ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST

PAPER 1. LISTENING
Time allowance: approximately 40 minutes
Number of questions: 35

Directions: In this section of the test, you will have the opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts in this section with special directions
for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the speakers in the
recording.
There will be time for you to read the instructions and you will have a chance to check your work. The
recording will be played ONCE only.
Time allowance: about 40 minutes, including 05 minutes to transfer your answers to your answer sheet.

PART 1-Questions 1-8

Directions: In this part, you will hear EIGHT short announcements or instructions. There is one question
for each conversation. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D. Then, on the answer sheet,
find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer that you
have chosen.
Now, let’s listen to the example.
On the recording, you will hear:
Man: Hello. This is the travel agency returning your call. You left a message about the
holiday you’ve booked, asking which meals are included in the cost during your stay
at Sunny Hotel. Lunch and dinner are free but if you wish to have breakfast in the
hotel, you will need to pay an extra amount of money, depending on what you order.
Let me know if I can help you with any other information. Goodbye.
On the test book, you will read:
Which meal is NOT included in the price of the holiday?
A. Breakfast B. Lunch C. Dinner D. All
The correct answer is A. Breakfast. Now, let’s begin with the first question.

1. How much petrol does the woman want?

A. 13 litres B. 33 litres C. 30 litres D. 15 litres
2. Which table do they buy?
A. a round one with three legs B. a round one with four legs
C. a square one with three legs D. a square one with four legs
3. What time does the class start?
A. at two o’clock B. at half past two C. at three o’clock D. at half past three
4. What does Mr. John look like?
A. with long hair B. with no glasses
C. bald and with a moustache D. with small ears
5. What has the girl forgotten to bring?
A. cell-phone B. pencil case C. homework D. pen

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6. Which chair does the man want?
A. with high back B. with wheels and arms
C. with low back D. with no arms
7. How did the man get to work?
A. by bicycle B. by bus C. by car D. by the underground
8. What time will the train to Manchester leave?
A. eleven fifty B. eleven thirty C. eleven forty - five D. eleven fifteen

PART 2-Questions 9-20

In this part, you will hear THREE conversations. The conversations will not be repeated. There are
four questions for each conversation. For each question, choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.
Questions 9 to 12. You will hear a student talking to a housing officer about living with a homestay
family.
9. How long did Yuichini have the intention of living with a homestay family?
A. approx two months B. about twenty weeks
C. about sixteen weeks D. three months and longer
10. Which course did she attend?
A. Advanced English Studies B. A course for the vegetarian
C. A cooking course D. Japanese course
11. What is the student particularly interested in eating?
A. seafood B. a lot of meat C. vegetable D. pork
12. When does the officer give the student her homestay details?
A. after his lunch. B. in the afternoon
C. after he check on the computer D. tomorrow.

Questions 13 to 16. Listen to Mario and Tamara talking about their going to see the film.
13. Which film do Mario and Tarama intend to see?
A. Midnight Moon B. War Games C. Forever D. Robot 2075
14. What type of film are they going to see?
A. action B. romantic comedy C. horror D. science fiction
15. What time does the film they want to see start?
A. 7.15 p.m B. 7.30 p.m C. 5.20 p.m. D. 7.00 p.m
16. What time are Mario and Tamara going to meet?
A. 7.15 p.m B. 7.30 p.m C. 5.20 p.m. D. 7.00 p.m

Questions 17 to 20: You will hear a conversation between a girl, Lisa, and a boy, Ben, about holidays.
17. What does the girl think about a good holiday?
A. It may be cheap. B. It may be very cheap.
C. It may be expensive. D. It may be very expensive.
18. Why doesn't the boy want to walk?
A. Because he feels too hot to do it. B. Because he finds it hard to do it.
C. Because he doesn't like hard work. D.Because she doesn't like the sounds of people walking.
19. What does the girl think about the food in Youth Hostels?
A. It is comfortable. B. It is good.
C. It is sometimes bad. D. It is clean and cheap.
20. What does the boy decide to do in the end?

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A. go home B. leave home C. sell his home D. enjoy his holiday home

PART 3-Questions 21-35

In this part, you will hear THREE talks or lectures. The talks or lectures will not be repeated. There
are five questions for each talk or lecture. For each question, choose the right answer A, B, C or D.

Questions 21 to 25. Listen to a talk about the end of China’s one child policy.
21. When was the one-child policy introduced?
A. 1975 B. 1979 C. 1973 D. 1989
22. What percentage of China’s population had to stick to one child?
A. 38% B. 53% C. 36% D. 18%
23. What does China want to reverse that is currently very low?
A. policies B. restrictions C. poverty D. childbearing rates
24. What is expected to develop after this new policy?
A. the economy B. the society C. the family D. the labor force
25. What does Peking University predict?
A. there will be 2.5 million extra newborns in 2020 B. there will be more workers
C. there will be less annual consumption D. there will be more social problems

Questions 26 to 30. Listen to a talk about whether money helps children in exam.
26. What can encourage students to study more?
A. music B. trips C. an iPad D. red ink
27. How many students took part in this research?
A. more than 10,000 B. exactly 10,000 C. just under 10,000 D. 20,000
28. What did the lead researcher say the research looked at?
A. subjects B. the wrong things C. high schools D. teachers
29. What do some students think is because of your genes?
A. exam success B. money C. ability at English D. genetics
30. Which students really need good teachers?
A. elite students B. poorer students C. high school students D. English students

Question 31 to 35. Listen to a talk about the benefits of drinking coffee.

31. What type of diabetes can coffee reduce the risk of?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
32. How many coffee drinkers did the study look at?
A. 300,000 B. just less than 200,000 C. more than 200,000 D. exactly 200,000
33. Who have been working hard on analysing the health benefits of coffee?
A. coffee lovers B. Starbucks C. scientists D. coffee farmers
34. What kind of drinks were not included in the study?
A. ones from Starbucks B. caffeinated ones C. tea D. colas
35. What has no health benefits besides cream and sugar
A. sweeteners B. cookies C. syrup D. latte

This is the end of the listening paper.

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 PAPER 2. READING
Time allowance: 60 minutes
Number of questions: 40

Directions: In this section of the test, you will read FOUR different passages, each followed by 10 questions
about it. For questions 1-40, you are to choose the best answer A, B, C or D, to each question. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the
answer you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied
in that passage.
You have 60 minutes to answer all the questions, including the time to transfer your answers to the answer
sheet.

PASSAGE 1 – Questions 1-10

During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the contributions of
women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United States. Lacking the
right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an important force in history.
Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth century, Mercy Otis Warren produced
the best contemporary history of the American Revolution, and Abigail Adams penned important letters
showing she exercised great political influence over her husband, John, the second President of the United
States. But little or no notice was taken of these contributions. During these centuries, women remained
invisible in history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of female authors
writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were amateur historians. Their
writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history by keeping
records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local women’s organizations
compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper clippings, and souvenirs were
saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest collections of women’s history in the
United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the
Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such sources have provided valuable materials for later
Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth Century, most of
the writing about women conformed to the “great women” theory of History, just as much of mainstream
American history concentrated on “great men.” To demonstrate that women were making significant
contributions to American life, female authors singled out women leaders and wrote biographies, or else
important women produced their autobiographies. Most of these leaders were involved in public life as
reformers, activists working for women’s right to vote, or authors, and were not representative at all of the
great ordinary women. The lives of ordinary people continued, generally, to be untold in the American
histories being published.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The role of literature in early American histories
B. The place of American women in written histories
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women
D. The “great women” approach to history used by American historians
2. The word “contemporary” means that the history was
A. informative B. written at that time
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C. thoughtful C. fault finding
3. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that
A. a woman’s status was changed by marriage
B. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored
C. only three women were able to get their writing published
D. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
4. The word “celebratory” means that the writings referred to were
A. related to parties B. religious C. serious D. full of praise
5. The word “they” refers to
A. efforts B. authors C. counterparts D. sources
6. In the second paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author point out?
A. They put too much emphasis on daily activities
B. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
C. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
D. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
7. On the basis of information in the third paragraph, which of the following would most likely have
been collected by nineteenth-century feminist organizations?
A. Newspaper accounts of presidential election results
B. Biographies of John Adams
C. Letters from a mother to a daughter advising her how to handle a family problem
D. Books about famous graduates of the country’s first college
8. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women’s history materials in the Schlesinger
Library and the Sophia Smith Collection?
A. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia
B. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
C. They provided valuable information for twentieth—century historical researchers.
D. They were shared among women’s colleges throughout the United States.
9. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of nineteenth
century “great women” EXCEPT
A. authors B. reformers
C. activists for women’s rights D. politicians
10. The word “representative” is closest in meaning to
A. typical B. satisfied C. supportive D. distinctive

PASSAGE 2 – Questions 11-20

The Olympic Games have changed a lot since their origins in Ancient Greece. Today, athletes from
countries all over the world take part and the Olympics are big business, watched by millions on television.
Some things, though, have stayed the same. The athletes then could make a lot of money from winning,
just like today’s competitors. In the ancient Games, a great champion might have received as much as a
year’s pay for winning a race.
Another thing that hasn't changed is the search for an all-round champion, somebody who can defeat their
opponents at a number of different sporting events. In the ancient Olympics, athletes competed in the
pentathlon. This consisted of the long jump, the discus, the javelin, a running race and wrestling. The first
winner, in 708 BC, was Lampis of Sparta, who must have been a great athlete to beat so many all over the
Hellenic world. The pentathlon was an important part of the Olympics until Emperor Theodosius of Rome
banned the Games in 393 AD.
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The Stockholm Olympics of 1912 brought back this tradition of the search for all round greatness. The
modern pentathlon was included (shooting, swimming, fencing, riding and running) and so was the modern
decathlon (ten events), with the heptathlon (seven events) for women being introduced later. So what drives
someone to take on this running, throwing, jumping challenge and push their body to its limits? I met
American decathlete Bruce Thorpe in New York and told him he must have been crazy to take up the
decathlon. He laughed. “Yes, I think I probably was. I could have done lots of different sports, but I chose
the decathlon. It’s very tough and it demands a lot of different skills. You have to train just as hard as other
athletes, only you have to do it in ten different events! I think we’re probably all a little crazy, but it’s very
satisfying in the end,” he said. I asked him to explain what happens in the decathlon.
“The way it works is you complete each event and you get points, depending on how well you do in that
event. At the end of two days, the person with the most points is the champion and takes the gold medal,
the second person gets the silver and the third the bronze medal.' 5
So what tips does Bruce have for those of you thinking of taking up the decathlon"? Start as early as you
can and join a good club, he said. "It takes a long time to master ten different events or seven for the
heptathlon, and you need expert help. And don’t expect to have much free time!”
Ten events, one champion. Think you might be the one? If you’re interested in finding out more about the
decathlon, contact your local athletics club.
11. In the first paragraph, how are the athletes today?
A. They are more popular than in ancient times. B. They are much better than in ancient times.
C. They start big businesses. D. They can be wealthy.
12. What does the word “This” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A. sporting event B. all-round champion C. Olympics D. the pentathlon
13. What sport aren’t the athletes tested in the pentathlon by?
A. High jump B. Far jump C. Throwing D. Running
14. Who was Lampis of Spatar?
A. the best winner of the ancient Olympics B. founder of Olympics
C. sponsor of Olympic D. Emperor Theodosius
15. After being banned for a long time, where did the Olympics take place then?
A. Hellenic B. Rome C. Stockholm D. New York
16. The modern heptathlon for women included
A. one sporting events B. five sporting events
C. seven sporting events D. ten sporting events
17. According to Bruce Thorpe, in the decathlon, athletes
A. train hard B. needn't have different skills
C. participate in five sporting events D. do many different sports
18. How do the athletes do to get points in the decathlon?
A. be crazy B. finish the event
C. take part in all events D. work hard
19. ……………… wins a golden medal?
A. The athlete scoring most points. B. The athlete beating others
C. The athlete completing in the second top D. The athlete completing in the third top
20. What does Bruce advise people thinking of being decathletes?
A. wake up early to train B. need an instructor to help
C. join various events D. have much free time

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PASSAGE 3- QUESTIONS 21-30
Among the species of seabirds that use the windswept cliffs of the Atlantic coast of Canada in the summer
to mate, lay eggs, and rear their young are common murres, Atlantic puffins, black-legged kittiwakes, and
northern gannets. Of all the birds on these cliffs, the black-legged kittiwake gull is the best suited for nesting
on narrow ledges. Although its nesting habits are similar to those of gulls that nest on flat ground, there are
a number of important differences related to the cliff-nesting habit.
The advantage of nesting on cliffs is the immunity it gives from foxes, which cannot scale the sheer rocks,
and from ravens and other species of gulls, which have difficulty in landing on narrow ledges to steal eggs.
This immunity has been followed by a relaxation of the defenses, and kittiwakes do not react to predators
nearly as fiercely as do ground-nesting gulls. A colony of Bonaparte's gulls responds to the appearance of
a predatory herring gull by flying up as a group with a clamor of alarm calls, followed by concerted
mobbing, but kittiwakes dimply ignore herring gulls, since they pose little threat to nests on cliffs. Neither
do kittiwakes attempt to conceal their nest. Most gulls keep the nest area clear of droppings, and remove
empty eggshells after the chicks have hatched, so that the location of the nest is not given away. Kittiwakes
defecate over the edge of the nest, which keeps it clean, but this practice, as well as their tendency to leave
the nest littered with eggshells, makes its location very conspicuous.
On the other hand, nesting on a narrow ledge has its own peculiar problems, and kittiwake behavior has
become adapted to overcome them. The female kittiwake sits when mating, whereas other gulls stand, so
the pair will not overbalance and fall off the ledge. The nest is a deep cup, made of mud or seaweed, to hold
the eggs safely, compared with the shallow scrape of other gulls, and the chicks are remarkably immobile
until fully grown. They do not run from their nests when approached, and if they should come near to the
cliff edge, they instinctively turn back.

21. What aspect of the kittiwake gull does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Its defensive behavior B. It interactions with other gull species
C. Its nesting habits D. Its physical difference from other gull species
22. The word "rear" is closest in meaning to
A. visit B. watch C. reverse D. raise
23. The word "scale" is closest in meaning to
A. climb B. avoid C. approach D. measure
24. The word "immunity" is closest in meaning to
A. distance B. transition C. protection D. reminder
25. Why is it difficult for ravens to steal the kittiwakes' eggs?
A. The kittiwakes can see the ravens approaching the nest.
B. The ravens cannot land on the narrow ledges where kittiwakes nest.
C. The kittiwakes' eggs are too big for the ravens to carry.
D. The female kittiwakes rarely leave the nest.
26. The author mentions that eggshells little the nests of kittiwakes in order to
A. demonstrate that kittiwakes are not concerned about predators
B. prove how busy kittiwakes are in caring for their offspring
C. show a similarity to other types of gulls
D. illustrate kittiwakes' lack of concern for their chicks
27. According to the passage, it can be inferred that which of the following birds conceal their nest?
A. Bonaparte's gulls B. Atlantic puffins
C. Kittiwake gulls D. Northern gannets
28. The word "it" refers to
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A. location B. edge C. nest D. practice
29. The word "conspicuous" is closest in meaning to
A. disordered B. suspicious C. noticeable D. appealing
30. The phrase "On the other hand" is closest in meaning to
A. therefore B. however C. for example D. by no means

PASSAGE 4 – Questions 31-40

Antibiotics block the life cycle of bacteria that invade the human body. The first of these antibiotics,
penicillin, works by blocking the molecules that construct the cell walls of particular bacteria. The bacteria,
with incomplete cell walls, are not able to reproduce.
When penicillin was introduced during World War II, it was truly a "miracle drug." Until that time, anyone
who was cut or wounded stood a great risk of infection. Once penicillin became available, the situation
changed. Wounded soldiers, children with ear infections, and many others began to benefit from the ability
to block the growth of bacteria.
While humanity may have won that particular battle against bacteria, the war is far from over. The reason
is that in any bacterial population, there are bound to be a few bacteria that, for one reason or
another, are not affected by a particular antibiotic. For example, they may have a slightly differently
shaped enzyme that builds cell walls, so that penicillin will not fit onto that particular shape of the enzyme.
These bacteria will not be affected by that particular drug.
For that small group, the antibiotic is a real godsend. It doesn't affect them, but it does wipe out all of
their competition. They are thus free to multiply, and, over time, all of the bacteria will have whatever
properties that made those individuals resistant.
Traditionally, medical scientists have dealt with this phenomenon by developing a large number of
antibiotics, each of which intervenes in the bacterial life cycle in a slightly different way. Consequently, if
you happen to have a bacterium that is resistant to one antibiotic, probably it will succumb to the action of
another. You may, in fact, have had the experience of going to a doctor with an infection, being given an
antibiotic, and then finding that it didn't work. In all likelihood, all your doctor had to do then was prescribe
a different antibiotic and everything was fine.
The problem is that as time has passed, more and more bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics. In fact,
currently, there is one strain of bacteria- Staphylococcus-that is resistant to every commercially available
antibiotic except one, and in 1996, a bacterium with lowered resistance to that last antibiotic appeared in
Japan.
The appearance of drug-resistant bacteria is not particularly surprising; in fact, it probably should have
been anticipated. Nevertheless, in the late 1980s, there was a general sense of complacency among
scientists on the antibiotic question. Little profit was to be made by developing the one-hundred-and-first
antibiotic. Drug companies concentrated their efforts on other areas. Therefore, a gap developed between
the production of new antibiotics and the development of resistance among bacteria.
By the early 1990s, this gap was recognized and highlighted in several national news magazines. More
companies returned to develop new kinds of antibiotics, and currently, a number are undergoing clinical
trials. By early in the twenty-first century, some of these new drugs will start to come on the market, and
the problem will be "solved," at least for the moment.
Additional research will focus on the processes by which cells repair the constant damage to DNA, but the
computer design of new drugs, the development of new antibiotics, and techniques to combat bacteria
should remain a top priority.

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31. How do antibiotics treat infections?
A. They interfere with the reproductive cycle of bacteria.
B. They construct cell walls to resist bacteria.
C. They inject enzymes that explode in affected cells.
D. They increase the mitosis of healthy cells.
32. Which of the sentences below best expresses the information in the bolded statement in the
passage?
A. Some antibiotics affect a population of bacteria more efficiently than others.
B. There are several reasons why some bacteria do not respond to most antibiotics.
C. The effect of antibiotics on bacteria is to bind them together into one population.
D. A small number of bacteria in any sample will probably be resistant to a specific antibiotic.
33.The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to ……….
A. whatever properties B. resistant bacteria
C. their competition D. those individuals
34. According to paragraph 4, why do some bacteria benefit from antibiotics?
A. The antibiotic eliminates competing bacteria, allowing resistant bacteria to reproduce.
B. The resistant bacteria compete with the antibiotic, and the bacteria become stronger.
C. The competition helps the resistant bacteria to multiply by reproducing with the resistant type.
D. The properties of the antibiotic are acquired by the bacteria, making it resistant to the competition.
35. The word “anticipated” in the passage is closest in meaning to …….
A. predicted B. concealed C. investigated D. disregarded
36. Which of the following best expresses the main idea of this passage?
A. The "miracle drug" penicillin B. Drug-resistant bacteria
C. Staphylococcus infections D. Gene therapy treatments
37. The word “complacency” in the passage is closest in meaning to ……
A. consensus of agreement B. fear of consequences
C. lack of concern D. awareness of potential
38. The author mentions all of the following reasons for drug resistant bacteria to appear
EXCEPT…….
A. there was not enough profit incentive for companies to continue developing new antibiotics
B. statistically, some drug-resistant bacteria will occur naturally in any large population of bacteria
C. the newer antibiotics were not as strong and effective as the original penicillin-based drugs
D. competing bacteria are destroyed by antibiotics, allowing resistant bacteria to prosper.
39. It can be inferred from the passage that …….
A. research to develop new antibiotics will not be necessary in the future
B. the scientific community was not surprised by the resistant strains of bacteria
C. antibiotics are not very expensive when they are made available commercial
D. it takes years for a new drug to be made available commercially for consumers
40. Which of the following statements is NOT a main idea of the passage?
A. Many strains of bacteria have become resistant to the antibiotics currently available.
B. Funding for the production of new antibiotics has been allocated to drug companies.
C. The first antibiotics were very effective in blocking the reproduction of bacteria.
D. New antibiotics are being developed to combat bacteria that resist the older antibiotics

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 PAPER 3. WRITING
Time allowance: 60 minutes
Number of tasks: 02

TASK 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on this task.
Your English pen friend sent you a letter. Part of it says “ There are lots of technological devices
used by people in daily life today such as mobile phones, ipads, computers, etc….What’s the most
important to you? Write and tell me about it!?”
Write an email responding to your friend. You should write at least 120 words.
Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar

TASK 2
You should spend about 40 minutes on this task.
Some people think university education should be free and governments should pay for everyone.
Write an essay to an educated reader to state your opinion. Include reasons and any relevant
examples to support your answer.
You should write at least 250 words.
Your response will be evaluated in terms of Task Fulfillment, Organization, Vocabulary and Grammar.

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