INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions.

Mark only one answer

for the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided.

PROFESSIONAL GROWTH AND DEVELOPMENT

1. The main principle of RA 6713 when is the code of ethical and moral conduct for government employees is :
a) honesty is the best policy -Office of the Obudsman,CS,COA,SandiganBayan- civil society organizations and watchdog
groups also play a vital role in promoting the values of honesty and good governance in the Philippines.
b) Public office is public service - Office of the Obudsman,CS,COA- They work towards maintaining integrity, transparency,
and accountability in government service.
c) public office is a public trust

Republic Act 6713, also known as the "Code of Conduct and Ethical Standards for Public Officials and Employees," is a
Philippine law that sets forth the ethical standards and responsibilities expected of public officials and employees. The main
principle of RA 6713 is to promote a high standard of ethics and professionalism in the public sector.
Commitment to Public Interest: Public officials and employees are expected to uphold the public interest over their personal
interests.

 Professionalism: Public officials and employees must perform their duties with competence, integrity, and accountability.
 Political Neutrality: They are required to be impartial and not engage in partisan political activities.
 Responsiveness to the Public: Public officials and employees should be responsive to the needs and concerns of the public,
providing prompt and courteous service.
 Accountability and Transparency: They must be accountable for their actions and decisions, and transparency in public
transactions is emphasized.
 Personal Integrity and Diligence: The law promotes personal integrity and diligence in the performance of duties.
 Avoidance of Conflict of Interest: Public officials and employees are prohibited from engaging in activities that may conflict
with their official functions or may compromise the integrity of their office.
 Prohibition of Solicitation or Acceptance of Gifts: There are restrictions on soliciting or accepting gifts, favors, loans, or
anything of monetary value in the course of their official duties

2. Which of the following is TRUE about the code of ethics for midwives?
a) a midwife is bound by professional ethics so she has the reason to reveal any information given by her patient -NT
Data Privacy
b) a midwife should work with interest and concern and may join a health team at her discretion -No Personal Interest
c) a midwife who has accepted to take care of a patient should render service to the best of her ability

Code of Ethics that guides their professional practices, relationships, and responsibilities. The Code emphasizes respecting
human rights, promoting informed decision-making, maintaining confidentiality, and advocating for the well-being of
women, families, and communities. It also highlights the importance of competence, non-discrimination, protecting
individuals from harm, and promoting just distribution of resources in healthcare.

3. Which of the following is not characteristic of a profession?

a) autonomy-belong to Ethical Principle
b) service motive is secondary to monetary gain
c) use of judgment and discretion
A profession is characterized by certain attributes, including mastery of a particular intellectual skill acquired through
training and education, acceptance of duties to society as a whole, an outlook that is essentially objective, and a high
standard in the conduct and performance of personal service.

4. A professional midwife needs to have this trait.

a) love for oneself
b) sincerity and commitment
c) eagerness to earn so she can spend as she desires

5. Professional conduct should be observed by a midwife, an example of which is:

a) operating a lying-in clinic which charged exorbitant fee
b) performing the tasks and functions that is only within the scope of midwifery practice
c) performing the functions of a nurse since nursing care can be done by the midwives effectively

6. A fellow midwife is very unpleasant in dealing with the husband of the patient, the best thing to do is :
a) inform your immediate supervisor
b) talk to her and inform her of your observation
c) ignore the incident
7. You attended a mother who delivered a baby with deformed legs, which of the following traits should you posses?
a) sympathy - Sympathy is the ability to feel pity or sorrow for someone else's misfortune. It involves a recognition of another person's
emotions and a sense of compassion or concern for their well-being. Sympathy can be expressed through words, gestures, or actions that
convey understanding and a sense of caring.
(maaaring vinalidate mo ang nararmdaman nya pero sa totoo hindi mo naintindihan ang totoong damdamin nila.)ito ay pag unawa mo sa
nararamdaman nila.
b) pity
c) empathy-Mas malalim n pag unawa mas nilalagay mo ang sitwasion mo sa sitwasion nila kaya mas nauunawaan mo pati
nararamdaman ng patient dail dito mas mataas ung chance na mas matulungan mo sia sa positive aspect as health care
provider.

Empathy skills enable the midwife to understand issues from the woman's perspective, empowering the woman for the
upcoming birth, increasing the likelihood of positive birth experience and overall well-being, strengthening vital parameters,
and enhancing pain management.

Empathy is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another person. It involves putting oneself in someone else's
shoes, seeing a situation from their perspective, and experiencing the emotions they are going through.

Sympathy is the ability to feel pity or sorrow for someone else's misfortune. It involves a recognition of another person's emotions and a
sense of compassion or concern for their well-being. Sympathy can be expressed through words, gestures, or actions that convey
understanding and a sense of caring.

8. When dealing with a pregnant mother, the midwife must remember that she respect and protect the right of:
a) the mother
b) the unborn child
c) both the mother and the unborn child.

9. When correcting a colleague who is doing something wrong, the midwife can reduce the negative reaction of the
colleague if she does it:
a) cordially -it is warms regards-Mainit na pagtanggap
b) tactfully
c) with a smile

manner in which someone communicates or behaves in a way that is considerate, sensitive, and avoids causing offense or
discomfort. When a person acts tactfully, they approach situations with diplomacy and skill, navigating potentially sensitive
or difficult matters with care. Ex. She tactfully addressed the issue without pointing fingers or assigning blame, fostering a
positive discussion among team members.

10. If one of your patients who has a history of difficult deliveries, seeks your help for an abortion, the best action that will be
within the ethico-legal boundaries of midwifery practice is:
a) refer her to an abortionist
b) insert a catheter into her uterus
c) explain to the woman the legal and moral implications of her plan

11. The term unprofessional conduct includes?

a) inability to perform duties
b) lack of knowledge and skills
c) violation of the code of ethics

12. Membership in IMAP is considered to be: Integrated Midwife Association of the Phil.Inc
a) open to all graduate midwives
b) compulsory because of LOI -1000
c) a voluntary decision of a registered midwife

13. A midwife wants to be member of IMA. It is an indication of her ethical obligation (Moral na responsibilidad)which is
stipulated in the:
a) RA 7392 - AN ACT REVISING REPUBLIC ACT NO. 2644, AS AMENDED, OTHERWISE KNOWN AS THE PHILIPPINE
MIDWIFERY AC
b) code of ethics for midwives
c) RA 7305 - THE MAGNA CARTA OF PUBLIC HEALTH WORKERS.

14. The President of IMAP when RA 7392 was approved:

a) Juana C. Reyes
b) Amparo S. Buenaventura
c) Cecilia B. Santos
The present president of IMAP in 2024 is Ms. Corazon L. Paras,RM ,BCHS
1st VP-Dionica L Saquilon,RM,MPA
2nd VP- Ms. Nelia S. Sarona , RM , BCHS

15. Before an organization like IMAP conducts its business meeting

a quorum is first established, this usually means that :
a) 50% of the member plus one are in attendance
b) 75% of the members agreed to attend
c) all the members of the organization are present

16. A practical science which investigates the nature origin, development and function of law :
a) jurisprudence - "Jurisprudence" refers to the study and theory of law, including the principles and theories used to
interpret and apply the law. It encompasses the philosophy of law, legal reasoning, and the understanding of legal concepts
b) legislation
c) police power of the state - police power refers to the capacity of states to regulate behavior and enforce order within their
territory for the safety, morals, and general welfare of their inhabitants

17. The new midwifery law was signed by the President Cory Aquino last:
a) January 10, 1992
b) March 10, 1992
c) April 10, 1992

18. the composition of the board of Midwifery includes : 1C.1RN,3M

a) one(1) chairman – obstetrician, one (1) registered Nurse midwife , three (3) registered midwives
b) one 91) chairman – obstetrician, 2registered Nurse –
midwives , two 92) registered midwives
c) four (4) registered midwives, one (1) chairman- obstetrician

19. Applicants to the Board of Midwifery are endorsed by their respective professional association which is accredited by the
PRC. They are appointed by:
a) Civil service Commissioner
b) PRC Commissioner
c) President of the Philippines

20. One of the differences between RA 2644 and RA 7392 is the term of office of the Board of midwifery, the term as per RA
7392 is:
a) 3 years with the reappointment
b) 3 years with a renewal
c) 3 years plus another year

RA-7392 Philippine Midwifery Act of 1992,

Republic Act (RA) 2644 has been repealed, and all laws, decrees, orders, instructions, rules, regulations, and other issuances
inconsistent with it have been repealed or amended. On the other hand, Republic Act 7392, also known as the Philippine
Midwifery Act of 1992, is a significant law that governs the practice of midwifery in the Philippines. It establishes the Board
of Midwifery as a collegial body responsible for regulating and supervising the practice of midwifery in the country
The Implementing Rules and Regulations (IRR) of RA 7392 provide detailed guidelines for the implementation of this law, ensuring the
proper practice of midwifery and safeguarding the welfare of women and families

21. When the Board of Midwifery promulgates rules and regulations to upgrade the practice of midwifery, this power is
called:
a) ministerial - refers to people, events, or jobs connected with government ministers
b) quasi-legislative
c) quasi-judicial - it means that it has powers akin to a court or judge in making decisions related to licensing, disciplinary
actions, and other regulatory matters within its jurisdiction.

The Board of Midwifery can be considered quasi-legislative in nature because it engages in activities that are legislative-like, although it is
not a legislative body itself. The Board of Midwifery makes rules and regulations that have the force of law, affecting the practice of
midwifery and the protection of the public

Quasi-legislative refers to the creation of rules and regulations it establishes education qualifications, sets standards for practice and
conduct, manages complaints, and deals with liability insurance and reimbursement issues

22. If the term of office of the member of the Board has already expired she can still continue to discharge her duties if there
is nobody appointed yet because of the principle of:
a) ad interin - is a Latin term that means "in the meantime" or "temporarily"- an officer ad interim is one appointed to fill a
temporary vacancy or to discharge the duties of an office during the absence or temporary incapacity of its regular
incumbent

b) hold over -Postponed/delay

c) tenure
derived from the Latin word "tenere" meaning "to hold," refers to the period of time a person holds a particular
job or office.

23. A member of the Board may be removed for:

a) dishonorable conduct
b) neglect of duty
c) both a and b
A member of the Board may be removed for dishonorable conduct and neglect of duty, among other reasons. Dishonorable
conduct may include unethical behavior, fraud, or other actions that violate the organization's code of conduct or bylaws.
Neglect of duty may include, not fulfilling responsibilities, or not acting in the best interest of the organization

24. Who of the following graduate midwives is allowed to take the Midwifery licensure examination?
a) midwife who submitted fraudulent documents – dishonesty/False docs
b) a midwife who graduated from a school of midwifery without government recognition
c) a midwife who submitted requirements as required and approved by PRC

25. Based on the new Midwifery law, a graduating midwife applying for the Board Examination must have handled deliveries
characterized as:
a) 10 assisted and 10 actual
b) 10 hospital and 10 home delivery
c) 20 actual deliveries in any setting

26. For an examinee to pass the Board Exam, she needs to have:
a) an average of 75% and above with no grade below 60% in any subject
b) an average of 75% and above with no grade below 50% in any subject
c) a grade of 70% and above in all her subjects

27. Passing the Board Examination will:

a) certify that the midwife has all the knowledge and skills needed and can go abroad
b) guarantee the public that the midwife will not commit any malpractice or negligence act
c) grant the midwife the privilege to practice the profession in the Philippines

28. The last official act which a graduate midwife has to do before being granted the license to practice the profession is:
a) submit the important school requirements
b) take the licensure examination
c) take the oath of professionals

29. A graduate midwife who passed the midwifery licensure examination can now secure professional license at the age of:
a) 18 years
b) 20 years
c) 21 years

30. An examinee who wants to appeal for reconsideration of her test within 90 days must:
a) ask a lawyer to represent her
b) send her letter to the chairman, Board of Midwifery
c) request the principal to write the Commissioner

31. A midwife who does not renew her professional license for five (5) years and above will be given notice by PRC
regarding:
a) delisting in the roster of professional midwives
b) surrender of the certificate of registration
c) revocation of her license

32. The PRC license is renewed every 3 years. The midwife needs
to submit proof of continuing education:
a) 15 hours
b) 10 hours
c) 45 hours
33. Continuing education program offered by private institutions to
the accredited by what agency?
a) DECS
b) Board of Midwifery
c) IMAp

34. If the PRC license expires on your birthday which is April

10,1997, you are expected t renew license on:
a) April 1-10, 1997
b) April 10 to May 10, 1997
c) April 10 to 30, 1997

35. The following are means by which a midwife can earn

continuing education credits:
a) teaching in a school of midwifery, conducting research
b) symposium, conference, convention
c) both a and b

36. As per RA 1080, a midwife who possess the Midwifery board exam will be considered :
a) first grade eligible
b) second grade eligible
c) career executive Officer

37. An examinee who fails in the board exam can:

a) take another exam only after one (1) year of refresher
course
b) request to be only conditioned if the grade in only one
subject is below 75%
c) repeat taking the exam until she passes

38. The license of the Midwife may be suspended or revoked if:

a) she did her duty as expected
b) she assisted the doctor in performing induced abortion
c) she performed by herself all the activities stated in the
scope of practice of a midwife

39. Which of the following is true about revocation of license?

a) a license once revoked cannot be re-issued again
b) a revoked license is automatically returned after two years
for the sake of justice
c) the revoked license may be re-issued if the cause for the revocation has been revoked or connected

40. The following are the requirements for the school of Midwifery to be recognized as duly accredited and legally
constituted
institution for midwifery training except:
a) permit form DOH
b) permit form DECS
c) the school shall have at least 50 maternity beds and affiliated with an accredited hospital

41. To upgrade the midwifery education. The RA 7392 has these

provisions except;
a) the faculty members must be at least a bachelor's degree
holder
b) the ratio of clinical instructor to students is 1:12
c) A RM can be assigned to the classroom if she has at least 1 year experience
AN ACT REVISING REPUBLIC ACT NO. 2644, AS AMENDED, OTHERWISE KNOWN AS THE PHILIPPINE
MIDWIFERY ACT

42. The present midwifery curriculum does not prepare the graduate
midwife to assume which position;
a) staff midwife
b) primary health care provider
c) supervising midwife

43. In order for a midwife to qualify as principal of a school of

midwifery she needs to have the following except:
a) registered midwife
b) master's degree holder
c) without teaching experience

44. The minimum qualifications needed by registered midwife to be

allowed to supervise midwifery students is:
a) she has at least 5 years in the area
b) she has completed 45 hours of continuing education
c) she has 2 years experience and training in the supervision of students

45. A newly registered midwife is best suited to:

a) teach in a midwifery school
b) work a a staff
c) open the ovum lying in clinic

46. The following are the fields of practice for midwifery EXCEPT:
a) governess or yaya of a pre-schooler
b) community health practice
c) institutional midwifery

47. Which of the following is not a trend in midwifery practice today?

a) rooming-in
b) breastfeeding
c) hospital delivery

48. When you are not sure of a doctor's order?

a) consult one of a midwives on the floor
b) clarify with the doctor concerned
c) go ahead and follow the order since it is signed

49. The midwife has been given new functions which includes the following Except:
a) injecting antibiotics to mothers
b) doing internal examination during labor
c) inserting intravenous fluid in case of obstetrical emergencies

50. Which of the following is not a traditional responsibility of the public health midwife?
a) rendering home care to tuberculosis patient
b) making record of her cases
c) conducting home visits to maternal and new born cases

51. Based on the expanded immunization program of DOH. The midwife is allowed to give immunization provided that:
a) she is ,employed by the DOH
b) she has been trained for it
c) both a and b

52. Allowed to attend home deliveries

a) a graduate midwife
b) a registered midwife
c) a traditional hilot

53. Which of the following cases is the midwife allowed to handle for home delivery ?
a) a segundi with regular AP check-up uncomplicated
pregnancy
b) a nullipara with regular AP check -up
c) primigravida with no complication

54. Who is qualified to supervise students midwives in the delivery Room?

a) RN who has worked in the DR for 2 years
b) RM who has topped the board exam
c) RM who has finished BSE and has worked in the DR for 2
years

55. The giving of exytoxin to a mother is allowed to be done by a midwife if the reason is:
a) to hasten labor and shorten the second stage
b) to prevent uterine bleeding after delivery of placenta
c) to improved the uterine contractions during labor
Oxytocin function aftr delivery:
 Uterine Contractions: Oxytocin stimulates the muscles of the uterus, causing contractions. This is particularly
important during labor and immediately after childbirth to help the uterus contract and return to its pre-pregnancy
size. These contractions also aid in preventing excessive bleeding after delivery.
 Stimulation of Milk Ejection: Oxytocin is essential for the let-down reflex, which is the release of milk from the
mammary glands during breastfeeding. It helps the smooth muscles surrounding the milk-producing cells to
contract, allowing milk to flow from the mammary glands into the milk ducts.
 Bonding and Maternal Behavior: Oxytocin is often referred to as the "bonding hormone" or "love hormone." It plays
a role in the formation of a strong emotional bond between the mother and her newborn. Oxytocin release during
childbirth and breastfeeding contributes to the development of maternal behaviors and facilitates the
establishment of a nurturing connection between the mother and the infant.
 Stress Reduction: Oxytocin has been associated with stress reduction. The hormone counteracts the effects of
cortisol, a stress hormone. Elevated oxytocin levels during and after childbirth may contribute to the calming and
stress-relieving effects experienced by some mothers.
 Regulation of Postpartum Mood: Oxytocin levels are thought to influence mood and emotional well-being. Some
studies suggest that oxytocin may play a role in reducing symptoms of postpartum depression and anxiety.

56. Before a registered midwife could suture perinea lacerations,

she must first:
a) check if there is an order
b) inform the supervising nurse or midwife
c) undergo a special training for it

57. A rural health midwife with 10 years of experience wants to

know if she can perform episiotomy:
a) she can now perform episiotomy
b) she can perform episiotomy if she has been properly trained for it
c) she cannot perform episiotomy because this function is outside the scope of midwifery practice
episiotomy is a surgical incision made in the perineum, which is the area between the vagina and the anus, during childbirth.
This incision is typically made to widen the vaginal opening and facilitate the delivery of the baby

58. After an internal examination you found out that the baby's foot comes first what is the right action to do:
a) refer the mother to the nearest hospital
b) proceed to deliver the baby
c) give oxytocin drug to the mother to hasten delivery

59. A midwife delivered an alive baby girl but died on the same day. She should file a certificate of:
a) birth
b) death
c) both a and b

60. Failure to report the birth/death will make the midwife liable for:
a) fine
b) imprisonment
c) both a and b

61. The doctrine followed in the Philippines in determining

citizenship by birth is:
a) hold-over
b) jus soli
c) jus saguinis
Jus soli" is a Latin term that translates to "right of the soil" in English. It refers to the principle of citizenship by place of
birth. According to jus soli, individuals acquire citizenship of a country by being born within its territorial limits, regardless
of the nationality of their parents. Ayon sa jus soli, ang mga tao ay nakakakuha ng citizenship ng isang bansa sa
pamamagitan ng pagiging isinilang sa loob ng teritoryal na hangganan nito, anuman ang nasyonalidad ng kanilang mga
magulang.

62. If a midwife is suspected for graft and corruption, she cannot be

immediately dismissed without proper investigation and hearing.
This is called:
a) preliminary investigation
b) due process
c) remedy
63. The correct action to do to a redness for the injury received is to:
a) file a lawsuit, against the person for damages
b) hire someone to take revenge for you
c) confront her and threatened her

64. In case of a civil offense, the complaint is filed by:

a) aggrieved party
b) defendant
c) people of the Philippines

An "aggrieved party" refers to an individual or entity that has suffered harm, loss, or injury due to the actions or decisions of another party.
This harm or injury could be a result of a violation of rights, breach of contract, negligence, or other wrongful acts.

65. If a midwife is injured by someone, she can sue the person in

court, if she files the lawsuit will be called:
a) respondent
b) plaintiff
c) defendant

A "plaintiff" is a party, either an individual or an entity (such as a company or organization), who initiates a legal action or lawsuit against
another party, known as the defendant. The plaintiff is the party that brings a complaint or charges against the defendant, seeking legal
remedies or compensation for alleged wrongs or damages.

66. If a midwife is summoned by the Board of Midwifery to give

testimony as a witness, the formal order is known as:
a) writ
b) subpoena
c) subpoena duces tecum
subpoena" is a legal document that commands an individual to appear in court as a witness or to produce certain documents,
records, or evidence relevant to a legal proceeding. It is a formal order issued by a court, an attorney, or another authorized
party. The term "subpoena" is derived from Latin, meaning "under penalty."

two main types of subpoenas:

1. Subpoena ad testificandum: This type of subpoena compels the recipient to appear and testify as a witness in a
legal proceeding. It requires the individual to provide testimony under oath.’ TESTIFY”
2. Subpoena duces tecum: This type of subpoena requires the recipient to produce specific documents, records, or
evidence relevant to a case. It combines a command to testify with a request for the production of documents.
“DOCUS-Documents)

67. When the Board of Midwifery issues a subpeona duces tecum to

a midwife this means that :
a) she must come personally to the hearing
b) she must answer the charges to the plaintiff
c) she must testify in the hearing and must bring some documents

68. If a midwife failed to teach a postpartum mother the proper

technique of perineal care and the mother gets puerperal
infection, the midwife is considered:
a) liable for malpractice
b) liable for reckless negligence
c) not liable

69. If a midwife prescribes a drug even if she used a generic name,

she is still guilty of:
a) incompetence
b) negligence
c) malpractice
Malpractice" refers to professional negligence or misconduct by a licensed professional, such as a doctor, lawyer,
accountant, or other professional service providers. It involves a failure to meet the standard of care expected in a particular
profession, resulting in harm or injury to a client, patient, or another party.

Medical malpractice is a common type of malpractice and occurs when a healthcare professional, such as a doctor or nurse,
fails to provide a standard of care that a reasonably skilled and competent professional in the same field would have provided
under similar circumstances. This failure to meet the standard of care can lead to injury, harm, or even death of the patient.
70. When a mother gets a third degree laceration during a home delivery and the midwife live the patient to call a physician,
the midwife can be guilty of:
a) negligence
b) malpractice
c) unprofessional conduct
negligence in medicine occurs when a healthcare provider deviates from the accepted standard of care, resulting
in harm to the patient.

Medical negligence cases often involve the following elements:

Duty of care: The healthcare professional owes a duty of care to the patient.
Breach of duty: The healthcare professional fails to meet the standard of care expected in a similar situation.
Causation: The breach of duty directly causes harm or injury to the patient.
Damages: The patient suffers measurable harm or damages as a result of the healthcare professional's actions or
lack thereof.

71. In which of the following will the midwife be excused from liability for an injury done?
a) you performed your duty well and the injury was just accidental
b) you had no intention of causing the injury
c) you reported immediately the injury

72. Which set is an example of mitigating circumferences?

a) above 70 years old, voluntary surrender
b) blindness, below 18 years
c) below 9 years, exercise four

Mitigating circumstances are factors that may be considered by a court or other authority to reduce the severity
of a punishment or sentence

In legal contexts, mitigating circumstances can include:

1. Lack of Criminal History: If the offender has a clean criminal record or a history of lawful behavior, it may be
considered a mitigating factor.
2. Remorse or Contrition: If the person shows genuine remorse (Pagsisis) or takes responsibility for their actions, it
can be seen as a mitigating circumstance.
3. Cooperation with Authorities: Willingness to cooperate with law enforcement or authorities during the
investigation and legal proceedings can be considered a mitigating factor.
4. Mental Health Issues: Mental health problems or disorders may be considered as mitigating circumstances, as they
could affect an individual's ability to make sound judgments
5. Duress or Coercion: If the person committed the act under duress or coercion, it might be considered a mitigating
factor.(Nagawa dahil Pinilit o tinakot)
6. Age or Immaturity: In some cases, particularly involving juveniles, the person's age or level of maturity might be
considered when determining the appropriate punishment.below 18 and above 70 years old.

73. A midwife steals the valuables of her patient, this is considered as:
a) mitigating circumstances
b) aggravating circumstances
c) exempting circumstances
Aggravating circumstances are factors that may increase the severity of an offense or the punishment imposed by a court.
These factors are considered during sentencing and can influence the decision to impose a more severe penalty. Aggravating
circumstances can vary depending on the jurisdiction and the type of offense,

1. Prior Criminal Record: A history of previous criminal convictions may be considered an aggravating factor.
Repeat offenders might face harsher penalties.

2. Severity of the Crime: The level of violence, harm, or damage caused by the offense can be an aggravating factor.
For example, a crime involving physical injury or death might be considered more serious.

3. Use of Weapons: If a weapon was used during the commission of the crime, it can be seen as an aggravating
factor. Crimes involving firearms or other dangerous weapons may lead to increased penalties.

4. Motivation or Intent: Certain motives or intents may aggravate a crime. For instance, crimes committed for
financial gain, hate crimes, or those committed with malicious intent may be treated more severely.

5. Victim Vulnerability: Crimes committed against particularly vulnerable individuals, such as children, the elderly,
or persons with disabilities, may be considered more serious.

6. Violation of Trust: If the offender was in a position of trust or authority and abused that trust, it could be
considered an aggravating factor.
 7. Committing a Crime While on Probation or Parole: Committing a new offense while already under probation or
parole may be viewed as an aggravating circumstance.

74. If a midwife is forced by someone to perform criminal abortion, the midwife will be?
a) exempted because she is being forced to do the act
against her will
b) justified because she has no choice but to do act
c) mitigated because she did not want to do the act
75. If the midwife has the knowledge of the crime and took part in the execution of the act, she is liable as:
a) principal of a crime
b) accessory before the fact
c) accessory after the fact
An "accessory" is a legal term that refers to a person who assists or contributes to the commission of a crime,
either before or after the crime has been committed. The legal concept of being an accessory can vary by
jurisdiction, but it generally involves someone who is not the primary perpetrator of the crime but plays a
supportive or contributory role.

There are two main types of accessories:

1. Accessory Before the Fact: This refers to someone who assists, encourages, or facilitates the commission of a
crime before it takes place. For example, someone who provides information, supplies, or helps plan a crime may
be considered an accessory before the fact.
2. Accessory After the Fact: This refers to someone who, with knowledge of the crime, helps the primary offender
avoid detection, arrest, or punishment. Providing shelter, hiding evidence, or assisting in the escape of the
perpetrator are examples of actions that could make someone an accessory after the fact.

76. A midwife who encourage a pregnant woman to commit abortion

by giving the complete address of the abortion is liable as:
a) principal of a crime
b) accomplice
c) accessory

the term "principal" refers to the primary individual who commits a crime. The principal is the person directly responsible for carrying out
the criminal act.
There are two main types of principals:

1. Principal in the First Degree: This is the person who directly commits the criminal act. They are the one who physically carries
out the actions that constitute the offense.

Principal in the Second Degree: This is a person who is not directly involved in committing the criminal act but is somehow associated with
or contributes to the commission of the crime. For example, someone who aids, abets, counsels, or encourages the principal in the first
degree may be considered a principal in the second

77. An infant got gangrene because the BCG immunization was

given intramuscular. The midwife will be liable for negligence
under the doctrine?
a) respondent superior
b) res ipsa loquitor
c) force majeure
BCG is Given Intradermal-Upper Part of the Left arm

"Res ipsa loquitur" is a Latin legal term that translates to "the thing speaks for itself" in English. It's a legal doctrine that
allows a presumption of negligence in certain types of cases where the very nature of the accident or injury suggests that
negligence is likely. In other words, the facts and circumstances surrounding the incident are so obvious that negligence can
be inferred without direct evidence.
Elements of res ipsa loquitor-
1. Not Ordinary Course of Things: Administering a vaccine intramuscularly in a way that leads to gangrene is not within the
ordinary course of things in a proper immunization procedure.
2. Under Defendant's Exclusive Control: The midwife is likely to have exclusive control over the administration of the vaccine, and
if the method used led to gangrene, it would be under her control.
Plaintiff Not Contributing to the Injury: The infant, being an infant, would not have contributed to the administration of the vaccine. The
responsibility for the procedure would typically lie with the healthcare professional

78. If a midwife fails to answer the delivery call because of high

fever, she can be exempted from liability because of:
a) res ipsa loquitor
b) force majeure
c) respondent superior
"Force majeure" is a legal term that refers to unforeseeable circumstances (di inaasahang Pangyyare)or events beyond the control of
parties involved in a contract, which may excuse them from fulfilling their contractual obligations. These events are often considered acts
of nature or "acts of God" and can include natural disasters, war, strikes, and other events that are unpredictable and uncontrollable

79. The doctrine of respondent superior will apply in a condition

where the midwife is;
a) performing a delegated responsibility
b) doing a discretionary function
c) doing an independent function
80. Which of the information is considered a privileged communication/
a) age, sex, height
b) diagnosis, treatment, prognosis
c) none of the above

"Privileged communication" refers to certain confidential and protected communications that are shielded from disclosure in
legal proceedings. When information is considered privileged, it means that the person who holds the privilege has the right
to refuse to disclose that information, and it cannot be compelled to be revealed in a court of law.

81. As a witness in a lawsuit, the midwife must always observed the principle of privileged communication, she can
divulge/reveal confidential information only in which case?
a) in all count cases
b) in civil cases
c) in criminal cases

82. Acting as a witness in the making of a will by a patient is:

a) a function of the midwife specified by law
b) a duty of the midwife whereby she can be sanctioned if she
refuses to do so
c) a voluntary act of the midwife which she cannot be
compelled to do
(means na ang pag witness niya ay ngsasabi na ito ay sarili niyan pasya o desistun at hindi siya puwedeng piliting gawin ito
ng laban sa kanyang kalooban

83. For a testator to be qualified to make a will she must :

a) be dying
b) have good physical health
c) have testamentary capacity

"Testamentary capacity" refers to a person's mental and legal ability to make or alter a valid will. (Kakayahan o
kaaalamang legal ng isang tao na gumawa o baguhin ang isang huling habilin.

84. If a midwife keeps the baby of a patient who delivered in her private lying-in clinic because the mother cannot pay the
bills,
she can be held liable for:
a) false imprisonment
b)
"False imprisonment" refers to the unlawful and intentional restraint or restriction of a person's freedom of movement
against their will, without legal justification or authority. This can involve physical restraint or the use of threats, coercion, or
intimidation to confine someone without their consent.

Key elements of false imprisonment include:

1. Intentional Restraint: There must be an intentional act by the perpetrator to restrict the freedom of movement of another
person.
2. Unlawful Restraint: The restraint must be done without legal justification or authority. If someone is confined based on a legal
authority, such as a lawful arrest, it may not be considered false imprisonment.
3. Against the Person's Will: The person being confined must not have given their consent to the restraint, and they must want to
be free from the confinement.

85. A midwife who performed an abortion to a mother was penalized for 4 to 6 years of imprisonment, the kind of crime is
considered as :
a) light felony
b) lass grave felony
c) grave felony
"Grave felony" is a term that generally refers to a serious or major criminal offense. The term " grave" is often used to
indicate the severity or gravity of the crime.
Classifications:
 1. Infraction/Offense: Minor violations often punishable by fines rather than imprisonment.
2. Misdemeanor: Less serious offenses that may result in a limited jail term or fines.
3. Felony: More serious crimes, often categorized further into degrees or classes. A "grave felony" would typically refer to a felony
of significant severity.

86. A midwife should know that the right of the unborn child to life is protected under the 1987constitution, specifically.
a) Article II section II
b) Article II Section 12
c) Article II section 15
Article II, Section 12 of the 1987 Constitution of the Republic of the Philippines states that "The State
recognizes the sanctity of family life and shall protect and strengthen the family as a basic autonomous social
institution." goal nito na protektahan at palakasin ang pamilya bilang isang independent na institution, para mammaintain
yung pagiging matatag na pamilya sa lipunan.

87. The killing of child less than 3 days old

a) homicide
b) parricide
c) infanticide
"Infanticide" refers to the act of intentionally causing the death of an infant, typically within the first year of their life.

neonaticide" may be used to specifically refer to the killing of a newborn within the first 24 hours of life

88. A midwife was heard heard saying that a doctor was incompetent. The doctor decided to sue the midwife for:
a) slander
b) perjury
c) libel
"Slander" refers to the act of making false spoken statements that harm the reputation of another person. Slander is a form of
defamation, which involves the communication of false statements that damage the reputation of an individual or entity

Key elements of slander typically include:

1. False Statement: The spoken statement must be false, as truth is generally a defense against a defamation claim.
2. Harmful to Reputation: The false statement must harm the reputation of the person about whom it is made.
3. Publication to a Third Party: The false statement must be communicated to a third party, someone other than the
speaker and the person being spoken about.
4. Negligence or Intent: Depending on the jurisdiction, there may be a requirement to show either negligence or
actual intent to harm

89. The following are essential elements of a valid contract except:

a) voluntary consent
b) presence of witness
c) lawful object

The seven essential elements of a valid contract are:

1. Offer - One of the parties made a promise to do or refrain from doing some specified action in the future.
2. Acceptance - presence of witness Kailangang magkaroon ng pagsang-ayon mula sa kabilang partido sa alok.
3. Consideration - Dapat may kapalit na ibinibigay ang bawat partido sa kontrata.
4. Intention to Create Legal Relations - Dapat ipakita ng kontrata ang hangarin ng bawat partido na lumikha ng legal
na ugnayan.
5. Certainty - Ang mga termino ng kontrata ay dapat malinaw at tiyak.
6. Capacity - Ang bawat partido sa kontrata ay dapat may legal na kakayahang pumasok sa kasunduan.
7. Legality - lawful object .Ang layunin ng kontrata ay dapat legal at hindi labag sa batas.

90. When a midwife and a patient verbally agree that the midwife will handle the home delivery for a fee, this kind of
agreement is:
a) formal contract
b) implied contract
c) expressed contract
is a type of contract in which the terms and conditions are explicitly stated, either verbally or in writing, by the parties involved. In an
express contract, the parties clearly communicate their intentions about the terms and obligations.

Sa isang express contract, malinaw na ipinaabot ng isang party yung intention, at ano ano yung mga obligasyon o mga terms in condition
ng both parties\.

91. Verbal contract are:

a) null and void
b) not valid because they are not written
c) enforceable under the law
92. The government agency directly concerned with Filipino workers
abroad is:
a) POEA
b) DFA
c) OWWA
Philippine Overseas Employment Administration. The POEA is an agency of the Philippine government responsible for
regulating and overseeing the deployment of Filipino workers abroad.

93. If a midwife working abroad loses her passport she should:

a) get a new one from the nearest Philippine embassy
b) not yet worried since she still has a visa
c) come home to the Philippines and apply again
94. When resigning from a job, the appropriate behavior of a
professional midwife is:
a) to request the staff nurse to inform head nurse
b) to file a letter of resignation immediately effective that day
c) to submit a letter of resignation at least 30 days before due
date
95. According to the labor code, a midwife working in a private
hospital is entitled to maternity leave benefit:
a) 45 days not including Sundays and holidays
b) 45 working days
c) 45 days inclusive of Sundays and holidays
96. RA 6111 provides that a midwife who is a single can have a
dependent :
a) parent who are 60 years and above and no longer working
b) parent 50 years and above
c) a brother / sister who is physically handicapped
97. A midwife employed in the DOH earned and annual income of
38,000 she is required to pay the following taxes except:
a) community tax of 38.00
b) professional tax 50.00
c) withholding tax of 10
98. A midwife who is single with qualified dependents to personal
tax exemption of:
a) 9,000.00
b) 12,000
c) 18,000
99. Income tax returns should be filed by every good citizen of the
Philippines not later than:
a) Jan 15 every year
b) march 15 every year
c) April 15, every year
100.
In the new family code, the child born of an illegitimate
relationship should be registered using:
a) the surname of the father
b) the surname of the mother
c) the surname of the father if he gives consent