CHEMISTRY

REMEDIAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND
EXPLANATIONS (2015)
1.Which one of the following postulates of Dalton’s atomic theory
was INCORRECT according to the modern atomic theory?
A. All atoms of a given element are identical in mass and in all
other properties.
B. Compounds are formed when atoms of more than one element
combine.
C. Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in chemical reactions
D. All elements are made up of small particles called atoms.
1. Answer A. All atoms of a given element are identical in mass and
in all other properties.
John Dalton's atomic theory, proposed in the early 19th century,
was foundational for modern chemistry. However, subsequent
discoveries have shown that some of Dalton's postulates need
refinement.
1.Isotopes: - Dalton believed that all atoms of a given element
were identical in mass and properties. However, the discovery of
isotopes revealed that this is not true.
- Isotopes are variants of a particular chemical element which
differ in neutron number, and consequently in mass number.
- For example, carbon has two stable isotopes: Carbon-12 and
Carbon-13. Both have 6 protons (which makes them carbon), but
Carbon-12 has 6 neutrons, while Carbon-13 has 7 neutrons..
 This difference in neutron number gives them different atomic
masses.
2. Subatomic Particles: - Dalton's model did not account for the
existence of subatomic particles (protons, neutrons, and
electrons).
● Modern atomic theory includes these particles and their roles
in defining the properties and behavior of atoms
2. Which of the following statement is FALSE about the
discoveries of the fundamental subatomic particles and the
nucleus?
A. J.J. Thomson discovered an electron, a negatively charged
particle that is found in all matter.
B. Ernest Rutherford discovered the nucleus, a small, dense and
positive bundle of matter.
C. Robert Millikan determined the charge-to-mass ratio of an
electron, using the oil drop experiment.
D. James Chadwick discovered the neutrons, an electrically neutral
particle of a mass approximately equal to that of the proton
2. ANSWER C. Robert Millikan determined the charge-to-mass ratio
of an electron, using the oil drop experiment.

✅ Robert Millikan's Oil Drop Experiment actually determined the

charge of an electron, not the charge-to-mass ratio.

Let's look at the other statements:

A. J.J. Thomson discovered an electron, a negatively charged

particle that is found in all matter. This is TRUE. Thomson's
cathode ray tube experiment led to the discovery of the electron.
B. Ernest Rutherford discovered the nucleus, a small, dense and
positive bundle of matter. This is TRUE. Rutherford's gold foil
experiment demonstrated the existence of the nucleus.
 D. James Chadwick discovered the neutrons, an electrically
neutral particle of a mass approximately equal to that of the
proton. This is TRUE. Chadwick's experiments with beryllium led to
the discovery of the neutron.

In summary: While Robert Millikan's oil drop experiment was a

crucial step in understanding the electron, it was the charge of the
electron that was determined, not the charge-to-mass ratio.
3.If two atoms have the same mass number, but different atomic
number, which of the following is necessary TRUE?
A. They must be of atoms of the same element.
B. They must have the same number of protons and neutrons.
C. The number of protons on each atom is the same.
D. The number of neutrons for both atoms is the same.
3. Answer is D. The number of neutrons for both atoms is the
same.
Mass Number: The mass number represents the total number
of protons and neutrons in an atom's nucleus.
Atomic Number: The atomic number represents the number of
protons in an atom's nucleus.
✅ If two atoms have the same mass number but different atomic
numbers, this means:
👉They have a different number of protons (since the atomic
number defines the number of protons).
👉To maintain the same mass number, they must have a different
number of neutrons to compensate for the difference in protons.
 Chemical Properties: While isotopes of an element have nearly
identical chemical properties because chemical behavior is largely
determined by the electron configuration (which is the same for
isotopes of an element), there can be slight differences in
reaction rates or physical properties due to differences in mass
- Therefore, the statement that "all atoms of a given element are
identical in mass and in all other properties" is not accurate in
light of modern atomic theory. The discovery of isotopes and the
understanding of subatomic particles provide a more nuanced view
of atomic structure.
4. Which of the following is FALSE about the periodic properties of
two elements and their accurate explanations?
A. The atomic size of Ca is greater than Mg because Ca has one more
shell than Mg.
B. The atomic size of Si is smaller than Al because the effective
nuclear charge of Al is larger than Si.
C. The electronegativity of S is greater than P because the effective
nuclear charge of S is larger than
P and S atomic size is smaller than P.
D. The first ionization energy of S is smaller than Al because
removing electron from S is easier than Al as this removes electron
repulsions build up in S.
4. Answer B. The atomic size of Si is smaller than Al because the
effective nuclear charge of Al is larger than Si.
A. The atomic size of Ca is greater than Mg because Ca has one
more shell than Mg.
This statement is true. Calcium (Ca) has an atomic number of 20 and
magnesium (Mg) has an atomic number of 12. Calcium is in period 4,
while magnesium is in period 3. Therefore, calcium has one more
electron shell than magnesium, making its atomic size larger.
B. The atomic size of Si is smaller than Al because the effective
nuclear charge of Al is larger than Si.
This statement is false. Silicon (Si) and aluminum (Al) are in the
same period (period 3), with Si to the right of Al.
5. The maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted from
a metal is 1.03 × 10–19 J when light that has a 656 nm wavelength
shines on the surface. Determine the wavelength corresponding to
the threshold frequency for this metal. (h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js, and c
= 3.00 ×1010 cm/s)
A. 993 nm B. 844 nm C. 658 nm D. 350 nm
6. Answer B The subsidiary quantum number (l) describes the
orientation of the orbitals and its values range from 0 to (n – 1
A. The principal quantum number (n) describes the energy of the
orbitals in which the lower its value, the greater is the energy.
- This statement is false. The principal quantum number n
describes the energy level of an orbital, and the energy of an orbital
increases with increasing ( n ). Thus, the higher the value of n , the
greater the energy.
B. The subsidiary quantum number (l) describes the orientation of
the orbitals and its values range from 0 to (n – 1).
- This statement is false. The subsidiary quantum number, also
known as the azimuthal or angular momentum quantum number,
describes the shape of the orbitals, not their orientation. Its values
indeed range from 0 to n-1 .
C. The magnetic quantum number (ml) describes the shape of
orbitals and its values range from –l through 0 to +l.
 This statement is false. The magnetic quantum number 𝑚𝑙
describes the orientation of the orbitals in space, not their
shape. Its values range from −𝑙 to +𝑙, including zero.
D. The spin quantum number (ms) describes the electron spin and
it gives an electron a magnetic property.
This statement is true. The spin quantum number 𝑚𝑠 describes
the intrinsic spin of the electron, which can have values of +1/2or
−1/2. This quantum number does indeed give the electron its
magnetic property.
Therefore, the correct statement is:
D. The spin quantum number (ms) describes the electron spin and
it gives an electron a magnetic property.
 7, Which one of the following is the correct sequence that
represents the development of atomic models from
the earliest view up to the modern view?
A. Dalton’s Model, Thomson’s Model, Rutherford’s Model, Bohr’s
Model, and the Quantum Mechanical Model.
B. Thomson’s Model, Dalton’s Model, Rutherford’s Model, Bohr’s Model,
and the Quantum Mechanical Model.
C. Rutherford’s Model, Bohr’s Model, Thomson’s Model, Dalton’s Model,
and the Quantum Mechanical Model.
D. Quantum Mechanical Model, Bohr’s Model, Rutherford’s Model,
Thomson’s Model, and Dalton’s Model.
7. Answer A. Dalton’s Model, Thomson’s Model, Rutherford’s
Model, Bohr’s Model, and the Quantum Mechanical Model.
👉 Explanation of each model in the correct chronological order:
1. Dalton’s Model: Proposed by John Dalton in the early 19th
century, this model suggested that atoms are indivisible particles
that make up all matter. Each element is composed of identical
atoms, and atoms of different elements differ in mass and
properties.
2. Thomson’s Model: Proposed by J.J. Thomson in 1897, this model,
also known as the "plum pudding model," suggested that the atom is
a sphere of positive charge with negatively charged electrons
embedded within it.
3.. Rutherford’s Model: Proposed by Ernest Rutherford in 1911,
this model introduced the nuclear model of the atom, where a
dense, positively charged nucleus is surrounded by electrons that
orbit the nucleus. This model was based on the gold foil
experiment.
4.Bohr’s Model: Proposed by Niels Bohr in 1913, this model
suggested that electrons travel in fixed orbits around the nucleus
with quantized energy levels. Electrons can jump between energy
levels by absorbing or emitting specific amounts of energy.
5.Quantum Mechanical Model: Developed in the 1920s and 1930s
by several scientists, including Schrödinger and Heisenberg, this
model describes the atom in terms of probabilities rather than
fixed orbits. Electrons are found in atomic orbitals, which are
regions of space around the nucleus where there is a high
probability of finding an electron.
8. Which one of the following statement is FALSE regarding the
formation of chemical bond?
A. A chemical bond is an intramolecular force of attraction that
holds atoms together and can affect the
chemical properties of the species.
B. When atoms interact to form a chemical bond, they attain lower
potential energy states as compared
to their respective individual atoms.
C. A chemical bond could be ionic, covalent, and metallic bonds.
D. A chemical bond is formed by losing, gaining or sharing of protons.
8. Answer D. A chemical bond is formed by losing, gaining or
sharing of protons.
A. Chemical bond is an intramolecular force of attraction that holds
atoms together and can affect the chemical properties of the
species.
This statement is true. A chemical bond indeed is an intramolecular
force that holds atoms together, significantly affecting the
chemical properties of the molecule or compound formed.
B. When atoms interact to form a chemical bond, they attain lower
potential energy states as compared to their respective individual
atoms.
This statement is true. Atoms form chemical bonds to achieve more
stable, lower potential energy states than they possess as individual
atoms.
C. A chemical bond could be ionic, covalent, and metallic bonds.
This statement is true. The main types of chemical bond are
ionic bonds (involving the transfer of electrons), covalent bonds
(involving the sharing of electrons), and metallic bonds (involving a
'sea' of delocalized electrons).
D. A chemical bond is formed by losing, gaining or sharing of
protons.
This statement is false. Chemical bonds are formed by the
losing, gaining, or sharing of electrons, not protons. Protons are
located in the nucleus and do not participate in the formation of
chemical bonds.
Thus, the false statement is:
D. A chemical bond is formed by losing, gaining or sharing of
protons.
9. Which of the following is TRUE about the physical states of
matter?
A. Liquid particles are easy to compress and have high density as
compared to gases.
B. A solid has a definite volume, but does not have a definite shape.
C. A gas has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
D. A liquid has a definite shape and a definite volume.
9. Answer C. A gas has neither a definite shape nor a definite
volume
A. Liquid particles are easy to compress and have high density
as compared to gases.
This statement is false. Liquid particles are not easy to compress;
they are relatively incompressible due to their high density
compared to gases. Gases, on the other hand, are easily
compressible because their particles are far apart.
B. A solid has a definite volume, but does not have a definite
shape.
This statement is false. A solid has both a definite volume and a
definite shape. The particles in a solid are closely packed in a fixed
arrangement, giving it a fixed shape.
C. A gas has neither a definite shape nor a definite volume.
This statement is true. A gas does not have a definite shape
or volume. It takes the shape and volume of its container, as its
particles move freely and are widely spaced.
D. A liquid has a definite shape and a definite volume.
This statement is false. A liquid has a definite volume but does
not have a definite shape. It takes the shape of its container
while maintaining a constant volume.
10.According to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR)
model, the electron pair arrangement of
SF2 is ____________?
A. Linear
B. Tetrahedron
C. Bent or V-shape
D. Trigonal bipyramidal
11. Which one of the following is the correct order of increasing F–
A–F bond angles in the following Afn species?
A. CF4 < BeF2< OF2 < NF3 < BF3
B. OF2 < NF3 < CF4 < BF3 < BeF2
C. CF4 < BF3 < OF2 < NF3 < BeF2
D. OF2 < NF3 < BeF2 < BF3 < CF4
12. Which one of the following assumptions of the kinetic molecular
theory of gases is suitable to explain the pressure created by gases
in a sealed container?
A. The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas.
B. The volume of the particles is negligible compared to the total
volume of the gas.
C. The particles are in a state of constant, continuous, rapid, and
random motion.
D. The attractive forces between gas particles are negligible
12. Answer C The particles are in a state of constant, continuous,
rapid, and random motion.
The kinetic molecular theory of gases includes several
assumptions to explain the behavior of gases. To explain the
pressure created by gases in a sealed container, the relevant
assumption is related to the motion of the gas particles.
Explanation:
Pressure in a gas: Pressure is created by gas particles colliding with
the walls of the container. These collisions exert force on the
walls, which results in pressure.
Option A: "The average kinetic energy of the gas molecules is
directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the gas."
This explains the relationship between temperature and kinetic
energy but does not directly address how pressure is created.
Option B: "The volume of the particles is negligible compared to the total
volume of the gas."
This assumption addresses the idea that the actual space occupied by
gas molecules is very small compared to the space in which they move.
It does not directly explain the creation of pressure.
Option C: "The particles are in a state of constant, continuous, rapid, and
random motion."
This assumption directly explains that gas particles are constantly
moving and colliding with the walls of the container, creating pressure.
This is the key idea that explains how pressure is created in a gas.
Option D: "The attractive forces between gas particles are negligible."
This assumption ensures that gas particles move independently of each
other, but it does not directly explain the creation of pressure.
13. .Which of the following liquid pairs shows a positive deviation
from Raoult’s law?
A. Octane, chloroform B. Benzene, methanol
C. Ethanol, water D. Water, nitric acid
14. The density of a gas at a pressure of 1.34 atm and a temperature
of 303 K is found to be 1.77 g/L. What is the molar mass of this
gas? (R = 0.0821 L atm K −1 mol −1)
A. 2.12 g/mol B. 14.67 g/mol C. 18.72 g/mol D. 32.86 g/mol
15. The rate of dissolution, the speed with which a solute goes into
solution, is largely dependent upon
A. Agitation or mixing
B. The inter-particle forces
C. The surface area of the solid solute
D. The temperature and the pressure of the system
14. Answer B. Benzene and Methanol

Positive Deviation from Raoult’s Law

A positive deviation occurs when the interactions between the
molecules of different components in the mixture are weaker than
the interactions between the molecules of the same component. This
results in a higher vapor pressure than predicted by Raoult’s law
because the molecules escape more easily into the vapor phase.
Octane and Chloroform
─ Octane (nonpolar) and chloroform (polar with hydrogen bonding).
The interactions between octane and chloroform will be weaker than
the interactions within each pure component (since octane cannot
hydrogen bond with chloroform).
●Likely to show positive deviation.
Benzene and Methanol
● Benzene (nonpolar) and methanol (polar with hydrogen bonding).
The interactions between benzene and methanol will be weaker
than the interactions within each pure component.
Likely to show positive deviation.
Ethanol and Water
◆ Both ethanol and water are polar and can form hydrogen
bonds.
◆ The interactions between ethanol and water are quite strong due
to hydrogen bonding.
▶ Likely to show negative deviation due to strong interactions.
 Water and Nitric Acid
Both are polar and can form strong hydrogen bonds.
The interactions between water and nitric acid are strong.
◉ Likely to show negative deviation due to strong interactions.
Based on the analysis, the liquid pairs that show positive
deviation from Raoult’s law are those where the intermolecular
interactions between different components are weaker than the
interactions within the same component. The most likely pair to
exhibit positive deviation is:
B. Benzene and Methanol
 15. Answer C The surface area of the solid solute
The rate of dissolution, which refers to how quickly a solute dissolves in
a solvent, is influenced by several factors. Let's examine each option:

A. Agitation or mixing:
Agitation or stirring helps distribute the solute particles throughout the
solvent, increasing the rate of dissolution by bringing fresh solvent into
contact with the solute.
B. The inter-particle forces:
The nature of the forces between solute and solvent particles affects
how easily the solute dissolves. Strong attractive forces between solute
and solvent will enhance dissolution.
C. The surface area of the solid solute:
Increasing the surface area of the solute (e.g., by grinding it into smaller
particles) increases the rate of dissolution because more solute particles
are exposed to the solvent.
The temperature and the pressure of the system:

Temperature generally increases the rate of dissolution for solids

and liquids because higher temperatures provide more kinetic
energy, facilitating interactions between solute and solvent
particles. For gases, higher pressure increases the rate of
dissolution.
All these factors affect the rate of dissolution, but the question
asks for what it is "largely dependent upon." Since multiple factors
significantly impact the rate of dissolution, a combination of them
should be considered. However, if we have to select one that is
most commonly manipulated in practical situations to increase the
rate of dissolution, The surface area of the solid solute:
16. At constant pressure, by what fraction of its volume will a
quantity of gas change if the temperature changes
from -173 °C to 27 °C?
A. Halved B. Doubled C. Tripled D. No change in volume
17. . A solution is made by dissolving 13.5 g of glucose, C6H12O6, in
0.100 kg of water. What is the mass
percentage of solute in this solution?
A. 35.1%
B. 13.5%
C. 10.0%
D. 11.9%
18. A sample of commercial concentrated hydrochloric acid is 11.8 M
HCl and has a density of 1.190 g/mL.What is the molal concentration
of HCl?
A. 9.92 m B. 15.5 m C. 0.362 m D. 0.567 m
19. Which one of the following molecule contains a triple bond?
A. CO2 B. O2 C. N2 D. F2
20. Which of the following compound contains a central atom short
of electrons to full fill the octet rule?
A. H2O B. BF3 C. CO2 D. NH3
21. How many lone pairs of electrons are present in the central atom
of Xenon tetra fluoride, XeF4, molecule?
A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 2
18. Answer B. 15.5 m

◉ To find the molal concentration (m) of HCl in the commercial

concentrated hydrochloric acid, we need to follow these steps:
◉ Determine the mass of 1 liter of the solution:
◉ Density=1.190g/mL
◉ Since density is mass per volume and there are 1000 mL in 1
liter:
Mass of 1 L of solution=1.190g/mL×1000 mL=1190g
Calculate the mass of HCl in 1 liter of the solution:
Molarity (M)=11.8M
 Molarity is moles per liter, so:
Moles of HCl in 1 L=11.8 moles
The molar mass of HCl is approximately:
Molar mass of HCl=1.01(H)+ 35.45(Cl)=36.46g/mol
Thus, the mass of HCl in 1 liter of solution is:
Mass of HCl= 11.8moles×36.46g/mol= 430.628g
Calculate the mass of the solvent (water) in 1 liter of the solution:
Mass of solution=1190g
Mass of solvent= Mass of solution−Mass of HCl=
1190g−430.628g=759.372g
Convert the mass of the solvent to kilograms:
Mass of solvent (water)=759.372g×1kg/1000g=0.759372kg
Calculate the molal concentration (m):
Molality (m) is defined as moles of solute per kilogram of solvent:
Molality= Moles of solute/Mass of solvent in kg
=11.8moles/0.759372kg
Therefore, the molal concentration of HCl in the solution is
approximately 15.53m
 19. Answer C N2 (Nitrogen molecule):
A. CO2 (Carbon dioxide): The structure of CO2 is O=C=O,
where carbon is double-bonded to each oxygen atom. Thus, it has
no triple bonds.
B. O2 (Oxygen molecule): The O2 molecule has a double bond
between the two oxygen atoms (O=O). Therefore, it does not
contain a triple bond.
C. N2 (Nitrogen molecule): The N2 molecule has a triple bond
between the two nitrogen atoms (N≡N). This molecule contains a
triple bond.
D. F2 (Fluorine molecule): The F2 molecule has a single bond
between the two fluorine atoms (F-F). Therefore, it does not
contain a triple bond.
20. Answer B BF3 (Boron trifluoride):
A. H2O (Water): The central atom is oxygen, which has 6 valence
electrons. It forms two single bonds with hydrogen atoms and has two
lone pairs, fulfilling the octet rule (8 electrons around oxygen).
B. BF3 (Boron trifluoride): The central atom is boron, which has 3
valence electrons. It forms three single bonds with fluorine atoms. This
gives boron a total of 6 electrons around it, which is short of the octet
rule. Boron is an exception to the octet rule and is stable with only 6
electrons.
C. CO2 (Carbon dioxide): The central atom is carbon, which has 4
valence electrons. It forms two double bonds with two oxygen atoms,
fulfilling the octet rule (8 electrons around carbon).
D. NH3 (Ammonia): The central atom is nitrogen, which has 5 valence
electrons. It forms three single bonds with hydrogen atoms and has one
lone pair, fulfilling the octet rule (8 electrons around nitrogen).
21. Answer D 2
Determine the number of valence electrons in xenon (Xe):
Xenon is in Group 18 of the periodic table, so it has 8 valence
electrons.
Determine the number of electrons contributed by the fluorine
atoms:
Each fluorine atom contributes 1 electron for the bond. Since there
are 4 fluorine atoms, they contribute a total of 4 electrons.
Total number of electrons to be arranged around the xenon atom:
Total electrons=8(from Xe)+4(from 4 F atoms)=12 electrons
 ◆ Determine the bonding pairs of electrons:
− There are 4 single bonds in XeF4, each containing 2 electrons.
− Bonding electrons= 4 bonds ×2 electrons per bond = 8electrons
◊ Calculate the remaining electrons:
Remaining electrons= 12 total electrons − 8 bonding electrons =4
○ Determine the number of lone pairs:
● Each lone pair consists of 2 electrons. Therefore, 4 electrons
form 2 lone pairs.
● Number of lone pairs= 4 electrons/2 electrons per lone pair=2
lone pairs
22. What is the name of the metal if the electron configuration of
its cation, M3+, is [Ar] 3d2 ?
A. Calcium B. Chromium C. Vanadium D. Manganese
22. Answer C. Vanadium
23. Answer C. KMnO4 is reduced, and KI is oxidized
24. When this reaction equation is balanced to the smallest whole
number coefficients, the sum of all the coefficients is
A. 41 B. 31 C. 21 D. 11
25. How many grams of KMnO4 are needed to make 500 mL of 0.250
N solutions?
A. 5.92 g B. 3.95 g C. 1.98 g D. 1.49 g
26. How many moles of KI (molar mass KI = 166 g/mol) is required to
react with 1.0 mole of KMnO4 (molar mass KMnO4 = 158 g/mol)?
A. 10 B. 15 C. 1 D. 5
27. How many grams of iodine (molar mass I2 = 253.8 g/mol) are
produced if 0.79 g of KMnO4 (molar mass KMnO4 = 158 g/mol reacts
with 1.7 g of KI (molar mass KI = 166 g/mol)?
A. 5.27 g B. 7.17 g C. 1.27 g D. 3.17 g
25. Answer B 3.95g
26. Answer D. 5
27. Answer
◆ To determine how many grams of iodine are produced, we need
to follow these steps:
1.Determine the limiting reagent.
2. Calculate the moles of the limiting reagent.
3. Use stoichiometry to find the moles of iodine produced.
4. Convert the moles of iodine to grams.
28. Which substance is the limiting reactant?
A. KMnO4 B. KI C. I2 D. MnSO4
29. How many grams of the reactant remain unreacted?
A. 0.47 g B. 1.15 g C. 0.32 g D. 0.62 g
30. Which of the following is TRUE about the factors that affect
the rate of a chemical reaction?
A. A catalyst always speeds up the rate of a reaction.
B. As temperature increases, the rate of reaction decreases.
C. As surface area of reactants decreases, the rate of a reaction
increases.
D. As concentration of a reactant increases, the rate of the reaction
increases except for zero-order
reactions.
28, Answer B KI
To determine the limiting reactant, we need to compare the
amounts of each reactant given in the problem with the
stoichiometric requirements of the balanced equation.
The balanced chemical equation is:
The stoichiometric ratio from the balanced equation is:
2KMnO4:10KI
This can be simplified to: 1KMnO4:5KI
Now, we need to determine the stoichiometric amounts of each
reactant:
For 0.005 moles of KMnO4, we need: 0.005 mol×5=0.025 mol
 We only have 0.01024 moles of KI, which is less than the 0.025
moles required. Therefore, KI is the limiting reactant.
Thus, the limiting reactant is KI.
30. Answer D As concentration of a reactant increases, the rate
of the reaction increases except for zero-order reactions.
● A catalyst always speeds up the rate of a reaction.
This statement is true. Catalysts work by lowering the activation
energy required for the reaction to proceed, thereby increasing
the rate of the reaction. While catalysts generally speed up
reactions, they do not affect the equilibrium position of the
reaction.
B. As temperature increases, the rate of reaction decreases.
This statement is false. Increasing the temperature typically
increases the rate of a chemical reaction. This is because higher
temperatures provide more energy to the reacting molecules,
increasing their kinetic energy and the number of effective
collisions.
 C. As surface area of reactants decreases, the rate of a
reaction increases.
This statement is false. A decrease in the surface area of
reactants generally decreases the rate of reaction. More surface
area allows more reactant particles to be exposed and available
for collisions, increasing the reaction rate.
D. As concentration of a reactant increases, the rate of the
reaction increases except for zero-order reactions.
This statement is true. For most reactions, an increase in the
concentration of reactants increases the rate of reaction because
there are more particles available to collide and react. However, in
zero-order reactions, the rate of reaction is independent of the
concentration of reactants.
Therefore, the correct answer is: D
31. Which of the following is FALSE about a reaction at equilibrium?
A. The system is dynamic in nature.
B. The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are necessarily
equal.
C. The concentrations of reactants and products are necessarily
equal.
D. The state of equilibrium remains the same if there is no change
in the external conditions
31. Answer C The concentrations of reactants and products are
necessarily equal
A. The system is dynamic in nature.
This statement is true. At equilibrium, the forward and reverse
reactions continue to occur, but their rates are equal, so there is
no net change in the concentrations of reactants and products.
This dynamic balance is a characteristic of chemical equilibrium.
B. The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are necessarily
equal.
This statement is true. At equilibrium, the rate of the forward
reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction, which is why the
concentrations of reactants and products remain constant.
 C. The concentrations of reactants and products are necessarily
equal.
This statement is false. At equilibrium, the concentrations of
reactants and products are not necessarily equal; they are
constant but can be different from each other. The actual
concentrations depend on the reaction and the equilibrium
constant.
D. The state of equilibrium remains the same if there is no
change in the external conditions.
This statement is true. If external conditions (such as
temperature, pressure, and concentration) remain unchanged, the
equilibrium position will also remain unchanged.
32. Which one of the following factor affects the value of
equilibrium constant of a chemical reaction?
A. Catalysts
B. Temperature
C. Concentration of reactant or product
D. Pressure of gaseous reactants and products
33. What is the effect of the addition of sodium acetate to an
aqueous solution of acetic acid?
A. Has no effect on the pH of the solution
B. It may increase or decrease its pH
C. It increases its pH
D. It decreases its pH
32. Answer C
The equilibrium constant (𝐾) of a chemical reaction is affected
by certain factors,
A. Catalysts
Catalysts do not affect the value of the equilibrium constant.
They speed up both the forward and reverse reactions equally,
thus helping the system reach equilibrium faster, but they do not
change the position of equilibrium itself.
B. Temperature
This is the correct answer. The equilibrium constant is
dependent on temperature. Changes in temperature can alter the
rates of the forward and reverse reactions differently, leading
to a new equilibrium position and thus a new equilibrium constant.
C. Concentration of reactant or product
Changes in the concentration of reactants or products do not
affect the equilibrium constant. They can shift the position of
equilibrium according to Le Chatelier's principle, but the value of
the equilibrium constant remains the same at a given temperature.
D. Pressure of gaseous reactants and products
Changes in pressure can shift the position of equilibrium for
reactions involving gases, but they do not affect the value of the
equilibrium constant itself, provided the temperature remains
constant.
○ Therefore, the factor that affects the value of the equilibrium
constant of a chemical reaction is: Temperature
33.
34. Which of the following is FALSE about weak acid-strong base
titration?
A. At the equivalence point, the pH is less than 7.00.
B. The pH is high at the beginning of the titration.
C. At the equivalence point, the pH is greater than 7.00.
D. At the half-neutralization, the concentration of the weak acid
and its conjugate base are equal.
34. Answer C. At the equivalence point, the pH is greater than 7.00
A. At the equivalence point, the pH is less than 7.00.
This statement is true. In a weak acid-strong base titration, the
equivalence point occurs when the moles of added base are equal to the
moles of acid originally present. At this point, the weak acid has been
completely neutralized by the strong base, resulting in the formation of
the conjugate base of the weak acid. Since the conjugate base is a
stronger base than the weak acid, the resulting solution is basic, and the
pH is greater than 7.00.
B. The pH is high at the beginning of the titration.
This statement is true. At the beginning of the titration, before any
base has been added, the solution contains only the weak acid. Since weak
acids only partially ionize in solution, the concentration of H+ ions is
relatively low, resulting in a higher pH compared to a strong acid solution.
Therefore, the pH is relatively high at the beginning of the titration.
C. At the equivalence point, the pH is greater than 7.00.
This statement is false. At the equivalence point of a weak acid-
strong base titration, the pH is greater than 7.00. As explained in
statement A, the weak acid has been completely neutralized by the
strong base, resulting in a basic solution. Therefore, the pH at the
equivalence point is greater than 7.00.
D. At the half-neutralization, the concentration of the weak
acid and its conjugate base are equal.
This statement is true. At the half-neutralization point of a weak
acid-strong base titration, half of the weak acid has reacted
with the added base to form its conjugate base. At this point, the
concentrations of the weak acid and its conjugate base are equal.
This is because the weak acid has been partially neutralized to
form its conjugate base, resulting in a buffer solution.
35. Which of the following salts will always yield a basic solution on
dissolution in water?
A. A salt of strong acid and strong base
B. A salt of weak acid and strong base
C. A salt of strong acid and weak acid
D. A salt of weak acid and weak base
35. Answer B. A salt of weak acid and strong base
A. A salt of strong acid and strong base
Salts formed from the reaction between a strong acid and a
strong base produce ions that do not affect the pH of the solution.
Examples include NaCl, KBr, and MgSO₄. These salts do not have
any acidic or basic properties and result in a neutral solution when
dissolved in water.
B. A salt of weak acid and strong base
When a weak acid reacts with a strong base, the resulting salt will
produce the conjugate base of the weak acid and a cation from the
strong base. Since the conjugate base of a weak acid is capable of
accepting H+ ions from water, the solution will be basic. Therefore,
salts of weak acids and strong bases typically yield a basic
solution.
 C. A salt of strong acid and weak acid
Salts formed from the reaction between a strong acid and
a weak acid produce ions that do not affect the pH of the
solution. Similar to salts of strong acids and strong bases, these
salts result in a neutral solution when dissolved in water.
D. A salt of weak acid and weak base
Salts formed from the reaction between a weak acid and a
weak base can result in a solution that is acidic, basic, or neutral,
depending on the relative strengths of the acid and base. There is
no guarantee that the resulting solution will be basic.