FT18

Question Paper
Physics (Maximum Marks: 90)

Question No. 1
Only One Option Correct Type
Each question has multiple options out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of

resistance 9 Ω, shunt S required is
A. 81 Ω
B. 1 Ω
C. 10 Ω
D. 9 Ω
Question No. 2
Two satellite A and B go round a planet P in circular orbits having radii 4R and
R respectively. If the speed of the satellite A is 3v , the speed of the satellite B
will be
A. 12v
B. 6v
4v
C.
3
3v
D.
2
Question No. 3
A mixture of two gases is contained in a vessel. The Gas 1 is monoatomic and
M
gas 2 is diatomic and the ratio of their molecular masses M1 = 14 . The ratio of
2
root mean square speeds of the molecules of two gases is
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Question No. 4
Three blocks of masses m 1 , m 2 and m 3 are connected to a massless string on a

frictionless table as shown in the figure. They are pulled with a force of 40 N. If
m 1 = 10 kg, m 2 = 6 kg and m 3 = 4 kg, then tension T2 will be
A. 10 N
B. 20 N
C. 32 N
D. 40 N
Question No. 5
A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 30o with a uniform external magnetic
field of 0.25 T experiences a torque of magnitude equal to 4.5 x 10-2 J. What is
the magnitude of magnetic moment of the magnet ?
A. 0.36 J/T
B. 0.25 J/T
C. 1.65 J/T
D. 1.05 J/T
Question No. 6
A liquid drop having surface energy E is spread into 512 droplets of the same
size. The final surface energy of the droplets is
A. 2E
B. 4E
C. 8E
D. 12E
Question No. 7
The displacement-time (x − t) graph of a body is given as
The corresponding velocity-time (v − t) graph will be
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question No. 8
In Young's experiment, monochromatic light is used to illuminate the two slits

A and B. Interference fringes are observed on a screen placed in front of the slits.
Now if a thin glass plate is placed normally in the path of the beam coming from
the slit, then which of the following explanation holds true with regards to
fringes/fringe width?
A. fringes will disappear

B. fringe width will increase
C. fringe width will increases
D. there will be no change in the fringe width but fringe pattern will shift
Question No. 9
12mC and 6mC charges are given to the two conducting plates having same
cross-sectional area and placed face to face close to each other as shown in the
figure. The resulting charge distribution in mC on surface A, B, C and D are
respectively,
A. 9, 3, −3, 9
B. 3, 9, −9, 3
C. 6, 6, −6, 12
D. 6, 6, 3, 3
Question No. 10
The efficiency of a Carnot engine working between 800 K and 500 K is -
A. 0.4
B. 0.625
C. 0.375
D. 0.5
Question No. 11
A rectangular loop has a sliding connector P Q of length l and resistance R Ω
and it is moving with a speed v as shown. The set-up is placed in a uniform
magnetic field going into the plane of the paper. The three currents I 1 , I 2 and I
are
A. I 1 = −I 2 = BlvR
, I = 2Blv
R
Blv 2Blv
B. I 1 = I 2 = 3R , I = 3R
Blv
C. I 1 = I 2 = I =
R
Blv
D. I 1 = I 2 =
6R
, I = Blv
3R
Question No. 12
In the series L − C − R circuit shown in the figure, the rms voltage across the
resistor and inductor are 400 V and 700 V respectively. If the applied voltage is
−−
E = 500√ 2 sin(ωt) , then the peak voltage across the capacitor is
A. 1200 V
B. 1200√ 2V
C. 400 V
D. 400√ 2V
Question No. 13
Two identical metal plates show the photoelectric effect by a light of wavelength
λ 1 on plate 1 and λ 2 on plate 2 (where λ 1 = 2λ 2 ). Then the relation between
kinetic energies will be
A. 2K 2 = K1
K2
B. K 1 <
2
K2
C. K 1 >
2
D. 2K 1 = K 2
Question No. 14
If the current in the toroidal solenoid increases uniformly from zero to 6.0 A in
3.0 μs . Self-inductance of the toroidal solenoid is 40 μH . The magnitude of self-
induced emf is
A. 80 V
B. 160 V
C. 24 V
D. 48 V
Question No. 15
A charged particle q 1 is at position (2, −1,3) .The electrostatic force on another

charge particle q 2 at (0,0, 0) is
q1 q2
A. 56πε
0
(2 î – ĵ + 3k̂ )
q1 q2
B.
56√ 14ε 0
(2 î – ĵ – 3k̂ )
q1 q2
C.
56πε 0
( î – 2 ĵ – 3k̂ )
q1 q2
D.
56√ 14πε 0
(−2 î + ĵ – 3k̂ )
Question No. 16
Find the resultant amplitude of the following simple harmonic equations:

x 1 = 5sin ωt
x 2 = 5sin(ωt + 53°)
x 3 = −10cosωt
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Question No. 17
A crown glass prism of refracting angle 6° is to be used for deviation without

dispersion with a flint glass of angle of prism α . Given: for crown glass
μ r = 1.513 and μ v = 1.523 , for flint glass μ r = 1.645 and μ v = 1.665 . Find
α
A. 3°
B. 4°
C. 4.5°
D. 5°
Question No. 18
A uniform bar of length 6a and mass 8m lies on a smooth horizontal table. Two
point masses m and 2m moving in the same horizontal plane with speeds 2v and
v respectively, strike the bar and stick to the bar after collision. Then the angular
velocity of the bar (about the centre of mass) is
A. zero
2v
B.
3a
v
C.
5a
3v
D. 5a
Question No. 19
A sample of HCl gas is placed in an electric field 3 × 104 NC −1 . The dipole
moment of each HCl molecule is 6 × 10−30 cm . The maximum torque that can
act on a molecule is
−34
A. 2 × 10 C 2 Nm −1
−34
B. 2 × 10 Nm
−26
C. 18 × 10 Nm
34 −2 −1
D. 0.5 × 10 C Nm
Question No. 20
The 6 V Zener diode shown in the figure has negligible resistance and a knee
current of 5 mA . The minimum value of R (in Ω) so that the voltage across it
does not fall below 6 V is
A. 40
B. 60
C. 80
D. 120
Question No. 21
Three point charges of +2q, + 2q and −4q are placed at the corners A, B and
C of an equilateral triangle ABC of side x . The magnitude of the electric dipole
moment of this system is
A. 2qx
−−
B. 3√ 2 qx
C. 3qx
−−
D. 2√ 3 qx
Question No. 22
At a particular instant, a stationary observer on the ground sees a package falling

with a speed v 1 at an angle θ to the vertical. To a pilot flying horizontally with a
constant speed v relative to the ground, the package appears to be falling
vertically with a speed v 2 ( at that same instant ). The speed of the pilot relative
to the ground (v) is
1/2
A. (v 21 + v 22 )
B. (v 1 − v 2 )(v 2 − v 1 )
1/2
C. (v 21 − v 22 )
D. v 1 − v 2
Question No. 23
If an electron drops from 4th orbit to 2nd orbit in an H − atom , then
A. it gains 2.55 eV of potential energy

B. it gains 2.55 eV of total energy
C. it emits a 2.55 eV photon
D. it emits a 255 eV photon
Question No. 24
The relationship between the force F and position x of a body is as shown in the
figure. The work done in displacing the body from x = 1 m to x = 5 m will be-
A. 30 J
B. 15 J
C. 25 J
D. 20 J
Question No. 25
If the mass of neutron = 1.7 × 10−27 kg , then the de-Broglie wavelength of
neutron of energy 3 eV is (h = 6.6 × 10−34 J − s)
−16
A. 1.6 × 10 m
−11
B. 1.6 × 10 m
−10
C. 1.4 × 10 m
D. 1.4 × 10−11 m
Question No. 26
An α − particle of energy 5 MeV is scattered through 180° by a fixed Uranium

nucleus. The distance of the closest approach is (Atomic number of uranium =
92)
A. 5.3 × 10−12
−13
B. 5.3 × 10
−14
C. 5.3 × 10
−15
D. 5.3 × 10
Question No. 27
A 3 V battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as

shown in the figure. The current I in the circuit will be
A. 1 A
B. 1.5 A
C. 2 A
1
D. 3 A
Question No. 28
A transverse wave pulse is generated at the free end of a string which is hanging
from a rigid support. The speed of the wave pulse at distance x from the free end
is proportional to
A. x 2
B. x
C. √ x
D. 1/ x
Question No. 29
Two point charges q and −q are at positions (0, 0, d) and (0, 0, − d)

respectively. What is the electric field at (a, 0, 0) ?
2qd
A. 3/2 k̂
4πε 0 (d 2 +a 2 )
qd
B. 3/2
k̂
4πε 0 (d 2 +a 2 )
−2qd
C. 3/2
k̂
4πε 0 (d 2 +a 2 )
−qd
D. 3/2
k̂
4πε 0 (d 2 +a 2 )
Question No. 30
Four identical spheres each of radius 10 cm and equal mass 1 kg each are placed
on horizontal surface touching each other, so that their centre are located at the
vertices of a square of side 20 cm . What is the distance of their centre of mass
from the centre of either sphere?
A. 20√ 2
B. 30√ 2
C. 10√ 2
D. 40√ 2
Chemistry (Maximum Marks: 90)
Question No. 1
Dipole moment order of which of the following pairs of molecules is not correct?
A. HF > HCl
B. H 2 S > CO 2
C. NH 3 > NF 3
D. CH 4 > CHCl 3
Question No. 2
Which of the following order represent the order for the strength of base?
−
A. CH 3 CH 2> NH−2 > HC ≡ C − > OH−
− − − −
B. H − C ≡ C > CH 3 CH 2 > NH 2 > OH
− − − −
C. OH > NH 2 > HC ≡ C > CH 3 CH 2
− − − −
D. NH 2 > HC ≡ C > OH > CH 3 CH 2
Question No. 3
Nylon 6, 6 is a condensation polymer of two monomers X and Y . The number of

−CH 2 − groups in X and Y are respectively
A. 6,4
B. 6,6
C. 5,6
D. 6,2
Question No. 4
The alkene C6H10 producing OHC(CH2)4CHO on ozonolysis is:
A. Hexene-1
B. Hexene-3
C. Cyclohexene
D. 1-Methylcyclohexene
Question No. 5
Addition of sodium hydroxide solution to a weak acid (HA) results in a buffer of

pH 6. If ionization constant of HA is 10−5 , the ratio of salt to acid concentration
in the buffer solution will be:
A. 10 : 1
B. 4 : 5
C. 5 :4
D. 1 : 10
Question No. 6
Which of the following statements are not correct?

i. Atomic radius of Ga is less than that of Al
ii. The order of ionization enthalpy of group 13 elements is
B > Al > Ga > In > Tl
iii. Boron trioxide is amphoteric in nature
A. ii, iii only

B. i, iii only
C. i, ii only
D. i, ii, iii
Question No. 7
Phosphorus acid on heating gives the following products

Δ
4H3 PO 3 → 3H3 PO 4 + PH3
The above reaction is an example of
A. oxidation
B. thermal decomposition
C. disproportionation
D. reduction
Question No. 8
Solvay process is used in the manufacture of

A. K 2 CO 3
B. KHCO 3
C. Na 2 CO 3
D. CaCl 2
Question No. 9
Which of the following compound is likely to show both Frenkel and Schottky
defects in its crystalline form?
A. KBr
B. AgBr
C. ZnS
D. CsCl
Question No. 10
V vs T curves at constant pressure P 1 and P 2 for an ideal gas are shown below.
Which is correct ?
A. P 1 > P2
B. P 1 < P2
C. P 1 = P 2
D. All of the above
Question No. 11
Which of the following represents physical adsorption?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question No. 12
The standard enthalpy of formation of octane (C 8 H18 ) is −250 kJmol −1 . The

enthalpy of formation of CO 2 (g) and H2 O(l) are −394 kJmol −1 and
−286 kJmol −1 respectively. The enthalpy of combustion of C 8 H18 (g) is
−1
A. −5200 kJmol
−1
B. −5726 kJmol
−1
C. −5476 kJmol
−1
D. −5310 kJmol
Question No. 13
To distinguish between salicylic acid and phenol, one can use :
A. NaHCO 3 solution
B. 5%NaOH solution
C. neutral FeCl 3
D. bromine water
Question No. 14
Which of the following ions will exhibit colour in aqueous solutions?
A. Sc3+ (Z = 21)
B. La 3+ (Z = 57)
3+
C. Ti (Z = 22)
D. Lu 3+ (Z = 71)
Question No. 15
What is the potential of an electrode which originally contained 0.1 M NO −3 and

0.4 MH+ and which has been treated by 60% of the cadmium necessary to reduce
all the NO −3 to NO(g) at 1 atm.
Given, NO −3 + 4H+ + 3e− → NO + 2H2 O , E ∘= 0.95 V and log2 =0.3010
A. 0.52 V
B. 0.44 V
C. 0.86 V
D. 0.78 V
Question No. 16
Match the following
A. IV II V I
B. IV III V I
C. IV II I V
D. III II I V
Question No. 17
Which method is used to separate sugars?
A. Fractional crystallisation
B. Sublimation
C. Chromatography
D. Benedict's reagent
Question No. 18
The electronic transitions from n = 2 to n = 1 will produce shortest wavelength

in (where n = principal quantum state)
+2
A. Li
+
B. He
C. H
+
D. H
Question No. 19
Cyclohexene on ozonolysis followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives
compound E and compound E on further treatment with aqueous KOH yields
compound F. Then compound F is
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question No. 20
In the series of reaction X and Y are respectively are

NaNO /HCl
C 6 H5 NH2 −−−−−−
2
→ X −HNO
−→2 Y + N2 + HCl
Θ
A. C 6 H 5 − N = N − C 6 H5 , C 6 H5 N⊕
2 Cl
⊕ Θ
B. C 6 H 5 N 2 Cl , C 6 H 5 − N = N − C 6 H 5
⊕ Θ
C. C 6 H 5 N 2 Cl , C 6 H 5 NO 2
D. C 6 H 5 NO 2 , C 6 H 6
Question No. 21
Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Starch forms helical secondary structures while cellulose doesn't have complex
helices.
2. Palmitic acid has 14 - CH 2 groups in its structure.
3. Maltose is a disaccharide made up of glucose and fructose
4. The number of carbon and oxygen atoms present in glucose is less than those
present in ribose.
A. 1 and 2
B. 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Question No. 22
For an ionic compound lattice energy depends upon
A. Sizeof the ion only

B. Charge on the ion only
C. Packing of ions only
D. Charge on the ion and size of the ion
Question No. 23
The value of log10 K for a reaction A ⇌ B is

(Given: Δ r Ho 298K = −54.07 kJmol−1 , Δ r So 298K = 10J K −1 mol−1
and R = 8.314 JK −1 mol−1 ; 2.303 × 8.314 × 298 = 5705 )
A. 90
B. 100
C. 5
D. 10
Question No. 24
At 300 K, half life of a gaseous reactant initially at 58 KPa is 320 min. When the
pressure is 29 KPa, the half life is 160 mm. The order of the reaction is
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
Question No. 25
The Energy needed For Li(g) → Li3+ (g) + 3e− is 19600 kJ mole-1.
Li(g) = 520 kJmole −1 . Calculate IE2 For Li(g) .
ionisation energy of H = 13.6 eV
A. 75.3eV/species
B. 25.30 eV/species
C. 30.45 eV/species
D. 62.40 eV/species
Question No. 26
In Wilkinson's catalyst, the hybrid state of central metal ion and shape of complex
are respectively
2
A. dsp , square planar
3
B. sp , tetrahedral
2 3
C. d sp , octahedral
2
D. sp 3 d , octahedral
Question No. 27
An organic compound ' X ' on treatment with pyridinium chloro chromate in

dichloromethane gives compound ' Y '. Compound ' Y ', reacts with I2 and alkali
to form triiodomethane. The compound ' X ' is
A. C 2 H 5 OH
B. CH 3 CHO
C. CH 3 COCH 3
D. CH 3 COOH
Question No. 28
Which of the following chemicals may be used to identify three unlabelled
beakers containing conc.NaOH, conc.H2 SO 4 and water?
A. NH 4 NO 3
B. NaCl
C. HCOONa
D. None of these
Question No. 29
One of the processes used for concentration of ores is Froth floatation process.
This process is generally used for concentration of sulphide ores. Sometimes in
this process we add NaCN as a depressant. NaCN is generally added in case of
ZnS and PbS minerals. What is the purpose of addition of NaCN during the
process of Froth floatation ?
A. NaCN causes reduction by precipitation

A soluble complex is formed by reaction between NaCN and ZnS while PbS
B. forms froth
A soluble complex is formed by reaction between NaCN and PbS while ZnS
C. forms froth
D. A precipitate of Pb(CN)2 is produced while ZnS remain unaffected.
Question No. 30
Bond enthalpy of Ge − Ge bond is 260 kJ mol −1 . The bond enthalpies of Si-Si

and Sn − Sn bonds in kJmol −1 are respectively
A. 240,270
B. 297,297
C. 297,240
D. 200,348
Mathematics (Maximum Marks: 120)

Question No. 1
Find point at which the tangent to the curve y = 2x 2 − x + 1 is parallel to

y = 3x + 9 .
A. (2, 1)
B. (1, 2)
C. (3, 9)
D. (−2, 1)
Question No. 2
The area bounded by the curve x = at 2 , y = 2at and the x − axis, 1 ≤ t ≤ 3,

is
A. 26a 2
B. 8a 2
26 2
C. 3 a
104 2
D. 3 a
Question No. 3
4 3
1 1
The term independent of x in the expansion of (x − x
) (x + x
) is
A. −3
B. 0
C. 1
D. 3
Question No. 4
The equation of the circle with centre ( 12 , 14 ) and radius 1

12
is:
2
A. 36x + 36y 2 – 36x– 18y + 11 = 0
B. 36x 2 + 36y 2 + 36x − 18y + 11 = 0
C. 36x 2 + 36y 2 + 36x + 18y + 11 = 0
2 2
D. 36x + 36y − 36x + 18y + 11 = 0
Question No. 5
1
If f : R → A defined by f (x) = x 2 +2x+2
, ∀x ∈ R is surjective, then A =
A. [1, ∞]
B. (1, ∞)
C. [0, 1]
D. (0, 1]
Question No. 6
Eight different letters of an alphabet are given. Words of four letters from these
are formed. The number of such words with at least one letter repeated is :
8
A. ( 4 ) − 8 P 4
B. 8
4
+ ( 84 )
4
C. 8 − 8 P4
D. 8
4
− ( 84 )
Question No. 7
Let L 1 : x = y = z and L 2 : x − 1 = y − 2 = z − 3 be two lines. The foot of

perpendicular drawn from the origin O(0,0, 0) on L 1 to L 2 is A. If the equation
of a plane containing the line L 1 and perpendicular to OA is
10x + by + cz = d , then the value of b + c + d is equal to
A. 10
B. −10
C. 12
D. −7
Question No. 8
∣x 2 + 1 2x 3 x ∣
The number of real roots of the equation ∣ 2x 3 x x2 + 1 ∣ = 0 is
∣ ∣
∣ x x2 + 1 2x 3 ∣
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Question No. 9
dy
The solution of equation dx
= y(ex + 1) is
x
A. y + e(e +x+c)=0
x
B. logy = e + x + c
C. logy + ex = x + c
D. None of these
Question No. 10
If sin −1 x + sin −1 y = 2π
3
and cos−1 x − cos−1 y = π
3
.Then, (x, y) is equal to
A. (0, 1)
1
B. ( 2 , 1)
1
C. (1, )
2
√3
D. ( , 1)
2
Question No. 11
⎡ 1 2 3⎤
If A = 1 3 5 , then (Adj(Adj A)) −1 =
⎣ 2 1 6⎦
1
⎡ 8 −6 3 ⎤
A. 6 5 1 −2
⎣ −5 3 1 ⎦
1
⎡ 13 −9 1 ⎤
B.
6 4 0 −2
⎣ −5 3 1 ⎦
1
⎡ 13 −9 1 ⎤
C. 36 4 0 −2
⎣ −5 3 1 ⎦
1
⎡ 4 −3 2⎤
D.
12 3 4 2
⎣ −5 2 1⎦
Question No. 12
The value of ∫ e−x (1 − tanx)secxdx is
A. e−xsecx + C
−x
B. e tanx + C
C. −e−x tanx + C
−x
D. −e secx + C
Question No. 13
3+2isinθ −−−
1−2isinθ
will be purely imaginary, if θ equals ( where i = √ −1 )
A. 2nπ ± π3
π
B. nπ + 3
π
C. nπ ± 3
D. none of these
Question No. 14
∞ √ a +√ b
1
If Σ = , where a, b, c ∈ N and a, b, c ∈ [1, 15], then
k=1 (k+2)√ k +k√ k+2 √c
a + b + c is equal to
A. 11
B. 9
C. 10
D. 12
Question No. 15
dy
If y = 2x , then dx
is
x−1
A. x(2 )
2x
B.
(loge 2)
x
C. 2 (loge 2)
D. none of these
Question No. 16
500
The last digit of (1! + 2! + … … + 2005!) is
A. 9
B. 2
C. 7
D. 1
Question No. 17
The probability that a teacher will give an unannounced test during any class
meeting is 1/5. If a student is absent twice, the probability that he will miss
atleast one test, is
A. 7/25
B. 9/25
C. 16/25
D. 24/25
Question No. 18
The locus of the point which is equidistant from the point (1, 1) and the line
x + y + 1 = 0 is
2
A. x − y 2 + 6x + 4y − 3 = 0
2
B. (x − y) − 6(x + y) + 3 = 0
2
C. (x + y) + 6(x − y) + 3 = 0
D. x 2 + y 2 − 2x − 2y + 4 = 0
Question No. 19
π π
2 2
e sinx +1 e cosx +1
Consider I1 = ∫ e cosx +1
dx and I2 = ∫ e sinx +1
dx, then
π π
4 4
A. I1 > I2
B. I1 < I2
C. I1 = I2
D. I1 + I2 = 0
Question No. 20
A is a m × n matrix of rank 4 . If A contains an m th order non singular sub

T
matrix and A A is a 7 × 7 matrix, then the number of rows of A is
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 4
Question No. 21
If the volume of parallelopiped with conterminus edges 4 î + 5 ĵ + k̂ , − ĵ + k̂

and 3 î + 9 ĵ + pk̂ is 34 cubic units, then p is equal to :
A. 4
B. -13
C. 13
D. 6
Question No. 22
x2 y2
If the line x − 2y = 12 is a tangent to the ellipse a2
+ = 1 at the point
b2
(3, − 92 ) , then the length of the latus rectum of the ellipse is
A. 5 units
B. 12√ 2 units
C. 9units
D. 8√ 3 units
Question No. 23
Let S = {1,2, 3, … . 9} . For k = 1,2, … 5, let N k be the number of subsets of

S , each containing five elements out of which exactly k are odd. Then
N1 + N2 + N3 + N4 + N5 =
A. 125
B. 252
C. 210
D. 126
Question No. 24
The median of all 4- digit numbers that are divisible by 7 is
A. 5797
B. 5498. 5
C. 5499. 5
D. 5490
Question No. 25
Let f : R → R be any function. Define g : R → R by g(x) = |f(x)| for all x .

Then, g is
A. Onto if f is on to
B. One-one if f is one-one
C. Continuous if f is continuous
D. Differentiable if f is differentiable
Question No. 26
The value of the determinant -
∣10! 11! 12! ∣
∣11! 12! 13! ∣equals
∣ ∣
∣12! 13! 14! ∣
A. 2(10! 11!)
B. 2(10! 13!)
C. 2(10! 11! 12!)
D. 2(11! 12! 13!)
Question No. 27
λ = sin 2 (5o ) + sin 2 (10o )+. . . . . . +sin 2 (85o ) . Then number of positive
divisors of 2λ– 8 is equal to
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Question No. 28
a, b, c, d are zeroes of P (x) = 5x 4 + px 3 + qx 2 + rx + s and a, c, d are

zeroes of Q(x) = x 3 − 9x 2 + ax − 24(a < b < c < d) . If a, b, c, d be in
arithmetic progression and a, b, c, d be in harmonic progression also, then the
∣P (1) ∣
value of ∣ ∣is equal to
∣Q(1) ∣
A. 5
B. 7
C. 3
D. none of these
Question No. 29
1 n
If l(m, n) = ∫ 0 t m (1 + t) dt, then the expression for l(m, n) in terms of
l(m + 1, n + 1) is
2n n
A. m+1 − m+1 I(m + 1, n − 1)
n
B.
m+1
l(m + 1, n − 1)
2n n
C. m+1 + m+1 l(m + 1, n − 1)
m
D.
n+1
l(m + 1, n − 1)
Question No. 30
The solution of the differential equation xy 2 dy − (x 3 + y 3 )dx = 0 is
A. y 3 = 3x 3 + c
3 3
B. y = 3x log(cx)
3 3
C. y = 3x + log(cx)
D. y 3 + 3x 3 = log(cx)
Question No. 31
1
n
(n+1) (n+2)….3n
lim ( n 2n
) is equal to :
n→∞
9
A.
e2
B. 3log3 − 2
18
C.
e4
27
D. 2
e
Question No. 32
The Boolean expression ~(p ∨ q) ∨ (~p ∧ q) is equivalent to
A. ~q
B. ~p
C. p
D. q
Question No. 33
n
If the sum of the coefficient in the expansion of (x − 2y + 3z) is 128, then the
n
greatest coefficient in the expansion of (1 + x) is
A. 35
B. 20
C. 10
D. None of these
Question No. 34
The name of the curve described parametrically by the equations

x = t 2 + t + 1, y = t 2 − t + 1, is
A. An ellipse
B. a hyperbola
C. a parabola
D. a pair of straight lines
Question No. 35
2
∫ −3 {|x + 1| + |x + 2| + |x − 1|}dx is equal to
31
A.
2
35
B. 2
47
C.
2
39
D. 2
Question No. 36
3 3
If z 2 + z + 1 = 0 , where z is a complex number, then (z + 1z ) + (z 4 + 1
z4
)
is equal to
A. 1
B. 0
C. -1
D. -2
Question No. 37
Five numbers are in AP with common difference ≠ 0. If the 1 st, 3 rd and 4 th

terms are in GP, then
A. the 5th term is always 0.

B. the 1 st term is always 0.
C. the middle term is always 0.
D. the middle term is always -2.
Question No. 38
How many 2 digit even numbers can be formed from the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 if the
digits can be repeated?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 8
D. 7
Question No. 39
x2 y2
Let LL ′ be the latus rectum through the focus of the hyperbola a2
− = 1 and
b2
A ′ be the farther vertex. If ΔA ′ LL ′ is equilateral and the eccentricity of the
hyperbola (axes are coordinate axes) is (1 + 1k ) then find k .
A. 1.73
B. 1.44
C. 1
D. 2.44
Question No. 40
The length of tangent from point (5, 1) to the circle

x 2 + y 2 + 6x − 4y − 3 = 0 is
A. 81
B. 29
C. 7
D. 21
English and LR (Maximum Marks: 90)

Question No. 1
Find the wrong term in the series

3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63.
A. 15
B. 12
C. 34
D. 63
Question No. 2
Gum : Stick : : Needle : ______
A. Cloth
B. Prick
C. Taylor
D. Stitch
Question No. 3
Socks : Feet : ______ : Hands
A. Arms
B. Shirt
C. Gloves
D. Fingers
Question No. 4
A + B means ' A is the daughter of B; A − B means ' A is the husband of

B ′ . A × B means A is the brother of B .
If P + Q − R , which of the following is true ?
A. R is the mother of P .
B. R is the sister in -law of P .
C. R is the aunt of P .
D. R is the mother in- law of P .
Question No. 5
A + B means ' A is the daughter of B; A − B means ' A is the husband of

B ′ . A × B means A is the brother of B .
If P × Q + R , which of the following is true?
A. P is the brother of R .
B. P is the uncle of R .
C. P is the son of R .
D. P is the father of R .
Question No. 6
UPI, ?, ODP, MBQ, IAW
A. RHJ
B. SHJ
C. SIJ
D. THK
Question No. 7
Choose the missing term from the given options. KM5, IP8, GS11, EV14, _____
A. BX17
B. BY17
C. CY18
D. CY17
Question No. 8
acb--debca-c-edd---
−2 − 35 − − − 4 − −1 − − − −
The last five terms in the number series are
A. 53214
B. 35124
C. 35531
D. 53124
Question No. 9
From the positions in original figure, C and A move diagonally to opposite

corners and then one side each clockwise and anti-clockwise respectively. B and
D move two sides each clockwise and anti-clockwise respectively. Where is
Anow?
A. At the south-west corner

B. At the north-east corner
C. At the south east corner
D. At the south-west corner
Question No. 10
In the following sequence of letters how many vowels are immediately preceded
by a vowel and immediately followed by a vowel?
cpeajebcsmatammfdadhcoauidpakseadfaje
afdcaaaekaaakaea
A. Three
B. Four
C. Five
D. Six
Question No. 11
In a certain code language, if the word 'PARTNER' is coded as OZQSMDQ, then

what is the code for the word 'SEGMENT' in that language?
A. TFHNFOU
B. RDFLDMS
C. RDELDMS
D. RDFEDNS
Question No. 12
In a certain code language, if the word RECTANGLE' is coded as TGEVCPING,

then how is the word 'RHOMBUS' coded in that language?
A. TJOQDWV
B. TJQNDWU
C. TJQODWU
D. TJQOEWU
Question No. 13
A dice has been thrown four times and produces the following results.
Which number will appear opposite to the number 3 ?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 1
Question No. 14
Choose the figure which is different from the others.

A.
B.
C.
D.
Question No. 15
Find the odd one among the following.
A. 17
B. 27
C. 37
D. 47
Question No. 16
Find the odd one among the following.
A. CFD
B. GJH
C. KNM
D. JMK
Question No. 17
Find mirror image.
A. 12 : 00
B. 5 : 00
C. 3 : 00
D. 6 : 00
Question No. 18
Study the problem figures marked (A), (B) and (C) carefully and try to establish
the relationship between them. From the answer figures marked 1,2,3 and 4, pick
out the figure which most appropriately completes the series.
Problem Figures
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question No. 19
What comes next in the sequence?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question No. 20
Statements -
Some cups are slates . All slates are apples . No apples is car.
I. Some cars are slates
II. Some cups are cars
III. Some apples are cups
IV. No car is cup
A. No conclusion follows
B. Only II follows
C. Only III follows
D. Either II or IV and III follow
Question No. 21
Paragraph
Economic growth involves both benefits and costs. The desirability of increasing
production has frequently been challenged in recent years and some have even
mentioned that economic growth is merely a quantitative enlargement that has no
human meaning or value:
However, economic growth is an increase in the capacity to produce goods and
service that people want. Since the product of economic growth can be measured
by its value to someone, it is important to ask whose standard of valuation counts.
In the U.S. the value of a product is what purchasers pay for it. That is
determined by the purchaser's preferences combined with condition of supply
which in turn reflects various other factors, such as natural and technological
circumstances of those who supply capital and labour. The value by which we
measure a product, synthesize all these factors. Gross National Product (GNP) is
the market value of the nation's total output of goods and service.
GNP is not a perfect measure of all the activities involved in economic output. It
does not account for the deterioration or improvement in the environment even
when they are incidentally results of the production process. On the other hand, it
does not count as "Product", many benefits provided as side effect of the
economic process. It does not include productive but unpaid work (such as that
done by a home maker) and it does not reckon with such other factor as the
burdensomeness of work, the length of the work, week and so forth. Nonetheless
the GNP concept makes an important contribution to our understanding of how
the economy is working while it is not a complete measure of economic
productivity and even less so of "welfare". The level and rate of the increase of
GNP are clearly and positively associated with what most people throughout the
world see as an improvement in the quality of life. In the long run, the same
factor results in a growing GNP and in other social benefits: size and competence
of population, state of knowledge, amount of capital and the effectiveness with
those are combined and Utilized.Question
The main purpose of the passage is to :
A. argue for the value of increased economic output

explain the disadvantages of measuring the life using a scale of material
B. effluence
C. define GNP
D. contrast the American and European GNP
Question No. 22
Paragraph
Economic growth involves both benefits and costs. The desirability of increasing
production has frequently been challenged in recent years and some have even
mentioned that economic growth is merely a quantitative enlargement that has no
human meaning or value:
However, economic growth is an increase in the capacity to produce goods and
service that people want. Since the product of economic growth can be measured
by its value to someone, it is important to ask whose standard of valuation counts.
In the U.S. the value of a product is what purchasers pay for it. That is
determined by the purchaser's preferences combined with condition of supply
which in turn reflects various other factors, such as natural and technological
circumstances of those who supply capital and labour. The value by which we
measure a product, synthesize all these factors. Gross National Product (GNP) is
the market value of the nation's total output of goods and service.
GNP is not a perfect measure of all the activities involved in economic output. It
does not account for the deterioration or improvement in the environment even
when they are incidentally results of the production process. On the other hand, it
does not count as "Product", many benefits provided as side effect of the
economic process. It does not include productive but unpaid work (such as that
done by a home maker) and it does not reckon with such other factor as the
burdensomeness of work, the length of the work, week and so forth. Nonetheless
the GNP concept makes an important contribution to our understanding of how
the economy is working while it is not a complete measure of economic
productivity and even less so of "welfare". The level and rate of the increase of
GNP are clearly and positively associated with what most people throughout the
world see as an improvement in the quality of life. In the long run, the same
factor results in a growing GNP and in other social benefits: size and competence
of population, state of knowledge, amount of capital and the effectiveness with
those are combined and Utilized.Question
The rhetorical purpose of the fourth para of the passage is to :
A. Anticipate objection to what the GNP fails to take into account.
B. Cite example of "Products", the GNP ought to include.
C. Develop the definition of the GNP with specific details.
A. A only
B. B only
C. A, B and C
D. C only
Question No. 23
_____ more I think _____ your suggestion, the less I like it.
A. Even, on
B. The, about
C. If, about
D. Some, on
Question No. 24
Having _____ only in salt water before, I found it a little difficult to swim in
fresh water.
A. swam
B. swum
C. had swam
D. swimming
Question No. 25
Directions: Following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the
"MOST APPROPRIATE" sentence from the given options to complete it.
A. The accident occurred in just a moment.
B. __________.
C. The cyclist from the main road did not notice it.
A. The cyclist was thrown a few feet away.

The cyclist was blinded by a bullockcart moving slowly in the opposite
B. direction.
C. The result was a head-on-collision.
D. A speeding car came from a side road.
Question No. 26
DIRECTIONS: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence
between sentences S 1 and S 6 .
S1 This is a company that prides itself on its carefully matured extensive
distribution blocks and mentor network.
A. The company also plans a foray into the service sector by setting up a chain of
launderettes across the country.
B. Yet today, pre-cooked chapatis and ready-made mixes are a big market.
C. And that's not all.
D. Today the idea may appear a trifle ambitious but remember that it was not so
long ago that the same things were said about the market for ready-to-eat foods
and branded cereals.
S6 Disposable incomes are rising in the metros and big cities and time is at a
premium.
A. CADB
B. ADBC
C. ABDC
D. CABD
Question No. 27
DIRECTIONS: Arrange the sentences A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence

between sentences S 1 and S 6 .
S1 Currency movements can have a dramatic impact on equity returns for foreign
investors
A. This is not surprising as many developing economies try to peg their exchange
rates to the US dollar or to a basket of currencies.
B. Many developing economies manage to keep exchange rate volatility lower
than that in the industrial economies.
C. India has also gone in for the full float on the current account and abolished
the managed exchange rate.
D. Dramatic exceptions are Argentina, Brazil, and Nigeria.
S6 Another emerging-market-specific risk is liquidity risk.
A. ADBC
B. CDAB
C. BDAC
D. CABD
Question No. 28
DIRECTIONS: Pick out the antonym of the words given below:

APATHETIC
A. agitated
B. happy
C. concerned
D. surprised
Question No. 29
Which one of the following words means "weary"?
A. Tired
B. Fatigued
C. Sentimental
D. Emotional
Question No. 30
DIRECTIONS: Pick out the nearest correct meaning or synonym of the words
given below:
MENDACIOUS
A. false
B. misleading
C. provocative
D. truthful

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Question Paper

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To send 10% of the main current through a moving coil galvanometer of

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The alkene C6H10 producing OHC(CH2)4CHO on ozonolysis is:

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Which of the following statements are not correct?

A. ii, iii only

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Solvay process is used in the manufacture of

Which of the following represents physical adsorption?

The standard enthalpy of formation of octane (C 8 H18 ) is −250 kJmol −1 . The

To distinguish between salicylic acid and phenol, one can use :

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Which method is used to separate sugars?

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In the series of reaction X and Y are respectively are

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Mathematics (Maximum Marks: 120)

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The value of ∫ e−x (1 − tanx)secxdx is

A is a m × n matrix of rank 4 . If A contains an m th order non singular sub

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Let S = {1,2, 3, … . 9} . For k = 1,2, … 5, let N k be the number of subsets of

The median of all 4- digit numbers that are divisible by 7 is

Let f : R → R be any function. Define g : R → R by g(x) = |f(x)| for all x .

a, b, c, d are zeroes of P (x) = 5x 4 + px 3 + qx 2 + rx + s and a, c, d are

The solution of the differential equation xy 2 dy − (x 3 + y 3 )dx = 0 is

The Boolean expression ~(p ∨ q) ∨ (~p ∧ q) is equivalent to

The name of the curve described parametrically by the equations

Five numbers are in AP with common difference ≠ 0. If the 1 st, 3 rd and 4 th

A. the 5th term is always 0.

The length of tangent from point (5, 1) to the circle

English and LR (Maximum Marks: 90)

Find the wrong term in the series

Gum : Stick : : Needle : ______

Socks : Feet : ______ : Hands

A + B means ' A is the daughter of B; A − B means ' A is the husband of

A + B means ' A is the daughter of B; A − B means ' A is the husband of