Eti Final

ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S
ZEAL POLYTECHNIC,PUNE
NARHE │PUNE -41 │ INDIA
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING
Question Bank for Multiple Choice Questions
Program: Diploma in Computer Engineering Program Code:- CO
Scheme:- I Semester:- SIXTH
Course:- Emerging Trends in Computer & IT Course Code:- 22618
Unit 01 – Artificial Intelligence Marks:-06
1.1 Introduction of AI
Concept
Scope of AI
Components of AI
Types of AI
Application of AI
1.2 Concept of machine learning and deep learning.
1. Which of these schools was not among the early leaders in AI research?
A. Dartmouth University
B. Harvard University
C. Massachusetts Institute of Technology
D. Stanford University
E. None of the above
2. DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American AI research, is
part of the Department of:
A. Defense
B. Energy
C. Education
D. Justice
3. The conference that launched the AI revolution in 1956 was held at:
A. Dartmouth
B. Harvard
C. New York
D. Stanford
4. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part of
the problem solving?
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value-based
D. Analytical
5. What of the following is considered to be a pivotal event in the history of AI.
A. 1949, Donald O, The organization of Behavior.
B. 1950, Computing Machinery and Intelligence.
C. 1956, Dartmouth University Conference Organized by John McCarthy.
D. 1961, Computer and Computer Sense.
6. A certain Professor at the Stanford University coined the word 'artificial intelligence' in1956 at a
conference held at Dartmouth College. Can you name the Professor?
A. David Levy
B. John McCarthy
C. Joseph Weizenbaum
D. Hans Berliner
7. The field that investigates the mechanics of human intelligence is:

A. History
B. cognitive science
C. psychology
D. sociology
8. A.M. Turing developed a technique for determining whether a computer could or could not
demonstrate the artificial Intelligence, Presently, this technique is called
A. Turing Test
B. Algorithm
C. Boolean Algebra
D. Logarithm
9. The first AI programming language was called:

A. BASIC
B. FORTRAN
C. IPL
D. LISP
10. What is Artificial intelligence?

A. Putting your intelligence into Computer
B. Programming with your own intelligence
C. Making a Machine intelligent
D. Putting more memory into Computer
11. Who is a father of AI?

A. Alain Colmerauer B. John McCarthy
C. Nicklaus Wirth D. Seymour Papert
12. Artificial Intelligence has its expansion in the following application.
A. Planning and Scheduling B. Game Playing
C. Robotics D. All of the above
13. The characteristics of the computer system capable of thinking, reasoning and learning isknown
is
A. machine intelligence B. human intelligence
C. artificial intelligence D. virtual intelligence
14. The first AI programming language was called:

A. BASIC B. FORTRAN
C. IPL D. LISP
15. The first widely used commercial form of Artificial Intelligence (Al) is being used in many popular
products like microwave ovens, automobiles and plug in circuit boards for desktop PCs.What is name of
AI?
A. Boolean logic B. Human logic
C. Fuzzy logic D. Functional logic
16. What is the term used for describing the judgmental or commonsense part of the problem
solving?
A. Heuristic B. Critical
C. Value-based D. Analytical
17. is a branch of computer science which deals with helping machines finds solutions to
complex problems in a more human-like fashions
A. Artificial Intelligence B. Internet of Things
C. Embedded System D. Cyber Security
18. In the goal is for the software to use what it has learned in one area to solve problems in otherareas.
A. Machine Learning B. Deep Learning
C. Neural Networks D. None of these
19. Computer programs that mimic the way the human brain processes information is called as
20. A is a rule of thumb, strategy, trick, simplification, or any other kind of device which
drastically limits the search for solutions in large problem spaces.
C. Value based D. Analytical
21. do not guarantee optimal/any solutions

C. Value based D. Analytical
22. Cognitive science related with

A. Act like human B. ELIZA
C. Think like human D. None of the above
23. Model should reflect how results were obtained.
A. Design model B. Logic model
C. Computational model D. None of the above
24. Communication between man and machine is related with

A. LISP B. ELIZA
C. All of the above D. None of the above
25. ELIZA created by

A. John McCarthy B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer D. Joseph Weizenbaum
26. The concept derived from level is propositional logic, tautology, predicate
calculus, model, temporal logic.
A. Cognition level B. Logic level
C. Functional level D. All of the above
27. PROLOG is an AI programming language which solves problems with a form of symboliclogic
known as .
A. Propositional logic B. Tautology
C. Predicate calculus D. Temporal logic
28. The level contains constituents at the third level which are knowledge-based system,
heuristic search, automatic theorem proving, multi-agent system.
A. Cognition level B. Gross level
C. Functional level D. All of the above
29. PROLOG, LISP, NLP are the language of

A. Artificial Intelligence B. Machine Learning
C. Internet of Things D. Deep Learning
30. is used for AI because it supports the implementation of software that computes with symbolsvery
well.
A. LISP B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG D. NLP
31. Symbols, symbolic expressions, and computing with those is at the core of
A. LISP B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG D. NLP
32. that deals with the interaction between computers and humans using the natural
language
A. LISP B. ELIZA
C. PROLOG D. NLP
33. The core components are constituents of AI are derived from
A. Concept of logic B. Cognition
C. Computation D. All of the above
34. Aristotle’s theory of syllogism and Descartes and Kant's critic of pure reasoning made
knowledge on .
A. Logic B. Computation logic
C. Cognition logic D. All of the above
35. Charles Babbage and Boole who demonstrate the power of
A. Logic B. Computation logic
C. Cognition logic D. All of the above
36. In 1960s, pushed the logical formalism to integrate reasoning with knowledge.
A. Marvin Minsky B. Alain Colmerauer
C. John McCarthy D. None of above
37. Sensing organs as input, mechanical movement organs as output and central nervous system (CNS)
inthe brain as control and computing devices is known as of human being
A. Information Control Paradigm B. Information Processing Paradigm
C. Information Processing Control D. None of the above
38. model was developed and incorporated in machines which mimicked

the functionalities of human origin.
A. Functional model B. Neural model
C. Computational model D. None of the above
39. Chomsky’s linguistic computational theory generated a model for syntactic analysis through
A. Regular Grammar B. Regular Expression
C. Regular Word D. None of these
40. Human to Machine is and Machine to Machine is .

A. Process, Process B. Process, Program
C. Program, Hardware D. Program, Program
41. Weak AI is also known as

A. Narrow AI B. General AI
C. Neural AI D. None of the above
42. AI is able to perform a dedicated task.

43. Narrow AI is performed multiple tasks at a time.

A. True B. False
44. Weak AI is
A. The embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.
B. A set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered to
reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans.
C. The study of mental faculties through the use of mental models implemented on a computer
D. All of the above
45. Strong AI is
D. All of the above
46. Artificial intelligence is

D. All of the above
47. Apple Siri is a good example of AI.

48. IBM Watson supercomputer comes under AI.

C. Neural AI D. None of above
49. AI is a type of intelligence which could perform any intellectual task with
efficiencylike human.
C. Super AI D. None of the above
50. The idea behind AI to make such a system which could be smarter and think
likea human by its own.
51. The worldwide researchers are now focusing on developing machines with AI.
52. Playing chess, purchasing suggestions on e-commerce site, self-driving cars,

speech recognition and image recognition are the example of .
C. Super AI D. None of above
53. A machine can perform any task better than a human with cognitive properties is known as AI.
54. Ability to think, puzzle, make judgments, plan, learn, communication by its own is known as
AI.
55. AI is a hypothetical concept of AI.

56. Which AI system not store memories or past experiences for future actions.
A. Reactive machine B. Limited memory
C. Theory of mind D. None of the above
57. Which machines only focus on current scenarios and react on it as per as possible
best action.
58. IBM’s deep blue system is an example of .

59. Google Alpha Go is an example of .

60. Which can stores past experiences or some data for short period time.
C. Theory of mind D. None of above
61. The self-driving car is an example of .

Ans: B [Car stores recent speed of nearby cars, the distance of others car, speed limit, other
information to navigate the road]
62. Which AI should understand human emotions, people, and beliefs and be able to interact socially
likehumans.
63. Which machines will be smarter than human mind?

C. Theory of mind D. Self-Awareness
64. machines will have their own consciousness and sentiments
A. Reactive machine B. Theory of mind
C. Self-Awareness D. Both B & C
65. Which is not the commonly used programming language for AI?
A. PROLOG B. LISP
C. Perl D. Java script
66. What is Machine learning?

A. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
B. The autonomous acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
C. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of computer programs
D. The selective acquisition of knowledge through the use of manual programs
67 is a branch of science that deals with programming the systems in such a

waythat they automatically learn and improve with experience
68. Classifying email as spam, labeling webpages based on their content, voice recognition arethe
example of .
A. Supervised learning B. Unsupervised learning
C. Machine learning D. Deep learning
69. K-means, self-organizing maps, hierarchical clustering are the examples of .

A. Supervised learning B. Unsupervised learning
C. Machine learning D. Deep learning
70. Deep learning is a subfield of machine learning where concerned algorithms are inspired bythe
structured and function of the brain called .
A. Machine learning B. Artificial neural networks
C. Deep learning D. Robotics
71. Machine learning is invented by .

A. John McCarthy B. Nicklaus Wirth
C. Joseph Weizenbaum D. Arthur Samuel
Approved By
Prepared By Verified By Re-Verified By
Prof. S.B. Tamboli
Mr. Vijay B. Mohite Module Coordinator Dept. Academic Coordinator
HoD (Comp. Engg.)
Unit 02 – Internet of Things Marks:- 18

2.1 Embedded Systems: Embedded system concepts, Purpose of embedded systems
Architecture of embedded systems, Embedded processors-PIC, ARM, AVR, ASIC
2.2 IoT: Definition and characteristics of IoT
Physical design of IoT, Things of IoT, IoT Protocols, Logical design of IoT, IoT functional blocks, IoT
Communication models, IoT Communication APIs, IoT Enabling Technologies, IoT levels and deployment
templates, IoT Issues and Challenges, Applications IoT Devices and its features: Arduino, Uno, Raspberry Pi,
Nodeμ, Case study on IoT Applications using various Sensors and actuators
1. Embedded systems are

A. General-purpose
B. Special purpose
2. Embedded system is
A.An electronic system
B. A pure mechanical system
C. An electro-mechanical system
D. (A) or (C)
3. Which of the following is not true about embedded systems?

A. Built around specialized hardware
B. Always contain an operating system
C. Execution behavior may be deterministic
D. All of these
E. None of these
4. Which of the following is not an example of a “small-scale embedded system”?

A. Electronic Barbie doll
B. Simple calculator
C. Cell phone
D. Electronic toy car
5. The first recognized modern embedded system is

A. Apple computer
B. Apollo Guidance Computer (AGC)
C. Calculator
D. Radio navigation system
6. The first mass-produced embedded system is

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
D. Apollo Guidance Computer (AGC)
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7. Which of the following is an (are) an intended purpose(s) of embedded systems?
A. Data collection
B. Data processing
C. Data communication
D. All of these
E. None of these
8. Which of the following is (are) example(s) of an embedded system for data communication?
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D.All of these
E. None of these
9. What are the essential tight constraints related to the design metrics of an embedded system?
A. Ability to fit on a single chip
B. Low power consumption
C. Fast data processing for real-time operations
D.All of the above
10. A digital multimeter is an example of an embedded system for

A. Data communication
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
E. None of these
11. Which of the following is an (are) example(s) of an embedded system for signal processing?
A. Apple iPod (media player device)
B. SanDisk USB mass storage device
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
12. The instruction set of RISC processor is

A. Simple and lesser in number
B. Complex and lesser in number
C. Simple and larger in number
D. Complex and larger in number
13. Which of the following is true about CISC processors?

A. The instruction set is non-orthogonal
B. The number of general-purpose registers is limited
C. Instructions are like macros in c language
D. Variable-length instructions
E. All of these
F. None of these
14. Main processor chip in computers is

A. ASIC
B. ASSP
C. CPU
D. CPLD
15. Processors used in many microcontroller products need to be

A. high power
B. low power
C. low interrupt response
D. low code density
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16. In microcontrollers, UART is acronym of
A. Universal Applied Receiver/Transmitter
B. Universal Asynchronous Rectified Transmitter
C. Universal Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter
D. United Asynchronous Receiver/Transmitter
17. Which architecture is followed by general-purpose microprocessors?

A. Harvard architecture
B. Von Neumann architecture
C. None of the mentioned
D. All of the mentioned
18. Which architecture involves both the volatile and non-volatile memory?
19. Which architecture provides separate buses for program and data memory?
20. Harvard architecture allows:
A. Separate program and data memory
B. Pipe-ling
C. Complex architecture
21. Which of the following processor architecture supports easier instruction pipelining?
A. Harvard
B. Von Neumann
C. Both of them
D. None of these
22. Which of the following is an example of a wireless communication interface?

A. RS-232C
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. EEE1394
E. Both (B) and (C)
23. ARM stands for

A. Advanced RISC Machine
B. Advanced RISC Methodology
C. Advanced Reduced Machine
D. Advanced Reduced Methodology
24. What is the processor used by ARM7?

A. 8-bit CISC
B. 8-bit RISC
C. 32-bit CISC
D. 32-bit RISC
25. The main importance of ARM microprocessors is providing operation with

A. Low cost and low power consumption
B. Higher degree of multi-tasking
C. Lower error or glitches
D. Efficient memory management
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26. ARM processors where basically designed for
A. Mainframe systems
B. Distributed systems
C. Mobile systems
D. Supercomputers
27. ASIC chip is

A. Simple in design.
B. Manufacturing time is less.
C. It is faster
D. Both A&C.
28. ASIC stands for
A. Application-System Integrated Circuits
B. Application-Specific Integrated Circuits
C. Application-System Internal Circuits
D. Application-Specific Internal Circuits
29. In microcontrollers, I2C stands for

A. Inter-Integrated Clock
B. Initial-Integrated Clock
C. Intel-Integrated Circuit
D. Inter-Integrated Circuit
30. is the smallest microcontrollers which can be programmed to perform a large range of tasks.
A. PIC microcontrollers
B. ARM microcontrollers
C. AVR microcontrollers
D. ASIC microcontrollers
31. was developed in the year 1996 by ATMEL Corporation
A. PIC
B. AVR
C. ARM
D. ASIC
32. AVR stands for .
A. Advanced Virtual RISC
B. Alf-EgilBogen and VegardWollan RISC
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above
33. AVR microcontroller executes most of the instruction in .
A. Single execution cycle.
B. Double execution cycle.
C. Both A& B
D. None of the above.
34. The term "the Internet of things" was coined by
A. Edward L. Schneider
B. Kevin Ashton
C. John H.
D. Charles Anthony
35. The huge numbers of devices connected to the Internet of Things have to communicate automatically, not via
humans, what is this called?
A. Bot to Bot(B2B)
B. Machine to Machine(M2M)
C. InterCloud
D. Skynet
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36. What does “Things” in IoT refer to?
A. General device
B. Information
C. IoT devices
D. Object
37. Interconnection of Internet and computing devices embedded in everyday objects, enabling them to send and
receive data is called
A. Internet of Things
B. Network Interconnection
C. Object Determination
D. None of these
38. is a computing concept that describes the idea of everyday physical objects being connected to
the internet.
A. IoT (Internet of Things)
B. MQTT
C. COAP
D. SPI
39 devices may support a number of interoperable communication protocols and communicate with other
devices and also with infrastructure.
A. Artificial Intelligence
B. Machine Learning
C. Internet of Things
40. Which one is not an element of IoT?

A. Process
B. People
C. Security
D. Things
41. IIOT stands for

A. Information Internet of Things
B. Industrial Internet of Things
C. Innovative Internet of Things
42. Name of the IoT device which is first recognized?

A. Smart Watch
B. ATM
C. Radio
D. Video Game
43. is used by IoT

A. Radio information technology
B. Satellite
C. Cable
D. Broadband
44. consists of communication protocols for electronic devices, typically a mobile device and a standard
device.
A. RFID
B. MQTT
C. NFC
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45. refers to establish a proper connection between all the things of IoT.
A. Connectivity
B. Analyzing
C. Sensing
D. Active Engagement
46. IOT devices which have unique identities and can perform .
A. Remote sensing
B. Actuating
C. Monitoring capabilities
D. All of the above
47. The sensed data communicated .

A. Cloud-based servers/storage.
B. I/O interfaces.
C. Internet connectivity.
48. IoT devices are various types, for instance _.

A. Wearable sensors
B. Smartwatches.
C. LED lights
D. All of the above
49. is a collection of wired Ethernet standard for the link layer.

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
50. is a collection of WLAN communication standards.

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
51. is a collection of wireless broadband standards (WiMax).

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
52 is a collection of standards for LR-WPANs.

A. IEEE 802.3
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.16
D. IEEE 802.15.4
53. LR-WPANs standards from the basis of specifications for high-level communication protocol such as .
A. Zigbee
B. Allsean
C. Tyrell
D. Microsoft's Azure
54. includes GSM and CDMA.

A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
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55. include UMTS and CDMA2000.
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
56 _include LTE.
A. 2G
B. 3G
C. 4G
57. layer protocols determine how the data is physically sent over the network’s physical layer or
medium.
A. Application layer
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link-layer
58 layer is responsible for sending of IP datagrams from the source network to the destination network.
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link-layer
59. layer performs the host addressing and packet routing.

B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link-layer
60. protocols provide end to end message transfer capability independent of the underlying network.
A. Network layer
B. Transport layer
C. Application layer
D. Link-layer
61. The protocols define how the applications interface with the lower-layer protocol to send the data over the
network.
B. Transport layer
C. Network layer
D. Link-layer
62. 6LOWPAN stands for

A. 6 LOW Personal Area Network
B. IPv6 LOW Personal Area Network
C. IPv6 over Low power wireless personal area network
63. 802.3 is the standard for 10BASE5 Ethernet that uses cable as shared medium.
A. Twisted pair cable
B. Coaxial cable
C. Fiber optic cable
64. IEEE 802.11 standards provide data rates

A. 10 Gbit/s.
B. 1 Gbit/s
C. 1 Mb/s to up to 6.75 Gb/s
D. 250 Kb/s
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65. of the following is a protocol related to IoT
A. Zigbee
B. 6LoWPAN
C. CoAP
D. All of the above
66. is useful for time-sensitive application that have very small data units to exchange and do not
want the overhead of connection setup.
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. Transport layer
67. protocol uses Universal Resource Identifiers (URIs) to identify HTTP resources.
A. HTTP
B. COAP
C. WebSocket
D. MQTT
68. The 10/100Mbit Ethernet support enables the board to connect to
A. LAN
B. MAN
C. WAN
D. WLAN
69. Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology?
A. Bluetooth
B. UART
C. Wi-Fi
D. HTTP
70. What is the size of the IPv6 Address?
A. 32 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 128 bits
D. 256 bits
71. MQTT stands for
A. MQ Telemetry Things
B. MQ Transport Telemetry
C. MQ Transport Things
D. MQ Telemetry Transport
72. MQTT is better than HTTP for sending and receiving data.
A. True
B. False
73. MQTT is protocol.
A. Machine to Machine
B. Internet of Things
C. Machine to Machine and Internet of Things
D. Machine Things
74. Which protocol is lightweight?
A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
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75. MQTT is:
A. Based on client-server architecture
B. Based on publish-subscribe architecture
C. Based on both of the above
D. Based on none of the above
76. XMPP is used for streaming which type of elements?

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
77. XMPP creates identity.

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
78. XMPP uses architecture.

A. Decentralized client-server
B. Centralized client-server
C. Message
D. Public/subscriber
79. What does HTTP do?

A. Enables network resources and reduces the perception of latency
B. Reduces perception of latency and allows multiple concurrency exchange
C. Allows multiple concurrent exchanges and enables network resources
D. Enables network resources and reduces the perception of latency and Allows multiple concurrent exchange.
80. HTTP expands?

A. HyperText Transfer Protocol
B. Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol
C. HyperText Terminal Protocol
D. Hyper Terminal Text Protocol
81. CoAP is specialized in

A. Internet applications
B. Device applications
C. Wireless applications
D. Wired applications
82. Which protocol is used to link all the devices in the IoT?
A. TCP/IP
B. Network
C. UDP
D. HTTP
83. Data in network layer is transferred in the form of

A. Layers
B. Packets
C. Bytes
D. Bits
84. Services provided by the application layer?

A. Webchat
B. Error control
C. Connection services
D. Congestion control
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85. TCP and UDP are called?
A. Application protocols
B. Session protocols
C. Transport protocols
D. Network protocols
86. The security-based connection is provided by which layer?
B. Transport layer
C. Session layer
D. Network layer
87. Using which layer in transport layer data integrity can be assured?
A. Checksum
B. Repetition codes
C. Cyclic redundancy checks
D. Error correction codes
88. The transport layer receives data in the form of?
A. Packets
B. Byte streams
C. Bits stream
D. both packet and Byte stream
89. The network layer is considered as the ?
A. Backbone
B. packets
C. Bytes
D. bits
90. The network layer consists of which hardware devices?
A. Router
B. Bridges
C. Switches
D. All of the above
91. Network layer protocol exits in _?
A. Host
B. Switches
C. Packets
D. Bridges
92. Which protocol has a quality of service?
A. XMPP
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. MQTT
93. is a data-centric middleware standard for device-to-device and machine-to-machine communication.
A. Data Distribution Service (DDS)
B. Advanced Message Queuing Protocol (AMQP)
C. Extensible Messaging and Presence Protocol (XMPP)
D. Message Queue Telemetry Transport (MQTT)
94. is a bi-directional, fully duplex communication model that uses a persistent connection between client
and server.
A. Request-Response
B. Publish-Subscriber
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
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95. is a stateful communication model and the server is aware of all open connections.
A. Request-Response
C. Push-Pull
D. Exclusive Pair
96. Which is not an IoT communication model.
A. Request-Response
B. Publish-Subscribe
C. Push-Producer
D. Exclusive Pair
97. In Node MCU, MCU stands for .
A. Micro Control Unit
B. MicroController Unit
C. Macro Control Unit
D. Macro Controller Unit
98. REST is acronym for
A. Representational State Transfer
B. Represent State Transfer
C. Representational State Transmit
D. Representational Store Transfer
99. WSN stands for
A. Wide Sensor Network
B. Wireless Sensor Network
C. Wired Sensor Network
D. None of these
100. The benefit of cloud computing services
A. Fast
B. Anywhere access
C. Higher utilization
D. All of the above
101. PaaS stands for
A. Platform as a Service
B. Platform as a Survey
C. People as a Service
D. Platform as a Survey
102. as a Service is a cloud computing infrastructure that creates a development environment upon
which applications may be build.
A. Infrastructure
B. Service
C. Platform
103. is a cloud computing service model in which hardware is virtualized in the cloud.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
D. None of the mentioned
104. Which of the following is the fundamental unit of the virtualized client in an IaaS deployment?
a) work unit
b) workspace
c) workload
d) all of the mentioned
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105. offering provides the tools and development environment to deploy applications on another vendor’s
application.
A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. CaaS
106. is the most refined and restrictive service model.
A. IaaS
B. CaaS
C. PaaS
107. is suitable for IoT applications to have low latency or high throughput requirements.
A. REST
C. Push-Pull
D. WebSocket
108. is one of the most popular wireless technologies used by WSNs.
A. Zigbee
B. AllSean
C. Tyrell
D. Z-Wave
109. Zigbeespecification are based on .
A. 802.3
B. 802.11
C. 802.16
D. 802.15.4
110. is a transformative computing paradigm that involves delivering applications and services over the
internet.
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
111. The process of collecting, organizing and collecting large sets of data called as
A. WSN
B. Cloud Computing
C. Big Data
112. Does Raspberry Pi need external hardware?
A. True
B. False
113. Does RPi have internal memory?
A. True
B. False
114. What do we use to connect TV to RPi?
A. Male HDMI
B. Female HDMI
C. Male HDMI and Adapter
D. Female HDMI and Adapter
115. How power supply is done to RPi?

A. USB connection
B. Internal battery
C. Charger
D. Adapter
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116. What is the Ethernet/LAN cable used in RPi?
A.Cat5
B.Cat5e
C. cat6
D .RJ45
117. Which instruction set architecture is used in Raspberry Pi?

A. X86
B. MSP
C. AVR
D. ARM
118. Does micro SD card present in all modules?

A. True
B. False
119. Which characteristics involve the facility the thing to respond in an intelligent way to a particular situation?
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
120. empowers IoT by bringing together everyday objects.

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
121. The collection of data is achieved with changes.

A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
122. The number of devices that need to be managed and that communicate with each other will be much larger.
A. Intelligence
B. Connectivity
C. Dynamic Nature
D. Enormous Scale
123. inIoT as one of the key characteristics, devices have different hardware platforms and networks.
A. Sensors
B. Heterogeneity
C. Security
D. Connectivity
124. Devices that transforms electrical signals into physical movements

A. Sensors
B. Actuators
C. Switches
D. Display
125. Stepper motors are
A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
Page 13 of 15
126. DC motors convert electrical into energy.
A. Mechanical
B. Wind
C. Electric
D. None
127. Linear actuators are used in
A. Machine tools
B. Industrial machinery
C.both A and B
D.None
128. Solenoid is a specially designed
A. Actuator
B. Machine
C. Electromagnet
D. none of above
129. Stepper motors are
A. AC motors
B. DC motors
C. Electromagnets
130. Accelerometer sensors are used in
A. Smartphones
B. Aircrafts
C. Both
131. Image sensors are found in
A. Cameras
B. Night-vision equipment
C. Sonars
D. All of the above
132. Gas sensors are used to detect gases.

A. Toxic
B. Natural
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
133. Properties of Arduino are:

A. Inexpensive
B. Independent
C. Simple
D. both A and C
134. Properties of IoT devices.

A. Sense
B. Send and receive data
C. Both A and B
135. IoT devices are

A. Standard
B. Non-standard
C. Both
D. None
Page 14 of 15
136. What is the microcontroller used in Arduino UNO?
A. ATmega328p
B. ATmega2560
C. ATmega32114
D. AT91SAM3x8E
137. is an open-source electronic platform based on easy to used hardware and software.
A. Arduino
B. Uno
C. Raspberry Pi
D. Node
138 is used latching, locking, triggering.

A. Solenoid
B. Relay
C. Linear Actuator
D. Servo motors
139. _detect the presence or absence of nearby objects without any physical contact.
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Pressure Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
140 sensors include thermocouples, thermistors, resistor temperature detectors (RTDs) and integrated
circuits (ICs).
A. Smoke Sensor
B. Temperature Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
141. The measurement of humidity is

A. RH
B. PH
C. IC
142 sensor is used for automatic door controls, automatic parking system, automated sinks, automated toilet
flushers, hand dryers.
A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Motion Sensor
143 sensor measure heat emitted by objects.

A. Smoke Sensor
C. IR Sensor
D. Proximity Sensor
Approved By
Prof. S.B. Tamboli
HoD (Comp. Engg.)
Page 15 of 15
Unit 03 – Basics of Digital Forensic Marks:- 08

3.1 Digital forensics
Introduction to digital forensic, History of forensic, Rules of digital forensic, Definition of digital forensic, Digital
forensics investigation and its goal
3.2 Models of Digital Forensic Investigation
Road map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR) Investigative Model
Abstract Digital Forensics Model (ADFM)
Integrated Digital Investigation Process (IDIP)
End to End digital investigation process (EEDIP)
An extended model for cybercrime investigation
UML modeling of digital forensic process model (UMDFPM)
3.3 Ethical issues in digital forensic
General ethical norms for investigators, Unethical norms for investigation
1. Digital forensics is all of them except:

A. Extraction of computer data.
B. Preservation of computer data.
C. Interpretation of computer data.
D. Manipulation of computer data.
2. IDIP stands for

A. Integrated Digital Investigation Process.
B. Integrated Data Investigator Process.
C. Integrated Digital Investigator Process.
D. Independent Digital Investigator Process.
3. Who proposed Road Map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR)

A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
4. The investigator should satisfy the following points:

A. Contribute to society and human beings.
B. Avoid harm to others.
C. Honest and trustworthy.
D. All of the above
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame a question based on
available factual evidence.
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Page 1 of 5
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these macros (the document opens
and the application automatically runs); spread via email
A. The purpose of the copyright
B. The danger of macro viruses
C. Derivative works
D. computer-specific crime
7. There are three c's in computer forensics. Which is one of the three?
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
8. When Federal Bureau Investigation program was created?

A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
9. When the field of PC forensics began?

A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
10. What is Digital Forensic?

A. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in court
B. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal purpose involving the analysis of
digital evidence after proper search authority, the chain of custody, validation with mathematics, use of validated
tools, repeatability, reporting, and possible expert presentation
C. process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about digital events
D. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of the facts or evidence in a court of law
11. Digital Forensics entails .

A. Accessing the system's directories viewing mode and navigating through the various systems files and folders
B. Undeleting and recovering lost files
C. Identifying and solving computer crimes
D. The identification, preservation, recovery, restoration, and presentation of digital evidence from systems and
devices
12. Which of the following is FALSE?

A. The digital forensic investigator must maintain absolute objectivity
B. It is the investigator’s job to determine someone’s guilt or innocence.
C. It is the investigator‟s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts of a case.
D. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results of an investigation on only a “need to know”
13. What is the most significant legal issue in computer forensics?

A. Preserving Evidence
B. Seizing Evidence
C. Admissibility of Evidence
D. Discovery of Evidence
14. phase includes putting the pieces of a digital puzzle together and developing investigative hypotheses
A. Preservation phase
B. Survey phase
C. Documentation phase
D. Reconstruction phase
E. Presentation phase
Page 2 of 5
15. In phase investigator transfers the relevant data from a venue out of physical or administrative control of
the investigator to a controlled location
B. Survey phase
16. In phase investigator transfers the relevant data from a venue out of physical or administrative control of
the investigator to a controlled location
B. Survey phase
17. Computer forensics do not involve activity.

A. Preservation of computer data.
B. Extraction of computer data.
C. Manipulation of computer data.
D. Interpretation of computer data.
18. A set of instruction compiled into a program that perform a particular task is known as:
A. Hardware.
B.CPU
C. Motherboard
D. Software
19. Which of following is not a rule of digital forensics?

A. An examination should be performed on the original data
B. A copy is made onto forensically sterile media. New media should always be used if available.
C. The copy of the evidence must be an exact, bit-by-bit copy
D. The examination must be conducted in such a way as to prevent any modification of the evidence.
20. To collect and analyze the digital evidence that was obtained from the physical investigation phase, is the goal of
which phase?
A. Physical crime investigation
B. Digital crime investigation.
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase.
21. To provide a mechanism to an incident to be detected and confirmed is purpose of which phase?
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase.
22. Which phase entails a review of the whole investigation and identifies an area of improvement?
C. Review phase.
D. Deployment phase
23. is known as father of computer forensic.

A. G. Palmar
B. J. Korn
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain.
Page 3 of 5
24. _is well established science where various contribution have been made
A. Forensic
B. Crime
C. Cyber Crime
D. Evidence
25. Who proposed End to End Digital Investigation Process (EEDIP)?

A. G. Palmar
B. Stephenson
C. Michael Anderson
D. S.Ciardhuain
26. Which model of Investigation proposed by Carrier and Safford?

A. Extended Model of Cybercrime Investigation (EMCI)
B. Integrated Digital Investigation Process(IDIP)
C. Road Map for Digital Forensic Research (RMDFR)
D. Abstract Digital Forensic Model (ADFM)
27. Which of the following is not a property of computer evidence?

A. Authentic and Accurate.
B. Complete and Convincing.
C. Duplicated and Preserved.
D. Conform and Human Readable.
28. can makes or breaks investigation.

A. Crime
B. Security
C: Digital Forensic
D: Evidence
29. is software that blocks unauthorized users from connecting to your computer.
A. Firewall
B. Quick launch
C. OneLogin
D. Centrify
30. Which of the following are general Ethical norms for Investigator?
A. To contribute to society and human beings. B. To avoid harm to others.
C. To be honest and trustworthy. D. All of the above
31. Which of the following are Unethical norms for Investigator?
A. Uphold any relevant evidence.
B. Declare any confidential matters or knowledge.
C. Distort or falsify education, training, credentials.
D. All of the above
32. Which of the following is not a general ethical norm for Investigator?
A. To contribute to society and human beings. B. Uphold any relevant Evidence.
C. To be honest and trustworthy. D. To honor confidentially.
33. Which of the following is a not unethical norm for Digital Forensics Investigation?
D. To respect the privacy of others.
34. What is called as the process of creation a duplicate of digital media for purpose of examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Page 4 of 5
35. Which term refers to modifying a computer in a way which was not originally intended to view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
36. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is an example of a law
enforcement specialty called?
A. Robotics
B. Simulation
C. Computer Forensics
D. Animation
37. What are the important parts of the mobile device which used in Digital forensic?
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
38. Using what, data hiding in encrypted images be carried out in digital forensics?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
39. Which of this is not a computer crime?

A. e-mail harassment
B. Falsification of data.
C. Sabotage.
D. Identification of data
40. Which file is used to store the user entered password?

A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .sam
41. is the process of recording as much data as possible to create reports and analysis on user input.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Metadata
D. Data Spoofing.
42. searches through raw data on a hard drive without using a file system.
A. Data mining
B. Data carving
C. Metadata
D. Data Spoofing.
43. What is the first step to Handle Retrieving Data from an Encrypted Hard Drive?
A. Formatting disk
B. Storing data
C. Finding configuration files.
D. Deleting Files
Approved By
Prof. S.B. Tamboli
HoD (Comp. Engg.)
Page 5 of 5
Unit 04 – Digital Evidences Marks:- 10
4.1 Digital Evidences Definition of Digital Evidence, Best Evidence Rule, Original Evidence
4.2 Rules of Digital Evidence
4.3 Characteristics of Digital Evidence Locard‟s Exchange Principle Digital Stream of bits
4.4 Types of evidence Illustrative, Electronics, Documented, Explainable, Substantial, Testimonial
4.5 Challenges in evidence handling-Authentication of evidence, Chain of custody, Evidence validation
4.6 Volatile evidence
1. The digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between

a. Attacker and victim and the crime scene
b. Attacker and crime scene
c. victim and the crime scene
d. Attacker and Information
2. Digital evidences must follow the requirements of the

a. Ideal Evidences rule
b. Best Evidences rule
c. Exchange rule
d. All of the mentioned
3. From the two given statements 1 & 2, select the correct option from a-d
1) Original media can be used to carry out digital investigation process
2) By default, every part of the victim’s computer is considered unreliable.
a. a and b both are true
b. a is true and b is false
c. a and b both are false
d. a is false and b is true
4. The evidences of proof that can be obtained from the electronic source is called the
a. Digital Evidence
b. Demonstrative Evidence
c. Explainable Evidence
d. Substantial Evidence
5. Which of the following is not a type of volatile evidence?

a. Routing Table
b. Main Memory
c. Log files
d. Cached Data
6. A valid definition of digital evidence is:

a. Data stored or transmitted using a computer
b. Information of probative value
c. Digital data of probative value
d. Any digital evidence on a computer
Page 1 of 11
7. What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital evidence?
a. Desktop, laptop, server
b. Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone
c. Hardware, software, networks
d.Open computer systems, communication systems, embedded systems
8. In terms of digital evidence, a hard drive is an example of:

a. Open computer systems
b. Communication systems
c. Embedded computer systems
d. None of the above
9. In terms of digital evidence, a mobile telephone is an example of:

10. In terms of digital evidence, a Smart Card is an example of:

11. In terms of digital evidence, the Internet is an example of:

12. Computers can be involved in which of the following types of crime?

a. Homicide and sexual assault
b. Computer intrusions and intellectual property theft
c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
13. A logon record tells us that, at a specific time

a. An unknown person logged into the system using the account
b. The owner of a specific account logged into the system
c. The account was used to log into the system
14. The criminological principle which states that, when anyone, or anything, enters a crime
scene he/she takes something of the scene with him/her, and leaves something of
himself/herself behind, is:
a. Locard’s Exchange Principle
b. Differential Association Theory
c. Beccaria‟s Social Contract
15. Personal computers and networks are often a valuable source of evidence. Those involved
with------should be comfortable with this technology
a. Criminal investigation
b. Prosecution
c. Defense work
d. All of the above
Page 2 of 11
16. Digital evidence is only useful in a court of law.
a.True
b. False
17. Video surveillance can be a form of digital evidence.

a.True
b. False
18. All forensic examinations should be performed on the original digital evidence.
a.True
b. False
19. Digital evidence can be duplicated exactly without any changes to the original data.
a.True
b. False
20. Computers were involved in the investigations into both World Trade Center attacks.
a.True
b. False
21. Computer professionals who take inappropriate actions when they encounter child
pornography on their employer’s systems can lose their jobs or break the law.
a.True
b. False
22. Digital evidence is always circumstantial.

a.True
b. False
23. Digital evidence alone can be used to build a solid case.

a.True
b. False
24. Automobiles have computers that record data such as vehicle speed, brake status, and throttle position
when an accident occurs.
a.True
b. False
25. Computers can be used by terrorists to detonate bombs.

a.True
b.False
26. The aim of a forensic examination is to prove with certainty what occurred.
a.True
b. False
27. Even digital investigations that do not result in legal action can benefit from principles of forensic
science.
a.True
b. False
28. Forensic science is the application of science to investigation and prosecution of crime or to the just
resolution of conflict.
a.True
b. False
Page 3 of 11
29. When a file is deleted from a hard drive, it can often be recovered.
a.True
b. False
30. Preservation of digital evidence can involve which of the following?

a. Collecting computer hardware
b. Making a forensic image of storage media
c. Copying the files that are needed from storage media
d. All of the above
31. Examination of digital evidence includes (but is not limited to) which of the following activities?
a. Seizure, preservation, and documentation
b. Recovery, harvesting, and reduction
c. Experimentation, fusion, and correlation
d. Arrest, interviewing, and trial
32. Analysis of digital evidence includes which of the following activities?
a.Seizure, preservation, and documentation
b.Experimentation, fusion, and correlation
c. Recovery, harvesting, and reduction
d. Arrest, interviewing, and trial
33. Evidence can be related to its source in which of the following ways?
a. Top, middle, bottom
b. IP address, MD5 value, filename, date-time stamps
c. Production, segment, alteration, location
d. Parent, uncle, orphan
34. Different types of analysis include which of the following?
a.Relational (e.g., link analysis) and temporal (e.g., timeline analysis)
b.Cryptography
c. Metadata hashing
d.Digital photography
35. When a website is under investigation, before obtaining authorization to seize the systems it is
necessary to:
a. Determine where the web servers are located
b. Inform personnel at the web server location that you‟ll be coming to seize the systems
c. Conduct a reconnaissance probe of the target website
d.None of the above
36. Which of the following is NOT an information gathering process?
a. Scanning the system remotely
b. Studying security audit reports
c. Attempting to bypass logon security
d. Examining e-mail headers
37. Unlike law enforcement, system administrators are permitted to on their

network when it is necessary to protect the network and the data it contains.
a.Open unread e-mails.
b. Monitor network traffic.
c. Modify system logs.
d. Divulge user personal information.
38. Although it was not designed with evidence collection in mind, can still be
useful for examining network traffic.
a.EnCase
b. FTK
c. Wireshark
d. CHKDSK
Page 4 of 11
39. Issues to be aware of when connecting to a computer over a network and collecting information
include:
a.Creating and following a set of standard operating procedures
b.Keeping a log of actions taken during the collection process
c. Documenting which server actually contains the data that‟s being collected
d.All of the above
40. When a computer contains digital evidence, it is always advisable to turn it off immediately.
a.True
b. False
41. A forensic image of a hard disk drive preserves the partition table.
a.True
b. False
42. All forensic tools acquire digital evidence from storage media in the same way.
a.True
b. False
43. It is not necessary to sanitize/wipe a hard drive purchased directly from a manufacturer.
a.True
b. False
44. Chain of custody enables anyone to determine where a piece of evidence has been, who handled it
when, and what was done to it since it was seized.
a.True
b. False
45. No two files can have the same MD5 value.
a.True
b. False
46. After the MD5 value of a piece of digital evidence has been calculated, any change in that piece of
evidence can be detected.
a.True
b. False
47. When drawing up an affidavit for a warrant, it is important to specifically mention all desired digital
evidence.
a.True
b. False
48. When seeking authorization to search a network and digital evidence that may exist in more than one
jurisdiction it is not necessary to obtain a search warrant for each location.
a.True
b. False
49. Digital investigators should remember that evidence can reside in unexpected places, such as
network routers.
a.True
b. False
50. Active monitoring is time consuming, invasive, and costly and should only be used as a last resort.
a.True
b. False
51. A digital evidence class characteristic is similar to tool mark analysis in the physical world.
a.True
b. False
Page 5 of 11
52. TCP/IP network traffic never contains useful class characteristics.
a.True
b. False
53. It is not possible to recover deleted system or network log files.
a.True
b. False
54. Having a member of the search team trained to handle digital evidence:
a. Can reduce the number of people who handle the evidence
b. Can serve to streamline the presentation of the case
c. Can reduce the opportunity for opposing counsel to impugn the integrity of the evidence
d. All of the above
55. A digital investigator pursuing a line of investigation in a case because that line of investigation
proved successful in two previous cases is an example of:
a. Logical reasoning
b. Common sense
c. Preconceived theory
d. Investigator‟s intuition
56. Regarding the admissibility of evidence, which of the following is not a consideration:
a. Relevance
b. Authenticity
c. Best evidence
d. Nominally prejudicial
57. According to the text, the most common mistake that prevents evidence seized from being
admitted is:
a.Uninformed consent
b. Forcible entry
c. Obtained without authorization
58. The process of documenting the seizure of digital evidence and, in particular, when that evidence
changes hands, is known as:
a. Chain of custody
b. Field notes
c. Interim report
59. When assessing the reliability of digital evidence, the investigator is concerned with whether the
computer that generated the evidence was functioning normally, and:
a. Whether chain of custody was maintained
b. Whether there are indications that the actual digital evidence was tampered with
c. Whether the evidence was properly secured in transit
d. Whether the evidence media was compatible with forensic machines
60. The fact that with modern technology, a photocopy of a document has become acceptable in place of
the original is known as:
a. Best evidence rule
b. Due diligence
c. Quid pro quo
d. Voir dire
Page 6 of 11
61. Evidence contained in a document provided to prove that statements made in court are true is
referred to as:
a. Inadmissible evidence
b. Illegally obtained evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Direct evidence
62. Business records are considered to be an exception to:

a. Direct evidence
b. Inadmissible evidence
c. Illegally obtained evidence
d. Hearsay evidence
63. Direct evidence establishes a:

a. Fact
b. Assumption
c. Error
d. Line of inquiry
64. There is no need for any specialized training in the collection of digital evidence.
a. True
b. False
65. It is the duty of a digital investigator to ignore influences from any source.
a. True
b. False
66. The application of preconceived theories to a particular case is a good method of reducing
caseload.
a.True b. False
67. In the United States, the prosecution must prove guilt beyond a reasonable doubt.
a. True
b. False
68. Chain of custody is the process of documenting who has handled evidence, where and when, as it
travels from the crime scene to the courts.
a. True
b. False
69. Typically, a photocopy of a document is considered hearsay evidence and is not admissible
in court.
a. True
b. False
70. Direct evidence establishes a fact.

a.True
b. False
71. Coerced testimony is the most common mistake that prevents evidence seized from being admitted.
a.True
b. False
72. Determining whether digital evidence has been tampered with is a major concern of the digital
examiner.
a.True
b. False
Page 7 of 11
73. Exceeding the scope of a warrant is not likely to affect the admissibility of the evidence collected.
a.True
b. False
74. Digital evidence cannot be direct evidence because of its separation from the events it represents.
a.True
b. False
75. When creating an expert report, digital investigators should support assertions in their reports with
multiple independent sources of evidence.
a.True
b. False
76. Voir dire is the process of becoming accepted as an expert by the court.
a.True
b. False
77. During testimony, when a lawyer appears not to be tech savvy, it is a good practice to guess what
the attorney is trying to ask.
a.True
b. False
78. A proper response to a question that you do not know the answer to is, “I don’t know.”
a.True
b. False
79. The term “computer contaminant” refers to:

a.Excessive dust found inside the computer case
b.Viruses, worms, and other malware
c. Spam e-mails
d. Nigerian scam e-mails
80. In those states with legislation addressing computer forgery, contraband in the form of “forgery
devices” may include:
a.Computers
b. Computer equipment
c. Specialized computer software
d. All of the above
81. Hacking is an example of:

a. Computer-assisted crime
b. Computer-related crime
c. Computer-integrity crime
d. Computer malfeasance crime
82. Forgery is an example of:

a. Computer assisted crime
b. Computer-related crime
c. Computer-integrity crime
d. Computer malfeasance crime
83. Jurisdiction claims may be based on:

a.Location of the perpetrator‟s computer
b.Location of the victim‟s computer
c.Location of intermediary computers
d. All of the above
Page 8 of 11
84. The goal of an investigation is to:
a.Convict the suspect
b.Discover the truth
c.Find incriminating evidence
d.All of the above
85. An investigation can be hindered by the following:

a. Preconceived theories
b. b. Improperly handled evidence
c. Offender concealment behavior
d. All of the above
86. Forensic examination involves which of the following:

a.Assessment, experimentation, fusion, correlation, and validation
b.Seizure and preservation
c. Recovery, harvesting, filtering, organization, and search
d. All of the above
87. Forensic analysis involves the following:

a. Assessment, experimentation, fusion, correlation, and validation
b. Seizure and preservation
c. Recovery, harvesting, filtering, organization, and search
d.All of the above
88. The first step in applying the scientific method to a digital investigation is to:
a. Form a theory on what may have occurred
b. Experiment or test the available evidence to confirm or refute your prediction
c. Make one or more observations based on events that occurred
d. Form a conclusion based on the results of your findings
89. Which of the following should the digital investigator consider when arranging for the transportation
of evidence?
a.Should the evidence be physically in the possession of the investigator at all times?
b.Will the evidence copies be shared with other experts at other locations?
c. Will there be environmental factors associated with the digital media?
d.All of the above
90. Generating a plan of action and obtaining supporting resources and materials falls under which step
in the digital investigation?
a. Preparation
b. Survey/identification
c. Preservation
d. Examination and analysis
91. Forensic examination and forensic analysis are separate processes.

a.True
b. False
92. When a network is involved in a crime, investigators must seize and preserve all systems on the
network.
a.True
b. False
93. When seizing a computer, it is always acceptable to lose the contents of RAM.
a.True
b. False
Page 9 of 11
94. Case management is a critical part of digital investigations.
a.True
b. False
95. Forensic examination is the process of extracting, viewing, and analyzing information from the
evidence collected.
a.True
b. False
96. The crime scene preservation process includes all but which of the following:
a.Protecting against unauthorized alterations
b.Acquiring digital evidence
c. Confirming system date and time
d. Controlling access to the crime scene
97. The challenge to controlling access to a digital crime scene is that:

a.Information may be stored on Internet servers in different locations.
b.The computer may be shared.
c. The computer case may be locked.
d.None of the above.
98. When presenting evidence on an organizational network, the digital investigator may require the
assistance of:
a. System administrators
b. The CEO of the organization
c. The CSO (Chief Security Officer)
d.Additional forensic investigators
99. The proper collection of evidence at a crime scene is crucial in terms of admissibility in court.
a.True
b. False
100. The investigation and study of victim characteristics is known as:

a.Criminal profiling
b.Behavioral imprints
c. Victimology
d.Crime scene analysis
101. One reason digital investigators write threshold assessments more often than full reports is
because:
a. They will be included in a final report, and so, distribute the time for final report preparation over the entire
period of the investigation.
b. They keep their supervisor aware of their productivity.
c. They take less time to prepare and may be sufficient to close out an investigation.
d. They serve as field notes for the investigator.
102. One reason not to put too much trust into those who run the company’s computers is that:
a.There has always been an antagonism between system administrators and law enforcement.
b.They are typically too busy to take the time to answer your questions.
c. They are usually not authorized to answer questions.
d.They may be the offenders.
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103. Although crime scenes are typically photographed, it is a good idea to create diagrams of the
crime scene because:
a. Diagramming is a common crime scene technician‟s skill; however, it requires continual practice.
b. The process of creating a diagram can result in a digital investigator noticing an important item of
evidence that would otherwise have been missed.
c. The quality of photographs taken at the crime scene is not known until the film is developed.
d.None of the above
104. When processing the digital crime scene in a violent crime investigation it is important to have
to ensure that all digital evidence and findings can hold up under close scrutiny.
a.A good supply of electrostatic bags for holding sensitive electronic components
b.More than one reliable camera for photographing the crime scene
c. Standard operating procedures for processing a digital crime scene
d. A good supply of nitrile gloves
Approved By
Prof. S.B. Tamboli
HoD (Comp. Engg.)
Page 11 of 11
Unit 05 – Basics of Hacking Marks:- 12
5.1 Ethical Hacking- How Hackers Beget Ethical Hackers, Defining hacker, Malicious users
5.2 Understanding the need to hack your own systems
5.3 Understanding the dangers your systems face- Nontechnical attacks, Network-infrastructure attacks,
Operating-system attacks, Application and other specialized attacks
5.4 Obeying the Ethical hacking Principles- Working ethically, Respecting privacy, Not crashing your
systems
5.5 The Ethical hacking Process- Formulating your plan, Selecting tools, Executing the plan, Evaluating
results, Moving on
5.6 Cracking the Hacker Mind-set- What You‟re Up Against?, Who breaks in to computer systems? Why
they do it? Planning and Performing Attacks Maintaining Anonymity
1. Hackers who help in finding bugs and vulnerabilities in a system & don’t intend to crack a system are
termed as
a) Black Hat hackers
b) White Hat Hackers
c) Grey Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: b
Explanation: White Hat Hackers are cyber security analysts and consultants who have the intent to help firms
and Governments in the identification of loopholes as well as help to perform penetration tests for securing a
system.
2. Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries and firms?
a) Cracking
b) Non ethical Hacking
c) Ethical hacking
d) Hactivism
Answer: c
Explanation: Ethical Hacking is an ethical form of hacking done by white-hat hackers for performing penetration
tests and identifying potential threats in any organizations and firms.
3. They are nefarious hackers, and their main motive is to gain financial profit by doing cybercrimes.
Who are “they” referred to here?
a) Gray Hat Hackers
c) Hactivists
d) Black Hat Hackers
Answer: d
Explanation: Black Hat hackers also termed as „crackers‟ and are a major type of cyber criminals who take
unauthorized access in user‟s account or system and steal sensitive data or inject malware into the system for
their profit or to harm the organization.
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4. are the combination of both white as well as black hat hackers.
a) Grey Hat hackers
b) Green Hat hackers
c) Blue Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: a
Explanation: Grey Hat Hackers have a blending character of both ethical as well as un-ethical hacker. They
hack other‟s systems for fun but do not harm the system, exploits bugs and vulnerabilities in network without the
knowledge of the admin or the owner.
5. The amateur or newbie in the field of hacking who don’t have many skills about coding and in-depth
working of security and hacking tools are called
a) Sponsored Hackers
b) Hactivists
c) Script Kiddies
d) Whistle Blowers
Answer: c
Explanation: Script Kiddies are new to hacking and at the same time do not have many interests in developing
coding skills or find bugs of their own in systems; rather they prefer downloading of available tools (developed
by elite hackers) and use them to break any system or network. They just try to gain attention of their friend
circles.
6. Suicide Hackers are those

a) who break a system for some specific purpose with or without keeping in mind that they may suffer long term
imprisonment due to their malicious activity
b) individuals with no knowledge of codes but an expert in using hacking tools
c) who know the consequences of their hacking activities and hence try to prevent them by erasing their digital
footprints
d) who are employed in an organization to do malicious activities on other firms
Answer: a
Explanation: Suicide hackers are those who break into any network or system with or without knowing the
consequences of the cybercrime and its penalty. There are some suicide hackers who intentionally do crimes
and get caught to bring their names in the headlines.
7. Criminal minded individuals who work for terrorist organizations and steal information of nations and
other secret intelligence are
a) State sponsored hackers
b) Blue Hat Hackers
c) Cyber Terrorists
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: c
Explanation: Cyber Terrorists are very expert programmers and cyber criminals who hide themselves while
doing malicious activities over the internet and they are smart enough to hide themselves or their tracks of
action. They are hired for gaining unauthorized access to nation‟s data centres or break into the network of
intelligence agencies.
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8. One who disclose information to public of a company, organization, firm, government and private
agency and he/she is the member or employee of that organization; such individuals are termed as
a) Sponsored hackers
b) Crackers
c) Hactivist
d) Whistleblowers
Answer: d
Explanation: Whistleblowers are those individuals who is a member or an employee of any specific organization
and is responsible for disclosing private information of those organizations, firms, either government or private.
9. These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who are “they”
referred to?
a) White hat Hackers
b) Elite Hackers
c) Licensed Penetration Testers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: b
Explanation: The tag “Elite hackers” are considered amongst the most reputed hackers who possess most of
the hacking and security skills. They are treated with utmost respect in the hackers‟ community. Zero day
vulnerabilities, serious hacking tools and newly introduced bugs are found and developed by them.
10. are those individuals who maintain and handles IT security in any firm or organization.
a) IT Security Engineer
b) Cyber Security Interns
c) Software Security Specialist
d) Security Auditor
Answer: a
Explanation: This is an intermediary level of position of an individual in an organization or firm who builds and
preserves different systems and its associated security tools of the firm of organization to which he/she
belongs.
11. Role of security auditor is to

a) secure the network
b) probe for safety and security of organization‟s security components and systems
c) detects and prevents cyber-attacks and threats to organization
d) does penetration testing on different web applications
Answer: b
Explanation: Security auditors are those who conduct auditing of various computer and network systems on an
organization or company and reports the safety and security issues as well as helps in suggesting
improvements or enhancements in any particular system that is threat prone.
12. are senior level corporate employees who have the role and responsibilities of creating and
designing secured network or security structures.
a) Ethical Hackers b) Chief Technical Officer
c) IT Security Engineers d) Security Architect
Answer: d
Explanation: Security architect are those senior grade employees of an organization who are in charge of
building, designing, implementing and testing of secured network topologies, protocols as well as secured
computers in an organization.
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13. security consultants uses database security monitoring & scanning tools to maintain
security to different data residing in the database / servers / cloud.
a) Database
b) Network
c) System
d) Hardware
Answer: a
Explanation: Database Security consultants are specific individuals hired in order to monitor and scan the
database systems and keep them secured from unwanted threats and attacks by giving access to restricted
users, blocking unwanted files, multi-factor access control etc.
14. Governments hired some highly skilled hackers. These types of hackers are termed as
a) Special Hackers b) Government Hackers
c) Cyber Intelligence Agents d) Nation / State sponsored hackers
Answer: d
Explanation: Nation / State sponsored hackers are specific individuals who are employed or hired by the
government of that nation or state and protect the nation from cyber terrorists and other groups or individuals
and to reveal their plans, communications and actions.
15. Someone (from outside) who tests security issues for bugs before launching a system or
application, and who is not a part of that organization or company are
a) Black Hat hacker
b) External penetration tester
c) Blue Hat hacker
d) White Hat Hacker
Answer: c
Explanation: Blue Hat Hackers are outsiders yet security testers who are temporarily hired for performing
outsourced security test for bugs and vulnerabilities in any system before launching it to the market or making
the application live.
16. The full form of Malware is

a) Malfunctioned Software
b) Multipurpose Software
c) Malicious Software
d) Malfunctioning of Security
Answer: c
Explanation: Different types of harmful software and programs that can pose threats to a system, network or
anything related to cyberspace are termed as Malware. Examples of some common malware are Virus,
Trojans, Ransomware, spyware, worms, rootkits etc.
17. Who deploy Malwares to a system or network?

a) Criminal organizations, Black hat hackers, malware developers, cyber-terrorists
b) Criminal organizations, White hat hackers, malware developers, cyber-terrorists
c) Criminal organizations, Black hat hackers, software developers, cyber-terrorists
d) Criminal organizations, gray hat hackers, Malware developers, Penetration testers
Answer: a
Explanation: Criminal-minded organizations, groups and individuals cyber-terrorist groups, Black hat hackers,
malware developers etc are those who can deploy malwares to any target system or network in order to deface
that system.
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18. is a code injecting method used for attacking the database of a system / website.
a) HTML injection
b) SQL Injection
c) Malicious code injection
d) XML Injection
Answer: b
Explanation: SQLi (Structured Query Language Injection) is a popular attack where SQL code is targeted or
injected; for breaking the web application having SQL vulnerabilities. This allows the attacker to run malicious
code and take access to the database of that server.
19. XSS is abbreviated as

a) Extreme Secure Scripting
b) Cross Site Security
c) X Site Scripting
d) Cross Site Scripting
Answer: d
Explanation: Cross Site Scripting is another popular web application attack type that can hamper the reputation
of any site.
20. This attack can be deployed by infusing a malicious code in a website’s comment section. What is
“this” attack referred to here?
a) SQL injection
b) HTML Injection
c) Cross Site Scripting (XSS)
d) Cross Site Request Forgery (XSRF)
Answer: c
Explanation: XSS attack can be infused by putting the malicious code (which gets automatically run) in any
comment section or feedback section of any webpage (usually a blogging page). This can hamper the
reputation of a site and the attacker may place any private data or personal credentials.
21. When there is an excessive amount of data flow, which the system cannot handle, attack
takes place.
a) Database crash attack
b) DoS (Denial of Service) attack
c) Data overflow Attack
d) Buffer Overflow attack
Answer: d
Explanation: The Buffer overflow attack takes place when an excessive amount of data occurs in the buffer,
which it cannot handle and lead to data being over-flow into its adjoined storage. This attack can cause a
system or application crash and can lead to malicious entry-point.
22. Compromising a user’s session for exploiting the user’s data and do malicious activities or misuse
user’s credentials is called
a) Session Hijacking
b) Session Fixation
c) Cookie stuffing
d) Session Spying
Answer: a
Explanation: Using session hijacking, which is popularly known as cookie hijacking is an exploitation method for
compromising the user‟s session for gaining unauthorized access to user‟s information.
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23. Which of this is an example of physical hacking?
a) Remote Unauthorised access
b) Inserting malware loaded USB to a system
c) SQL Injection on SQL vulnerable site
d) DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service) attack
Answer: b
Explanation: If a suspicious gain access to server room or into any confidential area with a malicious pen-drive
loaded with malware which will get triggered automatically once inserted to USB port of any employee‟s PC; such
attacks come under physical hacking, because that person in gaining unauthorized physical access to any
room or organization first, then managed to get an employee‟s PC also, all done physically – hence breaching
physical security.
24. Which of them is not a wireless attack?

a) Eavesdropping
b) MAC Spoofing
c) Wireless Hijacking
d) Phishing
Answer: d
Explanation: Wireless attacks are malicious attacks done in wireless systems, networks or devices. Attacks on
Wi-Fi network is one common example that general people know. Other such sub-types of wireless attacks are
wireless authentication attack, Encryption cracking etc.
25. An attempt to harm, damage or cause threat to a system or network is broadly termed as
a) Cyber-crime
b) Cyber Attack
c) System hijacking
d) Digital crime
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyber attack is an umbrella term used to classify different computer & network attacks or activities
such as extortion, identity theft, email hacking, digital spying, stealing hardware, mobile hacking and physical
security breaching.
26. Which method of hacking will record all your keystrokes?

a) Keyhijacking
b) Keyjacking
c) Keylogging
d) Keyboard monitoring
Answer: c
Explanation: Keylogging is the method or procedure of recording all the key strokes/keyboard button pressed
by the user of that system.
27. are the special type of programs used for recording and tracking user’s keystroke.
a) Keylogger
b) Trojans
c) Virus
d) Worms
Answer: a
Explanation: Keyloggers are surveillance programs developed for both security purpose as well as done for
hacking passwords and other personal credentials and information. This type of programs actually saves the
keystrokes done using a keyboard and then sends the recorded keystroke file to the creator of such programs.
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28. Stuxnet is a
a) Worm
b) Virus
c) Trojan
d) Antivirus
Answer: a
Explanation: Stuxnet is a popular and powerful worm that came into existence in mid 2010, which was very
powerful as it was accountable for the cause of huge damage to Iran‟s Nuclear program. It mainly targets the
PLCs (Programmable Logic Controllers) in a system.
29. According to the CIA Triad, which of the below-mentioned element is not considered in the triad?
a) Confidentiality
b) Integrity
c) Authenticity
d) Availability
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the CIA triad the three components that a security need is the Confidentiality,
Integrity, Availability (as in short read as CIA) .
30. is the latest technology that faces an extra challenge because of CIA paradigm.
a) Big data
b) Database systems
c) Cloud storages
d) Smart dust
Answer: a
Explanation: Big data has additional challenges that it has to face because of the tremendous volume of data
that needs protection as well as other key elements of the CIA triad, which makes the entire process costly and
time-consuming.
31. One common way to maintain data availability is

a) Data clustering
b) Data backup
c) Data recovery
d) Data Altering
Answer: b
Explanation: For preventing data from data-loss, or damage data backup can be done and stored in a different
geographical location so that it can sustain its data from natural disasters & unpredictable events.
32. is the practice and precautions taken to protect valuable information from unauthorised
access, recording, disclosure or destruction.
a) Network Security
b) Database Security
c) Information Security
d) Physical Security
Answer: c
Explanation: Information Security (abbreviated as InfoSec) is a process or set of processes used for protecting
valuable information for alteration, destruction, deletion or disclosure by unauthorised users.
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33. From the options below, which of them is not a vulnerability to information security?
a) flood
b) without deleting data, disposal of storage media
c) unchanged default password
d) latest patches and updates not done
Answer: a
Explanation: Flood comes under natural disaster which is a threat to any information and not acts as a
vulnerability to any system.
34. platforms are used for safety and protection of information in the cloud.
a) Cloud workload protection platforms
b) Cloud security protocols
c) AWS
d) One Drive
Answer: a
Explanation: Nowadays data centres support workloads from different geographic locations across the globe
through physical systems, virtual machines, servers, and clouds. Their security can be managed using Cloud
workload protection platforms which manage policies regarding security of information irrespective of its
location.
35. technology is used for analyzing and monitoring traffic in network and information flow.
a) Cloud access security brokers (CASBs)
b) Managed detection and response (MDR)
c) Network Security Firewall
d) Network traffic analysis (NTA)
Answer: d
Explanation: Network traffic analysis (NTA) is an approach of information security for supervising the traffic in
any network, a flow of data over the network as well as malicious threats that are trying to breach the network.
This technological solution also helps in triage the events detected by Network Traffic Analysing tools.
36. Compromising confidential information comes under

a) Bug
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Attack
Answer: b
Explanation: Threats are anything that may cause damage or harm to a computer system, individual or any
information. Compromising of confidential information means extracting out sensitive data from a system by
illegal manner.
37. Lack of access control policy is a

a) Bug
b) Threat
c) Vulnerability
d) Attack
Answer: c
Explanation: Access control policies are incorporated to a security system for restricting of unauthorised access
to any logical or physical system. Every security compliance program must need this as a fundamental
component. Those systems which lack this feature is vulnerable.
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38. Possible threat to any information cannot be
a) reduced
b) transferred
c) protected
d) ignored
Answer: d
Explanation: When there lies a threat to any system, safeguards can be implemented, outsourced, distributed
or transferred to some other system, protected using security tools and techniques but cannot be ignored.
39. How many basic processes or steps are there in ethical hacking?
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 7
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the standard ethical hacking standards, the entire process of hacking can be divided
into 6 steps or phases. These are: Reconnaissance, Scanning, Gaining Access, Maintaining Access, Tracks
clearing, reporting.
40. is the information gathering phase in ethical hacking from the target user.
a) Reconnaissance
b) Scanning
c) Gaining access
d) Maintaining access
Answer: a
Explanation: Reconnaissance is the phase where the ethical hacker tries to gather different kinds of information
about the target user or the victim‟s system.
41. Which of the following is not a reconnaissance tool or technique for information gathering?
a) Hping
b) NMAP
c) Google Dorks
d) Nexpose
Answer: d
Explanation: Hping, NMAP & Google Dorks are tools and techniques for reconnaissance. Nexpose is a tool for
scanning the network for vulnerabilities.
42. There are subtypes of reconnaissance.

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Reconnaissance can be done in two different ways. 1st, Active Reconnaissance which involves
interacting with the target user or system directly in order to gain information; 2nd, Passive Reconnaissance,
where information gathering from target user is done indirectly without interacting with the target user or
system.
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43. Which of the following is an example of active reconnaissance?
a) Searching public records
b) Telephone calls as a help desk or fake customer care person
c) Looking for the target‟s details in the database
d) Searching the target‟s details in paper files
Answer: b
Explanation: As active reconnaissance is all about interacting with target victim directly, hence telephonic calls
as a legitimate customer care person or help desk person, the attacker can get more information about the
target user.
44. Which of the following is an example of passive reconnaissance?

a) Telephonic calls to target victim
b) Attacker as a fake person for Help Desk support
c) Talk to the target user in person
d) Search about target records in online people database
Answer: d
Explanation: Passive reconnaissance is all about acquiring of information about the target indirectly, hence
searching any information about the target on online people database is an example of passive
reconnaissance.
45. Which of them does not comes under scanning methodologies?

a) Vulnerability scanning
b) Sweeping
c) Port Scanning
d) Google Dorks
Answer: d
Explanation: Google dork is used for reconnaissance, which uses special search queries for narrowing down
the search results. The rest three scanning methodologies are used for scanning ports (logical), and network
vulnerabilities.
46. Which of them is not a scanning tool?

a) NMAP
b) Nexpose
c) Maltego
d) Nessus
Answer: c
Explanation: NMAP is used for both reconnaissance and scanning purposes. Nepose and Nessus are fully
scanning tool. Maltego is an example of a reconnaissance tool used for acquiring information about target user.
47. Which of the following comes after scanning phase in ethical hacking?
a) Scanning
b) Maintaining access
c) Reconnaissance
d) Gaining access
Answer: d
Explanation: Gaining access is the next step after scanning. Once the scanning tools are used to look for flaws
in a system, it is the next phase where the ethical hackers or penetration testers have to technically gain access
to a network or system.
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48. In phase the hacker exploits the network or system vulnerabilities.
a) Scanning
b) Maintaining access
c) Reconnaissance
d) Gaining access
Answer: d
Explanation: Penetration testers after scanning the system or network tries to exploit the flaw of the system or
network in “gaining access” phase.
49. A can gain access illegally to a system if the system is not properly tested in scanning
and gaining access phase.
a) security officer
b) malicious hacker
c) security auditor
d) network analyst
Answer: b
Explanation: Malicious hackers can gain illegal access at OS level, application level or network level if the
penetration testers or ethical hackers lack in testing and reporting the vulnerabilities in a system.
50. Which of the following hacking tools and techniques hackers’ do not use for maintaining access in
a system?
a) Rootkits
b) Backdoors
c) Trojans
d) Wireshark
Answer: d
Explanation: Wireshark is not a tool for maintaining access because it is used for analysing network protocols at
a microscopic level (very minutely). It is an interactive tool for data traffic analysing on any computer.
51. In phase, the hackers try to hide their footprints.

a) Scanning
b) Tracks clearing
c) Reconnaissance
d) Gaining access
Answer: b
Explanation: Tracks clearing or covering tracks is the name of the phase where the hackers delete logs of their
existence & other activity records they do during the hacking process. This step is actually an unethical one.
52. Which of them is not a track clearing technique?
a) Altering log files
b) Tunnelling
c) Port Scanning
d) Footprint removing
Answer: c
Explanation: Port scanning is a method used in the scanning phase. Altering or changing log files, tunnelling for
hiding your identity and removing footprints from different sites are examples of clearing tracks.
53. is the last phase of ethical hacking process.

a) Scanning
b) Tracks clearing
c) Reconnaissance
d) Reporting
Answer: d
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54. Ethical Hacking is also known as
a) Black Hat hacking
b) White Hat hacking
c) Encrypting
d) None of these
55. Tool(s) used by ethical hackers

a) Scanner
b) Decoder
c) Proxy
d) All of these
56. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds
a) Strengths
b) Weakness
c) a & b
d) None of these
57. Ethical hacking will allow to all the massive security breaches.
a) Remove
b) measure
c) Reject
d) None of these
58. Sequential steps hackers use are ,__,__,__

A) Maintaining Access
B) Reconnaissance
C) Scanning
D) Gaining Access
a) B, C, D, A
b) B, A C, D
c) A, B, C, D
d) D, C, B, A
59. phase in ethical hacking is known as the pre-attack phase.

a) Reconnaissance
b) Scanning
c) Gaining access
d) Maintaining access
Answer: b
Explanation: In the scanning phase, the hacker actively scans for the vulnerabilities or specific information in
the network which can be exploited.
Approved By
Prof. S.B. Tamboli
HoD (Comp. Engg.)
Page 12 of 12
Unit 06 – Types of Hacking Marks:- 16

6.1 Network Hacking
Network Infrastructure, Network Infrastructure Vulnerabilities, Scanning-Ports, Ping sweeping, Scanning
SNMP, Grabbing Banners, Analysing Network Data and Network Analyzer, MAC-daddy attack
Wireless LANs: Implications of Wireless Network Vulnerabilities, Wireless Network Attacks
6.2 Operating System Hacking
Introduction of Windows and Linux Vulnerabilities
6.3 Applications Hacking
Messaging Systems- Vulnerabilities, E-Mail Attacks- E-Mail Bombs, Banners, Best practices for minimizing
e-mail security risks
Web Applications: Web Vulnerabilities, Directories Traversal and Countermeasures,
Database system- Database Vulnerabilities, Best practices for minimizing database security risks
1. SNMP stands for

a) Simple Network Messaging Protocol
b) Simple Network Mailing Protocol
c) Simple Network Management Protocol
d) Simple Network Master Protocol
2. Which of the following tool is used forNetwork Testing and port scanning?
a) NetCat
b) SuperScan
c) NetScan
d) All of Above
3. Banner grabbing is often used for

a) White Hat Hacking
b) Black Hat Hacking
c) Gray Hat Hacking
d) Script Kiddies
4. An attacker can create an attack by sending hundreds or thousands of e-mails with very
large attachments.
a) Connection Attack
b) Auto responder Attack
c) Attachment Overloading Attack
c) All of the above
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5. An email bomb is also known as
a) Post bomb
b) Internet bomb
c) Letter bomb
d) All of the above
6. is any action that might compromise cyber-security.

a) Threat
b) Vulnerability
c) Exploit
d) Attack
Answer: a
Explanation: Threat can be termed as a possible danger that may lead to breach the cyber security and may cause
possible harm to the system or the network.
7. Existence of weakness in a system or network is called

a) Threat
b) Vulnerability
c) Exploit
d) Attack
Answer: b
Explanation: Vulnerability is the term used to define weakness in any network or system that can get exploited by
an attacker. Exploiting the weakness can lead to the unexpected & undesirable event in cyber security.
8. is an act of hacking by the means of which a political or social message is conveyed.

a) Hacktivism
b) Whistle-blowing
c) Surveillance
d) Pseudonymization
Answer: a
Explanation: Hacktivism is an act of defacing a website, or any network or system. Systems and networks are
compromised with a political or social agenda.
9. is the method of developing or creating a structurally similar yet unauthentic and illegitimate
data of any firm or company.
a) Data copying
b) Data masking
c) Data breaching
d) Data duplicating
Answer: b
Explanation: Data masking is the method used for developing or creating a structurally similar version of data of any
organization that is not authentic. These types of unauthentic data are purposefully created for protecting the actual
data.
10. Data masking is also known as

a) Data obfuscation
b) Data copying
c) Data breaching
d) Data duplicating
Answer: a
Explanation: Data obfuscation is the alternate term used for data masking, that is used for developing or creating a
structurally similar version of data of any organization that is not authentic. These types of unauthentic data are
purposefully created for protecting the actual data
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11. Backdoors are also known as
a) Trap doors
b) Front doors
c) Cover doors
d) Back entry
Answer: a
Explanation: Trap-doors are hidden entry points in any already hacked system that is set to bypass
security measures.
12. Adware are pre-chosen developed to display ads.

a) banner
b) software
c) malware
d) shareware
Answer: b
Explanation: Adware is software that is displayed on system or web pages for showing pre-chosen ads.
13. is an attack technique occurs when excess data gets written to a memory block.
a) Over buffering
b) Buffering
c) Buffer overflow
d) Memory full
Answer: c
Explanation: Buffer overflow is a flaw that occurs in memory when excessive data is written which makes the buffer
allocated to seize.
14. is an attempt to steal, spy, damage or destroy computer systems, networks or their
associated information.
a) Cyber-security
b) Cyber-attack
c) Digital hacking
d) Computer security
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyber-attack can be defined as an attempt to steal, spy, damage or destroy different components of
cyberspace such as computer systems, associated peripherals, network systems, and information.
15. is a device which secretly collects data from credit / debit cards.
a) Card Skimmer
b) Data Stealer
c) Card Copier
d) Card cloner
Answer: a
Explanation: Card skimmer is hardware that is installed and setup in ATMs secretly so that when any user will
swipe or insert their card in the ATM, the skimmer will fetch all information from the magnetic strip.
16. is the way or technique through which majority of the malware gets installed in our
system.
a) Drive-by click
b) Drive-by redirection
c) Drive-by download
d) Drive-by injecting USB devices
Answer: c
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Explanation: An accidental yet dangerous action that takes place in the cyberspace which helps attackers place
their malware into the victim‟s system. This technique is called Drive-by download.
17. is the hacking approach where cyber-criminals design fake websites or pages for tricking or
gaining additional traffic.
a) Cyber-replication
b) Mimicking
c) Website-Duplication
d) Pharming
Answer: a
Explanation: The technique and approach through which cyber-crooks develop fake web pages and sites to trick
people for gaining personal details such as login ID and password as well as personal information, is known as
pharming.
18. RAM-Scraping is a special kind of malware that looks (scrape) for sensitive data in the hard drive.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a special kind of malware that looks for sensitive data that you‟ve stored in your hard drive. RAM-
scraping is one of those kinds.
19. When you book online tickets by swiping your card, the details of the card gets stored in
a) database system
b) point-of-sale system
c) servers
d) hard drives
Answer: b
Explanation: The point-of-sale system is a system where the retailer or company stores financial records and card
details of the e-commerce system or online business transactions.
20. are deadly exploits where the vulnerability is known and found by cyber-criminals but not
known and fixed by the owner of that application or company.
a) Unknown attacks
b) Secret attacks
c) Elite exploits
d) Zero-day exploits
Answer: d
Explanation: Zero-day exploits are used to attack a system as soon as cyber-criminals came to know about the
weakness or the day the weaknesses are discovered in a system. Hackers exploit these types of vulnerabilities
before the creator releases the patch or fix the issue.
21. Zero-day exploits are also called

a) zero-day attacks
b) hidden attacks
c) un-patched attacks
d) un-fixed exploits
Answer: a
Explanation: Zero-day exploits are also called zero-day attacks where the vulnerability is known and found by
cyber-criminals or ethical hackers but not known and fixed by the creator/owner of that application or company.
Page 4 of 16
22. There are major types of ports in computers.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b
Explanation: There are 2 major types of ports in computer systems. These are physical ports and logical ports.
23. PS2 and DVI are examples of Logical ports.

a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: PS2 and DVI are examples of physical ports. Physical ports can be touched and seen with our naked
eyes.
24. Physical ports are usually referred to as

a) jacks
b) cables
c) interfaces
d) hardware plugs
Answer: c
Explanation: Physical ports are connections that connect two systems for their interactions. LAN, PS2 and DVI are
examples of physical ports.
25. are logical numbers assigned for logical connections.

a) Logical ports
b) Physical ports
c) Networking cables
d) IP address
Answer: a
Explanation: Logical ports are end-point to a logical connection. The numbers are pre-assigned by IANA (Internet
Assigned Numbers Authority) which ranges from 0 – 65536.
26. Logical ports are also known as

a) numbered ports
b) virtual numbering
c) virtual ports
d) network protocol ports
Answer: c
Explanation: Logical ports are also known as virtual ports which are part of TCP/IP networking. The numbers of
ports are pre-assigned by IANA (Internet Assigned Numbers Authority) which ranges from 0 – 65536.
27. Which of the following is the port number for FTP data?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: a
Explanation: Port number 20 is the logical port number for FTP data service. FTP protocol is a standard protocol
used for transmitting and receiving files from client to server through a network.
Page 5 of 16
28. Which of the following is the port number for SMTP data?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 25
d) 23
Answer: c
29. Which of the following is the port number for FTP control?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: b
Explanation: Port number 21 is the logical port number for FTP control service. FTP protocol is a standard protocol
used for transmitting and receiving files from client to server through a network.
30. Which of the following is the port number for SSH (Secure Shell)?
a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: c
Explanation: Port number 22 is the logical port number for Secure Shell service. SSH gives users (specifically
system administrators), a way to securely access computers on unsecured network connectivity.
31. Which of the following is the port number for Telnet?

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
Answer: d
Explanation: Port number 23 is the logical port number for Telnet. Telnet is used for bi-directional communication
over the internet in text-oriented format. It also gives virtual terminal connectivity.
32. Which of the following are the port numbers for IPSec service?
a) 50, 51
b) 49, 50
c) 51, 52
d) 23, 24
Answer: a
Explanation: Port numbers 50 and 51 are the logical port numbers for IPSec service. IPSec is a standard protocols
suite used among 2 communication points that help in providing data authentication, confidentiality, and integrity.
33. Which of the following are the port numbers for DHCP?
a) 66, 67
b) 67, 68
c) 65, 66
d) 68, 69
Answer: c
Explanation: Port numbers 67 and 68 are the logical port numbers for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
service. It helps in providing Internet Protocol (IP) host automatically along with related configuration information
like subnet mask and default gateway.
Page 6 of 16
34. Which of the following is the port number for TFTP service?
a) 69
b) 70
c) 71
d) 72
Answer: a
Explanation: Port number 69 is the logical port number for Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) service. It is an
internet software utility protocol used for transferring files.
35. Port 80 handles unencrypted web traffic.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Ports are assigned to different services for identification of which port is sending traffic over the
network. Port 80 is used by the popular HTTP (Hyper Text Transfer Protocol) that handles unencrypted web traffic.
36. Why it is important to know which service is using which port number?
a) For database security
b) For reporting data security to the auditor
c) For understanding which data is going through secured traffic and which is not
d) For checking unused data traffic
Answer: c
Explanation: If a security analyst or ethical hacker knows which port is open and through which port data is going,
he/she will be able to know which data is going in encrypted form and which one is not. Also, it helps in securing a
system by closing the logical ports so that hackers cannot gain access through them.
37. Which of the following is the port number for HTTP?

a) 79
b) 80
c) 81
d) 82
Answer: b
Explanation: Port number 80 is the logical port number for the popular Hyper-Text Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
service. This protocol defines how messages are formatted and transmitted over unencrypted traffic.
38. Which of the following is the port number for POP3?

a) 110
b) 111
c) 112
d) 113
Answer: a
Explanation: Port number 110 is the logical port number for Post Office Protocol-3 service. This protocol periodically
checks our mail-box for synchronizing our latest emails with that of the server.
39. Which of the following is the port number for SNMP?

a) 160
b) 161
c) 162
d) 163
Answer: b
Explanation: Port number 161 is the logical port number for Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) service.
It‟s an application layer protocol that helps in managing and monitoring our network devices.
Page 7 of 16
40. Firewalls can be of kinds.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: c
Explanation: Firewalls are of three kinds – one is the hardware firewalls, another is software firewalls and the other
is a combination of both hardware and software.
41. An ethical hacker must need to have the skills of understanding the problem, networking knowledge
and to know how the technology works.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: An ethical hacker must need to have the skills of understanding the problem, networking knowledge
and to know how the technology works. Password guessing and securing, network traffic sniffing, exploring for
vulnerabilities are some other skills.
42. enables a hacker to open a piece of program or application and re-build it with
further features & capabilities.
a) Social engineering
b) Reverse engineering
c) Planting malware
d) Injecting code
Answer: b
Explanation: Reverse engineering is the technique used to enable a hacker to open a piece of program or
application (usually in a low-level language such as Assembly language) and re-build it with further features &
capabilities.
43. Which of the following do not comes under the intangible skills of hackers?
a) Creative thinking
b) Problem-solving capability
c) Persistence
d) Smart attacking potential
Answer: d
Explanation: Every hacker must possess some intangible skill-set such as creative thinking to process out a new
way of penetrating a system, problem-solving skills as to cease down any active attack and persistence, try in
different ways without losing hope.
44. Why programming language is important for ethical hackers and security professionals?
a) Only to write malware
b) For solving problems and building tool and programs
c) To teach programming
d) To develop programs to harm others
Answer: b
Explanation: A programming language is important for hackers and security professionals to understand so that
they can understand the working behaviour of any virus, ransomware, or other malware, or write their own defense
code to solve a problem. Nowadays, security tools and malware are developed by security professionals with high
skills and knowledge.
Page 8 of 16
45. Understanding of is also important for gaining access to a system through networks.
a) OS
b) email-servers
c) networking
d) hardware
Answer: c
Explanation: A proper understanding of networking is very important for hackers who are trying to gain access to a
system through networks. How TCP/IP works, how topologies are formed and what protocols are used for what
purposes are some mandatory stuff a hacker or security professional must understand.
46. For hacking a database or accessing and manipulating data which of the following language the hacker
must know?
a) SQL
b) HTML
c) Tcl
d) F#
Answer: a
Explanation: For hacking a database or accessing and manipulating data, a hacker must need to have the
knowledge of SQL (Structured Query Language). From a hacker‟s perspective, if you‟ve accessed any database for
short period of time and want to change some specific data, you must need to write a proper SQL query to search
for or implement your hack faster.
47. Information Gathering about the system or the person or about organization or network is not
important.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Information Gathering about the system or the person or about organization or network is not
important so that as a hacker one can get to know well about the target system or victim.
48. is an ethical hacking technique used for determining what operating system (OS) is
running on a remote computer.
a) Footprinting
b) Cyber-printing
c) OS fingerprinting
d) OS penetration testing
Answer: c
Explanation: OS fingerprinting is an ethical hacking technique used for determining what operating system (OS) is
running on a remote computer.
49. How many types of fingerprinting are there in ethical hacking?

a) 5
b) 4
c) 3
d) 2
Answer: d
Explanation: There are two types of fingerprinting in ethical hacking. These are active fingerprinting and passive
fingerprinting. Active fingerprinting is gained if you send especially skilled packets to a target machine whereas
passive fingerprinting is dependent on sniffer traces from the remote computer.
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50. is a common tool used for doing OS fingerprinting.
a) Hping
b) Wireshark
c) Nmap
d) Nessus
Answer: c
Explanation: Nmap is a common tool that is used for performing OS fingerprinting. Before targeting any system for
the attack, it is necessary to know what OS the website is hosting, which can be found out using some simple
command of this tool.
51. To secure your system from such type of attack, you have to hide your system behind any VPN or proxy
server.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: It is recommended to hide your system from such fingerprinting attack, performed by hackers, with a
secure proxy server by using VPN tools. This technique will completely preserve your identity and hence your
system.
52. A is a network scanning practice through which hackers can use to conclude to a point
which IP address from a list of IP addresses is mapping to live hosts.
a) ping-based hacking
b) ping sweep
c) ping-range
d) pinging
Answer: b
Explanation: A ping sweep is a network scanning practice through which hackers can use to conclude to a point
which IP address from a list of IP addresses is mapping to live hosts.
53. Ping sweep is also known as

a) ICMP sweep
b) SNMP sweep
c) SGNP sweep
d) SICMP sweep
Answer: a
Explanation: A ping sweep which is also known as ICMP sweep is a network scanning practice through which
hackers can use to conclude to a point which IP address from a list of IP addresses is mapping to live hosts.
54. The command is used on Linux for getting the DNS and host-related information.
a) dnslookup
b) lookup
c) nslookup
d) infolookup
Answer: c
Explanation: The „nslookup‟ command is used on Linux for getting the DNS and host-related information. DNS
enumeration is the method used to locate all the DNS-servers and their associated records.
55. The configuration of DNS needs to be done in a secure way.

a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Configuration of DNS needs to be done in a secure way, otherwise it is possible that cyber-criminals
and hackers may take away lots of sensitive information from the organization.
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56. are piece of programs or scripts that allow hackers to take control over any system.
a) Exploits
b) Antivirus
c) Firewall by-passers
d) Worms
Answer: a
Explanation: Exploits are the piece of programs or scripts that allow hackers to take control over any system.
Vulnerability scanners such as Nexpose and Nessus are used for finding such vulnerabilities.
57. The process of finding vulnerabilities and exploiting them using exploitable scripts or programs are
known as
a) infiltrating
b) exploitation
c) cracking
d) hacking
Answer: b
Explanation: The process of finding vulnerabilities and exploiting them using exploitable scripts or programs are
known as exploitation. Vulnerability scanners such as Nexpose and Nessus are used for finding such vulnerabilities
and then they are exploited using such programs and scripts.
58. Which of them is not a powerful vulnerability detecting tool?

a) Nessus
b) Nexpose
c) Metasploit
d) Nmap
Answer: d
Explanation: Some of the most widely used tools for detecting vulnerabilities in a system are Nessus, Nexpose,
Metasploit and OpenVAS. Hackers use these tools for detecting vulnerabilities and then write exploits to exploit the
systems.
59. is the specific search engine for exploits where anyone can find all the exploits associated
to vulnerability.
a) Google
b) Bing
c) Exploit-db
d) Exploit-engine
Answer: c
Explanation: Since based on vulnerabilities, we can find exploits, Exploit-db is the specific search engine for
exploits where anyone can find all the exploits associated with vulnerability. You can find this from
https://www.exploit-db.com.
60. Which of the following is not a type of cyber crime?

a) Data theft
b) Forgery
c) Damage to data and systems
d) Installing antivirus for protection
Answer: d
Explanation: Cyber crimes are one of the most threatening terms that is an evolving phase. It is said that major
percentage of the World War III will be based on cyber-attacks by cyber armies of different countries.
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61. Cyber-laws are incorporated for punishing all criminals only.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Cyber-laws were incorporated in our law book not only to punish cyber criminals but to reduce cyber
crimes and tie the hands of citizens from doing illicit digital acts that harm or damage other‟s digital property or
identity.
62. Cyber-crime can be categorized into types.

a) 4
b) 3
c) 2
d) 6
Answer: c
Explanation: Cyber crime can be categorized into 2 types. These are peer-to-peer attack and computer as weapon.
In peer-to-peer attack, attackers target the victim users; and in computer as weapon attack technique, computers
are used by attackers for a mass attack such as illegal and banned photo leak, IPR violation, pornography, cyber
terrorism etc.
63. Which of the following is not a type of peer-to-peer cyber-crime?

a) Phishing
b) Injecting Trojans to a target victim
c) MiTM
d) Credit card details leak in deep web
Answer: d
Explanation: Phishing, injecting Trojans and worms to individuals comes under peer-to-peer cyber crime. Whereas,
leakage of credit card data of a large number of people in deep web comes under computer as weapon cyber-
crime.
64. Which of the following is not an example of a computer as weapon cyber-crime?
a) Credit card fraudulent
b) Spying someone using keylogger
c) IPR Violation
d) Pornography
Answer: b
Explanation: DDoS (Distributed Denial of Service), IPR violation, pornography are mass attacks done using a
computer. Spying someone using keylogger is an example of peer-to-peer attack.
65. Which of the following is not done by cyber criminals?

a) Unauthorized account access
b) Mass attack using Trojans as botnets
c) Email spoofing and spamming
d) Report vulnerability in any system
Answer: d
Explanation: Cyber-criminals are involved in activities like accessing online accounts in unauthorized manner; use
Trojans to attack large systems, sending spoofed emails. But cyber-criminals do not report any bug is found in a
system, rather they exploit the bug for their profit.
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66. What is the name of the IT law that India is having in the Indian legislature?
a) India‟s Technology (IT) Act, 2000
b) India‟s Digital Information Technology (DIT) Act, 2000
c) India‟s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000
d) The Technology Act, 2008
Answer: c
Explanation: The Indian legislature thought of adding a chapter that is dedicated to cyber law. This finally brought
India‟s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 which deals with the different cyber-crimes and their associated laws.
67. In which year India’s IT Act came into existence?

a) 2000
b) 2001
c) 2002
d) 2003
Answer: a
Explanation: On 17th Oct 2000, the Indian legislature thought of adding a chapter that is dedicated to cyber law, for
which India‟s Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 came into existence.
68. What is the full form of ITA-2000?

a) Information Tech Act -2000
b) Indian Technology Act -2000
c) International Technology Act -2000
d) Information Technology Act -2000
Answer: d
Explanation: Information Technology Act -2000 (ITA-2000), came into existence on 17th Oct 2000, that is dedicated
to cyber-crime and e-commerce law in India.
69. The Information Technology Act -2000 bill was passed by K. R. Narayanan.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: The bill was passed & signed by Dr. K. R. Narayanan on 9th May, in the year 2000. The bill got
finalised by head officials along with the Minister of Information Technology, Pramod Mahajan.
70. Under which section of IT Act, stealing any digital asset or information is written a cyber-crime.
a) 65
b) 65-D
c) 67
d) 70
Answer: a
Explanation: When a cyber-criminal steals any computer documents, assets or any software‟s source code from
any organization, individual, or from any other means then the cyber crime falls under section 65 of IT Act, 2000.
71. What is the punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any software’s source code
from any organization, individual, or from any other means?
a) 6 months of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 50,000
b) 1 year of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 100,000
c) 2 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 250,000
d) 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 500,000
Answer: d
Explanation: The punishment in India for stealing computer documents, assets or any software‟s source code from
any organization, individual, or from any other means is 3 years of imprisonment and a fine of Rs. 500,000.
Page 13 of 16
72. What is the updated version of the IT Act, 2000?
a) IT Act, 2007
b) Advanced IT Act, 2007
c) IT Act, 2008
d) Advanced IT Act, 2008
Answer: c
Explanation: In the year 2008, the IT Act, 2000 was updated and came up with a much broader and precise law on
different computer-related crimes and cyber offenses.
73. In which year the Indian IT Act, 2000 got updated?

a) 2006
b) 2008
c) 2010
d) 2012
Answer: b
Explanation: In the year 2008, the IT Act, 2000 was updated and came up with a much broader and precise law on
different computer-related crimes and cyber offenses.
74. What type of cyber-crime, its laws and punishments does section 66 of the Indian IT Act holds?
a) Cracking or illegally hack into any system
b) Putting antivirus into the victim
c) Stealing data
d) Stealing hardware components
Answer: a
Explanation: Under section 66 of IT Act, 2000 which later came up with a much broader and precise law says that
cracking or illegally hacking into any victim‟s computer is a crime. It covers a wide range of cyber-crimes under this
section of the IT Act.
75. What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?

a) To think like hackers and know how to defend such attacks
b) To hack a system without the permission
c) To hack a network that is vulnerable
d) To corrupt software or service using malware
Answer: a
Explanation: It is important for ethical hackers and security professional to know how the cyber-criminals think and
proceed to target any system or network. This is why ethical hackers and penetration testers are trained with proper
ethics to simulate such a scenario as how the real cyber-attack takes place.
76. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ethical practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
c) very good social engineering practice
d) a bad
Answer: d
Explanation: Overlooking or peeping into someone‟s system when he/she is entering his/her password is a bad
practice and is against the ethics of conduct for every individual. Shoulder surfing is a social engineering attack
approach used by some cyber-criminals to know your password and gain access to your system later.
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77. has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
b) Database software
c) Malware
d) Worms
Answer: c
Explanation: Malware is one of the biggest culprits that harm companies because they are programmed to do the
malicious task automatically and help hackers do illicit activities with sophistication.
78. Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of senior authority is a
crime.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Without prior permission of the senior authority or any senior member, if you‟re leaking or taking our
your company‟s data outside (and which is confidential), then it‟s against the code of corporate ethics.
79. is the technique used in business organizations and firms to protect IT assets.
a) Ethical hacking
b) Unethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
d) Internal data-breach
Answer: a
Explanation: Ethical hacking is that used by business organizations and firms for exploiting vulnerabilities to secure
the firm. Ethical hackers help in increasing the capabilities of any organization or firm in protecting their IT and
information assets.
80. The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to of personal data.
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
Answer: b
Explanation: The legal risks of ethical hacking contains lawsuits due to disclosure of personal data during the
penetration testing phase. Such disclosure of confidential data may lead to a legal fight between the ethical hacker
and the organization.
81. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points listed below is not
mandatory?
a) Know the nature of the organization
b) Characteristics of work done in the firm
c) System and network
d) Type of broadband company used by the firm
Answer: d
Explanation: Before performing any penetration test, through the legal procedure the key points that the penetration
tester must keep in mind are –
i) Know the nature of the organization ii) what type of work the organization do and
iii) the system and networks used in various departments and their confidential data that are sent and received over
the network.
Page 15 of 16
82. An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get leaked.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Yes, it is very important for an ethical hacker to make sure that while doing penetration tests, the
confidential data and proprietary information are preserved properly and not get leaked to the external network.
83. After performing the ethical hacker should never disclose client information to other
parties.
a) hacking
b) cracking
c) penetration testing
d) exploiting
Answer: c
Explanation: It is against the laws and ethics of ethical hackers that after doing penetration tests, the ethical hacker
should never disclose client information to other parties. The protection of client data is in the hands of the ethical
hacker who performed the tests.
84. is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides different theories and
a principle regarding the view-points about what is right and wrong.
a) Social ethics
b) Ethics in cyber-security
c) Corporate ethics
d) Ethics in black hat hacking
Answer: d
Explanation: Ethics in cyber-security is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides different
theories and principles‟ regarding the view-points about what is right and what need not to be done.
Approved By
Prof. S.B. Tamboli
HoD (Comp. Engg.)
Page 16 of 16
MCQ’s Question and Answers (the answers are highlighted in bold)
Q1.When the Federal Bureau of investigation was create ?.
A)1900 B)1980 C)19450 D)1984
Q2.What is The Full form of CART
A)Computer Analysis and Response Team B) Cathode Analog Ray Tube
C)Computer Accessories Repairing team D)None
Q3 When IOCE is Formed
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)1995
Q4Full Form Of IOCE
A)International Organization on Computer Evidence B)Internet of Computer Education
C) Internet of Computer Evidence D)None
Q5When was the first FBI Regional Computer Forensic laboratory was Recognize ?.
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)2000
Q6How Many Rules in Digital forensic
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q7 What is the Long form of DFI
A)Digital Forensic Investigation B)Digital Fraud Industry
C)Defining Form In D)None
Q8 How Many Phases in RDMDFR
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q9 Investigator should satisfy the following point:
A)Contribute to the society and human being B)Avoid harm to others
C)honest and trustworthy D)All Of the Above
Q10 Who proposed Road Map Model
A)G. Gunsh B)S. Ciardhuain C)J. Korn D)G. Palmar
Q11 Digital Evidence in the form of the:
A)Office File B)E-mail Messages C)Either A or B D)Both A and B

Q12 In Computer intrusions the attacker will be leave multiple traces of there presence in:
A)File System B)Registry C)System Logs D)All of the Above
Q13 What are the Form of Electronic Evidence:
A)Hard Drive B)E-mail C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q14 How Many Types of the Evidence
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q15 What is the full form of BPO
A)Business Process Outsourcing
Q16 The Digital evidence are used to established a credible link between……….
A)Attacker and victim and the crime scene B)Attacker And information
C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q17 The evidence and proof that can be obtained from the electronic source is called the…….
A)Digital Evidence B)Explainable evidence C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q18 Which of the following is not type of volatile evidence:
A)Routing Tables B) Main Memory C)Log Files D) Cached Data
Q19 Digital Evidence must follow the requirement of the
A)Ideal Evidence Rule B)Best Evidence Rule C)Exchange Rule D)All of the mentioned
Q20 White hat Hacker is known as the
A)Cracker B)Ethical C)Grey Hat D)Script Kiddies
Q21 What is an grey hat hacker
A)Black Hat Hacker B)White Hat Hacker C)Combination of White and black hat hackers D)None
Q22 A Hacker who identifies and exploits weakness in telephones instead of computers is known as:
A)Phreaker B)Hacktivist C)Ethical hacker D)Grey Hat hacker
Q23 Long Form of the VPN
A)Virtual Private Network B)Virtual Personal Network C)Both D)None
Q24 Who are use their skill to identify security problem with computer network
A)Black Hat Hacker B)Ethical Hacker C)Grey Hat hacker D)Script Kiddies
Q25 To crack the password you need cracking tool such as:
A)LC4 B)John The Ripper C)pwdump D)All of the above
Q26 NMAP known as:
A)Network Mapper B)NetCat C)SuperScan D)NetScan
Q27 What is the most valuable assets of an organization
A)Information
Q28 What is the full form of SMTP
A)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
Q29 What is the full form of DNS
A)Domain Name System B)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
C)Internet Message Access Protocol D) Network Mapper
Q30 What is the full form of IMAP
A)Internet Message Access Protocol B)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
C)Internet Message Access Protocol D)None
Q31 What is the full form of SNMP
A)Simple Network Management Protocol
Q32 Which of the following used for the Network Testing and port scanning
A)NetCat B)SuperScan C)NetScan D)All of Above
Q33 The whole email server may be targeted for a complete interruption of services with these failure
like
A)Storage overload and bandwidth blocking
Q34 Which is the top most directory in the server file system
A)Root Directory
Q35 Which list is used in the authorization process
A)Access Control List

Q36 What is the latest version of UNIX
A)LINUX
Q37 Which OS is widely used in the world
A)Windows B)LINUX C)IOS D)NONE
Q38 Name of network analyzer which support windows and unix OS
A)Ethereal
Q39 You can grab banner by using
A)Telnet B)NetCat C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q40 An attacker can create an …………………………….. attack by sending hundreds or thousands of emails
with very large attachment
A)Attachment Overloading Attack B)Connection Attack C)Auto Responder Attack
D)All of the Above
1. An Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an interactive dialogue

about a domain he called blocks-world.
a. SIMD
b. STUDENT
c. SHRDLU
d. BACON
a. Programming with your own intelligence
b. Putting your intelligence into Computer
c.Making a Machine intelligent
d.Playing a Game
3. Who is the “father” of artificial intelligence?
a.John McCarthy
b. Fisher Ada
c. Allen Newell
d.Alan Turning
4.Which of the following is a proposed means of testing the intelligence of the machine?
Turing TestTurning TestTuning Test
a.Turing Test
b.Turning Test
c.Tuning Test
d.None
5.Which of the following is not a component of a production system?
a.Control System
b.Associative Memory
c.Primary Memory
d.Secondary Memory
6. Zero sum game has player…
a. seven
b. Two
c.three player
d. Multiplayer
7.Which one is used for compute the logical inference algorithm?
a. Validity
b.Satisfiability
c. Logical equivalence
d.All of these
8.Single inference rule also called…
a. Resolution
b. Reference
c.Reference
d.None of these
9.Factoring means…
a.Removal of redundant literal
b.Removal of redundant variable
c.Addition of redundant variable
d.Addition of redundant literal

2. What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital
evidence?
d. Open computer systems, communication systems, embedded systems




c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
8. A logon record tells us that, at a specific time:

9. Cybertrails are advantageous because:

a. They are not connected to the physical world.
b. Nobody can be harmed by crime on the Internet.
c. They are easy to follow.
d. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise
would have.
10. Private networks can be a richer source of evidence than the Internet because:
a. They retain data for longer periods of time.
b. Owners of private networks are more cooperative with law enforcement.
c. Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital evidence.
d. All of the above.
Question 1. Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat hacker?
 A. Security professional
 B. Former black hat
 C. Former grey hat
 D. Malicious hacker
Answer 1. Option A.
Question 2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an organization

by the network administration is also known as ___________.
 A. Grey-box testing
 B. Black-box testing
 C. White-box testing
 D. Active testing
 E. Passive testing
Answer 2. Option C..
Question 3. What is the first phase of hacking?
 A. Attack
 B. Maintaining access
 C. Gaining access
 D. Reconnaissance
 E. Scanning
Answer 3. Option D.
Question 4. What type of ethical hack tests access to the physical infrastructure?
 A. Internal network
 B. Remote network
 C. External network
 D. Physical access
Answer 4. Option D
Question 5. The security, functionality, and ease of use triangle illustrates which
concept?
 A. As security increases, functionality and ease of use increase.

 B. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use increase.
 C. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use decrease.
 D. Security does not affect functionality and ease of use.
Answer 5. Option B.
Question 6. Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network?
 A. Disgruntled employees
 B. Black-hat hackers
 C. Grey-hat hackers
 D. Script kiddies
Answer 6. Option A.
Question 7. What are the three phases of a security evaluation plan? (Choose
three answers.)
 A. Conduct Security Evaluation

 B. Preparation
 C. Conclusion
 D. Final
 E. Reconnaissance
 F. Design Security
 G. Vulnerability Assessment
Answer 7. Options A, B, C.
Question 8. Hacking for a cause is called __________________.
 A. Active hacking
 B. Hacktivism
 C. Activism
 D. Black-hat hacking
Answer 8. Option B.
Question 9. Which federal law is most commonly used to prosecute hackers?
 A. Title 12
 B. Title 18
 C. Title 20
 D. Title 2
Answer 9. Option B.
Question 10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known
as what type of attack?
 A. Remote attack
 B. Physical access
 C. Local access
 D. Internal attack
Answer 10. Option A.
1. Hackers who help in finding bugs and vulnerabilities in a system & don’t intend to crack a
system are termed as ________
c) Grey Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: b
2. Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries and
firms?
a) Cracking
c) Ethical hacking
d) Hactivism
Answer: c
3. They are nefarious hackers, and their main motive is to gain financial profit by doing cyber
crimes. Who are “they” referred to here?
a) Gray Hat Hackers
c) Hactivists
Answer: d
4. ________ are the combination of both white as well as black hat hackers.
a) Grey Hat hackers
c) Blue Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: a
5. The amateur or newbie in the field of hacking who don’t have many skills about coding and
in-depth working of security and hacking tools are called ________
b) Hactivists
c) Script Kiddies
d) Whistle Blowers
Answer: c
6. Suicide Hackers are those _________

a) who break a system for some specific purpose with or without keeping in mind that they may
suffer long term imprisonment due to their malicious activity
b) individuals with no knowledge of codes but an expert in using hacking tools
c) who know the consequences of their hacking activities and hence try to prevent them by
erasing their digital footprints
d) who are employed in an organization to do malicious activities on other firms
Answer: a
7. Criminal minded individuals who work for terrorist organizations and steal information of
nations and other secret intelligence are _________
b) Blue Hat Hackers
c) Cyber Terrorists
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: c
8. One who disclose information to public of a company, organization, firm, government and
private agency and he/she is the member or employee of that organization; such individuals are
termed as ___________
a) Sponsored hackers
b) Crackers
c) Hactivist
d) Whistleblowers
Answer: d
9. These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who are
“they” referred to?
b) Elite Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
Answer: b
10. _________ are those individuals who maintain and handles IT security in any firm or
organization.
d) Security Auditor
Answer: a
11. Role of security auditor is to ____________

a) secure the network
b) probe for safety and security of organization’s security components and systems
c) detects and prevents cyber attacks and threats to organization
d) does penetration testing on different web applications
Answer: b
Chapter 4 – Digital Evidences
1. Having a member of the search team trained to handle digital evidence:
a. Can reduce the number of people who handle the evidence

b. Can serve to streamline the presentation of the case
c. Can reduce the opportunity for opposing counsel to impugn the integrity of the
Evidence
d. All of the above
2. An attorney asking a digital investigator to find evidence supporting a particular line of

Inquiry is an example of:
a. Influencing the examiner

b. Due diligence
c. Quid pro quo
d. Voir dire
3. A digital investigator pursuing a line of investigation in a case because that line of

Investigation proved successful in two previous cases is an example of:
a. Logical reasoning
b. Common sense
c. Preconceived theory
d. Investigator’s intuition
4. A scientific truth attempts to identify roles that are universally true. Legal judgment, on
The other hand, has a standard of proof in criminal prosecutions of:
a. Balance of probabilities
b. Beyond a reasonable doubt
c. Acquittal
5. Regarding the admissibility of evidence, which of the following is not a consideration:
a. Relevance
b. Authenticity
c. Best evidence
d. Nominally prejudicial
6. According to the text, the most common mistake that prevents evidence seized from
Being admitted is:
a. Uninformed consen
b. Forcible entry
c. Obtained without authorization
7. In obtaining a warrant, an investigator must convince the judge on all of the following
Points except:
a. Evidence of a crime is in existence

b. A crime has been committed
c. The owner or resident of the place to be searched is likely to have committed
The crime
d. The evidence is likely to exist at the place to be searched
8. If, while searching a computer for evidence of a specific crime, evidence of a new,
Unrelated crime is discovered, the best course of action is:
a. Abandon the original search, and pursue the new line of investigation
b. Continue with the original search but also pursue the new inquiry
c. Stop the search and obtain a warrant that addresses the new inquiry
d. Continue with the original search, ignoring the new information
9. The process of documenting the seizure of digital evidence and, in particular, when that
Evidence changes hands, is known as:
a. Chain of custody
b. Field notes
c. Interim report
10. Evidence contained in a document provided to prove that statements made in court are
True is referred to as:
a. Inadmissible evidence
b. Illegally obtained evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Direct evidence
Chapter 5 Basics of Ethical hacking
Answer: a
2. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ____________

ethical practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
Answer: d
3. ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for
unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
Answer: c
4. Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of senior
authority is a crime.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
5. _____________ is the technique used in business organizations and firms to protect IT

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
Answer: a
6. The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of personal data.
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
Answer: b
7. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points
listed below is not mandatory?
Answer: d
8. An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get
leaked.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
9. After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client
information to other parties.
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
Answer: c
10. __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides
different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what is right and
wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Answer: d
Chapter 5 Basics of Ethical hacking
Answer: a
2. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ____________

ethical practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
Answer: d
3. ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for
unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
Answer: c
a) True
b) False
Answer: a

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
Answer: a
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
Answer: b
7. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points
listed below is not mandatory?
Answer: d
8. An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get
leaked.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
Answer: c
wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Answer: d
Chapter 6 Types of hackers
Question 1. Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat hacker?
A. Security professional
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
Answer. Option A.
Question 2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an organization

by the network administration is also known as ___________.
A. Grey-box testing
B. Black-box testing
C. White-box testing
D. Active testing
E. Passive testing
Answer. Option C.
Question 3. What is the first phase of hacking?
A. Attack
B. Maintaining access
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
Answer. Option D.
Question 4. What type of ethical hack tests access to the physical infrastructure?
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
Answer. Option D.
Question 5. The security, functionality, and ease of use triangle illustrates which
concept?
A. As security increases, functionality and ease of use increase.

B. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use increase.
C. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use decrease.
D. Security does not affect functionality and ease of use.
Answer. Option B.
Question 6. Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network?
A. Disgruntled employees
B. Black-hat hackers
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
Answer. Option A.
Question 7. What are the three phases of a security evaluation plan? (Choose
three answers.)
A. Conduct Security Evaluation

B. Preparation
C. Conclusion
D. Final
E. Reconnaissance
F. Design Security
G. Vulnerability Assessment
Answer. Options A, B, C.
Question 8. Hacking for a cause is called __________________.
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
D. Black-hat hacking
Answer. Option B.
Question 9. Which federal law is most commonly used to prosecute hackers?
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
Answer. Option B.
Question 10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
Answer. Option A.
Chapter-3 Basics of Digital Forensics

A. Extraction of computer data.
B. Preservation of computer data.
C. Interpretation of computer data.
D. Manipulation of computer data.
Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
A. Integrated Digital Investigation Process.
B. Integrated Data Investigator Process.
C. Integrated Digital Investigator Process.
D. Independent Digital Investigator Process.
Ans: A
A. G.Gunsh.
B. S.Ciardhuain
C. J.Korn.
D. G.Palmar
Ans: D
4. Investigator should satisfy following points:
A. Contribute to society and human being.
B. Avoid harm to others.
C. Honest and trustworthy.
D. All of the above
Ans: D
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame a ____ question based
on available factual evidence.
A. Hypothetical
B. Nested
C. Challenging
D. Contradictory
Ans: A
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these macros (the document
opens and the application automatically runs); spread via email
A. The purpose of copyright
B. Danger of macro viruses
C. Derivative works
D. computer-specific crime
Ans: B
A. Control
B. Chance
C. Chains
D. Core
Ans: A
A.1979
B.1984
C.1995
D.1989
Ans: B
A.1960's
B.1970's
C.1980's
D.1990's
Ans: C
10. _______phase includes putting the pieces of a digital puzzle together and developing
investigative hypotheses
B. Survey phase
Ans: D
10 MCQs from Each Chapter of Emerging Trend in Computer Science
Chapter 1 Artificial Intelligence
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
(A) Putting your intelligence into Computer
(B) Programming with your own intelligence
(C) Making a Machine intelligent
(D) Playing a Game
Ans: C
(A) PROLOG
(B) Java
(C) LISP
(D) Perl
Ans: D
3. What is state space?
(A) The whole problem
(B) Your Definition to a problem
(C) Problem you design
(Ď) Representing your problem with variable and parameter
Ans: D
4. A production rule consists of
(A) A set of Rule (B) A sequence of steps
(C) Both (a) and (b) (D) Arbitrary representation to problem
Ans: C
5. Which search method takes less memory?
(A) Depth-First Search (B) Breadth-First search
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Linear Search.
Ans: A
6.A heuristic is a way of trying
(A) To discover something or an idea embedded in a program
(B) To search and measure how far a node in a search tree seems to be
from a goal
(C) To compare two nodes in a search tree to see if one is better than
the other
(D) Only (a), (b) and (c).
Ans: D
7. A* algorithm is based on
(A) Breadth-First-Search (B) Depth-First –Search
(C) Best-First-Search (D) Hill climbing.
Ans: C
8. Which is the best way to go for Game playing problem?
(A) Linear approach (B) Heuristic approach
(C) Random approach (D) Optimal approach
Ans: B
9. How do you represent “All dogs have tails”.
(A) ۷x: dog(x)àhastail(x) (B) ۷x: dog(x)àhastail(y)
(C) ۷x: dog(y)àhastail(x) (D) ۷x: dog(x)àhasàtail(x)
Ans: A
10. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?
(A) Representational Verification (B) Representational Adequacy
(C) Inferential Adequacy (D) Inferential Efficiency
Ans: A
Chapter-2 Internet of Things
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Embedded systems are_____

A. General purpose
B. Special purpose
Ans: B
2. Embedded system is______

A. An electronic system
B. A pure mechanical system
C. An electro-mechanical system
D. (A) or (C)
Ans: D
3. Which of the following is not true about embedded systems?

A. Built around specialized hardware
B. Always contain an operating system
C. Execution behavior may be deterministic
D. None of these
Ans: D
4. Which of the following is not an example of a “small-scale
embedded system”?
A. Electronic Barbie doll
B. Simple calculator
C. Cell phone
D. Electronic toy car
Ans: C
5. The first recognized modern embedded system is

A. Apple computer
B. Apollo Guidance Computer (AGC)
C. Calculator
D. Radio navigation system
Ans: B
6. The first mass produced embedded system is

A. Minuteman-I
B. Minuteman-II
C. Autonetics D-17
D. Apollo Guidance Computer (AGC)
Ans: C
7. Which of the following is an (are) an intended purpose(s) of
embedded systems?
A. Data collection
B. Data processing
D. All of these
Ans: D
8. Which of the following is (are) example(s) of embedded system for

data communication?
A. Network router
B. Digital camera
C. Music player
D. All of these
Ans: B
9. What are the essential tight constraint/s related to the design

metrics of an embedded system?
A. Ability to fit on a single chip
B. Low power consumption
C. Fast data processing for real-time operations
D .All of the above
Ans: D
10. A digital multi meter is an example of an embedded system for
A. Data communication
B. Monitoring
C. Control
D. All of these
Ans: B
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

(A) Extraction of computer data.
(B) Preservation of computer data.
(C) Interpretation of computer data.
(D) Manipulation of computer data.
Ans:D
2. IDIP stands for
(A) Integrated Digital Investigation Process.

(B) Integrated Data Investigator Process.
(C) Integrated Digital Investigator Process.
(D)Independent Digital Investigator Process.
Ans: A
(A) G.Gunsh.
(B) S.Ciardhuain
(C) J.Korn.
(D) G.Palmar
Ans: D
4. Investigator should satisfy following points:

(A) Contribute to society and human being.
(B) Avoid harm to others.
(C) Honest and trustworthy.
(D) All of the above
Ans: D
5. In the past, the method for expressing an opinion has been to frame
a ____ question based on available factual evidence.
(A) Hypothetical
(B) Nested
(C) Challenging
(D) Contradictory
Ans: A
6. More subtle because you are not aware that you are running these
macros
(A) The purpose of copyright

(B) Danger of macro viruses
(C) Derivative works
(D) computer-specific crime
Ans: B
(A) Control
(B) Chance
(C) Chains
(D) Core
Ans: A

(A) 1979
(B) 1984
(C) 1995
(D) 1989
Ans: B

(A) 1960's
(B) 1970's
(C) 1980's
(D) 1990's
Ans: C
(A) Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of
evidence in court
(B) The application of computer science and investigative procedures
for a legal purpose involving the analysis of digital evidence after
proper search authority, chain of custody, validation with
mathematics, use of validated tools, repeatability, reporting, and
possible expert presentation
(C) process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer
questions about digital events
(D) Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment
of the facts or evidence in a court of law
Ans: B
Chapter 4- Digital Evidence
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
A. Data stored or transmitted using a computer
B. Information of probative value
C. Digital data of probative value
D. Any digital evidence on a computer
Ans: C
2. What are the three general categories of computer systems that

can contain digital
evidence?
A. Desktop, laptop, server
B. Personal computer, Internet, mobile telephone
C. Hardware, software, networks
D. Open computer systems, communication systems, and embedded

systems
Ans: D
A. Open computer systems
B. Communication systems
C. Embedded computer systems
Ans: A
Ans: C
Ans: C
Ans: B
7. Computers can be involved in which of the following types of

crime?
A. Homicide and sexual assault
B. Computer intrusions and intellectual property theft
C. Civil disputes
D. All the above
Ans: D
A. An unknown person logged into the system using the account
B. The owner of a specific account logged into the system
C. The account was used to log into the system
Ans: C
9. Cyber trails are advantageous because:
A. They are not connected to the physical world.
B. Nobody can be harmed by crime on the Internet.
C. They are easy to follow.
D. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than
they otherwise
would have.
Ans: D
10. Private networks can be a richer source of evidence than the

Internet because:
A. They retain data for longer periods of time.
B. Owners of private networks are more cooperative with law

enforcement.
C. Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital evidence.
D. All the above.
Ans: C
Chapter 5 Basics of Hacking (CO5)
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Ethical Hacking is also known as _____
A. Black Hat Hacking.
B. White Hat Hacking.
C. Encryption.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
2. Tool(s) used by ethical hacker_____.
A. Scanner
B. Decoder
C. Proxy
D. All of these.
Ans. D
3. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds_____.
A. Strengths.
B. Weakness.
C. A &B
D. None of these.
Ans. B
4. Ethical hacking will allow to____ all the massive security breaches.
A. Remove.
B. Measure.
C. Reject.
D. None of these.
Ans. B
5. Sequential step hackers use are: _ _ _ _.
A. Maintaining Access.
B. Reconnaissance
C. Scanning.
D. Gaining Access.
A. B, C, D, A
B. B, A, C, D
C. A, B, C, D
D. D, C, B, A
Ans. A
6. ______ is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to
the authorized user.
A. Social Engineering.
B. IT Engineering.
C. Ethical Hacking.
Ans. A
7. Which hacker refers to ethical hacker?
A. Black hat hacker.
B. White hat hacker.
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. B
8. The term cracker refers to_____
A. Black hat hacker.
B. White hat hacker.
C. Grey hat hacker.
Ans. A
9. Who described a dissertation on fundamentals of hacker’s attitude?
A. G. Palma.
B. Raymond.
C. Either.
D. Jhon Browman.
Ans. B
10.Computer Hackers have been in existence for more than a____.
A. Decade.
B. Year.
C. Century
D. Era.
Ans. C
Chapter-6 Types of Hacking (CO6)
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. SNMP stands for_____
A. Simple Network Messaging Protocol
B. Simple Network Mailing Protocol
C. Simple Network Management Protocol
D. Simple Network Master Protocol
Ans: C
2. Which of the following tool is used for Network Testing and port
Scanning______
A. NetCat
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. All of above
Ans: D
3. Banner grabbing is used for
A. White Hat Hacking
B. Black Hat Hacking
C. Grey Hat Hacking
D. Script Kiddies
Ans: A
4. An attacker can create an________attack by sending hundreds or
thousands of e-mails a with
very large attachments.
A. Connection Attack
B. Auto responder Attack
C. Attachment Overloading Attack
D. All the above
Ans: B
5. Which of the following tool is used for Windows for network

queries from DNS lookups to
trace routes?
A. Sam Spade
B. SuperScan
C. NetScan
D. Netcat
Ans: A
6. Which tool is used for ping sweeps and port scanning?
A. Netcat
B. SamSpade
C. SuperScan
D. All the above
Ans: C
7. Which of the following tool is used for security checks as port

scanning and firewall testing?
A. Netcat
B. Nmap
D. Netscan
Ans: A
8. What is the most important activity in system cracking?
A. Information gathering
B. Cracking password
C. Escalating privileges
D. Covering tracks
Ans: B
9. Which Nmap scan is does not completely open a TCP connection?
A. SYN stealth scan
B. TCP scan
C. XMAS tree scan
D. ACK scan
Ans: A
10.Key loggers are form of
A. Spyware
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Trojan
D. Social engineering
Ans: A
MCQ EMERGING TRENDS
Chapter 1: - artificial inteligence
1) is a branch of science which deals with helping machine find solution to complex to
problem in a more human like a fashion.
(a) Artificial intelligence
(b) Internet of think
(c) Embided system
(d) Cyber security
2) Is a message that consist relavat meaning , implication , or input for decision and or
action.
(a) Data
(b) Information
(c) Knowledge
(d) Intelligence
3) The goal is for the software to use what is it is was learned in one area to solve
problem in other area.
(a) Machine learning
(b) Deep learning
(c) Neural network
(d) All of above
4) the consist of computer program that mimic the way the human brain process
information.
(b) Deep learning
(c) Neural learning
(d) All of this
5) A heuristic is a rule of thumb-------
(a) Strategy
(b) Trick
(c) Simplification
(d) All of above
6) The component of AI concept of------

(a) Logic
(b) Congition
(c) Computation
(d) All of above
7) Is branch of science that deals with programming the system in such that they
automatically learn with experience
(b) Deep earning
(c) Neural learning
(d) All of above
8) The first AI programming language was called

(a) Basic
(b) IPL
(c) FORIRAN
(d) LISP
9) The characteristic of the computer system cable of thinking, reasoning and learning is
know as
(a) Machine intelligence
(b) Human intelligence
(c) Artificial intelligence
(d) Virtual intelligence
10) There are how many dimensions of AI

(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) One
Chapter 2:- internet of things
1. _________ allows us to control electronic components

a) RETful API
b) RESTful API
c) HTTP
d) MQTT
2. MQTT stands for _____________

a) MQ Telemetry Things
b) MQ Transport Telemetry
c) MQ Transport Things
d) MQ Telemetry Transport

a) True
b) False
4. MQTT is _________ protocol.

a) Machine to Machine
b) Internet of Things
c) Machine to Machine and Internet of Things
d) Machine things

a) MQTT
b) HTTP
c) CoAP
6. PubNub publishes and subscribes _________ in order to send and receive

messages.
a) Network
b) Account
c) Portal
d) Keys
7. By clicking which key the PubNub will display public, subscribe, and secret
keys.
a) Pane
b) Demo Keyset
c) Portal
d) Network
8. The messageChannel class declares the _________ class attribute that defines
the key string.
a) command_key
b) command-key
c) commandkey
d) Key_command
9. _________ method saves the received arguments in three attributes.

a) __Init
b) Init__
c) __Init__
d) _init_
10. _________ and _________ saves the publish and subscribe keys that we have
generated with the PubNub Admin portal.
a) public_key and subscribe_key
b) Public-key and subscribe-key
c) publickey and subscribekey
d) Key_public and key_subscribe
Chapter 3:- basic of digital forensic

1) The digital network divided radio frequency into time slots
(a) TQMA
(b) COMA
(c) EDMA
(d) EDGE
2) When cases go to trial forensics examiner can play one of role

(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 5
3) Forensics is the systematic trucking of incoming and outgoing ruffic on

your network
(a) Network
(b) Computer
(c) Criminal
(d) Server
4) Validate your tools and verify your evidence with to ensure its integrity
(a) Hashing algorithms
(b) Steganography
(c) Watermark
(d) Digital certificates
5) Is a written list of objection to certain testimony are exhibits

(a) Defendant
(b) Plaintiff
(c) Empanelling the jury
(d) Motion in limine
6) Regarding the trail the term means rejecting potential jurors.

(a) Voir dire
(b) Rebuttal
(c) Strikes
(d) Venireman
7) The evidences of proof that can be obtained from the electricity source is
called the
(a) Digital evidence
(b) Demonstrative evidence
(c) Explainable evidence
(d) Substantial evidence
8) If a micro-phone is present during your testimony, placeit to eight to

inches from you
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 6
9) Jurors typically average just over year of education and eight-grade

reading level
(a) 11
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
10) The digital avoidance are use to stablish a credible link between
(a) Attacker and victim and crime scene
(b) Attacker and the crime scene
(c) Victim and crime scene
(d) Attacker and information.
Chapter 4:- digital evidence

1) A valid definition of digital evidence is
(a) data stored or transmitted using a computer
(b) information of probative value
(c) digital data of probative value
(d) any digital evidence an a computer
2) Digital evidence , a hard drive is a example

(a) Open computer system
(b) Communication system
(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
3) The term of digital evidence the internet is an example of

(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
4) Digital avoidance is a only useful in a counter of law

(a) True
(b) False
5) What are the three general categories of computer system that can
contain digital evidence
(a) Desktop ,laptop ,server
(b) Personal computer
(c) Hardware, software
(d) Open computer system
6) In term of digital evidence , a smart card of use of example of

(a) Communication system
(b) Open system
(c) Embedded system
(d) None of above
7) All of forensic examination should be perform on a original digital
evidence
(a) True
(b) False
8) The term of digital evidence, the internet is an example of

(c) Embedded system
(d) None of these
9) Private network can be a richear sorce of digital evidence than they

internet
(a) They retain data for longer period of time
(b) Owener of private network more cooprative with law enforcement
(c) Private network contain higher concentration of digital evidence
(d) None of these
10) Digital evidence can be duplicate exactly without any change to be

original data
(a) True
(b) False
Chapter 5:- basic of hackings

1). What is the ethics behind training how to hack a system?
2). Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is
____________ ethical practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
3). ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools
for unethical hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
4). Leaking your company data to the outside network without prior permission of
senior authority is a crime.
a) True
b) False
5). _____________ is the technique used in business organizations and firms to protect
IT assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
d) Internal data-breach .
6) The legal risks of ethical hacking include lawsuits due to __________ of

personal data.
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
7). Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key
points listed below is not mandatory?
8). An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does
not get leaked.
a) True
b) False
9). After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
10). __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and
provides different theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what
is right and wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
Chapter 6:- type of hacking

1) Which of the following statement based describe a white hat hackers
(a) Security professional
(b) Former black hat
(c) Former grey hat
(d) Malicious hackers
2) SNMP stand for

(a) simple network messeging protocol
(b) simple network mailing protocol
(c) simple network management protocol
(d) simple network master protocol
3) what is the first phase of hacking

(a) attack
(b) maintaining access
(c) gaining access
(d) reconnaissance
4) banner grabbing is often use for

(a) white hat hacking
(b) black hat hacking
(c) gray hat hacking
(d) script kiddies
5) an attack can create and attack by sending hundreds or thousand of e-mail
(a) connection attack
(b) auto responder attack
(c) attachment overloading attack
(d) all of the above
6) what type of ethical hack test access to the physical infra structure
(a) internal network
(b) remote network
(c) external network
(d) physical network
7) the security functinallity and ease of use triangle illustrated which concept
(a) a security increase, functionality and ease of use increase
(b) a security decrease, functionality and ease of use increase
(c) a security increase, functionality and ease of use decrease
(d) security does not affect functionality and ease of use
8) which type of hackers represent the highest risk to your network

(a) black hat hackers
(b) grey hat hackers
(c) disgruntled employees
(d) script kiddies
9) hackings for a causes is called

(a) active hacking
(b) hacktivism
(c) activism
(d) black-hat-hackers
10) when a hackers attempt to attack a host via the internet is the know as
what type of attack
(a) remote attack
(b) local access
(c) internal attack
(d) physical access
Unit3. basics of digital forensics
a. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in court
b. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal purpose
involving the analysis of digital evidence after proper search authority, chain of custody,
validation with mathematics, use of validated tools, repeatability, reporting, and possible
expert presentation
c. A process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about digital
events
d. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of the facts or

evidence in a court of law

a. Extraction of computer data.
b. Preservation of computer data.
c. Interpretation of computer data.
d. Manipulation of computer data.
3. Which of the following is NOT focus of digital forensic analysis?
a. Authenticity
b. Comparison
c. Proving
d. Enhancement
4. Which of the following represents the step of scientific method?
I- Develop hypothesis based on evidence
II- Calculate hash value of evidence
III- Test the hypothesis to look for additional evidence
IV-make an imaging of the original evidence
a. I and IV
b. I and II
c. II, III and IV
d. All of above
5. What is the Primary Objectives of Digital Forensic for Business and Industry?
a. Availability of service
b. Prosecution
c. Continuity of operation
d. Security
6. Which of the following hold the highest value of evidence in the court?
a. Documentary
b. Demonstrative
c. Testimonial
d. Real
6. Which of the following is FALSE?

a. The digital forensic investigator must maintain absolute objectivity
b. It is the investigator’s job to determine someone’s guilt or innocence.
c. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts of a case.
d. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results of an
investigation on only a “need to know” ba
7. which is following father of computer forensics

a. M. Anderson
b. G. Gunsh
c. S. Ciardhuain
d. G. Palmar
8. Who proposed Road map model?

a. G. Gunsh
b. S. Ciardhuain
c. J. Korn
d. G. Palmar
9. IDIP stands for

a. Integrated Digital Investigation Process
b. Integrated Data Investigation Process
c. Integrated Digital Investigator Process
d. Independent Digital Investigation Process
10. When you give ____ testimony, you present this evidence and explain what it is and how it
was obtained.
a. technical/scientific
b. expert
c. lay witness
d. deposition
Unit-4 Digital Evidences
2. What are the three general categories of computer systems that can contain digital evidence?


6. Digital evidence alone can be used to build a solid case.

a. True
b. False
7. Personal computers and networks are often a valuable source of evidence. Those involved
with _______ should be comfortable with this technology.
a. Criminal investigation
b. Prosecution
c. Defense work
d. All of the above
8. An argument for including computer forensic training computer security specialists is:
a. It provides an additional credential.
b. It provides them with the tools to conduct their own investigations.
c. It teaches them when it is time to call in law enforcement.
d. None of the above.
9. Digital evidence is only useful in a court of law.
a. True
b. False
Unit-5 Basics of Hacking

wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
2. What is the first phase of hacking?

a. Attack
b. Maintaining access
c. Gaining access
d. Reconnaissance
e. Scanning
3. What is the one thing that old hackers were fond of or find interests in?
a) Breaking Other’s system
b) Voracious thirst for knowledge
c) Cracking Phone calls
d) Learning new languages
4. A penetration tester must identify and keep in mind the ___________ & ___________
requirements of a firm while evaluating the security postures.
a) privacy and security
b) rules and regulations
c) hacking techniques
d) ethics to talk to seniors
5. What is the name of the first hacker’s conference?
a) DEFCON
b) OSCON
c) DEVCON
d) SECCON
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
7. In which year the term hacking was coined?
a) 1965-67
b) 1955-60
c) 1970-80
d) 1980-82
8. From where the term ‘hacker’ first came to existence?
a) MIT
b) Stanford University
c) California
d) Bell’s Lab
9. In which year, hacking became a practical crime and a matter of concern in the field of
technology?
a) 1971
b) 1973
c) 1970
d) 1974
10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what type of
attack?
a. Local access
b. Remote attack
c. Internal attack
d. Physical access
11. Which tool can be used to perform a DNS zone transfer on Windows?
a. DNSlookup
b. nslookup
c. whois
d. ipconfig
Unit-6 Types of Hacking
1. Why would a hacker use a proxy server?
a. To create a stronger connection with the target.
b. To create a ghost server on the network.
c. To obtain a remote access connection.
d. To hide malicious activity on the network.
2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an organization by the network
administration is also known as ___________.
a. Grey-box testing
b. Black-box testing
c. White-box testing
d. Active testing E. Passive testing
3. Which are the four regional Internet registries?
a. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
b. APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
c. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
d. APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
4. Attempting to gain access to a network using an employee’s credentials is called the _____________
mode of ethical hacking.
a. Local networking
b. Social engineering
c. Physical entry
d. Remote networking
5. What tool can be used to perform SNMP enumeration?
a. DNSlookup
b. Whois
c. Nslookup
d. IP Network Browser
6. What is the purpose of a Denial of Service attack?

a. Exploit a weakness in the TCP/IP stack
b. To execute a Trojan on a system
c. To overload a system so it is no longer operational
d. To shutdown services by turning them off
7. What port does Telnet use?

a. 22
b. 80
c. 20
d. 23
8. Performing hacking activities with the intent on gaining visibility for an unfair situation is called
________.
a. Cracking
b. Analysis
c. Hacktivism
d. Exploitation
9. What protocol is the Active Directory database based on?
a. LDAP
b. TCP
c. SQL
d. HTTP
10 Which databases is queried by Whois?
a. ICANN
b. ARIN
c. APNIC
d. DNS
MCQ Chapter 01
1) Which is the first AI program?

a) The Logical Brain
b) AlphaSense
c) The Jarvis
d) The Logic Theorist
Ans: d) The Logical Theorist
2) Who is regarded as “The Father of AI?”

a) Allan Turin
b) John Mc Carthy
c) J. C. Shaw
d) Allen Newell
Ans: b) John Mc Carthy
3) Which among this, is an AI created by IBM partner with Fluid PVT. Used specially for
‘Data Analysis?’
a) EVE AI
b) Watson
c) Siri
d) Novel AI
Ans: b) Watson
4) What is PROLOG and LISP?

a) Examples of super AI
b) Languages of AI
c) Concepts of AI
d) Type of AI
Ans: b) Languages of AI
5) The given illustrative diagram is related to which topic?
a) Machine Learning
b) Neural Network Processing
c) Reasoning
d) Deep learning
Ans: a) Machine Learning
6) There are how many dimensions of AI?

a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
Ans: b) Three
7) The term “Strong” or “Super” AI comes under which ‘type’ of AI?

a) Type-1
b) Type-2
c) None of the above
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Type-1
8) These machines can use stored data for a limited time period only.
a) Reactive Machine
b) Self-Awareness
c) Limited machine
d) Theory of mind
Ans: c) Limited machine
9) “KBS” in AI stands for?

a) Knowledge Based Scenario
b) Knowledge Based System
c) Knowledge Based Segments
d) Knowing Best System
Ans: b) Knowledge Based System
10) There are how many ‘AI Approaches?’

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans: d) Four
MCQ Chapter 03
1. When was International Organization on Computer Evidence (IOCE) formed?

a. 1980
b. 1997
c. 1995
d. 1984
Ans: c. 1995
2. CART is referred as…

a. Computer Art and Response Team
b. Common Analysis and Response Team
c. Computer Analysis and Reasoning Team
d. Computer Analysis and Response Team
Ans: d. Computer Analysis and Response Team
3. How many Rules are there of Digital Forensics?

a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 4
Ans: b. 6
4. Fill in the blanks.
Digital Forensics is a series of steps to _________ and _________ electronic data through
________ method.
a. Solve, analyses, Intelligent

b. Uncover, analyses, scientific
c. Uncover, analyses, electronic
d. Solve, analyses, electronic
Ans: b. Uncover, analyses, scientific
5. There are how many models of digital forensics?

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6
d. 8
Ans: c. 6
6. Which of the following is not a model of digital forensics?

a. RMDFR
b. DFI
c. IDIP
d. UMDFPM
Ans: b. DFI
7. Who proposed EEDIP?

a. Gunsh
b. Korn
c. Stepenson
d. Palmer
Ans: c. Stepenson
8. There are hoe many phases in RMDFR model of digital forensics?

a. Four
b. Six
c. Eight
d. Ten
Ans: b. Six
9. When was pc forensics began?

a. 1980
b. 1984
c. 1995
d. 1997
Ans: a. 1980
10. Who is the father of Computer Forensics?

a. Anderson
b. Palmer
c. Ciardhuain
d. Korn
Ans: a. Anderson
MCQ Chapter 04
1. The digital evidence is used to establish the credible link between …

a. System, evidence and victim
b. Attacker, victim, and crime scene
c. Attacker, victim and case file
d. Attacker, system and victim
Ans: b. Attacker, victim and crime scene
2. An original copy of the document is considered as…

a. Best evidence
b. Original evidence
c. Superior evidence
d. True evidence
Ans: c. Superior evidence
3. Best Evidence Rule states that…

a. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or equivalent
to the “original.”
b. It states that copy of evidence may be considered as original evidence.
c. It states that the multiple copies of evidence may be part of the “original” or equivalent to
the “original.”
d. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or same as
“original.”
Ans: a. It states that multiple copies of electronic files may be a part of the “original” or equivalent
to the “original.”
4. According to Locard’s Exchange Principle, contact between two items will result in an
_________.
a. War
b. Love
c. Exchange
d. Failure
Ans: c. Exchange
5. Which of the following is used to portray data more specifically and is helpful in determining
the background of digital evidence?
a. Data
b. Metadata
c. Cookies
d. History
Ans: b. Metadata
6. Testimonial is the major type of Evidence.

a. True
b. False
c. None
d. N/A
Ans: a. True
7. When collecting evidence, you should always try to proceed from
a. Least volatile to most volatile evidence
b. Most volatile to least volatile evidence
c. All evidence at same priority
d. Least then medium then most volatile evidence
Ans: b. most volatile to least volatile evidence
8. You must have both ____ and ____ to validate your evidence.
a. Proof and victim
b. Power and skill
c. Power and proof
d. Proof and skill
Ans: b. power and skill
9. There are how many major types of evidence?

a. Two
b. Four
c. Six
d. Seven
Ans: c. six
10. Physical evidence is also called as.

a. Illustrative evidence
b. Explainable evidence
c. Substantial evidence
d. Real evidence
Ans: c. substantial evidence
MCQ Chapter 05
1. Select the most appropriate definition of Ethical hacking.

a. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
and plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to exploit them.
b. Ethical hacking is the art of hacking computer and network for security vulnerabilities and
plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to exploit them.
c. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
and plugging the hole before the unauthorized peoples get a chance to exploit them.
d. Ethical hacking is the art of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities and
plugging the hole before the viruses get chance to handle them.
Ans: c. Ethical hacking is the science of testing computer and network for security vulnerabilities
and plugging the hole before the unauthorized peoples get a chance to exploit them.
2. A hacker who gains access to system with a view to fix the identified weaknesses is known as
a. White hat hackers
b. Grey hath hackers
c. Red hat hackers
d. Hacktivist
Ans: a. white hat hackers
3. Complete the sentence below
To catch a thief, think like a _______.
a. Police
b. Victim
c. Thief
d. Hacker
Ans: c. Thief
4. SATAN stands for_

a. Security Advanced Tool for Analysis Networks
b. Security Admin Tool for Analysis Networks
c. Security Administrator Tool for Analysis Networks
d. Security Administrator Tool for Analysing Network
Ans: c. Security Administrator for Analysis Networks
5. Which type of hackers are invited by the software vendors to find the security flaws in their
system?
a. White hat hackers
b. Black hat hackers
c. Grey hat hackers
d. Blue hat hackers
Ans: d. Blue hat hackers
6. IRC stands for

a. Internet Rules Chat
b. Internet Relay Chat
c. Internet Ready Chat
d. Internet Readable chat
Ans: b. Internet Relay chat
7. A non-skilled person who gains access to computer system using already made tools are
known as?
a. Grey hat hackers
b. Hacktivist
c. Script kiddies
d. Phreakers
Ans: c. Script kiddies
8. Identifying weakness in computer system or network to exploit its weaknesses to gain access
is known as
a. Cracking
b. Cybersecurity
c. Hacking
d. Threatening
Ans: c. Hacking
9. Exploration of a phone network without authorization is known as

a. Scripting
b. Phreaking
c. Phone hacking
d. Call tracing
Ans: b. Phreaking
10. Social engineering the ____ of exploiting the human elements to gain access to unauthorized
resources.
a. Art
b. Science
c. Hacking
d. Skill
Ans: a. Art
MCQ Chapter 06
1. Which of the following is not a network testing and port scanning tool?
a. Nmap
b. SuperScan
c. John the ripper
d. NetCat
Ans: c. John the Rippers
2. Select the most appropriate option for the below two statements.
I. A Dos attack can take down your internet connection

II. A Dos attack can take down your entire system
a. Both I and II are true

b. I is true II is false
c. I is false II is True
d. Both I and II are false
Ans: a. Both I and II are true
3. SNMP stands for

a. Simple Network Message Protocol
b. Simple New Message Protocol
c. Simple Network Management Protocol
d. Simple Network Managing Protocol
Ans: c. Simple Network Management Protocol
4. Which protocol does hackers use to make their system seems as your system or another
allowed host on your network?
a. SNMP protocol
b. TCP protocol
c. ARP protocol
d. ICMP protocol
Ans: c. ARP protocol
5. Letter bomb is also known as

a. Official bomb
b. Hacking bomb
c. Mail bomb
d. E-mail bomb
Ans: d. Email Bomb
6. Which attack allows the attacker to execute the scripts on the victim’s browser?
a. SSL attack
b. Cookie attack
c. Banner grabbing
d. XSS attack
Ans: d. XSS attack
7. ACL stands for.

a. Application Control Language
b. Application Control list
c. Access control List
d. Access Command List
Ans: c. Access Control List
8. As an ethical hacker, you should scan all ________ UDP and TCP port on each network host
that’s found by your scanner.
a. 65535
b. 65353
c. 65333
d. 65555
Ans: a. 65535
9. Which of the following are the foundation of all the technical security issues in your
information systems?
a. Network Infrastructure vulnerabilities
b. Information vulnerabilities
c. System Infrastructure vulnerabilities
d. Network Information vulnerabilities
Ans: a. Network infrastructure vulnerabilities
10. Which attack is an HTTP attack which allows attackers to access restricted directories and
execute commands outside the web servers root directory?
a. XSS attack
b. Path Traversal attack
c. MITM attack
d. SQL Injection attack
Ans: b. Path traversal Attack
1What allows digital devices to interconnect and transmit data?
a. a sensor
b.a global positioning sensor
c.a smart phone
d.a network
2. Which command is used to test network connectivity and provide a response to each packet
received by the remote host?
a.test
b.tracer
c.ping
d.connect
3. What type of device could allow a refrigerator to place a replacement order for an item contained
within it?
a.digital network
b.generator
c.smart phone
d.sensor
4. True or False?
Once connected to the home gateway, smart devices can be controlled from a smartphone, tablet, or
PC.
a.true
b.false
5. What information is conveyed by the SSID that is configured on an IoT device?
a.the registration server
b.he default gateway
c.the wireless network
d.the home gateway
6. What is comprised of millions of smart devices and sensors connected to the internet?
a.the fog
b.the internet of things
c.the data center
d.the cloud
7. Which tool allows a user to simulate real networks?
a.artificial intelligence
b.Packet Tracer
c.internet
d.PAN
8. True or False?
The Internet of Things will connect inanimate objects to the network with intelligent sensors.
a.true
b.false
9. Which type of network is used to connect a company located in one area of a city to another
location in a city far away?
a.LAN
b.PAN
c.MAN
d.WAN
10. Which type of computing is located at the edge of a business or corporate network and that allows
data from sensors to be preprocessed?
a.internet
b.fog
c.wireless
d.WAN
1. Artificial Intelligence system developed by Terry A. Winograd to permit an

interactive dialogue about a domain he called blocks-world.
 SIMD
 STUDENT
 SHRDLU
 BACON
And:- SHRDLU
 Programming with your own intelligence

 Putting your intelligence into Computer
 Making a Machine intelligent
 Playing a Game
And:- Making a Machine intelligent

3. DARPA, the agency that has funded a great deal of American Artificial
Intelligence research, is part of the Department of
 Education
 Defense
 Energy
 Justice
And:- Defense.
4. Who is the “father” of artificial intelligence?
 John McCarthy
 Fisher Ada
 Allen Newell
 Alan Turning
And:- Fisher Ada .
5. KEE is a product of
 IntelliCorpn
 Teknowledge
 Texas Instruments
 Tech knowledge
Ans:- IntelliCorpn .
6. Default reasoning is another type of
 Analogical reasoning
 Bitonic reasoning
 Non-monotonic reasoning
 Monotonic reas
Ans:- Non-monotonic reasoning.

7. Weak AI is
 a set of computer programs that produce output that would be considered

to reflect intelligence if it were generated by humans.
 the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models
implemented on a computer.
 the embodiment of human intellectual capabilities within a computer.
 All of the above
Ans:- Weak AI is the study of mental faculties through the use of mental models
implemented on a computer.
8. If a robot can alter its own trajectory in response to external conditions, it is

considered to be:
 mobile
 open loop
 intelligent
 non-servo
Ans:- intelligent .
9. One of the leading American robotics centers is the Robotics Institute located
at
RAND
MIT
CMU
SRI
And:- CMU
10. What is the name of the computer program that contains the distilled
knowledge of an expert?
 Management information System

 Expert system
 Data base management system
 Artificial intelligence
Ans:- expert system.
11. In LISP, the function evaluates both <variable> and <object> is -
 setq
 add
 set
 eva
Ans:- setq
 Making a Machine intelligent

 Putting your intelligence into Computer
 Programming with your own intelligence
 putting more memory into Computer
Ans:- Making a Machine intelligent.
 PROLOG
 LISP
 Perl
 Java script
And:- Perl
14. Which is not a property of representation of knowledge?
 Inferential Adequacy
 Representational Adequacy
 Representational Verification
 Inferential Efficiency
Ans:- Representational Verification .
15. A Hybrid Bayesian network contains
 Both discrete and continuous variables

 Only Discontinuous variable
 Both Discrete and Discontinuous variable
 Continous variable only.
And:- Both discrete and continuous variables

3. Basics of Digital Forensic
1. When cases go to trial, you as a forensics examiner can play one of ____ roles.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d.5
Ans:- 2
2. When you give ____ testimony, you present this evidence and explain what it is and how it
was obtained.
a. technical/scientific. c. lay witness
b. expert d. deposition
And:- technical/scientific.
3. Validate your tools and verify your evidence with ____ to ensure its integrity
a. hashing algorithms c. steganography
b. watermarks d. digital certificates
And:- hashing algorithms
4. For forensics specialists, keeping the ____ updated and complete is crucial to supporting
your role as an expert and showing that you’re constantly enhancing your skills through
training, teaching, and experience.
a. testimony c. examination plan
b. CV d. deposition
Ans:- CV
5. If your CV is more than ____ months old, you probably need to update it to reflect new
cases and additional training.
a. 2 c. 4
b. 3 d. 5
Ans:- 3
6. __ is a written list of objections to certain testimony or exhibits.
a. Defendant c. Plaintiff
b. Empanelling the jury d. Motion in limine
Ans:- Motion in limine
7. Regarding a trial, the term ____ means rejecting potential jurors.
a. voir dire c. strikes
b. rebuttal d. venireman
Ans:- strikes
8. ____ from both plaintiff and defense is an optional phase of the trial. Generally, it’s allowed
to cover an issue raised during cross-examination
a. Rebuttal c. Closing arguments
b. Plaintiff d. Opening statements
Ans:- Rebuttal
9. If a microphone is present during your testimony, place it ____ to eight inches from you.
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6
Ans:- 6
10. Jurors typically average just over ____ years of education and an eighth-grade reading
level. a. 9 c. 11
b. 10 d. 12
Ans:- 12
4. Digital Evidences
evidence?

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above

d. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise would
have.
c. Private networks contain a higher concentration of digital Evidences
d. None of the above.
5. Basic of Hacking
1. What is the attack called “evil twin”?
 Rogue access point

 ARP poisoning
 Session hijacking
 MAC spoofing
2. What are the forms of password cracking techniques?
 AttackSyllable
 AttackBrute Forcing
 AttacksHybrid
 All of the above
3. what is the primary goal of an Ethical Hacker ?
 Avoiding detection
 Testing security controls
 Resolving security vulnerabilities
 Determining return on investment for security measures
 Maintaining access
 Gaining access
 Reconnaissance
 Scanning
5. Which type of hacker represents the highest risk to your network?
 Black-hat hackers
 Grey-hat hackers
 Script kiddies
 Disgruntled employees
6. Hacking for a cause is called ..................
 Hacktivism
 Black-hat hacking
 Active hacking
 Activism
7. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what type of attack?
 Local access
 Remote attack
 Internal attack
 Physical access
 APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC

 APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
 APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC
 APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
9. What port number does HTTPS use?

 53
 443
 80
 21
10. Banner grabbing is an example of what?

 Footprinting
 Active operating system fingerprinting
 Passive operating system fingerprinting
 Application analysis
6. Types of Hacking
1 . Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat
hacker?
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
2. A security audit performed on the internal network of an

organization by the network administration is also known as
___________.
A. Grey-box testing
B. Black-box testing
C. White-box testing
D. Active testing
E. Passive testing
A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
4. What type of ethical hack tests access to the physical infrastructure?
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
5. The security, functionality, and ease of use triangle illustrates which

concept?
A. As security increases, functionality and ease of use increase.
B. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use increase.
C. As security decreases, functionality and ease of use decrease.
D. Security does not affect functionality and ease of use.
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
7. What are the three phases of a security evaluation plan? (Choose
three answers.)
A. Conduct Security Evaluation
B. Preparation
C. Conclusion
D. Final
E. Reconnaissance
F. Design Security
G. Vulnerability Assessment
Answer :- A, B, C.
8. Hacking for a cause is called __________________.
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
9. Which federal law is most commonly used to prosecute hackers?
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
10. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 3: Basics of Digital Forensics
1. IOCE is …………………..?
a. Organization on computer evidence
b. Organization on communication evidence
c. Organization on country education
d. Organization on crime evidence
Ans : a)Organization on computer evidence
2. Digital forensic applied both ……………. ?

a. Analysis and response action
b. Computer crime and civil action
c. Criminal and civil action
d. Regional and forensic action
Ans : c) criminal and civil action
3. How many rules are there in Digital Forensics :
a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : d) 6
4. Compliance with the law and ………….

a. Professional norms.
b. Collection
c. Prevention
d. Examination
Ans : a) Professional norms
5. What is the full form of ADFM

a. Abstract defining forensic model
b. Abstract digital forensic model
c. Abstract digital forensic media
d. Analysis digital forensic model
Ans : b) Abstract digital forensic model
6. The whole process is trigged by …………..

a. Investigator
b. Society
c. Digital forensic
d. Criminal activity
Ans : d) Criminal activity
7. Digital forensic is all of them except:

a. Extraction of computer data
b. Preservation of computer data
c. Interpretation of computer data
d. Manipulation of computer data
Ans: b) Preservation of computer data
8. IDIP stand for

a. Integrated digital investigation process
b. Integrated data investigation process
c. Integrated digital investigator process
Ans : a) Integrated digital investigation process
9. Who proposed Road map model ?
a. G.Gunsh
b. S.Ciardhuain
c. J.Korn
d. G.Palmar
Ans : d) G.Palmar
10. Field of PC forensics began in which year ?

a. 1975
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1980
Ans : d) 1980
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 4: Digital Evidences
1. Which of the following is not a digital device ?

a. Computer
b. Phone
c. Guitar
d. Internet
Ans : c) Guitar
2. Rule of evidence is called as ………….

a. Digital Evidence
b. Law of Evidence
c. Hidden Evidence
d. Electronic Evidence
Ans : b) Law Of Evidence
3. BPO stand for …………..

a. Business profile outsourcing
b. Business profile outcome
c. Business process outsourcing
d. Business process outcome
Ans : c) Businesses process outsourcing
4. The digital evidence are used to establish a credible link between……
a. Attacker and victim and the crime scene
b. Attacker and the crime scene
c. Victim and the crime scene
d. Attacker and information
Ans : a) Attacker and victim and the crime scene
5. Which of the following is not a type of volatile evidence?
a. Routing Table
b. Main memory
c. Log files
d. Cached Data
Ans : c) Log files
5. Will volatile evidences last forever

a. No
b. Not Sure
c. Yes
Ans : a) No
6. Investigation means :
a. Collection of information
b. A procedure to find the Digital Evidence
c. Searching over internet
d. Hacking computer systems
Ans : b) A procedure to find the Digital Evidence
7. The evidence or proof that can be obtained from the electronic source is called the ………
a. Digital evidence
b. Demonstrative evidence
c. Explainable evidence
d. Substantial evidence
Ans : a) Digital evidence
8. Which one is not a 103 rule of evidence

a. Maintaining a claim of error
b. Aim of an offer of proof
c. Plain error taken
d. Destroying data
Ans : d) Destroying data
9. Digital evidence must follow the requirements of the ……..
a. Ideal evidence
b. Best evidence
c. Exchange evidence
d. All of the mentioned
Ans : b) Best evidence
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 5: Basics of Hacking
1. What is hacking ?
a. Identifying weakness in computer system or networks
b. Refers to act of locating vulnerabilities
c. A security to your personal data
d. Protocols of corrupting data
Ans : a) Identifying weakness in computer system or networks
2. Ethical Hacking is known as ………..

a. White Hat hacking
b. Black Hat hacking
c. Encrypting
d. None of these
Ans : a) white Hat hacking
3. How many steps are there the legality of ethical hacking ?

a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : a) 5
4. Tools used by ethical hackers………..

a. Scanner
b. Decoder
c. Proxy
d. All of these
Ans : a) scanner
5. Hackers are also called as
a. Good Guys
b. Bad Guys
c. Both of the above
Ans : b) Bad Guys
6. Vulnerability scanning in Ethical hacking finds……….

a. Strengths
b. Weakness
c. A&B
d. None of these
Ans : b) weakness
7. What is the required education to be an ethical hacker ?

a. Diploma holder
b. 10+2 passed
c. Bachelor’s degree in the related field
d. Nothing needed
Ans : c) Bachelor’s degree in related field
8. Ethical hacking will allow to ………all the massive security breaches.

a. Reject
b. Measure
c. Remove
d. None of these
Ans : d) None of these
9. Security tools that are widely used are :

a. Nmap
b. WebInspect
c. Network Strumbler
d. All of the above
Ans : d) All of the above
10. TCP stand for………

a. Transmission Control Protocol
b. Transfer Control Protocol
c. Travel Control Protocol
d. Tracking Control Protocol
Ans : a) Transmission Control Protocol
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 6: Types of Hacking
1. SNMP stand for…………

a. Simple network messaging protocol
b. Simple network Mailing protocol
c. Simple network management protocol
d. Simple network Master protocol
Ans : c) Simple network management protocol
2. What is the full form of NIV Foundation?

a. Network Infrastructure Violation
b. Network Issue Vulnerabilities
c. Network Infrastructure Vulnerabilities
d. Network Information Vulnerabilities
Ans : c) Network Infrastructure Vulnerabilities
3. Banner grabbing is often used for…….

a. White hat hacking
b. Black hat hacking
c. Gray hat hacking
d. Script kiddies
Ans : a) white hat hacking
4. What is the full form of UDP

a. Union Development Program
b. User Data Program
c. User Datagram Protocol
d. Unified Datagram Provider
Ans : c) User Datagram Protocol
5. IMAP stand for…………

a. Internet message access protocol
b. Internet mailing access protocol
c. Information access protocol
d. None of these
Ans : a) Internet message access protocol
6. What is full form of MAC
a. Model Access Communication
b. Media Access Control
c. Multimedia Access Control
d. Modern Access Control
Ans : b) Media Access Control
7. Which IEEE standards specify the technologies for wireless LANs 802.11
a. IEEE 802.11
b. IEEE 802.10
c. IEEE 279.6
d. IEEE 275.4
Ans : a) 802.11
8. An attackers can create an …....attack by sending hundreds or thousand of e-mail with

very large attachment.
a. Connection Attack
b. Auto responder Attack
c. Attachment overloading Attack
d. All of the above
Ans : c) Attachment overloading attack
9. Port no.(6346,6347) Gnutella service having which protocols …..

a. TCP
b. UDP
c. TCP, UDP
d. NONE
Ans : c) TCP,UDP
10. What is the full form of DMZ

a. Demilitarized Zone
b. Demonetized Zone
c. Demand Zone
d. Demoralized Zone
Ans : a) Demilitarized Zone
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 1: Artificial Intelligence
1) Which is the first AI program?

a) The Logical Brain
b) AlphaSense
c) The Jarvis
d) The Logic Theorist
Ans: d) The Logical Theorist

2) Who is regarded as “The Father of AI?”
a) Allan Turin
b) John Mc Carthy
c) J. C. Shaw
d) Allen Newell
Ans: b) John Mc Carthy

3) Which among this, is an AI created by IBM partner with Fluid PVT. Used specially for ‘Data
Analysis?’
a) EVE AI
b) Watson
c) Siri
d) Novel AI Ans: b)
Watson
4) What is PROLOG and LISP?

a) Examples of super AI
b) Languages of AI
c) Concepts of AI
d) Type of AI
Ans: b) Languages of AI
5) The given illustrative diagram is related to which topic?

a) Machine Learning
b) Neural Network Processing
c) Reasoning
d) Deep learning
Ans: a) Machine Learning

6) There are how many dimensions of AI?
a) Four
b) Three
c) Two
d) One
Ans: b) Three
7) The term “Strong” or “Super” AI comes under which ‘type’ of AI?
a) Type-1
b) Type-2
c) None of the above
d) All of the above
Ans: a) Type-1
8) These machines can use stored data for a limited time period only.
a) Reactive Machine
b) Self-Awareness
c) Limited machine
d) Theory of mind Ans: c)
Limited machine
9) “KBS” in AI stands for?

a) Knowledge Based Scenario
b) Knowledge Based System
c) Knowledge Based Segments
d) Knowing Best System
Ans: b) Knowledge Based System
10) There are how many ‘AI Approaches?’

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Ans: d) Four
CHAPTER 2: Internet of Things
1) Raspbian is:
a) Assembler
b) Language
c) Compiler
d) OS
Ans:- d. OS
2) Which one out of these is not LPWAN technologies:
a) SigFox
b) WiFi
c) NB-oT
d) LoRa
Ans:- b. WiFi
3) Computer programs that mimic the way the human brain processes information is called as:-
a) Machine learning
b) Deep learning
c) Neural networks
d) None of the above
Ans:- c. Neural
networks
4) is a branch of Science which deals with the helping machine find
solutions to complex problems in a more human like fashion
a. Artificial Intelligence
b. Internet Od Things
c. Embedded system
d. cyber Security
Ans:- a. Artificial Intelligence
5) What does LTE stands for:-

a) Long Terms Errors
b) Long Term Evolution
c) Lengthy terminal Estimation
d) Long term Estimates
Ans:- b. Long Term Evolution
6) Which transport layer protocols is used by DHCP:-
a. RSVP
b.TCP
c. DCCP
d. UDP
Ans:- d. UDP
7) Which one out of these is not a data link layer technology:-
a) Bluetooth
b) UART
c) WiFi
d) HTTP
Ans:- d. HTTP
8) IoT stands for:-
a) Internet of Technology
b) Intranet of Things
c) Internet of Things
d) Information of Things
Ans:- c. Internet of
Things
9) WSN stands for:-
a) Wide Sensor Network

b) Wireless Sensor Network
c) Wired Sensor Network
d) None of these
Ans:- b. Wireless Sensor Network
10) Which is not the feature of IoT:-
a. Connectivity
b. Self-configuring
c. Endpoint Management
d. Artificial Intelligence
Ans:- b. Self-configuring
CHAPTER 3: Basics of Digital Forensics
11. Which of the following sciences pay vital role in criminal justice systems ?
a. Digital Forensics
b. Forensic Science
c. PC Forensics
d. INTERPOL Forensic
Ans : b) Forensic Science
12. The full form of DFI is :

e. Digital Forensic Investigation
f. Digitalized Forensic Investigation
g. Digital Foreign Investment
h. Direct Forensic Investigation
Ans : a) Digital Forensic Science
13. How many rules are there in Digital Forensics :

a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : d) 6
14. Which of the following is not involved in DFI’s road map :

a. Identification
b. Collection
c. Prevention
d. Examination
Ans : c) Prevention
15. What is the full form of EEDIP

a. End to End Digital Investigation Program
b. End to End Digital Investigation Process
c. End to End Digital Forensic Investigation
d. End to End Digital Forensic Investment
Ans : b) End to End Digital Investigation Process
16. Ethical Issues in Digital Forensic means :
a. Set of moral principals that regulate the use of computers
b. Related to ethical hacking
c. Honesty towards investigation
d. Compliance with law
Ans : a) Set of moral principals that regulate the use of computers
17. What do primary investigator consider from the original source :

a. Summarize and hold the data
b. Whether to analyze more data or to extract more data
c. Examine the data and store it
d. Compress the data
Ans : b) Whether to analyze more data or to extract more data
18. Who proposed the UML Modelling of Digital Forensic Process Model
a. Kohn, Eloff and Oliver
b. Response Team
c. Only (a)
Ans : a) Kohn, Eloff and Oliver
19. From what should the digital data must be protected ?

a. Copied
b. Deleted
c. Modified
d. Destroyed
Ans : c) Modified
20. Field of PC forensics began in which year ?

a. 1975
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1980
Ans : d) 1980
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 4: Digital Evidences
10. Which of the following is not a digital device ?

a. Computer
b. Phone
c. Guitar
d. Internet
Ans : c) Guitar
11. Digital evidences are also called as :

a. Digital proof
b. Evidence
c. Hidden Truth
d. Electronic Evidence
Ans : d) Electronic Evidence
12. Which of the following is not the form of digital evidence:

a. Text messages
b. Emails
c. Pictures
d. Paper
Ans : d) Paper
13. According to Edmond Locard, there will be interchange if :

a. Two items interchange with each other
b. Two items make contact
c. No interaction needed
d. No devices needed
Ans : b) Two items make contact
14. What is digital evidence according to Cohen ?

a. Baggage of proofs
b. Collection of evidences
c. Bag of bits
d. Backpack of Bytes
Ans : c) Bag of bits
15. Will volatile evidences last forever
a. No
b. Not Sure
c. Yes
Ans : a) No
16. Investigation means :

a. Collection of information
b. A procedure to find the Digital Evidence
c. Searching over internet
d. Hacking computer systems
Ans : b) A procedure to find the Digital Evidence
17. To whom is the IP addresses were traced ?

a. Internet Service Provider
b. Cyber Crime Office
c. Only (a)
Ans : a) Internet Service Provider
18. Which one is not a 103 rule of evidence

a. Maintaining a claim of error
b. Aim of an offer of proof
c. Plain error taken
d. Destroying data
Ans : d) Destroying data
19. Which one of the following locates data on network devices :

a. ARP Cache
b. Kernel Statistics
c. Routing Table
d. Memory
Ans : c) Routing Table
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 5: Basics of Hacking
11. What is hacking ?

a. Identifying weakness in computer system or networks
b. Refers to act of locating vulnerabilities
c. A security to your personal data
d. Protocols of corrupting data
Ans : a) Identifying weakness in computer system or networks
12. Malicious users are also called as :

a. External attackers
b. Trusted users
c. hacker
d. Internal attackers
Ans : d) Internal attackers
13. How many steps are there the legality of ethical hacking ?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 7
d. 6
Ans : a) 5
14. What is PayPal ?

a. Pay through Pal
b. NetBanking
c. Payment Gateway
d. Information app
Ans : c) Payment Gateway
15. Hackers are also called as

a. Good Guys
b. Bad Guys
c. Both of the above
Ans : b) Bad Guys
16. Ethical hackers are
a. Trained hackers
b. Related to ethical hacking
c. Bad guys
d. Good guys
Ans : a) Trained hackers
17. What is the required education to be an ethical hacker ?

a. Diploma holder
b. 10+2 passed
c. Bachelor’s degree in the related field
d. Nothing needed
Ans : c) Bachelor’s degree in related field
18. Which is not an Ethical Hacking related career

a. Back-End Developer
b. Software Tester
c. Software Developer
d. Computer Networking Specialist
Ans : a) Software Tester
19. Security tools that are widely used are :

a. Nmap
b. WebInspect
c. Network Strumbler
d. All of the above
20. What is the full form of TCP :

a. Transmission Control Protocol
b. Transfer Control Protocol
c. Travel Control Protocol
d. Tracking Control Protocol
Ans : a) Transmission Control Protocol
MCQ’S
CHAPTER 6: Types of Hacking
11. Network Testing and port scanning tools are :

a. Sam Spade
b. SuperScan
c. NetScan
d. All of the above
12. What is the full form of NIV Foundation?

a. Network Infrastructure Violation
b. Network Issue Vulnerabilities
c. Network Infrastructure Vulnerabilities
d. Network Information Vulnerabilities
Ans : c) Network Infrastructure Vulnerabilities
13. Number of Successful NetBIOS queries :

a. 5
b. 13
c. 12
d. 17
Ans : b) 13
14. What is the full form of UDP

a. Union Development Program
b. User Data Program
c. User Datagram Protocol
d. Unified Datagram Provider
Ans : c) User Datagram Protocol
15. What is Banner Grabbing ?

a. Act of capturing the information by banners
b. Grabbing Information
c. Information Sharing
d. Sharing Information
Ans : a) Act of capturing the information by banners
16. What is full form of MAC
a. Model Access Communication
b. Media Access Control
c. Multimedia Access Control
d. Modern Access Control
Ans : b) Media Access Control
17. Which IEEE standards specify the technologies for wireless LANs 802.11
a. IEEE 802.11
b. IEEE 802.10
c. IEEE 279.6
d. IEEE 275.4
Ans : a) 802.11
18. LINUX is an
a. Application
b. Software
c. Toolkit
d. Operating System
Ans : d) Operating System
19. Which of the following is an Email attack :

a. Hacking
b. Decrypting
c. Bomb
d. Banner
Ans : d) Banner
20. What is the full form of DMZ

a. Demilitarized Zone
b. Demonetized Zone
c. Demand Zone
d. Demoralized Zone
Ans : a) Demilitarized Zone
MCQ’s Question and Answers (the answers are highlighted in bold)
Q1.When the Federal Bureau of investigation was create ?.
A)1900 B)1980 C)19450 D)1984
Q2.What is The Full form of CART
A)Computer Analysis and Response Team B) Cathode Analog Ray Tube
C)Computer Accessories Repairing team D)None
Q3 When IOCE is Formed
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)1995
Q4Full Form Of IOCE
A)International Organization on Computer Evidence B)Internet of Computer Education
C) Internet of Computer Evidence D)None
Q5When was the first FBI Regional Computer Forensic laboratory was Recognize ?.
A)1992 B)1980 C)19490 D)2000
Q6How Many Rules in Digital forensic
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q7 What is the Long form of DFI
A)Digital Forensic Investigation B)Digital Fraud Industry
C)Defining Form In D)None
Q8 How Many Phases in RDMDFR
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q9 Investigator should satisfy the following point:
A)Contribute to the society and human being B)Avoid harm to others
C)honest and trustworthy D)All Of the Above
Q10 Who proposed Road Map Model
A)G. Gunsh B)S. Ciardhuain C)J. Korn D)G. Palmar

Q11 Digital Evidence in the form of the:
A)Office File B)E-mail Messages C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q12 In Computer intrusions the attacker will be leave multiple traces of there presence in:
A)File System B)Registry C)System Logs D)All of the Above
Q13 What are the Form of Electronic Evidence:
A)Hard Drive B)E-mail C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q14 How Many Types of the Evidence
A)12 B)19 C)10 D)6
Q15 What is the full form of BPO
A)Business Process Outsourcing
Q16 The Digital evidence are used to established a credible link between……….
A)Attacker and victim and the crime scene B)Attacker And information
C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q17 The evidence and proof that can be obtained from the electronic source is called the…….
A)Digital Evidence B)Explainable evidence C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q18 Which of the following is not type of volatile evidence:
A)Routing Tables B) Main Memory C)Log Files D) Cached Data
Q19 Digital Evidence must follow the requirement of the
A)Ideal Evidence Rule B)Best Evidence Rule C)Exchange Rule D)All of the mentioned
Q20 White hat Hacker is known as the
A)Cracker B)Ethical C)Grey Hat D)Script Kiddies
Q21 What is an grey hat hacker
A)Black Hat Hacker B)White Hat Hacker C)Combination of White and black hat hackers D)None
Q22 A Hacker who identifies and exploits weakness in telephones instead of computers is known as:
A)Phreaker B)Hacktivist C)Ethical hacker D)Grey Hat hacker
Q23 Long Form of the VPN
A)Virtual Private Network B)Virtual Personal Network C)Both D)None
Q24 Who are use their skill to identify security problem with computer network
A)Black Hat Hacker B)Ethical Hacker C)Grey Hat hacker D)Script Kiddies
Q25 To crack the password you need cracking tool such as:
A)LC4 B)John The Ripper C)pwdump D)All of the above
Q26 NMAP known as:
A)Network Mapper B)NetCat C)SuperScan D)NetScan
Q27 What is the most valuable assets of an organization
A)Information
Q28 What is the full form of SMTP
A)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
Q29 What is the full form of DNS
A)Domain Name System B)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
C)Internet Message Access Protocol D) Network Mapper
Q30 What is the full form of IMAP
A)Internet Message Access Protocol B)Simple mail Transfer Protocol
C)Internet Message Access Protocol D)None
Q31 What is the full form of SNMP
A)Simple Network Management Protocol
Q32 Which of the following used for the Network Testing and port scanning
A)NetCat B)SuperScan C)NetScan D)All of Above
Q33 The whole email server may be targeted for a complete interruption of services with these failure
like
A)Storage overload and bandwidth blocking
Q34 Which is the top most directory in the server file system
A)Root Directory
Q35 Which list is used in the authorization process
A)Access Control List
Q36 What is the latest version of UNIX
A)LINUX
Q37 Which OS is widely used in the world
A)Windows B)LINUX C)IOS D)NONE
Q38 Name of network analyzer which support windows and unix OS
A)Ethereal
Q39 You can grab banner by using
A)Telnet B)NetCat C)Either A or B D)Both A and B
Q40 An attacker can create an …………………………….. attack by sending hundreds or thousands of emails
A)Attachment Overloading Attack B)Connection Attack C)Auto Responder Attack
D)All of the Above

A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
4. Hacking for a cause is called __________________.
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
5. When a hacker attempts to attack a host via the Internet it is known as what
type of attack?
A. Remote attack
B. Physical access
C. Local access
D. Internal attack
A. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, RIPE NCC

B. APNIC, MOSTNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
C. APNIC, PICNIC, NANIC, ARIN
D. APNIC, LACNIC, ARIN, RIPE NCC
7.How does traceroute work?
A. It uses an ICMP destination-unreachable message to elicit the name of a router.

B. It sends a specially crafted IP packet to a router to locate the number of hops from the
sender to the destination network.
C. It uses a protocol that will be rejected by the gateway to determine the location.
D. It uses the TTL value in an ICMP message to determine the number of hops from the
sender to the router.
8. Nslookup can be used to gather information regarding which of the following?
A. Host names and IP addresses

B. Whois information
C. DNS server locations
D. Name server types and operating systems
9.What is it called when a hacker pretends to be a valid user on the system?
A. Impersonation
B. Third-person authorization
C. Help desk
D. Valid user
10.What is the best reason to implement a security policy?
A. It increases security.
B. It makes security harder to enforce.
C. It removes the employee’s responsibility to make judgments.
D. It decreases security.
Chapter No 3 : Basics Of Digital Forensic
A. Process of using scientific knowledge in analysis and presentation of evidence in

court
B. The application of computer science and investigative procedures for a legal

purpose involving the analysis of digital evidence after proper search authority,
chain of custody, validation with mathematics, use of validated tools,
repeatability, reporting, and possible expert presentation
C. A process where we develop and test hypotheses that answer questions about
digital events
D. Use of science or technology in the investigation and establishment of the facts or

evidence in a court of law
2. Does database forensic include in Digital Forensic application
A. True
B. False
3. Which of the following is NOT focus of digital forensic analysis?
A. Authenticity
B. Comparison
C. Proving
D. Enhancement
4. Which of the following represents the step of scientific methodI- Develop hypothesis
based on evidenceII- Calculate hash value of evidenceIII- Test the hypothesis to look for
additional evidence IV-make an imaging of the original evidence
A. All above
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. II, III and IV

5. What is the Primary Objectives of Digital Forensic for Business and Industry
A. Availability of service
B. Continuity of operation
C. Prosecution
D. Security
6. Which of the following hold the highest value of evidence in the court?
A. Documentary
B. Demonstrative
C. Testimonial
D. Real
7. Which of the following is FALSE
A. The digital forensic investigator must maintain absolute objectivity
B. It is the investigator’s job to determine someone’s guilt or innocence.
C. It is the investigator’s responsibility to accurately report the relevant facts of a

case.
D. The investigator must maintain strict confidentiality, discussing the results of an

investigation on only a “need to know” ba
8. ____ is a written list of objections to certain testimony or exhibits.
a.Defendant
b.Empanelling the jury
c.Plaintiff
d.Motion in limine
9. Attorneys can now submit documents electronically in many courts; the standard format
in federal courts is ____.
a. Microsoft Word (DOC)
b. Portable Document Format (PDF)
c. Encapsulated Postscript (EPS)
d. Postscript (PS)
10. A(n) ____is a document that lets you know what questions to expect when you are
testifying.
a.written report
b.affidavit
c.examination plan
d.subpoena
Chapter No 4 : Digital Evidences

evidence?

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
d. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise
would have.
d. All of the above.
Chapter No 5 : Basics of hacking

2. Performing a shoulder surfing in order to check other’s password is ____________ ethical

practice.
a) a good
b) not so good
d) a bad
3. ___________ has now evolved to be one of the most popular automated tools for unethical
hacking.
a) Automated apps
c) Malware
d) Worms
a) True
b) False

assets.
a) Ethical hacking
c) Fixing bugs
a) stealing
b) disclosure
c) deleting
d) hacking
7. Before performing any penetration test, through legal procedure, which key points listed
below is not mandatory?
8. An ethical hacker must ensure that proprietary information of the firm does not get leaked.
a) True
b) False
9. After performing ____________ the ethical hacker should never disclose client information
to other parties.
a) hacking
b) cracking
d) exploiting
10. __________ is the branch of cyber security that deals with morality and provides different
theories and a principle regarding the view-points about what is right and wrong.
a) Social ethics
c) Corporate ethics
1.In terms of digital evidence, the Internet is an example of:

c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
evidence?


c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above



d. Offenders who are unaware of them leave behind more clues than they otherwise would
have.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS
Chapter 1- Artificial Intelligence
1. A ____ is a rule of thumb, strategy, trick, simplification, or any other kind of device which
drastically limits search for solutions in large problem spaces.
A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
2. ______ do not guarantee optimal/any solutions

A. Heuristic
B. Critical
C. Value based
D. Analytical
Ans: A
3. Cognitive science related with _____

A. Act like human
B. ELIZA
C. Think like human

D. None of above
Ans: C
4. _____ Model should reflect how results were

obtained. A. Design model
B. Logic model
C. Computational model
D. None of above
Ans: C
5. Communication between man and machine is related with ______
A. LISP B.
ELIZA
C. All of above D.
None of above
Ans: B
6. ELIZA created by _____

A. John McCarthy
B. Steve Russell
C. Alain Colmerauer
D. Joseph Weizenbaum
Ans: D
7. The concept derived from ________ level are propositional logic, tautology,
predicate calculus, model, temporal logic.
A. Cognition level
B. Logic level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
8. PROLOG is an AI programming language which solves problems with a form of symbolic

logic known as ______.
A. Propositional logic
B. Tautology
C. Predicate calculus
D. Temporal logic
Ans: C
9. The ____ level contains constituents at the third level which are knowledge based
system, heuristic search, automatic theorem proving, multi-agent system.
A. Cognition level
B. Gross level
C. Functional level
D. All of above
Ans: B
10. PROLOG, LISP, NLP are the language of ____
B. Machine Learning
C. Internet of Things
D. Deep Learning
Ans: A
11. ______ is used for AI because it supports the implementation of software that computes
with symbols very well.
A. LISP B.
ELIZA C.
PROLOG D.
NLP
Ans: A
Chapter-2 Internet of Things
1. MQTT stands for _____________
A. MQ Telemetry Things
B. MQ Transport Telemetry
C. MQ Transport Things
D. MQ Telemetry Transport
Ans: D

A. True
B. False
Ans: A
3. MQTT is _________ protocol.

A. Machine to Machine
B. Internet of Things
C. Machine to Machine and Internet of

Things D. Machine Things
Ans: C

A. MQTT
B. HTTP
C. CoAP
D. SPI
Ans: A
5. MQTT is:
A. Based on client-server architecture
B. Based on publish-subscribe architecture
C. Based on both of the above
D. Based on none of the above
Ans: B
6. XMPP is used for streaming which type of elements?

A. XPL
B. XML
C. XHL
D. MPL
Ans: B
7. XMPP creates _________ identity.

A. Device
B. Email
C. Message
D. Data
Ans: A
8. XMPP uses ________ architecture.

A. Decentralized client-server
B. Centralized client-server
C. Message
D. Public/subscriber
Ans: A
9. What does HTTP do?
A. Enables network resources and reduces perception of latency

B. Reduces perception of latency and allows multiple concurrency exchange
C. Allows multiple concurrent exchange and enables network resources
D. Enables network resources and reduces perception of latency and Allows multiple
concurrent exchange.
Ans: D
10. HTTP expands?

A. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
B. Hyper Terminal Transfer Protocol

C. Hyper Text Terminal Protocol
D. Hyper Terminal Text Protocol
Ans: A
1. Which of following are Unethical norms for Investigator?


D. All of above
E. None of above
Ans: D
2. Which of following is not general ethical norm for

Investigator? A. To contribute to society and human being.
B. Uphold any relevant Evidence.

C. To be honest and trustworthy.
D. To honor confidentially.
Ans: B
3. Which of following is a not unethical norm for Digital Forensics Investigation?


D. To respect the privacy of others.
Ans: D
4. What is called as the process of creation a duplicate of digital media for purpose
of examining it?
A. Acquisition.
B. Steganography.
C. Live analysis
D. Hashing.
Ans: A
5. Which term refers for modifying a computer in a way which was not originally intended
to view Information?
A. Metadata
B. Live analysis
C. Hacking
D. Bit Copy
Ans: C
6. The ability to recover and read deleted or damaged files from a criminal’s computer is
an example of a law enforcement specialty called?
A.Robotis
C.ComputerForenss
D.Animation
Ans: C
7. What are the important parts of the mobile device which used in Digital forensic?
A. SIM
B. RAM
C. ROM.
D.EMMC chip
Ans: D
Using what, data hiding in encrypted images be carried out in digital forensics?
A. Acquisition.
B.Steganogrhy. C.
Liveanalysis
D. Hashing.
And: B
Which of this is not a computer crime?
C. Sabotage.
D. Identification of data
Ans. D
Which file is used to store the user entered password?
A. .exe
B. .txt
C. .iso
D. .asm
Ans: D
Chapter-4 DIGITAL EVIDENCE
1. A Valid Definition of Digital Evidence is

a. Data Stored or transmitted using a computer
b. Information of Probative value
c. Digital dada of probative Value
d. Any digital evidence on computer
2. In term of Digital evidence, a hard drive is example.of

a. Open Computer System
b. Communication System
c. Embedded Computer System
d. None of the Above
3. In term of Digital evidence, a mobile telephone is an example.of

a. Open Computer System
d. None of the Above
4. In term of Digital evidence, the internet is an example of

a. Open computer System
5. Digital Evidence is only useful in court of law

a. True
b. False
6. Video Surveillance can be form of Digital evidence

a. True
b. False
7. Computer Can be Involved in which of the following types of crime

a. Homicide and sexual Assault
c. Civil disputes
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
10. Digital evidence can be duplicated exactly without any changes to the original data.
a. True
b. False
Chapter-5 Basics of Hacking
1. Which of the following statements best describes a white-hat hacker?
B. Former black hat
C. Former grey hat
D. Malicious hacker
A. Attack
C. Gaining access
D. Reconnaissance
E. Scanning
A. Internal network
B. Remote network
C. External network
D. Physical access
C. Grey-hat hackers
D. Script kiddies
5. Hacking for a cause is called __________________
A. Active hacking
B. Hacktivism
C. Activism
6. Which federal law is most commonly used to prosecute hackers?
A. Title 12
B. Title 18
C. Title 20
D. Title 2
8. port number does FTP use?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 23
D. 80
9. What is the primary goal of an Ethical Hacker?
a. Avoiding Detection
b. Determining return on investment (ROI) for security measure
c. Resolving security vulnerabilities
d. Testing Security Controls
a) True
b) False
Chapter-6 Types Of Hacking
1. Hackers who help in finding bugs and vulnerabilities in a system & don’t intend to
crack a system are termed as ________
c) Grey Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
2. Which is the legal form of hacking based on which jobs are provided in IT industries
and firms?
a) Cracking
c) Ethical hacking
d) Hactivism
3. They are nefarious hackers, and their main motive is to gain financial profit by doing
cyber crimes. Who are “they” referred to here?
a) Gray Hat Hackers
c) Hactivists
4. ________ are the combination of both white as well as black hat hackers.
a) Grey Hat hackers
c) Blue Hat Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
5. The amateur or newbie in the field of hacking who don’t have many skills about
coding and in-depth working of security and hacking tools are called ________
b) Hactivists
c) Script Kiddies
d) Whistle Blowers
6. Criminal minded individuals who work for terrorist organizations and steal
information of nations and other secret intelligence are _________
b) Blue Hat Hackers
c) Cyber Terrorists
d) Red Hat Hackers
7. These types of hackers are the most skilled hackers in the hackers’ community. Who
are “they” referred to?
b) Elite Hackers
d) Red Hat Hackers
8. _________ are those individuals who maintain and handles IT security in any firm or
organization.
d) Security Auditor
9. Governments hired some highly skilled hackers. These types of hackers are termed
as _______
a) Special Hackers
b) Government Hackers
c) Cyber Intelligence Agents
d) Nation / State sponsored hackers
10. __________ security consultants uses database security monitoring & scanning
tools to maintain security to different data residing in the database / servers / cloud.
a) Database
b) Network
c) System
d) Hardware
1. Which of the following statements describe the discrete variable? It can only take on whole
number values
2. Which type of AI is commonly used for speech recognition and image recognition? Narrow
3. Quantitative data deals with Numbers
4. The X Dimension of ai philosophy is Cognition
5. Which of the following industries can benefit from NGN applications? All of the above
6. The accutators used as an electromagnet is Solenoid
7. In ADFM model the preparation of tools techniques search warrants are functions of which
phase? Preparation
8. Dried blood,Fingerprint DNA samples are example of? Substantial evidence
9. An email bomb is a form of Internet abuse which is perpetrated through the sending of
massive volumes of email to a specific email address with the goal of overflowing the
mailbox and overwhelming the mail server hosting the address making it into some form of
denial of service attack.
10. Pursuing emails in email databases on server and workstations can be understood as Hacker
attacks against email systems
11. What is/are the procedural steps to establish chain of custody? Work with original evidence
12. Attachment overloading attack connection attack autoresponder attack are understood as
Email bomb attack
13. An email bomb is also known as letter bomb.
14. When the hacker corrupts data within the heap and that code changes forces your system to
overwrite important data it is called as heap based buffer overflow
15. In Blockchain when a transaction is recorded it cannot be modified this feature is called as
immutability
16. Layers of NGN are Access, Transport, Control, Service
17. Number of layers in NGN Architecture is 5
18. In telecommunication networks NGN stands for Next generation network.
19. IEEE 802.11 is a collection of wireless local area network communication standards
20. 802.3 is the standard for 10BASE5 Ethernet that uses Coaxial cable has a shared medium
21. 5G wireless technology is used to deliver higher multi GBPS peak data speeds
22. Linear actuator is an actuator that creates motion in a straight line
23. 802.15.4 standards form the basis of specifications for high level communication protocols
such as Zigbee
24. WI Max Wifi LTE technology is used in 4G mobile network
25. What is the primary function of label switch router? to forward packets based on their
labels
26. How many layers are there in blockchain architecture? 5
27. Blockchain is a common unchangeable digital ledger that allows the process
28. Centralized system has a centralized control with all administrative rights
29. Bitcoin and Etherium are examples of cryptocurrency
30. Which technology can help contract management and audit the origin of a product?
Blockchain technology
31. Which of the following statement is true about blockchain? All of these
32. Which layer is called as logical layer of blockchain architecture? Semantic layer
33. Unsupervised learning makes sense of unlabeled data without having any predefined data
set for its training
34. Which of the following is an example of a 5G application for the agriculture industry?
Remote monitoring of crops and livestock
35. Polar coordinates can be useful for data of periodic nature, Such that data values at one end
of the scale can be logically joined to data values at the other end
36. Log scales are linear in multiplication.
37. A malicious user meaning a Rogue employee contractor intern or other user who abuses his
or her trusted privileges
38. Categorize the following attack:
entire databases being corrupted or deleted when insecure windows based systems are
attacked causing serious problems to a tremendous number of computers around the world.
Operating system attack
39. Social engineering is the art of exploiting the human elements to gain access to
unauthorized resources
40. Respecting privacy is a __? Network security principle
41. In digital forensics while doing investigation the investigator should follow? all of above
42. What do cyber terrorists do? attack corporate or government computers and public utility
infrastructures such as power grids and air traffic control towers
43. In ethical hacking
44. reading online help files for the given tool
45. study the user’s manual guide forgiven commercial tool
46. formal classroom training from the security tool vendor
i. is required in using the selected tool
47. In ADFM which phase is used to provide summary and explanation of conclusion?
Presentation
48. Application of connection attack is done by a hacker sending a huge amount of emails
simultaneously to addresses on the network
49. What is why it is important to maintain the chain of custody? All of above
50. Exploiting weaknesses in network transport mechanisms such as TCP/IP is an example of
network infrastructure attacks
51. Ethical hacking is performed with the targets permission in a professional setting
52. Classify the following attack in suitable category:
a. John floods a network with too many requests and creates a denial of services for
legitimate request network infrastructure attack
53. In IDIP model which face is used to put the pieces of digital puzzle together and developing
investigative hypothesis? reconstruction phase
54. Decentralized system does not have a centralized control and every node has an equal
authority
55. In digital forensic planning transport of evidence and presentation of hypothesis are phases
of EMCI model
56. IPv6 uses 128 bit address scheme That allows total of 2128 or 3.4x1038 addresses
57. Heuristic is a Rule of thumb strategy trick simplification or any other kind of device which
drastically limits search for solution in a large problem spaces
58. What test did ELIZA successfully pass? Turing test
59. Deep learning algorithms Are inspired by the structure and function of the brain called
artificial neural networks.
60. What do you understand by stack based buffer overflow attack? Attacker sends data to a
program and that transmission is stored in a too small stack buffer
61. To prevent attachment overload attacks what should be done? limit the size of either emails
or email attachments
62. A buffer overflow attack can be stack based or heap based

63. Ethical hacking will allow to measure all the massive security breaches.
64. ADFM stands for abstract digital forensic model.
65. Global information assurance certification(GIAC) certified information system security
professional(CISSP) are examples of Security testing certification
66. Use new operating systems watch the language lean on developers apply your patches are
performed as counter majors for operating system attack.
67. What is bandwidth blocking? an attacker can crash email service or bring it to a crawl by
filling the incoming Internet connection with junk.
68. An attacker can create an Attachment overload attack by sending hundreds or thousands of
emails with very large attachments to one or more recipients on your network.
69. What is traffic analysis or social network analysis? Gathering messaging trend information
via log files or network analyzer that can tip off the attacker about conversations between
people and organizations
70. GDPR is a legal stations that protects the data of European Union citizens.
71. What is function of SMTP Relay? SMTP relay lets users send emails through external servers
72. Using CAPTCHA on web best email forms can help minimize the impact of automated attacks
and lessen your chances of email flooding and denial of services
73. Buffer overflow attacks often how the hacker can get into modify network files and crack
passwords
74. Transmitting malware crashing servers obtaining remote control of workstations capturing
and modifying confidential information as it travels across the network. hacker attacks
against messaging systems
75. In 2008 Satoshi Nakamoto developed system which contains secure history of data exchange
76. Centralized system has centralized control with all administrative rights
77. The core components and constituents of ai are derived from concept of All of Above
78. Which one of the following is not commonly used aesthetics in data visualization? Image
79. Identify system shown in given figure: Decentralized and Peer to Peer to System

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ZEAL EDUCATION SOCIETY‟S

7. The field that investigates the mechanics of human intelligence is:

9. The first AI programming language was called:

10. What is Artificial intelligence?

11. Who is a father of AI?

14. The first AI programming language was called:

21. do not guarantee optimal/any solutions

22. Cognitive science related with

24. Communication between man and machine is related with

25. ELIZA created by

29. PROLOG, LISP, NLP are the language of

38. model was developed and incorporated in machines which mimicked

40. Human to Machine is and Machine to Machine is .

41. Weak AI is also known as

42. AI is able to perform a dedicated task.

43. Narrow AI is performed multiple tasks at a time.

46. Artificial intelligence is

47. Apple Siri is a good example of AI.

48. IBM Watson supercomputer comes under AI.

52. Playing chess, purchasing suggestions on e-commerce site, self-driving cars,

55. AI is a hypothetical concept of AI.

58. IBM’s deep blue system is an example of .

59. Google Alpha Go is an example of .

61. The self-driving car is an example of .

63. Which machines will be smarter than human mind?

66. What is Machine learning?

67 is a branch of science that deals with programming the systems in such a

69. K-means, self-organizing maps, hierarchical clustering are the examples of .

71. Machine learning is invented by .

Unit 02 – Internet of Things Marks:- 18

1. Embedded systems are

3. Which of the following is not true about embedded systems?

4. Which of the following is not an example of a “small-scale embedded system”?

5. The first recognized modern embedded system is

6. The first mass-produced embedded system is

10. A digital multimeter is an example of an embedded system for

12. The instruction set of RISC processor is

13. Which of the following is true about CISC processors?

14. Main processor chip in computers is

15. Processors used in many microcontroller products need to be

17. Which architecture is followed by general-purpose microprocessors?

22. Which of the following is an example of a wireless communication interface?

23. ARM stands for

24. What is the processor used by ARM7?

25. The main importance of ARM microprocessors is providing operation with

27. ASIC chip is

29. In microcontrollers, I2C stands for

40. Which one is not an element of IoT?

41. IIOT stands for

42. Name of the IoT device which is first recognized?

43. is used by IoT

47. The sensed data communicated .

48. IoT devices are various types, for instance _.

49. is a collection of wired Ethernet standard for the link layer.

50. is a collection of WLAN communication standards.

51. is a collection of wireless broadband standards (WiMax).

52 is a collection of standards for LR-WPANs.

54. includes GSM and CDMA.

59. layer performs the host addressing and packet routing.

62. 6LOWPAN stands for

64. IEEE 802.11 standards provide data rates

76. XMPP is used for streaming which type of elements?

77. XMPP creates identity.