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GENERAL STUDIES
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 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO
PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13

PRELIMS SAMPOORNA
ALL INDIA MOCK TEST
GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

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THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises four
responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you
feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case,
choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the
Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet in response to various items in the Test Booklet, you have to
fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has concluded,
you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the
Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer
has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as
penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given
answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that
question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
 RE
O
SC
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PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 2
1. Consider the following statements regarding 2. UnStarred – A supplementary
Tribunals: Question questions cannot be
1. It is a quasi-judicial body with an objective followed
to reduce case load of the judiciary or to 3. Short Notice – These are on an urgent
bring in subject expertise for technical Question matter of public
matters. importance, and an
2. The Constitution of India provides that oral answer is sought.
the Parliament and the state legislatures How many pairs given above is/are matched
are authorized to provide for the correctly
establishment of tribunals.
(a) Only one pair
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(b) Only two pairs
(a) 1 only
(c) All three pairs
(b) 2 only
(d) None
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. According to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971,

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which of the following act/acts are considered
2. Which among the following set of fundamental as criminal contempt of court?
rights are available to both foreigners and 1. wilful disobedience to any judgment,
Indian citizens? decree, direction, order, writ or other
(a) Article 14, 15, 16 and 19 process of a court.
(b) Article 15, 16, 20 and 21 2. scandalises or tends to scandalise, or
lowers or tends to lower the authority of,
(c)
(d)
Article 19, 20, 21 and 22
Article 22, 23, 24 and 25
O any court
3. prejudices, or interferes or tends to
interfere with, the due course of any
judicial proceeding
SC
3. Consider the following statements regarding
Comptroller and Auditor General of India 4. interferes or tends to interfere with,
(CGI): or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the
1. It is a constitutional authority is administration of justice in any other
appointed by the president of India by a manner.
warrant under his hand and seal. Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. The salary and expenses of the CAG are below:
GS

charged upon the Consolidated Fund of

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
India.
3. CAG does not hold the security of tenure (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
as they hold office till the pleasure of the (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
president.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
How many of the statements given above is/
are correct?
6. Laïcité, sometimes seen in the news recently,
(a) Only one is associated to which of following principle?
(b) Only two (a) Principle of Secularism in France
(c) All three (b) Principle of Fraternity in Italy
(d) None (c) Principle of Integrity in UK
(d) Principle of Brotherhood in Germany
4. Consider the following pairs:
Question Meaning 7. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Starred – It is asked by an MP Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel:
Question and answered orally by 1. This doctrine is relevant in context of
the Minister-in-charge. centre state relations.

3 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
 2. This doctrine is recently invoked in context 2. Following retirement, a former Supreme
of challenge to Agni path scheme. Court judge is restricted from engaging
Which among the above statements is/are in legal practice within any court in
correct? India or representing cases before any
governmental entity.
(a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
8. Consider the following statements regarding
Suspension of MPs: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The maximum period of suspension is for
the remainder of the session. 11. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Suspended members cannot enter the Nidhi Companies:
chamber or attend the meetings of the 1. Nidhi Finance India is Non-Banking

RE
committees. Financial Companies, are registered
3. He will not be eligible to give notice for under the Companies Act of 2013.
discussion or submission. 2. These finance companies are regulated
4. He loses the right to get a reply to his by the Securities and Exchange Board of
questions. India.
How many of the terms of Suspension of MPs Which of the above statements is/are correct?
given above is/are correct?
O (a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
SC
(c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four
12. Consider the following statements:
9. Consider the following statements regarding
1. The internationalization of a country’s
parole and furlough:
currency, such as the rupee, entails
1. Parole is a matter of right while furlough its growing utilization in cross-border
GS

is conditional in nature. transactions.

2. All categories of prisoners have a right to 2. The utilization of the rupee in cross-border
parole. transactions helps Indian businesses
3. Parole is granted by state executive reduce exposure to currency risks.
authority. 3. The process of internationalizing
How many of the above statements is/are the rupee begins with promoting its
correct? usage in import and export trade,
subsequently extending to other current
(a) Only one
account transactions, and eventually
(b) Only two encompassing its utilization in capital
(c) All three account transactions.

(d) None How many of the statements given above is/

are correct?
10. Consider the following statements regarding (a) Only one
the Judges of the Supreme Court: (b) Only two
1. The Constitution of India lays the
(c) All three
provision that the Judges of the Supreme
Court are appointed by the President (d) None

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 4
13. With reference to Reserve Bank Innovation Hub 1. Inclusive Society
(RBIH), consider the following statements: 2. Land Governance
1. It is a wholly owned subsidiary of the
3. Sustainable Habitats
Ministry of Finance set up under the
Companies Act, 2013. 4. Economic Growth
2. RBIH has aiming to promote financial Select the correct answer using the code given
services and products for the low-income below:
population in the country.
(a) 4 only
3. i-Innovate, a nationwide initiative of
RBIH, is specifically designed to champion (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
FinTechs focussing on differently abled (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
persons.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
How many of the statements given above is/
are correct
17. In the context of the Financial Stability and
(a) Only one Development Council (FSDC), consider the
(b) Only two following statements:

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(c) All three 1. The establishment of the Council aimed
to fortify and formalize the system
(d) None
responsible for ensuring financial
stability.
14. ‘Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2022’
report, sometimes seen in the news recently, 2. The Finance Minister serves as the
is published by which of the following
O Chairman of the Council, while its
organisation? members comprise the leaders of
regulatory bodies within the financial
(a) International Labour Organisation
sector.
(b) World Economic Forum 3. The consultation of Finance Minister is
SC
(c) International Monetary Fund not mandatory for the council to invite
(d) World Bank experts to its meeting if required.
How many of the statements given above is/
15. Which of the following statements is/are correct are correct?
regarding National Intellectual Property (a) Only one
Awareness Mission (NIPAM)?
(b) Only two
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1. It objective is to instill a culture of

creativity and innovation among higher (c) All three
education students, encouraging them to
innovate and safeguard their creations. (d) None

2. Intellectual property rights are the rights

given to persons over the creation of their 18. Consider the following pairs:
minds Inventions, literary and artistic 1. Asian Development Bank - Providing
works, and symbols, names and images advisory services
used in commerce.
2. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank -
Select the correct answer using the code given Infrastructure with sustainability
below:
3. New Development Bank - Purpose of
(a) 1 only mobilising resources for infrastructure
(b) 2 only How many pairs is/are correctly matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) None
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only one pair
(c) Only two pairs
16. Which of the following is/are the areas of
Impact of SVAMITVA Scheme? (d) All three pairs

5 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
19. Which of the following is NOT the correct 3. Dykes are formed when magma leaves
objective of Modified Industrial Infrastructure the confines of the upper mantle and
Upgradation Scheme (MIIUS)? crust in intrusion way.
(a) To decrease the competitiveness of How many of the statements given above is/
the industries by providing quality are incorrect?
infrastructure
(a) Only one
(b) To encourage and boost industrial
(b) Only two
growth
(c) All three
(c) To provide technological upgradation
(d) None
(d) To create new employment opportunities

23. Which of the following statements is/are

20. Consider the following statements regarding
Logistics Ease Across Different States: correct regarding effects of earthquake?

1. LEADS is an indigenously developed 1. Liquefaction is the differential movement

data-centric index used for evaluating of the two sides of a fracture at the Earth’s
logistics infrastructure, services, and surface.

RE
human resources in all 36 States and
Union Territories.
2. It is survey released by the Commerce
and Industry Ministry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
2. Surface faulting is a physical process that
takes place during some earthquakes
that may lead to ground failure.
Select the correct option from the code given
below:

(a) 1 only (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only
O (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

SC
21. How many of the following statements is/are
correct regarding interstellar space?
1. Interstellar space is the area where
millions of stars exist.
2. Cosmic microwave background (CMB) is
found in interstellar space.
GS
24. Consider the following pairs:
1. Divergent boundaries - where new crust
is generated.
2. Convergent boundaries - where crust is
destroyed.
3. Transform boundaries - where crust is

3. Voyager is Russia’s Interstellar Mission produced as well as destroyed.

explores the solar system and beyond. 4. Plate boundary zones - broad belts in
Select the correct option from the code given which boundaries are not well defined.
below: How many pairs is/are correctly matched
(a) Only one regarding plate tectonics?

(b) Only two (a) Only one pair

(c) All three (b) Only two pairs

(d) None (c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs
22. Consider the following statements regarding
Magma formation: 25. Which of the following are considered as
1. Decompression melting often occurs at geomorphic agents?
convergent boundaries, where tectonic 1. Wind waves
plates meet.
2. Ground water
2. Under flux melting, water or carbon
dioxide cause the rock to melt at higher 3. Gravity
temperatures. 4. Ice masses

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 6
 Select the correct option from the code given 29. Consider the following statements:
below:
Statement-I:
(a) 1 and 2 only
In winter, thermal contrast decreases, as does
(b) 2 and 4 only the intensity of the high-pressure centre at the
(c) 1 and 3 only pole.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Statement-II:
During the winter, the formation of Jet Streams
26. How many of the following factors influences is accelerated as well as their extension and
the process of soil formation? velocity increases.
1. Moisture Which one of the following is correct in respect
2. Frequency and duration of precipitation of the above statements?
3. Temperature in terms of seasonal and (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
diurnal variations correct and Statement-II is the correct
4. Humidity and evaporation explanation for Statement-I
Select the correct option from the code given (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II

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below: are correct and Statement-II is not the
(a) Only one correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Only two (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect
(c) Only three
(d) All four O (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
II is correct
27. Which of the following statement is incorrect
regarding structure of atmosphere? 30. How many of the following statements is/are
correct regarding precipitation?
(a) In mesosphere the temperature decreases
SC
with height and reaches a minimum of 1. Hail forms in cold storm clouds.
about -90°C. 2. Virga is when snow falls in the form of a
(b) In thermosphere temperature increase ball instead of soft flakes.
is caused by the absorption of energetic 3. Graupel is a type of precipitation that
ultraviolet and X-Ray radiation from the begins to fall from a cloud, but evaporates
sun. before it reaches the surface of the
(c) Exosphere does not contain oxygen and Earth.
GS

hydrogen atoms.
Select the correct option from the code given
(d) Van Allen radiation belts are found in below:
magnetosphere.
(a) Only one
28. Which of the following statement is correct (b) Only two
regarding pressure belts on earth?
(c) All three
(a) Pressure belts are permanent belts in
(d) None
terms of location.
(b) In the northern hemisphere, they migrate
31. Consider the following statements:
north in the winter and south in the
summer. Statement-I:
(c) Mediterranean climate lies in between Carbon dioxide and methane are commonly
30° and 40° in both hemispheres because known as greenhouse gases.
of the changing of permanent belts with
the overhead position of the sun. Statement-II:

(d) The seasonal changes in the climate are These gases reflect back the major fraction
not influenced by the shifting of pressure of infrared radiation to earth in the form of
belts. heat.

7 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
 Which one of the following is correct in respect and knowledge of biological resources
of the above statements? with the local communities.
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. It does not permit claim of any intellectual
correct and Statement-II is the correct property rights on any invention based
explanation for Statement-I on the research made on the biological
resources obtained from India.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct and Statement-II is not the Select the correct option from the code given
correct explanation for Statement-I below:
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II (a) 1 only
is incorrect
(b) 2 only
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-
(c) Both 1 and 2
II is correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Consider the following statements regarding
Ozone depletion: 35. Which of the following statements is/are
1. CFCs have permanent and continuing correct regarding UN REDD+?

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effects on Ozone level as Chlorine atoms 1. It creates a financial value for developing
get consumed in the reaction of Chlorine countries to reduce emissions.
and ozone releasing molecular oxygen. 2. UN REDD+ is built on the technical
2. Ozone hole is the result of imbalance expertise of FAO, UNDP and UNEP.
between production and degradation of
Select the correct option from the code given
ozone in the stratosphere.
below:
3. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal
O
Protocol is not legally binding. (a) 1 only

How many of the statements given above is/ (b) 2 only

are correct? (c) Both 1 and 2
SC
(a) Only one (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Only two
36. Consider the following pairs:
(c) All three
1. Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’
(d) None
- Two closely related species competing
for the same resources can coexist.
GS

33. Which of the following statement is incorrect

2. Commensalism - Lichens relationship
regarding reserves in India?
between a fungus and photosynthesising
(a) Conservation area categories were first algae.
introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) 3. Mutualism - An orchid growing as an
Amendment Act of 2002. epiphyte on a mango branch.
(b) Community reserve areas act as buffer How many pairs given above is/are correctly
zone between established protected
described?
zones.
(a) Only one
(c) Biodiversity Heritage Sites (BHS) show
ecologically fragile ecosystem but are low (b) Only two
in endemism. (c) All three
(d) Khangchendzonga National Park, Sikkim (d) None
is a mixed heritage site of India.

37. Consider the following statements:

34. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about Biological Diversity Act 2002? Statement-I:
1. The act ensures fair and equitable Primary succession in plants takes lesser time
sharing of benefits arising out of the use than the secondary succession.

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 8
 Statement-II: 40. Consider the following menthods:
In secondary succession, climax is reached 1. Zoning
more quickly due to rate of succession is much 2. Dilution method
faster.
3. Vegetation
Which one of the following is correct in respect 4. Electrostatic Precipitation
of the above statements?
How many of the methods given above are
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are used to control air pollution?
correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I (a) Only one

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II (b) Only two

are correct and Statement-II is not the (c) Only three
correct explanation for Statement-I
(d) All four
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II
is incorrect 41. Consider the following statements:
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- 1. Introduction of bicameral legislature

RE
II is correct and direct elections for the first time in
India.
38. According to Indian State of Forest Report 2. Swaraj Party was founded as a result of
(ISFR) 2021, arrange the following five states these reforms.
in terms of increase in forest cover:
3. All veteran Congress leaders rejected
(a) Odisha > Telangana > Andhra Pradesh >
O these reforms.
Karnataka > Jharkhand
How many of the statements is/are correct
(b) Karnataka > Jharkhand > Odisha > regarding Montagu-Chelmsford reforms?
Andhra Pradesh > Telangana
(a) Only one
SC
(c) Andhra Pradesh > Telangana > Odisha > (b) Only two
Karnataka > Jharkhand
(c) All three
(d) Telangana > Odisha > Andhra Pradesh >
Karnataka > Jharkhand (d) None

39. How many of the following statements 42. How many of the following statements is/are
characterizes aquatic ecosystem? correct regarding CR Formula?
GS

1. In an aquatic ecosystem, Detritus Food 1. It proposed a dominion status for India.

Chain is the major conduit for energy 2. This formula accepted the ‘Two Nation
flow. Theory’ argued by Muslim League.
2. Molluscs are some common herbivores in 3. Gandhiji supported Rajaji formula.
aquatic ecosystem.
Select the correct option using the code given
3. Phytoplankton and algae are considered below:
as major producers in an aquatic
(a) Only one
ecosystem include.
(b) Only two
4. Crop fields come under the man-made
ecosystems. (c) All three
Select the correct option from the code given (d) None
below:
(a) Only one 43. Consider the following statements:

(b) Only two 1. The Indian Civil Services were constituted

for the administration of the country.
(c) Only three
2. The Indian Councils Act, 1861 started the
(d) All four process of representative institutions.

9 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
 3. The control of Imperial Legislative Council 2. Arravipuram - Sri Narayan Guru
over the budget was strengthened. movement
How many of the administrative changes given 3. Kaivartas - M Padmanabha
above took place after the Revolt of 1857? movement Pillar
(a) Only one 4. Self-respect - E.V. Ramaswamy
movement Naicker
(b) Only two
How many of the given above pairs is/are
(c) All three
correctly matched?
(d) None
(a) Only one pair

44. Regarding Revolutionary Nationalism in (b) Only two pairs

India, consider the following statements: (c) Only three pairs
1. Revolutionary nationalists did not preach (d) All four pairs
for social reform rather they argued for
breakdown of old age customs.
47. Consider the following statements regarding
2. Bhagat Singh established Punjab Buddhist architecture:

RE
Naujawan Bharat Sabha to carry out
1. The main elements of Stupas are harmika,
political work among the youth.
chhatra, vedika and pradakshina path.
3. The ideology behind revolutionary
2. All Buddhist stupas are made up of
nationalism involved sanguinary strife
sandstone.
only.
3. Chaityas and Viharas are places of
How many of the above statements is/are
worship.
correct?
O
How many of the statements given above is/
(a) Only one
are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) Only one
SC
(c) All three
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three

45. In context of freedom struggle, consider the (d) None

following statements regarding the Khilafat
movement: 48. Consider the following statements regarding
the Indian Knowledge System (IKS)
1. Initially the actions of Khilafat leaders’
GS

initiative:
included meetings and petitions only like
that of Moderates. 1. It is an innovative cell under the Ministry
of Culture.
2. Congress and Muslim League both
supported the Khilafat movement. 2. College and University teachers have to
undergo compulsory training programmes
3. Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party
in IKS.
advocated for legislative entry.
Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the statements given above is/
correct?
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) All three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) None

49. With reference to ‘Sankalp Se Siddhi’ initiative,

46. Consider the following pairs:
consider the following statements:
Caste movement Started by
1. It is an initiative led by Tribal Cooperative
1. Nair movement - V Raman Pillai Marketing Development Federation of

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 10
 India (TRIFED), under the Ministry of 52. Recently, Supreme Court declared Two Finger
Tribal Affairs. Test as misconduct. In this context, consider
2. Its objective is to open Van Dhan Vikas the following statements:
Kendras in order to transform tribal 1. It is an invasive, unscientific and
areas. regressive practice to assess laxity
Which of the above statements is/are correct? of vaginal muscles and examine the
hymen.
(a) 1 only
2. It has no scientific evidence and does
(b) 2 only not provide any definite information
(c) Both 1 and 2 regarding the allegation of rape.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Select the incorrect answer using the code
given below:
50. Regarding recently inaugurated India’s first (a) 1 only
Open Rock Museum, consider the following (b) 2 only
statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2
1. This museum has been setup in

RE
Hyderabad under the initiative ‘Deep (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ocean Mission’ by the Ministry of Earth
Sciences. 53. Consider the following:
2. Its objective is to educate the masses
about the relevance of rocks. Government
Objective
Initiative
3. These rocks represent the deepest part of
O
the earth. 1. KIRAN Providing avenues to women
Initiative scientists
How many of the above statements is/are
correct? To provide students a platform
2. BIG Scheme to solve some of pressing
SC
(a) Only one problems of society
(b) Only two
Attract youth talent to the
3. Ramanujan
(c) All three study of science at an early
fellowship
age
(d) None
To promote science-based,
51. Which of the following statements is/are deep technology ideas to
4. AIM-PRIME
market, through training and
GS

correct regarding the Community of Latin

guidance.
American and Caribbean States (CELAC)?
1. It is an intergovernmental regional forum How many pairs given above is/are correctly
for dialogue and political agreement matched?
among Latin American and Caribbean (a) Only one pair
countries.
(b) Only two pairs
2. It provides an alternative to the
Organization of American States (OAS). (c) Only three pairs
3. The overseas territories located in (d) All four pairs
Caribbean Sea are also part of this
agreement.
54. Consider the following statements regarding
Select the correct answer using the code given the Convention of the Safeguarding of the
below: Intangible Cultural Heritage:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. All UN members are parties to this
convention.
(b) 2 only
2. India is the earliest State Parties to ratify
(c) 1 and 3 only
the Convention and also ranks high in the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 listing of intangible cultural heritage.

11 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
 Which of the statements given above is/are Which among the above statements is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

55. Consider the following statements:
1. It was B.R. Ambedkar who convinced the
constituent assembly to adopt “procedure
established by law” instead of “due
process of law”.
2. Both “due process of law” and “procedure
established by law” are of British origin.
3. It was in Menaka Gandhi case that
58. Consider the following statements regarding
Rajya Sabha and legislative councils:
1. Procedure of election to Rajya Sabha has
been borrowed in Indian constitution
from Ireland.
2. Eminent person from cooperative
movement can be nominated to Rajya
Sabha by president and to legislative
council by governor.

RE
Supreme Court established the golden
triangle of article 14, 19 and 21.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
3. Both in case of Rajya Sabha and legislative
council, one-third of its members retire
on expiration of every second year.

(a) Only one How many the above statements is/are

incorrect?
(b) Only two
(c) All three
O (a) Only one
(b) Only two
(d) None
(c) All three
SC
56. Consider the following statements regarding (d) None
funds of India:
1. Parliamentary authorization for 59. Consider the following statements regarding
payments from the Public Account is Supreme Court:
therefore not required. 1. In 2022, Justices Hima Kohli and Bela M
2. All loans raised by government are Trivedi constituted the first ever women
credited in contingency fund of India. only bench in Indian supreme court
GS

history.
3. All tax and non-tax revenue is credited to
consolidated fund of India. 2. Supreme Court established the primacy
of chief justice of India in second judges’
Which among the above statements is/are
case.
correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2

57. Consider the following statements regarding (d) Neither 1 nor 2

SMART-PDS:
1. It is an initiative of ministry of health and
family welfare to ensure food security of
country.
2. SMART PDS includes smart ration
card and fingerprint template as its
component.
60. Consider the following statements regarding
Lokpal and Lokayukta:
1. Madhya Pradesh was the first state to
have appointed a lokayuktya in India.
2. Group D employee is exempted from the
purview of jurisdiction of Lokpal.

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 12
 3. Lokpal is vested with power of search 5. Majdoor Kisan Sangharsh samiti
and seizure and attachment of assets.
6. All India Kisan Sangharsh Coordination
How many of the above statements is/are Committee
correct?
Which of the above organizations can be
(a) Only one considered as a pressure group?
(b) Only two (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) All three (b) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) None (c) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
61. Consider the following statements regarding
42nd and 44th Amendment Act:
64. Regarding Public Financial Management
1. 42nd amendment shifted the subjects of
education and forest from state list to the System (PFMS), consider the following
concurrent list. statements:
2. 44th amendment did away with the 1. It is a web-based application for payment,

RE
requirement of quorum in parliament accounting and reconciliation of
and state legislature. Government transactions and integrates
3. 44th amendment gave constitutional various existing standalone systems.
protection to publication in newspaper 2. The primary objective of PFMS is to
of true reports of the proceedings of the establish an efficient fund flow system
parliament and state legislature. and expenditure network.
How many of the above statements is/are
correct?
(a) Only one
O 3. PFMS also provides various stakeholders
with a reliable and meaningful
management information system and an
effective decision support system.
(b) Only two
SC
How many of the statements given above is/
(c) All three
are correct?
(d) None
(a) Only one

62. Consider the following statements regarding (b) Only two

National Commission of Women (NCW) and (c) All three
National Commission for Minorities (NCM):
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(d) None
1. Both are statutory bodies.
2. Members of both NCM and NCW are
65. Which of the following is/are correct regarding
nominated by central government.
the modes of supplying services distinguished
Which of the statements given above is/are by the General Agreement on Trade in Services
correct? (GATS)?
(a) 1 only 1. Cross-border trade
(b) 2 only 2. Consumption abroad
(c) Both 1 and 2 3. Commercial presence
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Presence of natural persons
Select the correct answer using the code given
63. Consider the following organizations: below:
1. Akhil Bhartiya Vidyarthi Parishad.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. IAS association
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. The Federation of Indian Chambers of
Commerce & Industry (c) 3 and 4 only
4. Bhartiya Muslim Mahila Aandolan (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

13 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
66. Consider the following pairs: 69. How many of the following statements is/are
1. Securities and Exchange Board of India correct regarding Ocean movements?
(SEBI) - to protect the interests of 1. Tide occurs due to attraction of sun
investors in securities. and moon while surges are caused by
2. Insurance Regulatory and Development meteorological effects.
Authority of India (IRDA) - to protect the 2. Surges are frequent and regular like
interest of and secure fair treatment to tides.
policyholders. 3. Centrifugal force, which is the force that
Which of the above pair(s) is/are incorrectly acts to counter balance the gravity plays
matched? a role in occurrence of both tides and
surges.
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 only below:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) Only one
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Only two
(c) All three

RE
67. Which of the following is/are the new monetary
aggregates on the basis of the balance sheet (d) None
of the banking sector in conformity with the
norms of progressive liquidity? 70. How many of following statements is/are
1. Reserve Money correct regarding distribution of corals?
2. Narrow Money 1. Coral polyps are short-lived organisms
3. Broad Money
O and flourish in deep water.
2. They secrete calcium carbonate.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: 3. Atolls are horse shoe-shaped coral reefs.
Select the correct option from the code given
SC
(a) 1 only
below:
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

68. The given statements describe which climate (d) 1, 2 and 3

GS

type?
1. It is confined within the tropics - Tropic 71. Dhudhwa National Park is situated in which
of Cancer & Tropic of Capricorn. part of Northern plain?

2. It is characterized by an alternate & (a) Bhabhar

distinct hot, rainy season (from May (b) Terai
to Sep) & cool, dry season (Oct - April)
in N - Hemisphere & vice versa in S - (c) Khadar
Hemisphere. (d) Bhangra
3. Temperature in winters is usually about
18° - 25° C & in summers, the temperature 72. How many of the following is/are correctly
ranges from 25° - 30° C. matched?
Select the correct option from the code given Region Cyclone
below: Nomenclature
(a) Monsoon Climate 1. Indian Ocean Cyclones
(b) Savanna Climate 2. Western Pacific Sea Hurricanes
(c) Mediterranean Climate 3. Atlantic Typhoons
(d) China type Climate 4. Western Australia Willy-willy

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 14
 Select the correct option from the code given 2. Biomass power and cogeneration
below: program is initiated by the Ministry
of Environmental, Forest and Climate
(a) Only one
Change.
(b) Only two
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) Only three
(a) 1 only
(d) All four
(b) 2 only

73. Tampara Lake, a Ramsar site is situation in (c) Both 1 and 2

which state? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Madhya Pradesh
77. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) Assam
Patan patola, recently seen in news:
(c) Odisha 1. It is a silk saree that was woven by the
(d) Karnataka Salvi family in Maharashtra.
2. The weaving process takes longer than

RE
74. Which of the following statements is/are six months to finish.
correct about Earth Overshoot Day? 3. Ancient times also recognised the patal
1. Earth Overshoot Day is calculated by the patola art form.
Global Footprint Network. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. First overshoot day was calculated on 30 correct?
December 1970. O (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct option from the code given
(b) 2 only
below:
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
SC
(c) Both 1 and 2 78. Consider the following statements regarding
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Pithora painting:
1. Baba Ganeh is the first character to
75. Which of the following are the sources of green appear in any Pithora painting.
hydrogen production? 2. The main aspect of this painting is the
1. Natural Gas depiction of only traditional elements in
GS

their surroundings.
2. Solar
3. This painting is thought to bring calm
3. Biomass
and prosperity into the home.
4. Wind
How many of the statements given are
5. Renewable and Grid Electricity correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Only one
below:
(b) Only two
(a) 1 and 4 only
(c) All three
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) None
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 79. With respect to Tulu language in India,
consider the following:
76. Consider the following statements with respect 1. It is a classical language spoken primarily
to Biomass Co-firing: in Karnataka and Kerala.
1. Co-firing is used to convert biomass 2. It has a rich oral literature legacy,
to electricity but it gives rise to Green including folk song forms such as
House Gas emission. paddana.

15 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
 Which of the above statements is/are correct? How many pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one pair
(b) 2 only
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only three pairs
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All four pairs
80. Consider the following statements regarding
Kanaganahalli: 83. With reference to economic conditions of
Mahajanapadas period, consider the following
1. It is a Buddhist site that was excavated statements:
by the Indian Archaeological Survey
1. Water conservation, irrigation, and
between 1994 and 2001.
agriculture all utilized the cooperative
2. The Kanagamahalli Buddhist Stupa was system.
built with locally available limestone.
2. Numerous crafts were greatly developed,
3. The Kanaganahalli excavation revealed including carving of stone and ivory.
several wonders, including the great

RE
3. They engaged in trade with Malaya,
Maha Stupa. Ceylon, and Burma as well.
Which of the above statements are correct? Which of the statements given above are
(a) 1 and 2 only correct?

(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only

O
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Regarding Hoysala Temple Architecture,
SC
consider the following statement: 84. Which of the following statements regarding
1. Hoysaleshwara temple, also known as Vanniyar Kshatriya is/are correct?
the Halebidu temple, is dedicated to Lord 1. The Vanniyar Kshatriya community is
Vishnu. predominantly found in Tamil Nadu.
2. The temple was built on the banks of a 2. The Vanniyar Kshatriya community was
natural lake. historically known for their proficiency
in martial arts and were employed as
GS

3. The “Sthambha buttalikas” featured in soldiers by various rulers.

Hoysala art are influenced by Chola and
Chalukya art. Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
How many of the statements given above is/
are incorrect? (a) 1 only

(a) Only one (b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Only two
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) All three
(d) None 85. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the political structure of Deccan
82. Consider the following pairs: Kingdoms?
1. Vedartha Samgraha - Summary of the 1. All the Deccan Kingdoms were
Meaning of the Veda characterized by a centralized form of
governance with absolute monarchs.
2. Vedanta Sutras - Sri Bhasya
2. Some of the Deccan Kingdoms were
3. Vedantasara - Essence of Vedanta organized into a federal structure with a
4. Vedantadipa - Lamp of Vedanta confederation of independent kingdoms.

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 16
 3. Most of the Deccan Kingdoms were 2. VEPP is a government-led initiative
known for their sophisticated system of launched by the Ministry of Electronics
checks and balances in governance. and Information Technology (MeitY) to
promote the adoption of 5G technology in
Select the correct answer using the codes given
India.
below:
3. The program focuses on developing use
(a) 1 and 2 only cases for 5G technology in sectors such as
(b) 1 and 3 only agriculture, healthcare, and education.
(c) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 2 only
86. Consider the following statements regarding (b) 1 and 3 only
PARAM Ganga and PARAM Ananta:
(c) 2 and 3 only
1. PARAM Ganga and PARAM Ananta are
(d) 1, 2, and 3
supercomputers developed by the Indian
Space Research Organization (ISRO).

RE
89. Which of the following statement is correct
2. PARAM Ganga is a high-performance
regarding exo-moons?
computing system designed for academic
and research purposes, while, PARAM (a) They are moons that orbit planets outside
Ananta is specifically designed for of our solar system.
industrial applications only. (b) Exo-moons are moons that orbit planets
Which of the statements given above is/are
O within our solar system.
correct? (c) These are planets that orbit stars outside
(a) 1 only of our solar system.

(b) 2 only (d) Exo-moons are stars that orbit other

stars outside of our solar system.
SC
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 90. How many of the following statements is/are
correct regarding geomagnetic storms?
87. Which of the following statement is correct 1. They are caused by disturbances in the
regarding Variable Refresh Rate (VRR)? Earth’s magnetic field.
(a) A technology used in smartphones to 2. The storms can cause auroras to appear
GS

adjust the screen brightness based on in the sky.

ambient light. 3. The storms can have a negative impact
(b) A technology used in televisions to adjust on power grids and communication
the color saturation based on ambient systems.
light. Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) A technology used in gaming monitors below:
to synchronize the refresh rate with the (a) Only one
frame rate of the graphics card.
(b) Only two
(d) A technology used in smartwatches to
adjust the display refresh rate based on (c) All three
the wearer’s activity level. (d) None

88. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding 5G Vertical Engagement
and Partnership Program (VEPP)?
1. The program aims to foster collaboration
between 5G technology providers and
stakeholders in various industries.
91. Which of the following statements is/are
correct about the International Liquid-Mirror
Telescope (ILMT)?
1. It is the maiden liquid-telescope globally
to be designed exclusively for astronomical
purposes.

17 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
 2. It will carry out observations and imaging (c) Study the surface of Moons of Jupiter
at the zenith, that is, of the overhead such as Europa and Callisto
sky. (d) Protection and Conservation of
Select the correct answer using the codes given Mangroves in India
below:
(a) 1 only 95. Consider the following statements regarding
Small Modular Reactors (SMRs):
(b) 2 only
1. They are advanced nuclear reactors that
(c) Both 1 and 2 have one-third of the generating capacity
of traditional nuclear power reactors.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The International Atomic Energy Agency
(IAEA) established Platform on SMRs
92. How many of the following statements is/are
and their Applications for development
correct regarding Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs)?
and deployment of this emerging nuclear
1. FRBs are highly energetic radio pulses power technology.
that last for a few milliseconds.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. These are known to originate only from correct?

RE
sources within our Milky Way galaxy.
(a) 1 only
3. FRBs are believed to be caused by highly
magnetized neutron stars or black holes. (b) 2 only

Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) Both 1 and 2
below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) Only one
O 96. Which of the following statement is a correct
(b) Only two description of Kessler Syndrome?
(c) All three (a) A term used to describe adults who
SC
(d) None refuse to grow up and take on adult
responsibilities.
93. Consider the following statements regarding (b) A hypothetical scenario where the
Pentaquarks and Tetraquarks: density of objects in low Earth orbit is so
high that collisions between objects could
1. These are subatomic particles made
create a cascade of collisions, leading to
up of five quarks and four quarks,
the destruction of all satellites in orbit.
respectively.
GS

(c) A psychological disorder that causes

2. They were predicted by the Standard
people to have difficulty taking on
Model of particle physics.
responsibilities, making commitments,
3. These are examples of hadrons. and developing mature relationships.
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) A term used to describe the feeling of
correct? nostalgia for childhood and a desire to
stay young forever.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only 97. Which of the following statements is/are true
(c) 2 and 3 only about gram-negative bacteria?
(d) 1 only 1. The bacteria have an outer membrane
composed of lipopolysaccharides.
94. MOXIE, seen in the news recently, is associated 2. They retain the crystal violet stain during
to which of the following purpose? Gram staining.

(a) Reduce the methane emission in the Select the correct answer using the codes given
developing countries below:
(a) 1 only
(b) Future explorers to produce oxygen from
the Martian atmosphere (b) 2 only

PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 18
 (c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
98. Prachand, sometimes seen in the news, is a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
name given to which of the following?
(a) A tropical cyclone originated in Arabian
100. How many of the following statements are
Sea
correct regarding the Piezoelectric effect?
(b) An indigenous Light Combat Helicopter 1. It is the ability of certain materials to
(c) A supercomputer developed by C-DAC generate an electric charge in response
to applied mechanical stress.
(d) A joint military exercise between India
and Russia 2. The piezoelectric effect is reversible,
meaning that applying an electric field
can cause these materials to deform or
99. Consider the following statements regarding vibrate.
Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice):
3. The piezoelectric effect is only observed
1. It is a European Space Agency (ESA) in inorganic materials.

RE
mission to make multiple flybys of
Jupiter’s satellites Ganymede, Callisto, Select the correct answer using the codes given
and Europa. below:
2. Its main engine is a hypergolic bi- (a) Only one
propellant thruster.
(b) Only two
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) All three
correct?
O (d) None

™™™™™
SC
GS

19 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
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SC
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PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 20
 Space for Rough Work

RE
O
SC
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21 PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13
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SC
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PTS2024/AIMT/012024/13 22
IAS Prelims - 2024
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13

PRELIMS SAMPOORNA
ALL INDIA MOCK TEST
GENERAL STUDIES PAPER - I
ANSWER BOOKLET

Answer Key

Q. 1 (c) Q. 21 (a) Q. 41 (b) Q. 61 (b) Q. 81 (b)

Q. 2 (d) Q. 22 (b) Q. 42 (b) Q. 62 (c) Q. 82 (d)
Q. 3 (b) Q. 23 (d) Q. 43 (b) Q. 63 (d) Q. 83 (d)
Q. 4 (c) Q. 24 (c) Q. 44 (a) Q. 64 (c) Q. 84 (c)
Q. 5 (c) Q. 25 (d) Q. 45 (c) Q. 65 (d) Q. 85 (c)
Q. 6 (a) Q. 26 (d) Q. 46 (c) Q. 66 (d) Q. 86 (d)
Q. 7 (b) Q. 27 (c) Q. 47 (a) Q. 67 (b) Q. 87 (c)
Q. 8 (d) Q. 28 (c) Q. 48 (b) Q. 68 (b) Q. 88 (b)
Q. 9 (a) Q. 29 (a) Q. 49 (c) Q. 69 (a) Q. 89 (a)
Q. 10 (c) Q. 30 (a) Q. 50 (b) Q. 70 (b) Q. 90 (c)
Q. 11 (a) Q. 31 (c) Q. 51 (a) Q. 71 (b) Q. 91 (c)
Q. 12 (c) Q. 32 (a) Q. 52 (c) Q. 72 (b) Q. 92 (b)
Q. 13 (b) Q. 33 (c) Q. 53 (b) Q. 73 (c) Q. 93 (a)
Q. 14 (d) Q. 34 (a) Q. 54 (b) Q. 74 (c) Q. 94 (b)
Q. 15 (c) Q. 35 (a) Q. 55 (b) Q. 75 (d) Q. 95 (c)
Q. 16 (d) Q. 36 (d) Q. 56 (c) Q. 76 (d) Q. 96 (b)
Q. 17 (c) Q. 37 (d) Q. 57 (b) Q. 77 (c) Q. 97 (a)
Q. 18 (d) Q. 38 (c) Q. 58 (b) Q. 78 (b) Q. 98 (b)
Q. 19 (a) Q. 39 (c) Q. 59 (b) Q. 79 (c) Q. 99 (c)
Q. 20 (c) Q. 40 (d) Q. 60 (a) Q. 80 (d) Q. 100 (b)

PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
1. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Tribunals
 Tribunals are institutions established for
discharging judicial or quasi-judicial duties.
The objective may be to reduce case load of
the judiciary or to bring in subject expertise
for technical matters.
 The Supreme Court has ruled that tribunals,
being quasi-judicial bodies, should have
the same level of independence from the
executive as the judiciary. Key factors
include the mode of selection of members,
the composition of tribunals, and the terms
and tenure of service.
 Tribunals are judicial or quasi-judicial
institutions established by law.They intend
to provide a platform for faster adjudication
as compared to traditional courts, as well
as expertise on certain subject matters.
Pendency of cases in courts is one of the key
challenges faced by the judicial system.
O
Constitutional Provisions
 Tribunals were not part of the original
constitution, it was incorporated in the
Indian Constitution by 42nd Amendment
Act, 1976.
SC
 Article 323-A deals with Administrative
Tribunals.
 Article 323-B deals with tribunals for
other matters.
 Under Article 323 B, the Parliament and
the state legislatures are authorized to
provide for the establishment of tribunals
GS
for the adjudication of disputes relating to
the following matters:
 Taxation
 Foreign exchange, import and export
 Industrial and labour
 Land reforms
 Ceiling on urban property
 Elections to Parliament and state
legislatures
 Food stuff
 Rent and tenancy rights
 Articles 323 A and 323 B differ in the
following three aspects:
 While Article 323 A contemplates the
establishment of tribunals for public
service matters only, Article 323 B
contemplates the establishment of
tribunals for certain other matters
(mentioned above).
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 While tribunals under Article 323 A
can be established only by Parliament,
tribunals under Article 323 B can
be established both by Parliament
and state legislatures with respect to
matters falling within their legislative
competence.
 Under Article 323 A, only one tribunal
for the Centre and one for each state or
two or more states may be established.
There is no question of the hierarchy of
tribunals, whereas under Article 323 B a
hierarchy of tribunals may be created.
 Article 262: The Indian Constitution
provides a role for the Central government
in adjudicating conflicts surrounding inter-
state rivers that arise among the state/
regional governments.
RE
2. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: The fundamental
rights under article 15,16,19,29 and 30 are
available exclusively to Indian citizen only.
Supplementary notes:
Fundamental Rights
 The Fundamental Rights in India enshrined
in part III (Article 12-32) of the Constitution
of India guarantee civil liberties such that
all Indians can lead their lives in peace and
harmony as citizens of India.
 These rights are known as “fundamental”
as they are the most essential for all-round
development i.e., material, intellectual, moral
and spiritual and protected by fundamental
law of the land i.e., constitution. If the
rights provided by Constitution i.e., The
Fundamental rights have been damaged
The Parliament they can take strict actions,
according to Article 32.
 Fundamental rights available to both
citizens & foreigners (except enemy aliens)
 Article 14: Equality before law and
equal protection of laws.
 Article 20: Protection in respect of
conviction for offences.
 Article 21: Protection of life and personal
liberty.
 Article 21A: Right to elementary
education.
 Article 22: Protection against arrest
and detention in certain cases.
 Article 23: Prohibition of traffic and
human beings and forced labour.
 Article 24: Prohibition of employment
of children in factories etc.
2
  Article 25: Freedom of conscience and
free profession, practice and propagation
of religion.
 Article 26: Freedom to manage religious
affairs.
 Article 27: Freedom from payment of
taxes for promotion of any religion.
 Article 28: Freedom from attending
religious instruction or worship in
certain educational institutions.
3. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: CAG is provided
with the security of tenure and does not
hold office till the pleasure of the president,
though he is appointed by him.
Supplementary notes:
RE
Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(CGI)
 Comptroller and Auditor General of India,
is a constitutional authority which heads
the Indian Audit and Accounts Department
(IA&AD). The two entities are known as the

O
Supreme Audit Institution of India (SAI).
Article 148 provides for an independent
office of the CAG.
 Appointment: The CAG is appointed by the
SC
president of India by a warrant under his
hand and seal.
 He is provided with the security of tenure.
He can be removed by the president
only in accordance with the procedure
mentioned in the Constitution.
 Tenure: Period of 6 years or until attaining
the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
GS
 Removal: Removal of the CAG from office
requires a specific process: an order from
the President after receiving an address
from each House of Parliament.
 For removal to take effect, the address
must be supported by a majority of the
total membership of that house and
by at least a two-thirds majority of the
members present and voting in the same
session.
 Grounds for removal include proved
misbehavior or incapacity.
 Provisions of Independence: Major
provisions include-
 The CAG’s salary and expenses are
charged upon the Consolidated Fund of
India.
 CAG is provided with the security of
tenure and does not hold office till the
pleasure of the president, though he is
appointed by him.
3
 Upon relinquishing the office, the CAG
is barred from holding any subsequent
position within either the Government
of India or any State Government,
maintaining the independence and
integrity of the office.
4. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All pairs are correctly matched
Supplementary notes:
Types of Questions in Parliament
 Starred Question: A starred question is
asked by an MP and answered orally by the
Minister-in-charge. Each MP is allowed to
ask one starred question per day. When a
question is answered orally, supplementary
questions can be asked thereon.
 UnStarred Question: The MP seeks a
written answer, which is deemed to be laid
on the table of the House by the concerned
minister and supplementary questions
cannot be followed.
 Short Notice Question: These are on an
urgent matter of public importance, and
an oral answer is sought. For asking such
a question, a notice of less than 10 days is
prescribed as the minimum period.
 Question to Private Member: A question
can be addressed to a private member under
Rule 40 of Lok Sabha’s Rules of Procedure,
or under Rule 48 of Rajya Sabha’s Rules,
provided that the question deals with a
subject relating to some Bill, resolution
or other matter for which that member is
responsible.
5. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Wilful
disobedience to any judgment, decree,
direction, order, writ or other process of a
court is a civil contempt of court
Supplementary notes:
Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
 According to the Contempt of Courts Act,
1971, contempt of court can either be civil
contempt or criminal contempt.
 Civil contempt means wilful disobedience to
any judgment, decree, direction, order, writ
or other process of a court or wilful breach of
an undertaking given to a court.
 On the other hand, criminal contempt
means the publication (whether by words,
spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 representations, or otherwise) of any matter
or the doing of any other act whatsoever
which:
 scandalises or tends to scandalise, or
lowers or tends to lower the authority of,
any court
 prejudices, or interferes or tends to
interfere with, the due course of any
judicial proceeding
 interferes or tends to interfere with,
or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the
administration of justice in any other
manner.
 A contempt of court may be punished with
simple imprisonment for a term which may
extend to six months, or with fine which
may extend to two thousand rupees, or
with both, provided that the accused may
be discharged or the punishment awarded
may be remitted on apology being made to
the satisfaction of the court.
6. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
O
Supplementary notes:
Laïcité - Principle of Secularism in
France
SC
 Recently, the French government made an
announcement regarding a ban on wearing
the abaya, a traditional Islamic garment, in
state-run schools.
 The decision was presented as an effort to
uphold the principle of Laïcité, which is
France’s commitment to secularism. This
move has stirred both support and criticism,
GS
igniting a broader discussion about the role
of Laïcité in contemporary French society.
 Laïcité is a multifaceted and highly debated
concept in France. It represents the formal
separation between the State and religious
institutions, advocating for the complete
absence of religious influence in the public
domain.
 Instead, it promotes the prevalence of
secular values such as freedom, equality,
and fraternity. The roots of Laïcité can be
traced back to the struggle of anti-clerical
Republicans against the dominance of the
Catholic Church.
7. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Because
Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel is relevant
in context of contract law.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
Supplementary notes:
Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel
 Within contract law, promissory estoppel
refers to the doctrine that a party may
recover on the basis of a promise made
when the party’s reliance on that promise
was reasonable, and the party attempting
to recover detrimentally relied on the
promise.
 The doctrine is invoked in court by a plaintiff
(the party moving court in a civil action)
against the defendant to ensure execution of
a contract or seek compensation for failure
to perform the contract.
 In a 1981 decision in Chhaganlal Keshavalal
Mehta v. Patel Narandas Haribhai, the SC
lists out a checklist for when the doctrine
can be applied. First, there must be a clear
and unambiguous promise. Second, the
RE
plaintiff must have acted relying reasonably
on that promise. Third, the plaintiff must
have suffered a loss.
 The petitioner in Supreme Court against Agni
path scheme argued that the government
must be directed to complete the old process
citing the doctrine of promissory estoppel.
8. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Suspension of MPs
 What are the Rules under which the
Presiding Officer acts?
 Rule Number 373 of the Rules of
Procedure and Conduct of Business says:
“The Speaker, if he is of the opinion that
the conduct of any Member is grossly
disorderly, may direct such Member to
withdraw immediately from the House,
and any Member so ordered to withdraw
shall do so forthwith and shall remain
absent during the remainder of the day’s
sitting.”
 To deal with more recalcitrant Members,
the Speaker make take recourse to Rules
374 and 374A. Rule 374 says:
 The Speaker may, if deems it
necessary, name a Member who
disregards the authority of the Chair
or abuses the rules of the House by
persistently and wilfully obstructing
the business thereof.
 If a Member is so named by the
Speaker, the Speaker shall, on a
motion being made forthwith put the
4
 question that the Member (naming
such Member) be suspended from
the service of the House for a period
not exceeding the remainder of the
session: Provided that the House
may, at any time, on a motion being
made, resolve that such suspension
be terminated.
 A member suspended under this rule
shall forthwith withdraw from the
precincts of the House.”
 Rule 374A was incorporated in the Rule
Book on December 5, 2001. The intention
was to skirt around the necessity of
moving and adopting a motion for
suspension.
 According to Rule 374A:
 Notwithstanding anything contained
in rules 373 and 374, in the event
RE
of grave disorder occasioned by a
Member coming into the well of
the House or abusing the Rules of
the House persistently and wilfully
obstructing its business by shouting
slogans or otherwise, such Member
shall, on being named by the Speaker,
O
stand automatically suspended from
the service of the House for five
consecutive sittings or the remainder
of the session, whichever is less:
Provided that the House may, at any
SC
time, on a motion being made, resolve
that such suspension be terminated.
 On the Speaker announcing the
suspension under this rule, the
Member shall forthwith withdraw
from the precincts of the House.”
 Like the Speaker in Lok Sabha, the
GS
Chairman of Rajya Sabha is empowered
under Rule Number 255 of its Rule Book
to “direct any Member whose conduct is in
his opinion grossly disorderly to withdraw
immediately” from the House.
 Under Rule 256, the Chairman may “name
a Member who disregards the authority of
the Chair or abuses the rules of the Council
by persistently and wilfully obstructing”
business. In such a situation, the House
may adopt a motion suspending the Member
from the service of the House for a period
not exceeding the remainder of the session.
 The House may, by another motion,
terminate the suspension.
9. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Furlough is
seen as a matter of right for a prisoner, to
5
be granted periodically irrespective of any
reason, and merely to enable the prisoner to
retain family and social ties, and to counter
the ill-effects of prolonged time spent in
prison. Parole, by contrast, is not seen as a
matter of right, and is given to a prisoner
for a specific reason, such as a death in the
family or a wedding of a blood relative.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Prisoners
convicted of multiple murders or under the
anti-terror Unlawful Activities Prevention
Act (UAPA) are not eligible for parole.
 Statement 3 is correct: Parole is granted
by the state executive - the jail authorities
submit the report to state government -
and the competent authority takes a final
decision on grant of parole on humanitarian
considerations.
Supplementary notes:
Parole and furlough
 The word parole is derived from the French
phrase “je Donne ma parole”, which means
“I give my word”.
 Parole is the privilege given to the prisoners
to return to the society and socialise with
families and friends. It requires periodic
reporting to the authorities for a set period
of time.
 It is granted to that person who has already
served a portion of his or her sentence. It
enables the prisoner to deal with family
matters and develop a good life for him or
his family members.
 Furlough is given in cases of long-term
imprisonment. A prisoner’s sentence
is considered to be remitted during his
furlough time.
It is to be allowed on a regular basis for no

reason other than to allow the prisoner to
maintain familial and social relationships
and to counteract the negative consequences
of long-term imprisonment.
 The right to be released on furlough is a
substantial and legal right of the prisoner,
and it cannot be rejected if permitted by
law.
10. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Judges of the Supreme Court
 Appointment:
 The Judges of the Supreme Court are
appointed by the President under clause
(2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
  The President consults with judges of
the Supreme Court and High Courts to
make informed appointments.
 Tenure and Resignation:
 There is no prescribed minimum age
limit for a judge’s appointment.
 A judge of the Supreme Court serves
until they reach the age of 65 years.
 However, a judge may resign before
reaching the age of 65 years by tendering
their resignation to the President.
 Post-retirement Restrictions:
 After retirement, a judge of the Supreme
Court is prohibited from practicing law
in any court in India or pleading before
any government authority.
 As per Article 128 of Indian Constitution,
any retired judge of the Supreme Court
of India can be called back to sit and act
as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief
Justice of India with the prior permission
of the President of India.
 Removal:
 A judge of the Supreme Court can only
be removed from office by an order of the
O
President.
 The removal process requires an address
by each House of Parliament, supported
by a special majority i.e., a majority of
SC
the total membership of that House and
a majority of not less than two-thirds of
the members present and voting.
11. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
Statement 2 is incorrect: These
GS
 of applications filed by companies in
companies are regulated by the Reserve
Bank of India.
Supplementary notes:
Nidhi Companies
 Under the Companies Act, 1956, a Nidhi or
Mutual Benefit Society meant a company
which the Central Government declared
as Nidhi or Mutual Benefit Society by
notification in the official gazette. Under the
Companies Act, 2013, initially there was no
need for a company to get declaration from
Central Government to function as a Nidhi
Company.
 Such companies were required to
only incorporate as a Nidhi and meet
requirements under sub-rule (1) of rule 5 of
Nidhi Rules viz., minimum membership of
200, Net Owned Fund (NoF) of Rs. 10 lakh,
NOF to deposit ratio of 1:20 and keeping
10% unencumbered deposits in schedule
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
commercial banks or post offices within
one year of commencement of Nidhi Rules,
2014.
 Under the Companies Act, 1956, about 390
companies were declared as Nidhi companies
only. During 2014-2019, more than ten
thousand companies get incorporated.
However, only about 2,300 companies have
applied in form NDH-4 for declaration.
It has been noticed from examination of
form NDH-4 that companies have not been
complying with the applicable provisions
of the Act and the Nidhi Rules, 2014 (as
amended).
 To safeguard the interest of general public,
it has become imperative that before
becoming its member, one must ensure
declaration of a company as a Nidhi by
the Central Government and towards this,
few necessary/important amendments in
RE
the Rules have been carried out which
are applicable to the Companies to be
incorporated after Nidhi (amendment) Rule,
2022, as under:
 A Public Company incorporated as a
Nidhi with a share capital of Rs. 10
lakhs; needs to first get itself declared as
a Nidhi from the Central Government by
applying in form NDH-4 with a minimum
membership of 200 and NOF of Rs. 20
lac within 120 days of its incorporation.
 The Promoters and Directors of the
company have to meet the criteria of fit
and proper person as laid down in the
rules.
 For timely disposal, it has also been
provided in amended Rules that in case
no decision is conveyed by the Central
Government within 45 days of the receipt
form NDH-4, approval would be deemed
as granted. This would apply for such
companies which shall be incorporated
after Nidhi (Amendment) Rules, 2022.
12. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
What does internationalisation of the
rupee mean?
 Internationalisation is a process that
involves increasing the use of the rupee in
cross-border transactions.
 It involves promoting the rupee for import
and export trade and then other current
account transactions, followed by its use
in capital account transactions. These are
6
 all transactions between residents in India
and non-residents. The internationalisation
of the currency, which is closely interlinked
with the nation’s economic progress,
requires further opening up of the currency
settlement and a strong swap and forex
market.
 More importantly, it will require full
convertibility of the currency on the capital
account and cross-border transfer of funds
without any restrictions. India has allowed
only full convertibility on the current
account as of now.
 Currently, the US dollar, the Euro, the
Japanese yen and the pound sterling
are the leading reserve currencies in the
world. China’s efforts to make its currency
renminbi has met with only limited success
so far.
RE
Advantages of internationalisation of the
rupee
 The use of the rupee in cross-border
transactions mitigates currency risk for
Indian businesses. Protection from currency
volatility not only reduces the cost of doing
business, it also enables better growth of
O
business, improving the chances for Indian
businesses to grow globally.
 While reserves help manage exchange rate
volatility and project external stability,
SC
they impose a cost on the economy.
Internationalisation of the rupee reduces
the need for holding foreign exchange
reserves. Reducing dependence on foreign
currency will make India less vulnerable to
external shocks.
 As the use of the rupee becomes significant,
the bargaining power of Indian businesses
GS
would improve, adding weight to the Indian
economy and enhancing India’s global
stature and respect.
13. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is a wholly
owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank
of India set up under the Companies Act,
2013.
Supplementary notes:
Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH)
 In a pioneering move towards fostering
financial inclusion, HDFC Bank recently
announced its partnership with the Reserve
Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) to introduce
i-Innovate, a nationwide initiative
specifically designed to champion FinTechs
focussing on differently abled persons.
7
 It has been set up as a Section 8 company
under the Companies Act, 2013 with an
initial capital contribution of Rs. 100 crore.
It is a wholly owned subsidiary of the RBI.
Objective of RBIH
 RBIH aims to create an ecosystem that
focuses on promoting access to financial
services and products for the low-income
population in the country.
 This is in line with the objective behind
establishment of RBIH i.e., to bring world-
class innovation to the financial sector in
India, coupled with the underlying theme of
financial inclusion.
 The Hub is expected to build an ecosystem
for development of prototypes, patents
and proofs of concept and promote cross-
thinking, spanning regulatory domains and
national boundaries. It had plans to identify
and mentor start-ups having maximum
potential. It is also expected to collaborate
with various government Ministries,
Departments and academia to identify
problem statements in different domains
and explore potential solutions.
 RBI Innovation hub hosted Swanari
TechSprint to create sustainable solutions
for women-owned enterprises. TechSprint
is aimed at advancing digital financial
inclusion for women in India.
14. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: The report is
published by the World Bank.
Supplementary notes:
Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2022’
report
 The World Bank released a report titled
“Poverty and Shared Prosperity 2022:
Correcting Course”.
 Global poverty reduction has been slowing
down since 2015 but the Covid pandemic
and the war in Ukraine have completely
reversed the outcomes.
 By 2015, the global extreme-poverty rate
had been cut by more than half. Since then,
poverty reduction has slowed in tandem
with subdued global economic growth. As
such, the global goal of ending extreme
poverty by 2030 would not be achieved.
People living below the Poverty Line
 In 2020 alone, the number of people living
below the extreme poverty line rose by over
70 million; the largest one-year increase
since global poverty monitoring began in
1990.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
  Given current trends, 574 million people—
nearly 7% of the world’s population—will
still be living on less than USD 2.15 a day
in 2030, with most in Africa.
Rise in Inequalities
 The poorest people bore the steepest costs
of the pandemic: Income losses averaged 4%
for the poorest 40%, double the losses of the
wealthiest 20% of the income distribution.
Global inequality rose, as a result, for the
first time in decades.
 Global median income declined by 4% in
2020—the first decline since measurements
of median income began in 1990.
Suggestions
 National policy reforms can help restart
progress in reducing poverty.
 Stepped-up global cooperation will also be
necessary.
 In fiscal policy, governments should act
promptly on three fronts:
 Avoid Broad Subsidies, increase targeted
cash transfers:
 Half of all spending on energy subsidies in
low- and middle- income economies go to the
O
richest 20% of the population who consume
more energy.
 Cash transfers are a far more effective
mechanism for supporting poor and
SC
vulnerable groups.
Focus on Long-Term Growth
 High-return investments in education,
research and development, and
infrastructure projects need to be made
today. In a time of scarce resources, more
efficient spending and improved preparation
GS
for the next crisis will be key. Mobilize
Domestic Revenues without Hurting the
Poor:
 Property taxes and carbon taxes can help
raise revenue without hurting the poorest.
So can broadening the base of personal and
corporate income taxes.
 If sales and excise taxes do need to be raised,
governments should minimize economic
distortions and negative distributional
impacts by simultaneously using targeted
cash transfers to offset their effects on the
most vulnerable households.
State of Poverty in India
 According to the World Bank published the
paper titled ‘Poverty has Declined over the
Last Decade But Not As Much As Previously
Thought’.
 Extreme poverty in India was 12.3% points
lower in 2019 compared with 2011, as poverty
headcount rate declined from 22.5% in 2011
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
to 10.2% in 2019, with a comparatively
sharper decline in rural areas.
 Poverty reduction was higher in rural areas
compared with urban India as rural poverty
declined from 26.3% in 2011 to 11.6% in
2019, while in urban areas the decline was
from 14.2% to 6.3% in the corresponding
period.
 Poverty estimation in India is carried out
by NITI Aayog’s task force through the
calculation of poverty line based on the data
captured by the National Sample Survey
Office under the Ministry of Statistics and
Programme Implementation (MOSPI).
Poverty line estimation in India is based
on the consumption expenditure and not on
the income levels.
15. Correct Option: (c)
RE
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
National Intellectual Property Awareness
Mission (NIPAM)
National Intellectual Property Awareness

Mission (NIPAM), launched in 2021, has
achieved the target of imparting Intellectual
Property (IP) awareness and basic training
to 1 million students.
 The target has been achieved ahead of
the deadline which was 15 August 2022.
The pan-India mission aims to provide
awareness on intellectual property and its
rights to 1 million students.
 It aims to inculcate the spirit of creativity
and innovation to students of higher
education (classes 8 to 12) and ignite and
inspire the students of college/Universities
to innovate and protect their creations.
 Intellectual property rights (IPR) are the
rights given to persons over the creation of
their minds:
 Inventions, literary and artistic works,
and symbols, names and images used in
commerce.
 They usually give the creator an exclusive
right over the use of his/her creation for
a certain period of time.
 The program is being implemented by the
Intellectual Property Office, the Office of
Controller General of Patents, Designs
and Trade Marks (CGPDTM), Ministry of
Commerce and Industry.
16. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
8
 Supplementary notes:
SVAMITVA Scheme
 SVAMITVA, a Central Sector Scheme of
Ministry of Panchayati Raj was nation-wide
launched by the Hon’ble Prime Minister on
National Panchayati Raj Day, 24th April
2021 after successful completion of pilot
phase of scheme (2020-2021) in 9 states.
 Scheme is a reformative step towards
establishment of clear ownership of
property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas,
by mapping of land parcels using drone
technology and providing ‘Record of Rights’
to village household owners with issuance
of legal ownership cards (Property cards/
Title deeds) to the property owners.
 The Scheme is implemented with the
collaborative efforts of the Ministry of
Panchayati Raj, State Revenue Department,
RE
State Panchayati Raj Department and Survey
of India. The scheme covers multifarious
aspects viz. facilitating monetisation of
properties and enabling bank loan; reducing
property related disputes; comprehensive
village level planning, would be the
stepping-stone towards achieving Gram
Swaraj in true sense and making rural
India Atmanirbhar.
O financial literacy and financial inclusion.
The scheme seeks to achieve the following
objectives:
SC
 Creation of accurate land records for rural
planning and reduce property related
disputes.
 To bring financial stability to the citizens in
rural India by enabling them to use their
property as a financial asset for taking loans
and other financial benefits.
 Determination of property tax, which would
GS
accrue to the GPs directly in States where
it is devolved or else, add to the State
exchequer.
 Creation of survey infrastructure and
GIS maps that can be leveraged by any
department for their use.
 To support in preparation of better-quality
Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP)
by making use of GIS maps
Four Identified broad areas of Impact
 Inclusive Society
 Land Governance
 Sustainable Habitats
 Economic Growth
17. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
9
Supplementary notes:
Financial Stability and Development
Council (FSDC)
 With a view to strengthening and
institutionalizing the mechanism for
maintaining financial stability, enhancing
inter-regulatory coordination and promoting
financial sector development, the Financial
Stability and Development Council (FSDC)
was set up by the Government as the apex
level forum in December 2010.
 The Chairman of the Council is the Finance
Minister and its members include the heads
of financial sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI,
PFRDA, IRDA & FMC) Finance Secretary
and/or Secretary, Department of Economic
Affairs, Secretary, Department of Financial
Services, and Chief Economic Adviser. The
Council can invite experts to its meeting if
required.
 Without prejudice to the autonomy of
regulators, the Council monitors macro
prudential supervision of the economy,
including functioning of large financial
conglomerates, and addresses inter-
regulatory coordination and financial sector
development issues. It also focuses on
Functions of FSDC:
 Without prejudice to the autonomy of
regulators, the Council monitors macro
prudential supervision of the economy,
including functioning of large financial
conglomerates, and addresses inter-
regulatory coordination and financial sector
development issues.
 It also focuses on financial literacy and
financial inclusion.
 The Council deliberates on contextual issues
covering financial stability, financial sector
development.
 It coordinates India’s international
interfaces with financial sector bodies like
the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)
and the Financial Stability Board (FSB).
18. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Asian Development Bank (ADB)
 The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
envisions a prosperous, inclusive, resilient,
and sustainable Asia and the Pacific, while
sustaining its efforts to eradicate extreme
poverty in the region. Despite the region’s
many successes, it remains home to a large
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 share of the world’s poor: 263 million living
on less than $1.90 a day and 1.1 billion on
less than $3.20 a day.
 ADB assists its members, and partners,
by providing loans, technical assistance,
grants, and equity investments to promote
social and economic development.
 ADB maximizes the development impact of
its assistance by facilitating policy dialogues,
providing advisory services, and mobilizing
financial resources through cofinancing
operations that tap official, commercial, and
export credit sources.
Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB)
 The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(AIIB) is a multilateral development bank
whose mission is financing the Infrastructure
for Tomorrow—infrastructure with
sustainability at its core. AIIB began
operations in Beijing in January 2016 and
have since grown to 106 approved members
worldwide.
 AIIB are capitalized at USD100 billion and
Triple-A-rated by the major international
credit rating agencies. Collaborating
O
with partners, AIIB meets clients’
needs by unlocking new capital and
investing in infrastructure that is green,
technology-enabled and promotes regional
connectivity.
SC
 Headquarters of Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB) is located in
Chaoyang District, Beijing (China).
New Development Bank (NDB)
 The New Development Bank (NDB) is a
multilateral development bank established
by Brazil, Russia, India, China and
GS
South Africa (BRICS) with the purpose
of mobilising resources for infrastructure
and sustainable development projects in
emerging markets and developing countries
(EMDCs).
 Our strong mandate and potential put us
in a unique position to contribute to global
growth and development.
19. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: To increase the
competitiveness of the industries by
providing quality infrastructure.
Supplementary notes:
Modified Industrial Infrastructure
Upgradation Scheme (MIIUS)
 Industrial Infrastructure Upgradation
Scheme (IIUS) was originally launched in
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
2003 to improve the industry standards by
enhancing the infrastructure of the start-
ups through Public-Private Partnership
(PPP). The scheme was reformulated and
extended during the 10th and 11th plan to
provide aid and support for the technical
upgradation for the new ventures. A
total assistance of Rs.2549 Crores and 39
projects were sanctioned under the scheme.
Based on the performance, the National
Productivity Council (NPC) evaluated the
productivity and extended the Modified
Industrial Infrastructure Upgradation
Scheme (MIIUS) during the 12th year plan
with an allocation of Rs.1,030 Crores.
 The Modified Industrial Infrastructure
Upgradation Scheme (MIIUS) aims at
achieving the below-listed objectives:
 To increase the competitiveness of
the industries by providing quality
RE
infrastructure
 To encourage and boost industrial
growth
 To provide technological upgradation
and
 To create new employment
opportunities
20. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Logistics Ease Across Different States
 The Ministry of Commerce & Industry
recently unveiled the 5th edition of the
“Logistics Ease Across Different State
(LEADS) 2023” report, providing crucial
guidance for stakeholders in the Logistics
Sector through strategic insights.
 LEADS, an indigenous data-driven index,
assesses logistics infrastructure, services,
and human resources in all 36 States and
Union Territories. It continues to serve as a
pivotal mechanism that aids in identifying
interventions to enhance logistics efficiency
at the state and union territory levels.
 Notably, LEADS showcases positive
alignment with international indices, such
as the Logistics Performance Index.
 The primary objective of LEADS is to offer
strategic insights to stakeholders in the
logistics sector, fostering healthy competition
among states and union territories to
enhance their logistics performance.
 Initially conceptualized in 2018, LEADS was
modeled after the Logistics Performance
10
 Index of the World Bank and has undergone
evolution since then.
 The report’s evaluation criteria focus
on three fundamental pillars: Logistics
Infrastructure, Logistics Services, and
Operating and Regulatory Environment.
 Methodologically, the report draws from a
comprehensive pan-India primary survey
conducted between May and July 2023,
encompassing over 7,300 responses from
across 36 states/UTs.
 Additionally, it integrates insights from
more than 750 stakeholder consultations
facilitated by various associations.
21. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Interstellar
RE
space is the area between the stars, but it is
far from empty.
 Statement 2 is correct: Cosmic microwave
background (CMB) is found in interstellar
space.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Voyager is
NASA’s Interstellar Mission explores the
solar system and beyond.
O 
Supplementary notes:
Interstellar space
SC
 Interstellar space is the area between the
stars, but it is far from empty. It contains
vast quantities of neutrinos, charged
particles, atoms, molecules, dark matter
and photons ranging from the highest-
energy radiation to the sluggish light of the
cosmic microwave background (CMB) albeit
rather sparsely spread out.
GS
 The mission objective of the Voyager
Interstellar Mission (VIM) is to extend the
NASA exploration of the solar system beyond
the neighborhood of the outer planets to the
outer limits of the Sun’s sphere of influence,
and possibly beyond.
23. Correct Option: (d)
22. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Decompression
melting often occurs at divergent boundaries,
where tectonic plates separate.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Flux melting
occurs when water or carbon dioxide are
added to rock. These compounds cause the
rock to melt at lower temperatures. This
creates magma in places where it originally
maintained a solid structure.
 Statement 3 is correct: Magma leaves the
confines of the upper mantle and crust in
11
two major ways: as an intrusion or as an
extrusion. An intrusion can form features
such as dikes and xenoliths. An extrusion
could include lava and volcanic rock.
Supplementary notes:
Magma formation
 Magma is a molten and semi-molten rock
mixture found under the surface of Earth.
On the rare occasions when magma breaks
the surface, as in a volcanic eruption, it is
called lava.
 Magma originates in the lower part of
Earth’s crust and in the upper portion of the
mantle. Most of the mantle and crust are
solid, so the presence of magma is crucial to
understanding the geology and morphology
of the mantle.
 Decompression melting involves the upward
movement of Earth’s mostly solid mantle.
This hot material rises to an area of lower
pressure through the process of convection.
 Areas of lower pressure always have a lower
melting point than areas of high pressure.
This reduction in overlying pressure, or
decompression, enables the mantle rock to
melt and form magma.
Decompression melting often occurs at
divergent boundaries, where tectonic plates
separate. The rifting movement causes the
buoyant magma below to rise and fill the
space of lower pressure. The rock then cools
into new crust.
 Flux melting occurs when water or carbon
dioxide are added to rock. These compounds
cause the rock to melt at lower temperatures.
This creates magma in places where it
originally maintained a solid structure.
 Magma leaves the confines of the upper
mantle and crust in two major ways: as an
intrusion or as an extrusion. An intrusion
can form features such as dikes and
xenoliths. An extrusion could include lava
and volcanic rock.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Surface faulting
is the differential movement of the two sides
of a fracture at the Earth’s surface.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Liquefaction is
a physical process that takes place during
some earthquakes that may lead to ground
failure.
Supplementary notes:
Effects of earthquake
 The effects from earthquakes include
ground shaking, surface faulting, ground
failure, and less commonly, tsunamis.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
  Surface faulting is the differential movement
of the two sides of a fracture at the Earth’s
surface and can be strike-slip, normal, and
reverse (or thrust).
 Liquefaction is not a type of ground failure;
it is a physical process that takes place
during some earthquakes that may lead to
ground failure.
 As a consequence of liquefaction, clay-free
soil deposits, primarily sands and silts,
temporarily lose strength and behave as
viscous fluids rather than as solids.
 Liquefaction takes place when seismic shear
waves pass through a saturated granular
soil layer, distort its granular structure, and
cause some of the void spaces to collapse.
24. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Transform
boundaries - where crust is neither produced
nor destroyed.
Supplementary notes:
Plate boundaries
O
 There are four types of plate boundaries:
 Divergent boundaries - where new crust
is generated as the plates pull away from
each other.
SC
 Convergent boundaries - where crust
is destroyed as one plate dives under
another.
 Transform boundaries - where crust
is neither produced nor destroyed as
the plates slide horizontally past each
other.
GS
 Plate boundary zones - broad belts in
which boundaries are not well defined
and the effects of plate interaction are
unclear.
25. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Geomorphic agents
 Any exogenic element of nature (like water,
ice, wind, etc.,) capable of acquiring and
transporting earth materials can be called
a geomorphic agent.
 When these elements of nature become
mobile due to gradients, they remove the
materials and transport them over slopes
and deposit them at lower level.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Geomorphic processes and geomorphic
agents especially exogenic, unless stated
separately, are one and the same.
 A process is a force applied on earth
materials affecting the same. An agent
is a mobile medium (like running water,
moving ice masses, wind, waves and
currents etc.) which removes, transports
and deposits earth materials. Running
water, groundwater, glacier winds, wave
and currents can be geomorphic agents.
 Without gravity and gradients there
would be no mobility and hence no erosion,
transportation and deposition are possible.
Gravitational stresses are as important as
the other geomorphic processes. Gravity is
the force that is keeping us in contact with
the surface and it is the force that switches
on the movement of all surface material on
RE
earth.
26. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Soil formation
 Soil formation or pedogenesis depends first
on weathering. It is this weathering mantle
(depth of the weathered material) which is
the basic input for soil to form.
 Over gentle slopes where erosion is slow and
percolation of water is good, soil formation
is very favourable. Soils over flat areas
may develop a thick layer of clay with good
accumulation of organic matter giving the
soil dark colour.
 Climate is an important active factor in soil
formation. The climatic elements involved
in soil development are:
 Moisture in terms of its intensity, frequency
and duration of precipitation -evaporation
and humidity.
 Temperature in terms of seasonal and
diurnal variations.
27. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: The region above
about 500 km is called the exosphere. It
contains mainly oxygen and hydrogen atoms,
but there are so few of them that they rarely
collide - they follow “ballistic” trajectories
under the influence of gravity, and some of
them escape right out into space.
12
 Supplementary notes:
Structure of Atmosphere
 The atmosphere is comprised of layers
based on temperature. These layers are the
troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere and
thermosphere. A further region at about
500 km above the Earth’s surface is called
the exosphere.
The Mesosphere
 The region above the stratosphere is called
the mesosphere. Here the temperature again
decreases with height, reaching a minimum
of about -90°C at the “mesopause”.
The Thermosphere and Ionosphere
 The thermosphere lies above the mesopause,
and is a region in which temperatures again
increase with height. This temperature
increase is caused by the absorption of
RE
energetic ultraviolet and X-Ray radiation
from the sun.
 The region of the atmosphere above about
80 km is also caused the “ionosphere”,
since the energetic solar radiation knocks
electrons off molecules and atoms, turning
them into “ions” with a positive charge. The
O
temperature of the thermosphere varies
between night and day and between the
seasons, as do the numbers of ions and
electrons which are present. The ionosphere
reflects and absorbs radio waves, allowing
SC
us to receive shortwave radio broadcasts in
New Zealand from other parts of the world.
The Exosphere
 The region above about 500 km is called
the exosphere. It contains mainly oxygen
and hydrogen atoms, but there are so few
of them that they rarely collide - they follow
GS
“ballistic” trajectories under the influence of
gravity, and some of them escape right out
into space.
The Magnetosphere
 The earth behaves like a huge magnet.
It traps electrons (negative charge) and
protons (positive), concentrating them in two
bands about 3,000 and 16,000 km above the
globe - the Van Allen “radiation” belts. This
outer region surrounding the earth, where
charged particles spiral along the magnetic
field lines, is called the magnetosphere.
29. Correct Option: (a)
28. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Mediterranean
climate lies in between 30° and 40° in both
hemispheres because of the changing of
permanent belts with the overhead position
of the sun.
13
Supplementary notes:
Pressure belts
 Pressure belts are the areas of the Earth
that are dominated by either high or low-
pressure cells. These pressure belts aren’t
meant to be permanent. They shift in time
with the sun’s apparent movement.
 In the northern hemisphere, they migrate
south in the winter and north in the
summer.
 The seasonal changes in the climate are
caused by the shifting of pressure belts.
 Pressure belts are the areas of the Earth
that are dominated by either high or low-
pressure cells. These pressure belts aren’t
meant to be permanent. They shift in time
with the sun’s apparent movement.
In the northern hemisphere, they migrate

south in the winter and north in the
summer. The shifting of the pressure
belts causes seasonal climatic fluctuations,
especially between latitudes 30° and 40° in
both hemispheres.
 The pressure belts shift 5° northward when
the sun shines vertically overhead on the
Tropic of Cancer (21 June), and 5° southward
when the sun shines vertically overhead on
the Tropic of Capricorn (22 December) from
their initial position.
 Seasonal climate fluctuations are caused
by the movement of the pressure belts,
especially between the latitudes of 30° and
40° in both hemispheres.
 Because of the changing of permanent
belts southwards and northwards with the
overhead position of the sun, this region has
a Mediterranean climate.
 During the winter, Westerlies prevail,
resulting in rain. During the summer, dry
Trade Winds blow offshore, preventing rain
from falling in certain areas.
 Due to changes in the heating of the continents
and oceans caused by the Earth’s tilt on
its axis, the pressure conditions between
January and July differ substantially. The
seasonal changes in the climate are caused
by the shifting of pressure belts.
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct: During the winter,
the formation of Jet Streams as well as
their extension and velocity increases. In
winter thermal contrast increases, as does
the intensity of the high-pressure centre at
the pole.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Supplementary notes:
Jet Streams
 The thermal contrast of air cells like Hadley
cells and Ferrel cells is a factor in their
origin. The ‘Rossby Wave’ refers to the Jet
Stream’s meandering or whirl movement.
 Because of the southern shift of the pressure
belts, the equatorial extension of the Jet
Stream is greater in winter.
 During the winter, thermal contrast
increases, as does the intensity of the high-
pressure centre at the pole. It accelerates
the formation of Jet Streams, as well as
their extension and velocity.
30. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Hail forms in
cold storm clouds.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Graupel is
when snow falls in the form of a ball instead
of soft flakes.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Virga is a type
O
of precipitation that begins to fall from
a cloud, but evaporates before it reaches the
surface of the Earth.
Supplementary notes:
SC
Types of Precipitation
 Rain
 Rain is precipitation that falls
to the surface of the Earth
as water droplets. Raindrops form
around microscopic cloud condensation
GS
nuclei, such as a particle of dust or
a molecule of pollution.
 Rain that falls from clouds but
freezes before it reaches the ground is
called sleet or ice-pellets.
 Hail
 Hail forms in cold storm clouds. It forms
when very cold water droplets freeze,
or turn solid, as soon as they touch
things like dust or dirt. The storm blows
the hailstones into the upper part of
the cloud. More frozen water droplets
are added to the hailstone before it falls.
 Unlike sleet, which is liquid when it forms
and freezes as it falls to Earth, hail falls
as a stone of solid ice.
 Hailstones are usually the size of small
rocks, but they can get as large as 15
centimeters (6 inches) across and weigh
more than a pound.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Snow
 Snow is precipitation that falls in the
form of ice crystals. Hail is also ice,
but hailstones are just collections of
frozen water droplets. Snow has a
complex structure. The ice crystals are
formed individually in clouds, but when
they fall, they stick together in clusters
of snowflakes.
 Snowfall happens when many individual
snowflakes fall from the clouds. Unlike
a hail storm, snowfall is usually
calm. Hailstones are hard, while
snowflakes are soft.
 Snowflakes develop different patterns,
depending on the temperature and
humidity of the air.
 When snow falls in the form of a ball
instead of soft flakes, it is called graupel.
RE
This happens when snow is melted
and precipitation forms around
the snow crystal.
 Snow requires temperatures at the
ground to be near or below freezing—
less than 0 degrees Celsius (32-degrees
Fahrenheit). Snow that falls on warmer
ground melts on contact.
 Sometimes, different types of
precipitation fall at the same time.
During harsh winter storms, for instance,
it is not unusual for sleet and rain to fall
at the same time.
 Other times, precipitation doesn’t fall at
all. Virga is a type of precipitation that
begins to fall from a cloud,
but evaporates before it reaches the
surface of the Earth.
31. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Earth’s surface re-
emits heat in the form of infrared radiation
but part of this does not escape into space
as atmospheric gases (e.g., carbon dioxide,
methane, etc.) absorb a major fraction of it.
Supplementary notes:
Factors affecting Green House Gas
emission
 Clouds and gases reflect about one-fourth
of the incoming solar radiation, and absorb
some of it but almost half of incoming solar
radiation falls on Earth’s surface heating it,
while a small proportion is reflected back.
 Earth’s surface re-emits heat in the form
of infrared radiation but part of this does
not escape into space as atmospheric gases
(e.g., carbon dioxide, methane, etc.) absorb
a major fraction of it.
14
  The molecules of these gases radiate heat
energy, and a major part of which again
comes to Earth’s surface, thus heating it
up once again. This cycle is repeated many
a times. Carbon dioxide and methane
– are commonly known as greenhouse
gases because they are responsible for the
greenhouse effect.
32. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In stratosphere,
UV rays act on them releasing Chlorine
atoms. Chlorine degrades ozone releasing
molecular oxygen, with these atoms acting
merely as catalysts; Chlorine atoms are not
consumed in the reaction. Hence, whatever
CFCs are added to the stratosphere, they
have permanent and continuing effects on
RE
Ozone level.
 Statement 2 is correct: There should
be a balance between production and
degradation of ozone in the stratosphere.
Of late, the balance has been disrupted due
to enhancement of ozone degradation by
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).

O
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Kigali
Amendment to the Montreal Protocol is
an international agreement to gradually
reduce the consumption and production of
SC
hydrofluorocarbons. It is a legally binding
agreement designed to create rights and
obligations in international law.
Supplementary notes:
Ozone depletion
 There is ‘good’ ozone also; this ozone is
GS
found in the upper part of the atmosphere
called the stratosphere, and it acts as a
shield absorbing ultraviolet radiation from
the sun.
 UV rays are highly injurious to living
organisms since DNA and proteins of living
organisms preferentially absorb UV rays,
and its high energy breaks the chemical
bonds within these molecules.
 The thickness of the ozone in a column of air
from the ground to the top of the atmosphere
is measured in terms of Dobson units (DU).
 Ozone gas is continuously formed by the
action of UV rays on molecular oxygen, and
also degraded into molecular oxygen in the
stratosphere.
 There should be a balance between
production and degradation of ozone in the
stratosphere. Of late, the balance has been
disrupted due to enhancement of ozone
degradation by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
15
 CFCs find wide use as refrigerants. CFCs
discharged in the lower part of atmosphere
move upward and reach stratosphere.
 In stratosphere, UV rays act on them
releasing Chlorine atoms. Chlorine
degrades ozone releasing molecular oxygen,
with these atoms acting merely as catalysts;
Chlorine atoms are not consumed in the
reaction. Hence, whatever CFCs are added
to the stratosphere, they have permanent
and continuing effects on Ozone level.
 Recognising the deleterious effects of ozone
depletion, an international treaty, known
as the Montreal Protocol, was signed at
Montreal (Canada) in 1987 (effective in
1989) to control the emission of ozone
depleting substances.
 Subsequently many more efforts have
been made and protocols have laid down
definite roadmaps, separately for developed
and developing countries, for reducing the
emission of CFCs and other ozone depleting
chemicals.
 The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal
Protocol is an international agreement
to gradually reduce the consumption and
production of hydrofluorocarbons. It is a
legally binding agreement designed to create
rights and obligations in international law.
33. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Biodiversity Heritage
Sites (BHS) show ecologically fragile
ecosystem and are high in endemism.
Supplementary notes:
Conservation reserves and Community
reserves
 Conservation reserves and community
reserves in India are terms denoting
protected areas of India which typically
act as buffer zones to or connectors and
migration corridors between established
national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and
reserved and protected forests of India.
 Such areas are designated as conservation
areas if they are uninhabited and completely
owned by the Government of India but
used for subsistence by communities and
community areas if part of the lands are
privately owned.
 These protected area categories were first
introduced in the Wildlife (Protection)
Amendment Act of 2002 − the amendment
to the Wildlife Protection Act of 1972. These
categories were added because of reduced
protection in and around existing or
proposed protected areas due to private
ownership of land, and land use.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Biodiversity Heritage Sites
 “Biodiversity Heritage Sites” (BHS) are well
defined areas that are unique, ecologically
fragile ecosystems - terrestrial, coastal and
inland waters and, marine having rich
biodiversity comprising of any one or more of
the following components: richness of wild as
well as domesticated species or intra-specific
categories, high endemism, presence of rare
and threatened species, keystone species,
species of evolutionary significance, wild
ancestors of domestic/ cultivated species
or their varieties, past pre-eminence of
biological components represented by fossil
beds and having significant cultural, ethical
or aesthetic values and are important for the
maintenance of cultural diversity, with or
without a long history of human association
with them.
 Khangchendzonga National Park, Sikkim is
a mixed heritage site of India.
34. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The act ensures
fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising
O
out of the use and knowledge of biological
resources with the local communities.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It permits
claim of any intellectual property rights on
SC
any invention based on the research made
on the biological resources obtained from
India.
Supplementary notes:
Biological Diversity Act, 2002
 The act was enacted in 2002, it aims at
the conservation of biological resources,
GS
managing its sustainable use and enabling
fair and equitable sharing benefits arising
out of the use and knowledge of biological
resources with the local communities.
Salient Features of the Act
 The Act prohibits the following activities
without the prior approval from the National
Biodiversity Authority:
 Any person or organisation (either based
in India or not) obtaining any biological
resource occurring in India for its
research or commercial utilisation.
 The transfer of the results of any research
relating to any biological resources
occurring in, or obtained from, India.
 The claim of any intellectual property
rights on any invention based on the
research made on the biological resources
obtained from India. The act envisaged
a three-tier structure to regulate the
access to biological resources:
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 The National Biodiversity Authority
(NBA)
 The State Biodiversity Boards (SBBs)
 The Biodiversity Management
Committees (BMCs) (at local level)
 The act stipulates all offences under it as
cognizable and non-bailable. Any grievances
related to the determination of benefit
sharing or order of the National Biodiversity
Authority or a State Biodiversity Board
under this Act, shall be taken to the National
Green Tribunal (NGT).
35. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: It creates a
financial value for the carbon stored in
forests by offering incentives for developing
RE
countries to reduce emissions from forested
lands and invest in low-carbon paths to
sustainable development.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Reducing
emissions from deforestation and forest
degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism
developed by Parties to the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC).
Supplementary notes:
UN REDD
 The United Nations Collaborative
Programme on Reducing Emissions from
Deforestation and Forest Degradation in
Developing Countries (UN-REDD) is the
UN knowledge and advisory platform on
the forest solutions to the climate crisis.
 UN-REDD was launched in 2008 and builds
on the technical expertise of the Food and
Agriculture Organization (FAO), the United
Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
and the United Nations Environment
Programme (UNEP).
 At COP 13 under the Bali Action Plan, it
was decided that REDD is to be included
in a post-2012 framework and the details
were to be decided during the COP 15 in
Copenhagen.
UN REDD+
 Reducing emissions from deforestation and
forest degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism
developed by Parties to the United Nations
Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC).
 It creates a financial value for the carbon
stored in forests by offering incentives for
developing countries to reduce emissions
from forested lands and invest in low-carbon
paths to sustainable development.
16
  UN REDD+ goes beyond simply deforestation
and forest degradation and includes the role
of conservation, sustainable management of
forests and enhancement of forest carbon
stocks.
 REDD+ is seen as a mechanism for directing
funds from the North to the South to help
expand low-carbon development and poverty
reduction.
36. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Gause’s
‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that
two closely related species competing for the
same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely
and the competitively inferior one will be
eliminated eventually. This may be true if
resources are limiting, but not otherwise.
RE
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Commensalism:
An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a
mango branch.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Mutualism:
Lichens relationship between a fungus and
photosynthesising algae.
Supplementary notes:
Population Ecology
O plants, rooted-floating angiosperms followed
 Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’
states that two closely related species
competing for the same resources cannot
SC
co-exist indefinitely and the competitively
inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
This may be true if resources are limiting,
but not otherwise.
 Commensalism: This is the interaction
in which one species benefits and the
other is neither harmed nor benefited.
An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a
GS
mango branch, and barnacles growing on
the back of a whale benefit while neither
the mango tree nor the whale derives
any apparent benefit.
 Mutualism: This interaction confers
benefits on both the interacting
species. Lichens represent an intimate
mutualistic relationship between a
fungus and photosynthesising algae
or cyanobacteria. Similarly, the
mycorrhizae are associations between
fungi and the roots of higher plants. The
fungi help the plant in the absorption of
essential nutrients from the soil while
the plant in turn provides the fungi with
energy-yielding carbohydrates.
37. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct: In secondary
succession the species that invade depend
17
on the condition of the soil, availability of
water, the environment as also the seeds
or other propagules present. Since soil is
already there, the rate of succession is much
faster and hence, climax is also reached
more quickly.
Supplementary notes:
Ecological Succession
 The species that invade a bare area are
called pioneer species. In primary succession
on rocks these are usually lichens which
are able to secrete acids to dissolve rock,
helping in weathering and soil formation.
These later pave way to some very small
plants like bryophytes, which are able to
take hold in the small amount of soil. They
are, with time, succeeded by higher plants,
and after several more stages, ultimately a
stable climax forest community is formed.
 The climax community remains stable as
long as the environment remains unchanged.
With time the xerophytic habitat gets
converted into a mesophytic one.
 In primary succession in water, the pioneers
are the small phytoplanktons, which are
replaced with time by rooted-submerged
by free-floating plants, then reed-swamp,
marsh-meadow, scrub and finally the trees.
The climax again would be a forest. With
time the water body is converted into land.
 In secondary succession the species that
invade depend on the condition of the soil,
availability of water, the environment as
also the seeds or other propagules present.
Since soil is already there, the rate of
succession is much faster and hence, climax
is also reached more quickly.
38. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct: Andhra Pradesh
> Telangana > Odisha > Karnataka >
Jharkhand.
Supplementary notes:
India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021
 The ISFR 2021 presents the latest status
of the ‘Forest cover’ and ‘Tree cover’ of the
country, estimates of growing stock, the
extent of trees outside forests, mangrove
cover, bamboo resources, and assessment of
forest carbon stock.
 In addition to the regular chapters, this
time round, a special chapter on “Forest
Cover assessment in Tiger reserves and
Tiger corridor areas of the country and
decadal change in Forest Cover” has also
been included.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
  Results of the two special studies
namely Above Ground Biomass Estimation
using Synthetic Aperture Radar
data (carried out in collaboration with
ISRO) and Climate hot spots in forest areas
studies (carried out in collaboration with
BITS Pilani, Goa campus) are also being
presented in this report.
 New initiatives taken up in the last two
years by the Forest Survey of India (FSI)
team are also being presented as a special
chapter. India’s progress towards achieving
the Nationally Determined Contribution
commitments are also included as part of
the chapter on Forest carbon assessment.
Key Findings
 The Total Forest and Tree cover is 24.62% of
the geographical area of the country.
The Total forest cover is 7,13,789 sq km
which is 21.71% of the geographical area of
the country.
 The Tree cover is 2.91% of the geographical
area of the country. As compared to ISFR
2019 the current assessment shows an
increase of:
0.28% of forest and tree cover put
O
 and mammals in terrestrial ecosystem and
together, at the national level.
 Forest Cover: 0.22%
 Tree Cover: 0.76%
SC
 Change in Recorded forest Area/Green
Wash (RFA/GW) as compared to previous
assessment of 2019. Forest Cover within
the RFA/GW: A slight increase of 31 sq km.
Forest Cover outside the RFA/GW: There is
an increase of 1,509 sq km.
 The top five states in terms of increase in
forest cover: Andhra Pradesh > Telangana
GS
> Odisha > Karnataka > Jharkhand. Forest
cover in the hill districts is 40.17% of the
total geographical area of these districts.
A decrease of 902 sq km (0.32%) in 140 hill
districts of the country.
39. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: In an aquatic
ecosystem, Grassland Food Chain (GFC) is
the major conduit for energy flow.
Supplementary notes:
Aquatic Ecosystem
 As against this, in a terrestrial ecosystem, a
much larger fraction of energy flows through
the detritus food chain than through the
GFC. Detritus food chain may be connected
with the grazing food chain at some levels:
some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
GFC animals, and in a natural ecosystem,
some animals like cockroaches, crows, etc.,
are omnivores.
 Some common herbivores are insects, birds
and mammals in terrestrial ecosystem and
molluscs in aquatic ecosystem.
 The green plant in the ecosystem is called
producers. In a terrestrial ecosystem, major
producers are herbaceous and woody plants.
Likewise, producers in an aquatic ecosystem
are various species like phytoplankton,
algae and higher plants. Crop fields and an
aquarium may also be considered as man-
made ecosystems.
 In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is the major
conduit for energy flow. As against this,
in a terrestrial ecosystem, a much larger
fraction of energy flows through the detritus
food chain than through the GFC. Detritus
RE
food chain may be connected with the
grazing food chain at some levels: some of
the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC
animals, and in a natural ecosystem, some
animals like cockroaches, crows, etc., are
omnivores.
 Some common herbivores are insects, birds
molluscs in aquatic ecosystem.
 The green plant in the ecosystem is called
producers. In a terrestrial ecosystem, major
producers are herbaceous and woody plants.
Likewise, producers in an aquatic ecosystem
are various species like phytoplankton,
algae and higher plants. Crop fields and an
aquarium may also be considered as man-
made ecosystems.
40. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Methods of air pollution control
 Zoning:
 This method of controlling air pollution
can be adopted at the planning stages of
the city. Zoning advocates setting aside
of separate areas for industries so that
they are far removed from the residential
areas. The heavy industries should not
be located too close to each other.
 New industries, as far as possible, should
be established away from larger cities
(this will also keep a check on increasing
concentration of urban population in a
few larger cities only) and the locational
decisions of large industries should be
guided by regional planning.
18
  The industrial estate of Bangalore
is divided into three zones namely
light, medium and large industries.
In Bangalore and Delhi very large
industries are not permitted.
 Vegetation:
 Plants contribute towards controlling
air-pollution by utilizing carbon dioxide
and releasing oxygen in the process of
photosynthesis. This purifies the air (re-
moval of gaseous pollutant—CO2) for
the respiration of men and animals.
 Diffusion of Pollutants in Air:
 Dilution of the contaminants in the
atmosphere is another approach to the
control of air pollution.
 If the pollution source releases only
a small quantity of the contaminants
then pollution is not noticeable as
RE
these pollutants easily diffuse into the
atmosphere but if the quantity of air
contaminants is beyond the limited
capacity of the environment to absorb the
contaminants then pollution is caused.
 Electrostatic Precipitators:
The electrostatic precipitator works on

O
the principle of electrostatic precipitation
i.e. electrically charged particulates
present in the polluted gas are separated
from the gas stream under the influence
SC
of the electrical field.
41. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The Congress
met in a special session in August 1918 at
Bombay under Hasan Imam’s presidency
GS
and declared the reforms to be
“disappointing” and “unsatisfactory”
and demanded effective self-
government instead. However, veteran
Congress leaders led by Surendranath
Banerjea were in favour of accepting the
government proposals.
Supplementary notes:
Montagu-Chelmsford reforms
 In 1918, Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of
State, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy,
produced their scheme of constitutional
reforms, known as the Montagu-
Chelmsford (or Mont-Ford) Reforms,
which led to the enactment of the
Government of India Act of 1919. The
Act introduced, for the time, bicameral
legislature; the Lower House or Central
Legislative Assembly and the Upper House
or Council of State and direct elections in
India.
19
 Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms which
came into force in 1921. The sole purpose
of this Act was to ensure Indians of their
representation in the Government. The Act
introduced reforms at the Central as well as
Provincial levels of Government.
 The Swaraj Party was founded in 1923
and won a substantial number of seats in
the elections, except Madras.
 The main provisions were the
following:
 The secretary of state would control
affairs relating to Government of India
 The Central Legislature would comprise
two chambers- The Council of State and
the Indian Legislative Assembly
 The Central Legislature was empowered
to enact laws on any matter for whole of
India.
 The Governor General was given
powers to summon, prorogue, dissolve
the Chambers, and to promulgate
Ordinances.
 The number of Indians in Viceroy’s
Executive Council would be three out of
eight members.
 Establishment of bicameral Provincial
Legislative councils.
 Dyarchy in the Provinces
 Reserved subjects like Finance, Law and
Order, Army, Police etc.
 Transferred subjects like Public Health,
Education, Agriculture, Local Self-
government etc.
 There would henceforth be direct
election and an extension of Communal
franchise.
42. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: According
to this formula, the British government
would hold a referendum to determine
whether or not to grant India independence.
However, Rajaji Formula asked the Muslim
League to endorse Congress demand for
independence.
 Statement 2 is correct: The central
goal of the formulas and proposals was to
establish Pakistan as a separate country,
but the majority of the people were to be
non-Muslim.
 Statement 3 is correct: Gandhiji was in
support to the proposals if Rajaji formula.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Supplementary notes:
About CR or Rajaji formula
 Rajagopalachari’s formula(or C. R.
formula or Rajaji formula) was a proposal
formulated by C.Rajagopalachari to solve
the political deadlock between the All
India Muslim League and the Indian
National Congress on the independence of
British India.
 The League’s position was that the
Muslims and Hindus of British India were
of two separate nations and henceforth
the Muslims had the right to their own
nation.
 The main points in the CR Plan were:
 Muslim League to endorse Congress
demand for independence.
 League to cooperate with Congress in
forming a provisional government at
centre.
 After the end of the war, the entire
population of Muslim majority areas in
the North-West and North-East India to
decide by a plebiscite, whether or not to
form a separate sovereign state.
O
 In case of acceptance of partition,
agreement to be made jointly for
safeguarding defence, commerce,
communications, etc.
SC
 The above terms to be operative only
if England transferred full powers to
India.
43. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Imperial
GS
 
Legislative Council possessed no real
powers. It was merely an advisory body. The
Imperial Legislative Council had no control
over the budgets.
Supplementary notes:
The administrative changes that took
place after 1857 revolt
 Under the GoI Act, 1858 the Indian Civil
Services was to be constituted for the
administration of the country. There was
also a provision for Indians to be admitted
to the service.
 The Indian Councils Act 1861 made a
beginning of representative institutions
by associating Indians with law-making.
Viceroy nominated some Indians as
non-official members of his expanded
council. Lord Canning nominated- Raja
of Benaras, the maharaja of Patiala and
Sir Dinkar Rao.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
Administrative changes
 By the Government of India Act 1858, the
power to govern India was transferred from
the East India Company to the British
Crown.
 The authority over India, which was wielded
by the directors of the Company and the
Board of Control, was now to be exercised
by the Secretary of State for India aided by
a Council.
 The Act of 1858 provided that the Governor-
General would have an Executive Council
whose members were to act as heads of
different departments and as his official
advisers.
Provincial Administration
 The Act of 1861 marked the turning of
the tide of centralization. It laid down
that legislative councils similar to that of
RE
the centre should be established first in
Bombay, Madras, and Bengal and then in
other provinces.
 In 1870, under Lord Mayo, provincial
governments were granted fixed sums out
of central revenues for the administration of
certain services like police, jails, education,
medical services and roads and were asked
to administer them as they wished.
 In 1877, Lord Lytton transferred to the
provinces certain other heads of expenditure
like Land Revenue, Excise, General
Administration, and Law and Justice.
 In 1882, all sources of revenue were divided
into three heads- general, provincial, and
those to be divided between the centre and
the provinces.
Local Bodies
The Government further decentralized
administration by promoting local
government through municipalities and
district boards.
 Local services like education, health,
sanitation and water supply were transferred
to local bodies that would finance them
through local taxes.
 Ripon resolution of 1882 laid down the
policy of administering local affairs largely
through local bodies, a majority of whose
members were to be non-officials.
 However, the local bodies functioned just
like departments of the government as the
Government retained the right to exercise
strict control over the activities of the local
bodies.
Public Services
 Maximum age of entry into the civil service
was gradually reduced from 23 in 1859 to
19 in 1878.
20
  Under Indian pressure, different
administrative services were gradually
Indianised after 1918; but the position
of control and authority were still kept in
British hands.
 Moreover, people soon discovered that
Indianisation of these services had not put
any part of political power in their hands.
The Indians in these services functioned
as agents of British rule and loyally served
Britain’s imperial purposes.
44. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Bhagat realized
that a revolution meant organization and
development of a mass movement of the
exploited and the suppressed sections by the
RE
revolutionary intelligentsia and that’s why
he used to say, “Real revolutionary armies
are in villages and factories.” Revolution
was no longer equated with militancy and
violence. As Bhagat Singh said in the court,
“Revolution does not necessarily involve
sanguinary strife, nor is there a place in it
for personal vendetta. It is not the cult of
O
bomb and pistol. By revolution we mean the
present order of things, which is based on
manifest injustice, must change”.
Supplementary notes:
SC
Revolutionary Nationalism
 The activities of revolutionary heroism
started as a by-product of the growth
of militant nationalism. The first phase
acquired a more activist form as a fallout
of the Swadeshi and Boycott movement and
continued till 1917.
GS
 The revolutionaries hoped to inspire the
populace by appealing to patriotism,
particularly among the idealistic youth who
would eventually drive the British out. They
did not preach social reform, but rather
broke down the barriers of time-honored
customs. They revolted against anything
that attempted to obstruct the revolutionary
movement’s onward march.
 Naujawan Bharat Sabha was founded by
Bhagat Singh in 1926. Members from the
Hindu, Muslim and Sikh communities were
there in the organization.
 The second phase began as a result of the
fallout of the Non-cooperation Movement.
After the open movement’s demise, the
younger nationalists who had been a part
of it found it impossible to drop out and fade
into the background.
 The 1905 Bengal Partition was forced in
the teeth of moderate protest. A group of
21
nationalism had now realized the futility of
prayer and petition to the Government.
Revolutionary Activities - Ideology
 The activities, writings, and speeches
of this period’s revolutionaries reveal a
strong religious bias, romanticism, and
emotionalism.
 Many of them were convinced that “pure
political propaganda would not suffice for
the country, and that people needed to
be spiritually prepared to face dangers.”
However, their religion was not the same as
that of the majority of the country’s people.
 There were flaws in the early revolutionaries’
ideology, as well as flaws in their reliance
on religious teachings to advance the cause
of revolution, but it is also beyond doubt
that the emancipation of India through
armed struggle was the supreme goal for
the staunch revolutionaries.
 This aspect should not be overlooked or
undervalued when evaluating the early
stages of the revolutionary movement.
 Individual heroic actions such as organizing
assassinations of unpopular officials as
well as traitors and informers among the
revolutionaries themselves; conducting
swadeshi dacoities to raise funds for
revolutionary activities; and (during the
First World War) organizing military
conspiracies with the expectation of
assistance from Britain’s enemies were all
part of the revolutionary methodology.
 The plan was to instill fear in the rulers’
hearts, rouse the people, and remove their
fear of authority. The revolutionaries
hoped to inspire the populace by appealing
to patriotism, particularly among the
idealistic youth who would eventually drive
the British out.
 They began the search for a revolutionary
ideology and a revolutionary program by
drawing lessons from our own history as
well as the histories of other countries’
revolutions.
 They did not preach social reform, but rather
broke down the barriers of time-honored
customs. They revolted against anything
that attempted to obstruct the revolutionary
movement’s onward march.
45. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
About Khilafat –Non-cooperation
movement
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
  The growing resentment of British rule
prompted the formation of the Khilafat and
Non-Cooperation movement.
 In the First World War, Turkey fought
against Britain. Turkey, as one of the
defeated countries, was subjected to
injustice at the hands of Britain.
 Muslims all over the world, including India,
regarded Turkey’s Sultan, Khalifa, as
their spiritual leader (Caliph).
 During World War I, Turkey sided with
Germany and Austria against the British.
Indian Muslims supported the government
with the understanding that the sacred
sites of the Ottoman Empire would be in the
hands of Khalifa.
 However, following the war, the
Ottoman Empire was divided, Turkey
was dismembered, and the Khalifa was
deposed.
 This infuriated Muslims, who saw it as an
insult to Khalifa. The Khilafat Movement
was founded by the Ali brothers, Shoukat
Ali and Mohammad Ali, in opposition to
the British government.
 For a time, the Khilafat leaders’ actions
O
were limited to meetings, petitions, and
deputations in support of the Khilafat.
Later, however, a militant movement
emerged, demanding active agitation such
as the cessation of all cooperation with the
SC
British.
 The Congress’s support was critical to the
Khilafat movement’s success. The Muslim
League also decided to fully support the
Congress and its political agitation.
About Swaraj or Congress Khilafat
Swaraj Party
GS
 Swaraj Party or Congress Khilafat Swaraj
Party was considered a governmental party
established in India from late 1922 to early
1923 by the members of the Indian National
Congress post the Gaya yearly meeting in
December 1922. The meaning of Swaraj is
“self-rule.” Swaraj Party was involved in
the movement to attain freedom from the
British regime. The most prominent leaders
were Motilal Nehru (father of Jawaharlal
Nehru) from North India and Chitta Ranjan
Das from Bengal.
Aim and Objective of Swaraj Party
 Swaraj party’s main purpose was
to inquire about the new Central
Legislative Assembly elections in
1923. Another objective was to disturb
and obstruct the British Raj in India with
anti-Government rage among the council
sections. The goals of the Swaraj Party
were:
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Achieving self-rule or Swarajya.
 Getting the control to draft a
constitution.
 Obtaining power over the
administration.
 Gaining status of sovereignty.
 Bringing complete regional
independence.
 Giving individuals the right to have
authority over the machinery of the
Government.
 Manage the municipal and provincial
bodies.
 Categorize farming and industrial
labour.
 Indulge in the productive programs
held by Congress.
RE
 Owning a tool or agency to advertise
internationally.
 Launching a partnership with Asian
countries to encourage trade.
46. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Caste based Movements
 Pair 1 is correctly matched: Nair
movement started in 1861 in the state
of Travancore under the leadership of V.
Raman Pillai, K. Rama Krishna Pillai and M.
Padmanabha Pillai against the domination
of Nambudri Brahmins and non-Malyali
Brahmins (Tamil and Marathas).
 Pair 2 is correctly matched: Arravipuram
movement also called Ezhava movement
or the Shree Narayan Guru Dharma
Paripalana (SNDP) Movement was an
example of a regional movement that arose
from the conflict between the lower and
upper castes. Sree Narayana Guru Swamy
(1856– 1928) founded it among the Ezhavas
of Kerala, a backward caste of toddy-tappers
who were considered untouchables and were
denied education and entry into temples.
 Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Kaivartas
movement was started by Kaivartas. It laid
the foundation of the Jati Nirdharani Sabha
in 1897 and Mahishya Samiti in 1901.
 Pair 4 is correctly matched: S.
Ramanathan invited E.V. Ramaswamy to
start this movement in Tamil Nadu, where
it was very influential, in 1925.
 The Self Respect Movement, also known
as the Dravidian Movement, advocated for
22
 equal rights for the backward castes, with a
focus on women’s rights.
 Most importantly, as the movement’s
leaders stated, the movement fought for
people of the lower castes to have “self-
respect” in society.
47. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Stupa has a
cylindrical drum or a circular anda over
which one can see harmika and chhatra.
The circumambulatory path, Pradakshina
path, is enclosed by railings called vedika.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Bharhut
Stupa located in MP is a brick stupa was
constructed at the site during the time of
Ashoka.
RE
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Chaitya is a
place of worship in the form of an assembly
hall inside the cave whereas Viharas are
the resident places for Buddhist monks.
Supplementary notes:
Buddhist Architecture

O
Many of the architectural traditions in
India owe its origin to both Buddhism
and Jainism. Between fifth to fourteenth
centuries, developments in Buddhist were
SC
equally vibrant, and often went hand-
in-glove with Hindu ones. Sites such as
Ellora have Buddhist, Hindu and Jain
monuments
 The pre-eminent Buddhist site in India is
Bodhgaya. Bodhgaya is a pilgrimage site
since Siddhartha achieved enlightenment
GS
here and became Gautama Buddha. While
the Bodhi tree is of immense importance,
the Mahabodhi Temple at Bodhgaya is an
important reminder of the brickwork of that
time.
Important Buddhist Architectural sites
in India
 Bharhut stupa
 Located in MP
 A brick stupa was constructed at the site
during the time of Ashoka
 The carvings of these stupas depict the
Jataka tales and stories
 A stone railing was constructed here
during the time of Sungas
 An important feature of this site is that
the narrative art is accompanied by an
inscription which is not found elsewhere
 Bharhut stupa is made of red sandstone
23
 Sanchi Stupa
 It is the most-well preserved stupa
amongst the three
 The foundation of this stupa was
probably laid by Ashoka
 It was enlarged during the time of
Sungas
 During the rule of Satavahanas, toranas
were added
 The railings depict the Jataka tales
 The Sanchi Stupa is made out of locally
quarried sandstone.
 Viharas
 It was the ancient Indian term for a
Buddhist monastery. Originally, viharas
were dwelling places used by wandering
monks during the rainy season but
eventually they evolved into centers
of learning and Buddhist architecture
through the donations of wealthy lay
Buddhists.
 Life in “Viharas” was codified early on. It
is the object of a part of the Pali canon,
the Vinaya Pitaka or “basket of
monastic discipline.”
 Typical large sites such as the Ajanta
Caves, Aurangabad Caves, Karli
Caves, and Kanheri Caves contain
several viharas.
 Chaityas
 It refers to a shrine, sanctuary, temple
or prayer hall in Indian religions. Most
early examples of chaitya that survive
are Indian rock-cut architecture.
 Chaityas have a gigantic hall with high
vaulted roof, with a lot of sculpture
work on the pillars and the entrance.
The largest Chaitya-Griha among all
Buddhist monuments in India is the
Karle caves.
 Many Chaityas show a stupa at the
back. Chaityas were carved either as
rectangular halls or apsidal vault-roof or
apsidal vault pillarless halls.
48. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian
Knowledge System (IKS) is an innovative
cell under Ministry of Education (MoE)
at AICTE, New Delhi.
 Statement 2 is correct: College and
university teachers may have to undergo
compulsory training programmes in IKS.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Supplementary notes:
Indian Knowledge Systems Initiative
 Indian Knowledge System (IKS) is an
innovative cell under the Union
Ministry of Education (MoE). It is
established to promote interdisciplinary
research on all aspects of IKS and
preserve and disseminate IKS for further
research and societal applications.
 It will actively engage in spreading the
rich heritage of our country and traditional
knowledge in the field of Arts and literature,
Agriculture, Basic Sciences, Engineering &
Technology, Architecture, Management,
Economics, etc.
 The programmes will include learning
about:
 Chemistry through Ayurveda.
 Mathematics in the Vedas.
 History of the Indian economy in the
Mahabharata and the Arthashastra.
49. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
O
 Statement 1 is correct: Under the Ministry
of Tribal Affairs’ aegis, the TRIFED has
launched the ‘Sankalp Se Siddhi’-Village
and Digital Connect campaign to improve
SC
the tribal ecosystem across the country.
Statement 2 is correct: There are several

Van Dhan Vikas Kendras across villages,
and one of the primary objectives of the
Sankalp Se Siddhi initiative is to activate
all of these kendras. Once these centres are
activated, it will be pretty easy to transform
the tribal ecosystem of India.
GS
Supplementary notes:
Sankalp Se Siddhi Initiative
 A total of 150 teams will visit ten communities
during the drive. As a result, each area will
be covered by 100 villages, and 1500 villages
will cover the entire country
 The teams that will visit the villages will also
identify possible Van Dhan Vikas Kendras
for clustering as TRIFOOD and SFURTI
units as larger firms, as well as shortlist
potential Van Dhan Vikas Kendras
 The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises has a scheme called the Scheme
of Fund for Regeneration of Traditional
Industries (SFURTI) (MSME)
 Once the VDVKs are enabled in
approximately 1500 villages, sales of Rs.
200 Crores are expected over the next 12
months as a result of this programme
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 The teams will integrate their efforts to find
tribal craftsmen and other organisations
and get them on board as suppliers, giving
them access to broader markets via the
Tribes India network, which includes both
actual stores and TribesIndia. Com.
50. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Union Minister
of Science & Technology inaugurated
India’s first unique “Rock” Museum and
later addressed the Hyderabad Scientists
at the CSIR-National Geophysical Research
Institute (NGRI).
Supplementary notes:
India’s first Open Rock Museum
The Open Rock Museum, set up with the
RE

aim to educate and enlighten the masses
about several lesser known facts, displays
around 35 different types of rocks from
different parts of India with ages ranging
from 3.3 Billion years to around 55 Million
years of the Earth’s history.
 These rocks also represent the deepest
part of the earth up to 175 kms of distance
from the surface of the earth. The rocks
have been sourced from Odisha, Tamil
Nadu, Uttarakhand, Jharkhand, Jammu &
Kashmir and others.
51. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Due to the focus
of the organization on Latin American and
Caribbean countries, other countries and
territories in the Americas, Canada and
the United States, as well as the overseas
territories in the Americas of France
(Overseas departments and territories of
France), the Netherlands (Dutch Caribbean),
Denmark (Greenland) and the United
Kingdom (British Overseas Territories) are
not included.
Supplementary notes:
Community of Latin American and
Caribbean States (CELAC)
 The Community of Latin American
and Caribbean States (CELAC) is an
intergovernmental mechanism for dialogue
and political agreement. It is a regional
forum that brings together all of Latin
America and the Caribbean countries.
 CELAC is the successor of the Rio Group and
the Latin American and Caribbean Summit
on Integration and Development (CALC).
It consists of 32 sovereign countries in the
24
 Americas. Due to the focus of the organization
on Latin American and Caribbean countries,
other countries and territories in the
Americas, Canada and the United States,
as well as the overseas territories in the
Americas of France (Overseas departments
and territories of France), the Netherlands
(Dutch Caribbean), Denmark (Greenland)
and the United Kingdom (British Overseas
Territories) are not included.
 CELAC is an example of a decade-long
push for deeper integration within Latin
America. CELAC was created to deepen
Latin American integration and by some
to reduce the significant influence of the
United States on the politics and economics
of Latin America.
 It is seen as an alternative to the
Organization of American States (OAS), the
regional body that was founded by United
RE
States and 21 other Latin American nations
originally as a countermeasure to potential
Soviet influence in the region.
52. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
O months.
Supplementary notes:
Two Fingers Test
SC
 The two-finger test is an invasive,
unscientific and regressive practice
where two fingers are inserted in the vagina
to assess laxity of vaginal muscles and
examine the hymen.
 The two-finger test has no scientific basis
and neither proves nor disproves allegations
of rape.
GS
 The two-finger test or per vaginum
examination is conducted on alleged
victims of sexual assault and rape to
determine whether they are habituated to
sexual intercourse. The test is based on the
incorrect assumption that a sexually
active woman cannot be raped.
Criticism
54. Correct Option: (b)
 The two-finger test has no scientific basis
and neither proves nor disproves allegations
of rape. It instead re-victimises and re-
traumatises women who may have been
sexually assaulted and is an affront to their
dignity.
 Section 375 (rape) of the IPC: Whether a
woman is habituated to sexual intercourse or
habitual to sexual intercourse is irrelevant
for the purposes of determining whether the
ingredients of Section 375 (rape) of the IPC
are present in a particular case.
25
53. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Pair 1 is correctly matched: Knowledge
Involvement in Research Advancement
through Nurturing (KIRAN) scheme:
Providing avenues to women scientists and
technologists for capacity building.
 Pair 2 is incorrectly matched:
Biotechnology Ignition Grant (BIG)
scheme: Largest early stage biotech funding
programme in India. Aims to encourage
researchers to take bio-technology closer to
market through a startup.
 Pair 3 is incorrectly matched:
Ramanujan Fellowship: It is meant for
brilliant Indian scientists from outside
India to take up scientific research positions
in India.
 Pair 4 is correctly matched: Atal
Innovation Mission (AIM),NITI Aayog
has launched AIM-PRIME (Programfor
Researchers on Innovation, Market
Readiness and Entrepreneurship)
Playbook. It aims to promote science-based,
deep technology ideas to market, through
training and guidance over a period of 12
Supplementary notes:
AIM-PRIME
 Recently, the AIM-PRIME (Program
for Researchers in Innovation, Market
Readiness, and Entrepreneurship)
Playbook was launched by NITI Aayog.
 The playbook was aimed at promoting
early-stage science-based, deep technology
ideas to market through training and
guidance over a period of 12 months
using a blended learning curriculum.
 Deep technology is based on tangible
engineering innovation or scientific
advances and discoveries. Deep Tech is
often set apart by its profound enabling
power, the differentiation it can create, and
its potential to catalyse change.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It comprises 24
members and is elected in the General
Assembly of the Convention according to
the principles of equitable geographical
representation and rotation.
 Statement 2 is correct: With 14
inscriptions on the Representative List of
Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity,
India also ranks high in the listing of
intangible cultural heritage.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Supplementary notes:
Intangible Cultural Heritage
 As per UNESCO, Intangible Cultural
Heritage (ICH) includes traditions or
living expressions inherited from our
ancestors and passed on to our descendants,
such as oral traditions, performing arts,
social practices, rituals, festive events,
knowledge and practices concerning nature
and the universe or the knowledge and
skills to produce traditional crafts.
 India has been elected to
the Intergovernmental Committee of
UNESCO’s 2003 Convention for the
Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural
Heritage (ICH) for the 2022-2026 cycle.
 UNESCO established its Lists of Intangible
Cultural Heritage with the aim of ensuring
better protection of important intangible
cultural heritages worldwide and the
awareness of their significance.
 The list was established in 2008 when the
2003 Convention for the Safeguarding of the
Intangible Cultural Heritage took effect.
India:
O
 In total, 14 Intangible Cultural Heritage
elements from the country have now been
inscribed on UNESCO’s Representative
List.
SC
 Earlier, UNESCO announced the Harappan
city of Dholavira in Gujarat as India’s 40th
world heritage site. The Representative
List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of
Humanity has 492 elements currently.
Latest addition - Durga Puja:
 It is a five-day festival that begins on the fifth
night of the nine-day Navratri festival and
GS
ends on the tenth day, which is Dashami.
During this time, people collectively worship
and invoke Goddess Durga, who is regarded
as the feminine energy of the cosmos, also
known as ‘Shakti’.
 Though originating in West Bengal, which
has the largest Bengali community in the
country, the festival is celebrated in many
other parts of India, and also the world.
55. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It was B.N.
Rau who convinced the constituent
assembly to adopt “procedure established
by law” instead of “due process of law”. The
United States Supreme Court’s abuse of
substantive due process caused B.N. Rau
to point out, even before any proposal was
given to the Constituent Assembly, that a
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
due process clause would obstruct positive
social legislation.
Supplementary notes:
Due process of law and procedure
established by law
 Procedure established by law means that a
law that is duly enacted by legislature or the
concerned body is valid if it has followed the
correct procedure. Following this doctrine
means that, a person can be deprived of
his life or personal liberty according to the
procedure established by law.
 So, if Parliament passes a law, then the
life or personal liberty of a person can be
taken off according to the provisions and
procedures of the that law.
 Due process of law doctrine not only
checks if there is a law to deprive the life
RE
and personal liberty of a person, but also
see if the law made is fair, just and not
arbitrary. If SC finds that any law as not
fair, it will declare it as null and void. This
doctrine provides for more fair treatment of
individual rights.
 Due process of law is an English concept
mentioned in Magna Carta and upheld
in America. The Doctrine of procedure
Established by law originated from British
constitution.
Supreme Court in Menaka Gandhi case

held that there is interrelationship between
Article 14, Article19 and Article 21 and
every law must satisfy the criteria set forth
in the mentioned articles.
56. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: All loans raised
by the Government by issue of public
notifications, treasury bills (internal debt)
and loans obtained from foreign governments
and international institutions (external
debt) are credited into consolidated fund of
India
Supplementary notes:
Funds of India
 The Constitution of India provides for
the manner in which the accounts of the
Government have to be kept. Article of
the Constitution provides for creation of a
Consolidated Fund of India, Contingency
Fund and Public Account. All revenues
received, loans raised and all moneys
received by the Government in repayment
of loans are credited to the Consolidated
Fund of India and all expenditures of the
Government are incurred from this fund.
26
 Money can be spent through this fund only
if appropriated by the Parliament. The
consolidated Fund has further been divided
into ‘Revenue’ and ‘Capital’ divisions.
 All other moneys received by or on behalf
of Government are credited to the Public
Account. Contingency Fund enables
the Government to meet unforeseen
expenditure, which cannot wait approval of
the Parliament. For meeting such exigencies,
advances are made to the executive from the
Contingency Fund which are subsequently
reported to the Parliament for recoupment
from the Consolidated Fund of India.
 The receipts under Public Account do not
constitute normal receipts of Government
hence parliamentary authorization for
payments from the Public Account is
therefore not required.
58. Correct Option: (b)
RE
 All revenues received by the Government by
way of taxes like Income Tax, Central Excise,
Customs and other receipts flowing to the
Government in connection with the conduct
of Government business i.e., Non-Tax
Revenues are credited into the Consolidated
Fund constituted under Article 266 (1) of
the Constitution of India.
O in case of legislative council, not in case of
57. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
SC
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It is the Ministry
of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
Distribution which implement SMART PDS
scheme.
Supplementary notes:
Public Distribution System
GS
 The Public Distribution System (PDS)
evolved as a system of management of
scarcity through distribution of foodgrains
at affordable prices. Over the years, PDS has
become an important part of Government’s
policy for management of food economy in
the country. PDS is supplemental in nature
and is not intended to make available the
entire requirement of any of the commodities
distributed under it to a household or a
section of the society.
 PDS is operated under the joint
responsibility of the Central and the State/
UT Governments. The Central Government,
through Food Corporation of India (FCI), has
assumed the responsibility for procurement,
storage, transportation and bulk allocation
of food grains to the State Governments.
The operational responsibility including
allocation within State, identification of
eligible families, issue of Ration Cards
and supervision of the functioning of Fair
27
Price Shops (FPSs) etc., rest with the State
Governments. Under the PDS, presently
the commodities namely wheat, rice, sugar
and kerosene are being allocated to the
States/UTs for distribution. Some States/
UTs also distribute additional items of mass
consumption through the PDS outlets such
as pulses, edible oils, iodized salt, spices,
etc.
 SMART-PDS is a system where smart
ration cards are issued to beneficiaries of
the public distribution system, and ration
is given through fair price shops on the
production of the smart ration card by any
member of the beneficiary family. Also, the
fingerprint template of the beneficiary is
recorded in these smart ration cards, which
record all transactions.
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The procedure
for election to Rajya Sabha has been
borrowed from constitution of South Africa.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The cooperative
movement is a criterion for nomination only
Rajya Sabha.
 Statement 3 is correct: Both Rajya Sabha
and legislative council are permanent bodies,
not subject to dissolution hence its one-third
member retires every second year.
Supplementary notes:
Rajya Sabha and Legislative Council
 The Rajya Sabha, constitutionally the
Council of States, is the upper house of the
bicameral Parliament of India. As of 2022,
it has a maximum membership of 250, of
which 238 are elected by the legislatures of
the states and union territories using single
transferable votes through open ballots,
while the president can appoint 12 members
for their contributions to art, literature,
science, and social services.
 The potential seating capacity of the Rajya
Sabha is 250 (238 elected, 12 appointed),
according to article 80 of the Indian
Constitution. Members sit for staggered
terms lasting six years, with about a third
of the 238 designates up for election every
two years, in even-numbered years.
 Unlike the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha is a
continuing chamber and hence not subject
to dissolution. However, the Rajya Sabha,
like the Lok Sabha, can be prorogued by the
president.
 The State Legislative Council, or Vidhan
Parishad, or Saasana Mandali is the upper
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 house in those states of India that have a
bicameral state legislature; the lower house
being the State Legislative Assembly. Its
establishment is defined in Article 169 of
the Constitution of India.
 Only 6 out of 28 states have a Legislative
Council. These are Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar,
and Uttar Pradesh. No union territory has a
legislative council.
59. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It was in 2013
when the supreme court had an all-woman
bench when Justices Gyan Sudha Misra and
Ranjana Prakash Desai sat together.
Supplementary notes:
Appointment of Supreme Court Judges
 The judges of the Supreme Court are
appointed by the president. The chief
justice is appointed by the president after
consultation with such judges of Supreme
Court and the other judges are appointed
O
by president after the consultation with
the chief justice and such other judges of
the Supreme Court. The consultation with
the chief justice is obligatory in case of
appointment of a judge other than chief.
SC
 In second judges’ case a nine-judge bench
of the Supreme Court by a 7:2 majority
overruled its earlier judgement given in the
judge’s Transfer case I and held that in the
matter of appointment of the judges of the
Supreme Court and High Court, the Chief
Justice of India should have primacy.
GS
60. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: It was
Maharashtra who had first appointed
Lokayukta in India.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Lokpal has
jurisdiction to inquire into allegations of
corruption against anyone who is or has been
Prime Minister, or a Minister in the Union
government, or a Member of Parliament, as
well as officials of the Union Government
under Groups A, B, C and D.
 Statement 3 is correct: Lokpal is vested
with the power of search and seizure and
also powers under the Civil Procedure Code
for the purpose of conducting preliminary
inquiry & investigation and power of
attachment of assets and taking other steps
for eradication of corruption.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
Supplementary notes:
Lokpal and Lokayukta
 A Lokpal is an anti-corruption authority
or body of ombudsman who represents the
public interest in the Republic of India. The
current Chairperson of Lokpal is Pradip
Kumar Mohanty. The Lokpal has jurisdiction
over central government to inquire into
allegations of corruption against its public
functionaries and for matters connected to
corruption.
 The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act were passed
in 2013 with amendments in parliament,
following the Jan Lokpal movement led
by Anna Hazare in 2010. The Lokpal is
responsible for enquiring into corruption
charges at the national level while the
Lokayukta performs the same function at the
state level. The age of Lokpal (chairperson
RE
or member) on the date of assuming office
as the chairperson or a member should not
be less than 45 years.
 The Lokayukta is the Indian Parliamentary
Ombudsman, executed into power, through
and for, each of the State Governments of
India. It is brought into effect in a state, after
passing the Lokayukta Act in respective
state Legislature and a person of reputable
background is nominated to the post.
 The post is created to quickly address
grievances against the working integrity
and efficiency of the government or its
administration (public servants). Once
appointed, Lokayukta cannot be dismissed
or transferred by the government, and can
only be removed by passing an impeachment
motion by the state assembly, making it
a powerful deterrent against corruption
and mal-administration of the governing
system.
61. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: 42nd amendment
shifted 5 subjects from state list to concurrent
list viz. education, forest, protection of
wild animals and birds, weights and
measures and administration of justice and
organization of all courts except high court
and supreme court.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It was 42nd
amendment which done away with the
requirement of quorum.
 Statement 3 is correct: The post
emergency it was 44th amendment which
protects the press by giving constitutional
protection to publications of proceedings of
legislature.
28
 Supplementary notes:
42nd and 44th Amendment
 The 42nd amendment, officially known
as The Constitution (Forty-second
amendment) Act, 1976, was enacted during
the Emergency (25 June 1975 – 21 March
1977) by the Indian National Congress
government headed by Indira Gandhi.
Many parts of the Constitution, including
the Preamble and constitution amending
clause itself, were changed by the 42nd
Amendment, and some new articles and
sections were inserted.
 The amendment’s fifty-nine clauses stripped
the Supreme Court of many of its powers
and moved the political system toward
parliamentary sovereignty. It curtailed
democratic rights in the country, and gave
sweeping powers to the Prime Minister’s
RE
Office.
 The amendment gave Parliament
unrestrained power to amend any parts of
the Constitution, without judicial review.
It transferred more power from the state
governments to the central government,
eroding India’s federal structure.
 The 42nd Amendment also amended
O and took up publicity campaign against
Preamble and changed the description of
India from “sovereign, democratic republic”
to a “sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic
SC
republic”, and also changed the words “unity
of the nation” to “unity and integrity of the
nation”.
 The Forty-fourth Amendment of the
Constitution of India, officially known as
the Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment)
Act, 1978, was enacted by the Janata Party
which had won the 1977 general elections
GS
campaigning on a promise to “restore the
Constitution to the condition it was in before
the Emergency”.
 The Amendment aimed to undo several
changes that had been made to the
Constitution by the 42nd Amendment which
had been enacted by the Indira Gandhi-
led Indian National Congress during the
Emergency.
62. Correct Option: (c)
63. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
NCM and NCW
 The National Commission for Women was
set up as statutory body in January
1992 under the National Commission for
Women Act, 1990 (Act No. 20 of 1990 of
29
Govt.of India). In keeping with its mandate,
the Commission initiated various steps to
improve the status of women and worked
for their economic empowerment during the
year under report.
 NCM and NCW are established by acts of
parliament hence statutory bodies. These
are multi-member bodies whose members
are appointed by central government.
 The Commission completed its visits to all
the States/UTs except Lakshadweep and
prepared Gender Profiles to assess the
status of women and their empowerment. It
received a large number of complaints and
acted Suo-moto in several cases to provide
speedy justice. It took up the issue of child
marriage, sponsored legal awareness
programmes, Parivarik Mahila Lok
Adalat and reviewed laws such as Dowry
Prohibition Act, 1961, PNDT Act 1994,
Indian Penal Code 1860 and the National
Commission for Women Act, 1990 to make
them more stringent and effective.
 It organized workshops/consultations,
constituted expert committees on economic
empowerment of women, conducted
workshops/seminars for gender awareness
female foeticide, violence against women
etc. in order to generate awareness in the
society against these social evils.
 With the enactment of the National
Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, the
Minorities Commission became a statutory
body and renamed as National Commission
for Minorities. The first Statutory National
Commission was set up on 17th May 1993.
 Vide a Gazette notification issued on 23rd
October 1993 by Ministry of Welfare,
Government of India, five religious
communities viz; the Muslims, Christians,
Sikhs, Buddhists and Zoroastrians (Parsis)
were notified as minority communities.
 Further vide notification dated 27th Jan
2014, Jains have also been notified as
minority community. As per the 2001
Census, these six religious minority
communities constitute 18.80% of the
country’s population.
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Pressure Group
 A pressure group has been defined as “an
organized aggregate which seeks to influence
the context of governmental decisions
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 without attempting to place its members in
formal governmental capacities”. Pressure
groups can be varied, such as student
association, educational institutions, labour
unions, etc.
Type of pressure groups
 Associational Groups
 Non-Associational Groups
 Institutional Groups
 Anomic Groups
Pressure Groups in India
 Business Groups – Federation of Indian
Chamber of Commerce and Industry
(FICCI), Associated Chamber of Commerce
and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM),
Federation of All India Foodgrain Dealers
Association (FAIFDA), etc
 Trade Unions – All-India Trade Union
Congress (AITUC), Indian National Trade
Union Congress (INTUC), Hind Mazdoor
Sabha (HMS), Bhartiya Mazdoor Sangh
(BMS)
 Professional Groups – Indian Medical
Association (IMA), Bar Council of India
O
(BCI), All India Federation of University
and College Teachers (AIFUCT)
 Agrarian Groups- All India Kisan Sabha,
Bhartiya Kisan Union, etc
SC
 Student’s Organisations- Akhila Bhartiya
Vidyarthi Parishad (ABVP), All India
Students Federation (AISF), National
Students Union of India (NSUI)
 Religious Groups – Rashtriya Swayam
Sevak Sangh (RSS), Vishwa Hindu Parishad
(VHP), Jamaat-e-Islami, etc.
 Caste Groups – Harijan Sevak Sangh,
GS
Nadar Caste Association, etc
 Linguistic Groups – Tamil Sangh, Andhra
Maha Sabha, etc
 Tribal Groups – National Socialist Council
of Nagaland (NSCN), Tribal National
Volunteers (TNU) in Tripura, United Mizo
federal org, Tribal League of Assam, etc.
 Ideology based Groups – Narmada Bachao
Andolan, Chipko Movement, Women’s
Rights Organisation, India Against
Corruption etc.
 Anomic Groups - Naxalite Groups, Jammu
and Kashmir Liberation Front (JKLF),
United Liberation Front of Assam (ULFA),
Dal Khalsa, etc.
64. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
Supplementary notes:
Public Financial Management System
(PFMS)
 The Public Financial Management System
(PFMS) is a web-based application for
payment, accounting and reconciliation of
Government transactions and integrates
various existing standalone systems.
 The primary objective of PFMS is to
establish an efficient fund flow system and
expenditure network. PFMS also provides
various stakeholders with a reliable and
meaningful management information
system and an effective decision support
system.
Objectives of PFMS
 Monitoring of flow of funds from Centre to
the lowest level of implementation- both for
RE
fund flows to State Consolidated Funds & to
Implementing Agencies.
 Registration, along with their bank
accounts, of all agencies receiving plan
funds - at all tiers of operation
 Payment to ultimate beneficiaries
through banking channel
 Reduction of float/ funds in the agency
bank accounts
 “Just in time” provision of funds
to agencies, based on floats/ funds
available.
 Capturing component-wise expenditure on
real time basis at all tiers of implementation,
including at Panchayat and village levels
 Decision Support System (DSS) to all levels
of programme administration (Centre,
State, District & Local Government, i.e.
Panchayat / Municipality)
 Enhance transparency & accountability in
public expenditure.
65. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
General Agreement on Trade in Services
(GATS)
 The creation of the GATS was one of the
landmark achievements of the Uruguay
Round, whose results entered into force
in January 1995. The GATS was inspired
by essentially the same objectives as its
counterpart in merchandise trade, the
General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
(GATT): creating a credible and reliable
system of international trade rules;
30
 ensuring fair and equitable treatment
of all participants (principle of non-
discrimination); stimulating economic
activity through guaranteed policy bindings;
and promoting trade and development
through progressive liberalization.
 The GATS distinguishes between four modes
of supplying services: cross-border trade,
consumption abroad, commercial
presence, and presence of natural
persons.
 Cross-border supply is defined to
cover services flows from the territory
of one member into the territory of
another member (e.g. banking or
architectural services transmitted via
telecommunications or mail);
 Consumption abroad refers to
situations where a service consumer (e.g.
tourist or patient) moves into another
RE
member’s territory to obtain a service;
 Commercial presence implies that a
service supplier of one member establishes
a territorial presence, including through
ownership or lease of premises, in
another member’s territory to provide
a service (e.g. domestic subsidiaries of
O
foreign insurance companies or hotel
chains); and
 Presence of natural persons consists
of persons of one member entering the
SC
territory of another member to supply
a service (e.g. accountants, doctors or
teachers). The Annex on Movement of
Natural Persons specifies, however,
that members remain free to operate
measures regarding citizenship,
residence or access to the employment
market on a permanent basis.
GS
66. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Both pairs are correctly matched
Supplementary notes:
Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI)
 The Securities and Exchange Board of India
was constituted as a non-statutory body on
April 12, 1988 through a resolution of the
Government of India.The Securities and
Exchange Board of India was established as
a statutory body in the year 1992 and the
provisions of the Securities and Exchange
Board of India Act, 1992 (15 of 1992) came
into force on January 30, 1992.
 The Preamble of the Securities and
Exchange Board of India describes the basic
functions of the Securities and Exchange
31
Board of India as “...to protect the interests
of investors in securities and to promote
the development of, and to regulate the
securities market and for matters connected
therewith or incidental thereto”
Insurance Regulatory and Development
Authority of India (IRDA)
 To protect the interest of and secure fair
treatment to policyholders
 To bring about speedy and orderly growth of
the insurance industry (including annuity
and superannuation payments), for the
benefit of the common man, and to provide
long term funds for accelerating growth of
the economy;
 To set, promote, monitor and enforce high
standards of integrity, financial soundness,
fair dealing and competence of those it
regulates;
 To ensure speedy settlement of genuine
claims, to prevent insurance frauds and
other malpractices and put in place effective
grievance redressal machinery;
 To promote fairness, transparency and
orderly conduct in financial markets
dealing with insurance and build a reliable
management information system to enforce
high standards of financial soundness
amongst market players;
 To take action where such standards are
inadequate or ineffectively enforced;
 To bring about optimum amount of self-
regulation in day-to-day working of the
industry consistent with the requirements
of prudential regulation.
67. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
New Monetary Aggregates
 The Working Group recommended the
compilation of monetary aggregates on
residency basis in line with the best
international practices. Non-resident
deposit flows related to balance of payments
considerations would not constitute domestic
demand for money and are therefore, not to
be included in money supply.
 Accordingly, capital flows in the form of
non-resident repatriable foreign currency
fixed liabilities with the banking system
in India such as the balances under the
Foreign Currency Non-Resident Repatriable
(Banks) (FCNRB) Scheme and Resurgent
India Bonds (RIBs) would not be directly
reckoned in money supply.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
  The Working Group recommended
compilation of four monetary aggregates on
the basis of the balance sheet of the banking
sector in conformity with the norms of
progressive liquidity: M0 (monetary base),
M1 (narrow money), M2 and M3 (broad
money)
 Reserve Money (M0)
 Narrow Money (M1)
 The proposed Intermediate Monetary
Aggregate (NM2)
 Broad Money (NM3)
68. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Savanna Climate
 Savanna or Sudan climate is a transitional
type of climate found between the equatorial
forests & trade wind hot deserts. It is
confined within the tropics (Tropic of Cancer
& Tropic of Capricorn) & is best developed
in Sudan, where dry & wet climate are most
O
distinct, hence named Sudan climate.
 It covers much of Africa (Keya, Nigeria,
Gambia) as well as large areas of Australia,
South America (Brazilian highlands), and
India.
SC
 Sudan climate is characterized by an
alternate & distinct hot, rainy season
(from May to Sep) & cool, dry season (Oct
- April) in N - Hemisphere & vice versa in
S - Hemisphere. The savanna climate has a
temperature range of 18° - 30°C.
 In winters, it is usually about 18° - 25°C &
GS
in summers, the temperature ranges from
25° - 30°C. Like the monsoon climate, the
maximum temperature tends to occur in late
spring to early summer prior to the onset of
the rainy season, with Daily temperature
range
 Greater during the dry season & annual
temp. range increasing towards poleward
from equatorial region. Both the length of
the rainy season as well as annual total
rainfall decreases from equatorial region to
polewards.
 On the whole, the annual precipitation
(~100 cm annually) is less than the tropical
monsoon climate & length of wet & dry
seasons differs with the locality.
69. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: The periodical
rise and fall of the sea level, once or twice a
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
day, mainly due to the attraction of the sun
and the moon, is called a tide. Movement
of water caused by meteorological effects
(winds and atmospheric pressure changes)
are called surges
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Surges are not
regular like tides.
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The moon
gravitational pull to a great extent and to a
lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are
the major causes for the occurrence of tides.
Another factor is centrifugal force, which is
the force that acts to counter balance the
gravity. It does not impact surges.
Supplementary notes:
Tides and Surges
 The periodical rise and fall of the sea level,
once or twice a day, mainly due to the
attraction of the sun and the moon, is called
RE
a tide.
 Movement of water caused by meteorological
effects (winds and atmospheric pressure
changes) are called surges. Surges are not
regular like tides.
 The moon’s gravitational pull to a great
extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s
gravitational pull, are the major causes
for the occurrence of tides. Another factor
is centrifugal force, which is the force that
acts to counter balance the gravity.
 Together, the gravitational pull and the
centrifugal force are responsible for creating
the two major tidal bulges on the earth
70. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Coral polyps
are short-lived organisms and flourish in
shallow waters.
 Statement 2 is correct: They secrete
calcium carbonate.
 Statement 3 is correct: Atolls are horse
shoe-shaped coral reefs.
Supplementary notes:
Coral Reef: Fringing Reef, Barrier Reef &
Atoll
 Coral polyps are short-lived microscopic
organisms, which live in colonies. They
flourish in shallow, mud-free and warm
waters. They secrete calcium carbonate.
 The coral secretion and their skeletons from
coral deposits in the form of reefs: they are
mainly of three kinds: barrier reef, fringing
reef and atolls.
 The Great Barrier Reef of Australia is a
good example of the first kind of coral reefs.
32
 Atolls are circular or horse shoe-shaped
coral reefs.
71. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Norther plain
 The northern plain has been formed by the
interplay of the three major river systems,
namely– the Indus, the Ganga and the
Brahmaputra along with their tributaries.
This plain is formed of alluvial soil. The
deposition of alluvium in a vast basin
lying at the foothills of the Himalaya over
millions of years, formed this fertile plain.
It spreads over an area of 7 lakh sq. km.
The plain being about 2400 Km long and
RE
73. Correct Option: (c)
240 to 320 Km broad, is a densely populated
physiographic division. With a rich soil
cover combined with adequate water supply
and favourable climate it is agriculturally a
very productive part of India.
 Norther plains are generally deseribed as
flat land with no variations in its relief.
O
It is not true. These vast plains also have
diverse relief features. According to the
variations in relief features, the Northern
plains can be divided into four regions. The
rivers, after descending from the mountains
SC
deposit pebbles in a narrow belt of about 8
to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes
of the Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar. All
the streams disappear in this bhabar belt.
 South of this belt, the streams and rivers
re-emerge and create a wet, swampy and
marshy region known as terai. This was
a thickly forested region full of wildlife.
GS
The forests have been cleared to create
agricultural land and to settle migrants
from Pakistan after partition. Dudhwa
National Park in this region.
 The largest part of the northern plain is
formed of older alluvium. They lie above
the flood plains of the rivers and present a
terrace like feature. This part is known as
bhangra.
 The soil in this region contains calcareous
deposits locally known as kankar. The
newer, younger deposits of the flood plains
are called khadar. They are renewed almost
every year and so are fertile, thus, ideal for
intensive agriculture
72. Correct Option: (b)
74. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct: They are known as
Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, Hurricanes
33
in the Atlantic, Typhoons in the Western
Pacific and South China Sea, and Willy-
willies in the Western Australia.
Supplementary notes:
Tropical cyclones
 Tropical cyclones are violent storms that
originate over oceans in tropical areas and
move over to the coastal areas bringing
about large scale destruction caused by
violent winds, very heavy rainfall and storm
surges. This is one of the most devastating
natural calamities.
 They are known as Cyclones in the Indian
Ocean, Hurricanes in the Atlantic, Typhoons
in the Western Pacific and South China Sea,
and Willy-willies in the Western Australia.
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Tampara Lake
 The use of explosives during a battle in the
Ganjam district between the British East
India Company and French colonists in
1766 created a large depression which later
became Tampara Lake.
 The lake is now connected to the Rushikulya
river and helps in flood control during the
monsoon season.
 The lake receives flood waters coming
from the river, making its biodiversity
highly vulnerable to extreme heat and dry
weather.
 The wetland supports 60 species of birds
and 46 fish species, including vulnerable
species such as common carp (Cyprinus
carpio), common pochard (Aythya ferina)
and river tern (Sterna aurantia).
 With an estimated average fish yield of
12 tonnes per year, the wetland is an
important source of livelihoods for the local
communities.
 Along with fish, the wetland also provides
water for agriculture and domestic use and
is used for recreation. It also provides a
water pathway for local transportation of
goods.
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Supplementary notes:
Mangroves state and biodiversity
 Earth Overshoot Day marks the date when
humanity’s demand for ecological resources
and services in a given year exceeds what
Earth can regenerate in that year. In 2022,
it fell on 28 July.
 Earth Overshoot Day, calculated by the
Global Footprint Network, is a stark annual
reminder of how our relationship with nature
is fundamentally broken. This year it falls
on 29 July and since the first Overshoot Day
on 30 December 1970, the date has fallen
ever earlier pretty consistently, reflecting
our growing population and consumption
levels.
 With the global-scale decrease in human
activity due to COVID-19 offering a
temporary reprieve for nature, Overshoot
Day was on 22 August 2020 – almost a month
later compared to 2019, meaning we briefly,
and inadvertently, moved a little closer to
living within our planetary boundaries.
75. Correct Option: (d)
O
Explanation:
 Option (d) is correct
Supplementary notes:
SC
Green Hydrogen
 Hydrogen can be produced from diverse,
domestic resources. Currently, most
hydrogen is produced from fossil fuels,
specifically natural gas. Electricity—from
the grid or from renewable sources such as
wind, solar, geothermal, or biomass—is also
currently used to produce hydrogen. In the
GS
longer term, solar energy and biomass can be
used more directly to generate hydrogen.
 Natural Gas and Other Fossil Fuels:
Fossil fuels can be reformed to release the
hydrogen from their hydrocarbon molecules
and are the source of most of the hydrogen
currently made in the United States.
Combining these processes with carbon
capture, utilization, and storage will reduce
the carbon dioxide emissions.
 Natural gas reforming is an advanced
and mature hydrogen production process
that builds upon the existing natural gas
infrastructure.
 Today 95% of the hydrogen produced in
the United States is made by natural gas
reforming in large central plants.
 This is an important pathway for near-
term hydrogen production. Learn about
hydrogen production processes using
fossil fuels:
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 Solar: Sunlight can directly or indirectly
provide the energy to produce hydrogen.
This resource is abundant, but it is
diffuse and only available for a portion
of the day.
 Biomass is an abundant renewable
resource that can be produced
domestically, and it can be converted to
hydrogen and other by-products through
a number of methods. Because growing
biomass removes carbon dioxide from the
atmosphere, the net carbon emissions of
these methods can be low.
 Wind is an abundant but variable
resource for generating electricity. Wind-
generated electricity can power water
electrolysis to produce hydrogen, which
could be used to fuel vehicles, or stored
and then used in fuel cells to generate
electricity during times of the day when
RE
the wind resource is low.
 Renewable and Grid Electricity:
Electricity can be used to split water into
hydrogen and oxygen. This technology
is well developed and available
commercially, and systems that can
efficiently use renewable power—for
example, wind, geothermal, or solar—
are being developed.
76. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Co-firing is an
option to convert biomass to electricity, in
an efficient and clean way, and to reduce
GHG (Greenhouse Gases) emissions of the
power plant.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Biomass power
& cogeneration program is initiated by the
Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
Supplementary notes:
Biomass Co-firing
 Biomass co-firing is the practice of
substituting a part of the fuel with biomass
at coal thermal plants. It stands for adding
biomass as a partial substitute fuel in high
efficiency coal boilers.
 Coal and biomass are combusted together
in boilers that have been designed to burn
coal. For this purpose, the existing coal
power plant has to be partly reconstructed
and retrofitted.
 Co-firing is an option to convert biomass to
electricity, in an efficient and clean way,
and to reduce GHG (Greenhouse Gases)
emissions of the power plant.
 Biomass co-firing is a globally accepted
cost-effective method for decarbonising a
34
 coal fleet. India is a country where biomass
is usually burnt on the field which reflects
apathy towards resolving the problem of
clean coal using a very simple solution that
is readily available.
78. Correct Option: (b)
Biomass power & cogeneration
programme
 The program is initiated by the Ministry of
New and Renewable Energy. For efficient
utilization of biomass, bagasse based
cogeneration in sugar mills and biomass
power generation have been taken up under
the programme.
 Biomass materials used for power generation
include Rice husk, straw, cotton stalk,
coconut shells, soya husk, de-oiled cakes,
coffee waste, jute wastes, and groundnut
shells, saw dust etc.
RE
77. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The front and
back of the (Double Ikat) Patan Patola cloth
are identical due to the superb craftsmanship.
The Salvi family of Northern Gujarat’s
Patan area weaves it.
O rather how they view the elements of their
Supplementary notes:
Patan patola
SC
 The colour and pattern intensity on the
Patola fabrics is the same on both sides.
 The “bandhani” technique, a complex and
difficult way to dye or knot dye the warp
and weft separately before weaving, is what
gives the fabric its peculiar character.
 Ikat weaves can also be seen in the renowned
Sambalpuri sarees of Odisha, which, like the
GS
Pochampally saree from Andhra Pradesh,
are also woven with cotton yarn.
 Due to the lengthy process of separately
dyeing each strand before weaving them
together, one sari can take anywhere from
six months to a year to make.
 Surat, Ahmedabad, and Patan are often
where patola are woven. But Surat produces
the majority of the velvet patola fashions.
 In 2013, a Geographical Indication (GI) tag
was placed on it.
 Weaving with patolas is an age-old craft.
Some historians assert that the patola
weaving technique, which uses tie-dyes,
was used in the “Ajanta” caves as early as
the fourth century.
 During the third, fourth, and fifth centuries
A.D., the Vakataka dynasty, which ruled
over a sizable portion of Deccan, supported
the Ajanta Caves.
35
 Currently, Vatsagulma is part of
Maharashtra’s Vidarbha Division’s
“Washim” district.
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The Pithora
paintings are abstract depictions of their
environment.
Supplementary notes:
Pithora Painting
 Ganesh, also known as Baba Ganeh, is
the first figure to appear in any Pithora
painting. He is beloved as a father figure
and possesses an elephant trunk.
 Indra, also known as Baba Ind, is the rain
god and animal protector.
 Pithora deva is the primary god shown in
the Pithora paintings. He represents the
universe’s myriad creations.
 Raja bhoja is worshipped for improved
agricultural and livestock yields.
 These are not accurate renderings, but
world and nature and their surrounding
 The more recent ones include modern
elements like railway rails, aeroplanes, and
computers.
 These paintings represent Pithora, the
chief deity, and a parade displaying his
achievements.
 These house paintings are thought to
promote calm, wealth, and pleasure.
 These are also thought to be an ancient
method of cartography.
 It is a wall painting that is distinguished by
the presence of seven horses. These seven
horses are thought to represent the seven
hills that border Gujarat and Madhya
Pradesh.
 ‘Pithora painting’ is named after the tribe’s
divinity, Pithora (Pithora Baba).
 Lakhara are the Pithora artists who have
been well-trained and have contributed to
the development of Pithora art.
 The Lakharas paint the Pithora wall during
auspicious rituals. The popular idea is that
they seek God’s blessings by hanging the
Pithora painting on their house walls.
 Pithora Art is created on the house’s roofed
gallery (Verandah).
 Pithora was painted in the following
colours:white (clay), orange, green, blue,
red, and yellow.
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  The artworks are surrounded by a
rectangular gap. The included artworks
reflect mythological or revered Rathwas
occurrences.
79. Correction option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Tulu language in India
 The earliest available Tulu inscriptions date
from the 14th to 15th centuries AD.
 Tulu speakers, primarily from Karnataka
and Kerala, are seeking that Tulu be
recognised as an official language.
 According to the 2011 Census, there are
around 18 lakh native Tulu speakers in
India. This is more than the speakers of
Manipuri and Sanskrit, who are listed on
the Eighth Schedule.
 Tulu was named one of the most developed
Dravidian languages by Robert Caldwell
(1814-1891) in his book “A Comparative
Grammar of the Dravidian Or South-Indian
O
Family of Languages.”
 Tulu has a strong oral literature legacy,
including folk song genres such as paddana
and traditional folk theatre yakshagana.
SC
 Tulu also has a vibrant cinematic heritage,
with 5 to 7 Tulu language films made each
year.
 Furthermore, Tulu films are shown in at
least one theatre in Mangalore and Udupi
every day.
80. Correct Option: (d)
GS
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Kanaganahalli
 The ancient Buddhist site at Kanaganahalli,
Kalaburagi district, which is part of the
Sannati complex and was discovered by
the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)
between 1994 and 2001, has now gotten
attention after going practically ignored for
20 years.
 Sannati and Kanaganahalli were tiny,
unremarkable settlements on the bank of
the Bhima before the Kali temple at the
Chandralamba temple complex in Sannati
collapsed in 1986.
 They discovered an Ashokan edict while
clearing the debris, which put the villages
on the map and opened up new avenues for
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
historical research on the Mauryan Emperor
Ashoka and the early history of Buddhism.
 It drew historians from all across India
and beyond, and it inspired the ASI
excavations at Sannati and the adjoining
Kanaganahalli.
 Inscriptions on the massive Maha Stupa,
also known as Adholoka Maha Chaitya
(the great Stupa of the Underworlds),
and, most notably, the stone portrait of
Emperor Ashoka with his queens and
female attendants, were found during the
Kanaganahalli excavation.
 Despite the stupa being one of the biggest
of its time, the Mauryan Emperor’s stone
portrait, which bears the inscription “Raya
Asoko” in Brahmi, is believed to be the only
surviving image of him.
 Kanagamahalli Buddhist Stupa was built
RE
with locally available limestone.
 The majority of the drum slabs, dome
slabs, inscriptions, and other structural
components were recovered and damaged.
81. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The
Hoysaleshwara temple, also known as
the Halebidu temple, is a Hindu temple
dedicated to Lord Shiva that dates back to
the 12th century.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The temple was
built on the banks of a vast man-made lake
and was sponsored by King Vishnuvardhana
of the Hoysala Empire. Its construction
began about 1121 CE and was completed in
1160 CE.
Supplementary notes:
Hoysala Temple Architecture
 The capital was moved from Belur to Halebid,
which was then known as Dorasamudhra at
the peak of the Hoysala Empire.
 The Hoysaleshwara temple in Halebidu is
the best-preserved Hoysala architectural
ensemble.
 Built during the time of Hoysala King
Vishnuvardhana Hoysaleshwara in
1121CE.
 Dorasamudra’s affluent citizens and
merchants funded and built the Shiva
temple.
 The temple is well recognised for the more
than 240 wall sculptures that run all the
way around the outside.
 Halebid contains a walled compound with
three Hoysala period Jaina basadi (temples)
and a tiered well.
36
  The Western Chalukyas’ (Kalyani)
decoration impacted Hoysala decoration.
 The “Sthambha buttalikas” pillar figure
featured in Hoysala art is evidence of Chola
and Chalukya art.
 The figure of Mohini visible in one of the
pillars of the mantapa at Chennakeshava
temple is a remarkable example of Chola
art in Hoysala art.
82. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All the pairs matched correctly
 Ramanuja’s most important writings
include his commentary on the
 Vedanta Sutras – “the Sri Bhasya, or
“True Commentary”
RE
 His commentary on the Bhagavad-Gita
–“the Gitabhasya, or “Commentary on
the Gita”.
 Vedartha Samgraha -”Summary of the
Meaning of the Veda”.
 The Vedantasara - “Essence of Vedanta”

O
Vedantadipa - “Lamp of Vedanta”.
Supplementary notes:
Ramanuja
SC
 In the 12th century, Ramanuja preached
Vishishta Advaita Vada in Sriperumbudur,
near modern-day Chennai.
 He believes that God is Saguna Brahman
and that the creative process, which includes
all in creation, is actual and not illusory, as
Shankaracharya believed.
GS
 As a result, Ramanuja believes in the
existence of God, the soul, and matter. God,
on the other hand, is the inner substance,
and the rest are his characteristics.
 In Vishishta Advaita Vada, the universe
and Brahman are considered two equally
real realities, but the universe is formed
out of Brahman rather than being separate
from it, as in dualism.
 The Brahman is thought to be a personal god
with omniscience who created the universe
from himself.
 As a result, the world bears the portion-to-
whole relation or the ‘qualified consequence’
relation to the base to Brahman.
 The Ramanuja statue, also known as
the Statue of Equality, is a statue of the
vaishnavite Ramanuja from the 11th
century that can be found on the premises
of the Chinna Jeeyar Trust in Muchintal,
Hyderabad, Telangana.
37
83. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
About Mahajanapadas
 The Mahajanpadas period (600 BCE) is also
known as the Period of Second Urbanisation
(IVC being the first urbanisation), as the
centre of politics and economy migrated
from India’s northwestern to eastern states
(mostly Bihar).
 The creation of huge areas known as
Mahajanapadas was made possible by urban
settlement and the use of iron implements.
 There were 16 such Mahajanapadas at the
time (according to the Buddhist literature
Anguttara Nikaya).
 Agriculture was the backbone of the economy
at the time. Land revenue has to cover one-
tenth of the soil’s produce.
 The agricultural area was divided into
tiny plots, and a cooperative irrigation,
agriculture, and water conservation system
was implemented.
 Arts and industries such as ivory
craftsmanship, mural painting, stone
carving, and so on flourished throughout
this time period.
 Bharuch, Tamralipti, Sopara, and other
significant ports of the time engaged in
waterborne commerce with Burma, Ceylon,
Malaya, Babylonia, and other places.
 The major commodities were silk, gold, and
embroidered fabric. There are examples of
the cooperative system in the period’s trade
and commerce.
 Karshapana, the medium of exchange, was
copper and silver. Dharan was another
name for the silver Karshapana.
84. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Vanniyar Kshatriya
 The Vanniyar Kshatriya community is
predominantly found in the southern state
of Tamil Nadu, India.
 The Vanniyar Kshatriya community is one
of the major communities in the state of
Tamil Nadu and is predominantly found
in the northern and central regions of the
state. They are one of the most politically
influential communities in the state and
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
 have been actively involved in Tamil Nadu’s
politics for many years.
 The Vanniyar Kshatriya community was
historically known for their proficiency in
martial arts and were employed as soldiers
by various rulers.
 Historically, the Vanniyar Kshatriya
community was known for their proficiency
in martial arts and warfare. They were
often employed as soldiers by various
rulers and played a significant role in the
military history of Tamil Nadu. However, it
is important to note that this is a historical
fact and may not necessarily be true in the
present day.
85. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: While some of the
Deccan Kingdoms had centralized forms of
governance with absolute monarchs, others
were organized in a more decentralized
manner.
Supplementary notes:
O
Political structure of Deccan Kingdoms
 While some of the Deccan Kingdoms had
centralized forms of governance with
absolute monarchs, others were organized
SC
in a more decentralized manner.
 For example, the Vijayanagara Empire,
one of the largest Deccan Kingdoms,
had a centralized form of governance
with a powerful monarch. However, the
Bahmani Sultanate, another major Deccan
Kingdom, had a more decentralized system
of governance with power shared among
GS
several nobles.
 While some of the Deccan Kingdoms
were organized into a confederation of
independent kingdoms, others were more
centralized.
 For example, the Hoysala Empire was a
confederation of smaller kingdoms, while the
Kakatiya Dynasty was a more centralized
kingdom.
 Some of the Deccan Kingdoms had
sophisticated systems of checks and balances
in governance, while others did not.
 For example, the Vijayanagara Empire
had a complex bureaucracy with different
officials responsible for various aspects of
governance, which helped to create a system
of checks and balances.
 However, the Bahmani Sultanate did not
have a strong system of checks and balances,
which led to internal power struggles.
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86. Correct Option: (d)
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: PARAM
Ganga and PARAM Ananta are both
supercomputers developed by the Centre
for Development of Advanced Computing
(C-DAC).
 Statement 2 is incorrect: PARAM Ananta
is not specifically designed for industrial
applications.
Supplementary notes:
PARAM Ganga and PARAM Ananta
 PARAM Ganga and PARAM Ananta are both
supercomputers developed by the Centre
for Development of Advanced Computing
(C-DAC), which is an autonomous scientific
society under the Ministry of Electronics
RE
and Information Technology, Government
of India. Let’s examine each statement and
its accuracy.
 While India has developed several
supercomputers, including the PARAM
series, they were not developed by ISRO.
The PARAM series of supercomputers was
developed by C-DAC, as mentioned earlier.
 This statement is partially true. PARAM
Ganga is indeed a high-performance
computing system designed for academic
and research purposes. It is used for a
variety of applications, including weather
modeling, drug discovery, and scientific
simulations.
 However, PARAM Ananta is not specifically
designed for industrial applications. It is
a supercomputer designed for scientific
and engineering applications, such as
computational fluid dynamics and structural
analysis.
 PARAM ANANTA system is based on
Direct Contact Liquid Cooling technology
to obtain a high power usage effectiveness
and thereby reducing the operational cost.
Multiple applications from various scientific
domains such as Weather and Climate,
Bioinformatics, Computational Chemistry,
Molecular Dynamics, Material Sciences,
Computational Fluid Dynamics etc. have
been installed on the system for the benefit
of researchers.
87. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Option (c) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Variable Refresh Rate (VRR)
38
  Variable Refresh Rate (VRR) is a technology
used in gaming monitors to synchronize the
refresh rate of the monitor with the frame
rate of the graphics card.
 In traditional monitors, the monitor
refreshes the screen at a fixed rate, usually
60Hz or 120Hz. However, the graphics card
may not always be able to provide new
frames at the same rate, leading to issues
such as screen tearing and stuttering.
 With VRR technology, the monitor refresh
rate can be dynamically adjusted to match
the graphics card’s frame rate, eliminating
screen tearing and stuttering. This results
in a smoother and more immersive gaming
experience.
 VRR technology is becoming increasingly
popular, and it is supported by several
gaming monitors and graphics cards,
RE
including NVIDIA G-Sync and AMD
FreeSync. It is also being integrated into
televisions, with technologies such as HDMI
VRR and VESA Adaptive-Sync.
88. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
O 
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It is an industry-
led program that is being coordinated by the
Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), a
SC
non-governmental organization.
Supplementary notes:
90. Correct Option: (c)
5G Vertical Engagement and Partnership
Program (VEPP)
 The 5G VEPP is a collaborative program
that aims to bring together 5G technology
GS
providers and stakeholders from various
industries to develop use cases for 5G
technology.
 The program seeks to identify opportunities
for collaboration and co-creation, with the
goal of driving innovation and accelerating
the adoption of 5G technology.
 While the Indian government is actively
promoting the adoption of 5G technology,
the 5G VEPP is not a government-led
initiative. It is an industry-led program that
is being coordinated by the Confederation of
Indian Industry (CII), a non-governmental
organization.
 The 5G VEPP is focused on developing use
cases for 5G technology in various industries,
including agriculture, healthcare, and
education. The program seeks to identify
opportunities to leverage 5G technology
to improve productivity, efficiency, and
innovation in these sectors.
39
89. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Option (a) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Exo-moons
 Exo-moons are defined as natural satellites
that orbit planets outside of our solar
system. These planets, known as exoplanets,
are detected through a variety of methods,
including the transit method, which involves
measuring the dip in a star’s brightness as
a planet passes in front of it. By studying
the changes in the star’s brightness over
time, astronomers can detect the presence
of exoplanets and potentially their moons.
 Moons that orbit planets within our solar
system are not considered exo-moons. The
prefix “exo-” means “outside of,” so exo-
moons are specifically defined as moons that
orbit planets outside of our solar system.
 Exo-moons are not planets; they are moons
that orbit planets. While exoplanets are
planets that orbit stars outside of our solar
system, exo-moons are a separate category
of celestial objects.
Exo-moons are not stars; they are moons
that orbit planets. While some exoplanets
may be part of binary star systems, exo-
moons are not defined as stars that orbit
other stars.
Explanation:
 All statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Geomagnetic storms
 Geomagnetic storms are caused by changes
in the magnetic field of the Earth. These
changes can be caused by a variety of
factors, including solar flares and coronal
mass ejections from the Sun.
 These events release a large amount of
charged particles that can interact with
the Earth’s magnetic field and cause it to
fluctuate.
 Auroras, also known as the Northern
Lights and Southern Lights, are a natural
phenomenon that occur when charged
particles from the Sun interact with the
Earth’s magnetic field and atmosphere.
 During a geomagnetic storm, the influx of
charged particles can cause auroras to be
visible at lower latitudes than usual.
 Geomagnetic storms can cause electrical
currents to flow in power grids and
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 communication systems, which can lead to
damage or disruption.
 In extreme cases, geomagnetic storms
have caused widespread blackouts and
communication outages. Therefore, it is
important to monitor and prepare for the
effects of geomagnetic storms.
91. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
International Liquid-Mirror Telescope
(ILMT)
 Established on the campus of the Devasthal
Observatory of the Aryabhatta Research
Institute of Observational Sciences (ARIES)
in Nainital, the International Liquid Mirror
Telescope (ILMT) is the only liquid-mirror
telescope operational anywhere in the
world. It will also hold the unique tag of
being the maiden liquid-telescope globally
to be designed exclusively for astronomical
purposes.
O
 ILMT will be the third telescope to be
operating from Devasthal after the 3.6-
metre Devasthal Optical Telescope (DOT)
— the largest in India commissioned in
2016 — and the 1.3-metre Devasthal Fast
SC
Optical Telescope (DFOT) inaugurated in
2010.
 This international telescope facility is
the result of collaborative work between
astronomers from ARIES, Institute of
Astrophysics and Geophysics, Liège
University, Belgium; the Canadian
Astronomical Institutes from Vancouver,
GS
University of British Columbia; Laval
University, University of Montreal,
University of Toronto, University of Victoria,
York University, Poznan Observatory,
Poland, Ulugh Beg Astronomical Institute
of Uzbek Academy of Sciences and the
National University of Uzbekistan.
 The telescope was designed and built at the
Advanced Mechanical and Optical Systems
Corporation and the Centre Spatial de
Liege, Belgium. The major instrumentation
funding was jointly provided by Canada and
Belgium while India will be responsible for
the operations and upkeep of the telescope.
 “Unlike the conventional telescopes that
can be steered to track specific stellar
source objects, the ILMT will be stationary.
It will basically carry out observations
and imaging at the zenith, that is, of the
overhead sky. This is a survey telescope
having high potential for discovering newer
objects.
PTS2024/AIOMT/012024/13
92. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: FRBs are not
known to originate only from sources within
our Milky Way galaxy. In fact, most FRBs
are believed to originate from distant
galaxies, billions of light-years away from
Earth.
Supplementary notes:
Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs)
 Fast Radio Bursts (FRBs) are highly
energetic radio pulses that last for a few
milliseconds.
 They were first discovered in 2007, and
since then, many such events have been
detected.
RE
 These FRBs are so powerful that they can
emit as much energy in a few milliseconds
as the Sun does in an entire day.
93. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: While the
Standard Model of particle physics does not
predict the existence of Pentaquarks and
Tetraquarks, their discovery has been a
major breakthrough in particle physics and
has opened up new avenues for research.
Supplementary notes:
Pentaquarks and Tetraquarks
 Pentaquarks and Tetraquarks are subatomic
particles that are composed of five quarks
and four quarks, respectively.
 These particles were first proposed in
the 1960s, but it was not until 2003 that
the first evidence of pentaquarks was
discovered, and in 2013, the first tetraquark
was discovered.
 Pentaquarks and Tetraquarks are examples
of hadrons, which are particles made up of
quarks.
 Hadrons can be either baryons, which are
made up of three quarks, or mesons, which
are made up of a quark and an antiquark.
 Pentaquarks and Tetraquarks are exotic
hadrons that have more than three quarks,
making them unique.
94. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
40
 Supplementary notes:
MOXIE
 The Mars Oxygen In-Situ Resource
Utilization Experiment, or MOXIE,
is helping NASA prepare for human
exploration of Mars.
 MOXIE will test a way for future explorers
to produce oxygen from the Martian
atmosphere for burning fuel and breathing.
 MOXIE is an example of a “solid oxide
electrolyzer cell,” which is a fuel cell that
runs in reverse. In a fuel cell, fuel and
oxygen react to make energy (electricity)
and a stable chemical product.
 The most common example is the hydrogen
fuel cell, used in some automobiles, which
combines hydrogen and oxygen to make
water and electricity.
RE
 A hydrogen cell of this type, in contrast,
would start with the water and use
electricity to turn it back into hydrogen
and oxygen. The two devices, the fuel cell
and the electrolyzer, are nearly identical
devices, operated in a very different way.
95. Correct Option: (c)
O around the world. The scenario envisions
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
SC
Supplementary notes:
Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)
 Small modular reactors (SMRs) are advanced
nuclear reactors that have a power capacity
of up to 300 MW(e) per unit, which is about
one-third of the generating capacity of
traditional nuclear power reactors. SMRs,
GS
which can produce a large amount of low-
carbon electricity, are:
 Small – physically a fraction of the size
of a conventional nuclear power reactor.
 Modular – making it possible for systems
and components to be factory-assembled
and transported as a unit to a location
for installation.
 Reactors – harnessing nuclear fission to
generate heat to produce energy.
 The IAEA presented its newly established
Platform on Small Modular Reactors (SMRs)
and their Applications, aimed at supporting
countries worldwide in the development and
deployment of this emerging nuclear power
technology, during an event on the margins
of the of the 65th IAEA General Conference
today.
 With more than 70 SMR designs under
development in 17 countries and the
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first SMR units already in operation in
Russia, SMRs and their smaller cousins,
microreactors (MRs), are forecast to play an
increasingly important role in helping the
global energy transition to net zero. Still,
the technology, its safety and economic
competitiveness must be demonstrated
before SMRs can be more widely deployed,
panellists agreed.
96. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
Supplementary notes:
Kessler Syndrome
 Kessler Syndrome is a hypothetical scenario
where the density of objects in low Earth
orbit is so high that collisions between
objects could create a cascade of collisions,
leading to the destruction of all satellites in
orbit.
 Kessler Syndrome is a hypothetical scenario
proposed by Donald J. Kessler in 1978. It is a
concern for space agencies and governments
a situation where the density of objects in
low Earth orbit is so high that collisions
between objects could create a cascade of
collisions, leading to the destruction of all
satellites in orbit. The cascade effect would
be a catastrophic event for space operations,
including telecommunications, weather
monitoring, and navigation systems.
 Option (a) describes Peter Pan Syndrome,
which is a term used to describe adults
who refuse to grow up and take on adult
responsibilities. Option (c) describes a
psychological disorder that shares some
characteristics with Peter Pan Syndrome,
but it is not the same thing. Option (d)
describes a feeling of nostalgia for childhood
and a desire to stay young forever, which is
not related to either Peter Pan Syndrome or
Kessler Syndrome.
97. Correct Option: (a)
Explanation:
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Gram-negative
bacteria are a group of bacteria that do not
retain the crystal violet stain during Gram
staining because of the thin peptidoglycan
layer in their cell wall.
Supplementary notes:
Gram-negative bacteria
 Gram-negative bacteria are a group of
bacteria that do not retain the crystal violet
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 stain during Gram staining because of the
thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall.
Instead, they are counterstained with a
red dye such as safranin. This gives them a
characteristic pink color when viewed under
a microscope.
 Gram-negative bacteria have an
outer membrane that is composed of
lipopolysaccharides (LPS). LPS is a complex
molecule that forms a barrier between the
bacterial cell and the external environment.
It helps to protect the cell from harmful
substances, such as antibiotics and
detergents, and also plays a role in the
pathogenesis of some gram-negative
bacteria.
 Gram-negative bacteria do not retain the
crystal violet stain during Gram staining.
They appear pink or red under the
microscope due to the counterstaining with
a red dye.
98. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Option (b) is correct
O
Supplementary notes:
Prachand
 The indigenously developed Light Combat
Helicopter (LCH) ‘Prachand’, meaning
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fierce was formally inducted into the Indian
Air Force at the Jodhpur airbase.
 Designed, developed and extensively test-
flown for over a decade by Hindustan
Aeronautics Ltd (HAL), the multi-role
attack helicopter has been customised as
per the requirements of the Indian armed
forces to operate both in desert terrains and
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high-altitude sectors.
 The LCH is the only attack helicopter in
the world that can land and take off at an
altitude of 5,000 metres (16,400 ft), which
makes it ideal to operate in the high altitude
areas of the Siachen glacier.
 It is also capable of firing a range of air-
to-ground and air-to-air missiles and
can destroy air defence operations of the
enemy.
99. Correct Option: (c)
Explanation:
 Both statements are correct
Supplementary notes:
Jupiter Icy Moons Explorer (Juice)
 The JUpiter ICy moons Explorer (JUICE) is
a European Space Agency (ESA) mission to
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make multiple flybys of Jupiter’s satellites
Ganymede, Callisto, and Europa and then
to go into orbit around Ganymede.
 The science goals focus on Jupiter and
its system, with particular emphasis on
Ganymede as a planetary body and potential
habitat.
 The primary science objectives for
Ganymede (most of these apply to Callisto
as well) are: characterization of the ocean
layers and detection of putative subsurface
water reservoirs; topographical, geological
and compositional mapping of the surface;
study of the physical properties of the icy
crusts; characterisation of the internal mass
distribution, dynamics and evolution of
theinteriors; investigation of the exosphere;
and study of Ganymede’s intrinsic magnetic
field and its interactions with the Jovian
magnetosphere.
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 The JUICE main engine is a hypergolic
bi-propellant (mono-methyl hydrazine and
mixed oxides of nitrogen) 425 N thruster.
 100 kg of multilayer insulation provide
thermal control. The spacecraft is 3-axis
stablized using momentum wheels.
Radiation shielding will be used to protect
onboard electronics from the Jovian
environment.
100. Correct Option: (b)
Explanation:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: Piezoelectric
effect is observed in both organic and
inorganic materials.
Supplementary notes:
Piezoelectric effect
 Piezoelectric Effect is the ability of certain
materials to generate an electric charge in
response to applied mechanical stress. The
word Piezoelectric is derived from the Greek
piezein, which means to squeeze or press,
and piezo, which is Greek for “push”.
 One of the unique characteristics of the
piezoelectric effect is that it is reversible,
meaning that materials exhibiting the
direct piezoelectric effect (the generation
of electricity when stress is applied) also
exhibit the converse piezoelectric effect (the
generation of stress when an electric field is
applied).
 When piezoelectric material is placed
under mechanical stress, a shifting of the
positive and negative charge centers in the
material takes place, which then results in
an external electrical field. When reversed,
an outer electrical field either stretches or
compresses the piezoelectric material.
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 The piezoelectric effect is very useful
within many applications that involve the
production and detection of sound, generation
of high voltages, electronic frequency
generation, microbalances, and ultra fine
focusing of optical assemblies. It is also the
basis of a number of scientific instrumental
techniques with atomic resolution, such as
scanning probe microscopes (STM, AFM,
etc). The piezoelectric effect also has its use
in more mundane applications as well, such
as acting as the ignition source for cigarette
lighters.

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