Q.

1) Arrange the following developments in India in their chronological order:

1. Establishment of the first cotton textile mill

2. Inauguration of the first jute mill

3. Introduction of the first railway line

4. Introduction of the telegraph service

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 3, 4, 1, 2
B. 3, 4, 2, 1
C. 3, 1, 4, 2
D. 4, 1, 2, 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Introduction of the first railway line (3): The first railway line in India was opened on April
16, 1853, running between Bombay (Mumbai) and Thane.

 Introduction of the telegraph service (4): The first telegraph line in India was established in
1851, making communication between Calcutta (Kolkata) and Diamond Harbour. The service
for public use started in 1854, closely aligning with the railway's introduction but slightly
preceding it in initiation.

 Establishment of the first cotton textile mill (1): The first cotton mill in India was established
in 1854 in Bombay, following the introduction of railways and telegraph.

 Inauguration of the first jute mill (2): The first jute mill was set up in Rishra (near Kolkata),
West Bengal, in 1855, after the establishment of the cotton mill.

Q.2) Consider the following statements about the history of Indian Railways:

1. The first passenger train in India launched in 1855.

2. The inaugural passenger train journey in India connected Bori Bunder (Bombay) to Thane.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is incorrect as the first passenger train in India in1853 not 1855.
 Statement 2 is correct, accurately describing the historic event on 16th April 1853, marking
the beginning of passenger railway transport in India with the journey from Bori Bunder
(Bombay) to Thane.
Q.3) Who among the following started The Bengal Gazette or Calcutta General Advertiser, the
first newspaper in India, in 1780?
A. William Jones
B. Warren Hastings
C. James Augustus Hickey
D. Lord Cornwallis

Answer: C

Explanation:

James Augustus Hickey is credited with starting The Bengal Gazette or Calcutta General Advertiser in
1780, marking the inception of the first newspaper in India. This pioneering venture introduced the
concept of journalism and newspaper publication to the Indian subcontinent, laying the foundation
for the growth of the press in India.

Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding the Censorship of Press Act, 1799:

1. Lord Hastings relaxed the press restrictions imposed by this act.

2. It was enacted by Lord Wellesley to promoting French literature in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct, highlighting the relaxation of press restrictions under Lord Hastings,
who had progressive views towards press freedom, leading to the abolition of pre-censorship
in 1818.
 Statement 2 is incorrect as the Censorship of Press Act, 1799, was enacted by Lord Wellesley
not to promote French literature but in anticipation of a French invasion of India, imposing
almost wartime restrictions on the press including pre-censorship.
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding the Licensing Regulations of 1823:

1. The acting Governor-General at the time was John Adams.

2. According to the regulations, operating a press without a license was considered a penal
offence.

3. The Act was later extended to include journals, pamphlets, and books within its ambit.

4. As a result of these regulations, Khan Abdul Gaffar khan’s "Mirat-ul-Akbar" had to cease
publication.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Three
D. All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

1. Acting Governor-General: The statement is correct. John Adam (not to be confused with
John Adams, the American President) was the acting Governor-General of India during the
introduction of the Licensing Regulations in 1823.

2. Press Operation without License: This statement is correct. The Licensing Regulations of
1823 made it a penal offence to start or use a press without obtaining a license first,
significantly restricting the freedom of the press.

3. Extension to Cover Publications: This statement is correct. The Act was indeed extended to
cover journals, pamphlets, and books, further tightening control over printed materials.

4. Impact on "Mirat-ul-Akbar": This statement is incorrect. Rammohan Roy's "Mirat-ul-Akbar"

was affected by these regulations, leading to its cessation of publication. Roy was a
prominent figure advocating for freedom of press and his publications were influential in
social and educational reform.

Q.6) Arrange the following press-related acts and regulations in British India in their
chronological order:

1. Licensing Regulations

2. Press Act by Metcalfe

3. Registration Act

4. Vernacular Press Act

5. Newspaper (Incitement to Offences) Act

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
C. 1, 4, 2, 3, 5
D. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Licensing Regulations, 1823 (Obnoxious 1823): Enacted by John Adams, this ordinance
required anyone wishing to start or continue using a press to obtain registration, imposing
stringent controls on the press.

 Press Act of 1835 by Metcalfe: Known as the "Liberator of the Indian Press," Charles
Metcalfe repealed the restrictive 1823 ordinance, requiring printers/publishers to give an
account of their premises but significantly relaxing previous restrictions.
  Registration Act, 1867: This act further relaxed restrictions from Metcalfe's Act of 1835,
signaling a shift towards a more regulatory rather than restrictive approach to press
governance.

 Vernacular Press Act, 1878: Aimed at exerting "better control" over the vernacular press,
this act allowed for punitive actions against publications critical of authority.

 Newspaper (Incitement to Offences) Act, 1908: This law empowered magistrates to

confiscate the property of presses publishing material deemed likely to incite violence or
murder, particularly targeting extremist nationalist activities.

Q.7) Consider the provisions of the Registration Act of 1867:

1. The Act required every book/newspaper to print the name of the printer and the publisher,
along with the place of publication.

2. A copy of every published book was to be submitted to the local government within one
month of its publication.

3. This Act replaced Metcalfe’s Act of 1835 and was regulatory rather than restrictive in nature.

How many of the above statements are correct regarding the Registration Act of 1867?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: C

Explanation:

1. Printer and Publisher Information: Correct. The Registration Act of 1867 mandated the
inclusion of the printer's and publisher's names and the place of publication on every book
and newspaper, ensuring transparency about the sources of printed materials.

2. Submission of Copies: Correct. The Act stipulated that a copy of every book published must
be submitted to the local government within one month of publication. This provision was
intended to maintain a record of all published materials for regulatory purposes.

3. Nature and Replacement of Previous Act: Correct. The Registration Act of 1867 replaced
Metcalfe's Act of 1835 and was designed to be regulatory rather than restrictive. It aimed at
regulating the publication process without imposing the harsh restrictions that were
characteristic of previous legislation.

Since all statements accurately reflect the provisions and purpose of the Registration Act of 1867, the
correct answer is option (c) All three.

Q.8) Who among the following earned the epithet "liberator of the Indian press" by repealing
the obnoxious 1823 ordinance and introducing a more liberal press policy in 1835?
A. Lord William Bentinck
B. Sir Charles Metcalfe
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Lord Cornwallis
Answer: B

Explanation:

Sir Charles Metcalfe, serving as the acting Governor-General of India from 1835-36, repealed the
restrictive 1823 press ordinance and introduced a new Press Act in 1835. This Act required printers
and publishers to give a precise account of the premises of a publication and allowed them to cease
functioning if required by a declaration. Metcalfe's actions led to a rapid growth of newspapers and
significantly liberalized the press policy in India, earning him the epithet "liberator of the Indian
press".

Q.9) How many of the following pairs of newspapers and their associated key figures are
correctly matched?

1. The Hindu - Surendranath Banerjea

2. The Bengalee - G. Subramaniya Aiyar

3. Voice of India - N.N. Sen

4. Amrita Bazar Patrika - Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh

5. Indian Mirror - Dadabhai Naoroji

Options:

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four

Answer: A

Explanation:

 The Hindu was indeed started by G. Subramaniya Aiyar among others, aiming to propagate
the nationalist views against the British rule in India.

 The Bengalee was associated with Surendranath Banerjea, an important figure in the Indian
National Movement who used the newspaper as a platform to criticize British policies.

 Voice of India was associated with Dadabhai Naoroji, a leading figure in the Indian
independence movement and a founding member of the Indian National Congress, who
used the platform to voice his opinions and ideas for India's future.

 Amrita Bazar Patrika was founded by Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal Ghosh. The newspaper
is known for its anti-British stance and played a crucial role in the freedom movement.

 Indian Mirror was associated with N.N. Sen, contributing significantly to the dissemination
of nationalist ideas among the Indian populace.

Q.10) Consider the following statements about Mirat-ul-Akhbar (Mirror of News):

1. Mirat-ul-Akhbar was a Persian language newspaper initially focused on agricultural

advancements in India.
 2. Raja Rammohan Roy founded and edited Mirat-ul-Akhbar, which was published in the
Persian language.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct because Mirat-ul-Akhbar, while published in Persian, was a general

news publication.
 Statement 2 is correct, accurately identifying Raja Rammohan Roy as the founder and editor
of Mirat-ul-Akhbar, highlighting its significance as a Persian language publication in the
context of early 19th-century Indian journalism.
Q.11) Evaluate the following statements about the role and impact of newspapers in India:

1. Newspapers' influence was confined to only urban areas.

2. Newspapers aimed to serve the nation and public, not as commercial ventures, fostering a
library movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because the influence of newspapers was not confined solely to urban areas.
Despite the high rates of illiteracy, newspapers reached rural areas through local libraries, which
served as centers for community discussions and debates on current affairs and editorial content.
This extended reach demonstrates the newspapers' role in educating and uniting people beyond
urban centers.

Statement 2 is correct as many newspapers in India were established with the primary goal of
serving national and public interests rather than generating profit. These publications played a crucial
role in spreading awareness, stimulating political discourse, and supporting the freedom movement.
The establishment of libraries, facilitated by the spread of newspapers, contributed significantly to
the library movement, making education and information accessible to a broader section of society.
This approach underscores the newspapers' commitment to public service and national
development.

Q.12) 'Akbar-i-Am' newspaper was started in which of the following region?

A. Punjab
B. Gujarat
C. Maharashtra (Bombay)
D. West Bengal

Answer: A

Explanation:

'Akbar-i-Am' is listed alongside newspapers from different regions, suggesting it was initiated in
Punjab. This contrasts with Gujarati and 'Indu Prakash' in Bombay (Maharashtra), indicating the
diverse regional focus of newspaper establishments in India during that era.

Q.13) The newspaper 'Gujarati' is associated with which of the following regions?
A. Punjab
B. Gujarat
C. Maharashtra (Bombay)
D. West Bengal

Answer: C

Explanation:

'Gujarati', along with 'Indu Prakash', 'Dhyan Prakash', and 'Kal', is associated with Bombay, indicating
it was a publication from the Maharashtra region, despite its name suggesting a linguistic association
with Gujarat. This highlights the diverse linguistic and cultural representation in the press of Bombay
(now Mumbai) during that period.

Q.14) With reference to the Vernacular Press Act of 1878:

1. District magistrates could ask vernacular newspaper publishers to sign a bond with the
government.

2. No appeals were allowed against the magistrate's decision.

3. Vernacular newspapers could avoid the act by showing proofs to a government censor.

4. Lord Curzon introduced the Vernacular Press Act in 1878.

How many are correct about the Vernacular Press Act?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. All four

Answer: C

Explanation:

1. Magistrate's Power: The Act indeed gave district magistrates the authority to require
printers and publishers of vernacular newspapers to enter into a bond, committing to not
publish anything deemed seditious by the government. This was meant to curb the freedom
of the press, particularly in criticizing British policies.

2. No Right to Appeal: Correctly, the Act provided no avenue for appeal against a magistrate's
decision, effectively silencing any opposition or criticism from the vernacular press without
judicial recourse.
 3. Exemption Mechanism: The Act allowed for a form of pre-censorship, where vernacular
newspapers could get an exemption by submitting their content for review to a government
censor. This provision attempted to control the narrative circulated in the public domain.

4. Lord Lytton's Role: Incorrect. Lord Lytton, the then Viceroy of India, was responsible for
passing the Vernacular Press Act in 1878, as part of his broader efforts to suppress political
dissent and maintain British authority in India.

Q.15) Under the Vernacular Press Act (VPA), proceedings were instituted against several
newspapers. Which of the following newspapers were targeted by these proceedings?

1. Som Prakash

2. Bharat Mihir

3. Dacca Prakash

4. Samachar

5. The Statesman

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
B. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Answer: A

Explanation:

 The Vernacular Press Act (VPA) was enacted to suppress the freedom of the press,
particularly targeting vernacular newspapers that were critical of British policies.
 Under the VPA, proceedings were indeed instituted against several newspapers, including
Som Prakash, Bharat Mihir, Dacca Prakash, and Samachar, as they were identified for
publishing content that was not favorable to the British Raj. The Statesman, not listed among
the newspapers targeted under the VPA in the provided information, is an English-language
newspaper and was not mentioned as being affected directly by the VPA in this context.
 This act of the British government led to significant criticism, and notable reactions included
the transformation of the Amrita Bazar Patrika from a vernacular to an English language
newspaper to evade the restrictions imposed by the VPA.
Q.16) 'Mahratta' newspaper was started by:
A. G. Subramaniya Aiyar
B. Surendranath Banerjea
C. Dadabhai Naoroji
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: D

Explanation:

1. The Hindu and Swadesamitran were initiated by G. Subramaniya Aiyar, marking a significant
contribution to journalism in southern India.
 2. The Bengalee found its voice under Surendranath Banerjea, playing a crucial role in the
nationalist movement in Bengal.

3. Voice of India was led by Dadabhai Naoroji, reflecting the aspirations and challenges of
India's struggle for independence.

4. Amrita Bazar Patrika emerged under the stewardship of Sisir Kumar Ghosh and Motilal
Ghosh, becoming a pivotal publication in the Indian press scene.

5. Indian Mirror benefited from the guidance of N.N. Sen, contributing to the discourse on
national and social issues.

6. Kesari (in Marathi) and Mahratta (in English) were launched by Bal Gangadhar Tilak,
reflecting his revolutionary zeal and nationalist fervor.

7. Sudharak was the brainchild of Gopal Krishna Gokhale, emphasizing social reform and
political change.

8. Hindustan and Advocate were spearheaded by G.P. Verma, adding to the diversity of voices
in the Indian nationalist movement.

9. Publications like Tribune and Akbhar-i-Am in Punjab, and Gujarati, Indu Prakash, Dhyan
Prakash, and Kal in Bombay, along with Som Prakash, Banganivasi, and Sadharani in Bengal,
further enriched the journalistic landscape, each contributing uniquely to the freedom
struggle and societal discourse.

Q.17) Who among the following introduced postage stamps in India?

A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Canning
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Lord Mountbatten

Answer: C

Explanation:

 Lord Dalhousie, serving as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, introduced
postage stamps in the country.
 The first use of postage stamps in India was recorded in the district of Scinde in 1852.
 Subsequently, on 1st October 1854, the first all-India stamp was issued, marking a significant
development in the postal system of India under Lord Dalhousie's administration.
Q.18) Consider the following statements regarding the introduction of the Electric Telegraph
System in India:

1. The Electric Telegraph System was introduced in India by Lord Dalhousie in 1853.

2. The inaugural telegraph line was established between Calcutta and Diamond.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is incorrect as Lord Dalhousie introduced the Electric Telegraph System in India
in 1852, which significantly improved communication across the country, including but not
limited to military purposes.
 Statement 2 is incorrect because the first operational telegraph line was opened between
Calcutta and Agra in 1854, not between Calcutta and Diamond Harbour. This development
was crucial for enhancing communication and administrative efficiency during the British Raj.
Q.19) Consider the following recommendations of the Wood's Despatch:

1. Education system regularization from primary to university levels.

2. Instruction in both English and native languages for Indians.

3. Establishment of the education system in every province.

4. At least one government school in every district.

How many of the above recommendations are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Three
D. All four

Answer: D

Explanation:

1. System Regularization: Correct. One of the key recommendations of the Wood's

Despatch was to establish a systematic approach to education, spanning from primary to
university levels, to create a structured and comprehensive education system in India.

2. Language of Instruction: Correct. The Despatch advocated for education in both English
and the vernacular languages, recognizing the importance of English for administrative
purposes and native languages for cultural and regional relevance.

3. Provincial Education Systems: Correct. It called for the establishment of educational

infrastructure across every province in India, aiming to make education accessible to a
broader segment of the population.

4. Government Schools in Districts: Correct. The recommendation for at least one

government school in every district was aimed at expanding educational opportunities to
rural and remote areas, ensuring that the benefits of education reached all parts of the
country.

Q.20) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. Fort William College - Warren Hastings

2. Sanskrit College - Jonathan Duncan

3. Calcutta Madrasah - Wellesley

 Select correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. None of the above

Answer: B

Explanation:

 Fort William College was established by Lord Wellesley in 1800 to train British civil servants
in Asian languages and Indian culture, not by Warren Hastings.

 Sanskrit College in Varanasi was indeed established by Jonathan Duncan in 1791, aimed at
promoting the study of Sanskrit literature, Hindu laws, philosophy, and religion.

 Calcutta Madrasah was founded by Warren Hastings in 1781 for the study of Islamic law and
related subjects, not by Wellesley.

Q.21) Consider the following statements regarding the Hartog Committee:

1. The Hartog Committee was formed under Simon commission.

2. to evaluate and report on the state of education in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct, the Hartog Committee was formed under the Simon Commission,
established to address educational issues in India.
 Statement 2 is correct, accurately describing the committee's formation and its focus on
evaluating the state of education in India, under the chairmanship of Phillip Hartog in 192
Q.22) During the Quit India Movement, parallel governments were established in several
regions. Which of the following places had parallel governments established?

1. Ballia

2. Tamluk (Midnapore)

3. Satara

4. Bardoli

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
 D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

During the Quit India Movement of 1942, a significant demonstration of resistance against British
rule was the formation of parallel governments in certain areas of India. These were temporary
local governments formed by Indian freedom fighters:

 In Ballia, under the leadership of Chittu Pandey, a parallel government was established.

 In Tamluk (Midnapore), the Jatiya Sarkar (National Government) was formed.

 Satara saw the organization of "Prati Sarkar" (Provisional Government).

Bardoli, known for the Bardoli Satyagraha led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in 1928, did not see the
establishment of a parallel government during the Quit India Movement, making option A the
correct answer. This question tests the candidate's knowledge of specific instances of local self-
governance and resistance movements during India's struggle for independence.

Q.23) Who among the following founded the Indian Club of Tokyo and gave lectures on the evils
of Western imperialism in Japan?
A. Subhas Chandra Bose
B. Rashbehari Bose
C. Aurobindo Ghosh
D. Bhagat Singh

Answer: B

Explanation:

Rashbehari Bose, after becoming a naturalized citizen of Japan, founded the Indian Club of
Tokyo. He was active in promoting Indian independence and gave lectures on the evils of
Western imperialism. His efforts in Japan were part of a broader struggle for Indian
independence from British rule, and he played a significant role in fostering international support
for the cause.

Q.24) With reference to the Hunter Commission's recommendations:

1. Primary education improvement and extension, with instruction in vernacular.

2. Shifting primary education control to district and municipal boards.

3. Proposal for a three -part division in secondary education.

How many of the above recommendations are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:
 All three listed recommendations accurately reflect the findings and suggestions of the Hunter
Commission:

1. Primary Education Improvement: The emphasis on enhancing primary education and

providing instruction in the local vernacular was indeed a correct recommendation by the
Hunter Commission, aimed at making education more accessible and effective.

2. Control to Local Boards: Correctly, the commission recommended transferring the control of
primary education to district and municipal boards, intending to improve the governance
and local relevance of education.

3. Secondary Education Division: The suggestion to divide secondary education into two
distinct streams was also a correct recommendation, designed to cater to varying
educational and vocational needs of students. So the given statement is in correct.

Q.25) Arrange the following in their chronological order:

1. Lord Macaulay's Minute

2. Woods Dispatch

3. Hunter Education Commission

4. Saddler University Commission

5. Hartog Committee

Select correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1-2-3-5-4
B. 1-3-2-4-5
C. 1-2-5-3-4
D. 1-2-3-4-5

Answer: D

Explanation:

 Lord Macaulay's Minute (1835): A document that recommended the introduction of English
education in India, arguing that English should be the medium of instruction for higher
education.

 Woods Dispatch (1854): Considered the "Magna Carta of English Education in India," it
recommended the creation of a system of education that taught both Western and Eastern
subjects.

 Hunter Education Commission (1882-83): Focused on elementary and secondary education,

recommending that primary education should be in vernacular languages.

 Hartog Committee (1929): Concentrated on the problems of primary and secondary

education, especially on the issue of "wastage" and "stagnation."

 Saddler University Commission (1917-1919): Reviewed the entire educational system in

India but with a particular focus on university education, suggesting reforms in the structure
and duration of degree courses.
Q.26) Examine the consequences of British education policy in India:

1. The traditional Indian educational system declined.

2. Education became accessible mainly to the wealthy and those living in cities.

3. There was a significant promoting of women's education.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

1. Decline of Traditional Learning: Correct. The British education system, with its emphasis on
English and Western sciences, led to a gradual decline in the traditional systems of Indian
learning, which were often not supported or recognized under the new regime.

2. Monopoly of Education: Correct. Since the British education system required payment for
schooling, access to education became limited to those who could afford it—primarily the
upper and richer classes and residents of urban areas. This system created economic barriers
to education for the lower classes and rural populations.

3. Neglect of Women's Education: incorrect. The British were cautious about upsetting the
orthodox sections of Indian society, which often held conservative views on women's
education. Additionally, because women's education was not seen as immediately useful for
the purposes of colonial administration or economic exploitation, it was largely neglected.

Q.27) Arrange the following movements and revolts in their chronological order:

1. Kisan Sabha Movement

2. Eka Movement

3. Mappila Revolt

4. Bardoli Satyagraha

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 3, 1, 2, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. 1, 2, 4, 3
D. 2, 3, 4, 1

Answer: B

Explanation:

 Mappila Revolt (1921): This was an uprising of Muslim tenants in the Malabar region of
Kerala against Hindu landlords and the British government.

 Kisan Sabha Movement(1918) The Kisan Sabha (Peasant Association) was a protest
movement in Uttar Pradesh that took place from 1919–1922. The movement was started in
 1918 by Gauri Shankar Mishra, Indra Narayan Dwivedi, and Madan Mohan Malviya in
Lucknow. The movement is also known as the U.P Kisan Sabha or Awadh Kisan Sabha.

 Eka Movement (1921-22): This movement was part of the broader wave of peasant unrest
during the early 1920s, focusing on the united front of peasants against landlords in parts of
Uttar Pradesh.

 Bardoli Satyagraha (1928): Led by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, this was a successful peasant
movement against increased taxes in Bardoli, Gujarat.

Q.28) The Tebhaga movement was formed in which of the following region in the mid-1940s?
A. Punjab
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bengal
D. Maharashtra

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Tebhaga movement was a significant peasant uprising in the mid-1940s in the undivided Bengal.
The movement was primarily a demand by sharecroppers for a two-thirds share of their produce for
themselves, challenging the traditional arrangement where they received only one-half, with the
remainder going to the jotedars, who were a class of intermediary landowners. This movement
represented a critical moment in the struggle for rights and fair treatment of peasants against the
backdrop of feudal agricultural practices.

Q.29) Who among the following drafted a bill in 1878 for providing better working conditions to
laborers and tried to pass it in the Bombay Legislative Council?
A. Narayan Rao Pawar
B. Narayan Meghaji Lokhande
C. Sorabjee Shapoorji
D. Surendra Nath Benarji

Answer: C

Explanation:

In 1878, Sorabjee Shapoorji played a pivotal role in advocating for the rights and welfare of laborers
by drafting a bill aimed at providing better working conditions. He made significant efforts to pass
this bill in the Bombay Legislative Council, marking an early attempt to legislate labor rights and
protections in India.

Q.30) In which of the following years was the English Education Act introduced?
A. 1825
B. 1835
C. 1845
D. 1855

Answer: B

Explanation:
The English Education Act 1835 was a significant legislative Act of the Council of India, introduced
under the governance of Lord William Bentinck, who was then the Governor-General of the British
East India Company. This Act marked a pivotal moment in the history of education in India, laying the
foundation for the introduction of the British education system across the country.

Q.31) Consider the following statements about the Sangathan Se Samriddhi Scheme:

1. It operates under the Ministry of women and child development

2. The scheme aims for each woman associated with Self-Help Groups (SHGs) to earn at least
five lakh rupees per annum.

3. Its objective is to incorporate all eligible rural women into SHGs, aiming at their financial
independence and self-reliance.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: A

Explanation:

1. Ministry Affiliation: incorrect. The Sangathan Se Samriddhi Scheme, being focused on rural
development and empowerment of women through Self-Help Groups (SHGs), is aptly placed
under the Ministry of Rural Development, which oversees initiatives aimed at enhancing the
socio-economic conditions in rural areas.

2. Income Goal for Women: Incorrect. A significant aim of the scheme is to ensure that each
woman associated with SHGs can earn at least one lakh rupees per annum, thereby setting a
tangible target for economic empowerment and enhancing their contribution to the
household and community economy.

3. Incorporation into SHGs: Correct. The scheme is designed to bring all eligible rural women
into the fold of SHGs, providing them with a platform for collective action, financial
transactions, and mutual support. This initiative underscores the government's commitment
to fostering self-reliance and financial independence among rural women.

Q.32) Which of the following bodies launched the pilot scheme 'Mission 50K-EV4ECO' to
promote the adoption of electric vehicles (EV)?
A. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
B. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
D. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

Answer: B

Explanation:

 Scheme Name: 'Mission 50K-EV4ECO'

 Launched by: Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

  Objective: To unlock the electric vehicle market by providing better financing terms and
understanding other solutions needed for better adoption of electric vehicles (EV).

 Pilot Phase Goals:

1. Strengthen the EV ecosystem.

2. Enhance uptake for two, three, and four-wheelers through both direct and indirect
lending.

Q.33) In which of the following country is the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras
planning to establish its first international campus?
A. Kenya
B. Tanzania
C. Uganda
D. South Africa

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. Institution Involved: Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras, which is based in Chennai,
Tamil Nadu.

2. Expansion Plan: IIT Madras is planning to establish its first international campus.

3. Location of New Campus: The international campus is set to be located in Zanzibar, Tanzania.

4. Start Date for Classes: Classes at the new campus are planned to commence in October
2023.

5. Significance of the Move:

 Marks a significant expansion for IIT Madras beyond Indian borders.

 Represents a contribution to the global educational landscape.

 Enhances educational collaboration between India and Tanzania.

Q.34) Which of the following institutions released the "Connecting to Compete 2023: Trade
Logistics?
A. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
B. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
C. World Bank
D. World Trade Organization (WTO)

Answer: C

Explanation:

 Report Title: "Connecting to Compete 2023: Trade Logistics in an Uncertain Global Economy
– the Logistics Performance Index (LPI) and its indicators"

 Release Date: April 21, 2023

 Institution: World Bank

  Key Highlights:

 India's rank in the Logistics Performance Index increased by 6 places to 38, from 44
in 2018.

 The report assesses countries based on their logistics performance.

 Singapore topped the Logistics Performance Index ranking according to the World
Bank's 2023 report.

Q.35) Consider the following statements about Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs):

1. NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.

2. NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and cannot issue cheques
drawn on themselves.

3. Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is available
to depositors of NBFCs.

4. Unlike banks, NBFCs are subjected to stringent and substantial regulations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1, 2, and 4 only
C. 1, 2, and 3 only
D. 1, 3, and 4 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct: NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits, which are funds deposited at
a financial institution that can be withdrawn at any time without any advance notice to the
institution.

 Statement 2 is correct: NBFCs do not form part of the payment and settlement system and
cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves, which differentiates them from banks.

 Statement 3 is incorrect: Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit

Guarantee Corporation is not available to depositors of NBFCs. This is a key difference
between banks and NBFCs in terms of depositor protection.

 Statement 4 is incorrect: While NBFCs are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), they
are not subjected to the same stringent and substantial regulations as banks. NBFCs operate
under a different regulatory framework that is less stringent compared to that of banks.

Q.36) Consider the premium rates that farmers need to pay under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima
Yojana (PMFBY).

1. For all Kharif crops- 5%

2. For all Rabi crops- 3%.

3. commercial and horticultural crops - 10%.

 How many of the above pairs are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: D

Explanation:

Each statement correctly outlines the premium rates under the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
(PMFBY) for different types of crops:

1. Kharif Crops Premium: incorrect. The PMFBY stipulates a uniform premium of 2% for all
Kharif crops, making it affordable for farmers to insure their crops against unforeseen natural
calamities.

2. Rabi Crops Premium: incorrect. For Rabi crops, the premium rate is indeed set at 1.5%,
reflecting the scheme's intention to provide financial protection to farmers at minimal costs.

3. Commercial and Horticultural Crops Premium: incorrect. The premium rate for annual
commercial and horticultural crops is set at 5%, which is slightly higher due to the typically
higher value and risk associated with these crops.

Q.37) Which of the following states has bagged the national award for the best implementation
of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), a crop subsidy insurance scheme, for the
year 2022-23?
A. Maharashtra
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Karnataka
D. Punjab

Answer: C

Explanation:

 Award: National award for the best implementation of Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
(PMFBY)

 Year: 2022-23

 State: Karnataka

 Scheme: Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is a crop subsidy insurance scheme
aimed at providing insurance coverage and financial support to the farmers in the event of
failure of any of the notified crop as a result of natural calamities, pests & diseases.

Q.38) Consider the following statements regarding the JUICE mission:

1. The JUICE mission was launched by NASA.

2. JUICE mission's primary objective is to study Jupiter and its three icy moons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is incorrect because the JUICE mission is an initiative of the European Space
Agency (ESA), not NASA, and its focus is on Jupiter and its moons, not Mars.
 Statement 2 is correct, accurately describing the launch details of the JUICE mission and its
objectives to make detailed observations of Jupiter and its three ice-encrusted moons, which
are of scientific interest due to the potential existence of underground oceans.
Q.39) Which of the following ministries launched the SATHI portal and mobile application?
A. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
B. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare
C. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Answer: B

Explanation:

 Initiative: Launch of SATHI portal and mobile application.

 Launched By: Union Minister Narendra Singh Tomar.

 Ministry: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare.

 Purpose: To address seed production challenges, enhance seed quality identification, and
facilitate certification.

 Development Theme: "Uttam Beej – Samriddh Kisan".

 Developers: National Informatics Centre (NIC) in collaboration with the Union Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

 Features: SATHI is a centralized online system designed for comprehensive seed

management, aiming to ensure the availability of high-quality seeds to farmers, thereby
contributing to agricultural prosperity.

Q.40) Bhavanapadu Port, recently renamed as “Mulapeta Greenfield Port”, is located in which of
the following states?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Kerala
D. Karnataka

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Andhra Pradesh Government renamed Bhavanapadu Port as “Mulapeta Greenfield Port” on 16th
April 2023.
Bavanapadu port:

 Renaming Date: 16th April 2023.

 New Name: “Mulapeta Greenfield Port”.

 Location: Srikakulam district, Andhra Pradesh (AP).

 Reason for Renaming: To respect the sentiments of local villagers, especially those from
Mulapeta and Vishnuchakram villages.

 Initiative by: Andhra Pradesh Government.

 Foundation Stone Laying: Scheduled for 19th April by Y.S. Jagan Mohan Reddy, Chief
Minister (CM) of Andhra Pradesh.

 Context for Name Change: Bhavanapadu village was not included in the proposed port area,
whereas lands from Mulapeta and some from Vishnuchakram have been earmarked for
acquisition.

Q.41) If p, q, r, s and t represent length, breadth, height, surface area and volume of a cuboid
1 1 1
respectively, then what is + + equal to?
p q r
8
A.
t
2t
B.
s
s
C.
2t
2s
D.
t

Answer: C

Explanation:

p, q, r, s and t represent length, breadth, height, surface area and volume of a cuboid
respectively.

The surface area of cuboid = 2(lb + bh + hl) (where l, b and h are length, breadth and height
of cuboid respectively)

Volume of cuboid = lbh

Surface area of cuboid(s) = 2(pq + qr + rs) (p, q and r represent length, breadth and
height respectively)

Volume(t) = pqr

(1/p) + (1/q) + (1/r) = (pq + qr + qr)/pqr (pq + qr + rs = s/2)

⇒ s/(2t)

Q.42) The surface area of a cube is increased by 25%. If p is the percentage increase in its length,
then which one of the following is correct?
 A. 16 < p < 18
B. 14 < p < 16
C. 12 < p < 14
D. 10 < p < 12

Answer: D

Explanation:

The area of each surface of the cube = (side) 2 [each surface of a cube is a square

Let the initial surface area of the cube = 600

then the initial area of each surface = 100

Initial length of side = √100 = 10 unit

Final Surface area of the cube = 600 × 125/100 = 750

Then the final area of each surface = 125

(Final length)2 = 125

(Final length) = √125

Therefore, according to the question

P = [(√125 - 10)/10] × 100

P = 10(5√5 - 10)

P = 10(5 × 2.236 - 10) = 11.8

∴ 10 < P < 12

Q.43) An empty rectangular tank with base area 2400 sq.cm is filled with water from two taps.
One fills 12 litres of water per minute and the other 8 litres per minute. After both taps are
open for 6 minutes. What will be the depth of water in the tank?

A. 75 cm

B. 24 cm

C. 50 cm

D. 100 cm

Answer:

Explanation:
 Efficiency of one pipe per minute = 12 liters

Efficiency of another pipe per minute = 6 liters

Formula Used

Efficiency × Time = Work done

Volume = Rate of flow × Time

Volume = Area of base × Height

Both the pipe fill the water in 6 minutes = (12 + 8) × 6 = 120 liters

1 liter = 1000 cm3

⇒ 120 liters = 120000 cm3

Volume = 120000 cm3

⇒ 2400 × h = 120000 cm2

⇒ h = 50 cm

Q.44) The height and the total surface area of a right circular cylinder are 4 cm and 8π
sq.cm. respectively. The radius of the base of cylinder is

A. (2√2 – 2) cm

B. (2 – √2) cm

C. 2 cm

D. √2 cm

Answer: A

Explanation:

Height of the cylinder h = 4 cm

Total surface area of cylinder = 8π sq.cm.

Formula used:

Total surface area of cylinder = 2 πr (r + h)

Calculation:

Total surface area of cylinder = 2 πr (r + h)

2 πr (r + h) = 8 π

⇒ r (r + 4) = 4

⇒ r2 + 4r – 4 = 0

Comparing on ax2 + bx + c = 0

⇒ x = [ – b – √(b2 – 4ac)]/2a

⇒ x = [ – 4 + √(16 + 16)]/2

⇒ x = ( – 4 + 4√2)/2

⇒ x = 2√2 – 2

∴ Radius of cylinder = (2√2 – 2) cm

Q.45) What is the ratio of the volume of a cuboid to the volume of a cube?

StatementI. The ratio of the height, breadth, and length of the cuboid is 1 : 2 : 3 and
the total surface area of the cuboid is 352 cm2.

StatementII. The total surface area of the cube is given to be 384 cm2.

Statement III. The length of the cuboid is 3 times the height of the cuboid and 1.5
times the breadth of the cuboid. The difference between the length and the height
of the cuboid is 8 cm.

A. The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement II and III alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

B. The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data
in statement I and III alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

C. The data in statement I and II or in statement II and III is sufficient to answer the
question.

D. The data in all the statements I, II, and III are not sufficient to answer the
question

Answer: C

Explanation:
For Statement I:

Total Surface area of cuboid = 2 (lb + bh + hl)

Let Length be 3x, breadth = 2x, height = x

⇒ 352 = 2 (3x × 2x + 2x × x + x × 3x)

⇒ 176 = (6x2 + 2x2 + 3x2)

⇒ 176 = 11x2

⇒ x2 = 16

⇒x=4

∴ Length = 12, Breadth = 8, Height = 4

∴ Volume = lbh

⇒ 12 × 8 × 4

⇒ 384 cm3

Statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

For statement II:

Total Surface Area of Cube = 6s2

⇒ 384 = 6s2

⇒ s2 = 64

⇒s=8

∴ Volume of the cube = s3

⇒ 83

⇒ 512cm3

Statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

For Statement III:

Height of the cuboid = x cm

Length = 3x

Breadth = 2x

∴ Difference = 3x – x

⇒ 8 = 2x

⇒x=4

∴ Length = 12, Breadth = 8, Height = 4

∴ Volume = lbh

⇒ 12 × 8 × 4

⇒ 384 cm3

Statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

But we can solve the question by either Statement I and II or statement II

and III.

Q.46) A rectangular sheet is of length x and breadth y. If p is the volume of the cylinder formed
by rolling the sheet along its breadth and q is the volume of the cylinder formed by rolling the
sheet along its length, and q = 2p, then which one of the following is correct?

A. x = y

B. 2x = 3y

C. x = 2y

D. 3x = 4y

Answer: C

Explanation:

Length of rectangular sheet = x, Breadth of rectangular sheet = y

Volume of the cylinder formed by rolling the sheet along with its breadth = p

Volume of the cylinder formed by rolling the sheet along with its length = q

Volume of Cylinder = πr2h

Circumference = 2πr
Where r and h are theradius and height of the cylinder respectively.

Q.47) A cuboid whose sides are 8 cm, 27 cm and 64 cm is melted to form a new cube.
What is the respective ratio of the total surface area of the cuboid and cube?

A. 329 ∶ 237

B. 291 ∶ 203

C. 349 ∶ 248

D. 307 ∶ 216

Answer: D

Explanation:

Volume of cuboid = Product of the sides = 8 × 27 × 64 = 13824 cm3

Side of cube = cube root of the volume of cuboid = cube root of 13824 = 24 cm

Total surface area of cuboid = 2(lb + bh + hl) = 2(8 × 27 + 27 × 64 + 64 × 8) = 2(216 + 1728 + 512) =
2(2456) = 4912 cm2

Total surface area of cube = 6(side)² = 6(24)2 = 3456 cm2

Ratio = 4912 ∶ 3456 = 307 ∶ 216

Q.48) A sphere is placed in a cube so that it touches all the faces of the cube. If 'a' is the ratio of
the volume of the cube to the volume of the sphere, and 'b' is the ratio of the surface area of
the sphere to the surface area of the cube, then the value of ab is:

36
A. 2
π

B. 2
 C. 1

D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Ratio of volume of the cube to that of sphere = a

Ratio of surface area of the sphere to that of cube = b

Formula:

Volume of cube = a3

Volume of sphere = (4/3)π × a3

Total surface area of cube = 6a2

Total surface area of sphere = 4πr2

Given:

Let side of cube be 3 m, then

Radius of sphere r = 3/2 m

Volume of cube = 33 = 27 m3

Total surface area of cube = 6 × 32 = 54 m2

Volume of sphere = (4/3) × π × (3/2)3 = (4/3) × π × (27/8) = 9π/2 m3

Total surface area of sphere = 4π × (3/2)2 = 4π × (9/4) = 9π m2

According to the question

a = 27/(9π/2)

⇒ a = 6/π

b = 9π/54

⇒ b = π/6

ab = (6/π) × (π/6)

⇒ ab = 1
Q.49) Three cubes each having volume 1728 cm 3 are placed one above the other. What is the
total surface area of the resulting solid?

A. 2016 cm 2

B. 2592 cm 2

C. 2304 cm 2

D. 2160 cm 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

The total number of cubes = 3

The volume of each cube = 1728 cm3

The volume of cube = (side)3

The surface area of a cuboid = 2 (wl + hl + hw)

Where, h = Height; w = Width; and l = Length

Let, the radius of each cube = a

So, a3 = 1728

⇒ a3 = 123

⇒ a = 12

∴ The radius of each cube = 12 cm

In this solid, height = (12 + 12 + 12) = 36 cm

Width = 12 cm and Length = 12 cm

∴ The surface area = 2 [(12 × 12) + (36 × 12) + (36 × 12)

= 2 × 12 (12 + 36 + 36)

= 24 × 84

= 2016 cm2
Q.50) A 6-meter-wide cubical hole is dug in a 42-meter-diameter circular field, and the removed
earth is spread over the remaining area. To what extent will the earth's surface level rise?
A. 14 cm
B. 12 cm
C. 18 cm
D. 16 cm

Answer: D

Explanation:

Remaining area of the ground after the hole was dig = [22/7 × 21 × 21] – 6 × 6

⇒ 1386 – 36

⇒ 1350 m 2

Volume of the earth taken out = 6 × 6 × 6 = 216 m3

Suppose increase in the level = h meter

∴ 1350h = 216

⇒ h = 216/1350

⇒ h = 0.16

∴ Increase in the level = 16 cm