Bank Exams Giveaway PDF - 1400 Questions: Part 2 - 1340

IBPS PO Previous Year Questions Papers With Solutions -2022
Directions (1-9): Read the following passage include multiple facets such as farm tourism,
carefully and answer the questions given below cultural tourism, nature tourism, adventure
it. Certain words have been given in bold to help tourism, and eco-tourism. The country has seen
you locate them, while answering some of the successful rural tourism models in states such as
questions. Kerala’s backwater, Karnataka’s forest, and Tamil
Nadu’s temple.
A tourist's paradise, India is a magnum of diverse
geography and cultures, offering 30 World Heritage Q1. What is the importance of tourism for the
sites, 25 biogeographical zones and attractive growth of the Indian economy?
beaches. Tourism in India accounts for 6.8% of the (a) Tourism is crucial for the enhancement of
GDP, and is the third largest foreign exchange India’s goodwill internationally
earner for the country with USD 18.13 Billion. (b) The contribution of travel and tourism to GDP in
Neglecting the promotion of tourism is harmful to India is six and eight tenth percent
the Indian economy. In recent years, there has been (c) Government earns a major part of its revenue
an increased realization that the tourism growth from taxes on the tourism sector
potential can be harnessed as a strategy for Rural (d) Tourism is the third largest source of foreign
Development. With 69% population living in rural exchange earnings in India
India, and almost 6.5 million village units spread (e) Both (b) and (d)
across the country, India plays a vital role in
harnessing rural tourism. The geographical Q2. Which of the following fall(s) under the
diversity of India makes it a unique spot for definition of rural tourism set by the Ministry of
Tourism?
harnessing rural tourism which can include tourist
(a)Tourism should have social and economic
sites like desert, mountains, plains, plateaus,
advantages for the local community.
islands and coasts in different regions. India
(b)Tourism should exhibit heritage in villages, rural
showcases a variety of cultural patterns having
life, art, and culture.
different lifestyles, practices, art and craft, and
(c) Tourism should promote interaction between
festivals. These can be incorporated and
tourists and the natives.
_____________in the form of rural tourism.
(d)All of these
Factors such as increasing level of awareness, (e)Only (a) and (c)
growing interest in heritage and culture, and
improved accessibility have fueled a move of trends Q3. In what ways rural areas get benefitted from
towards rural tourism. This will not only preserve tourism?
the culture and heritage of the country, but will also (a)Tourism gives rise to various employment and
generate employment in the villages since it can be conserves culture and heritage.
leveraged to provide skill development in tourism (b)Rural areas experience drastic transformation to
related job roles such as that of guide, driver, cook, become attractive enough for travelers
housekeeping and hospitality to the tourists. (c)Local cuisines can get promoted through
Ministry of Tourism specifies that any form of tourism, which in long run helps them in getting GI
tourism that showcases the rural life, art, culture tag.
and heritage at rural locations, benefits the local (d)Rural people get opportunity to take their
community economically and socially, and enables culture to national and international level
interaction between the tourists and the locals can (e)Both (a) and (b)
be termed as rural tourism. Rural tourism may
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Q4. What make(s) rural areas attractive tourist Q9. Which of the following words is a synonym of
destinations? HARMFUL given in the passage?
(a)The heterogeneity of culture of Indian rural (a)detrimental
areas attracts tourists (b)ameliorate
(b)Green environment along with pollution-free (c)fugitive
fresh air tempts tourists (d)consorted
(c)Diversity in physical features of rural areas of (e)None of these
India is a ground for tourism
Directions (10-14): In the following questions,
(d)Hospitality of the rural population provokes
six sentences are given. You have to rearrange
tourism in Indian villages
these sentences to make a contextually
(e)Both (a) and (c)
meaningful paragraph. After rearranging the
given sentences, answer the questions given
Q5. Which of the following statements is Incorrect below.
as per the information given in the passage? (A) Challenging Victorian dogma, Darwin argued
(a)Adventure tourism is one of the several facets of that species were not immutable i.e., each one
tourism in India. specially created by God.
(b)Karnataka’s backwater has been a successful (B) That is all he wrote about the dawning of the
rural tourism model in India. single most consequential species on the planet.
(c)India has 30 world heritage sites and 25 (C) In 1859, Charles Darwin published the most
biogeographical zones. important scientific book that is ever written ‘On
(d)India’s sixty-nine percent population resides in the Origin of Species’.
rural areas (D) Rather life on Earth had evolved through
(e)All are correct descent from a common ancestor with modification
by means of natural selection.
Q6. Which of the following words is a synonym of (E) It revolutionized society’s understanding of the
MOVE given in the passage? natural world.
(a)convey (F) But, surprisingly on Homo sapiens, Darwin
(b)crawl made only a passing mention, that “light will be
(c)shift thrown on the origin of man and his history”.
(d)mutter
(e)None of these Q10. Which of the following will be the third
statement after rearrangement?
Q7. Which of the following words is the most (a)C
(b)B
suitable for the given blank in the passage?
(c)D
(a) amplified
(d)F
(b) leveraged
(e)A
(c) fortified
(d) invoked
(e)None of these
Q8. Which of the following words is an antonym of
VITAL given in the passage?
(a)retreat
(b)timid
(c)precise
(d)trivial
(e)None of these

Q11. Which of the following will be the fifth (d) Since the overthrow of the dictator Ferdinand
statement after rearrangement? Marcos, in 1986, the Philippines has been a
(a)C democracy, if an often dysfunctional one.
(b)B (e) All are correct
(c)D
(d)F Q16. (a) Official days and months to recognize this
(e)A or that group can seem gratuitous and ultimately
meaningless while we as a society choose to take
Q12. Which of the following will be the first them seriously.
statement after rearrangement? (b) We argue rashly and adventurously, by reason
(a)C that, as well as ourselves, our discourses have great
(b)B participation in the temerity of chance.
(c)D (c) Help is desperately needed to support wildlife
(d)F rangers, local communities, and law enforcement
personnel to have prevented wildlife crime.
(e)A
(d) Responding to the pandemic has lead to the
creation of the most intrusive and stringent laws of
Q13. Which of the following will be the second
modern times, affecting every aspect of our lives.
statement after rearrangement?
(e) All are correct
(a)C
(b)B
Q17. (a) Critics have long argued that the
(c)E expansion of the fair-trade movement across the
(d)D European countries have come with significant
(e)A costs.
(b) Events in the early 1990s mark the end of
Q14. Which of the following will be the only legislated apartheid, but the social and economic
coherent rearrangement of the given sentences? effects remained deeply entrenched.
(a)CDEABF (c) Long, floating bridges are extremely sensitive to
(b)FDCBAE stormy weather and high winds, which can cause
(c)ECDBAF them to destabilise.
(d)CEADFB (d) Like all functional role concept, truth must be
(e)BDCBFE realized, and it may be realized in different ways in
different settings.
Directions (15-19): In the following questions, (e) All are correct
few sentences are given. Choose and mark the
sentence which does not contain any Q18. (a) In terms of social cachet and temporal
grammatical or contextual error in it. If all the precedence, bicyclists are believed to be worse off
sentences are grammatically and contextually than everyone else.
correct, mark the “all are correct” option as the (b) Funnelling investments through banks that toed
answer choice. the government line allowed political
Q15. (a) An appreciation of beauty can and should considerations to take precedence over risk
involve consideration of virtue and the assessment.
improvement of morality character. (c) Last year, the government issued every taxpayer
(b) Greek scholars and poets were held discussions a $1200 refund in hopes of restoring equilibrium to
in the walled recesses of exedrae, which were often a depressed economy.
used for rest and contemplation. (d) The variety of New York’s geography provides
(c) High glucose levels disrupt the body’s not only great beauty but also opportunities for
inflammatory system, leading for a host of recreation.
complications, and a number of diseases. (e) All are correct

Q19. (a) In Descartes’ system, it would appear that Q21. The allure (A)of the fresh (B)herbs caused
laws of physics are necessary or that eternal truths the chef to intended (C)more money than he
are necessary as well. spend (D)at the market.
(b) Travellers often complain that it isn’t fair to be (a)BACD
charged more for a hotel room during the summer (b)DCAB
from in the winter. (c)ABDC
(d)CDAB
(c) Email exchanges can often escalate or fizzle out,
(e)No rearrangement needed
whereas face-to-face meetings often cut by some of
the adversarial email responses sometimes
Q22. There is a horizon (A)of outskirt
generated by differences in culture and approach.
(B)buildings on the industrial (C)of our small
(d) In an ideal society, a free people will be town, but we tend to ignore them since they ruin
governed by a law that is not arbitrary, but rather the cluster (D).
corresponds to what is fit, and is able to be (a) DCBA
apprehended by reason. (b) DCAB
(e) All are correct (c) ABDC
(d) CDAB
Directions (20-22): In each question, four (e) No rearrangement needed
words have been highlighted, which may or may
not be in their correct positions. Choose the Directions (23-25): In each question, four
rearrangement order of these highlighted words have been highlighted, which may or may
words from the given options so that it gives a not be in their correct positions. Choose the
interchange needed between them to make a
coherent sentence.
grammatically correct and meaningful
sentence.
Q20. Replacing the office’s technology (A)
computer outdated (B) with new system (C)would
Q23. My art project (A)required me to assemble
allow (D)the workers to get a lot more done. (B)a clippings (C)of magazine collection (D).
(a) ACDB (a)Only (A)-(B)
(b) BCAD (b)Only (C)-(D)
(c) DBCA (c)Both (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
(d) CADB (d)Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
(e) No rearrangement needed (e)No replacement needed
Q24. You will never be able to find a better (A)

company than a dog, as a dog will always loyal (B)
by you and be stand (C)to you if you treat (D)him
right.
(a) Only (A)-(C)
(b) Only (B)-(C)
(c) Both (A)-(B) and (C)-(D)
(d) Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
(e) No replacement needed

Q25. The playground was jumped (A)with Q29. She felt an overwhelming desire to return
equipment (B)as fifty students filled (C)and back home.
climbed all over the mayhem (D) (a) desire of returning back
(a) Only (A)-(C) (b) desires to return
(b) Only (B)-(C) (c) desire to returned back
(c) Both (A)-(C) and (B)-(D) (d) desire to return
(d) Both (A)-(D) and (B)-(C) (e) No replacement required
(e) No replacement needed
Q30. No sooner had I closed my eyes than I fell
Directions (26-27): Each question below has
asleep.
one blank, which is indicating that something
(a) No soon had I
has been omitted. Find out which option can be
(b) No soon I had
used to fill up the blank in the sentence to make
(c) I had no sooner
it grammatically as well as contextually correct.
(d) No sooner I have
Q26. The losing team made a ______________ but futile (e) No replacement required
effort to catch up to their opponent.
(a) illustrious Direction (31 – 35): In each of these questions, two
(b) valiant equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve
(c) refrained both the equations and give answers.
(d) reached
(e) redundant Q31. I. 𝑥 2 − 15𝑥 + 56 = 0
II. 𝑦 2 − 8𝑦 + 15 = 0
Q27. My grandmother has extremely _________ (a) 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
health so she sees her doctor once a week. (b) 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
(a) cripple (c) 𝑥 > 𝑦
(b) reliant (d) 𝑥 < 𝑦
(c) splendid (e) 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛.
(d) fragile
(e) elevated
Q32. I. 𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 + 35 = 0
II. 𝑦 2 + 7𝑦 + 10 = 0
Directions (28-30): In the following question,
(a) 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
sentences are given with a part in bold. The
(b) 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
given phrase in the bold may or may not contain
an error. The options following can replace the (c) 𝑥 > 𝑦
incorrect phrase. The correct phrase that is to (d) 𝑥 < 𝑦
be replaced will be your answer. If the (e) 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛.
sentences are correct then select option (e) i.e.
‘No replacement required’ as your answer. Q33. I. x² – 3x – 40 = 0
II. y² + 11y + 30 = 0
Q28. If I will study, I would have passed the exam.
(a) 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
(a) I had studied
(b) 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦
(b) had I studied
(c) I have studied (c) 𝑥 > 𝑦
(d) Have I studied (d) 𝑥 < 𝑦
(e) No replacement required (e) 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛.

Q34. I. 2x² + 14x - 16 = 0 Q38. If in only category A, 30% are boys. Find the
II. y² – y – 12 = 0 total number of girls in only category A?
(a) 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦 (a) 56
(b) 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦 (b) 70
(c) 𝑥 > 𝑦 (c) 49
(d) 𝑥 < 𝑦 (d) 72
(e) 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛. (e) 80
Q35. I. 2x² – x – 3 = 0 Q39. Find the total number of students are in at

II. 2y² – 6y + 4 = 0 most two categories?
(a) 𝑥 = 𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝑛𝑜 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛. (a) 755
(b) 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦 (b) 765
(c) 𝑥 > 𝑦 (c) 715
(d) 𝑥 < 𝑦 (d) 775
(e) 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦 (e) 735
Direction (36 – 40): Read the given data carefully Q40. Find the total number of students are in only
one category?
and answer the questions.
(a) 300
There are 900 students in a college and they are
(b) 500
either from one or more categories i.e. A, B and C
(c) 400
games. The ratio of total students in only A, only B
(d) 600
and only C is 2 : 3 : 5 respectively. Total students in
(e) 800
all three categories are 50% of total students in only
C. The sum of total students who are in only B & C
Direction (41-45): What will come in the place of
but not A and total students who are in only A & C
question (?) mark in following number series:
but not B is 155. Total number of students who are Q41. 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
in A & B but not C are 30 less than total number of (a) 46
students who are in only B. (b) 42
(c) 44
Q36. Find the difference between total students in (d) 48
all three categories and the number of students in (e) 52
category A.
(a) 40 Q42. 24, 49, ?, 219, 388, 677
(b) can’t determined (a) 98
(c) 50 (b) 108
(d) 55 (c) 88
(e) 32 (d) 96
(e) 78
Q37. Find the ratio of total students in category B to
that of in category C? Q43. 48, 55, 76, ?, 160, 223
(a) can’t determined (a) 122
(b) 2 : 3 (b) 101
(c) 3 : 5 (c) 111
(d) 2 : 7 (d) 119
(e) 3 : 4 (e) 114

Q44. 15, 16.5, 19.5, 24, ?, 37.5 Q49. The sum of cost price of two articles A and B
(a) 40 is Rs. 350. Both articles marked up 60% above cost
(b) 30 price. If marked price of article B is Rs. 80 more than
(c) 32 that of A, then find the cost price (in Rs.) of article
(d) 33 A?
(e) 36 (a) 165
(b) 135
Q45. 2, 6, 30, 210, ?, 20790 (c) 155
(a) 1890 (d) 195
(b) 1860 (e) 145
(c) 1990
(d) 1830 Q50. Perimeter of a rectangle is 108 cm and length
(e) 1960 of rectangle is 40 cm. Find how many semicircles of
maximum radius can be drawn inside the
Q46. Present age of A is 12 years more than C, while rectangle?
C is three years younger than B. The ratio of present (a) 12
age of A to that of B is 6 : 5. Find the sum of age (in (b) 13
years) of B and C ten years hence will be? (c) 14
(d) Can’t determined
(a) 117
(e) 17
(b) 103
(c) 107
Q51. The ratio of upstream to downstream speed of
(d) 111
a boat is 3 : 5 and the approximate time to cover 60
(e) 105
km 3 meters downstream and 60 km 2 meters
upstream is 16 hours 10 minutes. Find time
Q47. A and B invested Rs. X & Rs. (X +900) (approx.) taken by boat to cover 37 km in
respectively in a business. After eight months, B left upstream?
the business. At the end of a year, the total profit is (a) 4 hours
Rs. 5800 and profit share of B is Rs. 1000 more than (b) 8 hours
that of A. Find X (in Rs.). (c) 6 hours
(a) 1000 (d) 12 hours
(b) 1600 (e) 10 hours
(c) 600
(d) 1200 Q52. The station B lies between station A and C. The
(e) 800 distance between A & B is 400 km and the distance
between B & C is 375 km. Time taken by a train to
Q48. In a vessel water is 25% of the milk. When 10 cover distance between A & B and distance between
liters of mixture was taken out from the vessel and B & C is same. If speed of the train to cover distance
25 liters’ milk was added in the vessel, then between A & B is 40 km/hr. then find the difference
quantity of milk become 400% more than the between the average speed of the train and the
quantity of water in resulting mixture. Find the speed of train by which it covers distance between
initial quantity (in liters) of milk in the vessel. B & C?
(a) 116 (a) 1.75
(b) 108 (b) 1.25
(c) 102 (c) 1.15
(d) 112 (d) 1.35
(e) 114 (e) 2.25

Q53. Efficiency of Ritu is 60% more than Rakesh Q56. If Apurv paid income tax and GST in 2019 in
and difference between the number of days taken the ratio of 7 : 3 respectively, then find the sum of
by them to complete a work in 18 days. If efficiency income tax paid by Apurv in 2019 and total tax (in
of Rahul is 12.5% less than Ritu, then find the time Rs.) paid by Tarun in 2018 (Apurv pain only income
taken by all the three to together to complete the tax and GST)?
work. (a) 72000
(a) 10 days (b) 56000
(b) 12 days (c) 66000
(c) 9.5 days (d) 64000
(d) 7 days
(e) 60000
(e) 5.5 days
Q57. Total taxed paid by Tarun in both years is what
Q54. A man invested Rs. X and Rs. 2X at 15% simple
interest and at 8% compound interest percent (approx.) more or less than total taxed paid
(compounding annually) for two years respectively. by Mayank in both years?
If difference between simple interest and (a) 35%
compound interest received after two years is (b) 33%
Rs.820, then find the value of X. (c) 25%
(a) Rs.25000 (d) 27%
(b) Rs.30600 (e) 29%
(c) Rs.28600
(d) Rs.22200 Q58. Find the difference between total tax paid by
(e) Rs.26200 Apurv in both years and total tax paid by Mayank
and Tarun in 2019?
Q55. A annually saves 15% and 20% of his income (a) 35000 Rs.
in 2017 and 2018 respectively. If A annually saves (b) 20000 Rs.
Rs. 45000 in 2017, then find the amount saved by A (c) 50000 Rs.
in 2018. (d) 40000 Rs.
(a) 40000 Rs. (e) 30000 Rs.
(b) 36000 Rs.
(c) 60000 Rs.
Q59. Find the ratio of total tax paid by Tarun and
(d) Can’t determine
Mayank in 2018 to total tax paid by Apurv in 2018?
(e) 48000 Rs.
(a) 6 : 7
Direction (56 – 60): The bar graph given below (b) 5 : 4
shows the amount (in’000) of tax paid by three (c) 6 : 5
different people. Read the data carefully and (d) 3 : 4
answer the questions. (e) 5 : 8
60
50
40
30
20
10
0
Tarun Apurv Mayank
2018 2019

1
Q60. Mayank paid 4 𝑡ℎ of his income as tax in 2018 Q63. If the invalid votes in block B in 2012 were
and his income increased by 25% in 2020 over the again allowed for a recast and only 25% were valid
2018, while the ratio of tax paid by Mayank in 2018 from them, then find the total number of valid votes
1
to that of in 2020 is 9 : 10. If Mayank spends 6 𝑡ℎ and in block B in 2012 after recasting.
25% of his remaining income on rent in 2018 & (a) 1405
2020 respectively, while remaining he saved. Find (b) 1260
the difference between saving of Mayank in both (c) 1075
years? (d) 1190
(a) 7500 Rs. (e) 1050
(b) 15000 Rs.
(c) 12500 Rs. Q64. Find the difference between average number
(d) 17500 Rs.
of invalid votes of both blocks in 2012 and average
(e) 10000 Rs.
number of invalid of both blocks votes in 2015.
Directions (61-65): Read the following table (a) 135
carefully and answer the questions given (b) 106
below. Table given below shows the total number of (c) 115
registered votes in two (A & B) blocks and total (d) 129
number of valid votes these in two blocks in two (e) 125
(2012 & 2015) different years.
Note: Number of votes registered in any year = Q65. Find the ratio of total valid votes of block A in
Number of valid votes + Number of invalid votes
2012 to total votes registered of block B in 2015.
casted.
(a) 1 :11
Registered Registered (b) 2:13
Valid votes Valid votes
Years votes in votes in
in block A in block B (c) 10: 17
block A block B
2012 750 1200 200 1000 (d) 12 : 11
2015 900 1300 720 1000 (e) 9:7
Q61. Out of the total invalid votes of block A in

Direction (66-70): Study the following
2012, the ratio of male votes to female votes was 6:5
respectively. Find the difference between the total information carefully and answer the questions
female invalid votes of block A in 2012 and the total given below:
invalid votes in block B 2015. Five persons are living on different floors of five
(a) 25 storey building. Ground floor is numbered as 1 st
(b) 45 floor and just above the 1st floor is numbered as 2nd
(c) 60 floor and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as
(d) 50 5th floor. Each of them uses different raw materials
(e) 40
in their cloths.
Q62. Total invalid votes of block A and B together in G lives three floors above the one who uses Fibres.
2015 is how much percent more or less than the No one lives between H and the one who uses
total valid votes in both the blocks in 2012? Fibres. D lives above H but not just above. F lives just
(a) 60% above the one who uses leather. F lives on an odd
(b) 40% numbered floor. The one who uses cotton lives
(c) 25% above E. The one who uses wool lives above the
(d) 75% floor of the one who uses Silk but not just above.
(e) 20%

Q66. How many persons live between G and the one Q71. Statements: Some Hero are Film. Some Film
who uses Wool? are Star. All Star are Actor.
(a) None Conclusions: I. Some Actor are Film.
(b) Three II. Some Hero are not Star.
(c) Two (a) If only conclusion I follows.
(d) One (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(e) Can’t be determined (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Q67. Who lives on the bottom most floor? (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
(a) D
(b) F Q72. Statements: Some A are B. All C are D. No B
(c) None of these is C.
(d) E Conclusions: I. Some D are not B.
(e) H II. Some D are B.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
Q68. Which of the following is correct match?
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(a) G-silk
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(b) F-cotton
(c) E-fibres
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
(d) D-leather
(e) H-wool
Q73. Statements: All Book are Pen. Some Pen are
Q69. How many persons live above H? Eraser. All Eraser are Pencil.
(a) Two Conclusions: I. Some Book are Pencil.
(b) Four II. No Pencil is Book.
(c) One (a) If only conclusion I follows.
(d) Three (b) If only conclusion II follows.
(e) Can’t be determined (c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
Q70. The number of persons live above E is same as (e) If both conclusions I and II follow.
the number of persons live below ____.
(a) F Direction (74-78): Study the following
(b) D information carefully and answer the questions
(c) The one who uses cotton given below.
(d) The one who uses silk Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit in a row but
(e) Both F and the one who uses cotton not necessarily in the same order. Four of them
faces north direction and rest of them faces south
Directions (71-73): In each question below some direction. At most two persons sit to the right of A
statements are given followed by two conclusions who doesn’t face north direction. Three persons sits
numbered I and II. You have to take the given between A and B who is the only immediate
statements to be true even if they seem to be at neighbour of C. Three persons sit between E and G
variance with commonly known facts. Read all the and none of them sit adjacent to A. H sits 2 nd to the
conclusions and then decide which of the given right of C. D and G sits immediate right of each other.
conclusions logically follows from the given Immediate neighbours of A face same direction.
statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Number of persons sit to the right of H is two more
Give answer- than the number of persons sit to the left of E.

Q74. How many persons sit between A and H? Q79. How is F related to T?
(a) None (a) Mother
(b) Two (b) Aunt
(c) Three (c) Daughter-in-law
(d) Four
(d) Grandmother
(e) One
(e) None of the above
Q75. What is the position of F with respect to D?
(a) Immediate left Q80. Who is the mother-in-law of D?
(b) 2nd to the right (a) A
(c) 3rd to the left (b) F
(d) 2nd to the left (c) T
(e) Can’t be determined
(d) X
Q76. Who among the following sit 3rd to the left of (e) None of the above
G?
(a) C Q81. How is H related to T?
(b) F (a) Maternal Aunt
(c) B (b) Paternal Aunt
(d) A (c) Sister-in-law
(e) None of these
(d) Niece
Q77. Which of the following pair is adjacent to each (e) None of the above
other?
(a) G, B Direction (82-85): Study the following
(b) F, G information carefully and answer the questions
(c) F, A given below:
(d) H, D
Nine persons are going to attend an event one after
(e) None of these
another. At most two persons attend event before G.
Q78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain Three persons attend event between C and G. Two
way and thus forms a group, then who among the persons attend event between C and B. One person
following doesn’t belong to that group? attends event between B and K who attends event
(a) F after B. F attend event just before L. There are as
(b) C many persons attend event before L as after H. E
(c) E
attend event exactly between B and K. D attend
(d) D
(e) H event before E.
Direction (79-81): Study the following

information carefully and answer the related
questions.
There are nine members i.e., H, R, D, W, K, T, F, X and
A live in a family. F is mother of R who is the only
son of X. H is sister-in-law of A who is mother of
both K and T. H is married to D who is parent of W.
K is only grandson of X. Neither W nor X has any
sibling. W is the niece of R.

Q82. How many persons attend event after K? he takes his left and walks 15m to reach at point M.
(a) Four B start walking in east direction from point M and
(b) Three walks 45m to reach at point E. He takes his right
(c) Five turn and walks 22m to reach at point G. Now he
(d) Six takes his left and walks 10m to reach at point F.
(e) More than six Finally, B walks 10m right from point F to reach at
point N.
Q83. The number of persons attend event between
G and F is same as the number of persons attend Q87. What is the difference between distance
event between _____ and _____. covered by A and B?
(a) L, B (a) 15m
(b) H, D
(b) 20m
(c) E, L
(d) C, B (c) 10m
(e) H, G (d) 25m
(e) 30m
Q84. How many persons attend event between D
and the one who attend just before K? Q88. In which direction is point F with respect to
(a) Three
point L?
(b) Four
(c) Five (a) North-east
(d) One (b) East
(e) None of these (c) North
(d) South-west
Q85. The number of persons attend event between (e) None of these
K and G is half than the number of persons attend
event after ____.
(a) B Q89. If point X is 7m south of point D then what is
(b) E the shortest distance between point X and point N?
(c) H (a) 112m
(d) L (b) 118m
(e) F (c) 106m
(d) 107m
Q86. Find the odd one out?
(a) VYT (e) 110m
(b) DGB
(c) MPK Q90. In the word ‘CHAIRMAN’, how many pairs of the
(d) HKG letters have the same number of letters between them
(e) TWR
(both forward and backward direction) in the word as
Direction (87-89): Study the following in the alphabet?
information carefully and answer the questions (a) Four
given below: (b) Two
A starts from point D in east direction and walks (c) One
22m to reach point L. He takes his left turn and (d) Three
walks 10m and reach at point K. Now he takes his
(e) More than four
right and walks 30m to reach at point H. After that
Direction (91-95): Study the given information Q95. Who among the following face M?
carefully and answer the related questions. (a) The one who have 51 flowers
Six persons sit around a circular table facing (b) A
towards the centre. All of them have different (c) H
number of flowers viz. 29, 14, 36, 43, 51 and 47. One (d) The one who have 47 flowers
person sits between M and R who have 14 flowers. (e) None of these
Two persons sit between the one who have 29
Q96. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by
flowers and M. S sits immediate left of A who
using the 2nd, 5th, 6th and 7th letter from the left end
doesn’t sit adjacent to the one who have 29 flowers.
of the word ‘HOPEFUL’, then which of the following
A doesn’t have 29 flowers. S have more flowers than
M and difference between the number of flowers of will be the 2nd letter of the meaningful word thus
both of them is 15. O neither have 29 flowers nor 43 formed. If more than one meaningful word is
flowers. H is one of the persons. formed mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful
word is formed, mark X as your answer?
Q91. Who among the following have 29 flowers? (a) Z
(a) M (b) O
(b) H (c) L
(c) S (d) F
(d) A (e) Z
(e) None of these
Direction (97-100): In the following questions
Q92. How many persons sit between the one who
assuming the given statement to be true, find which
have 43 flowers and H?
of the conclusion(s) among given conclusions
(a) One
(b) Three is/are definitely true and then give your answers
(c) Two accordingly.
(d) Either two or one
(e) Either three or one Q97. Statements: A > M < X < V; D ≤ L = M; D > S
Conclusions: I. A > S II. A > V
Q93. Which of the following combination is (a) Only I is true.
correct? (b) Only II is true.
(a) S - 36 (c) Either I or II is true.
(b) A- 47 (d) Neither I nor II is true.
(c) H- 29 (e) Both I and II are true.
(d) M- 43
(e) All are correct
Q98. Statements: M > A ≥ P > U; E < R > U; E ≥ L >
W
Q94. Who among the following sits just right of the
one who have 36 flowers? Conclusions: I. M > L II. W ≤ A
(a) O (a) Only I is true.
(b) H (b) Only II is true.
(c) S (c) Either I or II is true.
(d) R (d) Neither I nor II is true.
(e) None of these (e) Both I and II are true.

Q99. Statements: Q ≥ W > X > Z; E > Z; E > C Q100. Statements: L > W < U < B; W ≥ X > P; P > T
Conclusions: I. C < Q II. E ≤ W ≥K
(a) Only I is true. Conclusions: I. L > T II. K < U
(b) Only II is true. (a) Only I is true.
(c) Either I or II is true. (b) Only II is true.
(c) Either I or II is true.
(d) Neither I nor II is true.
(d) Neither I nor II is true.
(e) Both I and II are true. (e) Both I and II are true.
Solutions
S1. Ans.(e) S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. To validate the correct answer, refer to the first Sol. Only option (b) is incorrect as per the
paragraph which mentions, “Tourism in India information given in the passage.
accounts for 6.8% of the GDP, and is the third largest For option (a), refer to the lines of second
foreign exchange earner for the country with USD paragraph, which mention, “Rural tourism may
18.13 Billion.” include multiple facets such as farm tourism,
cultural tourism, nature tourism, adventure
S2. Ans.(d)
tourism, and eco-tourism.”
Sol. The correct choice is option (d) which can be
inferred from the second paragraph which
mentions, “Ministry of Tourism specifies that any For option (b), refer to the lines of second
form of tourism that showcases the rural life, art, paragraph, which mention, “The country has seen
culture and heritage at rural locations, benefits the successful rural tourism models in states such as
local community economically and socially, and Kerala’s backwater, Karnataka’s forest, and Tamil
enables interaction between the tourists and the Nadu’s temple.”
locals can be termed as rural tourism.” For option (c), refer to the lines of first paragraph,
which mention, “A tourist's paradise, India is a
S3. Ans.(a) magnum of diverse geography and cultures,
Sol. The correct choice is option (a) which can be offering 30 World Heritage sites, 25
inferred from the second paragraph which biogeographical zones and attractive beaches”
mentions, “This will not only preserve the culture
and heritage of the country, but will also generate
employment in the villages since it can be leveraged For option (d), refer to the lines of first
to provide skill development in tourism related job paragraph,which mention, “With 69% population
roles such as that of guide, driver, cook, living in rural India, and almost 6.5 million village
housekeeping and hospitality to the tourists.” units spread across the country, India plays a vital
role in harnessing rural tourism.”
S4. Ans.(e)
Sol. The correct choice is option (e) which can be
inferred from the first paragraph which mentions,
“The geographical diversity of India makes it a
unique spot for harnessing rural tourism which can
include tourist sites like desert, mountains, plains,
plateaus, islands and coasts in different regions.
India showcases a variety of cultural patterns
having different lifestyles, practices, art and craft,
and festivals. These can be incorporated and
leveraged in the form of rural tourism.”

S6. Ans.(c) S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Shift’ is a synonym of ‘move’ Sol. Going through the given sentences, it is clear
convey means make (an idea, impression, or that the passage is about Charles Darwin’s book on
feeling) known or understandable evolution. Here, only statement (C) can be the first
crawl means move forward on the hands and knees statement as it introduces the premise of the
or by dragging the body close to the ground. paragraph by clearly mentioning the name of the
shift means change the emphasis, direction, or book i.e., “On the Origin of Species”. Statement (E)
should be the next in line as it emphasizes the
focus of.
importance of the book and its reason is explained
mutter means say something in a low or barely
in statement (A), thus making it the third statement
audible voice, especially in dissatisfaction or
in this rearrangement. Statement (D) should be the
irritation. fourth statement as it gives a better understanding
of the contents of the mentioned book. The next
S7. Ans.(b) sentence should be the statement (F) where more
Sol. The most suitable word for the given blank is data on the book is given. Note, the phrase “But
‘leveraged’. surprisingly” makes it clear that the given sentence
amplified means make (something) more marked (F) cannot be placed prior to this arrangement.
or intense. Now, the only sentence that is left is sentence (B)
leveraged means use (something) to maximum and it will obviously take the last position in the
advantage. sequence as it also concludes its previous
fortified means provided with defensive works as statement i.e., statement (F). Hence, the correct
protection against attack. sequence of sentences will be CEADFB.
invoked means all on (a deity or spirit) in prayer, as
S11. Ans.(d)
a witness, or for inspiration.
Sol. Going through the given sentences, it is clear
that the passage is about Charles Darwin’s book on
S8. Ans.(d)
evolution. Here, only statement (C) can be the first
Sol. ‘Trivial’ is an antonym of ‘vital’ statement as it introduces the premise of the
retreat means withdraw from enemy forces as a paragraph by clearly mentioning the name of the
result of their superior power or after a defeat. book i.e., “On the Origin of Species”. Statement (E)
timid means showing a lack of courage or should be the next in line as it emphasizes the
confidence; easily frightened. importance of the book and its reason is explained
precise means marked by exactness and accuracy of in statement (A), thus making it the third statement
expression or detail. in this rearrangement. Statement (D) should be the
trivial means of little value or importance. fourth statement as it gives a better understanding
of the contents of the mentioned book. The next
S9. Ans.(a) sentence should be the statement (F) where more
Sol. ’Detrimental’ is a synonym of ‘harmful’. data on the book is given. Note, the phrase “But
detrimental means tending to cause harm. surprisingly” makes it clear that the given sentence
(F) cannot be placed prior to this arrangement.
ameliorate means make (something bad or
Now, the only sentence that is left is sentence (B)
unsatisfactory) better.
and it will obviously take the last position in the
fugitive means a person who has escaped from
sequence as it also concludes its previous
captivity or is in hiding. statement i.e., statement (F). Hence, the correct
consorted means agree or be in harmony with. sequence of sentences will be CEADFB

S12. Ans.(a) S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. Going through the given sentences, it is clear Sol. The correct sequence of the sentences will be
that the passage is about Charles Darwin’s book on CEADFB.
evolution. Here, only statement (C) can be the first Sol. Going through the given sentences, it is clear
statement as it introduces the premise of the that the passage is about Charles Darwin’s book on
paragraph by clearly mentioning the name of the evolution. Here, only statement (C) can be the first
book i.e., “On the Origin of Species”. Statement (E)
statement as it introduces the premise of the
should be the next in line as it emphasizes the
paragraph by clearly mentioning the name of the
importance of the book and its reason is explained
in statement (A), thus making it the third statement book i.e., “On the Origin of Species”. Statement (E)
in this rearrangement. Statement (D) should be the should be the next in line as it emphasizes the
fourth statement as it gives a better understanding importance of the book and its reason is explained
of the contents of the mentioned book. The next in statement (A), thus making it the third statement
sentence should be the statement (F) where more in this rearrangement. Statement (D) should be the
data on the book is given. Note, the phrase “But fourth statement as it gives a better understanding
surprisingly” makes it clear that the given sentence of the contents of the mentioned book. The next
(F) cannot be placed prior to this arrangement. sentence should be the statement (F) where more
Now, the only sentence that is left is sentence (B) data on the book is given. Note, the phrase “But
and it will obviously take the last position in the surprisingly” makes it clear that the given sentence
sequence as it also concludes its previous
(F) cannot be placed prior to this arrangement.
statement i.e., statement (F).). Hence, the correct
Now, the only sentence that is left is sentence (B)
sequence of sentences will be CEADFB.
and it will obviously take the last position in the
S13. Ans.(c) sequence as it also concludes its previous
Sol. Going through the given sentences, it is clear statement i.e., statement (F).
that the passage is about Charles Darwin’s book on
evolution. Here, only statement (C) can be the first S15. Ans.(d)
statement as it introduces the premise of the Sol. The sentence given by option (d) gives the only
paragraph by clearly mentioning the name of the grammatically and contextually correct sentence of
book i.e., “On the Origin of Species”. Statement (E) all the given sentences.
should be the next in line as it emphasizes the Option (a): The correction to be made here is
importance of the book and its reason is explained replacing “morality” with “moral” which is the
in statement (A), thus making it the third statement
adjective form of the word, as the word is intended
in this rearrangement. Statement (D) should be the
for describing the noun “character”, and an
fourth statement as it gives a better understanding
of the contents of the mentioned book. The next adjective is thus the appropriate substitution.
sentence should be the statement (F) where more Option (b): “Were held” should be replaced with
data on the book is given. Note, the phrase “But “held” as only the latter establishes “Greek scholars
surprisingly” makes it clear that the given sentence and poets” as a subject, doing which helps avoid a
(F) cannot be placed prior to this arrangement. conflict of subject and narrative, and gives the
Now, the only sentence that is left is sentence (B) sentence proper meaning.
and it will obviously take the last position in the Option (c): “Leading for” should be replaced with
sequence as it also concludes its previous “leading to” as the latter gives the more usual and
statement i.e., statement (F). Hence, the correct appropriate collocation. “Leading to” connects the
sequence of sentences will be CEADFB. two clauses as a sentences with proper meaning.

S16. Ans.(b) S19. Ans.(d)
Sol. The sentence given by option (d) gives the only Sol. The sentence given by option (d) gives the only
grammatically and contextually correct sentence of grammatically and contextually correct sentence of
all the given sentences. all the given sentences.
Option (a): Replacing “while” with “unless” or Option (a): The conjunction “or” should be replaced
“until” might make the sentence correct, as “while” with “and” as the second clause adds to the first one
in itself is not the conjunction appropriate for and does not give an alternative, as can be seen by
situations of contrast. the phrase “as well” in the second clause.
Option (c): The sentence proposes a viable course
of action in the future, and not a suggestion for a Option (b): Changing “from” to “than” is required
viable course of action in the past. “To have for comparative statements to make the sentence
prevented” something, the latter of the two would correct. Thus the sentence in its original form is
be required. One relevant correction would be to incorrect.
change “to have prevented” with “to prevent” for
contextual coherency. Option (c): The collocation for “cut” is “through” in
Option (d): Replace “lead” with “led” to make the this case as the context requires the phrase “cut
sentence contextually and grammatically correct. through” for contextual coherency.
The context states something that has happened “To cut through” is defined as “to get quickly and
due to an action been having taken. “Led” is the past directly through or past”.
form “lead” which is the tense required by the
context. S20. Ans.(b)
Sol. The rearrangement needed to make the
S17. Ans.(c)
sentence grammatically meaningful is ‘BCAD’. Thus,
Sol. The sentence given by option (c) gives the only
the sentence will be, “Replacing the office’s
grammatically and contextually correct sentence of
outdated computer systems with new technology
all the given sentences.
would allow the workers to get a lot more done”
Option (a): The sentence shows subject verb
disagreement. As the noun for the verb “have” is
S21. Ans.(c)
“expansion”, which is singular, the verb should be
Sol. The rearrangement needed to make the
singular to. Replacing “have” with “has” is one way
sentence meaningful is ‘ABDC’. Thus, the sentence
to correct the sentence.
will be, “The allure of the fresh herbs caused the
Option (b): Change “mark” to marked” as the
chef to spend more money than he intended at the
sentence is in past tense and the verb should reflect
market”
the same tense for grammatical correctness.
Option (d): As the word “all” is associated with the
noun, the noun must be plural. “Functional role
concept” should be changed to “functional role
concepts” to make the sentence correct
S18. Ans.(e)
Sol. No grammatical errors exist in the above given
sentences. Thus, option (e) is the subsequent
answer.

Sol. The rearrangement needed to make the Sol. The most suitable word for the blank is ‘fragile’.
sentence meaningful is ‘DCBA’. Thus, the sentence Fragile is an adjective which means (of a person)
will be, “There is a cluster of industrial buildings on weak or in poor health, physically or mentally.
the outskirts of our small town, but we tend to Cripple means cause severe and disabling damage
ignore them since they ruin the horizon.” to; deprive of the ability to function normally.
Reliant means dependent on someone or
S23. Ans.(b) something.
Sol. The interchange needed to make a Splendid means magnificent; very impressive
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is Fragile means (of a person) not strong or sturdy;
between the words ‘clippings and ‘collection’. The delicate and vulnerable.
sentence will be, “My art project required me to Elevated means (of a level or amount) higher or
assemble a collection of magazine clippings.” greater than normal.
S24. Ans.(b) S28. Ans.(a)

Sol. The interchange needed to make a Sol. The correct replacement is “I had studied”.
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence is The sentence follows the structure of third
between the words ‘loyal’ and ‘stand’. The sentence conditional. With the third conditional we talk
will be “You will never be able to find better about the past. We talk about a condition in the past
company than a dog, as a dog will always stand by that did not happen. So, the condition was not true,
you and be loyal to you if you treat him right.” and that particular condition can never be true
because it is finished.
S25. Ans.(c) We use the Past Perfect tense to talk about the
Sol. The interchanges needed to make a impossible past condition. We use would have +
grammatically correct and meaningful sentence are past participle to talk about the impossible past
between the words ‘jumped’ and ‘filled’ and result. The important thing about the third
‘equipment’ and ‘mayhem’. The sentence will be, conditional is that both the condition and result are
“The playground was filled with mayhem as fifty impossible now.
students jumped and climbed all over the
equipment.” S29. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct replacement is “desire to return”.
S26. Ans.(b) The word back is implied by the word return, so
Sol. The most suitable word for the blank is basically it is not needed to use back. ‘back’ is
‘valiant’. Valiant is an adjective which means very redundant in the given sentence.
brave or bravely determined, especially when
things are difficult or the situation gives no cause S30. Ans.(e)
for hope. Sol. The highlighted part of the sentence is
Valiant means possessing or showing courage or grammatically correct. Hence no replacement is
determination. required.
Illustrious means well known, respected, and
admired for past achievements. S31. Ans.(c)
Refrain means stop oneself from doing something. Sol. I. 𝑥 2 − 15𝑥 + 56 = 0
Reached means to arrive at a place. 𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 − 8𝑥 + 56 = 0
Redundant means not or no longer needed or 𝑥 (𝑥 − 7 ) − 8(𝑥 − 7) = 0
useful; superfluous. (𝑥 − 7)(𝑥 − 8) = 0
𝑥 = 7, 8
II. 𝑦 2 − 8𝑦 + 15 = 0 S35. Ans.(a)
𝑦 2 − 5𝑦 − 3𝑦 + 15 = 0 Sol. I. 2x² – x – 3 = 0
𝑦 (𝑦 − 5) − 3 (𝑦 − 5) = 0 2x² + 2x - 3x – 3 = 0
(𝑦 − 5)(𝑦 − 3) = 0 2x (x + 1) - 3 (x + 1) = 0
𝑦 = 5, 3 (x + 1) (2x - 3) = 0
So, 𝑥 > 𝑦. 3
x = 2, –1
S32. Ans.(b) II. 2y² – 6y + 4 = 0
Sol. I. 𝑥 2 + 12𝑥 + 35 = 0 2y² – 2y – 4y + 4 = 0
𝑥 2 + 5𝑥 + 7𝑥 + 35 = 0 2y (y – 1) – 4 (y – 1) = 0
𝑥 (𝑥 + 5) + 7 (𝑥 + 5) = 0 (y – 1) (2y – 4) = 0
(𝑥 + 5)(𝑥 + 7) = 0 y = 1, 2
𝑥 = −5, −7 No relation can be established between x and y.
II. 𝑦 2 + 7𝑦 + 10 = 0
𝑦 2 + 2𝑦 + 5𝑦 + 10 = 0 Sol. (36 -40):
𝑦 (𝑦 + 2) + 5 (𝑦 + 2) = 0 Let total student who are in only A, only B and only
(𝑦 + 2)(𝑦 + 5) = 0 C be 2a, 3a & 5a respectively
𝑦 = −2, −5 And total student who are in all three categories =
So, 𝑥 ≤ 𝑦. 5𝑎
2
S33. Ans.(a) Let total students who are in only B & C but not A =
Sol. I. x² – 3x – 40 = 0 b
x² – 8x + 5x – 40 = 0 So, total students who are in only A & C but not B =
x (x – 8) + 5(x – 8) = 0 155 -b
(x – 8) (x + 5) = 0 And, Total number of students who are in A & B
x = 8, -5 but not C = 3a - 30
II. y² + 11y + 30 = 0 10a + 3a – 30 +
5𝑎
+ 155 = 900
y² + 6y + 5y + 30 = 0 2
y (y + 6) + 5 (y + 6) =0 a = 50
(y + 5) (y + 6) =0 but we can’t solve value of b
y = -6, – 5
x≥y
S34. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. 2x² + 14x - 16 = 0
2x² + 16x -2x - 16 = 0
2x (x +8) -2 (x +8) = 0
(2x -2) (x + 8) = 0
x = –8, 1 S36. Ans.(b)
II. y² – y – 12 = 0 Sol. we can’t solve value of b
y² – 4y + 3y – 12 = 0 So, can’t determined
y(y – 4) + 3(y – 4) = 0
(y + 3) ( y – 4) = 0 S37. Ans.(b)
y = – 3, 4 Sol. we can’t solve value of b
No relation can be established between x and y So, can’t determine the ratio

S38. Ans.(b) S45. Ans.(b)
70
Sol. Required number = 50 × 2 × 100 = 70 Sol. Pattern of series –
2×3=6
S39. Ans.(d) 6 × 5 = 30
5 30 × 7 = 210
Sol. Required number = 900 – 50 × 2 = 775
? = 210 × 9 = 1890
1890 × 11 = 20790
S40. Ans.(b)
Sol. Required number = 50 × (2 + 3 + 5) = 500 S46. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let present age of C = x years
S41. Ans.(b) So, present age of A = (x + 12) years
Sol. Pattern of the series - And Present age of B = (x + 3) years
ATQ –
(𝑥+12) 6
(𝑥+3)
=5
5x + 60 = 6x + 18
S42. Ans.(b) x = 42
Sol. Pattern of the series- Required sum = 42 + (42 + 3) + 10 × 2 =
24 + 52 = 49 107 years
? = 49 + 72 = 𝟗𝟖
98 + 112 = 219 S47. Ans.(e)
219 + 132 = 388 Sol. ATQ –
388 + 172 = 677 𝑋×12
=
2400
8×(𝑋+900) (5800−2400)
3𝑋 12
S43. Ans.(c) 2(𝑋+900) 17
Sol. Pattern of the series- 17X = 8X + 7200
X = 800
S48. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let total initial quantity of milk in vessel be 4x
S44. Ans.(b)
So, total initial quantity of water in vessel = 4x
Sol. Pattern of series – 25
15 + 1.5 = 16.5 × 100 = 𝑥
16.5 + 3 = 19.5 ATQ –
19.5 + 4.5 = 24 4𝑥−10×
4𝑥
+25 500
? =24 + 6 = 30
5𝑥
𝑥 = 100
𝑥− 10×
5𝑥
30 + 7.5 = 37.5 x = 27
initial quantity of milk in the vessel = 27 × 4 = 108
S49. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let cost price of article A = 5x
160
So, Marked price of article A = 5x × 100 = 8𝑥
And cost price of article B = 5y
160
So, Marked price of article B = 5y × 100 = 8𝑦
ATQ –
5x + 5y = 350
x + y = 70 ----- (i)
And 8y – 8x = 80 Ratio of time taken by Rakesh to Ritu to complete
y–x=8 work be 8 : 5
y = 39 So,
x = 31 8 − 3 = 18
So, cost price of article A = 31 × 5 = 155 Rs. 1=6
Total work = 8 × 6 × 5𝑥 = 240𝑥 𝑢𝑛𝑖𝑡𝑠
240𝑥
S50. Ans.(d) Req. days = 8𝑥+5𝑥+7𝑥 = 12 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
Sol. Let length and breadth of the rectangle be l cm S54. Ans.(b)
& b cm respectively. Sol. ATQ,
Give, 2(l+b) = 108 [2𝑋(1.08)2 − 2𝑋] −
𝑋×15×2
= 820
100
40 + b = 54 3𝑋
[2.3328𝑋 − 2𝑋] − = 820
b = 14 10
3328𝑋 3𝑋
But we can’t determine the number of semicircles ⇒ 10000
− 10 = 820
can be drawn inside the rectangle 328𝑋
⇒ 10000 = 820
𝑋 = 25000 Rs.
S51. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let speed of boat in still water and speed of S55. Ans.(d)
stream be x km/hr and y km/hr respectively We have no information about income of A in 2018
𝑥+𝑦 5
= or any relation between income of A in 2017 &
𝑥−𝑦 3
x = 4y 2018 so we can’t determine the annual saving of A
Given value are in approximate, so we can leave in 2018
meters and seconds here
S56. Ans.(c)
ATQ – 7
60 60 Sol. Required sum = 60000 × 10 + 24000 = 66000
+ 3𝑦 = 16
5𝑦
12 20
+ = 16 S57. Ans.(e)
𝑦 𝑦
(40+36)−(24+30)
y=2 Sol. Required percentage = × 100 =
(40+36)
So, x = 8 28.94 ≈ 29%
37
Required time = 6 = 6 hours
S58. Ans.(d)
S52. Ans.(b) Sol. Required difference = ((50 + 60) – (30 + 40))
Sol. Time taken by a train to cover distance × 1000 = 40000 Rs.
between A & B and distance between B & C is same
So, time taken by train to cover distance between A S59. Ans.(c)
400 Sol. Required ratio = (24 + 36) : 50 = 6 : 5
& B = 40 = 10 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠
Speed of train to cover distance between B & C = S60. Ans.(b)
375
= 37.50 km/hr Sol. Total income of Mayank in 2018 = 36000 ×
10 4
775 = 144000 𝑅𝑠.
Average speed = = 38.75 km/hr 1
20 125
Required difference = 38.75 − 37.50 = 1.25 km/hr Income of Mayank in 2020 = 144000 × 100 =
180000 Rs.
10
S53. Ans.(b) Total tax paid by Mayank in 2020 = 36000 × 9 =
Sol. Let efficiency of Rakesh be 5x units/day 40000 𝑅𝑠.
160
Efficiency of Ritu = 5𝑥 × 100 = 8𝑥 units/day Saving of Mayank in 2018 = (144000 – 36000) ×
5
7
Efficiency of Rahul = 8𝑥 × 8 = 7𝑥 units/day = 90000 Rs.
6

Saving of Mayank in 2020 = (180000 – 40000) S66. Ans.(a)
3
× 4 = 105000 Rs. S67. Ans.(d)
Required difference = 105000 – 90000 = 15000 S68. Ans.(c)
S69. Ans.(d)
S61. Ans.(d) S70. Ans.(b)
Sol. Invalid votes of block A in 2012 = 750 – 200 =
550 S71. Ans.(a)
Invalid votes of block B in 2015 = 1300 – 1000 = Sol.
300
5
Total female invalid votes = 550× 11 = 250
Required difference = 300 – 250 = 50
S62. Ans.(b)
180
Invalid votes of block B in 2015 = 1300 – 1000 = S72. Ans.(a)
300 Sol.
(200+1000)−(180+300)
Required percentage = ×
200+1000
100 = 60%
S63. Ans.(e)
Sol. Invalid votes of block B in 2012 = 1200 – 1000
= 200
Total number of valid votes in block B in 2012 after S73. Ans.(c)
25
recasting = 200 × 100 + 1000 = 1050 Sol.
S64. Ans.(b)
550
Invalid votes of block B in 2012 = 1200 – 1000 =
200
Invalid votes of block A in 2015 = 900 – 720 = 180
Invalid votes of block B in 2015 = 1300 – 1000 =
Direction (74-78):
300
550+200 180+300
Required difference = − = 135
2 2
S65. Ans.(b)
Sol. Required ratio = 200 ∶ 1300 = 2:13
Direction (66-70):
Floor Persons Raw Materials
5 D Wool
4 G Cotton
3 F Silk
2 H Leather
1 E Fibres

S74. Ans.(b) S87. Ans.(c)
S75. Ans.(d) Sol. A covers 77m and B cover 87m so the
S76. Ans.(a) difference is 87-77 = 10m
S77. Ans.(c)
S78. Ans.(b) S88. Ans.(a)
S89. Ans.(d)
Direction (79-81):
S90. Ans.(b)
Sol
S79. Ans.(d) Direction (91-95):

S80. Ans.(b)
S81. Ans.(b)
Direction (82-85):
Persons
H
D S91. Ans.(b)
G S92. Ans.(e)
B S93. Ans.(c)
E S94. Ans.(a)
K S95. Ans.(c)
C
F S96. Ans.(b)
L Sol. Meaningful word – FOUL
S82. Ans.(b) Direction (97-100):

S83. Ans.(a) S97. Ans.(a)
S84. Ans.(e) S98. Ans.(d)
S85. Ans.(b) S99. Ans.(d)
S100. Ans.(e)
S86. Ans.(d)
Sol. Logic – VYT (T+1 = V +3 = Y)
Direction (87-89):
.
IBPS PO Previous Year Questions Papers With Solutions -2021
Directions (1-3): A word has been given in each (a) only (ii)
question and has been used in the sentences given (b) both (i) and (ii)
below. Identify the statements where the word has (c) both (ii) and (iii)
been used in a contextually and grammatically (d) all (i), (ii), (iii)
correct manner. If the word has been used (e) none of these
incorrectly in all the statements, mark (e), “None
of these”, as your answer. Directions (4-13): Read the following passage and
answer the given questions based on the
Q1. Fellow information provided in the passage.
(i) The Central Vigilance Commission asked all
public sector banks to fellow time limit set by it With the advancement of digital technology,
for timely completion of disciplinary proceedings. excessive screen time has become a grave concern.
(ii)Company is seeking highly motivated research This has pushed researchers and practitioners to
fellow to perform high-impact focus on digital well-being. Screen time during
(iii) Volunteers help fellow villagers access COVID-19 has further increased as a result of public
healthcare in conflict-affected eastern Ukraine. health measures enforced by governments to curb
(a) only (i) the pandemic. A lack of comprehensive empirical
(b) only (ii) overviews on screen time in the COVID-19 era in the
(c) both (ii) and (i) present literature prompted us to conduct this
(d) both (ii) and (iii) review. The present review attempts to understand
(e) none of these the virtual social connectedness, excessive use of
digital technology, its consequences and suggest
Q2. Accent
strategies to maintain healthy use of digital
(i) There has been much discussion about
technology. Though there are mixed consequences
celebrity’s accent in a reality show.
of prolonged screen time use and blurred
(ii) Temple jewellery was mostly made from gold
understanding between healthy and unhealthy
and silver and finished with handcrafted accents.
social connectedness over digital media, the
(iii) Succeeding public authorities cannot accent
suggestions for negative implications on (physical
the work of their predecessors.
and) mental health warrant a strict need for
(a) only (ii)
inculcating healthy digital habits, especially
(b) both (i) and (ii)
knowing that digital technology is here to stay and
(c) both (ii) and (iii)
grow with time.
(d) all (i), (ii), (iii)
The last two decades have seen a thriving future in
(e) none of these
the use of digital technology. It has accelerated
human exposure to prolonged bright screen which
Q3. Wind
(i) It stated that the Officers must establish a close is becoming a growing concern. Digital technology
wind with laboratories for expediting the results is essentially the use of electronic devices to store,
of genomic analysis generate or process data; it facilitates
(ii) Wind your arm with a bandage. communication and virtual interactions on social
(iii) The wind of a university is often judged by the media platforms using the internet. The COVID-19
collective achievements of its alumni pandemic has forced people to rely on digital

networks as their only method of maintaining a Q5. Why has the use of digital technology become
socio-emotional connection, but it has also made it more than a matter of concern?
a shallow one. Digital technology is influencing (a) Because the future of digital technology is bright
how people use digital devices to maintain, or avoid for the next generation.
social relations or how much time to spend on (b) Because it has suffocated interpersonal
virtual social connectedness. Screen time refers to relations with its wide usage.
the amount of time spent and the diverse activities (c) Because it has elevated human exposure to long
performed online using digital devices. For durations spent in front of a screen.
instance, screen time encompasses both, using (d) Because it has seen a decrease in virtual
digital devices for work purposes as well as for interactions on social media platforms.
leisure and entertainment. (e) None of these
The COVID-19 pandemic came with restrictions, Q6. Which of the following statements with
regulations and stay-at-home orders. Many reference to screen time is/are correct?
individuals could not return to their homes, many (a) It refers to the amount of time spent on digital
stuck in foreign lands and many in solitude. As a devices while online.
result, the usage of digital devices has increased (b) It refers to the amount of time incurred while
manifold across the globe. The addiction to the doing a variety of online activities carried out with
digital devices has started to run in the genes of the use of digital gadgets.
individuals. Irrespective of age, people are pushed (c) Only time spent on leisure and entertainment
to rely on digital platforms. Education, shopping, activities is included in it.
working, meeting, entertaining and socializing (d) Only (a) and (c)
suddenly leaped from offline to online. Here, digital
(e) Both (a) and (b)
technology came as a blessing in disguise,
enabling individuals to remain emotionally
Q7. Why has the usage of digital devices increased
connected despite social distancing. At the same
time, prolonged screen time has caused concerns manifold across the globe?
related to its impact on physical and mental health. (a) As a result of the regulations put in place to
While mindful use of digital devices is linked with combat the COVID-19 pandemic.
well-being, excessive screen time is reported to be (b) Because of pandemic restrictions, many people
associated with a range of negative mental health remain trapped in foreign countries.
outcomes such as psychological problems, low (c) Because interaction and amusement moved
emotional stability, and a greater risk for from the offline to the online world.
depression or anxiety. (d) Only (a) and (b)
(e) All of these
Q4. What, according to the author, is/are the major
objective(s) of conducting a review on the usage of Q8. Why has prolonged screen time caused
digital technology? concerns on physical and mental health?
(a) To recognize the idea of virtual social
(a) It has resulted in a slew of psychological issues.
togetherness
(b) Individuals have become emotionally stable as a
(b) To suggest ideas for discontinuing the use of
result of it.
digital technology
(c) To comprehend the suitable limit of digital (c) It has increased the risk of depression and
technology usage anxiety.
(d) Only (a) and (c) (d) Only (a) and (c)
(e) Both (a) and (b) (e) Both (a) and (b)

Q9. Which of the following statements with Q13. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the
reference to the information provided in the given word ‘SHALLOW’, as highlighted in the given
passage is/are incorrect? passage.
(a) Researchers have turned their attention to (a) superficial
digital well-being as a result of excessive screen (b) frivolous
time on digital gadgets. (c) trivial
(b) The advancement of digital technology has seen (d) Only (a) and (b)
a promising future in the recent two decades. (e) All of these
(c) Concerns about the impact of excessive screen
usage on physical and mental health have surfaced. Directions (14-18): In each of the questions given
(d) Only (a) and (b) below a sentence is given with three words in bold.
(e) None of these Choose the option which gives the correct sequence
of these words to make the sentence grammatically
Q10. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the and contextually correct.
word ‘RUN’, as highlighted in the given passage.
(a) Coast Q14. As the staying (A) lifestyle continues to
(b) Slide evolve; a phenomenon (B) that has been further
(c) Flow accelerated during the pandemic, is that of
(d) Swipe ‘modern (C) at home.’
(e) Ruin (a) ACB
(b) BAC
Q11. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the (c) CBA
word ‘BRIGHT’, as highlighted in the given passage. (d) BCA
(a) Lucid (e) No rearrangement required
(b) Dim
(c) Glare Q15. The death of five elephants has again reduce
(d) Canny (A) the gaps in efforts to highlighted (B) man-
(e) Ablaze animal conflicts (C) in the country.
(a) ACB
Q12. Which of the following statements best (b) BAC
illustrates the meaning of the phrase "digital (c) CAB
technology came as a blessing in disguise”, as (d) BCA
expressed in the passage? (e) No rearrangement required
(a) Issues have been expressed about the effects of
excessive screen time on health. Q16. The leap of artificial (A) intelligence in the
(b) The activity of entertaining and gathering students (B) sector has helped education (C) and
shifted from offline to online. educators.
(c) Despite the social distance, digital technology (a) ACB
has enabled people to stay emotionally tied. (b) BAC
(d) Long periods of screen time have raised worries (c) CAB
about physical and mental health. (d) BCA
(e) All of these (e) No rearrangement required

Q17. The additional budget for MGNREGA was (F) It continued with modified business activity:
among the most threatened (A) awaited, as engineering and technical consulting, consulting
pending payments for wages have keenly (B) to activities in the field of information technology and
cripple implementation (C) of the scheme. other information technology services etc.
(a) ACB
(b) BAC Q19. Which of the following would be the correct
(c) CAB order of sentences after rearrangement?
(d) BCA (a) DEBACF
(e) No rearrangement required (b) CDEBAF
(c) ABCEDF
Q18. The cyclone will briefly gain in severe (A) and (d) BACEDF
become a conventional (B) cyclonic storm, but is (e) CEDABF
unlikely to make a strength (C) landfall.
Q20. Which of the following would be the THIRD
(a) ACB
sentence after rearrangement?
(b) BAC
(a) A
(c) CAB
(b) B
(d) BCA
(c) C
(e) No rearrangement required
(d) D
(e) F
Directions (19-23): In the following questions six
Q21. Which of the following would be the FIRST
sentences are given. Further, these sentences may sentence after rearrangement?
or may not form a contextually meaningful (a) A
sequence. You have to rearrange these sentences to (b) B
make a contextually meaningful paragraph. The (c) C
sentence (F), which has already been highlighted, (d) D
would be the LAST sentence after rearrangement. (e) F
Later, answer the follow-up questions.
(A) The train initially operated on horse-drawn Q22. Which of the following would be the FIFTH
traffic were later replaced in 1856 by steam sentence after rearrangement?
locomotives. (a) A
(B) The ability of Serbian Railways to transport (b) B
goods and people efficiently made economic (c) E
development possible. (d) D
(C) The history of rail transport in Serbia began in (e) F
the mid-19th century when most of the territory
was still held by the Austro-Hungarian and Q23. Which of the following would be the FOURTH
Ottoman Empires. sentence after rearrangement?
(D) Part of the line was located in Serbia passing (a) A
through Bela Crkva while the rest is in Romania. (b) B
(E) The first rail line on the present-day territory of (c) C
Serbia was inaugurated on 20 August 1854, (d) D
between Lisava-Oravica-Bazijaš . (e) F

Directions (24-25): In the following question, Q27. Diabetes affect(A)/ many people (B)/ around
sentences are given with a part in bold. The given (C)/ the world. (D)
phrase in the bold may or may not contain an error. (a) A
The options following can replace the incorrect (b) B
phrase. The correct phrase that is to be replaced (c) C
will be your answer. If the sentences are correct (d) D
then select ‘No improvement required’ as your (e) No error
answer.
Q28. Not for a moment (A)/ I think I would be (B)/
Q24. The Government’s new policies intended to offered the job, (C)/ so I was amazed when I got it.
double incomes of farmers, which has been (D)
languishing while stock markets are soaring. (a) A
(a) who have been (b) B
(b) that has being (c) C
(c) which was been (d) D
(e) No error
(d) which have been
(e) No improvement required
Q29. Sheela will have (A)/ reached her (B)/
grandparents’ house (C)/ by this time next
Q25. Prime Minister will came Dehradun on next
week.(D)
Monday to inaugurate and lay the foundation stone
(a) A
of multiple projects.
(b) B
(a) will visit
(c) C
(b) was coming
(d) D
(c) have gone
(e) No error
(d) had visited
(e) No improvement required Q30. It had (A)/ stopped raining (B)/ when I (C)/
had left the office. (D)
Directions (26-30): Read each sentence to find out (a) A
whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic (b) B
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the (c) C
sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If (d) D
there is ‘No error’, the answer is ‘e’). (Ignore errors (e) No error
of punctuation, if any.)
Q26. The Manager (A)/, as well as (B)/ the team

members, (C)/ are excited. (D)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error

Direction (31 – 35): What will come in the place of Average
Ratio of total books
questions (?) mark in following number series. number of
Shops to pen sold
books & Pens
(books : Pens)
Q31. 8, 12, 30, 105, ?, 2598.75 sold
(a) 472.5 A 4:1 100
(b) 470.5 B 1:3 60
(c) 476.5 C 2:3 75
(d) 471.5 D 3:2 90
(e) 468.5
Q36. If shop D sold each book at Rs. 75 & each pen
Q32. 9, 19, 39, 79, ?, 319 at Rs. 30, then find the total earning (in Rs.) of shop
(a) 221 D by selling all the books and pens?
(b) 175 (a) 10220
(b) 10240
(c) 125
(c) 10260
(d) 159 (d) 10360
(e) 199 (e) 10460
Q33. 580, 557, 528, 497, ?, 419 Q37. Total books sold by shop B is what percent less
(a) 463 than total pens sold by shop C?
2
(b) 457 (a) 63 3 %
(c) 461 1
(b) 33 3 %
(d) 459 2
(c) 60 3 %
(e) 460
2
(d) 66 3 %
Q34. 81, 72, 136, 111, ?, 278 1
(e) 66 3 %
(a) 325
(b) 347 Q38. Find difference between average number of
(c) 323 books sold by A & C and total pens sold by B?
(d) 327 (a) 10
(e) 321 (b) 5
(c) 15
Q35. 14, 20, 28, 39, ?, 74 (d) 25
(e) 20
(a) 50
(b) 52
Q39. If shop X sold 50% more pens than shop A and
(c) 54 total books sold by shop X is 20 less than that of by
(d) 56 shop C, then find total pens sold by X is what
(e) 59 percent more than total books sold by X?
(a) 20%
Direction (36 – 40): Table given below shows ratio (b) 50%
of books to pens sold by four different shops and it (c) 30%
also shows average number of books and pens sold (d) 40%
by these four shops. (e) 10%

Q40. Find the ratio of total pens sold by shop A to Q47. If ratio of radius to height of a cylinder in 7 : 6
total books sold by shop C? and curved surface area of cylinder is 1056 cm 2 ,
(a) 1 : 3 then find the total surface area of cylinder?
(b) 2 : 3 (a) 2218 cm2
(c) 3 : 4 (b) 2228 cm2
(d) 2 : 5 (c) 2248 cm2
(e) 1 : 4 (d) 2288 cm2
(e) 2268 cm2
Directions (41–45): In the following questions,
there are two equations in x and y. You have to solve
Q48. Ram spend 20% of his monthly income on
both the equations and give answer.
rent, 10% from the remaining income he spends on
(a) if x > y
2th
(b) if x < y food, 30% on travel and amount he gives to his
5
(c) if x ≥ y mother. If the difference between amount he spends
(d) if x ≤ y on travel & amount he gives to his mother is Rs.
(e) if x = y or there is no relation between x and y 11200, then find the monthly income of Ram?
(a) 120000 Rs.
Q41. I. 𝑥 2 + 3𝑥 − 40 = 0
(b) 140000 Rs.
II. 𝑦 2 − 11𝑦 + 30 = 0
(c) 150000 Rs.
(d) 180000 Rs.
Q42. I. 2𝑥 2 + 7𝑥 − 15 = 0
(e) 130000 Rs.
II. 3𝑦 2 + 5𝑦 − 12 = 0
Q43. I. 2𝑥 2 + 26𝑥 + 84 = 0 Q49. Speed of bike is 10% less than speed of car and
II. 𝑦 2 + 15𝑦 + 56 = 0 bike takes two hours more than car to cover 180 km
distance, while car covers 300 km. Find the speed
Q44. I. 𝑥 2 − 4𝑥 − 221 = 0 (in km/hr) of bike?
II. 𝑦 2 − 𝑦 − 132 = 0 (a) 50
(b) 45
Q45. I. 𝑥 2 − 13𝑥 + 42 = 0 (c) 36
II. 𝑦 2 − 17𝑦 + 72 = 0 (d) 54
(e) 27
Q46. Jaya & Shivani invested Rs. 5000 & Rs. 6000
respectively in a business. After six-month Riya join Q50. The ratio of present age of Aman to that of
the business with capital of Rs. 3000 and Jaya left David is 2 : 5 and after ten years the sum of their age
the business. If at the end of one year the difference will be 69 years. Find the difference between
between profit share of Jaya & Riya is Rs. 200, then
present age of Aman & David?
find the profit share (in Rs.) of Shivani.
(a) 14 years
(a) 3000
(b) 21 years
(b) 2400
(c) 4200 (c) 17 years
(d) 3600 (d) 19 years
(e) 1200 (e) 7 years

Q51. A vessel contains total 95 liter mixture of milk Q55. A shopkeeper sold a table at 20% profit and a
& water in the ratio of 15 : 4 respectively. X liter chair at profit of 25%. If the cost price of the chair
mixture of mixture taken out from the vessel and 18 is equal to the selling price of table and shopkeeper
liters water added in the remaining mixture, then earned an overall profit of Rs. 400, then find the
the new ratio of milk to water becomes 3 : 2, find sum of selling price of both the articles together?
the value of X? (a) 2160 Rs.
(a) 9.5 (b) 1760 Rs.
(b) 57 (c) 1960 Rs.
(c) 27.5
(d) 2260 Rs.
(d) 19
(e) 2460 Rs.
(e) 38
Directions (56-60): Study the charts given below

Q52. The ratio of speed of a boat in downstream to
upstream is 5 : 3 and total time taken by boat to carefully and answer the following questions.
cover 30 km distance in upstream is 5 hours. Find
time taken by boat to cover 40 km in downstream. Pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total
(a) 4 hours students (Science +Commerce) in 12th class of five
(b) 6 hours different Zones and table shows the number of
(c) 8 hours students in same class in science of same zones.
(d) 2 hours
Total students (Science +
(e) 3 hours Commerce) = 4000
Q53. A man invested Rs. 8000 in each schemes A &

B. Scheme A offers simple interest at the rate of 9% Western Northern
p.a. for three years, while scheme B offers simple Zone Zone
interest at the rate of 8% p.a. for four years. Find the 30% 25%
total interest (in Rs.) get by man from both schemes.
Easter
(a) 4700 Zone
(b) 4760 Central 10%
Southern
(c) 4780 Zone Zone
(d) 4520 20% 15%
(e) 4720
Total students (Science + Commerce) = 4000
Q54. A can do 25% of a work in 7 days, while B can
2th
do of the same work in 12 days. A and B start
7
work together and after 12 days both replace by C, Northern
Western
who complete the remaining work in three days. Zone
Zone
Find in how many days C can complete the same 25%
30%
work alone?
Easter
(a) 6.5 days Zone
(b) 7.5 days 10%
(c) 8.5 days Central
(d) 10.5 days Zone Southern
(e) 12.5 days 20% Zone
15%

(a) 1510
Zone Students in Science
(b) 1430
Northern Zone 400
(c) 1570
Eastern Zone 310
(d) 1620
Southern Zone 430
(e) 1690
Central Zone 600
Western Zone 750 Q60. Find ratio of science students in Western Zone
to Commerce students in eastern zone.
Q56. Number of students of commerce stream in (a) 7 : 1
Northern Zone are what percent more or less than (b) 22 : 9
number of total students in Southern Zone. (c) 21 : 8
(a) 20% (d) 17 : 5
(b) 0% (e) 25 : 3
(c) 5%
(d) 10% Directions (61-65): Read the given data carefully
(e) 12.5% and answer the following questions.
There are 1080 (Fabric + paper) bag sold by shop A,
Q57. Number of Commerce students in Western B and C.
zone are how much more than Science students in (i) Shop A sold (paper + fabric) bag 25% more than
Northern zone, Eastern zone and Southern zone shop B. Equal number of paper and fabric bag sold
together. by shop B.
(a) 660 (ii) The number of paper bag sold by shop B is
(b) 770 double the fabric bag sold by A.
(c) 630 (iii) The number of paper bag sold by shop C is 50%
(d) 730 of fabric bag sold by shop A.
(e) 690 (iv) The number of fabric bag sold by shop C is 25%
of that by shop B.
Q58. If monthly library fee per student in Central
zone for commerce students is Rs.60 which is Rs.20 Q61. Find the ratio between paper bag sold by B
less than that for science students, then find total and fabric bag sold by C?
monthly fee of library of Central zone. (a) 4: 1
(a) Rs.60000 (b) 3: 2
(b) Rs.45000 (c) 5: 2
(c) Rs.42000 (d) 5: 4
(d) Rs.54000 (e) 5: 1
(e) Rs.63000
Q62. Fabric bag sold by shop A is what percentage
Q59. If Western zone also have Arts students and more than paper bag sold by shop C?
ratio of sum of students of science and commerce in (a) 50%
western zone and Arts students in western zone is (b) 25%
5 : 7, then find Arts students in western zone are (c) 200%
(d) 100%
how much more than commerce students in
(e) 150%
Southern zone.

Q63. What is the difference between average Three persons sit between B and Q. C sits diagonally
number of paper bag sold by all the shops and fabric opposite to Q. C and D are immediate neighbours. N
bag sold by all the shops? faces K.
(a) 110
(b) 108 Q66. Who among the following faces S?
(c) 106 (a) P
(d) 103 (b) L
(e) 115 (c) A
(d) B
Q64. Fabric bags sold by shop A and C together is (e) None of these
how much more or less than paper bag sold by shop
B and C together? Q67. Who among the following sits third to the left
(a) 90 of L?
(b) 102 (a) Q
(c) 116 (b) A
(d) 108 (c) P
(e) 124 (d) K
(e) Y
Q65. Each paper bag and each fabric bag of shop A
sold at Rs. 10 and Rs.15 respectively. Find total Q68. What is the position of M with respect to D?
revenue from selling paper bag and fabric bag of (a) Immediate right
shop A? (b) Immediate left
(a) Rs.4750 (c) Third to the left
(b) Rs.5280 (d) Second to the left
(c) Rs.5940 (e) Second to the right
(d) Rs.5480
(e) Rs.6220 Q69. Who among the following sits fourth to the
right of the one who faces Z?
Direction (66-70): Study the following (a) Y
information and answer the questions given below: (b) P
(c) K
Fourteen persons viz. A, B, C, D, P, Q, R, S, K, L, M, N, (d) L
Y and Z sit in two parallel rows (but not necessarily (e) B
in the same order) in such a way that seven persons
sit in each row. A, B, P, Q, K, L and Y sit in row 1 and Q70. Four among the following five are alike in a
face north while C, D, R, S, M, N and Z sit in row 2 certain way and related to a group, who among the
and face south. The persons in row 1 sit exactly following does not belong to the group?
opposite to the persons sit in row 2. (a) Z
Y sits diagonally opposite to Z. One person sits (b) C
between Z and R. P faces R and sits immediate right (c) Q
of A. The number of persons sit between Y and A is (d) R
same as the number of persons sit to the right of M. (e) Y
B sits second to the right of the one who faces R.
Q71. In the given number ‘85274369’, if all the odd Direction (75-78): Study the following
digits are decreased by 1 and all the even digits are information and answer the questions given below:
decreased by 2, then what would be the sum of the
digits which are not repeated in the new number Nine persons i.e., H, I, J, K, L, M, B, P and T visit three
formed after rearrangement? different cities viz. Mumbai, Pune and Bangalore
(a) 10 but not necessarily in the same order. At least two
(b) 14 persons but not more than four persons visit the
(c) 2 same city.
(d) 8 H visits with T. T does not visit Pune. K visits
(e) None of these Mumbai. B visits neither Pune nor with K. J visits
only with P. More than three persons visit Mumbai.
Directions (72-74): In each of the questions below L and I visit together. M does not visit with I.
are given some statements followed by some
Conclusions. You have to take the given statements Q75. Who among the following visits Pune?
to be true even, if they seem to be at variance from (a) L
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions (b) P
and then decide which of the given conclusions (c) J
logically follows from the given statements (d) M
disregarding commonly known facts. (e) Both (b) and (c)
(b) If only conclusion II follows. Q76. Who among the following visits with K?
(a) H
(b) T
(c) L
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) None of these
Q72. Statements: Some key is chain. Some chain is
plant. All plant is lock.
Q77. Four among the following five are same in a
Conclusion:
certain manner and related to a group, who among
I: No key is lock is a possibility.
the following does not belong the group?
II: All lock is plant.
(a) K
(b) B
Q73. Statements: Only a few story is real. No real is
(c) M
drama. No drama is news.
(d) T
Conclusion: (e) H
I: Some story is not real.
II: Some news can be real. Q78. Which among the following pair is incorrect as
per the data given?
Q74. Statements: Only pen is city. Some pen is (a) I-L
black. Only a few office is black. (b) P-J
Conclusion: (c) L-M
I: Some black is not pen. (d) T-K
II: All office is pen. (e) H-M

Direction (79-81): Study the given information Q82. Statements: W > Q ≥ P < N ≤ A; N > R = X
and answer the following questions: Conclusions: I. A > X II. Q > N
A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and Q83. Statements: V ≤ B ≤ M = S ≥ F ≥ G = H

all face north. Four persons sit between A and B. G
Conclusions: I. M > G II. M = H
sits second to the right of B. One person sits
between G and K. The number of persons sit
between B and K is same as the number of persons Q84. Statements: L ≤ C ≥ F > K ≥ D > M
sit to the right of K. V sits fifth to the left of G. P sits Conclusions: I. L < F II. C > D
third from one of the extreme ends. P sits just left of
V. P sits to the left of A. Q85. Statements: N > V ≥ L ≥ O ≤ W ≤ A > D
Conclusions: I. N > O II. A > O
Q79. Find the total number of persons sit in the
row? Direction (86-90): Study the following
(a) 14
information carefully to answer the given
(b) 13
(c) 15 questions:
(d) 16
(e) Can’t be determined Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U live in a three-storey
building such that ground floor is numbered as 1,
Q80. If P sits exactly between V and R, then how above it is floor 2 then topmost floor is numbered
many persons sit between R and G? as 3. Each of the floor has 2 flats in it as flat-A and
(a) Three flat-B. Flat-A of floor-2 is immediately above flat-A
(b) Four
of floor-1 and immediately below flat-A of floor-3
(c) Seven
and so on. In the same way flat-B of floor-2 is
(d) Six
(e) None of these immediately above flat-B of floor-1 and
immediately below flat-B of floor-3 and so on. Flat-
Q81. What is the position of A with respect to W, if A is in west of flat-B. They like different country.
only four persons sits to the right of W? R lives in the east of the one who likes Norway. One
(a) Immediate right person lives between U and R but not live in the
(b) Third to the left same flat number. The one who likes Russia live in
(c) Fourth to the right the south-west of Q, who live just above T’s flat. The
(d) Immediate left
one who likes Latvia does not live-in flat B. P lives
(e) Second to the right
just above S’s flat but not like Norway. The one who
Direction (82-85): In these questions, relationship likes Kosovo lives above the one who likes Greece
between different elements is shown in the and live below the one who likes Serbia.
statements. The statements are followed by
conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the Q86. Who among the following lives just below P’s
given statements and select the appropriate flat?
answer: (a) The one who likes Greece
(b) U
(c) The one who likes Norway
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. (d) R
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. (e) None of these

Q87. Which of the following statement is true? Directions (92-94): Study the following
I. U lives on the 3rd floor information and answer the given questions
II. T does not like Kosovo
III. R lives in the odd number floor. Point K is 12m to the West of point G. Point M is 4m
(a) Both I and III to the North of Point K. Point J is 10m to the South
(b) Only I of Point L. Point F is 6m to the West of point J. Point
(c) Both II and III G lies exactly between Point L and Point J. Point F is
(d) Only II 5m north of point O. Point Q is 18m west of point O.
(e) Only III
Q92. In which direction is Point J with respect to
Point M?
Q88. Who lives in Flat B of 2nd floor?
(a) North
(a) P
(b) Northwest
(b) S
(c) South
(c) Q (d) Southeast
(d) T (e) None of these
(e) R
Q93. What is the shortest distance between Point K
Q89. Who lives in the west of the one who likes and Point L?
Kosovo? (a) 10m
(a) P (b) 12m
(b) The one who likes Russia (c) 13m
(c) Q (d) 17m
(d) The one who likes Norway (e) None of these
(e) Both (a) and (b)
Q94. If Point N is 12m to the East of Point Q, then
Q90. Four of the following five are alike in a certain what is the shortest distance between Point K and
way and so form a group. Find the one who does not Point N?
belong to that group? (a) 12m
(a) U-Serbia (b) 10m
(b) P-Russia (c) 9m
(d) 8m
(c) T-Greece
(e) 16m
(d) S-Kosovo
(e) Q-Latvia
Directions (95-99): Study the following
Q91. In the given word “LAVISHLY” if all the
information and answer the given questions.
consonants replaced with its previous letter and all
the vowels replaced with its next letter after that 5 persons like different color one after another.
remove all the repeated letter and arranged them in Only two persons after the one who likes red. One
alphabetical order then, which of the following person between D and the one who likes red. There
letters is 3rd from the left end? are as many persons after D as same as before the
(a) J one who likes white. The one who likes Purple is
(b) R before than one who likes White and after the one
(c) U who likes Yellow but not just after. O is before L and
(d) G after M, who does not like Green. K is between M
(e) B and O.

Q95. How many persons after M? (a) None
(a) Three (b) Two
(b) One (c) Three
(c) None (d) Either (b) or (c)
(d) Two (e) None of these
(e) Four
Q99. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
Q96. Who among the following like Purple? way and so form a group. Find the one who does not
(a) L belong to that group?
(b) K (a) L-Purple
(c) O (b) M-Yellow
(d) M (c) O-Purple
(e) None of these (d) K-Red
(e) D-Green
Q97. The number of persons between O and L is
same as the number of persons between __ and __? Q100. In the word ‘OBSEQUIOUS’, how many pairs
(a) M-O of the letters have the same number of letters
(b) D-K between them in both forward and backward
(c) K-L direction in the word as in alphabetical series?
(d) M-K (a) More than four
(e) O-D (b) One
(c) None
Q98. How many persons between M and the one (d) Three
who likes white? (e) Two
Solutions
S1. Ans.(d) Accent in statement (ii) means a feature which
Sol. The correct choice is option (d). The usage of gives a distinctive visual emphasis to something.
fellow is correct in statement (ii) and statement (iii) Undo means cancel or reverse the effects or results
while in statement (i), fellow should be replaced of (a previous action or measure).
with ‘follow’.
Fellow means a person in the same position, S3. Ans.(a)
involved in the same activity, or otherwise Sol. The correct choice is option (a). The usage of
associated with another. wind is correct only in statement (ii) while in
statement (i), ‘wind’ should be replaced with
S2. Ans.(b) ‘coordination’ and in statement (iii), ‘wind’ should
Sol. The correct choice is option (b). The usage of be replaced by ‘significance’. Wind means to wrap.
accent is correct in statement (i) and statement (ii)
while in statement (iii), ‘accent’ should be replaced S4. Ans.(d)
with ‘undo’. Sol. Among the given options, only (a) and (c) are
Accent means a distinctive way of pronouncing a correct with reference to the context of the given
language, especially one associated with a question. While statement (b) is incorrect. Hence,
particular country, area, or social class. option (d) is the right answer choice.
Refer to the mid-lines of the first paragraph, “The S8. Ans.(d)
present review attempts to understand the virtual Sol. Among the given statements, only (a) and (c)
social connectedness, excessive use of digital are correct with reference to the context of the
technology, its consequences and suggest strategies given question. While statement (b) is incorrect.
to maintain healthy use of digital technology.” Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
Refer to the last lines of the third paragraph, “At the
S5. Ans.(c) same time, prolonged screen time has caused
Sol. Because it has increased human exposure to concerns related to its impact on physical and mental
long periods of time spent in front of a screen, the health. While mindful use of digital devices is linked
usage of digital technology has become more than a with well-being, excessive screen time is reported to
source of concern. Thus, we can infer that option (c) be associated with a range of negative mental health
is the right answer choice. outcomes such as psychological problems, low
Refer to the starting lines of the second paragraph, emotional stability, and a greater risk for depression
“The last two decades have seen a bright future in the or anxiety.”
use of digital technology. It has accelerated human
exposure to prolonged screen time which is becoming S9. Ans.(e)
a growing concern.” Sol. All of the given statements are correct with
reference to the information provided in the given
S6. Ans.(e) passage. Thus, there is no incorrect statement.
Sol. Among the given options, both (a) and (b) are Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
correct with reference to the context of the given
question. While statement (c) is incorrect based on
S10. Ans.(c)
the information provided in the given passage.
Sol. Among the given options, ‘flow’ is the most
Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
appropriate synonym of the highlighted word.
Refer to the last lines of the second paragraph,
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. The
“Screen time refers to the amount of time spent and
word ‘run’ means to pass or cause to pass quickly in
the diverse activities performed online using digital
a particular direction.
devices. For instance, screen time encompasses both,
(a) Coast- the part of the land adjoining or near the
using digital devices for work purposes as well as for
sea.
leisure and entertainment.”
(b) Slide- move smoothly along a surface while
maintaining continuous contact with it.
S7. Ans.(e)
(c) Flow- the action or fact of moving along in a
Sol. All of the given statements are correct with
reference to the context of the given question. steady, continuous stream.
Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice. (d) Swipe- hit or try to hit with a swinging blow.
Refer to the starting lines of the third paragraph, (e) Ruin- reduce (a building or place) to a state of
“The COVID-19 pandemic came with restrictions, decay, collapse, or disintegration.
regulations and stay-at-home orders. Many
individuals could not return to their homes, many S11. Ans.(b)
stuck in foreign lands and many in solitude. As a Sol. Among the given options, ‘dim’ is the most
result, the run of digital devices has increased appropriate antonym of the highlighted word.
manifold across the globe. Irrespective of age, people Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice. The
are pushed to rely on digital platforms. Education, word ‘bright’ means giving out or reflecting much
shopping, working, meeting, entertaining and light; shining. While ‘dim’ means (of a light, colour,
socializing suddenly leaped from offline to online.” or illuminated object) not shining brightly or
clearly.
(a) Lucid- expressed clearly; easy to understand. S17. Ans.(b)
(c) Glare- stare in an angry or fierce way. Sol. The correct sequence is BAC. Therefore the
(d) Canny- having or showing shrewdness and good correct sentence will be “The additional budget for
judgement. MGNREGA was among the most keenly awaited, as
(e) Ablaze- filled with anger or another strong pending payments for wages have threatened to
emotion. cripple implementation of the scheme.”
S12. Ans.(c) S18. Ans.(c)

Sol. Among the given options, statement (c) best Sol. The correct sequence is CAB. Therefore the
illustrates the meaning of the highlighted phrase. correct sentence will be “The cyclone will briefly
Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice. The gain in strength and become a severe cyclonic
phrase “blessing in disguise” means an apparent storm, but is unlikely to make a conventional
misfortune that eventually has good results. landfall.
S13. Ans.(e) S19. Ans.(e)

Sol. All of the given words are similar in meaning to Sol. Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence
the highlighted word. Hence, option (e) is the right as it best presents the theme of the given paragraph
answer choice. The word ‘shallow’ means not which is the history of the introduction of Serbian
exhibiting, requiring, or capable of serious thought. Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions the
(a) superficial- lacking depth of character or inauguration of the first rail line. Further, sentence
understanding. (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it further
(b) frivolous- not having any serious purpose or
describes the location of part of the rail line which
value.
has already been described in statement (E). Now,
(c) trivial- of little value or importance.
sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) as it
further describes the transformation of the type of
S14. Ans.(c)
train engine later. Further, sentence (A) will be
Sol. The correct sequence is CBA. Therefore, the
followed by sentence (B) because it states the
correct sentence will be” As the modern lifestyle
benefits of the train invention to the country’s
continues to evolve; a phenomenon that has been
economic development. And it is given that
further accelerated during the pandemic, is that of
sentence (F) will be the last sentence Therefore, the
‘staying at home.’”
correct rearrangement of the given sentences
would be “CEDABF”.
S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct sequence is BAC. Therefore the
S20. Ans.(d)
correct sentence will be ‘The death of five elephants
Sol. Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence
has again highlighted the gaps in efforts to reduce
man-animal conflicts in the country. as it best presents the theme of the given paragraph
which is the history of the introduction of Serbian
S16. Ans.(a) Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions the
Sol. The correct sequence is ACB. Therefore the inauguration of the first rail line. Further, sentence
correct sentence will be “The leap of artificial (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it further
intelligence in the education sector has helped describes the location of part of the rail line which
students and educators. has already been described in statement (E). Now,
further describes the transformation of the type of S23. Ans.(a)
train engine later. Further, sentence (A) will be Sol. Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence
followed by sentence (B) because it states the as it best presents the theme of the given paragraph
benefits of the train invention to the country’s which is the history of the introduction of Serbian
economic development. And it is given that Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions the
sentence (F) will be the last sentence Therefore, the inauguration of the first rail line. Further, sentence
correct rearrangement of the given sentences (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it further
would be “CEDABF”. describes the location of part of the rail line which
has already been described in statement (E). Now,
S21. Ans.(c) sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) as it
Sol. Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence further describes the transformation of the type of
as it best presents the theme of the given paragraph train engine later. Further, sentence (A) will be
followed by sentence (B) because it states the
Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions
the inauguration of the first rail line. Further,
sentence (E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it economic development. And it is given that
further describes the location of part of the rail line sentence (F) will be the last sentence Therefore, the
which has already been described in statement (E). correct rearrangement of the given sentences
Now, sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) would be “CEDABF”.
as it further describes the transformation of the
type of train engine later. Further, sentence (A) will S24. Ans.(d)
be followed by sentence (B) because it states the Sol. The highlighted phrase in the given sentence is
incorrect. Because noun ‘incomes’ is plural so we
sentence (F) will be the last sentence Therefore, the need plural verb ‘have’ here therefore option (b) is
correct rearrangement of the given sentences also incorrect. Option (a) is incorrect because we
would be “CEDABF”. use ‘who’ as relative pronoun for living beings.
Option (c) ‘was been’ is grammatically incorrect.
S22. Ans.(b) Therefore option (d) is correct choice.
Sol. Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence
as it best presents the theme of the given paragraph S25. Ans.(a)
Sol. The highlighted phrase in the given sentence is
Railways. The next sentence is (E) as it mentions the
incorrect. The correct replacement should be “will
inauguration of the first rail line. Further, sentence
(E) will be followed by sentence (D) as it further visit”. The sentence is in simple future tense.
describes the location of part of the rail line which Therefore, the structure should be Subject+ will +
has already been described in statement (E). Now, V1.
further describes the transformation of the type of S26. Ans.(d)
train engine later. Further, sentence (A) will be Sol. When a phrase comes between the subject and
followed by sentence (B) because it states the the verb, remember that the verb still agrees with
the subject, not the noun or pronoun in the phrase
sentence (F) will be the last sentence Therefore, the following the subject of the sentence. Since the
correct rearrangement of the given sentences subject “manager” is singular, the verb following
would be “CEDABF”. should also be singular i.e., ‘is’.

S27. Ans.(a) S33. Ans.(e)
Sol. ‘Diabetes’ is a non-countable noun and all Sol. Pattern of series –
Noncount nouns take a singular verb. Thus, ‘affect’ Subtraction of consecutive prime number –
should be replaced by ‘affects’. 580 −23 = 557
557 −29 = 528
528 − 31 = 497
S28. Ans.(b)
497 −37 = 460
Sol. The error lies in part (B) of the sentence. We
460 − 41= 419
invert the subject and verb if not + a prepositional
phrase or a clause is in the initial position. The S34. Ans.(d)
correct phrase should be “ did I think I would be”. Sol. Pattern of series –
81 – 32 = 72
S29. Ans.(e) 72 + 43 = 136
Sol. Future Perfect Tense is used to refer to an 136 – 52 = 111
action, which would be completed at a time later on. 111 + 63 = 327
327 – 72 = 278
Since the sentence correctly follows the structure of
future perfect tense, there is no error in it.
S35. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pattern of series –
S30. Ans.(d)
Sol. When two events of past are mentioned. The
event that occurred earlier will be in past perfect
tense, while later event should follow the structure
of simple past tense. Therefore, ‘had’ should be S36. Ans.(c)
3
eliminated in part (D) of the sentence. Sol. Total earning of shop D = (90 × 2 × 5 × 75) +
2
(90 × 2 × 5 × 30)
S31. Ans.(a) = 8100 + 2160 = 10260 Rs.
8 × 1.5 = 12 S37. Ans.(d)
1
12 × 2.5 = 30 Sol. Total books sold by shop B = 60 × 2 × 4 = 30
30 × 3.5 = 105 3
Total pens sold by shop C = 75 × 2 × 5 = 90
105 × 4.5 = 472.5 90−30 2
Required percentage = × 100 = 66 3 %
472.5 × 5.5 = 2598.75 90
S38. Ans.(e)
S32. Ans.(d) 4
Sol. Total books sold by shop A = 100 × 2 × 5 = 160
2
9 × 2 + 1= 19 Total books sold by shop C = 75 × 2 × 5 = 60
19 × 2 + 1 = 39 Average number of books sold by shop A & C
160+60
39 × 2 + 1 = 79 = = 110
2
79 × 2 + 1 = 159 3
Total pens sold by shop B = 60 × 2 × 4 = 90
159 × 2 + 1 = 319
Required difference = 110 – 90 = 20

S39. Ans.(b) I. 𝑦 2 + 7𝑦 + 8𝑦 + 56 = 0
Sol. Total pens sold by shop X 𝑦 (𝑦 + 7 ) + 8(𝑦 + 7) = 0
1 150
=100 × 2 × 5 × 100 = 60 (𝑦 + 7)(𝑦 + 8) = 0
2
𝑦 = −7, −8
Total books sold by shop X = 75 × 2 × − 20 = 40 So, 𝑥 ≥ 𝑦
5
60−40
Required percentage = × 100 = 50%
40
S44. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. 𝑥 2 − 17𝑥 + 13𝑥 − 221 = 0
S40. Ans.(b) 𝑥(𝑥 − 17) + 13(𝑥 − 17) = 0
1
Sol. Total pens sold by shop A = 100 × 2 × 5 = 40 (𝑥 − 17)(𝑥 + 13) = 0
2
Total books sold by shop C = 75 × 2 × 5 = 60 𝑥 = −13, 17
II. 𝑦 2 − 12𝑦 + 11𝑦 − 132 = 0
Required ratio = 40 : 60 = 2 : 3 y(𝑦 − 12) + 11(𝑦 − 12) = 0
(𝑦 − 12)(𝑦 + 11) = 0
S41. Ans.(d) 𝑦 = −11, 12
Sol. I. 𝑥 2 + 8𝑥 − 5𝑥 − 40 = 0 So, no relation can be established
𝑥 (𝑥 + 8) − 5 (𝑥 + 8) = 0
(𝑥 + 8)(𝑥 − 5) = 0 S45. Ans.(b)
𝑥 = −8, 5 Sol. I. 𝑥 2 − 7𝑥 − 6𝑥 + 42 = 0
II. 𝑦 2 − 11𝑦 + 30 = 0 x(x – 7) −6(x – 7) = 0
𝑦 2 − 6𝑦 − 5𝑦 + 30 = 0 (x-7) (x-6) = 0
𝑦 (𝑦 − 6) − 5 (𝑦 − 6) = 0 x = 6, 7
(𝑦 − 6)(𝑦 − 5) = 0 II. 𝑦 2 − 9𝑦 − 8𝑦 + 72 = 0
y(y – 9) − 8(y – 9) = 0
𝑦 = 5, 6
(y-8) (y-9) =0
So, 𝑦 ≥ 𝑥
y = 8, 9
clearly, x < y
S42. Ans.(e)
Sol. I. 2𝑥 2 + 10𝑥 − 3𝑥 − 15 = 0 S46. Ans.(e)
2𝑥(𝑥 + 5) − 3(𝑥 + 5) = 0 Sol. Profit ratio of Jaya, Shivani & Riya = (5000
(𝑥 + 5)(2𝑥 − 3) = 0 × 6) ∶ (6000 × 12): (3000 × 6)
3
𝑥 = −5, 2 = 5 : 12 : 3
II. 3𝑦 2 + 9𝑦 − 4𝑦 − 12 = 0 ATQ –
5 – 3 = 200
3𝑦(𝑦 + 3) − 4(𝑦 + 3) = 0
1 = 100 Rs.
(𝑦 + 3)(3𝑦 − 4) = 0
4
So, 12 = 1200 Rs.
𝑦 = −3, 3
So, no relation can be established. S47. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let radius of cylinder = 7x
S43. Ans.(c) And, height of cylinder = 6x
Sol. II. 2𝑥 2 + 26𝑥 + 84 = 0 ATQ –
22
𝑥 2 + 13𝑥 + 42 = 0 2 × 7 × 7𝑥 × 6𝑥 = 1056
𝑥 2 + 6𝑥 + 7𝑥 + 42 = 0 x = 2 cm
22
𝑥 (𝑥 + 6) + 7 (𝑥 + 6) = 0 Total surface area of cylinder = 2 × 7 × 14 × (12 +
(𝑥 + 6)(𝑥 + 7) = 0 14) = 2288 cm2
𝑥 = −6, −7
S48. Ans.(b) S51. Ans.(e)
Sol. Let monthly income of Ram = 100x Sol. Total milk in mixture initially = 95 × 19 =
15
20
So, total amount spends on Rent = 100x × 100 = 20𝑥 75 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠
10 4
Total amount spends on food = (100x – 20x) × = Total water in mixture initially = 95 × = 20 𝑙𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑠
100 19
8𝑥 ATQ –
Total amount spends on travel = (100x – 20x) 75−𝑋×
15
3
30 4
19
=2
× 100 = 24𝑥 20−𝑋× +18
19
2 X = 38 liters
Amount he gives to his mother = (100x – 20x) × 5 =
32𝑥 S52. Ans.(a)
ATQ – Sol. Let speed of boat in still water and speed of
32x – 24x = 11200 stream be x km/hr and y km/hr respectively
x = 1400 (𝑥+𝑦) 5
=3
So, monthly income of Ram = 140000 Rs. (𝑥−𝑦)
3x + 3y = 5x – 5y
S49. Ans.(b) 2x = 8y
Sol. Let speed of car = 10x km/hr x:y=4:1
90 ATQ
So, speed of bike = 10x × 100 = 9𝑥 km/hr
Let speed of boat in still water = 4s km/hr
ATQ – And speed of stream = s km/hr
300 180
− =2 30
=5
10𝑥 9𝑥
3𝑠
x=5 s = 2 km/hr
Speed of bike = 45 km/hr 40
Required time = (5×2) = 4 hours
S50. Ans.(b) Alternate method

𝑢𝑝𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑚 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑 3𝑥
Sol. Let present age of Aman & David be 2s and 5s 𝑑𝑜𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑚 𝑠𝑝𝑒𝑒𝑑
= 5𝑥
respectively 30
Upstream speed of boat= = 6𝑘𝑚 /ℎ𝑟
ATQ – 5
(2s + 10) + (5s + 10) = 69 3x=6=> x=2

7s = 49 Downstream speed= 5x= 5×2= 10km /hr
40
s = 7 years Time taken by boat in downstream= 10 = 4 ℎ𝑟𝑠
Required difference = (5 -2) × 7 = 21 years
S53. Ans.(e)
9×3 8×4
Sol. Required sum = 8000 × 100 + 8000 × 100
= 2160 + 2560 = Rs 4720
S54. Ans.(d)
Sol. Time taken by A to complete the whole work =
28 days.
Time taken by B to complete the whole work = 12
7
× 2 = 42 days.
Let the efficiency of C = x units/day
ATQ, Total monthly library fee = 600 × 80 + 200 × 60
1 1 = 48000 + 12000
12 (28 + 42) + 3𝑥 = 1
2 = 𝑅𝑠. 60000
𝑥= unit/day.
21
21
Required time = = 10.5 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠. S59. Ans.(a)
2
Sol. Arts students in Western zone = (4000 ×
S55. Ans.(a) 30 7
)×5
Sol. Let cost price of table = 100a 100
120 = 1680
So, selling price of table = 100a × 100 = 120𝑎
Commerce students in Southern zone = (4000 ×
And cost price of chair = 120a
15
125
Then, selling price of chair = 120a x 100 = 150𝑎 ) − 430
100
ATQ – = 170
(120a + 150a) - (100a + 120a) = 400 Required difference = 1680 – 170
a = 8 Rs. = 1510
So, selling price of both articles together = (120
× 8 + 150 × 8) = 2160 Rs. S60. Ans.(e)
S56. Ans.(b) Sol. Commerce students in Eastern Zone = (4000 ×
Sol. Commerce students in Northern zone = 10
) − 310
25 100
(4000 × ) − 400 = 90
100
= 600 Required ratio = 750 : 90
Total students in Southern zone = (4000 × 100 )
15 = 25 : 3
= 600
600−600 Solutions (61-65):
Required % = × 100
600 Total number of bag sold by A, B, C → 1080
=0 Let total bag sold by shop B be 4x.
Shop A sold → 5x (paper + fabric) bag.
S57. Ans.(e) Shop B sold equal no. of paper and fabric bag =
Sol. Commerce students in Western zone = (4000 × No. of paper bag sold by shop B = 2x
30 No. of fabric bag sold by shop B = 2x.
) − 750 2𝑥
100 No. of fabric bag sold by A = =x
2
= 450
Number of fabric bag sold by C = 0.5x
Science students in Northern zone, Eastern zone 50
and Southern zone = 400 + 310 + 430 Number of paper bag sold by C = 𝑥 × 100 = 0.5𝑥
= 1140 ATQ.
Required difference = 1140 – 450 4𝑥 + 𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 2𝑥 + 0.5𝑥 + 0.5𝑥 = 1080
= 690 𝑥 = 108
Shop Paper Fabric Total
S58. Ans.(a) A 432 108 540
Sol. B 216 216 432
Commerce students in Central zone C 54 54 108
=
4000×20
− 600 = 200 Total 702 378 1080
100

S61. Ans.(a) S73. Ans.(e)
Sol. Required ratio =
216 4
=1 Sol.
54
S62. Ans.(d)
108−54
Sol. Required percentage = × 100
54
S74. Ans.(d)
= 100%
Sol.
S63. Ans.(b)
702 378
Sol. Required difference = −
3 3
= 108
S64. Ans.(d) Solutions (75-78):

Sol. Required difference = (216 + 54) − (108 + Bangalore Pune Mumbai
54) B P H
= 270 − 162 I J T
= 108 L K
M
Sol. Required sum = 108 × 15 + 432 × 10 S76. Ans.(d)
= 𝑅𝑠. 5940 S77. Ans.(b)
S78. Ans.(c)
Solutions (66-70): Solutions (79-81):
S79. Ans.(a)
S80. Ans.(d)
S67. Ans.(c)
S68. Ans.(a) S82. Ans.(a)
S69. Ans.(e) Sol. I. A > X (True) II. Q > N (False)
S70. Ans.(d)
S71. Ans.(d) S83. Ans.(c)
Sol. I. M > G (False) II. M = H (False)
S72. Ans.(a)
S84. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Sol. I. L < F (False) II. C > D (True)
S85. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. N > O (True) II. A > O (False)

Solutions (86-90):
Floor Flat-A Flat-B S92. Ans.(d)
3 U-Latvia Q-Serbia S93. Ans.(c)
2 P-Russia T-Kosovo S94. Ans.(b)
1 S-Norway R-Greece Solutions (95-99):
S86. Ans.(c)
S87. Ans.(a)
S88. Ans.(d)
S89. Ans.(e) S95. Ans.(a)
S90. Ans.(b) S96. Ans.(c)
S98. Ans.(b)
Solutions (92-94): S99. Ans.(a)
S100. Ans.(d)
Sol.

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Question Paper - 2022
Directions (1-8): Read the given passage and answer the following questions based on that.
Home is where the heart is, or so goes the adage. But the human heart did not always crave a still hearth.
In fact, before the emergence of agrarian societies, the early humans journeyed along the roads taken by
their prey — hunter-gatherer societies were mobile and the road was their life. But with the rise of
agrarianism, humans learnt to put down their roots and a life of journeys became something to be frowned
upon. Yet, vestiges of the wandering spirit persist. In the year, 2000, Herman and Candelaria Zapp set out
in a car from Buenos Aires to travel the world. The Zapps’ home is the road — literally and proverbially.
They have had four children in different countries, and in an era of strict visa regimes and rising insularity,
managed to treat borders as what they truly are — arbitrary and artificial lines on a map. The world was a
different place when the Zapps set out — there were no smartphones, the internet was in its infancy, a site
of knowledge and hope rather than disinformation and division, the twin towers towered over New York,
and Russia was a diminutive shell stripped of its Soviet grandeur. It is tempting to imagine that the Zapps
__________________ Kishore Kumar’s immortal song, “Musafir hoon yaaron, na ghar hai na thikana”, as they
covered great distances across a changing world.
The Zapps, interestingly, are not an anomaly. Latest estimates show that over one million Americans live
permanently in recreational vehicles with no permanent address. Many are retired, but many others work
part of the year, just long enough to keep them going for a few months or so. It is easy to romanticize the
lifestyle and the idea of freedom that it brings. But in most countries, people without a stationary home are
subjected to intense legal scrutiny. Law enforcement institutions are even prejudiced against specific
communities. For example, in the United States of America, there are legislations that make it illegal to sit
on the sidewalk, to camp or sleep anywhere in a downtown area or to hang around in a public place without
an apparent purpose. The intent seems to encourage sanitization of space of some kinds of human
presences. These laws are not unique to the US. Anti-vagrancy laws have existed for hundreds of years —
think of the persecution of gypsies across Europe. In the old United Kingdom, vagrants could be put in jail,
sold as slaves, or sometimes even killed for no other reason than wandering. Colonial India, too, had
witnessed the purge of nomadic communities, most notably under the guise of the campaign against
thuggees.
Q1. According to the passage, what changes has human society seen from the pre-agrarian era to the
present?
(a) Modern humans have diverged their dependency from
agriculture, unlike their primitive ancestor whose livelihood was
solely based on that
(b) From being a hunter-gatherer nomad society, it evolved into a
settled agrarian society
(c) The immense technological advancement in recent years makes it
possible to envisage services that were seen as utopian in pre-
agrarian era
(d) All of these
(e) None of these

Q2. What was NOT the global situation when the Zapps embarked on their journey?
(a) The world was witnessing the inception of the internet
(b) The twin towers were standing tall in New York
(c) Post dissolution of Soviet Union, Russia was still in its timid state.
(d) The world was going through an acute economic crisis due to surge in oil prices.
(e) None of these
Q3. How do the itinerant Americans sustain their lives?

(a) Few of them are retired and thus continued their rest of the lives by travelling on their recreational
vehicles
(b) Some of them are engaged in work for a few months of a year and use the rest for traveling
(c) Prominent travel companies and independent organisations sponsor those people who actively travel
(d) Only (a) and (b)
(e) Only (b) and (c)
Q4. How are the countries treating the new age wanderer?
(a) They are subject to legal scrutiny in many countries because of their lack of possession of land.
(b) Many countries assess their livelihood and put their earnings on the tax slab.
(c) Many law enforcement agencies are biased towards these travelers
(d) Only (a) and (c)
(e) All of these
Q5. Which of the following is FALSE according to the data given in the passage?
(a) Thuggees are predominantly nomadic people of colonial India
(b) Germany has a prohibition law for sitting on the sidewalks.
(c) UK has criminalized wandering, to the extent of giving out death sentences.
(d) The Zapps couple had started off from Buenos Aires in the year 2000.
(e) none of these
Q6. Which of the following words can fit into the blank given in the passage?
(a) hummed
(b) iterated
(c) cherished
(d) longed
(e) enunciated
Q7. Which word from among the following words most closely represents the antonym of the highlighted
word “infancy” keeping in consideration its intended meaning in the passage?
(a) service
(b) apprehension
(c) perseverance
(d) maturity
(e) intelligence

Q8. Choose the word from among the following which is most similar in meaning to the highlighted word
“insularity” in accordance with its meaning in the given text.
(a) irritation
(b) inflexibility
(c) disbelief
(d) freedom
(e) awareness
Directions (9-14): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These
numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five options are given. Find out the appropriate
word which fits the blank appropriately.
Filmmaking research is a form of practice research that ______________ (9) into production practices,
techniques, modes and genres used in cinema, television and online. The outputs are films that may
include__________________ (10), documentary and hybrid forms. Filmmaking research pushes at the
boundaries of traditional filmmaking and traditional research methods by adopting distinct ____________
(11) to professional and critical practices. This is in contrast to typical industry research where commercial
pressures dominate. There have been _____________ (12) success stories that demonstrate this potential.
Filmmaking research is a developing area and films produced within the academy are growing in number.
In both the UK and Australia, this research has tended to _______________(13) in one of two disciplines,
creative arts (fine art, experimental, video art) or media, communication and film studies (fiction film,
documentary). This has made it fragmented, sometimes difficult to identify and subject to different forms
of support and____________________ (14). Researchers come from a range of backgrounds, many moving from
industry into academia seeking to reframe their work within Higher Education.
Q9. (a) probes

(b) enquires
(c) inquests
(d) surveys
(e) investigate
Q10. (a) friction

(b) segregation
(c) accede
(d) fiction
(e) purport
Q11. (a) regulations

(b) adversaries
(c) approaches
(d) assistances
(e) intervals

Q12. (a) expressed
(b) threatening
(c) overlooked
(d) mocking
(e) spectacular
Q13. (a) reside

(b) accommodate
(c) occupy
(d) fuller
(e) lament
Q14. (a) ample

(b) wither
(c) engagement
(d) enrollments
(e) alliance
Directions (15): A word has been given below, and following it are provided three sentences which use
the word. Mark the correct option from the options given below which indicates the sentence or
combination of sentences with correct usage of the word.
Q15. pore
(i) After I was given the manuscript for my first title role in the play, I began to pore over the script for
hours.
(ii) It is pore that people show identification before being allowed to board a commercial aircraft.
(iii) Before I sign the contract, I decided it would be best for me to pore through it so that the job would
run smoothly.
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
(e) All of these
Directions (16-20): Given below are five sentences, each of which has been jumbled up in an order which
makes the text incoherent. Mark the option which gives the meaningful rearrangement of the parts of the
sentence as the answer.
Q16. The property, they (A) / had to undergo a (B) / in order to purchase (C) / lengthy application process
(D).
(a) BDAC
(b) DACB
(c) ADBC
(d) CABD

Q17. Constituted the battlefields (A) / of World War Two, encompassing (B) / much of the globe (C) / many
conflicts and fronts (D).
(a) DABC
(b) BACD
(c) ADCB
(d) BDCA
Q18. We received a package (A) / not notice the mail (B) / yesterday but did (C) /until early this morning
(D).
(a) DCBA
(b) BDAC
(c) ACBD
(d) CADB
Q19. The venomous black widow (A) / are often killed (B) / because they resemble (C) / perfectly harmless
spiders (D).
(a) BCDA
(b) DBCA
(c) ADCB
(d) CABD
Q20. Look for new jobs (A) / were rigid and uncompromising, (B) / leaving the workers to (C)/ many of
the company’s rules (D).
(a) CDBA
(b) ACBD
(c) DBCA
(d) CABD
Directions (21-25): Given below are five sentences, with four words highlighted in each sentence. One of
these words may be the misspelt form of a word, making the sentence contextually incoherent. Mark the
option which depicts the corresponding letter to the incorrectly spelled word, or mark option (e) if there
is none.
Q21. Pat didn’t mean to loose (A) her mother’s favourite (B) bracelet but hasn’t been able to locate (C) it
since she wore (D) it last week.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No spelling errors

Q22. The unweary (A) gamblers lost all their (B) money when they
carelessly (C) put all their chips on the wrong (D) tile.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q23. Taking a position as curator (A) at the museum (B), the woman
hoped to spread (C) her love for sports memorablia (D) to others.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q24. As my father’s only surviving (A) sister, my aunt took great (B) care of my aging (C) grandparents
until they both passed away recently (D).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Q25. Because of technical (A) difficulties (B), the sound of the music floctuated (C) during the concert (D).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Directions (26-30): Which of the phrase/ word from the options (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below each
sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the sentence grammatically correct? If
the sentence is correct as it is, mark (e) i.e., “No replacement required” as the answer.
Q26. Jeff was given a medal of honor in recognition by the twenty-five years he spent fighting for his
country.
(a) of recognition by
(b) in recognition of
(c) by recognition of
(d) in recognition at
(e) No correction required

Q27. INS Vikrant is a unique reflection of India becoming self-reliance.
(a) becomes self-reliant
(b) became self-reliant
(c) become self-reliance
(d) becoming self-reliant
(e) No replacement required
Q28. There have been a steady spike in cases of cybercrime in the last five years.
(a) has been a stead
(b) has been a steady
(c) has been a steadily
(d) has a steady
Q29. It is vital that every Indian takes a pledge to eliminate discrimination and enable equity.
(a) take a pledge to eliminate
(b) took a pledge to eliminate
(c) takes a pledges to eliminate
(d) take a pledge to elimination
Q30. He was worried that the anger would erupt and led to a law-and-order situation.
(a) would erupts and lead
(b) would erupt and lead
(c) would erupted and led
(d) would erupt and leads
Direction (31 – 35): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following number series.
Q31. 50, 75, 175, 400, 800, ?

(a) 1435
(b) 1425
(c) 1415
(d) 1405
(e) 1375
Q32. 8, 18, 38, 78, ?, 318

(a) 178
(b) 168
(c) 154
(d) 148
(e) 158

Q33. 41, ?, 53, 64, 77, 94
(a) 48
(b) 46
(c) 43
(d) 49
(e) 41
Q34. 215, ?, 89, 47, 19, 5

(a) 136
(b) 139
(c) 143
(d) 145
(e) 141
Q35. 1, 9, 36, 100, 225, ?

(a) 441
(b) 443
(c) 447
(d) 431
(e) 451
Direction (36 – 40); Line graph given below shows total number of boats and ships manufactured by four
different companies in 2020 and it also show total number of ships manufactured by these four companies.
Read the line graph carefully and answer the questions.
250
200
150
100
50
0
A B C D
total number of (boats + Ships) manufactured
total number of ships manufactured

2
Q36. If 3rd of total boats manufactured by B are used by general people and rest used by fishermen, then
find total boats used by fishermen are what percent of total ships manufactured by A?
(a) 30%
(b) 33.33%
(c) 40%
(d) 37.5%
(e) 50%
Q37. If total number of boats and ships manufactured by A in 2021 is 40% more than that of in year 2020
and total number of ships manufactured by A in 2021 is equal to that of in 2020, then find the total number
of boats manufactured by A in 2021?
(a) 115
(b) 105
(c) 75
(d) 85
(e) 120
Q38. Find the ratio of total boats manufactured by C & D together to total ships manufactured by B & C
together?
(a) 6 : 7
(b) 6 : 5
(c) 5 : 4
(d) 3 : 4
(e) 3 : 5
Q39. If manufacturing cost of each boat for company D is Rs. 4600, then find the total cost (in Rs.) of all
boats manufactured by D?
(a) 240000
(b) 236000
(c) 233000
(d) 220000
(e) 230000
Q40. Total boats and ships manufactured by A & B together is what percent more than total boats
manufactured by A & D together?
(a) 300%
(b) 175%
(c) 250%
(d) 400%
(e) 350%

Q41. Six years ago, sum of age of Amit and Den is 20 years. Mohit is six years younger than Amit and the
average of present age of Mohit and Den is 13 years. Find the present age of Den?
(a) 16 years
(b) Can’t determined
(c) 20 years
(d) 14 years
(e) 24 years
Q42. The perimeter of semicircle is 36 cm and the radius of the semicircle is equal to the breath of a
rectangle. If area of rectangle is 147 cm2, then find the length of rectangle?
(a) 10.5 cm
(b) 28 cm
(c) 14 cm
(d) 21 cm
(e) 35 cm
Q43. Sum of six consecutive odd numbers is 150 more than average of these six numbers. Find the sum of
highest and lowest number?
(a) 60
(b) 50
(c) 70
(d) 45
(e) 55
Q44. P and Q started a business by investing Rs. X and Rs. (X + 100) respectively. After three months, P
withdrew 40% of his initial investment. If at the end of year, P got Rs. 210 as profit share out of total profit
of Rs. 530, then find the value of X?
(a) 1750
(b) 1250
(c) 2500
(d) 1500
(e) 2000
Q45. A man invested Rs. P on simple interest at 18% p.a. for three years and received Rs. (0.5P + 100) as
interest. If man invested Rs. (P + 3500) on compound interest at 10% p.a. for two years, then find amount
gets by man?
(a) 7240 Rs.
(b) 7260 Rs.
(c) 7280 Rs.
(d) 7460 Rs.
(e) 7040 Rs.

Q46. Pipe A can fill a tank in 4 hours and pipe B can fill the same tank in 6 hours. If A, B & pipe C can together
fill the same tank in 3 hours, then find time taken by pipe C to empty the tank?
(a) 24 hours
(b) 12 hours
(c) 16 hours
(d) 8 hours
(e) 18 hours
Q47. The ratio of marked price to selling price of an article is 5 : 3 and shopkeeper gets a profit of 40%. If
shopkeeper sells the article at its marked price, then the difference between cost price and marked price
of article is Rs. 400. Find the cost price of the article?
(a) 540 Rs.
(b) 480 Rs.
(c) 600 Rs.
(d) 300 Rs.
(e) 360 Rs.
Q48. A vessel contains mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 3. If 50 liter of milk is added into the
mixture, then the quantity of milk becomes 80% of the resulting mixture. Find the initial quantity of milk
in the mixture?
(a) 112 liters
(b) 105 liters
(c) 84 liters
(d) 70 liters
(e) 56 liters
Q49. Ram alone can complete a work in 40 days. If Ram and Shayam together take 37.5% less time than
Ram to complete the same work, then find in how many days Shayam alone can complete the work?
2
(a) 56 3 days
(b) 58 days
(c) 50 days
2
(d) 66 3 days
1
(e) 33 3 days
Q50. Arun spent 60% of his monthly salary on accommodation, 15%

of remaining salary on entertainment and remaining salary he saved.
If the difference of amount spent on accommodation and his saving is
Rs 3510, then find his monthly salary?
(a) Rs 12,500
(b) Rs 13,500
(c) Rs 12,800
(d) Rs 14,000
(e) Rs 15,000

Q51. The length of train A is half of the length of train B and the ratio of speed of train A to B is 4 : 3. If train
A & B can cross 100 meters long platform in 5 sec. and 10 sec. respectively, then find the length (in meters)
of train B?
(a) 200
(b) 180
(c) 140
(d) 240
(e) 120
Q52. The ratio of speed of boat in downstream to that of in upstream is 4 : 1 and total time taken by boat
to cover a certain distance in downstream and upstream together is 10 hours. Find the time taken by boat
to cover the same distance in still water?
(a) 3 hours and 24 minutes
(b) 3 hours and 12 minutes
(c) 3 hours and 10 minutes
(d) 3 hours and 15 minutes
(e) 3 hours and 20 minutes
Direction (53 – 65): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following questions.
Q53. 64% 𝑜𝑓 2500 + 75% 𝑜𝑓 1600 = ? × 112

(a) 28
(b) 21
(c) 24
(d) 32
(e) 25
Q54. 55% of 1400 + ?2 +282= (12)3

(a) 28
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 36
(e) 16
7.5% 𝑜𝑓 7200
Q55. + 450= 15 % of 3200
?
(a) 15
(b) 24
(c) 20
(d) 18
(e) 12

Q56. ?2 + 224 – 96 = 85% 𝑜𝑓 280 + 34
(a) 18
(b) 12
(c) 16
(d) 14
(e) 8
Q57. √1521 + (21)2 − 18 × 5 = 5 × ?

(a) 80
(b) 78
(c) 64
(d) 70
(e) 96
Q58. ? × 7 + 337 = (5)3 + 436

(a) 36
(b) 44
(c) 48
(d) 45
(e) 32
Q59. ?÷ 6 + (12)2 − √2304 = (14)2

(a) 1100
(b) 400
(c) 600
(d) 900
(e) 1500
Q60. (?× 48) ÷ 54 + 82 = 96

(a) 45
(b) 36
(c) 72
(d) 54
(e) 27
1 2 3 3
Q61. 2 3 + 5 3 − 3 4 = ? − 8 4
(a) 14
(b) 13
(c) 12
(d) 15
(e) 16

25 ×36
Q62. 92 ×42 + 7 = (? )2
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 6
(e) 3
Q63. 9097÷ 11 ÷ 10 = ? +15.7

(a) 87
(b) 77
(c) 67
(d) 57
(e) 47
Q64. 15×12-10×11 = -15×17 + ?

(a) 330
(b) 345
(c) 335
(d) 325
(e) 365
Q65. 35×5 + 19 × 7 + ? = (20)²

(a) 95
(b) 103
(c) 97
(d) 92
(e) 90
Q66. Find the odd one out?

(a) DGJE
(b) KNQL
(c) UXZU
(d) CFID
(e) MPSN
Direction (67-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
A certain number of persons sit in a row and all of them face towards the north. Q sits second to the right
of M. Two persons sit between J and Q. W sits second to the right of J and sits third from the extreme right
end. Five persons sit between W and S. The number of persons sits to the left of S is same as the number of
persons sits to the right of W. K is the only neighbour of P. K sits to the right of J.

Q67. How many persons sit in the row?
(a) 13
(b) 11
(c) 10
(d) 15
(e) 17
Q68. What is the position of Q with respect to W?

(a) Fourth to the left
(b) Fifth to the right
(c) Second to the right
(d) Fifth to the left
(e) Third to the left
Q69. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?

I. P sits at the extreme right end
II. More than three persons sit to the left of Q
III. M sits adjacent to S
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Only I
(d) Both I and III
(e) Only III
Q70. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Who among the following
does not belong to the group?
(a) M
(b) W
(c) P
(d) Q
(e) K
Directions (71-73): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Give answer.
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true
Q71. Statements: Q≥W>Y=E≤U<P>S≤T

Conclusions I: Y<P II: W>S

Q72. Statements: M≤B>H=A≥D<L=C
Conclusions I: H>L II: A≤C
Q73. Statements: K>M≤Z<E≥V=X<C

Conclusions I: E≥C II: V<M
Directions (74-78): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a square table such that four persons sit at corner and the
remaining four sit at the middle of the sides of the table but not necessarily in the same order. The persons
sit at the corner face towards the center of the table and the persons sit at the middle of the side face away
from the center of the table.
E sits second to the right of B. Two persons sit between B and H. F sits to the immediate right of H. The
number of persons sits between H and D is same as the number of persons sits between D and G. D sits at
the corner of the table. A sits adjacent to D.
Q74. Who among the following sits third to the left of C?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) H
Q75. How many persons sit between E and H when counts to the left of H?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) None
(e) More than three
Q76. What is the position of C with respect to G?

(a) Second to the right
(b) Second to the left
(c) Immediate left
(d) Third to the right
(e) None of these
Q77. Which among the following statement(s) is/are not true?

(a) A sits to the immediate left of H
(b) Three persons sit between D and C
(c) E sits opposite to A
(d) B sits at the corner of the table
(e) All are true

Q78. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Who among the following
does not belong to the group?
(a) E
(b) F
(c) D
(d) A
(e) B
Directions (79-82): Study the following number series carefully and answer the questions given below:
984637 294152591436918294 5761
Q79. How many prime numbers are in the above series each of which is immediately preceded by an even
number and immediately followed by odd number?
(a) Three
(b) Five
(c) Four
(d) Six
(e) More than six
Q80. What is the sum of the odd numbers which are immediately followed by the number which is multiple
of 3?
(a) 11
(b) 15
(c) 17
(d) 13
(e) 19
Q81. Which among the following number is 9th to the left of the number which is 7th from the right end?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 9
(d) 5
(e) 8
Q82. How many even numbers are between the numbers which are 9 th from the right end and 3rd from the
left end?
(a) Six
(b) Five
(c) Four
(d) Three
(e) Two

Q83. If we form a four-letter meaningful word with 1st, 5th, 6th and 8thletter from the left end of the word
‘’CRITERIA” (Using each letter once), then what would be the third letter of that meaningful word? If no
meaningful word is formed, then mark the answer as X. If more than one meaningful word is formed then
mark the answer as Z.
(a) C
(b) R
(c) A
(d) Z
(e) X
Directions (84-88): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons have different designations i.e. Vice Chancellor (VC), Director (DR), Director of nursing (DN),
Head of Department (HOD), Principal, Professor and Assistant professor in a company. The order of
seniority is the same as given above i.e. Vice Chancellor (VC) is the senior-most designation and Assistant
professor is the junior-most designation.
At most two persons are senior to R. Two designations gap between R and V who is not a professor. One
designation gap between P and T and both of them are senior to V. There are as many persons junior to P
as senior to U. S is junior to Q.
Q84. How many persons are senior to Q?

(a) Three
(b) One
(c) Four
(d) Two
(e) None
Q85.Who among the following is designated as Principal?

(a) P
(b) Q
(c) T
(d) V
(e) S
Q86. The number of persons designated between R and U is same as the number of persons designated
before ____.
(a) S
(b) V
(c) Q
(d) T
(e) None of these

Q87. Who among the following is three post junior to the one who is just senior to R?
(a) Q
(b) Director (DR)
(c) S
(d) Director of nursing (DN)
(e) Both Q and Director of nursing (DN)
Q88. If all the persons are arranged according to the alphabetical order from top to bottom then how many
persons remain unchanged except (P)?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) None
(d) Three
(e) None of these
Directions (89-91): In each of the questions below, some statements are given followed by some
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follow from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer
Q89. Statements: Some juice are mango.

Only a few mango are orange.
Conclusions: I. Some Juice are not mango
II. All Orange being mango is a possibility
Q90. Statements: No Bell is Clock.

All Bell is Ring.
Conclusions: I. Some Clock is Ring
II. No Ring is Clock
Q91. Statements: Only Car is Train.

Some Ship are Car
Conclusions: I. Some Ship are not Train
II. All Car being Ship is a possibility

Seven persons H, J, K, L, M, N and O buy a product on different day one after another but not necessarily in
the same order.
One person buys product between H and O. Two persons buy product between O and N. N buys product
neither just before nor just after H. K buys product just before J and after O. L buys product two days before
M.
Q92. How many persons buy product between L and K?

(a) More than four
(b) Three
(c) None
(d) Two
(e) One
Q93. The number of persons buy product between J and N is same as the number of persons buy product
before ____.
(a) L
(b) M
(c) O
(d) H
(e) None of these
Q94. Which of the following statement is true?

I. More than two persons buy product after K
II. O buys product just after M
III. Only one person buys product before H
(a) Both I and III are true
(b) Both II and III are true
(c) Only I is true
(d) Only II is true
(e) None is true
Q95. How many persons buy product after N?

(a) One
(b) Two
(c) More than four
(d) Four
(e) None of these

Q96.Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following
does not belong to that group?
(a) M-L
(b) L-H
(c) O-M
(d) J-N
(e) K-O
L has two daughters. C is the unmarried sister-in-law of H. K is the father of G. K is the only sibling of C. P is
the spouse of L. W is the maternal uncle of H. L is the maternal grandmother of M who is sibling of G. S is
the sister-in-law of K. G is the only grandson of J who is not female.
Q97. How many married couple are live in the family?

(a) Four
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) None of these
Q98. How is L related to K?

(a) Sister
(b) Niece
(c) Mother-in-law
(d) Sister-in-law
(e) Mother
Q99. Who is the sister-in-law of H?

(a) C
(b) M
(c) L
(d) Either C or M
(e) None of these
Q100. In the word ‘PAGINATE’, how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them
(both forward and backward direction) in the word as in the alphabetical series?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than four

Solutions
S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. On referring to the first paragraph of he given passage, we can conclude that only option (b) is true
here. Refer to the section, “In fact, before the emergence of agrarian societies, the early humans journeyed
along the roads taken by their prey — hunter-gatherer societies were mobile and the road was their life.
But with the rise of agrarianism, humans learnt to put down their roots and a life of journeys became
something to be frowned upon”
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. Refer to the first paragraph to answer the given question, “The world was a different place when the
Zapps set out — there were no smartphones, the internet was in its infancy, a site of knowledge and hope
rather than disinformation and division, the twin towers towered over New York, and Russia was a
diminutive shell stripped of its Soviet grandeur.”
S3. Ans.(d)
Sol. The first few lines of the second paragraph of the passage can be used to deduce the answer. Refer,
“Latest estimates show that over one million Americans live permanently in recreational vehicles with no
permanent address. Many are retired, but many others work part of the year, just long enough to keep
them going for a few months or so.”
S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. On referring to the second paragraph, we can conclude that only option (a) and (c) are correct. Hence
the right answer choice is option (d). Refer, “But in most countries, people without a stationary home are
subjected to intense legal scrutiny. Law enforcement institutions are even prejudiced against specific
communities.”
S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. Only sentence (b) is false.
For (a), (b) and (c): Refer to the second paragraph, “For example, in the United States of America, there are
legislations that make it illegal to sit on the sidewalk, to camp or sleep anywhere in a downtown area or to
hang around in a public place without an apparent purpose. The intent seems to encourage sanitization of
space of some kinds of human presences. These laws are not unique to the US. Anti-vagrancy laws have
existed for hundreds of years — think of the persecution of gypsies across Europe. In the old United
Kingdom, vagrants could be put in jail, sold as slaves, or sometimes even killed for no other reason than
wandering. Colonial India, too, had witnessed the purge of nomadic communities, most notably under the
guise of the campaign against thuggees”
For sentence (d): Refer to the first paragraph, “In the year, 2000, Herman and Candelaria Zapp set out in a
car from Buenos Aires to travel the world”

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. The appropriate word for the given blank is “hummed”
Hummed: make a low, steady continuous sound like that of a bee
Iterated: perform or utter repeatedly.
Cherished: protect and care for (someone) lovingly
Longed: have a strong wish or desire.
Enunciated: say or pronounce clearly.
S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. infancy – the early stage in the development or growth of
something
service – the action of helping or doing work for someone
apprehension – anxiety or fear that something bad or unpleasant will happen
perseverance – persistence in doing something despite difficulty or delay in achieving success
maturity – the state, fact, or period of having reached the most advanced stage in a process
intelligence – the ability to acquire and apply knowledge and skills
S8. Ans.(b)
Sol. insularity – ignorance of or lack of interest in cultures, ideas, or peoples outside one's own experience
irritation – the state of feeling annoyed, impatient, or slightly angry
inflexibility – inability to be changed or adapted to particular circumstances
disbelief – inability or refusal to accept that something is true or real
freedom – the power or right to act, speak, or think as one wants
awareness – knowledge or perception of a situation or fact
S9. Ans.(b)
Sol. The given statement is mentioning filmmaking research that enquires into production practices,
techniques, modes and genres used in cinema, television and online. Therefore, the correct word for the
given blank is ‘enquires’.
(a) probe means a thorough investigation into a crime or other matter.
(b) enquire means an act of asking for information.
(c) inquest means a judicial inquiry to ascertain the facts relating to an incident.
(d) survey means look closely at or examine (someone or something).
(e) investigate means make inquiries as to the character, activities, or background of (someone).
S10. Ans.(d)
Sol. The given statement is mentioning that the films are the output of the research and are based on fiction,
documentary and hybrid forms. Therefore, the correct word for the given blank is ‘fiction’.
(a) friction means the action of one surface or object rubbing against another.
(b) segregation means the action or state of setting someone or something apart from others.
(c) accede means agree to a demand, request, or treaty.
(d) fiction means literature in the form of prose, especially novels, that describes imaginary events and
people.
(e) purport means appear to be or do something, especially falsely.

S11. Ans.(c)
Sol. The given statement is mentioning that by embracing different approaches, filmmaking research
pushes at the boundaries of traditional filmmaking and traditional research methods. Therefore, the
correct word for the given blank is ‘approaches’.
(a) regulation means a rule or directive made and maintained by an authority.
(b) adversary means one's opponent in a contest, conflict, or dispute.
(c) approach means a way of dealing with a situation or problem.
(d) assistance means the action of helping someone by sharing work.
(e) interval means an intervening time.
S12. Ans.(e)
Sol. The given statement is mentioning that there are many splendid success stories that demonstrate the
potential of pushing at the boundaries of traditional filmmaking and traditional research methods by
adopting. Therefore, the correct word for the given blank is ‘spectacular’
(a) express means convey (a thought or feeling) in words or by gestures and conduct.
(b) threatening means having a hostile or deliberately frightening quality or manner.
(c) overlook means fail to notice.
(d) mock means making fun of someone or something in a cruel way; derisive.
(e) spectacular means beautiful in a dramatic and eye-catching way.
S13. Ans.(a)
Sol. The given statement is mentioning two disciplines in which research tends to indulge. Therefore the
correct word for the given blank is ‘reside’
(a) reside means be present or inherent in something.
(b) accommodate means provide lodging or sufficient space for.
(c) occupy means fill or preoccupy (the mind).
(d) fuller means a person whose occupation is to clean, shrink, and felt cloth by heat, pressure, and
moisture. cloth.
(e) lament means a passionate expression of grief or sorrow.
S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. The given statement is mentioning that the indulgence of research in two disciplines has made it
fragmented, sometimes difficult to identify and subject to different forms of support and engagements.
Therefore the correct word for the given blank is ‘engagement’
(a) ample means enough or more than enough; plentiful.
(b) wither means become dry and shrivelled.
(c) engagement means the action of engaging or being engaged.
(d) enrollment means the action of enrolling or being enrolled.
(e) alliance means a relationship based on similarity of interests, nature, or qualities.
S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. Only the sentences (i) and (iii) use the word “pore” in the correct context. ”pore” is defined as “to scan
or examine intently”.

S16. Ans.(d)
Sol. Option (d) gives the only rearrangement required for making the sentence grammatically and
contextually correct.
“In order to purchase the property, they had to undergo a lengthy application process.”
S17. Ans.(a)
Sol. Option (a) gives the only rearrangement required for making the sentence grammatically and
“Many conflicts and fronts constituted the battlefields of World War Two, encompassing much of the
globe.”
S18. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (c) gives the only rearrangement required for making the sentence grammatically and
“We received a package yesterday but did not notice the mail until early this morning.”
S19. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b) gives the only rearrangement required for making the sentence grammatically and
“Perfectly harmless spiders are often killed because they resemble the venomous black widow”
S20. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (c) gives the only rearrangement required for making the sentence grammatically and
“Many of the company’s rules were rigid and uncompromising, leaving the workers to look for new jobs.”
S21. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct spelling of the given misspelt word will be “lose”. Even though “loose” is a word, the context
requires “lose” and thus it becomes apparent that the word “loose”, here is just a misspelled form of “lose”.
lose – become unable to find (something or someone)
S22. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct spelling of the given misspelt word will be “unwary”.
unwary – not cautious of possible dangers or problems
S23. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct spelling of the given misspelt word will be “memorabilia”.
memorabilia – objects kept or collected because of their associations with memorable people or events
S24. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the given highlighted words are spelt correctly.

S25. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct spelling of the given misspelt word will be “fluctuated”.
fluctuate – rise and fall irregularly in number or amount
S26. Ans.(b)
Sol. The collocation of “in recognition” is most appropriate with “of”, as it sufficiently attributes recognition
to someone to their achievements. Thus, option (b) is the most appropriate answer.
S27. Ans.(d)
Sol. The given sentence is in present continuous tense hence verb ‘become’ should be in gerund form. ‘Self-
reliance’ is a noun while we need adjective for ‘India’ so we should replace it with ‘self-reliant’.
S28. Ans.(b)
Sol. Since the given sentence is in present perfect continuous tense, the subject ‘spike’ is singular and we
need the adjective ‘steady’ to modify the noun, the correct replacement will be, “has been a steady”.
S29. Ans.(e)
Sol. The given highlighted phrase is correct hence no improvement required.
S30. Ans.(b)
Sol. The highlighted phrase is incorrect because modal verb ‘would’ always takes base form of verb with
it. Therefore use of ‘erupt’ and ‘lead’ is correct and suitable replacement will be, ‘would erupt and lead’.
S31. Ans.(b)
50 + 52 = 75
75 + 102 = 175
175 + 152= 400
400 + 202 = 800
? = 800 + 252= 1425
S32. Ans.(e)
8 + 10 = 18
18 + 20 = 38
38 + 40 = 78
? = 78 + 80 = 158
158 + 160 = 318
S33. Ans.(b)
? = 41 + 5 = 46
46 + 7 = 53
53 + 11 = 64
64 + 13 = 77
77 + 17 = 94

S34. Ans.(d)
? = 215 − (14 × 5) = 145
145 −(14 × 4) = 89
89 −(14 × 3) = 47
47 − (14 × 2) = 19
19 −(14 × 1) = 5
S35. Ans.(a)
1 + 23 = 9
9 + 33 = 36
36 + 43 = 100
100 + 53 = 225
? = 225 + 63 = 441
Solutions. (36-40):
Companies total number of boats manufactured total number of ships manufactured
A (175 – 125) = 50 125
B (225 – 75) = 150 75
C (150 – 50) = 100 50
D (200 – 150) = 50 150
S36. Ans.(c)
1
Sol. Total boats used by fishermen = 150 × 3 = 50
1
Required percentage = 50 × 125 × 100 = 40%
S37. Ans.(e)
140
Sol. Total number of boats and ships manufactured by A in 2021 = 175 × 100 = 245
Total number of boats manufactured by A in 2021 = 245 − 125 = 120
S38. Ans.(b)
(100+50)
Sol. Required ratio = =6:5
(75+50)
S39. Ans.(e)
Sol. Total cost of all boats manufactured by D = 50 × 4600 = 230000 Rs.
S40. Ans.(a)
Sol. Total boats and ships manufactured by A & B = (175 + 225) = 400
Total boats manufactured by A & D = (50 + 50) = 100
400−100
Required percentage = × 100 = 300%
100

S41. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let present age of Amit, Den & Mohit be ‘a’, ‘d’ & ‘m’ respectively
ATQ -
a + d = 20 + 2 × 6 = 32 − − − −(𝑖)
a −𝑚 = 6 ----- (ii)
And, m + d =26 ------ (iii)
From (i), (ii) (iii) we get
32 − 𝑎 + 𝑎 − 6 = 26
26 = 26
We cannot determine the age of Den
S42. Ans.(d)
Sol. 𝜋r + 2r = 36
22
× 𝑟 + 2𝑟 = 36
7
r = 7 cm
147
Length of rectangle = = 21 cm
7
S43. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let six consecutive odd numbers = a, a+2, a+4, a+6, a+8, a+10
ATQ –
6a + 30 − (𝑎 + 5) = 150
5a + 25 = 150
a = 25
Required sum = 25 + 35 = 60
S44. Ans.(d)
3
Sol. Profit sharing ratio of P to Q = (X × 3 + 5 𝑋 × 9) ∶ (𝑋 + 100) × 12
14𝑋
∶ 4(𝑋 + 100)
5
14𝑋 210
= 530−210
5×4(𝑋+100)
16𝑋 − 15𝑋 = 1500
𝑋 = 1500
S45. Ans.(b)
Sol. ATQ –
18×3
P× = 0.5P + 100
100
0.54P −0.50𝑃 = 100
P = 2500
121
Required amount = (2500 + 3500) × 100 = 7260 𝑅𝑠.

S46. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total capacity of tank = 12 unit (LCM of 4, 6 & 3)
12
Efficiency of pipe A = 4 = 3 units/hour
12
Efficiency of pipe B = = 2 units/hour
6
12
Efficiency of pipe (A + B + C) = = 4 units/hour
3
So, efficiency of pipe C = 4 −(3 + 2) = −1 unit/hour (pipe C is an
outlet pipe)
Required time = 12 hours
S47. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let marked price and selling price of the article is 35x and 21x
respectively
100
Cost price of the article = 21x × 140 = 15𝑥
ATQ –
35x −15𝑥 = 400
x = 20 Rs.
Cost price of article = 20 × 15 = 300 𝑅𝑠.
S48. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let milk and water in the vessel initially be 7x and 3x respectively
ATQ –
7𝑥+50 80
= 20
3𝑥
12x – 7x = 50
x = 10 liters
initial quantity of milk in the mixture = 70 liters
S49. Ans.(d)
5
Sol. Time taken by Ram and Shayam together = 40 × 8 = 25 days
Total work = 200 unit (LCM of 40 & 25)
200 200
Efficiency of Shayam = 25 − 40 = 3 units/day
200 2
Required days = = 66 3 days
3
S50. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let his monthly salary be Rs 100x
Amount spent on accommodation=Rs 60x
15
Amount spent on entertainment=Rs 40𝑥 × 100 = 𝑅𝑠 6𝑥
Saving=Rs 34x
ATQ
26𝑥 = 3510
𝑥 = 135
His monthly salary= Rs 13,500

S51. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let length of train B = 2l meters
So, length of train A = l meters
And let speed of train A = 4s meter/sec
And speed of train B = 3s meters/sec
ATQ –
𝑙+100
= 4s -------- (i)
5
2𝑙+100
Also, = 3s -------- (ii)
10
From (i) & (ii) we get –
l = 100 meters
So, length of train B = 2l = 200 meters
S52. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let the speed of boat in upstream be ′𝑥’ km/hr and speed of boat in downstream be ‘4x’ km/hr.
And, distance be ‘D’ km
ATQ,
𝐷 𝐷
+ = 10
4𝑥 𝑥
5𝐷
= 10
4𝑥
𝐷 = 8𝑥
8𝑥
So, required time = 𝑥+4𝑥 = 3 ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠 and 12 minutes
2
S53. Ans.(e)
64 75
Sol. × 2500 + × 1600 =?× 112
100 100
?× 112 = 1600 + 1200
2800
?= 112
? = 25
S54. Ans.(c)
55
Sol. 100 × 1400 + ?2 = 1728-282
?2 = 676
? = 26
S55. Ans.(d)
540 15
Sol. + 450 = 100 × 3200
?
540
= 480 − 450
?
? = 18

S56. Ans.(b)
85
Sol. ?2 = 100 × 280 + 34 − 224 + 96
?2 = 144
? = 12
S57. Ans.(b)
Sol. 39 + 441 − 90 = 5 × ?
5 × ? = 390
? = 78
S58. Ans.(e)
Sol. ? × 7 = 125 + 436 − 337
224
?= 7
? = 32
S59. Ans.(c)
?
Sol. 6 = 196 + 48 − 144
? = 100 × 6
? = 600
S60. Ans.(b)
1
Sol. (?× 48) × = 32
54
? = 36
S61. Ans.(b)
1 2 3 3
Sol. ? = 2 + 3 + 5 + 3 − 3 − 4 + 8 + 4
? = 13
S62. Ans.(b)
32×729
Sol. 81×16 + 7 = (? )2
(?)² = 18 + 7 = 25
?=5
S63. Ans.(c)
1 1
Sol. 9097 × 11 × 10 = ? +15.7
? = 82.7 – 15.7
? = 67
S64. Ans.(d)
Sol. 180 – 110 = −255 + ?
? = 70 + 255
? = 325

S65. Ans.(d)
Sol. 175 + 133 + ? = 400
? = 92
S66. Ans.(c)
Sol. Same logic except option (c)
Solutions (67-70):
S67. Ans.(b)
S68. Ans.(d)
S69. Ans.(d)
S70. Ans.(c)
Solutions (71-73):
S71. Ans.(a)
S72. Ans.(c)
S73. Ans.(d)
Solutions (74-78):

S74. Ans.(a)
S75. Ans.(e)
S76. Ans.(b)
S77. Ans.(d)
S78. Ans.(c)
Solutions (79-82):
S79. Ans.(c)
S80. Ans.(b)
S81. Ans.(d)
S82. Ans.(a)
S83. Ans.(d)
Solutions (84-88):
Designations Person
Vice Chancellor (VC) P
Director (DR) R
Director of nursing (DN) T
Head of Department Q
(HOD)
Principal V
Professor S
Assistant professor U
S84. Ans.(a)
S85. Ans.(d)
S86. Ans.(b)
S87. Ans.(a)

S88. Ans.(c)
Solutions (89-91):
S89. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S90. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S91. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Solutions (92-96):
Persons
L
H
M
O
K
J
N

S92. Ans.(b)
S93. Ans.(a)
S94. Ans.(b)
S95. Ans.(e)
S96. Ans.(a)
Solutions (97-99):
S97. Ans.(d)
S98. Ans.(c)
S99. Ans.(a)
S100. Ans.(c)
Sol.

IBPS Clerk Previous Year Question Paper - 2021
Directions (1-6): Each question is divided into four parts in which one part may or may not have error.
Choose the part that has the error as your answer. If all the parts are correct choose (E) i.e., No Error.
Q1. (A) Apart from contributing/(B) to air pollution, a large number/(C) of vehicles on the Indian roads/
(D) also contributes to noise pollution/(E) No Error.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error
Q2. (A) Farmers who had stayed put at/(B) sites around the national capital/ (C) for a year are now
dispersing, /(D) but not with much clear on the road ahead/(E) No Error.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error
Q3. (A) If I was a/(B) rich man, I /(C) would make more/(D) charitable donations/(E) No Error.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error
Q4. (A) After a long /(B) adjournment, the jury have/(C) given the verdict/ (D) on Saturday/(E) No Error.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error
Q5. (A) You had better/(B) to watch the/(C) way you talk to/ (D) me
in the future/(E) No Error.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error

Q6. (A) I reached at /(B) 10 am, but he/ (C) was latter than/(D) I expected/ (E) No Error.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error
Directions (7-11): In the following questions five sentences are given. You have to rearrange these
sentences to make a contextually meaningful paragraph. Later, answer the follow-up questions.
(A) And because no light can get out, people can't see black holes.
(B) The gravity is so strong because matter has been squeezed into a tiny space.
(C) A black hole is a place in space where gravity pulls so much that even light can not get out.
(D) This compression happens when a star is dying.
(E) They are invisible and space telescopes with special tools can help find black holes.
Q7. Which of the following would be the correct order of sentences after rearrangement?
(a) DEBAC
(b) CBDAE
(c) ABCED
(d) BACED
(e) CEDAB
Q8. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q9. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q10. Which of the following would be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) E
(d) D
(e) C

Q11. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Directions (12-19): Read the following passage and answer the given questions based on the information
provided in the passage.
New employee orientation programs have been shown to socialize newcomers and increase their
knowledge, skills, and abilities upon completion. These types of programs are perhaps the most influential
piece of an employee’s development. Although many organizations include orientation as part of their new
employee development tactics, few truly utilize its full scope. New employee orientation programs are
deliberate attempts by an organization to introduce a new employee to what working for the organization
will be like. Although orientations can teach some important skills and abilities, they also teach new
employees about the organization’s history, goals, values, people, politics, and language. Orientation
programs start off the socialization process and help the new employee fit into his or her new
surroundings. New employee orientation programs may sometimes feel like a stale period of high anxiety
and stress while training takes place when these potentially harmful feelings have most likely been
resolved. A great deal of time and money is spent every year socializing and technically training employees.
Making sure this investment is well spent should be a central concern. However, this is not always the case.
Because training is expensive, organizations should make sure they are effectively preparing employees to
run for on-the-job success by delivering the proper training content and teaching it the right way.
Assessing the training needs of new employees consumes time and money, but it sends the message that
the organization is committed to the development of its employees, to giving them the right tools to
perform and putting them in a position where they can succeed, all of which are recognized goals of new
employee orientation programs. Helping a new employee fit into his or her job and organization is
important when considering job satisfaction, commitment, and retention. Whether potential candidates
accept the job or not is somewhat influenced by how well they believe they will fit into that company. Thus,
developing an orientation program that will not only properly train new hires, but successfully introduce
them to their new organization is extremely important.
The attributes an employee needs to succeed on the job, including those desired upon entry into the job,
can be found through an analysis of the necessary knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform the
essential functions of the job. Since technical skills training is meant to enhance those skills and abilities
needed for a job, it makes sense that training should have a close ___________(I) ___________ to whether or not
a new employee fits into his or her environment. A big difference between Japanese and western
organizations is that orientation programs are much more important to Japanese organizations because
they want to cement a lasting relationship with new employees. Thus, the Japanese approach to selection
and recruitment also works hand in hand. Japanese firms hire almost entirely at the entry-level. This is
done so that the new arrival can be properly trained and socialized into the organization to be a good fit.
The length of this process can vary from six months to three years, whereas in many western organizations
a new employee merely completes the required HR paperwork and is then suddenly expected to execute
the role for which he or she was hired.

Q12. Why is it imperative to undertake the socialization process in orientation programs?
(a) To ensure that the expenditure incurred on orientation is well used.
(b) To assist the new employee in acclimating to his or her new environment.
(c) To give the appropriate training content in a timely manner.
(d) To improve the skills and talents required for the completion of the tasks.
(e) None of these
Q13. How does the author differentiate between new employee orientation programs and training?
(a) Orientation programs take place during a time of high anxiety and tension, while training takes place
in a tranquil environment.
(b) Orientation programs take place during a tranquil moment, whereas training takes place during a
period of high anxiety and tension.
(c) When potentially detrimental thoughts of orientation have been addressed, training can continue.
(e) Both (a) and (c)
Q14. Which of the following statements with reference to the information provided in the given passage
is/are correct?
(i) The viewpoints of potential candidates have an impact on whether or not a position is accepted.
(ii) Time and money are invested in assessing the development needs of new employees.
(iii) Orientation programs offer new employees the necessary tools to enable them to succeed.
(a) Only (ii)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) All of these
(d) Only (iii)
(e) Both (ii) and (iii)
Q15. Why do most organizations invest in orientation programs, despite the fact that assessing the training
needs of new employees consumes time and money?
(a) It illustrates the organization's commitment to employee development.
(b) It provides employees with the necessary tools to help them succeed.
(c) To assist new employees in overcoming high levels of fear and tension.
(e) Only (b) and (c)
Q16. Choose the most appropriate filler from the following words to fill in the blank (I), as highlighted in
the given passage.
(a) confiscation
(b) requisition
(c) distraint
(d) analogy
(e) amusement

Q17. Which of the following statements with reference to the Japanese approach to selection and
recruitment is/are incorrect?
(a) The majority of Japanese companies hire primarily at entry-level positions.
(b) Japanese companies take longer to hire and train employees than Western companies.
(c) After the HR paperwork is done, western firms expect new employees to take up the function.
(d) Only (b) and (c)
(e) None of these
Q18. Choose the most appropriate antonym of the word ‘STALE’, as highlighted in the given passage.
(a) noxious
(b) virulent
(c) rancid
(d) chipper
(e) None of these
Q19. Choose the most appropriate synonym of the word ‘RUN’, as highlighted in the given passage.
(a) hasten
(b) execute
(c) cascade
(d) expedite
(e) None of these
Directions (20-25): In each sentence four words are given in bold. In which one word is either misspelt
or grammatically inappropriate, choose it as your answer. If all the words are correct choose option (E),
i.e., No Error.
Q20. Teachers, especially those working in high poverty(A) enviroments and with(B) marginalised
groups, face an inordinate amount of job stress, it is very important to(C) recognise and validate their
stress, bring it out and(D) discuss it openly.
(a) enviroments
(b) marginalised
(c) recognise
(d) discuss
(e) No Error
Q21. During the framing of the Indian(A) Constitution, it was proposed that any petition alleging a (B)
brech of (C) fundamental rights by the state ought to be(D) judicially decided within one month.
(a) Constitution
(b) brech
(c) Fundamental
(d) judicially
(e) No error

Q22. We have a(A) stending invitation to(B) visit them anytime, but we(C) choose not to go(D) anymore.
(a) stending
(b) visit
(c) choose
(d) anymore
Q23. Where all parties(A) consent, the(B) court may make, vary or(C) revoke directions without the need
for(D) attandance at court.
(a) Consent
(b) court
(c) revoke
(d) attandance
(e) No Error
Q24. May be, I(A) delivered my(B) opinion more(C) bluntly than I should have, but I had always been(D)
candid with Ted.
(a) delivered
(b) opinion
(c) bluntly
(d) candid
(e) No Error
Q25. Choose the style that(A) suts your shape and style, and you'll look(B) effortlessly (C) beautiful
during the(D) warmer months.
(a) suts
(b) effortlessly
(c) beautiful
(d) warmer
(e) No Error
Directions (26-30): In the questions given below, a sentence has been broken down into four fragments
labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D) and arranged not necessarily in the correct order. You have to find the correct
order of arrangement from the options given below. If none of the options fail to form a meaningful
sentence, mark ‘None of these’ option as your answer.
Q26. (A) decade ago it seemed

(B) when the Right to Education Act
(C) like a breakthrough
(D) was promulgated over a
(a) BCAD
(b) CBDA
(c) BDAC
(d) ACDB
(e) None of these

Q27. (A) demands even greater efficiency
(B) of agriculture technologies.
(C) thus it relies on the use
(D) agriculture is a sector that today
(a) BCAD
(b) ACBD
(c) CDBA
(d) DACB
(e) None of these
Q28. (A) monitoring of student

(B) beyond schoolwork and
(C) behavior often extends
(D) normal school hours.
(a) BCAD
(b) DBCA
(c) CBDA
(d) ACBD
(e) None of these
Q29. (A) of love and family

(B) the emotional dramas
(C) have explored in great detail
(D) researchers and philosophers
(a) DCBA
(b) DBCA
(c) CBDA
(d) ACDB
(e) None of these
Q30. (A) lack the means to satisfy

(B) poverty is said
(C) their basic needs
(D) to exist when people
(a) BCAD
(b) BDAC
(c) CBDA
(d) ACDB
(e) None of these
Q31. If the average of present age of A and B is 18 years and six years hence A age will be two times of age
of B that time. Then find the difference between present age of A & B?
यदि A और B की वर्तमान आयु का औसर् 18 वर्त र्था 6 वर्त बाि A की आयु, उस समय B की आयु की िो गुनी होगी, र्ो A और
B की वर्तमान आयु के बीच का अंर्र ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 14 years\14 वर्त
(b) 16 years\16 वर्त
(c) 20 years \20 वर्त
(d) 8 years\8 वर्त
(e) 10 years\10 वर्त

Q32. Varun invested Rs. X at the rate of 8 % per annum for five years and obtained total simple interest of
Rs. 5000. Had he invested the same amount at the same rate of interest for two years, then how much
amount would he have obtained as compound interest (compound annually) ?
वरुण पांच वर्ों के जिए प्रजर् वर्त 8% की िर से X रु. का जनवेश करर्ा है और 5000 रु. का कु ि साधारण ब्याि प्राप्त करर्ा है।
यदि उसने समान राजश को िो वर्ों के जिए समान ब्याि िर पर जनवेश दकया होर्ा, र्ो उसे चक्रवृजि ब्याि (वार्र्तक चक्रवृजि) के
रूप में दकर्नी राजश प्राप्त होर्ी?
(a) 2050 Rs. \2050 रु.
(b) 2010 Rs. \2010 रु.
(c) 2060 Rs. \2060 रु.
(d) 2080 Rs. \2080 रु.
(e) 2040 Rs. \2040 रु.
Q33. A man starts from point P to reach point Q, which is 20 kms apart. If speed of man is 5 kmph, then
find what percent should he increase his speed in order to shorten the journey time by 3/5 th?
एक व्यजि बबंिु P से शुरू होकर बबंिु Q र्क पहंचर्ा है, िो 20 दकमी की िूरी पर है। यदि व्यजि की गजर् 5 दकमी प्रजर् घंटा है, र्ो
यात्रा के समय को 3/5 कम करने के जिए उसे अपनी गजर् दकर्ने प्रजर्शर् की वृजि करनी चाजहए?
(a) 165%
(b) 140%
(c) 175%
(d) 125%
(e) 150%
Q34. Pipe A alone & pipe B alone can fill the same tank in 5 hours and 4 hours respectively. If the ratio of
efficiency of pipe A & B together to that of pipe C alone is 9:2, then find time taken by pipe C alone to fill the
same tank?
पाइप A अके िा और पाइप B अके िा समान टैंक को क्रमशः 5 घंटे और 4 घंटे में भर सकर्े है। यदि पाइप A और B की धाररर्ा का
अके िे पाइप C की धाररर्ा से अनुपार् 9:2 है, र्ो उसी टैंक को भरने के जिए अके िे पाइप C द्वारा जिया गया समय ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 8 hours\8 घंटा
(b) 5 hours \5 घंटा
(c) 6 hours \6 घंटा
(d) 10 hours\10 घंटा
(e) 12 hours \12 घंटा
Q35. A is 40% more efficient than C and B is 50% more efficient than A. If A and C together can complete a
piece of work in 45 days, then find days taken by A, B & C together to complete 50% of the work?
A, C से 40% अजधक कु शि है और B, A से 50% अजधक कु शि है। यदि A और C जमिकर दकसी कायत को 45 दिनों में पूरा कर
सकर्े हैं, र्ो A, B और C द्वारा जमिकर कायत का 50% पूरा करने में िगने वािे दिन ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 20 days\20 दिन
(b) 24 days\24 दिन
(c) 26 days \26 दिन
(d) 32 days\32 दिन
(e) 16 days\16 दिन

Q36. If 45% of X is equal to 60% of Y and the average of both the numbers is 20 less than the X, then find
60% of Y?
यदि X का 45%, Y के 60% के बराबर है और िोनों संख्याओं का औसर् X से 20 कम है, र्ो Y का 60% ज्ञार् कीजिए?
(a) 108
(b) 64
(c) 72
(d) 96
(e) 80
Q37. P & Q invested total amount of Rs.6400 in business for 12 months and 9 months respectively. If P &
Q gets total profit of Rs.3600 and profit share of P is Rs.1600, then find investment of Q?
P और Q ने एक व्यवसाय में क्रमशः 12 महीने और 9 महीने के जिए कु ि 6400 रुपये की राजश का जनवेश दकया। यदि P और Q
को कु ि 3600 रुपये का िाभ जमिर्ा है और P का िाभ जहस्सा 1600 रुपये है, र्ो Q का जनवेश ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 3000 Rs. \3000 रु.
(b) 2400 Rs. \2400 रु.
(c) 3600 Rs. \3600 रु.
(d) 4000 Rs. \4000 रु.
(e) 3200 Rs. \3200 रु.
Q38. A vessel contains 64 liters mixture of milk & water in the ratio of 9 :7 respectively. If ‘x’ liters of milk
is added in the vessel, then the new quantity of milk becomes 75% more than water in vessel, then find ‘x’?
एक बर्तन में िूध और पानी का 64 िीटर जमश्रण क्रमशः 9:7 के अनुपार् में है। यदि बर्तन में 'x' िीटर िूध जमिाया िार्ा है, र्ो
िूध की नई मात्रा बर्तन में पानी से 75% अजधक हो िार्ी है, र्ो 'x' ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 13
(e) 11
Q39. Shopkeeper sold an article after allowing two successive discounts of 15% and 20% on it. If
shopkeeper earned 2% profit on selling the article and total discount allowed by him is Rs. 192, then find
cost price of the article?
िुकानिार ने एक वस्र्ु पर 15% और 20% की िो क्रमागर् छू ट िेने के बाि उसे बेचा। यदि िुकानिार वस्र्ु को बेचने पर 2% का
िाभ अर्ितर् करर्ा है और उसके द्वारा अनुमर् कु ि छू ट 192रु., र्ो वस्र्ु का क्रय मूल्य ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) Rs.500\500 रु.
(b) Rs.400\400 रु.
(c) Rs.300\300 रु.
(d) Rs.600\600 रु.
(e) Rs.250\250 रु.

Q40. Average weight of a group is 36 kg. If a student having weight of 48 kg left the group, then the average
weight of a group is decreased by one kg., then find the number of people in the group initially?
एक समूह का औसर् भार 36 दकग्रा है। यदि 48 दकग्रा भार वािा एक जवद्याथी समूह छोड़ िेर्ा है, र्ो इस समूह के औसर् भार में
एक दकग्रा की कमी हो िार्ी है, र्ो आरम्भ में समूह में व्यजियों की संख्या ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 10
(b) 13
(c) 15
(d) 16
(e) 20
Q41. Speed of train B is 20% more than speed of train A and length of train A and B is 720 meters and 600
meters respectively. If both trains running in opposite direction cross each other in 24 second, then find
speed of trains B (in km/hr) ?
ट्रेन B की गजर्, ट्रेन A की गजर् से 20% अजधक है र्था ट्रेन A और B की िंबाई क्रमशः 720 मीटर और 600 मीटर है। यदि जवपरीर्
दिशा में चिने वािी िोनों ट्रेनें 24 सेकंड में एक िूसरे को पार करर्ी हैं , र्ो ट्रेन B की गजर् (दकमी/घंटा में) ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 160
(b) 84
(c) 144
(d) 108
(e) 90
Q42. If perimeter of a rectangle is 4.5 times of its breadth and length of the rectangle is 25 meters, then
find the area of rectangle (in meter square) ?
यदि एक आयर् का पररमाप उसकी चौड़ाई का 4.5 गुना है और आयर् की िंबाई 25 मीटर है , र्ो आयर् का क्षेत्रफि (मीटर वगत
में) ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 480
(b) 400
(c) 500
(d) 750
(e) 600
Q43. The ratio of income & savings of a man is in ratio of 16:3 respectively. If his savings increases by 1/3
rd and expenditure increased by 1/2, then find the ratio of new income to earlier income of man?
एक व्यजि की आय और बचर् का अनुपार् क्रमशः 16:3 है। यदि उसकी बचर् में 1/3 की वृजि होर्ी है और व्यय में 1/2 की वृजि
होर्ी है, र्ो व्यजि की नई आय का जपछिी आय से अनुपार् ज्ञार् कीजिये।
(a) 39:32
(b) 23:16
(c) 47:32
(d) 32:19
(e) 47 : 36

Q44. A man invested Rs.25000 on simple interest at R% p.a. If interest received by man is three-twentieth
of the principal after three years, then find ‘R’?
एक व्यजि ने R% वार्र्तक की िर से साधारण ब्याि पर 25000 रु.का जनवेश दकया। यदि र्ीन वर्त बाि व्यजि द्वारा प्राप्त ब्याि
मूिधन का 3/20 जहस्सा है, र्ो 'R' ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 5%
(b) 4%
(c) 6%
(d) 3%
(e) 8%
Q45. Speed of a boat in still water is 6 km/hr and speed of the current is 2 km/hr. If boat takes four hours
more in upstream than in the downstream to cover ‘D’ km, then find time take by boat to cover ‘D’ km in
still water?
शांर् िि में एक नाव की गजर् 6 दकमी/घंटा है और धारा की गजर् 2 दकमी/घंटा है। यदि नाव 'D' दकमी की िूरी र्य करने में धारा
के अनुकूि की र्ुिना में धारा के प्रजर्कू ि चार घंटे अजधक िेर्ी है, र्ो शांर् िि में 'D' दकमी की िूरी र्य करने में नाव द्वारा जिया
गया समय ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 5 hours 30 minutes\5 घंटे 30 जमनट
(b) 5 hours 45 minutes\5 घंटे 45 जमनट
(c) 5 hours 10 minutes\5 घंटे 10 जमनट
(d) 5 hours 20 minutes\5 घंटे 20 जमनट
(e) 5 hours 40 minutes\5 घंटे 40 जमनट
Directions (46-50): Find the wrong number in following number series.

जनम्नजिजिर् संख्या श्रंििा में गिर् संख्या ज्ञार् कीजिए।
Q46. 60, 61, 86, 167, 336, 627, 1066

(a) 336
(b) 86
(c) 627
(d) 1066
(e) 61
Q47. 1, 1.5, 3.5, 11, 44.5, 224, 1338.5

(a) 1.5
(b) 1338.5
(c) 44.5
(d) 224
(e) 11
Q48. 4, 8, 24, 96, 485, 2880, 20160

(a) 4
(b) 96
(c) 8
(d) 20160
(e) 485

Q49. 56, 76, 99, 125, 154, 186, 223
(a) 56
(b) 76
(c) 99
(d) 154
(e) 223
Q50. 15, 90, 30, 180, 60, 480, 120

(a) 480
(b) 30
(c) 90
(d) 120
(e) 180
Directions (51-60): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following questions.
जनम्नजिजिर् प्रश्नों में प्रश्न जचह्न (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा।
Q51. 36% of 250 + 26 ÷2× ? = 207

(a) 8
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 9
(e) 7
Q52.
(a) 72
(b) 84
(c) 90
(d) 96
(e) 66
Q53.
(a) 1534
(b) 1554
(c) 1444
(d) 1544
(e) 1564
Q54.
(a) 1062
(b) 1064
(c) 1072
(d) 1096
(e) 1082

Q55.
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 12
(d) 8
(e) 14
Q56.
(a) 120
(b) 140
(c) 150
(d) 160
(e) 210
Q57.
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 23
(d) 27
(e) 25
Q58. 756 + 432 -361+?= 990

(a) 163
(b) 153
(c) 167
(d) 143
(e) 147
Q59.
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
(e) 1
Q60.
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 6
(e) 11

Directions (61-65): Table given below shows number of functions organized in three halls (A, B & C) in
four different months. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.
नीचे िी गई र्ाजिका चार अिग-अिग महीनों में र्ीन हॉि ((A, B और C) में आयोजिर् समारोहों की संख्या िशातर्ी है। डेटा को
ध्यान से पढें और प्रश्नों के उत्तर िें।
Q61. Total number of functions organized in all three halls in month of June are what percent (approx.)
less than total functions organized in Hall B & C together in month of May?
िून के महीने में र्ीनों हॉिों में आयोजिर् समारोहों की कु ि संख्या, मई के महीने में हॉि B और C में आयोजिर् कु ि समारोहों से
दकर्ने प्रजर्शर् (िगभग) कम है?
(a) 6%
(b) 4%
(c) 2%
(d) 7%
(e) 8%
Q62. Find difference between total number of functions organized by hall A & B in July and average number
of functions organized by A & B in April?
िुिाई में हॉि A और B द्वारा आयोजिर् समारोहों की कु ि संख्या और अप्रैि में A और B द्वारा आयोजिर् समारोहों की औसर्
संख्या के बीच अंर्र ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 24
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 20
(e) 16
Q63. In month of August total functions organized by hall A is 20% more than that of functions organized
by same hall in May & total functions organized by hall C in month of August is 40% more than that of in
previous month, then find total functions organized by hall A & C together in month of August?
अगस्र् के महीने में हॉि A द्वारा आयोजिर् कु ि समारोह, मई में उसी हॉि द्वारा आयोजिर् समारोहों की र्ुिना में 20% अजधक
है र्था अगस्र् के महीने में हॉि C द्वारा आयोजिर् कु ि समारोह, जपछिे महीने की र्ुिना में 40% अजधक है, र्ो अगस्र् के महीने
में हॉि A और C द्वारा एक साथ आयोजिर् कु ि समारोह की संख्या ज्ञार् कीजिए।
(a) 196
(b) 188
(c) 186
(d) 184
(e) 178

Q64. Find the ratio of total functions organized by hall A & C together in June to total functions organized
by hall B & C in April?
िून में हॉि A और C द्वारा आयोजिर् कु ि समारोहों का अप्रैि में हॉि B और C द्वारा आयोजिर् कु ि समारोहों से अनुपार् ज्ञार्
कीजिए।
(a) 25 : 47
(b) 25 : 43
(c) 49 : 25
(d) 25 : 48
(e) 25 : 49
Q65. Total functions organized by hall A and B together in May are what percent more than total functions
organized by hall C in July?
मई में हॉि A और B द्वारा आयोजिर् कु ि समारोह, िुिाई में हॉि C द्वारा आयोजिर् कु ि समारोहों से दकर्ने प्रजर्शर् अजधक हैं?
(a) 55%
(b) 40%
(c) 45%
(d) 35%
(e) 30%
Directions (66-69): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
जनम्नजिजिर् िानकारी का ध्यानपूवतक अध्ययन कीजिये और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर िीजिये।
Seven persons sit around a circular table facing the center. F sits 4th to the left of K. Two persons sit between
G and K. B sits immediate left of D. B and G are not an immediate neighbor. L does not sit immediate right
of S.
सार् व्यजि एक वृर्ाकार मेि के चारो ओर कें द्र की ओर मुि करके बैठे हैं। F, K के बायें से चौथे स्थान पर बैठा है। G और K के बीच
िो व्यजि बैठे हैं। B, D के ठीक बायें बैठा है। B और G जनकटर्म पड़ोसी नहीं हैं। L, S ठीक िायें नहीं बैठा है।
Q66. Who sits 3rd to the right of S?

S के िायें से र्ीसरे स्थान पर कौन बैठा है?
(a) K
(b) B
(c) D
(d) G
(e) None of these \इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q67. How many persons sit between F and L when counted to the left of F?
F के बायें से गणना करने पर F और L के मध्य दकर्ने व्यजि बैठे हैं?
(a) One \एक
(b) Four \चार
(c) Two \िो
(d) Three \र्ीन
(e) Either (a) or (b) \या र्ो (a) या (b)

Q68. Who sits immediate right of G?
G के ठीक िायें कौन बैठा है?
(a) S
(b) L
(c) K
(d) F
(e) None of these\इनमें से कोई नहीं
Q69. The number of persons sit between L and F, when counted to the left of L is same as the number of
persons sit between S and ___, when counted to the left of __?
िब L के बायें से गणना की िार्ी है, र्ो L और F के बीच में बैठे व्यजियों की संख्या, ________ के बायें से गणना दकये िाने पर S और
____ के बीच बैठने वािे व्यजियों की संख्या के समान है
(a) B
(b) D
(c) F
(d) G
Q70. In the word ‘OBLIQUE’, how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them
in both forward and backward direction in the word as in alphabetical series?
शब्ि 'OBLIQUE' में, अक्षरों के ऐसे दकर्ने युग्म हैं जिनके बीच अक्षरों की संख्या शब्ि में आगे और पीछे िोनों दिशाओं में समान है,
िैसे दक वणतमािा श्रंििा में होर्े है?
(a) None \कोई नहीं
(b) Two \िो
(c) One \एक
(d) Four \चार
(e) Three \र्ीन
Directions (71-73): In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with
commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
नीचे दिए गए प्रत्येक प्रश्न में कु छ कथन और उसके बाि िो जनष्कर्त दिए गए हैं। आपको दिए गए कथनों को सत्य मानना है, भिे ही वे
सवतज्ञार् र्थ्यों से जभन्न प्रर्ीर् होर्े हों। सभी जनष्कर्ों को पदढए और दफर र्य कीजिये दक दिए गए जनष्कर्ों में से कौन सा जनष्कर्त
सामान्य रूप से ज्ञार् र्थ्यों की अवहेिना दकए जबना दिए गए कथनों का र्ार्कत क रूप से अनुसरण करर्ा है।
Q71. Statements:
All Orange is Papaya.
All Papaya are Mango.
कथन:
सभी संर्रे पपीर्ें हैं।
सभी पपीर्ें आम हैं।
Conclusion
जनष्कर्त
I: All Mango are Papaya.
I: सभी आम पपीर्ें हैं।
II: Some Papaya is Orange.
II: कु छ पपीर्ें संर्रे हैं।
(a) If only conclusion I follows. \यदि के वि जनष्कर्त I अनुसरण करर्ा है।
(b) If only conclusion II follows. \यदि के वि जनष्कर्त II अनुसरण करर्ा है।
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. \यदि या र्ो जनष्कर्त I या II अनुसरण करर्ा है।
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. \यदि न र्ो जनष्कर्त I और न ही II अनुसरण करर्ा है।
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. \यदि जनष्कर्त I और II िोनों अनुसरण करर्े हैं।
Q72. Statements:
All Driver are Road. No Road is Truck.
कथन: सभी ड्राइवर रोड हैं। कोई रोड ट्रक नहीं है।
Conclusion
I: All Truck are Road.
I: सभी ट्रक रोड हैं।
II: Some Truck being Driver is a probability.
II: कु छ ट्रक के ड्राइवर होने की संभावना है।
Q73. Statements:
Only a few Rabbit are Duck.
Only a few Duck are Goat.
कथन:
के वि कु छ िरगोश बत्ति हैं।
के वि कु छ बत्ति बकरी हैं।
Conclusion
I: Some Goat is Rabbit.
I: कु छ बकरी िरगोश है।
II: All Rabbit being Duck is a possibility.
II: सभी िरगोश के बत्ति होने की संभावना है।

Directions (74-76): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
िी गई िानकारी का ध्यानपूवतक अध्ययन कीजिये और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर िीजिये।
A certain number of persons are sitting in a row facing north. M sits fourth to the left of O and only two
persons sit left of M. Only two persons sit between M and Q. R sits second to the left of Q. S sits fourth to
the right of O. Not more than five persons sit between P and Q. P sits to the right of S. Eight persons sit
between P and G, who sits at one of the extreme ends.
एक जनजिर् संख्या में व्यजि उत्तर की ओर मुि करके एक पंजि में बैठे हैं। M, O के बायें से चौथे स्थान पर बैठा है और M के बायें के वि
िो व्यजि बैठे हैं। M और Q के मध्य के वि िो व्यजि बैठे हैं। R, Q के बायें से िूसरे स्थान पर बैठा है। S, O के िायें से चौथे स्थान पर बैठा
है। P और Q के बीच में पााँच से अजधक व्यजि नहीं बैठे हैं। P, S के िायें बैठा है। P और G के बीच आठ व्यजि बैठे हैं, िो दकसी एक
अंजर्म छोर पर बैठा है।
Q74. How many persons sit in the row?

पंजि में दकर्ने व्यजि बैठे हैं?
(a) 18
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23
(e) 17
Q75. How many persons are sitting between O and Q?

O और Q के मध्य दकर्ने व्यजि बैठे हैं?
(a) One \एक
(b) Two \िो
(c) None \कोई नहीं
(d) Three \र्ीन
(e) More than three \र्ीन से अजधक
Q76. Who sits 5th to the left of P?

P के बायें से पांचवें स्थान पर कौन बैठा है?
(a) O
(b) R
(c) M
(d) S
(e) More than thirteen \र्ेरह से अजधक
Q77. In a certain code CIRCLE is written as DHSBMD in the same way

how is PUBLIC written in that code?
एक जनजिर् कू ट में CIRCLE को DHSBMD जििा िार्ा है। समान कू ट में PUBLIC
को दकस प्रकार से जििा िाएगा?
(a) QTBKJB
(b) QTCKJB
(c) CQTBKJ
(d) TQCLBK
(e) None of these
इनमें से कोई नहीं

Directions (78-81): Study the following information and answer the questions below:
जनम्नजिजिर् िानकारी का अध्ययन कीजिये और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर िीजिये:
Seven persons were born in seven different months, i.e January, March, April, May, June, July and August,
of the same year and on same date. Q was born in the month which has even number of days. Two persons
were born between S and Q. U is just older to R but not born in the month which has even number of days.
More than two persons born between R and V who is younger to S. P is older than T who was not born in
June.
सार् व्यजियों का िन्म एक ही वर्त के सार् अिग-अिग माह- िनवरी, माचत, अप्रैि, मई, िून, िुिाई और अगस्र् में और समान जर्जथ
को हआ था। Q का िन्म उस माह में हआ था जिसमें दिनों की संख्या सम होर्ी है। S और Q के बीच िो व्यजियों का िन्म हआ था। U
ठीक R से बड़ा है, िेदकन उस ठीक में िन्म नहीं िेर्ा है, जिसमें दिनों की संख्या सम है। R और V, िो S से छोटा है, के बीच िो से
अजधक व्यजि िन्म िेर्े हैं। P, T से बड़ा है, जिसका िन्म िून में नहीं होर्ा है।
Q78. Who among the following is the oldest person?

जनम्नजिजिर् में से सबसे अजधक आयु का व्यजि कौन है?
(a) S
(b) P
(c) V
(d) R
Q79. How many persons are younger than T?

T से दकर्ने व्यजि छोटे हैं?
(a) Four \चार
(b) One \एक
(c) Three \र्ीन
(d) Two \िो
(e) None \कोई नहीं
Q80. Who among the following was born in April?

जनम्नजिजिर् में से दकसका िन्म अप्रैि में हआ था?
(a) P
(b) T
(c) U
(d) V
Q81. Which of the following statement is not true about V? जनम्नजिजिर् में से कौन सा कथन V के सन्िभत में सत्य नहीं
है?
(a) Q is older than S\Q, S से बड़ा है
(b) V was born in April \V अप्रैि में िन्म िेर्ा है
(c) Four persons were born after V\चार व्यजियों का िन्म V के बाि होर्ा है
(d) T is just younger than V\T ठीक V से छोटा है
(e) Both (a) and (d) \(a) और (d) िोनों

Directions (82-86): Answer these questions referring to the letter sequence given below:
नीचे दिए गए अक्षरों के क्रम द्वारा जनम्नजिजिर् प्रश्नों के उत्तर िीजिये:
QRDSTWCKGUVEJZHIXYANOFMPBL
Q82. If the letters of the above given series are written in reverse order, which letter will be the fourth to
the left of eleventh letter from the right end?
यदि ऊपर िी गई श्रृंििा के अक्षरों को उल्टे क्रम में जििा िार्ा है, र्ो िायें छोर से ग्यारहवें अक्षर के बायें से चौथा अक्षर कौन सा
होगा?
(a) O
(b) U
(c) V
(d) N
Q83. What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following series?
जनम्नजिजिर् श्रृंििा में प्रश्न जचन्ह (?) के स्थान पर क्या आएगा?
RSD WKC VJE ?
(a) XYA
(b) XAY
(c) IYX
(d) IXY
Q84. Which of the following is 6th to the right of the 13th letter from the left end?
जनम्नजिजिर् में से कौन बायें छोर से 13वें अक्षर के िायें से छठा अक्षर है?
(a) Y
(b) A
(c) N
(d) O
Q85. How many consonants are there which are immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately
followed by a vowel?
ऐसे दकर्ने व्यंिन हैं जिनके ठीक पहिे एक व्यंिन है और ठीक बाि में एक स्वर है?
(a) Three \र्ीन
(b) Two \िो
(c) One \एक
(d) Four\चार
(e) None \कोई नहीं

Q86. If all vowels are eliminated, then which of the following 10 th to the left of the element which is 8 th
from the right end?
यदि सभी स्वरों को हटा दिया िाए, र्ो जनम्नजिजिर् में से कौन सा र्त्व िायें छोर से आठवें र्त्व के बायें से िसवां है?
(a) T
(b) W
(c) S
(d) C
(e) None of these\इनमें से कोई नहीं
Directions (87-91): Study the information given and answer the questions below:
िी गई िानकारी का अध्ययन कीजिये और नीचे दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर िीजिये:
Eight persons live on different floors of a building where ground floor is numbered as 1 and the topmost
floor is numbered as 4. Each floor has two flats i.e., flat P and flat Q. Flat P is in the west of Flat Q. Flat P of
floor 2 is just above the flat P of floor 1 and just below the flat P of floor 3. Similarly, flat Q of floor 2 is just
above the flat Q of floor 1 and just below the flat Q of floor 3.
Two floors gap between A and C and both live in different flats. A lives above B who lives south-west of D.
A and D does not live on the same floor. H live on an even numbered floor above B but in different flat. F
lives west of D. One floor gap between H and E. E lives north-east of G who lives on an odd numbered floor.
आठ व्यजि एक इमारर् की जवजभन्न मंजििों पर रहर्े हैं िहां भूर्ि की संख्या 1 है और सबसे ऊपरी मंजिि की संख्या 4 है। प्रत्येक
मंजिि में िो फ्िैट- फ्िैट P और फ्िैट Q हैं। फ्िैट P फ्िैट Q के पजिम में है। मंजिि 2 का फ्िैट P, मंजिि 1 के फ्िैट P के ठीक ऊपर
और मंजिि 3 के फ्िैट P के ठीक नीचे है। इसी प्रकार, मंजिि 2 का फ्िैट Q, मंजिि 1 के फ्िैट Q के ठीक ऊपर और मंजिि 3 के फ्िैट
Q के ठीक नीचे है।
A और C के बीच िो मंजििों का अंर्र है और िोनों अिग-अिग फ्िैटों में रहर्े हैं। A, B के ऊपर रहर्ा है िो D के िजक्षण-पजिम में
रहर्ा है। A और D समान मंजिि पर नहीं रहर्े हैं। H, B के ऊपर एक सम संख्या वािी मंजिि पर रहर्ा है िेदकन अिग-अिग फ्िैट
में रहर्ा है। F, D के पजिम में रहर्ा है। H और E के बीच एक मंजिि का अंर्र है। E, G के उत्तर-पूवत में रहर्ा है िो एक जवर्म संख्या
वािी मंजिि पर रहर्ा है।
Q87. Who among the following lives in Flat Q of 4th floor?

जनम्नजिजिर् में से कौन चौथी मंजिि के फ्िैट Q में रहर्ा है?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) A
(d) H
Q88. Who among the following lives in the west of C?

जनम्नजिजिर् में से कौन C के पजिम में रहर्ा है?
(a) B
(b) G
(c) E
(d) F

Q89. Who among the following lives just below D’s Flat?
जनम्नजिजिर् में से कौन D के फ्िैट के ठीक नीचे रहर्ा है?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) E
(d) H
Q90. Four among the following five are alike in a certain way and related to a group, who among the
following does not belong to the group?
जनम्नजिजिर् पांच में से चार एक जनजिर् र्रीके से समान हैं और एक समूह से संबंजधर् हैं, जनम्नजिजिर् में से कौन समूह से संबंजधर्
नहीं है?
(a) E
(b) B
(c) F
(d) G
(e) A
Q91. Which of the following statement is true about F?

जनम्नजिजिर् में से कौन सा कथन F के सन्िभत में सत्य है?
(a) F lives on an odd numbered floor \F एक जवर्म संख्या वािी मंजिि पर रहर्ा है
(b) H lives above F \H, F के ऊपर रहर्ा है
(c) C lives south-east of F \C, F के िजक्षण-पूवत में रहर्ा है
(d) F and G live in the same flat. \F और G समान फ्िैट में रहर्े हैं।
(e) All are true \सभी सत्य हैं
Directions (92-94): Read the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
जनम्नजिजिर् िानकारी को ध्यानपूवतक पदढए और दिए गए प्रश्नों के उत्तर िीजिये:
Arun starts walking from point D in north direction after walking 12km he reached at point G then he takes
a right turn and covers 8km after that he takes a left turn and covers 6km to reach at point F. Finally, he
takes a left turn and walks 10km to reach at point V.
अरुण बबंिु D से उत्तर दिशा में चिना शुरू करर्ा है, 12 दकमी चिने के बाि वह बबंिु G पर पहाँचर्ा है, दफर वह िायें मुड़र्ा है और 8
दकमी चिर्ा है उसके बाि वह बायें मुड़र्ा है और बबंिु F पर पहाँचने के जिए 6 दकमी की िूरी र्य करर्ा है। अंर् में, वह बायें मुड़र्ा है
और बबंिु V पर पहाँचने के जिए 10 दकमी चिर्ा है।
Q92. If point L is 18km south of point V then what is the shortest distance between point D and point L?
यदि बबंिु L, बबंिु V के 18 दकमी िजक्षण में है, र्ो बबंिु D और बबंिु L के मध्य न्यूनर्म िूरी क्या है?
(a) 5km \5 दकमी
(b) 7km \7 दकमी
(c) 2km \2 दकमी
(d) 4km \4 दकमी

Q93. Find out the shortest distance between point G and point F?
बबंिु G और बबंिु F के बीच की न्यूनर्म िूरी ज्ञार् कीजिए?
(a) 8km \8 दकमी
(b) 9km \9 दकमी
(c) 7km \7 दकमी
(d) 10km \10 दकमी
Q94. What is the direction of point V with respect to point D?

बबंिु D के सन्िभत में बबंिु V की दिशा क्या है?
(a) North-East \उत्तर-पूवत
(b) North-West \उत्तर-पजिम
(c) South-East \िजक्षण-पूवत
(d) South-West \िजक्षण-पजिम
Directions (95-99): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. The statements are followed by conclusions.
जनम्नजिजिर् प्रश्नों में, कथनों में जवजभन्न र्त्वों के बीच संबंध को िशातया गया है। कथनों के बाि जनष्कर्त दिए गए हैं।
Give answer
उत्तर िीजिये
Q95. Statements/कथन:
D ≥ K < H=O; N > J ≥ H
Conclusions /जनष्कर्त
I. N> K
II. N < D
(a) If only conclusion I is true \यदि के वि जनष्कर्त I सत्य है
(b) If only conclusion II is true \यदि के वि जनष्कर्त II सत्य है
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true \यदि या र्ो जनष्कर्त I या II सत्य है
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true \यदि न र्ो जनष्कर्त I और न ही II सत्य है
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true \यदि जनष्कर्त I और II िोनों सत्य हैं
S≥L≥U>B=G
I. L > G
II. L = G

E>D≤J>V≥R≥S=F
I. D > F
II. J ≥ D
Q98. Statements/कथन
D=E>K>X=B≤S≥C
I. C < K
II. D ≤ S
Q99. Statements/कथन
N ≥ G > H ≥ I; M > H ≥ T
I. N > T
II. M > I
Q100. In the given word “EXPRESSED” if all the consonants replaced with its next letter and all the vowels
replaced with its previous letter after that how many letters repeated in the new arrangement?
यदि दिए गए शब्ि “EXPRESSED” में सभी व्यंिनों को उसके अगिे अक्षर से बिि दिया िार्ा है और सभी स्वरों को उसके जपछिे
अक्षर से बिि दिया िार्ा है, र्ो उसके बाि नई व्यवस्था में दकर्ने अक्षरों की पुनरावृजत्त होर्ी है?
(a) Three \र्ीन
(b) Four \चार
(c) Two \िो
(d) None \कोई नहीं
(e) One \एक

Solution
S1. Ans.(d)
Sol. “A large number of” is a plural noun, thus, it follows plural verb. Hence, “contributes” must be replaced
with “contribute”. Note, “the number of” is a singular noun.
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. In part D, “clear” must be replaced with “clarity”. Here noun form of the word should be used thus
clarity is the right choice.
S3. Ans.(a)
Sol. Here in “was” must be replaced with “were”. In unreal conditions, i.e., the sentence that doesn’t reflect
reality if clause should be used, and if the verb in the if clause is “to be,” use “were,” even if the subject of
the clause is a third person singular subject (i.e., he, she, it). This will be followed by auxiliary verb such as
“would” in the second part of the hypothetical portion.
S4. Ans.(b)
Sol. “jury” is a collective noun, thus followed by a singular verb. Hence, “have” must be replaced with “has”.
S5. Ans.(b)
Sol. “to” should not be used in this case as had better, had rather, had as soon ... as .....had sooner etc. are
followed by Bare Infinitive.
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. “latter” should be replaced with “later”. Later, latest refer to time, latter and last refer to position.
S7. Ans.(b)
Sol. Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence as it best presents the theme of the paragraph which is
a black hole. The next sentence is (B) as it mentions the feature of a black hole. Further, sentence (B) will
be followed by sentence (D) as it further describes when this compression happens which is mentioned in
the sentence (B) as well. Now, sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) as it further describes the
second feature of the black hole that no light can come out of it. Further, sentence (A) will be followed by
sentence (E) as it describes the usage of space telescope with special tools to see these black holes.
Therefore, the correct rearrangement of the given sentences would be “CBDAE”.
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Sentence (C) will be the introductory sentence as it best presents
the theme of the paragraph which is a black hole. The next sentence
is (B) as it mentions the feature of a black hole. Further, sentence (B)
will be followed by sentence (D) as it further describes when this
compression happens which is mentioned in the sentence (B) as well.
Now, sentence (D) will be followed by sentence (A) as it further
describes the second feature of the black hole that no light can come
out of it. Further, sentence (A) will be followed by sentence (E) as it
describes the usage of space telescope with special tools to see these
black holes. Therefore, the correct rearrangement of the given
sentences would be “CBDAE”.

S9. Ans.(c)
S10. Ans.(c)
S11. Ans.(a)
S12. Ans.(b)
Sol. Among the given statements, only option (b) is correct with reference to the context of the given
question. While the rest of the statements are incorrect as the major objective to undertake the
socialization process in orientation programs is to help the new employee adjust to his or her new
surroundings. Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice.
Refer to the eighth line of the first paragraph, “Orientation programs start off the socialization process and
help the new employee fit into his or her new surroundings.”
S13. Ans.(e)
Sol. Among the given statements, both (a) and (c) are correct with reference to the context of the given
question. While statement (b) is completely incorrect. Hence, option (e) is the right answer choice.
Refer to the last lines of the first paragraph, “New employee orientation programs occur during a period of
high anxiety and stress while training takes place when these potentially harmful feelings have most likely
been resolved. A great deal of time and money is spent every year socializing and technically training
employees.”

S14. Ans.(c)
Sol. On reading the second paragraph thoroughly, we can infer that all of the given statements are correct
based on the information provided. Hence, option (c) is the right answer choice.
S15. Ans.(d)
Sol. Among the given statements, only (a) and (b) are correct with reference to the context of the given
question. While statement (c) is incoherent as it is not the primary objective behind the investment of time
and money by most of the organizations. Hence, option (d) is the right answer choice.
Refer to the mid-lines of the second paragraph, “Assessing the training needs of new employees consumes
time and money, but it sends the message that the organization is committed to the development of its
employees, to giving them the right tools to perform and putting them in a position where they can succeed,
all of which are recognized goals of new employee orientation programs.”
S16. Ans.(d)
Sol. The concerned sentence states that since technical skills training is intended to improve job-related
skills and abilities, it seems reasonable that it should be intrinsically correlated to whether or not a new
employee fits into his or her surroundings. Thus, we can infer that ‘analogy’ which means ‘a
correspondence or partial similarity’ is the most appropriate word to fill in the given blank. Hence, option
(d) is the right answer choice.
(a) confiscation- the action of taking or seizing someone's property with authority; seizure.
(b) requisition- demand the use or supply of (something) by official order.
(c) distraint- the seizure of someone's property in order to obtain payment of money owed.
(e) amusement- the state or experience of finding something funny.
S17. Ans.(e)
Sol. All of the given statements are completely correct based on the information provided in the given
passage. Thus, there is no incorrect statement given in the options. Hence, option (e) is the right answer
choice.
Refer to the last lines of the third paragraph, “Japanese firms hire almost entirely at the entry-level. This is
done so that the new arrival can be properly trained and socialized into the organization to be a good fit. The
length of this process can vary from six months to three years, whereas in many western organizations a new
employee merely completes the required HR paperwork and is then suddenly expected to execute the role for
which he or she was hired.”
S18. Ans.(d)
Sol. Among the given words, ‘chipper’ is the most appropriate antonym of the highlighted word. The word
‘stale’ means ‘no longer new and interesting’. While ‘chipper’ means ‘cheerful and lively’. Hence, option (d)
is the right answer choice.
(a) noxious- harmful, poisonous, or very unpleasant.
(b) virulent- (of a disease or poison) extremely severe or harmful in its effects.
(c) rancid- highly unpleasant; repugnant.

S19. Ans.(b)
Sol. Among the given options, ‘execute’ is the most appropriate synonym of the highlighted word and is
closely relevant to the meaning of the concerned sentence. The word ‘run’ in the given sentence means ‘be
in or cause to be in operation; function or cause to function’. Hence, option (b) is the right answer choice.
(a) hasten- be quick to do something.
(b) execute- put (a plan, order, or course of action) into effect.
(c) cascade- pass (something) on to a succession of others.
(d) expedite- make (an action or process) happen sooner or be accomplished more quickly.
S20. Ans.(a)
Sol. Here, “enviroments” should be replaced with “environment”.
S21. Ans.(b)
Sol. Here, “brech” must be replaced with “breach”. “Breach” means “an act that breaks an agreement, a law,
etc.”
S22. Ans.(a)
Sol. “stending” must be replaced with “standing”
S23. Ans.(d)
Sol. “attandance” must be replaced with “attendance”.
S24. Ans.(e)
Sol. All words are correct, hence required no change.
S25. Ans.(a)
Sol. “suts” must be replaced with “suits”.
S26. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct arrangement for the given sentence will be BDAC. Therefore the sentence will be” When
the Right to Education Act was promulgated over a decade ago, it seemed like a breakthrough.”
S27. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct arrangement for the given sentence will be DACB. Therefore the sentence will be”
Agriculture is a sector that today demands even greater efficiency thus it relies on the use of agriculture
technologies.”
S28. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct arrangement for the given sentence will be ACBD. Therefore the sentence will be”
Monitoring of student behavior often extends beyond schoolwork and normal school hours.
S29. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct arrangement for the given sentence will be DCBA. Therefore the sentence will be”
Researchers and philosophers have explored in great detail the emotional dramas of love and family.”

S30. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct arrangement for the given sentence will be BDAC. Therefore the sentence will be” Poverty
is said to exist when people lack the means to satisfy their basic needs.”
S31. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S32. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S33. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S34. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S35. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S36. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S37. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S38. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S39. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S40. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S41. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S42. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S43. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S44. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S45. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S46. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S47. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S48. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S49. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S50. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S51. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S52. Ans.(d)
Sol.

S53. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S54. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S55. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S56. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S57. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S58. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S59. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S60. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S61. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S62. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S63. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S64. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S65. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S66. Ans.(c)
Sol.

S67. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S68. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S69. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S70. Ans.(a)
S71. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S72. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S73. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S74. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S75. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S76. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S77. Ans.(b)
S78. Ans.(b)
Sol.

S79. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S80. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S81. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S82. Ans.(e)
S83. Ans.(b)
S84. Ans.(b)
S85. Ans.(a)
S86. Ans.(c)

S87. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S88. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S89. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S90. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S91. Ans.(e)
Sol.

S92. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S93. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S94. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S95. Ans.(a)
S96. Ans.(a)

S97. Ans.(b)
S98. Ans.(d)
S99. Ans.(e)
S100. Ans.(c)
Sol. EXPRESSED
DYQSDTTDE

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IBPS PO Previous Year Questions Papers With Solutions -2022

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431 adda247.com/teachers | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

432 adda247.com/teachers | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Q24. You will never be able to find a better (A)

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Q35. I. 2x² – x – 3 = 0 Q39. Find the total number of students are in at

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436 adda247.com/teachers | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

437 adda247.com/teachers | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Q61. Out of the total invalid votes of block A in

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439 adda247.com/teachers | www.sscadda.com | www.bankersadda.com | www.adda247.com

Direction (79-81): Study the following

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S24. Ans.(b) S28. Ans.(a)

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S79. Ans.(d) Direction (91-95):

S82. Ans.(b) Direction (97-100):

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Q26. The Manager (A)/, as well as (B)/ the team

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Directions (56-60): Study the charts given below

Q53. A man invested Rs. 8000 in each schemes A &

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A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and Q83. Statements: V ≤ B ≤ M = S ≥ F ≥ G = H

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S12. Ans.(c) S18. Ans.(c)

S13. Ans.(e) S19. Ans.(e)

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S50. Ans.(b) Alternate method

(2s + 10) + (5s + 10) = 69 3x=6=> x=2

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S64. Ans.(d) Solutions (75-78):

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Q3. How do the itinerant Americans sustain their lives?

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Q9. (a) probes

Q10. (a) friction