08-06-2024 - SR C-120 - Jee-Mains - WTM-33 - Q Paper

Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.
 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
Sec: Sr.C-120 Jee Main Date: 08-06-2024
Time: 09.30Am to 12.30Noon WTM-33 Max. Marks: 300
08-06-2024_Sr.C-120 Jee-Mains WTM-33_Syllabus

PHYSICS : Ray Optics upto Lenses, lens formula, lens maker's formula,
magnification, power of lens, problems, Speed of image formed by the lens,
Combination of Lenses, Silvering of lenses and problems, Refraction and
dispersion of light through Prism + 30% Cumulative
CHEMISTRY : Total Metallurgy + 30% Cumulative, Alkyl halides Total + 30%
Cumulative
MATHEMATICS:Probability Complete except Total probability theorem, Baye’s Theorem +
30% Cumulative
Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy 08-06-2024_Sr. C-120_Jee-Mains_ WTM-33_Q.P
PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
(SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE option can be
correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
1. A thin lens of refractive index 1.5 has a focal length of 15 cm in air. When lens is placed
in a medium of refractive index (4/3), focal length will be now
1) 30 cm 2) 60 cm 3) – 60 cm 4) – 30 cm
2. A ray of light falls normally on a refracting face of a prism of refractive index 1.5. If the
ray just fails to emerge from the prism. Then the angle of prism is
A
2 2 1 1
1) sin 1   2) cos 1   3) sin 1   4) sin 1  
 3 3  2  3
3. An object 1 cm tall is placed in front of a mirror at a distance of 4 cm. In order to
produce an upright image of 3cm height one needs a
1) convex mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm
2) concave mirror of radius of curvature 12 cm
3) concave mirror of radius of curvature 4 cm
4) plane mirror of height 12 cm
4. A liquid of refractive index 1.33 is placed between two identical plano-convex lenses,
with refractive index 1.50. Two possible arrangements, P and Q are shown. The system
is
P Q
1) divergent in P , convergent in Q 2) convergent in P, divergent in Q
3) convergent in both 4) divergent in both
Sec: Sr.C-120 Page 2

5. A ray of light falls on a prism ABC (AB = BC) and travels as shown in figure. The
refractive index of the prism material should be greater than
A
900
900
B C
1) 4/3 2) 2 3) 1.5 4) 3
6. A plane glass plate is kept on a paper on which letters are printed in various colours,
colour of the letters which will be more close to upper surface is
1)yellow 2)red 3)blue 4)green
7. The graphs given apply to a convex lens of focal length f, producing a real image at a
distance v from the optical centre when a self-luminous object is at distance u from the
optical centre. The magnitude of magnification is m. Identify the following graphs with
the first named quantity being plotted along y-axis.
Column–I Column–II
y
A.
I. v against u
0 x
y
1 1 B.
II. against
v u
0 x
y
C.
III. m against v
0 x
y
v
IV. (m + 1) against D.
f
0 x
1)(I - C), (II - D), (III - A), (IV - B)
2) (I - D), (II - C), (III - B), (IV - A)
3)(I - C), (II - D), (III - B), (IV - A)
4) (I - A), (II - B), (III - C), (IV - D)
8. The x-z plane separates two media A and B of refractive indices 1 = 1.5 and 2 =2. A
ray of light travels from A to B. Its directions in the two media are given by unit vectors
 
u1  aiˆ  bˆj and u 2  ciˆ  dˆj . Then
-y
aiˆ  bˆj
i
1
2
x-z plane iˆ 
r ciˆ  dˆj
a 4 a 3 b 4 b 3
1)  2)  3)  4) 
c 3 c 4 d 3 d 4
9. A plane mirror is placed at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid of refractive index ,
P is a small object at a height h above the plane mirror. An observer O, vertically above
P, outside the liquid, observes P and its image in the mirror. The apparent distance
between object and its image will be
O
P
h
Plane mirror
2h 2h 1
1) 2h 2) 3) 4) h 
  1 
10. A thin plano-convex glass lens ( = 1.5) has its plane surface silvered and R is the radius
of curvature of curved part, then which of the following ray diagram is true for an object
placed at O?
R R
1) O 2) O
2R 2R
R R
3) O 4)
3R O
2R

11. A point-like object is placed at a distance of 1 m in front of a convex lens of focal length
0.5 m. A plane mirror is placed at a distance of 2 m behind the lens. The position and
nature of the final image formed by the system is
1) 2.6 m from the mirror, real 2) 1 m from the mirror, virtual
3) 1 m from the mirror, real 4) 2.6 m from the mirror, virtual
12. One plano-convex and one plano-concave lens of same radius of curvature ‘R’ but of
different materials are joined side by side as shown in the figure. If the refractive index
of the material of 1 is 1 and that of 2 is  2 , then the focal length of the combination is
R 2R R R
1) 2) 3) 4)
1  2 1  2  1  2  2   1   2 
13. For a concave lens of focal length f, the relation between object and image distances u
and v, respectively, from its pole can best be represented by (u = v is the reference line)

14. A thin convex lens L (refractive index = 1.5) is placed on a plane mirror M. When a pin
is placed at A, such that OA = 18 cm, its real inverted image is formed at A itself, as
shown in figure. When a liquid of refractive index 1 is put between the lens and the
mirror, the pin has to be moved to A’, such that OA’ = 27 cm, to get its inverted real
image at A’ itself. The value of 1 will be:
4 3
1) 2) 3) 3 4) 2
3 2
15. The refractive index of a glass is 1.520 for red light and 1.525 for blue light. Let
D1 and D2 be angles of minimum deviation for red and blue light respectively in a prism
of this glass. Then,
1) D1  D2
2) D1  D2
3) D1 can be less than or greater than D2 upon the angle of prism
4) D1  D2
16. Transverse waves are generated in two uniform wires A and B of the same material by
attaching their free ends to a vibrating source of frequency 200 Hz. The cross-section of
A is half that of B while the tension on A is twice that on B. The ratio of wavelengths of
the transverse waves in A and B is
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1

17. A tuning fork of known frequency is held at the open end of a long tube, which is dipped
into water as shown. The tuning fork of frequency 165 Hz resonates with air column,
when air column is vibrating in 1st and 3rd harmonic with air column lengths l1 = (50 
0.5) cm and l2 = (150  0.1) cm respectively. The speed of sound in air column is
1) (320  1.98) m/s 2) (330  1.98) m/s

3) (320  0.99) m/s 4) (330  0.99) m/s
18. A train is moving with a constant speed along a circular track. The engine of the train
emits a sound of frequency f. The frequency heard by the guard at rear end of the train
1) is less than f
2)is greater than f
3) is equal to f
4) may be greater than, less than or equal to f depending on the factors like speed of
train, length of train and radius of circular track.
19. In hydrogen atom, if potential energy of electron in ground state is assumed to be zero,
then its energy in first excited state is equal to
1) – 3.4 eV 2) 23.8 eV
3) 17.2 eV 4) – 6.8 eV
r 
20. In hydrogen atom, the radius of nth Bohr’s orbit is rn . The graph between log  n  and
r  1 
log n will be
Y Y
r  r 
log  n  log  n 
1)  r1  2)  r1 
O X O X
log n log n
Y Y
r  r 
log  n  log  n 
3)  r1  4)  r1 
O X O X
log n log n

(NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
Section-II contains 10 Numerical Value Type questions. Attempt any 5 questions only. First 5 attempted questions will be considered if more than 5
questions attempted. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If
answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 andIf answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
21. The energy that should be added to an electron, to reduce its de-Broglie wavelengths
from 10–10m to 0.5 × 10–10 m, will be n times of initial energy then value of N is
22. If photons of energy 12.75 eV are passing through hydrogen gas in ground state, then
no. of lines in emission spectrum will be
23. The distance between an object and a screen is 100 cm. A lens can produce real image
of the object on the screen for two different positions between the screen and the object.
The distance between these two positions is 40 cm. If the power of the lens is close to
 N 
  D where N is an integer, the value of N is ___________.
 100 
24. A point object in air is in front of the curved surface of a plano-convex lens. The radius
of curvature of the curved surface is 30 cm and the refractive index of the lens material
is 1.5, then the focal length of the lens (in cm) is__________.
25. A point object is placed at a distance of 23 cm from a convex lens of focal length 20
cm. If a glass slab of thickness t and refractive index 1.5 is inserted between the lens
and object. The image is formed at infinity. The thickness t in centimetre is
26. The magnification of a real object placed in front of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm
is +2. To obtain a magnification of -2, the same object has to be moved a distance
x  10 cm from its initial position. The value of x is
27. The rest mass of an electron in MeV, if the rest mass of an electron is 9.1 1031 kg and
velocity of light is 3 108 m/s is 51110 x MeV. Find x.
28. An electron in hydrogen atom jumps from n1 state to n2 state, where n1 and n2 represent
the quantum number to two states. The time period of revolution of electron in the
initial state is 8 times that in final state. Then the ratio of n1 and n2 is.
29. A parallel beam of uniform, monochromatic light of wavelength 2640Å has an intensity
of 200 W/m2. The number of photons in 1mm3 of this radiation is 100x, find the
nearest integer of x.
30. A ray of light from a liquid   3  is incident on a system of two right angled prism of
refractive indices 3 and 2 as shown. The ray suffers zero deviation when emerges
into air from CD. The angle of incidence i is______degrees.
Liquid A D
i   2 air
 3
B C

CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
correct.
31. In Hall-Heroult process, which of the following is not used for reducing of Al2O3
1) Magnesium 2) Na3AlF6 3) Graphite 4) CaF2
32. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In the metallurgy process, sulphide ore is converted to oxide before
reduction.
Statement II: Oxide ores in general are easier to reduce.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
33. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R
Assertion A: In the Ellingham diagram, a sharp change in slope of the line is observed
0
1120 C
from Mg   MgO
Reason R: There is a large change of entropy associated with the change of state
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given
below
1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
2) A is false but R is true
3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
4) A is true but R is false
34. Match List-I with List – II
List-I List-II
A) Sphalerite I) FeCO3
B) Calamine II) PbS
C) Galena III) ZnCO3
D) Siderite IV) ZnS

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
1) 1)-(IV),2)-(III),3)-(II),4)-(I) 2) 1)-(IV),2)-(I),3)-(II),4)-(III)
3) 1)-(II),2)-(III),3)-(I),4)-(IV) 4) 1)-(III),2)-(IV),3)-(II),4)-(I)
35. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion 1) and the other is labelled
as Reason (R).
Assertion 1) : Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as a main product
while with AgCN form isocyanide as the main product.
Reason (R) : KCN and AgCN are both highly ionic compounds.
In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1) 1) is correct but (R) is not correct
2) Both 1) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of 1)
3) 1) is not correct but (R) is correct
4) Both 1) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of 1)
36.
Acid formed in above reaction is :
1) Gluconic acid 2) Succinic acid
3) Oxalic acid 4) Malonic acid

excess NH 3NaOH
37. Identify formed in the reaction. Cl (CH 2 )4 Cl  A   B  H 2O  NaCl
1) 2) H 2 N (CH 2 )4 NH 2
   
3) Cl NH 3 (CH 2 )4 NH 3 Cl 4)
38. Identify the correct order of reactivity for the following pairs towards the respective
mechanism
A)
B)
C) Electrophilic substitution
D) Nucleophilic substitution
Choose the correction answer from the options given below:
1) 2), 3)and 4) only 2) 1),2), 3)and 4)
3) 1), 2)and 4) only 4) 1), 3)and 4) only
39. The correct of melting points of hydrides of group 16 elements are
1) H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te  H 2O 2) H 2O  H 2 S  H 2 Se  H 2Te
3) H 2 S  H 2Te  H 2 Se  H 2O 4) H 2 Se  H 2 S  H 2Te  H 2O
40. Which of the following complex species is not expected to exhibit optical isomerism?
3  
1) Co(en)3  2)  Co(en) 2 Cl2  3)  Co( NH 3 )3 Cl3  4)  Co(en)( NH 3 )2 Cl2 
41. Among the following oxoacids, the correct decreasing order of acid strength is :
1) HOCl>HClO2>HClO3>HClO4
2) HClO4>HOCl>HClO2>HClO3
3) HClO4>HClO3>HClO2>HOCl
4) HClO2>HClO4>HClO3>HOCl
42. Misch metal is
1) An alloy of Al
2) A mixture of chromium and PbCrO4
3) An alloy of lanthanoid metals
4) An alloy of copper
43. Which of the following pairs is expected to exhibit the same colour?
1) 2)
3) 4)
44. On treatment of 100 ml of 0.1 M solution of complex with excess of
was obtained. The complex is
(1) (2)
(3) (4)

45. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
i) For the same alkyl group, the boiling points of alkyl halides decreases in the order .
ii) With the increases in size and mass of halogen atom, the magnitude of van der Waal’s
forces increases.
1) Both statements (i) and (ii) are correct
2) Statement (i) is correct (ii) is incorrect
3) Statement (ii) is correct (i) is incorrect
4) Both statement (i) and (ii) are incorrect
46. The nucleophilicities of decrease in which order?
1)
2)
3)
4)
47.
In this reaction 70%racemisation takes place. % of inverted product would be :
1) 30 2) 70 3) 35 4) 65
48. Zone refining is based on the principle of
1) Fractional distillation
2) Fractional crystallization
3) Partition coefficient
4) Chromatographic separation

49. react with an excess of KCN solution to produce
1) The complex which has tetrahedral structure
2) The complex which haslinear structure
3) The complex which has square planar structure
4) The complex which has octahedral structure
50. are the ores of a metal M
are
1) Malachite and chalcocite
2) Galena and anglesite
3) Zinc blende and calamine
4) Argentite and horn silver

51. Number of electrons in the outer most shell of Ce (Z=58)
52. One mole of 1,2- dibromopropane on treatment with X moles of followed by
treatment with ethyl bromide gave a Pent-2-yne. The value of X is :
53. How many of the following phrases are not correctly associated with reaction?
1) Rearrangement is possible
2) Rate is affected by polarity of solvent
3) The strength of the nucleophile is important in determining rate
4) The reactivity series is tertiary >secondary>primary
5) Proceeds with complete inversion of configuration
54. How many of the following ores can be purified by froth flotation process
55. Among the Gelena, Cassiterite, Pyrolusite, Zincite, Rutile, malachite and azurite. The
number of oxide ores?
56. Number of stereoisomers that are possible for a complex ion
is
CH3
| Br2 /hv
57. CH 3  C  CH 2  CH3   monobromo compound X (major)
|
CH3
The number of possible stereoisomers, X can have …….
58. When isopentane is subjected to monochlorination, what will be the number of

monochlorinated products contain chiral carbon ?
59. How many of the given metals can be obtained by carbon reduction in their extractive
metallurgy.
60. Manganese (VI) has ability to disproportionate in acidic solution. The difference in
oxidation states of two ions it forms in acidic solution is ____________

MATHEMATICS Max Marks: 100
correct.
61. The number of words of four letters consisting of equal number of vowels and
consonants (of English language) with repetition permitted
1)51030 2) 50030 3) 63050 4) 66150
62. The Value of ( denotes greatest integer function)
1) 2009 2)2008 3) 2007 4)1
63. The value of the expression
1) 11 2)12 3)13 4)14
64. The constant term in the expansion of is
1) 26 2)169 3)260 4) 220
65. The ratio of the co-efficient to to the term independent of x in the expansion of
is
1) 1:4 2) 1:32 3) 7:64 4) 7:16
66. If are the roots of , then the equation whose roots are
is
1)
2)
3)
4)
67. Solution set of the inequality, is
1) 2) 3) 4)
68. The number of real value of x satisfying the equation

is ;
1) 1 2) 4 3)2 4) 3
69. If , and then events A and B are
1)Mutually exclusive 2)Independent as well as mutually exhaustive
3)Independent 4)Dependent only on A

70. Two dice are thrown simultaneously. The probability of getting the sum 2 or 8 or 12 is
1) 2) 3) 4)
71. A dice is rolled three times, the probability of getting a larger number than the previous
number each time is
1) 2) 3) 4)
72. For an event, odds against is 6 : 5. The probability that event does not occur, is
1) 2) 3) 4)
73. Let S = {1, 2, ....., 20}. A subset B of S is said to be “nice”, if the sum of the elements of
B is 203. Than the probability that a randomly chosen subset of S is “nice” is :
1) 2) 3) 4)
74. A number x is chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, ...., 100}. Define the event A :
A= the chosen number x satisfies Then P 1) is:
1) 2) 3) 4)
75. If six students, including two particular students A and B, stand in a row, then the
probability that A and B are separated with one student in between them is
1) 2) 3) 4)
76. Five horses are in a race. Mr. A selects two of the horses at random and bets on
them. The probability that Mr. A selected the winning horse is
1) 2) 3) 4)
77. In a class of 60 students, 40 opted for NCC, 30 opted for NSS and 20 opted for both
NCC and NSS. If one of these students is selected at random, then the probability that
the student selected has opted neither for NCC nor for NSS is :
1) 2) 3) 4)

78. Let X and Y are two events such that
Statement 1:
Statement 2:
1) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.
2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not a correct explanation of
Statement 1.
3) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.
4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true; Statement 2 is a correct explanation of
Statement 1.
79. A and B are events such that Then
1) 2) 3) 4)
80. In a tournament, there are sixteen players

and divided into eight pairs at random. From each game a winner is decided on the basis
of a game played between the two players of the pair assuming that all the players have
equal strength
Column-I Column-II
A) The probability that is one of the winners p)
B) The probability that exactly one of is a winner q)
C) Both and are among eight winners r)
D) Both and are not among winners s)
1)A-q B-p C-r D-s 2) A-q B-p C-r D-r
3) A-p B-q C-s D-r 4) A-p B-q C-s D-s

81. If A be any event in sample space then the maximum value of is

82. Consider the system of equation , where
the probability that the system of equation has a unique solution is k
then 8k is
83. If three numbers are selected from the set of the first 20 natural numbers and the
probability that they are in GP be P, then the integral part value of 228P is
84. The papers of 4 student can be checked by any one of the 7 teachers. If the probability
that all the 4 papers are checked by exactly 2 teachers is A, then the value of 49 A must
be
85. If two loaded dice each have the property that 2 or 4 is three times as likely to appear
as 1,3,5 or 6 on each roll when two such dice are rolled the probability of obtaining a
total of 7 is p, then the value of , where[.] denotes the greatest integer function is
86. Let n ordinary fair dice are rolled once. The probability that at least one of the dice
shows an odd number is than ‘n’ is equal to
87. If the probability that a randomly chosen 6-digit number formed by using digits 1 and 8
only is a multiple of 21 is p, then 96 p is equal to
88. In an examination, there are 10 true-false type questions. Out of 10, a student can guess
the answer of 4 questions correctly with probability and the remaining 6 questions
correctly with probability If the probability that the student guesses the answers of
exactly 8 questions correctly out of 10 is then k is equal to
89. Let A be the event that the absolute difference between two randomly choosen real
numbers in the sample space [0, 60] is less than or equal to a. If , then a is
equal to
90. The probability that a relation R from {x,y} to{x,y} is both symmetric and transitive is
(where p,q are co-prime) then p+q is equal to

is equal to

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Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI

08-06-2024_Sr.C-120 Jee-Mains WTM-33_Syllabus

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1) (320  1.98) m/s 2) (330  1.98) m/s

Sec: Sr.C-120 Page 7

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B) Calamine II) PbS

C) Galena III) ZnCO3

D) Siderite IV) ZnS

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The number of possible stereoisomers, X can have …….

58. When isopentane is subjected to monochlorination, what will be the number of

Sec: Sr.C-120 Page 15

68. The number of real value of x satisfying the equation

Sec: Sr.C-120 Page 16

A= the chosen number x satisfies Then P 1) is:

Sec: Sr.C-120 Page 17

80. In a tournament, there are sixteen players

A) The probability that is one of the winners p)

B) The probability that exactly one of is a winner q)

C) Both and are among eight winners r)

D) Both and are not among winners s)

1)A-q B-p C-r D-s 2) A-q B-p C-r D-r

3) A-p B-q C-s D-r 4) A-p B-q C-s D-s

81. If A be any event in sample space then the maximum value of is

Sec: Sr.C-120 Page 19

Sec: Sr.C-120 Page 20

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