks which fail to achieve their
(d) 3, 4 and 5 only Priority Sector Targets can contribute
to the Rural Infrastructure
Q63. With respect to the “Reserve Development Fund, created under the
Tranche”, consider the following NABARD.
statements: How many of the above statements is/are
1. It is a portion of the required quota of NOT correct?
currency each member country must (a) Only one
provide to the International Monetary (b) Only two
Fund (IMF). (c) All three
2. This can be utilized by the country for (d) None
its purposes with a service fee or
economic reform conditions.
Q66. Consider the following statements 6. Boosting agricultural growth and
about the Regional Rural Banks (RRBs): income of the farmers.
1. The Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are 7. Policies for the development of the
the financial institutions which ensure backward regions of the country.
adequate credit for agriculture and Select the correct answer from the code
other rural sectors. given below:
2. The RRBs were set up on the basis of (a) 1,3, 5, 6 and 7 only
the recommendations of the (b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
Narasimham Working Group. (c) 2 and 7 only
3. The first Regional Rural Bank was the (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
“Prathama Grameen Bank”.
4. The RRBs do not have to follow the Q69. Consider the following statements
Priority Sector Lending targets of the with regard to BHIM App:
RBI. 1. Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a
Which of the statements given above are payment app which uses Unified
correct? Payments Interface (UPI).
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only 2. BHIM is named after Dr. Bhim Rao
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only Ambedkar, the chief architect of the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only Indian Constitution.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. It is a type of money wallet.
Which of the given statements is/are
Q67. Consider the following statements correct?
about the Basel-III Norms: (a) 1 only
1. Basel-III is an internationally agreed (b) 2 and 3 only
set of measures developed in response (c) 1 and 2 only
to the Great Depression of 1929. (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Basel-III standards are the minimum
requirements which apply to the Q70. Consider the following statements
internationally active banks. regarding Purchasing Power Parity (PPP):
3. Basel Norms are released by the Basel 1. It compares different currencies of the
Committee on Banking Supervision countries through a “basket of goods”
(BCBS). approach.
How many of the above statements is/are 2. China is the world’s largest economy
correct? based on PPP.
(a) Only one Which of the statements given above
(b) Only two is/are NOT correct?
(c) All three (a) 1 only
(d) None (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q68. Which of the following will lead to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
inclusiveness in the realm of economy in
India?
1. The Indus Valley Civilization is known
1. Increasing the share of indirect taxes
for its unique feature of the
in the total revenue of the government.
underground drainage system.
2. Workers to be given the share of
2. The Great Bath is the largest building
profits as incentives.
found in Mohenjodaro.
3. Land redistribution in the favour of
the landless.
correct?
4. Reduction in the income tax slabs to a
(a) 1 only
single flat slab rate.
(b) 2 only
5. Policies framed for the marginalized
(c) Both 1 and 2
sections of the society.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q72. Consider the following pairs: How many of the above statements is/are
1. Sama Veda Contains rules to be correct?
observed during (a) Only one
sacrifices. (b) Only two
2. Brahmanas Philosophical texts (c) Only three
dealing with topics like (d) All four
soul and origin of the
universe Q76. In the context of the economic
3. Aranyakas Forest books dealing history of the South India, who were
with mysticism, rites, “Masattuvan, Setthis and Satthavahas”?
rituals and sacrifices (a) Merchants
How many of the pairs given above are (b) Priests
correctly matched? (c) Royal officials
(a) Only one (d) Landlords
(b) Only two
(c) All three
Q77. Consider the following statements
(d) None
about ‘Mohammad Bin Tughlaq’:
Q73 Which of the following literary works 1. He is known to have transferred his
talks about the overthrow of the Nandas capital from Delhi to Surat.
by the Mauryas? 2. He issued Silver coins at par with the
(a) Mrichchakatikam value of the Gold tanka coins.
(b) Daskumaracharita 3. Ibn Batuta acted as a Qazi in Delhi for
(c) Mudrarakshasa
eight years during his reign.
(d) Devichandraguptam
4. Fort of Adilabad was built under his
rule.
Q74. With reference to Buddhism,
Which of the above statements are
consider the following statements:
correct?
1. It does not recognize the existence of
(a) 1 and 2 only
soul.
(b) 2 and 3 only
2. In comparison with Brahmanism,
(c) 1 and 4 only
Buddhism was more liberal and
(d) 3 and 4 only
democratic.
3. The use of Sanskrit language
Q78. With reference to the religious
primarily helped in the spread of
policy of Akbar, consider the following
Buddhism.
statements:
1. Akbar’s attitude towards his Hindu
correct?
subjects was guided by the policy of
(a) 1 only
Sulh-i-kul.
(b) 1 and 2 only
2. The proceedings at Ibadat Khana were
(c) 2 and 3 only
initially confined to Muslims only.
(d) 3 only
3. Akbar propounded Tauhid-i-Ilahi
which combined elements from other
Q75. With reference to the Gupta period,
existing religions.
1. The position of Shudras further
correct?
deteriorated.
(a) 1 only
2. The Brahmins had monopolised
(b) 2 only
education in the Gupta period and
(c) 1 and 3 only
Sanskrit had become the language of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the elite in the society.
3. They patronized scholars like
Dhanvantri and Amarsimha.
4. Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang visited
India during Gupta period.
Q79. Arrange the following dynasties of
Vijaynagar Empire in chronological order: Q83. Consider the following pairs:
(a) Sangama - Tuluva - Saluva - Aravidu Folk Painting Associated States
(b) Sangama - Saluva - Tuluva - Aravidu 1. Warli Maharashtra
(c) Sangama - Aravidu - Tuluva – Saluva 2. Madhubani Odisha
(d) Saluva - Aravidu - Sangama - Tuluva 3. Sawara Madhya Pradesh
4. Pata Chitra Bihar
Q80. Which one of the following Which of the pairs given above are
statements about King Krishnadeva Raya correctly matched?
is NOT correct? (a) 1 and 3 only
(a) He was a great scholar of Telugu and (b) 2 and 4 only
Sanskrit. (c) 1 and 4 only
(b) Foreign travellers Paes and Nuniz (d) 2 and 3 only
visited his court.
(c) Barbosa praised him for the great Q84. Consider the following statements
justice and equity prevailing in his about Kathak dance:
empire. Statement-I:
(d) He belonged to Saluva dynasty. It developed as a result of development of
the Vaishnavite cult and Raslilas.
Q81. Consider the following statements Statement-II:
with reference to the Ajanta Caves: During Delhi Sultanate, the dance form
1. It has 29 caves and is located in moved from temple courtyard to palaces.
Aurangabad district of Maharashtra. Which one of the following is correct in
2. Ajanta is the only surviving example of respect of the above statements?
painting of the 1st century BC and the (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
5th century AD. correct and Statement-II is the correct
3. Artistic development of the Ajanta explanation for Statement-I.
caves was patronised by the (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Rashtrakuta rulers. correct and Statement-II is not the
Which of the above statements is/are correct explanation for Statement-I.
correct? (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-
(a) 1 and 2 only II is incorrect.
(b) 2 only (d) Statement-I is incorrect but
(c) 1 and 3 only Statement-II is correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q85. Which of the following are related to
Q82. Consider the following statements Carnatic music?
with reference to the Amravati School of 1. Suladi
Art: 2. Svarajati
1. Sculptural forms created in Amravati 3. Thumri
school are characterised by intense Select the correct answer using the code
emotions. given below:
2. Narratives are profusely depicted (a) 1 only
which include events from the life of (b) 1 and 2 only
the Buddha and the Jataka stories. (c) 2 and 3 only
3. It was patronised by the Pallava (d) 1, 2 and 3
rulers.
Which of the statement(s) given above
is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q86. In context of physical geography, Q89. Consider the following statements:
consider the following pairs: 1. The Nagarjuna Sagar dam is a
Landform Feature Geomorphic masonry dam across the Godavari
Agent River.
1. Barchans Wind 2. The Nathpa Jhakri dam is a concrete
2. Natural levees Glacier gravity dam on the Beas River.
3. Stalagmites Underground 3. The Idukki dam is constructed across
water the Periyar River.
4. Drumlins Waves 4. The Pong dam has been built across
How many of the above pairs is/are the Satluj River in the Dhauladhar
correctly matched? hills.
(a) Only one How many of the above statement/s
(b) Only two is/are correct?
(c) Only three (a) Only one
(d) All four (b) Only two
(c) Only three
Q87. Consider the following statements: (d) All four
1. Air drainage is the flow of air from the
mountain top towards the valley due Q90. “In these forests, the trees reach
to the influence of gravity. great heights up to 60 m or above. There
2. Air drainage leads to an increase in is no definite time for the trees to shed
temperature in the bottom of valley. their leaves, flowering and fruition.
3. Air drainage protects plants from frost Species found in these forests include
damages. Rosewood, Mahogany, Aini and Ebony.”
Which of the statements given above The above statements relate to which of
is/are correct? the following types of forests?
(a) 2 only (a) Tropical Evergreen Forests
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) Montane Forests
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Swamp Forests
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Tropical Deciduous Forests
Q88. With reference to the Red and Q91. With reference to the Earth’s
Yellow Soils found in India, consider the movements, consider the following
following statements: statements:
1. Red soil develops on crystalline 1. Rift valleys are long and narrow
igneous rocks in the areas of low troughs caused by horizontal and
rainfall in the eastern and southern vertical movements, motored by
parts of the Deccan Plateau. endogenetic forces.
2. The soil develops a reddish color due 2. The Rhine valley is the best example of
to the weathering of the brown forest a well-defined rift valley.
soil. 3. There is no example of major rift valley
3. It looks yellow when it occurs in a in Peninsular India.
hydrated form. Which of the statements given above
How many of the above statement/s is/are correct?
is/are correct? (a) 1 only
(a) Only one (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Only two (c) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three (d) 1 and 3 only
(d) None
Q92. With respect to type of Lakes, Select the correct answer using the code
consider the following pairs: given below:
Type of lake Lake (Example) (a) 4-2-1-3
1. Tectonic Lake Kolleru (b) 2-3-4-1
2. Glacial Lake Chorabari (c) 2-4- 3-1
3. Wind-made Lake Didwana (d) 2-1-4-3
4. Deltaic Lake Wular
Q96. Which of the following activities are
How many of the above pairs is/are
included in quaternary sector of the
correctly matched? economy?
(a) Only one 1. Software developers
(b) Only two 2. Government officials
(c) Only three 3. Tax consultants
(d) All four 4. Lawyers
5. Academic researcher
Q93. Consider the following statements 6. Physicians
regarding Extra-tropical cyclones: Select the correct answer using the code
1. These cyclones form along the polar given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 5 only
front.
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
2. They can originate over both land and (c) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
sea. (d) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
3. These cyclones affect a much larger
area, compared to the tropical Q97. Consider the following statements
cyclones. regarding ‘October heat':
4. They move from east to west. 1. It refers to the post-monsoon, pre-
Which of the statements given above are winter rise in temperatures across the
correct? nation.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 2. It is marked by clear skies and rise in
(b) 1 and 3 only temperature.
(c) 2 and 4 only Which of the statements given above
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q94.Consider the following statements (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
about coking coal:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. India’s domestic coking coal is high
ash coal.
Q98. In the context of livestock census,
2. India is self-sufficient in coking coal.
3. Coking coal is mainly used in steel
1. It is conducted once in every five
production in both blast furnace and
years.
electric-arc methods.
2. It covers the livestock population in
Which of the statements given above
rural areas only.
is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 3. Total livestock population in the
(b) 2 and 3 only country decreased over the last
(c) 1 and 3 only census conducted in 2012.
(d) 1 only 4. It is conducted by the Ministry of
Agriculture and farmer’s welfare.
Q95. What is the correct sequence of Which of the statements given above are
occurrence of the following mountain correct?
passes in the Himalayas as one proceeds (a) 1 only
from east to west? (b) 1 and 2 only
1. Banihal Pass (c) 2 and 3 only
2. Jelep La (d) 3 and 4 only
3. Niti pass
4. Lipu Lekh
Q99. Consider the following mining
regions:
1. Kudremukh
2. Bellary
3. Singrauli
4. Bailadila
5. Malanjkhand
6. Mayurbhanj
Which of the above regions are related to
commercial Iron ore mining?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 4, 5 and 6 only
Q100. With reference to migration in

India, consider the following statements:
1. The intra-state migration is dominated
by female migrants as compared to
male population.
2. The rural to urban inter-state
migration is dominated by male
migrants.
Which of the statements given above
is/are NOT correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

GENERAL STUDIESPAPER- I Test Booklet Series

GS - April Batch 2024 – Test 34

Economy: Entire Economy except Agriculture and

Polity: Entire Indian polity.

History: Ancient India, Medieval India and Art & Culture

Geography: Entire India and World Geography.

Current Affairs: June – December-3 Booklet.

Q4. With which of the following countries

4. Operation Dost Ukraine

Q100. With reference to migration in

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