Q.

1) The Deccan Plateau receives low rainfall because it is:

A. Situated far from any water body
B. Predominantly an arid zone with high temperatures
C. In the rain shadow of the Western Ghats
D. Lacking in vegetation which affects moisture retention

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Deccan Plateau experiences low rainfall primarily because it is located in the rain shadow
area of the Western Ghats. When the summer monsoons from the Arabian Sea hit the
Western Ghats, they are forced to rise, leading to cooling and condensation of moisture,
which results in heavy rainfall on the western coast. By the time these winds reach the
Deccan Plateau, located to the east of the Ghats, they have lost much of their moisture,
resulting in significantly less rainfall in this region.

Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances:

1. Western Disturbances are weak temperate cyclones originating from the Mediterranean Sea
that cause rainfall.

2. It is significantly beneficial for the cultivation of Rabi crops.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Western Disturbances are indeed temperate cyclones that originate from the Mediterranean region.
They move eastwards, reaching northwestern parts of the Indian subcontinent, where they cause
winter rainfall, particularly in the states of Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, and western Uttar Pradesh. This
rainfall, although generally not abundant, plays a crucial role in the successful cultivation of Rabi
crops. The moisture provided by these disturbances is vital for the growth of these winter crops,
underscoring the importance of even limited precipitation for agricultural productivity in the region.
Therefore, both statements correctly describe the nature and impact of Western Disturbances.

Q.3) The 'Loo' refers to hot, dry, and oppressing winds. These winds are characteristic of which
of which of the following regions?
A. From Punjab to Bihar
B. In the coastal areas of Tamil Nadu
C. Throughout the Thar Desert
D. Across the Himalayan foothills
 Answer: A

Explanation:

The 'Loo' is a local wind phenomenon observed in the Northern plains of India, particularly
affecting areas from Punjab to Bihar. These winds are known for their hot, dry, and oppressive
nature, typically occurring during the pre-monsoon period of the summer season. They can
significantly increase temperatures, leading to heatwaves and discomfort in the affected regions.

Q.4) 'Bardoli Chheerha' refers to evening thunderstorms known as Norwesters in which of the
following region?
A. Kerala
B. Gujarat
C. Assam
D. Rajasthan

Answer: C

Explanation:

'Bardoli Chheerha' is the local name given to Norwesters in Assam. These are evening
thunderstorms that are particularly common in Bengal and Assam, known locally in Bengal as
‘Kalbaisakhi’, indicating a calamity of the month of Baisakh. These thunderstorms are beneficial
for the cultivation of tea, jute, and rice in the region, despite their notorious nature.

Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the
southwest monsoon season:

1. Because it is situated parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon.

2. It lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the southwest monsoon.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Both statements accurately explain why the Tamil Nadu coast receives little to no rainfall during the
southwest monsoon season. Statement 1 correctly identifies the geographic orientation of the Tamil
Nadu coast, which is parallel to the Bay of Bengal branch of the southwest monsoon. This orientation
prevents the monsoon winds from bringing significant moisture to the region. Statement 2 correctly
points out that the Tamil Nadu coast lies in the rain shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch of the
southwest monsoon. The Western Ghats block the moisture-laden winds from reaching this coast,
further contributing to its dry conditions during this period. Together, these factors account for the
minimal rainfall received by the Tamil Nadu coast during the southwest monsoon season.
Q.6) Consider the following statements regarding the factors that influence the Indian
monsoons:
1. The differential heating and cooling of land and water.
2. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) playing a crucial role in the monsoon formation.
3. The presence of a high-pressure area east of Madagascar.
4. The intense heating of the Tibetan plateau not influenced.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1, 3, and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statements 1, 2, and 3 accurately describe some of the key factors that influence the formation of
Indian monsoons. The differential heating of land and water creates pressure differences that drive
the monsoon winds. The ITCZ's position influences where the monsoon rains occur, and the high-
pressure area east of Madagascar can affect the strength and direction of monsoon winds towards
India.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the intense heating of the Tibetan plateau during the summer is
actually a critical factor in the formation of the Indian monsoon. The heating results in the
development of a low-pressure area over the plateau, which draws in moist air from the Indian
Ocean, contributing to the monsoon rains in India.

Q.7) Localized thunderstorms 'Kaal Baisakhi' in which of the following Indian state?
A. Kerala
B. West Bengal
C. Punjab
D. Maharashtra

Answer: B

Explanation:

'Kaal Baisakhi' refers to the severe and sudden thunderstorms that typically occur in West Bengal
during the month of Baisakh (April-May). These storms are noted for their strong gusty winds, heavy
rainfall, and sometimes hail, marking a significant weather event in the region's pre-monsoon
season.

Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding ocean temperatures in different climatic
zones:

1. In the tropical zone, the western parts of oceans are typically warmer than their eastern
counterparts due to the effects of trade winds.

2. In the temperate zone, the influence of westerlies results in the eastern sections of oceans
being warmer than the western sections.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct because in the tropical zone, trade winds push the warm surface
waters westward, leading to higher temperatures in the western parts of the oceans
compared to the eastern parts. This phenomenon is particularly noticeable in the Pacific
Ocean, where it contributes to the development of weather patterns like El Niño and La
Niña.

 Statement 2 is correct as the westerlies, prevailing winds in the temperate zones, facilitate
the movement of warm water and air towards the eastern sections of the oceans. This action
warms the eastern shores of continents in the temperate zone more than the western
shores, influencing the climate of adjacent land areas.

Q.9) Consider the following statements:

1. Jet streams are atmospheric phenomena that occur exclusively in the Northern Hemisphere.

2. Not all cyclones develop a distinct canter known as an "eye."

3. The temperature within a cyclone's eye is significantly lower, nearly 10º C less, than its
surrounding areas.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: C

Explanation:

 Jet streams are fast flowing, narrow air currents found in the atmospheres of some planets,
including Earth. They occur in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres, not just in the
Northern Hemisphere, making Statement 1 incorrect.

 Statement 2 is correct. While many cyclones develop an eye, characterized by calm weather
and clear skies, not all cyclones have a well-defined eye. The formation of an eye is typically
associated with more mature and intense cyclonic systems.

 Regarding Statement 3, it is incorrect because the eye of a cyclone is actually warmer than its
immediate surroundings. The eye is the center of the storm, where descending air can lead
to warmer temperatures, not cooler, contrary to what the statement suggests. This makes (C)
the correct answer, as only Statement 2 accurately describes a characteristic of cyclonic
systems.
Q.10) On 21st June, which of the following statements correctly describes the position of the
sun?
A. The sun does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle.
B. The sun does not set below the horizon at the Antarctic Circle.
C. The sun shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator.
D. The sun shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn.

Answer: A

Explanation:

On the 21st of June, the Northern Hemisphere experiences the Summer Solstice, during which it is
tilted towards the sun, causing the rays of the sun to fall directly on the Tropic of Cancer. This results
in continuous daylight, known as the "Midnight Sun," in regions beyond the Arctic Circle, including
the Arctic Circle itself, where the sun does not set below the horizon. This phenomenon does not
occur at the Antarctic Circle at this time. Additionally, on this date, the sun does not shine vertically
overhead at noon on the Equator or at the Tropic of Capricorn, making options (b), (c), and (d)
incorrect.

Q.11) Western Cyclonic Disturbances in India originate from which of the following region?
A. Indian Ocean
B. Arabian Sea
C. Mediterranean Sea
D. Bay of Bengal

Answer: C

Explanation:

Western Cyclonic Disturbances in India are weather phenomena that originate over the
Mediterranean Sea. These disturbances are brought into India by the westerly jet stream, impacting
the weather patterns in the northern part of the country, especially during the winter months

Q.12) The term "monsoon trough" refers to:

A. The high-pressure zone over the Indian Ocean
B. The easterly jet stream over the southern Peninsula
C. The low-pressure zone located at the equator where trade winds converge
D. The zone of maximum rainfall during the monsoon season

Answer: C

Explanation:

The "monsoon trough," also known as the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), is a significant low-
pressure zone located at the equator where trade winds from the northern and southern
hemispheres converge. This zone is characterized by ascending air that leads to cloud formation and
precipitation. In July, the ITCZ shifts to around 20°N-25°N latitudes, over the Gangetic plain, which
significantly influences the monsoon pattern in India by bringing substantial rainfall during the
monsoon season.

Q.13) Consider the following statements about El Niño:

1. El Niño describes the unusual warming of surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific
Ocean.
 2. It represents the "warm phase" of the larger phenomenon known as the El Niño-Southern
Oscillation (ENSO).

3. La Niña occurs more frequently than El Niño.

How many of the above statements are correct regarding El Niño?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. Description of El Niño: Correct. El Niño is indeed characterized by the unusual warming of

surface waters in the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, affecting global climate and weather
patterns.

2. Warm Phase of ENSO: Correct. El Niño is the warm phase of the El Niño-Southern Oscillation
(ENSO) cycle, with La Niña representing the cool phase. This cycle is a significant driver of
climate variability globally.

3. Frequency Compared to La Niña: This statement is correct. El Niño occurs more frequently
than La Niña. Both phenomena occur at irregular intervals, typically every 2-7 years, and
their occurrence can be influenced by a variety of climatic and oceanic conditions.

Q.14) Which of the following regions are included in the distribution of Tropical Evergreen and
Semi-Evergreen Forests in India?

1. Western slope of the Western Ghats

2. Hills of the northeastern region

3. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

4. Thar Desert

5. Central India Plateau

Select the correct answer using the codes given below

A. 1, 2, and 3 only
B. 2, 3, and 4 only
C. 1, 4, and 5 only
D. 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

Tropical Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen Forests in India are characterized by heavy rainfall and high
humidity, which allow for a wide variety of flora and fauna. These forests are primarily found in:

 Western slope of the Western Ghats: Known for its rich biodiversity and heavy rainfall.
  Hills of the northeastern region: Includes states like Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and parts of
Arunachal Pradesh and Nagaland, which receive substantial rainfall and support dense
vegetation.

 Andaman and Nicobar Islands: These islands have a tropical climate, supporting lush
evergreen forests.

The Thar Desert and the Central India Plateau do not support Tropical Evergreen and Semi-
Evergreen Forests due to their comparatively arid climate and lower rainfall, making option A the
correct answer. This question tests candidates' knowledge of the geographical distribution of forest
types in India, crucial for understanding the country's biodiversity and ecological zones.

Q.15) The terms 'Urvara' and 'Usara' in ancient soil classification refer to:
A. Types of irrigation techniques
B. Different crop rotation methods
C. Fertile and sterile soils, respectively
D. Varieties of rice and wheat

Answer: C

Explanation:

In ancient times, soil was primarily classified into two categories: 'Urvara' for fertile soils and 'Usara'
for sterile or infertile soils. This classification was based on the soil's productivity and its ability to
support agricultural activities. The distinction between these two types of soil was crucial for
agricultural practices and land management in ancient civilizations, indicating the inherent fertility
and potential for cultivation.

Q.16) Consider the following statements about Alluvial Soils in India:

1. Alluvial soils cover about 40 per cent of the total area of the country.

2. These soils are depositional, transported and deposited by rivers and streams.

3. Alluvial soils are generally rich in phosphorous but poor in potash.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2, and 3
D. 1 and 3 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Statement 1 is correct. Alluvial soils cover approximately 40% of India's total land area,
making them one of the most extensive soil types in the country. These soils are
predominantly found in the river basins and the delta regions.

 Statement 2 is also correct. Alluvial soils are indeed depositional soils that have been
transported and deposited by rivers and streams across various parts of India. The process of
transportation and deposition by water bodies contributes to the fertility and texture of
these soils.
  Statement 3 is not accurate as well. Alluvial soils are known for being generally rich in
potash, which is beneficial for crop growth. However, they tend to be poor in phosphorous
content, which is an essential nutrient for plants. This characteristic necessitates the
application of phosphorous fertilizers in areas with alluvial soils to enhance crop production.

Q.17) Consider the following statements regarding alluvial soil deposits in river floodplains:

1. Khadar refers to the older alluvium deposits found on the higher areas of river floodplains,
which are rarely flooded.

2. Bhangar represents the newer alluvium that is replenished annually by river floods, enriching
the soil with fine silts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Both statements incorrectly describe Khadar and Bhangar soils. Khadar is the new alluvium
deposited by river floods annually, enriching the soil with fine silts in the lower areas of the
floodplains. In contrast, Bhangar represents the older alluvium, deposited away from the flood plains
and often found on the higher areas that are not subject to annual flooding. This makes both
statements incorrect as they have inaccurately reversed the definitions of Khadar and Bhangar.

Q.18) What causes the annual range of temperature in the interior of continents to be higher
than in coastal areas?

1. Difference in heat capacity between land and water.

2. Variation in elevation between continents and oceans.

3. Presence of strong winds in the interior.

4. More rainfall in the interior compared to the coasts.

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: A

Explanation:

 The primary reason for the higher annual range of temperature in the interior of continents
compared to coastal areas is the thermal difference between land and water. Land heats up
 and cools down more quickly than water due to differences in their heat capacities, leading
to more significant temperature variations over the year in continental interiors. This
phenomenon is known as the continental effect, which results in extreme temperature
conditions—hot summers and cold winters—far from the moderating influence of the
oceans. The other options listed, such as variation in altitude, presence of strong winds, and
heavy rains, do not directly contribute to the annual temperature range difference between
interior and coastal areas in the context of the question.

Q.19) The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of:
A. Granite rocks
B. Volcanic rocks
C. Sedimentary rocks
D. Metamorphic rocks

Answer: B

Explanation:

The parent material for most of the black soil, also known as the black cotton soil, in India is the
volcanic rocks that were formed in the Deccan Plateau, including the Deccan and the Rajmahal trap
areas. This soil type is particularly known for its high fertility and capacity to retain moisture, making
it well-suited for cotton cultivation.

Q.20) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Black soil is favourable for the cultivation of cotton.

Statement-II: The characteristic of black soil to slowly absorb and retain moisture for a long time
helps rain-fed crops, especially cotton, to sustain even during the dry season.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
B. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
C. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
D. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Statement-I is correct because black soil, also known as regur soil, is indeed highly suitable
for the cultivation of cotton. This soil type is rich in lime, iron, magnesium, and alumina,
making it fertile and conducive for cotton crops.

 Statement-II is also correct and provides the correct explanation for Statement-I. One of the
key characteristics of black soil is its ability to retain moisture for a prolonged period. This
property is especially beneficial for rain-fed crops like cotton that require a consistent
moisture supply to thrive, particularly in regions where rainfall is limited or inconsistent. The
soil's slow absorption and retention of moisture ensure that crops have access to water even
during dry spells, supporting their growth and reducing the reliance on irrigation.
Q.21) Consider the following statements about Histosols:

1. Histosols are characterized by their sandy texture.

2. They are rich in organic matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 only

B) 2 only

C) Both 1 and 2

D) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because Histosols are not formed under desert conditions nor characterized
by a sandy texture. Instead, Histosols are organic soils formed under conditions of excessive
moisture, such as peat bogs and marshes, not deserts. Statement 2 is correct, accurately describing
Histosols as soils containing a significant amount of organic material from decomposed plant and
animal tissue. This high organic content is due to the slow decomposition rate under saturated
conditions, resulting in soils that are rich in organic matter.

Q.22) The reddish colour of some soils is primarily due to:

A. High organic matter content
B. Wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks
C. Presence of algae and other microorganisms
D. High sand content

Answer: B

Explanation:

The reddish color observed in some soils is mainly attributed to the wide diffusion of iron in
crystalline and metamorphic rocks. When iron is present and exposed to the atmosphere, it oxidizes,
giving the soil a characteristic reddish hue. This soil can appear yellow when the iron is in a hydrated
form, indicating variations in soil moisture and the oxidation state of iron.

Q.23) Oxisols are characterized by a high content of which minerals?

A. Calcium and magnesium
B. Nitrogen and phosphorus
C. Iron and aluminum oxides
D. Potassium and sulfur

Answer: C

Explanation:

Oxisols, found in the hot and humid climate of the equatorial region, are distinguished by a specific
horizon that contains a significant mixture of iron and aluminum oxides. This characteristic gives
these soils their unique properties and is a defining feature of their classification.
Q.24) Which of the following regions are known for their mangrove forests in India?

1. Sundarbans in West Bengal

2. Bhitarkanika in Odisha

3. Pichavaram in Tamil Nadu

4. Rann of Kutch in Gujarat

Choose the correct answer from the options below:

A. 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2, and 3 Only
C. 1 only
D. 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer: D

Explanation: Mangrove forests in India are unique ecosystems found in the intertidal regions and
estuarine areas. The regions known for their significant mangrove forests include:

 Sundarbans in West Bengal: The largest mangrove forest in the world, known for its Royal
Bengal Tigers and rich biodiversity.

 Bhitarkanika in Odisha: Home to India's second-largest mangrove ecosystem, known for its
crocodiles and biodiversity.

 Pichavaram in Tamil Nadu: One of the world's largest mangrove forests, offering important
ecological services.

 Rann of Kutch in Gujarat: While primarily known for its salt marshes, the Rann of Kutch also
includes mangrove areas, particularly in the Kutch district's coastal regions.

Q.25) Consider the following statements regarding natural vegetation:

1. The distribution of natural vegetation is solely influenced by climatic variations.

2. Tropical evergreen forests are predominantly located on the eastern slopes of the Western
Ghats.

Select the correct answer from the following codes.

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

The distribution of natural vegetation is influenced by a variety of factors, not just climate. Soil type,
topography, and human activities also play significant roles in determining the type and distribution
of vegetation in an area. Therefore, Statement 1 is not accurate. Statement 2 is incorrect because
tropical evergreen forests are primarily found on the western slopes of the Western Ghats, as well as
in the northeastern region of India and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, benefiting from the heavy
rainfall brought by the southwest monsoon. The eastern slopes of the Western Ghats have different
vegetation types due to the rain shadow effect and lesser rainfall.

Q.26) Ebony and aini are species typically found in which type of natural vegetation?
A. Tropical Semi-Evergreen Forest
B. Tropical Evergreen Forest
C. Temperate Forest
D. Tropical Deciduous Forest

Answer: B

Explanation:

Tropical Evergreen Forests, which retain their green appearance throughout the year, are home to a
diverse array of plant species including rosewood, mahogany, aini, and ebony. These forests are
characterized by high rainfall and minimal seasonal variation, providing a lush, dense canopy. Semi-
Evergreen Forests also contain a variety of species but are distinguished by the presence of both
evergreen and deciduous trees, with species like white cedar, hollock, and kail being predominant.

Q.27) Consider the following statements regarding dry deciduous forests:

1. These forests transition to semi-evergreen forests in wetter areas and to tropical thorny
forests in drier regions.

2. They are typically found in regions receiving rainfall between 70 – 100 cm.

3. These forests are prevalent in the plains of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and the drier parts of
peninsular India.

Which of the following statements is/are true about dry deciduous forests?

A. Only 1
B. Only 1 and 2
C. Only 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Dry deciduous forests represent a significant vegetation type in India, characterized by distinct
seasonal changes, shedding leaves during the dry season to minimize water loss.

1. Transition Zones: While dry deciduous forests do transition to other forest types depending
on the moisture gradient, the specific transition to "semi-evergreen forests" might be more
accurately described as transitioning to moist deciduous forests in wetter margins. The
transition to tropical thorny forests in drier margins is correctly noted.

2. Rainfall Range: Correct. Dry deciduous forests are typically found in areas with annual
rainfall between 70 and 100 cm, which supports the growth of a variety of tree species that
can survive seasonal droughts.

3. Geographical Distribution: Correct. These forests are indeed prevalent in the plains of Uttar
Pradesh and Bihar, as well as in the drier areas of peninsular India. This distribution is
 indicative of the rainfall patterns and the adaptability of dry deciduous forests to varying
moisture conditions.

Q.28) With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.

2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.

3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

How many of the above statements are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: A

Explanation:

1. Organic Matter and Water Holding Capacity: The assertion that a high content of organic
matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity is incorrect. In reality, organic
matter significantly increases the soil's capacity to hold water. Organic matter helps improve
soil structure, which enhances its porosity and ability to retain moisture, beneficial for plant
growth.

2. Soil's Role in the Sulphur Cycle: The claim that soil does not play any role in the sulphur
cycle is also incorrect. Soil is an integral component of the sulphur cycle, acting as a reservoir
for sulphur that is utilized by plants. Sulphur is essential for many biological processes,
including the formation of proteins, and is circulated among the soil, plants, and the
atmosphere.

3. Irrigation and Soil Salinization: This statement is accurate. Continuous or excessive irrigation,
particularly with water that has high levels of salts, can lead to the accumulation of salts in
the soil, a condition known as salinization. This build-up of salts can detrimentally affect crop
health by impairing their ability to absorb water and nutrients, thus posing a significant
challenge to agricultural productivity.

Q.29) Which of the following processes is involved in the formation of Laterite soil?
A. Calcification
B. Podzolization
C. Salinization
D. Leaching

Answer: D

Explanation:

Laterite soil formation is primarily associated with the process of leaching. Leaching occurs in
conditions of high rainfall and temperature, where water percolates through the soil layers,
dissolving various minerals and organic matter and transporting them downwards. In tropical
regions, where laterite soils are commonly found, the intense rainfall facilitates this process, leading
to the characteristic profile of laterite soils. These soils are rich in iron and aluminium oxides, which
give them their distinctive red color, and are poor in organic matter due to the heavy leaching. The
term "laterite" indeed comes from 'Later', reflecting the soil's brick-like quality when dried, which is a
reference to its high iron oxide content.

Q.30) The presence of 'Kankar' layers in the lower horizons of arid soils, primarily affects the
soil's:
A. Ability to retain heat
B. Structure and texture
C. Infiltration of water
D. Acidic content

Answer: C

Explanation:

In arid soils, particularly developed in regions like western Rajasthan, 'Kankar' layers, consisting of
nodules of calcium carbonate, are found in the lower horizons. These layers form due to the
increasing calcium content as one moves downward through the soil profile. The presence of 'Kankar'
layers significantly restricts the infiltration of water. However, when irrigation is provided, these
layers can help retain soil moisture, making water readily available for sustainable plant growth,
despite the generally dry conditions of arid soils.

Q.31) Match the following mountain passes with the Indian states or Union Territories they are
located in:

Mountain Passes States/Union Territories

1. Khardung La Pass A. Himachal Pradesh

2. Rohtang Pass B. Sikkim

3. Nathu La Pass C. Ladakh

4. Chang La Pass D. Jammu and Kashmir

Choose the correct option:

A. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

B. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C

C. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D

D. 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B

Answer: A

Explanation:

 Khardung La Pass is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh (C), and it is one of the highest
motorable roads in the world.

 Rohtang Pass is situated in Himachal Pradesh (A) and serves as a gateway to the Lahaul and
Spiti Valley.
  Nathu La Pass connects the Indian state of Sikkim (B) with China's Tibet Autonomous
Region.

 Chang La Pass is also located in the Union Territory of Ladakh (C) and is one of the high
mountains passes on the route to Pangong Lake from Leh.

Q.32) Consider the following statements about Mount Etna:

1. Mount Etna is known as Europe’s Dormant volcano.

2. It is situated on the east coast of Sicily, Italy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect because Mount Etna is actually recognized as Europe's most active volcano,
known for its frequent eruptions and significant volcanic activity. Statement 2 is correct, as Mount
Etna is indeed located on the east coast of Sicily, Italy, dominating the landscape with its impressive
structure and activity. It is one of the world's most closely monitored volcanoes due to its active state
and the populated areas surrounding it.

Q.33) Which of the following ministries is implementing the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing
of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME India) Scheme?
A. Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
B. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
C. Ministry of Heavy Industries
D. Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Answer: C

Explanation:

The Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles in India (FAME India) Scheme
Phase-II is a flagship initiative being implemented by the Ministry of Heavy Industries. It aims to
encourage the adoption of electric and hybrid vehicles in the country. Commencing from 1st April
2019, this scheme is set for a duration of five years and has been allocated a total budgetary support
of Rs. 10,000 crore to promote the use of environmentally friendly vehicles and reduce dependency
on fossil fuels.

Q.34) Regarding the Free Trade Agreement (FTA), consider the following statements:

1. Countries part of an FTA maintain their own tariff schedules for countries not included in the
agreement.

2. FTAs operate on a positive list approach where duties are reduced only on listed products.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) allow participating countries to set lower or no tariffs on imports and
exports between each other while maintaining their own external tariff schedules for countries that
are not part of the agreement. This makes Statement 1 correct, as it accurately describes how FTAs
function regarding tariffs for non-member countries.

Statement 2 is not universally correct for all FTAs. While some FTAs may use a positive list approach,
specifying products for which tariffs will be reduced or eliminated, others may adopt a negative list
approach, where all products are included unless explicitly listed otherwise. Additionally, modern
FTAs often cover a wide range of trade issues beyond just tariffs on goods, including services,
investment, intellectual property rights, and more. Therefore, the characterization of FTAs operating
solely on a positive list basis for duty reduction is not accurate for all agreements, making Statement
2 incorrect in a general context.

Q.35) Which of the following are included in a country's foreign exchange reserves?

1. Foreign currency assets

2. Gold

3. Domestic currency holdings

4. Special Drawing Rights (SDR)

5. Reserve tranche position with the IMF

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
B. 1, 3, and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Answer: C

Explanation: Foreign exchange reserves are assets held on reserve by a central bank in foreign
currencies, which can include:

 Foreign currency assets: Holdings by a central bank in currencies other than the domestic
currency.

 Gold: A significant portion of many countries' reserves due to its value and acceptance
worldwide.

 Special Drawing Rights (SDR): An international type of monetary reserve currency created by
the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that operates as a supplement to the existing
reserves of member countries.
  Reserve tranche position with the IMF: A portion of the required quota of currency each
member country must provide to the IMF, which can be readily accessed by the country if
needed.

Domestic currency holdings are not considered part of a country's foreign exchange reserves, as
these reserves are held in assets outside the country's currency to ensure liquidity in the global
market. Therefore, the correct answer is option A. This question tests candidates' understanding of
economic terms and concepts related to international finance and monetary policy.

Q.36) Consider the following reasons for the decline in foreign exchange reserves:

1. Outflows of Foreign Portfolio Investments (FPI).

2. The rupee appreciation.

3. Valuation loss occurred.

How many of the above reasons are correct regarding the decline in foreign exchange reserves?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All three
D. None

Answer: B

Explanation:

1. FPI Outflows: Correct. The outflow of Foreign Portfolio Investments was a significant factor,
influenced by global economic conditions such as inflation following the Russia-Ukraine
conflict and monetary policy adjustments like interest rate hikes by the US Federal Reserve.

2. Rupee Depreciation: Incorrect. The Indian rupee's depreciation against the US dollar, by
about 10% in 2022, did indeed make it the worst-performing Asian currency for that period.
This depreciation prompted the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to intervene in the foreign
exchange market to stabilize the rupee, impacting the forex reserves.

3. Valuation Loss: Correct. Foreign exchange reserves are indeed maintained in a portfolio of
major currencies and valued in US dollars. Thus, when the US dollar strengthens against
these currencies, the valuation of reserves in dollar terms experiences a notional decrease,
contributing to a decline in the overall reserves position.

Q.37) Which of the following initiatives is an international initiative focused on the research and
development of millets and other agricultural products?
A. GREENPATH
B. HARVEST
C. MAHARISHI
D. SEEDNET

Answer: C

Explanation:

The MAHARISHI initiative, which stands for Millets And otHer Ancient Grains International Research
Initiative, is an international effort aimed at enhancing the research, development, and promotion of
millets and other ancient agricultural products. It focuses on leveraging the nutritional and
environmental benefits of these grains to address food security, health, and sustainability challenges
globally.

Q.38) The SATHI portal is related to which of the following?

A. Environmental monitoring
B. Seed production and certification
C. Renewable energy tracking
D. Wildlife conservation

Answer: B

Explanation:

The SATHI portal is designed to address the challenges associated with seed production, quality seed
identification, and seed certification. It serves as a comprehensive platform for ensuring the
traceability and authenticity of seeds, facilitating better management and oversight of the seed
supply chain to promote agricultural productivity and sustainability.

Q.39) The 'PRAVAAH' portal, is related to which of the following?

A. Environmental regulation
B. Educational admissions
C. Banking and financial regulation
D. Healthcare management

Answer: C

Explanation:

The 'PRAVAAH' A Platform for Regulatory Application, Validation, and Authorization. portal is
designed to serve as a centralized platform for managing all types of applications submitted to the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI), covering various functions. This initiative aims to streamline and secure
the application processes within the realm of banking and financial regulation, enhancing efficiency
and transparency in interactions with the country's central bank.

Q.40) Regarding the Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro & Small Enterprises (CGTMSE) Scheme,
consider the following statements:

1. The credit guarantee limit under the CGTMSE Scheme has been increased to loans up to Rs 5
crore without the need for collateral or third-party guarantees.

2. For loans up to Rs 10 lakh covered under the CGTMSE Scheme, there is no requirement to
initiate legal proceedings for the settlement of claims.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:
The CGTMSE Scheme has indeed enhanced its ceiling for guarantees from Rs 2 crore to Rs 5 crore,
allowing for a broader range of businesses to receive credit guarantees without the need for
collateral or third-party guarantees, making Statement 1 correct. Additionally, the scheme has
simplified the process for small loans, specifically those up to Rs 10 lakh, by eliminating the
requirement for legal proceedings to settle claims, making Statement 2 also correct. These updates
aim to ease access to credit for micro and small enterprises, supporting their growth and operational
needs.

Q.41) Present ages of Anjali and Yuvan are in the ratio of 3:4 respectively. Four years hence their
ages become 4 :5 respectively. What is the present age of Yuvan ?
A. 12 years
B. 14 years
C. 16 years
D. 18 years

Answer: C

Q.42) Present ages of Raju and Bhargav are in the ratio of 8: 11 respectively. After 3 years, the
ratio of their ages that time will be 3: 4 respectively. What was Raju’s age one year ago?
A. 19 years
B. 21 years
C. 23 years
D. 24 years

Answer: C
Q.43) Five years back Ram was four times older than Bharat. After Five years, Ram will be two
times older than Bharat. Find their ages
A. 35, 20
B. 25, 10
C. 40, 20
D. 18, 30

Answer: B
Q.44) At present Bhiman is two times Solomon’s age. After ten years Bhiman’s will be 1.5 times
Solomon’s age then what is the age of Bhiman after another ten years?
A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 40 years
D. 50 years

Answer: C
Q.45) P is as much younger than Q as he is older than R. If the sum of Q’s age and R’ age is 60
years. Find the age of P?
A. 20 years
B. 30 years
C. 40 years
D. 50 years

Answer: B
Q.46) Sakshi and Viplav got married 25 years ago. Sakshi is 5 years younger than Neeraj. When
they got married the difference between 3 times of the Meetali's age and 2.5 times of the
Neeraj's age was 3 years. Find the present age of Sakshi and Viplav.
A. 63, 68
B. 56, 61
C. 53, 58
D. 38, 43

Answer: B

Q.47) Maya is 6 years older than Rama. After four years, ratio of the age of Rama and that of her
father will be 1 : 3. Present age of Rama’s father is 38 years and Shiva is 4 years older than
Maya. Find the respective ratio of the present ages of Rama and Shiva
A. 1: 3
B. 2 : 5
C. 1 : 2
D. 2 : 1

Answer: C
Q.48) The age of Arnab is (x + 6) years. The ratio of the age of Arnab 2 years hence to the age of
Dharani 1 year before is 4 : 3 respectively. If Arnab is 5 years older than Dharani, then find the
age of Surabhi whose age is 2.5 years less than the average age of Arnab and Dharani taken
together.
A. 20 years
B. 23 years
C. 25 years
D. 29 years

Answer: C
Q.49) Eight years later from now P will be as old as B was 5 years ago. R was born 3 years ago.
The average age of P, Q and R, 11 years later will be 31 yrs. What is the present age of P?
A. 20 years
B. 22 years
C. 24 years
D. 25 years

Answer: B
Q.50) Prabhu’s age 6 years ago is equal to the sum of the present ages of his son and his
daughter. 4 years hence, the ratio between his daughter’s age and his son’s age will be 8 : 7
respectively. Prabhu’s wife is 8 years elder than him. His wife’s present age is thrice the present
age of his son. What is his daughter’s present age?
A. 16 years
B. 20 years
C. 24 years
D. 28 years

Answer: B