2023 April May III I (C)

KATHMANDULINIVERSITY Marks Scored:
End Semester Examination [C]

AprilAvlay 2023
Level : B.E. Course : COEG 304
Year : III Semester: I

F.M.
Exam Roll No.: Time: 30 mins.
"[ B r?i ?uil
No.: Date
SECTION "A"
:
t20Q x 0.5 l0 marks]
Encircle the most appropriate alternative from each set of choices'
The transfer function is defined as ...... ..

a. The ratio of the Laplace transform of output to Laplace transform of input considering
initial condition as zero.
b. The ratio of Laplace transform of input to Laplace transform of output considering
initial conditions as zero.
c. The ratio of input to outPut
d. The ratio of output to inPut
2. The Laplace transform of e-2' sin 2t is

4 2 2
a.-b.-L
(s+ 2)'+4 s- +4
c.
s'+4s+8
d.
;, +4
3. The overall transfer function for the signal flow graph given below is.........
R 1
C
Gl G, Gt G,
a. c.
l-GtGzHr*GrH, l-GtGzHr-G, H2
b. d.
l+GrGrHr*GrH, l+GrGrHr*GrH,
4. The transfer functibn for the network given below is... ......
Vin C Vout
1 Rs .R:s +l
d.
a. b. RCs+l c.
Cs-l C
.RCs + I
-
5 If maximum overshoot (Mp): I00%, the damping ratio is...........
a. Ib.0c.0.5 d. Infinity
6. The seuling time of a second order system is... ......when the steady state output is
within 2o/o tolerunce band.
a. t, =- 4 b + _€o\
,s- c. t, _4€ d. t, 4€c,t,
€aL 4 a)n
7. The time needed for the response to reach from 10% to 90Yo of the final value is termed
as..
a. Rise time b. Peak time c. Settling time d. Delay time
8. The position error coefficient of a system G(s) 1- with unity feedback is...
' = (s + 2)(s +7)
a.0 b. Infinity -
c. 14 d. ll14
K v
9 The type of the transfer function, G(s)H(s) = lS. . . . . . . . . .. . . . . . . ..
s'+ Zsz +3s
a.lb.2 c.3 d.4
10. For the Routh anay given below: the system is stable if..
s3 13
s24K
sr Q2-4 K) o
soKo
a. K>12 b. K:12 c. K>39 d. K<3
ll. The location of the closed loop conjugate pair of pole on jw axis indicates that the system
is.. . ..
a. Stable c. marginally stable
b. Unstable d. critically stable
12. What is the main objective of process control ?
a. to control physical parameters c. to control optical parameters
b. to control mechanical parameters d. to control electrical parameters
l3 A 5 bit digital toanalog converter has a current output. When the digital input is 10000,
the current output is 8mA. If the digital input is I I I 1 l, the output current is... ... ... . ...
a. 25.25 mA b.
16.5 mA 0.5 c. mA 15.5 mA d.
14. The number of comparators required in a 3-bit flash type ADC is...
a.2 b.3 c.7 d.g
15. A 4-bitU2R ladder DAC uses... . o. o.... .... o
a. One resistor value c. Three resistor values

b. Two resistor values d. Four resistor values
{:;. ci;
2 6 jri -l
?
Lr;.iI
16. A low pass filter is formed using... ... ...

a. RLC circuit c. Resistor and CaPacitor
b. Resistor d. Inductor and capacitor
l7 In a certain low-pass filter, fc:4.5 kHz.ItS pass band iS.-.......
a. 0 Hzto 4.5 Khz c' 4'5 kHz
b. 0 Hz d' 9l<blz
18 The op-Amp as a voltage follower has a voltage gain of" " "
a. Infinity c. UnitY
b. Zero d. Less than unitY
19. Determine the output voltage for the given network.
100 k ohm
n 1.0 v
47 kohm
33 k ohm
0.5 v Output
12k ohm
0.8
a. -12.35 V c. -9.26
b. -10.3 Iv d. 10.3 I
2A Which transducer measure change in acceleration, pressure, strain and temperature?
a. Photoelectric transducer c. Piezoelectric transducer
b. Capacitive transducer d. Inductive transducer
n
i
,.^
KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination tC]
?, $ ,tri ?x1l
April/Ivf ay 2023
Level : B.E. Course : COEG 304
Year : III Semester : I
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F. M. :40
668"
[5Q"8-40marks]
Attempt,4Nf Flzrquestions. Draw neat and clean diagram wherever necessary. Assume suitable
data if necessary.
I a. Classify the following as open or closed loop system with valid reasons and block
diagram (i) An electriial On-OffSwitch and (ii) Room air-conditioner.
t4l
b. Explain what is meant by open-loop transfer function in relation to a closed-loop

/1 control system mathematically. t4I
2. a. In the liquid level system as shown in Figure l, two tanks interact. Find the transfer
tunctionQz(syQ(r). tsl
Q+q lnflow
....r)
cr C,
& ff!
.rt;.}
..mN> 0+.l,
Tarrk 1 8+q, Tank 2
Pipe 2
Pr1x l
Ftgure I
/-\
b. How the location of system poles in pole-zero map would affects the system stability?
Explain your understanding. t3l
,-t
J a. Obtain the overall transfer function for a control system having the block
diagram shown in Figure 2 using block diagram reduction method. t5l
Figure 2
b. Check the stability of the system, having following characteristic equation.
st +6sa +3s3 + 2s2 +s*l=O t3I
4. a. The unity feedback system is characterized by an open loop transfer function

*
G(s) =s(s. + l0)
.=- .Determine the gain K, so that the system will have a damping ratio
of 0.5 for this value of K. Determine peak overshoot and time at peak overshoot for a
unit step input. t5l
b. Differentiate between human aided control and automatic control with proper
illustration and block diagam. t3l
5. a. The open-loop transfer function of a control system is given below: t4I

2(s2 +?s +20)
G(s)rl(s) - s(s+2)(s2 +4s+10)
Determine the static error coefficients and steady state error for the input given as
(,).s '>tJ
(ii).4t
(iii).4f t2
b. Figure 3 is a D/A converter with op-amp. Find the output of op-amp ifthe input digital
signal is 1011. Assume that binary I represents 5V. t4I
l0kohm
50kohm
D
25kohm
l2.5kohm
\/
Figure 3
6. a. Design a 4-bit flash type A/D converter. What will be the encoder binary output for
Vin:6.5 V if the Vref :8 V. Also, explain its working t5l
b. Define actuator and explain various types of actuator with illustrations. t3l
KATHMANDU TJNIVERSTTY Marks Scored:
AprilAvlay 2023
Level : B.E. Course : EEEG 314
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F.M. :10
Date
2. $ ,il; li ?il?3
Registration No.:
SECTION "A"
:
[20Q x 0.5 l0 marks]
Encircle the most appropriate alternative from each set of choices.
l. [f a microprocessor is capable of addressin g 64K bytes of memory, its address-bus width is

a. 8 bits b. 16 bits c. 20 bits d' 32 bits
A
2. The timing diagram for CMP M instruction requires ... T states.

a.4 b.7 c. l0 d. 13
3 DAD is a/an
a. data-transfer instruction b. arithmetic instruction
c. logical instruction d. branch instruction
4. The content of the zero and sign flag ... after the execution of the program below will be...
Main Program: Subroutine:
C000H: MVI A, 05H 2050H: MVI C, FFH
C002H: OUT 30H 2052H: DCR C
C004H: CALL 2050H 2053H: INZ2052H
C007H: HLT 2056H: RET
a.0,0 b.0, I c. 1,0 d. l, I
5 The PC contains 8452H and SP contains 88D6H. What will be the content of PC and SP
following aCALL to subroutine at location 82AFH?
a. 82AF,88D4 b.82AF,8450 c.8450,88D4 d.82AF'8452
6. The total time to execute the following Intel 8085 instruction considering a clock frequency
of 2MHz is ....
MVI A, FDH
LOOP: INR A
CPI FFH
JNZ LOOP
a. 67 pts b.33.5ps c. l4ps d.23ps
7 TheHOLD pin ... Intel8085.

iS used
a. to acknowledge the intemrpt received by b. for DMA operation by
c. to delay the read or write cycles of d. to latch the address A7-A0 of
8. The A0 pin for Intel 8086 is used to enable .., lines during the read or a write operation.
a. Al-At b. A8-Al5 c. D0-D7 d. D8-Dl5
9 The addressing mode for Intel 8086 instruction NOT DI is ... addressing mode.
a. register b. immediate c. direct d. base plus index
10. The Intel 8284 generates the ... signal during the operation for Intel 8086.
a. DEN b. LOCK c. RDY d. CLK
I l. The content of AL register of Intel 8086 after the execution of following instructions are. ...
MOV AL,4FH
CMP AL, 22H
OUT 3OH, AL
a. 30H b.22H C.4FH d.zCH
12. The Initialization Command Word I (lCW3) for Intel 8259 with a slave at IRO and IR3 is...
a.03H b. llH c. 05H d.09H
13. The control word of Intel 8255 for the operation of Port A as input, Port B as output in input-
output with handshake mode is.... -
a. B4H b.94H c.83H d. A6H
14. The control word for Intel 825318254 for software triggered strobe mode with counter 0, 8 bit
binary count is....
a.02H b. lOH c.lZH d. l8H
15. The rate of datatransmission in RS 423A is restricted to a maximum of ... kbaud for 30ft.
a. 1 b.20 c. 100 d. 1000
16. The size of scratch pad internal RAM of Intel 805 I is ... bytes.
a. 16 b. 40 c. 80 d. 120
17. A after the execution of the following instructions is

The content of register
MOV A, # OOH
MOV R2, # O5H
REPEAT: ADD A, # 03H \r/
DJNZ R2, REPEAT

CPL A
MOV R5, A
a. 00H b. l5H C. OFH d. FOH
18. The maximum number of I/O devices that can be interfaced with Intel 8086 using I/O
mapped I/O concept is....
a.256 b.512 c. 65536 d.131072
19. Intel 8086 is designed to be connected with EPROM capacity of 8kB. The available size of
the EPROM chip is 1024 x 4. The number of EPROM chip required for the design will be....
a.4 b.8 c. 16 d.4096
20. The number of flags present in 8051 that respond to math operations are
a.2 b.3 c. 4 d.5
KATHMANDU LINIVERSTTY
End Semester Examination tcl 2 $ Aii UgiJ
April/May 2023
Course EEEG 314
Level : B.E.
Semester I
Year : III
F.M. 40
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins.
SECTION
..B"
[5Q.x8-40marks]
Attempt ANY Flrrquestions. Assume necessary data if required.
1 . a. Describe the function of different bus of a microprocessor. l2l
b. Draw and explain the timing diagram for the Intel 8086 VO write machine cycle. l2l
c. Pedestrian crossing lights are installed at the zebra crossing as shown in the Figure I
.A.
below. The system
-gOgS
is Controlled by an 8085 microprocessor. Write an assembly language
program for to operate the lights continuously with one light on while the other is
off.- fne green light is turned on for 4 seconds and red light for l0 seconds. Use
subroutine ior the diluy, during each light operation. Assume that the clock frequency of
8085 is 3MHz.
Red lieht
Output
8085 Device Not
55H connected
TRAP
button Green light
Figure 1
To provide preference to the pedestrians, push button as shown in Figure I is also placed
,/4, at the two sides of the road. If the push button is pressed 50 times the green light for
pedestrians is turned on immediately for 4 seconds, and then the operation continues as
before. The push button is connected to the TRAP intemrpt pin of microprocessor 8085.
Write intemrpt subroutine for this purpose. t4l
2. a. Explain the operation of Programmable Interval Timer Intel 8253/8254 in mode 2 with
timing diagram showing the clock, gate and output signals. 12)
b. What is Direct Memory Access? Explain with a suitable.diagram how a DMA controller
performs a direct memory access operation. l2l
c. Write a program for Intel 8085 to get input from an input device with address 30H and
check the type of the number: odd or even, prime or composite and negative or positive.
Assume that the output port 40H has 8 pins with 8 LEDs. Pin D0 for prime, pin Dl for
composite,D2 for odd, D3 for even, D4 for positive and D5 for negative. Pins D6 and D7
are left unconnected. Turn on/offrespective three LEDs depending upon the number. 141
3 Consider a task of designing an automation system for water supply for a residential colony
as shown in Figure 2. There are two tanks, an underground tank and an overhead tank. The
water from the Municipal Water Supply Authority of the city comes to the underground tank
through gravity and later it is pumped to an overhead tank using a pump-motor set.
Water is supplied to various residential units from the overhead tank based on the level in the
tank. There is an escape valve in the underground tank which operates automatically if the
underground tank becomes full, a condition which seldom occurs. In the present system, the
levels in the undergtound tank as well as the overhead tank are measured ihrough a float and
pulley sensor and the pump motors are operated manually. Similarly, the distribution valves
for water distribution to different residential units are also operated manually.
v
Ovgrlpad Hnk
Underground tank
Pump
lffatar suppfy
trurr authoritiee $upp{y
ta
\/
Escape valve
Figure 2
It is an ineffective contlol prone to human error and leads to wastage of water, shorter life of
motors. It is desirbd to have a system which can operate automatically without manual
intervention/supervision. A microprocessor based system is to be designed which should
perform the following functions:
o Level sensing and control of water in the overhead tank
o Level sensing of water in the underground tank
o Start and stop of pump motors for pumping water to the overhead tank from the
underground tank
o Distribution of water to the residential units as per the given time schedule
Design a circuit using Intel 8086 and Intel 8255 with all the sensors and actuators interface
for the system operation. Also write a program for the proper operation of the system. [4+41
4 a. The Figure 3 below shows a solar collector to track the sun. The solar collector is
attached to a DC motor and the sun is tracked by two light sensors at two sides of the
solar collector. If both the sensor sends'l'the motor is to be stopped. If only sensorl
sends
ol'the motor is to be rotated in one direction and if only sensor2 sends'l'the
motor is to be rotated in the other direction. For a DC motor "10" at the supply pins
rotates the motor in one direction and "01" rotates the motor in the other direction.
Direct solar radlatlon
/^ Sensor 2
Motor
Figu re 3
Assume your own interface requirements and write a program for the operation of an
Intel8O5l based system. t4l
b. Design a circuit to interface microprocessor Intel 8085 with total memory capacity of
2kB. Use the RAM and the supporting chips as shown in Figure 4 for the
interconnection. t4I
!'CC OT rCC
fr{ A7 1Q
e AS
l+{
l+
4 A9
1D
U
fr l,ol
2D
2Q
H
If FI
FI r,o2 3Q (fl
!.,1 L,.,0 5 F-
(\t 3D fa
to4 4D t
F-
lFE a
GND C
AS-A* A&ess Enes
tol-l 4:Datatines Q=D[O-e=SandC=1
CT: Chip select
11E: Write Enable
A
B }ru
C YI
Y2
ffi- v3
m., CZg, Gl are enable pins
G1
w YJ A,B,C are inputs
GND Y6
Y0-Y7 are outputs( actve low)
74138DECODER
Figure 4
5. a. Explain how GPIB can be used for VO interface with microprocessor t21
b. A data logger for voltage measurement using a potential transformer, analog to digital
converter, and memory is to be designed for a transformer substation of a village power
distribution system Nepal. Design a circuit for the proposed system with Intel 8086. Use
the 4364SRAM and 0804 ADC as shown in Figure 5 for the interconnection. t4l
NC VCC
cs t'cc
At2 WE
A7 CE2 DO
A6 A8 UD1
A5
A4
E A9
Al1
Am
{D3
A3 d
u)
OE
1,1R{(+;
1B{-} HDr
A2 'if
\o
A10
AG?[D ED5
A1 fr)
t
ffiI VREF.A
(DD6
AO I/O8 D7
DGND
uo1 rn7
tfi? I/O6
I/O3 I/OJ
GND UO4 \.r/
CEl and CEZ: chrp enable purs

ffi : Outpute enable(Eead)
WE. Write enabte
NC: No connecdon
A0-A12: Address pins
I/O 1-I/OB : Input/Output (data) purs
Figure 5
c. Explain difference between maximum and minimum modes of operation of Intel 8086. [2]
6 a. What is Intemrpt Vector Table? Explain how that is used for intemrpt handling. 121
b. Design a circuit to interface Intel 8051 with a dc motor. What are the practical
consideration to be taken for the interface and how that is incorporated in the circuit? tzl
c. Journal entries are to be prepared for a company. All the debits are assumed positive
numbers and credits are assrmed negative numbers. Business transactions are entered -
using input device with address 20H. All the debits are to be stored in effective memory
addriss itarting from C000H; and all the credits are to be stored at effective memory
address starting from D000H. Write a program for Intel 8086 to get input entries and sort
the debits and credits.at the memory locations as mentiongd ab9y9, Completion of all the
entries is denoted by OlH input from input device with address 2lH. t4l
a.
KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY Marks Scored:

April/Ma'y 2A23
Level : B.E. Course : CIEG 304
Exam Roll No.: Time: 30 mins. F.M. :10

(it
Registration No.: Date B,I
..A"
SECTION
[20Q. x 0.5 = t0 marks]
Encircle the most appropriate alternafive from each set of choices.
1. and height of water in reservoir is 30

If the U/S face of concrete gravity dam is vertical
meter from river bed. Then the hydrodynamic force acts at
,^. a. 12.73 meter above the base c. 30 meter above the base
b. 10 meter above the base d. Anywhere in the dam height
2. Horizontal earthquake acceleration acts towards downstream of the river, then

a. Horizontal inertia force due to earthquake acts towards downstream
b. Horizontal inertia force due to earthquake acts towards upstream
c. Vertical inertia force due to earthquake acts towards anti-gravity direction
d. Vertical inertia force due to earthquake acts towards gravity direction
3 For concrete gravity dam there is wave pressure due to blowing wind. If the height of
wave is hw = 3 meter. Then the incorrect statement is
a. Total force acting on dam due to wave is proportional to the square root of wave
height
b. Wave force acts at a distance of 1.125 meter above the reservoir base
c. Wave force acts at a distance of 1.125 meter above the reservoir surface
d. Wave height depends upon the wind velocity and straight length of water expansion
4. Concrete dam are usually placed in blocks. The size of blocks depends upon the joints
provision consideration of cracking of concrete. The incorrect statement is
a. Maximum height of single pour of concrete is usually about 1.5 meter or so
b. Horizontal joints of dam are known as longitudinal joints
c. Vertical joints are called as transverse joint
d. Shear keys are always provided in ffansverse joint if the dam is constructed in good
rock foundation
5. In case, no water in reservoir, horizontal earthquake inertia force acting towards upstream
and vertical inertia force acting towards gravity direction. Then
a. Heel of the dam base may be in more compression
b. Toe of the dam may be in more compression than heel
c. Toe and heel may be in tension
d. Toe may be in more tension than heel
6. Minimum height of the freeboard of earth dam does not depend upon
a. Height of dam
b. Controlled or uncontrolled condition of spillway
c. Height of the water wave to be produced in the reservoir
d. Condition of foundation soil
7 Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?
a. Dam base is equipotential line
b. U/S face of the dam is equipotential line
c. In flow net, equipotential lines are also known as lines of equal energy
d. Stream line and flow channels are perpendicular to each other
8 For the homogeneous earth dam, if the focal distance is 6 meter and the coefficient of
permeability is 5 x 104 (m/sec), then the seepage discharge through the dam section is
a. 3 x 10-3 (m3l m run/ sec) c. 3 x 10-3 (cumecs/ cm run/ sec)
b. 1.5 x 10-3 (m3/ m run/ sec) d. Depends upon head
9 For the stability of the foundation against shear of earth dam, photo elastic studies found
that
a. Maximum stress is 1.6 times the average stress and it occurs at 0.68 from the toe
b. Maximum stress is1.4 times the average stress and it occurs at 0.4B from the toe
c. Maximum stress is 1.6 times the average stress and it occurs at 0.48 from the toe
d. Maximum stress is 1.4 times the average stress and it occurs at 0.68 from the toe \/
10 Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about an arch dam?
a. Elastic theory considers temperature and shrinkage stress
b. Thin cylinder theory is more accurate than elastic design theory
c. Economical central angle is 133 degree 34 minute but restricted to about 150 degree.
d. Double curvature arch dam is also known as shell-arch dam
11. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT for the buttress dam?
a. Buttress spacing depends on Mean dam height
b. Buttress spacing depends on Inclination angle of deck slab
c. Height, thickness and spacing of buttress can be controlled by slenderness ratio and
massiveness factor
d. Buttress dam may not be Continuous support type
12. On moderate foundations, and particularly in seismic area, the type of dam which can
preferable be considered for construction is
a. Masonry gravity dam c. Rock fill dam \/
b. Earthen dam d. Arch dam
13. A shaft spillway is located
a. Inside the body of the gravity dam c. Inside the downstream reservoir
b. Inside the upstream reservoir d. On side flanks of the main dam
14. The portion of a chute spillway, which is known as its control structure is
a. Low ogee weir
b. Chute channel
c. Approach channel leading the water from the reservoir to the ogee weir
d. Stilling basin at its bottom
15 The load from the deck of buttress dam is transmitted to eh foundation, through the
a. Corbels c.Deck slab
b. Buttress d. Lateral braces
16. Multiple arch dam are generally used for
a. High dam c. Medium dam
b. Low dam d. Gravity dam with buttress dam
2 $ l;i ?;13
l'7 . The most preferred type of an earthen dam section is the one, in which the
a. Entire embankment is made of one type of soil
b. Inner embankment is made of highly porous soil, surrounded by the outer shell of
highly impervious soil, both separated by transition filter material of mediocre
permeability
c. inner embankment is made of highly impervious soil surrounded by the outer shell of
highly pervious soil, both separated by transition filer material of mediocre
permeability
d. h.ectangular cross section with entire embankment with highly pervious soil
18. The safety valve of a dam is

a. Drainage gallery c. SPillwaY
b. Inspection gallery d. Outlet sluices
19. If the operating head of an ogee spillway is more than the design head, then
a. The pressure on the will be zerc
crest
b. The pressure on the will be negative, causing cavitation
crest
c. The pressure on the will be positive
crest
d. The discharge coefficient of the spillway will be reduced
24. Which of the following component of the buttress dam is also called as counterfort?
a. Corbel c. Lateral braces
b. Buttress d. SloPing deck
,A\
d
End Semester Examination [C] f,l fI 1," "- r^,ai. 1
ApriUMay 2023 l" [i :-t i i-: :J

Level: B.E. Course : CIEG 304
Tirne : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F. M. :40
SECTION "B"
Attempt ALL questions. Assume data suitably if required.
1. a. Classify Dam with suitable example according to (i) use (ii) hydraulic design and
(iii) materials. 12)
b. Briefly describe the requisites of good sites for various types of dam. t3I
2. Design of Gravity dam should be done under different suitable load combinations. Write
shortly about load combination as per (i) USBR and (ii) IS 6512-1984 t4l
3 For the given Concrete Gravity (non overflow) dam section. (Horizontal earthquake
coefficient an = 0.1 & vertical earthqual<c coefficient a, = 0.05) Considering only inertia
,ttirt of earthquake i.e. ignore hyd.iodynamiforces) Determine:
i.- Oifi"r.nt forces acting on the dam section t3I
ii. Normal compressive stresses at toe and heel tll
iii. Principle stress and shear stress at toe tll
iv. Factoiof safety against overturning, sliding, shear sliding 12)
hf.wl.265
'Je Rr.269
_-BJ;-Z6q -
Cl of Draiqse
gaXlery
Rr.306
R.L.300
(Assume unit weight of water and concrete y* and Tc ar€ 9.81 tNhf and 24 kN/m3 , unit
shear of dam material C = 1400 kN/m2 and Cofficient of friction (p) between dam base
and dam is 0.75, horizontal earthquake acceleration acts upstream and vertical
earthquake acceleration acts downwards )
4 What are the factors, which governs the thickness of arch dam? List out the different
theories for the design of arch dams and briefly explain about the theory of the trial load
analysis of an arch dam. ll+l+2 = 4]
5 For a homogeneous earth dam of height of 60 meter including 2 meter of free board. A
flow net was constructed and following results were obtained
Number of potential drop = lg
Number of flow channels = 6
Calculate the discharge per meter length of the dam if the coefficient of permeability of
the dam is 3 x 104 (cm/sec). 121
6 An earth dam made up of homogeneous material has the following data

i. Level of top of dam 220.0 m
ii. Level of River bed 200.0 m
iii. HFL of reservoir 218.0 m
iv. Top width of dam 6 meter
v. U/S slope (H:V,4:1) and D/S slope (H:V, 3:l)
vi. Length of horizontal filter from D/S toe inwards = 30 m
vii. Dry density of dam material = 17.27 kN/m3
viii. Saturation density of dam material =21.19 kN/m3 v
ix. Average angle of friction of dam material is 26 degree
x. Average cohesion of dam material is 19.13 kN/m2
a. Determine and draw the phreatic line (in suitable scale in graphpaper) t4l
b. Furthermore, check the stability of dam section for stability of the D/S slope portion
ofthe dam under steady seepage l2l
7 Draw plan and cross section of massive head buttress dam. Give its advantage and
disadvantage. t3l
8 An ungated Ogee Crested spillway with vertical U/S face has a design discharge of 2500
m3/sec. The total crest length is 200 m and comprise 11 span with 5 m wide pillars. The
height of the dam up to normal reservoir level above the river bed level is 50 meter.
Assume the coefficient of discharge as 1 .8 and round nosed pillars (kp = ku = 0.01 )
Determine: [5]
a. Crest height of the spillway
b. Downstream profile of the spillway \/
Given Expressions as per USACE for D/S profile of Ogee are:
xn = KylHaT"-' ;forverticalupstreamK =2andn = 1.85
9 Write short notes on: 12x2=41
a. Structural failures of earth dam
b. Flow net and its pioperties
Mark Scored:
End Semester Examination tcl
April/Tvlly,2023
Level : B.Pharm.lB. Tech. Course : INAN 301
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F. M. :20
t
No.: Date , X€ [-o t-9

SECTION "A"
[20 Q. x 1 =2A marks]
Encircle the most appropriate answer from the given choices.
1 The instrumental method, i s based on the scattering of radiation

a. Mass spectrometry b. Turbidimetry
c. Flame photometer d. Coulometry
2. Which of these statements is TRUE?

a. IR has lower energy than visible.
b. IR has a shorter wavelength than visible radiation.
c. UV radiation has a longer wavelength than visible
d. IR has higher wavenumber than visible.
/-l
J Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Cold vapor atomization technique is applicable for the determination of arsenic.
b. Sputtered metal atoms do not diffuse back to the cathode surface in hollow cathode
larnp.
c. Electrothermal atomizers can never be used for the direct analysis of solid samples.
d. The maximum temperature is located in the flame about 2.5 cm above the primary
combustion zone.
4. In which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does an absorption at 380 nm come?

a. Ultraviolet region b. Visible region
c. Vacuum UV region d. Infrared region
5 You look at an IR spectrum and see a collection of bands at 1690-1760 cm-I. What
conclusion can you draw about the structure?
a. oxygen
The molecule does not contain b. The molecule contains a C=O bond
c. The molecule contains O-H bond d. The molecule contains N-H bond
6. Which one of the following is a hard source?

a. Electron impact source b. Field desorption
c. Chemical ionization d. Field ionization
7 Which of the following isotopic peak is much intense for CHsBr?

a. M+l b.M+Z c. M-1 d. M-2
,
8 Which one of the following vibrations is IR acrive?
a. Symmetric stretching of SOz
b. Symmetric stretching of COz
c. C-C stretching vibration of CH:-CHI
d. C-H symmetric stretching of CHz=CHz
9 What is the order in which following compounds would be eluted from an HPLC column
containing a normal phase packing?
[A] Toluene [B] Phenol [C] Methyl benzoate [D] Acetone
a. B,A,C,D b. C,B,A,D c. A,C,D,B d. A,B,C,D
10. A resonance is displaced 300 Hz from TMS at a magnetic field strength of 4.69 T (200
MHz instrument). What will be the chemical shift at this magnetic strength?
a. 1.5 b. 0.45 c. 0.66 d.7.1
\./
FiII in the blanks by most appropriate VALUE or WORD.
11. of light is transmitted through the sample

*h*ith...b.*b"r""r.rr.o'amount
12. The equation of least square analysis of calibration data for the determination of Cu by
UV visible spectroscopy is S=1.49 Cu + 0.512. For the concentration of 25 ppm Cu, the
value of standard deviation of measurement is 0.12. What will be the analytical
sensitivity at this concentration of Cu?
13. The absorption frequency in a 2.35 T magnetic field of 'H

(Give n y-2.68X108T-t S -').
14. detector which is used in GC employs a

radioactive beta emitter, usually nickel -63.
v
r5 After TLC development, used for the visualization of
colorless spots of lipids.
16. number of peaks (signals) are present in the NMR spectra for the
protons in CHrCH zCHzCHzCH:
l'7 . s an example of anion exchange resin

(strong).
18. A solution containing 23xl}'5 mol/lit KMnO+ has a transmittance of 0.125 in a 1.00 cm
cell at 520 nm. The value of molar absorptivity of KMnO+ at 520 nm is _.
19. The resolution required to resolve peaks for ions having masses 284.1930 and 284.1240
will be
20. GC separation where temperature remains same throughout analysis is called

April/NI?Y,2023 &e,^ry- 1 - oq'\
Level: B.Pharm./El.Tech. Course : INAN 301

Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F.M. :55
..B"
SECTION
[5Q.x3=15marks]
Attempt ANY FNE questions.
1. a. Show the basic design of an instrument used for a chemical measurement. [1.5]
b. What do you mean by selectivity of an instrument? [1.5]
2. What do you mean by spectral interference? In a hydrogen-oxygen flame, the atomic

absorption signal for calcium was found to decrease in the presence of large
concentration of sulphate ions. Suggest an explanation for this observation. U+21
3. What is calibration of an instrument? When is standard addition method used for

calibration? I3l
4. Explain why increasing the magnetic field strength results in an increased signal in NMR.
t3l
5. In proton NMR spectra for CHICHzOCH:, calculate the number of multiplets for each
band and their relative areas. t3l
6 How do the spectra for the electron impact and the chemical ionization sources differ
from one another? [1.5+1.5]
7 The IR spectrum of carbonyl bond shows vibration absorption band at 1600 cm-r. What is
the forcJconstant for C=O bond? (the reduced mass, p is l.1xl0-20 kg) t3l
SECTION "C"
[5Q.x 5 =25 marks]
Attempt AMI FIVE questions.
8. Explain (with well labeled diagram) about the speciali zed atomization technique used for
arsenic. Why an electrothermal atomizer is more sensitive than flame atomizer? [3.5+1.5]
9 a. Define auxochrome. What are the effects of substituent and conjugation on

chromophores? t3l
b. What is an isocratic elution? t2t
10. a. Describe the differences between hydrogen and deuterium lamps as source for
ultraviolet radiation and list any particular advantage possessed by one over the other.
t3I
b. What are the applications of proton NMR? 12)
11. a. In chromatography, what are the variables that lead to zone broadening? t3l
b. What are the differences between normal phase chromatography and reversed phase
chromatography? 12)
12. a. What are different types of mass analyzers used in MS? l2l
b. What is the principle of nuclear magnetic resonance? Describe the different types of
NMR spectra. , [3]
13. a. What do you know about charge transfer absorption? t3l

b. What do you know about fragmentation pattern of aromatic hydrocarbons in MS? [2]
14. Draw block diagram showing components of HPLC. Write about reciprocating pump
used in HPLC. 12+31
..D"
SECTION v
[2Q. x7.J = 15 marks]
Attempt ANY TWO questions.
15. a. Describe the various kinds of columns used in GC. t4l

b. Explain UV-Visible absorption detector used in liquid chromatography. [3.5]
16. a. Write the role of different spectroscopic techniques that you studied in structure
elucidation. t4.51
b. List the difference between atomic spectroscopy and molecular spectroscopy. t31
t7 a. Write short note on sample handling techniques in IR. [3.5]

b. Differentiate between [2+2]
i. Finger print region and group frequency region.
ii. Single beam and double beam spectrophotometer.
.V
AprilAvlay 2023
Level : B.Sc. Course : MATH 304
Registration No.: Date .?$t?i?c?3
SECTION "A"
[10Q x 0'5:5 marks]
Fill in the blank space (s) by most appropriate word (s) or symbol (s).
l. ........method is used to find optimal solution of Assignment

problem.
2 Objective function of salesman problem is ...

a
J .is the time-consuming job or task that is a key subpart
ofthe total project.
4. If mean inter-arrival is 6 minutes and service time is distributed with mean 3 minutes
then probability that queue size exceeds 3 is
5. Maximizing assignment problem is solved by converting into minimizing assignment

problem by changing profit matrix into . . . cost.
6. tf LP-Problemis Maxtmize Z - l0 x1* 20x2 then 10 indicates
7. Objective function is parallel to one of the constraints giving the

......solution.
8 MaxtmizeZ - Sxt * 7x2 - Axt Subject to the constraints LLxl * LZx2 < 9 and
3x, * 9x2 * Zxs < t0 has dual objective function as
.
9. Full form of CPM is ...
l0 The seed number :37, m: 100, p:97 then first random number is 4 :
SECTION "B"
[l0Q x 0'5:5 marks]
Fill in the blank space (s) by choosing the most appropriate answer from among the given ones.
DO NOT TICK the answers.
1 l. In network analysis critical activity indicates
a. The activity can be delayed on earliest start time

b. The activity can be delayed on latest finishing time
c. The activity can be delayed on earliest Finish time
d. The activity can be delayed neither on earliest start time nor latest finishing time nor
on earliest Finish time
12. Degeneracy in linear programming occurs when
a. basic variables are positive but some of non-basic variables have negative values
b. The basic matrix is singular, it has no inverse
c. Some of basic variables have zero values
d. Some of non-basic variables have zero values
13. If m rows andn columns are in the transportation problem then total number of variables
are
a. m*n b. TLn c. Zmln d. m*Zn
14. In linear programming problem complementary slackness is about the relation
betweell .. r .. o .. . . . o ... ... ... ... o.. r. o r.. .. . . o. ... .. o
a. Number of primal variables and number of dual Constraints

b. Non-degenerate and de-generate
c. Number of primal constraints and number of dual variables
d. Basic primal variables and non-basic dual variables
15. The critical activity has all the floating \./
a. Zero c. Positive
b. Negative d. Not decisive
16. are obtained bv enrarging or
;;;;;;;; ;;;;;i,; il:
a. Analogue Models c. Iconic Models
b. Symbolic Models d. Numerical Models
17. ...does not relate to queueing model

a. Parameters c. Inter arrivals
b. Decision variables d. Poisson process
18. If an artificial variable in a final simplex- table of LP- problem has a non- zero value
then it indicates that the problem has .. . . ';. "u;;;il;';;i;il;
a. Multiple solutions
b. Feasible solution d. Infeasible solution
Y
19. Maximization assignment problem is transformed into aminimization problem by

a. Adding each entry in a column from the maximization value in that column
b. Subtracting each entry in a column from the maximum value in that column
c. Subtracting each entry in the table from the maximum value in that table
d. Above all at a time
20. In a queueing system one customer enter the line and wait for a while and becomes
impatience and decides to leave the queue as well as system is called
a. Jockey customer c. Reneging customer

b. Balking customer d. idle customer
KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY a A/,rl
I :i;.! 'ii''.it
AprilAvlaY 2023 I R
L! iti
Level : B.Sc.
Course ' I\4ATH 304
Semester : I
Year : III
F.M. :50
SECTION "C"
" [3Q 7:21 marks]
1 The LP-problem Maximize Z=2x1* 3x2 * 4xs subject to the constraints 171
3x1* xs* 4x3 < 600,

2x1*4x2*Zxs > 480,
2x1* 3x2-* 3xg _ 540 ,X1,X2,r, ) 0 has following optimal table
cj 23 400
CB B xn, X1 x3s S2
0 S1 60 413 0 0 1 -312
3 X2 60 U3 I 0 0 -U2
5 X3 L2A U3 0 I 0 U2
Zi sl33s01
zj-cj 213 0 t0l
i. State whether the solution is non-degenerate or degenerate?
ii. Find new objective function value when second resource is increased by unit amount
iii. Find new obJective function value when x1 is forced into solution
iv. Value of s, = 60 in B-column, what does it mean?
v. State the solution set from the table.
vi. Does the problem have another optimal solution? Give reason.
vii. State dual solution of the problem.
2. What is the use of network diagram? A sociologist plans a questionnaire survey,

consisting of the following taslis: ll+2+2+21
,4,
Activity Description Predecessors to tm tp
(days) (days) (days)
A Design of questionnaire 2 4 5
B Sampling design 5 6 7
C Testing of questionnaire and A 4 5 6

refinements
D Recruiting for interviewers B I 3 5
E Training of interviewers D,A 2 2 2
F Allocation of areas of B 6 7 8
interviewer
G Conducting intervieL C,E,F 7 8 9
H Evaluation of results G 8 l0 t2
i. Draw the network diagram of the project

ii. Find the expected length of the project
iii. What is thaprobabitity ttrat the project will be completed at least 4 days earlier than
expected time?
3 Artificial variables are fictitious variables that have not any physical meaning even
though it is used in solving the LP problem why? Solve the following LP-problem by
using Big-M method: Maximizez = 3xr 2x2 Srs subject to * - constrains
[l+6]
x1* x2 1 2;
2xt* x2 * 6xs 1 6;
xt-xz*3r3-0
X1,X2,XZ ) 0
OR
Optimal solution of LP-problem is not unique justiff it. Find two solutions of the
following LP- problem:
MinimizeZ - Zxt * 8x2 Subject to the constrains ll+6I
5r1 * x220
2x1*2x2> L4'
x1*4x2>L2;
XyX2, 2 0
v
SECTION *D"
[5Q'5=25 marks]
4. In a single channel queuing system random numbers for arrivals of customers are :
12,59,81,72,38, and random numbers for services of customers are: 71, 14,53,73,88.
System starts at l0:00 AM and using Monte- Carlo simulation for the queuing system.
Find
i. Mean queue length.
ii. Mean service time of a customer.
iii. Mean idle time of server.
iv. Mean number of customers waiting in the queue.
v. Mean time spent in the system.
vi. Percentage of time that the server remains busy.
Inter-arrival time (min) Probabilitv Service time (min) Probabilitv

5 0.30 9 0.25
I 0. l5 5 0.35 \/
l0 0.45 4 0.20
4 0.05 7 0. l5
2 0.05 2 0. l0
5 What is the key objective of assignment problem? A company has.four machines that are
to be used for three jobs. Each job can be assigned to one and only one machine. The cost
of each job on each machine is given in the following table: What are the optimal job
assignment pairs that minimize the cost?
I II III IV
A l8 24 28 32
B 8 l3 l7 l8
C l0 l5 19 22
OR
A salesman travels from one place to another, he cannot,however,travel from one place
and back , also he is not allowed to visit twice .The distances (in Km) between pairs of
cities are given below :Find the optimal routing schedule so that the total distance
covered by him is minimum. Give minimum distance also.
P 0 R S
P l5 25 20
0 22 45 55
R 40 30 25
S 2A 26 38
6. There is a speed-gun inspection stall of traffrc police in the Sallaghari road section.
System can accommodate 4 motorcycle at one time .The arrival pattern is Poisson with a
mean of I motorcycle every minute. The inspection time is exponential with mean of 6
minutes per motorcycle (a) Find expected number of motorcycle waiting in queue.(b)
probability that traffic police is idle. 12.5+2.51
7 The production of a certain manufacturing firm involves a machining process that

acquires raw materials and then converts them into (unassembled) parts. These parts are
then sent to one of the two divisions for being assembly into the final product. Division I
is used for product A, and Division 2 for product B. Product A requires 40 units of raw
material and 10 hours of machine processing time. Product B requires 80 units of raw
material and 4 hours of machine processing time. During the period, 800 units of raw
material and 80 hours of machine processing time are available. The capabilities of the
two assembly divisions during the period are 6 and 9 units respectively. The profit
contribution per unit to profit and overhead (fixed cost) is of Rs.200 for each unit of
product A and Rs.l20 for each unit of product B. With this information, (a) Formulate
this problem as linear programming model (b) Determine the optimal level of output for
the two products using the graphicalmethod. 12.5+2.51
8. Find optimal solution of following maximization transportation: t5l
A B C D Supply
x /rl
J I 7 4 200
Y 2 6 5 9 400
a a
Z 8 3 J 2 s00
Demand 2s0 3s0 400 2AA
SECTION "E"
t2Q x2-4 marksl
9 Differentiate between CPM and PERT with one example of each.
10. Convert following transportation problem into Assignment problem:
A B C Supply
x 2 4 6 7
a
Y 9 l0 J 8
Demand 3 5 7
,A\
KT{THMANDU UNIVERSITY Marks Scored:
AprilAvlzY,2023
Year : III Semestei :I
Dare 2
q Aii :;j3
Registration No.:
SECTION "A"
[20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marks]
Encircle the most appropriate option.
1. Landsat program began in

a. 1972 b. 2003 c. 1973 d. 1937
Z. A sensor's ability to determine fine differences in a band of energy measurements is a

sensor's .
a. Spectral resolution b. Spatial resolution

c. Radiometric resolution d. Temporal resolution
3 GIS can help to the different driving factors in case of hazard analysis.
a. process b. store c. integrate d. visualtze
4. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

a. An increase of phytoplankton increases the backscattering in the gteen region.
b. An increase of phytoplankton decreases the backscattering in the green region.
c. Phytoplankton contains photo-synthetically active pigment.
d. An increase of phytoplankton absorbs the blue region rapidly.
A 5. Vector data .
a. consume large storage space b. are discrete

c. depict various themes d. are continuous
6. Which of the following is necessary for studying DEM?

a. Soil Moisture Estimation b. Ground Water Analysis
c. Watershed Management d. Land Cover Changes
7 The key of interpretation which gives an idea of the profile and relative height of an object
a. shape b. tone c. pattern d. shadow
8. Radiometric eror in an image is introduced due to

a. the brightness of the image b. the curvature of the earth
c. emission frorn the surface d. sensor properties
9 Which among these governs the relationship between various vector features in a map?
a. Map scale b. Pixel size c. Topology d. Map Coordinates
10 Snatial relationshio can best be defined as
a. Associations of technology and exploration on geography
b. The relationship between things that are far apart
c. Recurring patterns of things in connection with other things
d. The relationship between things in one specific area
1 1. The logarithmic Contrast Stretching is mostly used for the
a. brighter parts of images b. darker parts of images
c. higher difference in levels
grey d. lower difference in grey levels
12. Environmental GIS describes the use of

a. data on atmospheric absorption of radiation
b. electromagnetic energy in very specific regions
c. location-based data management tools to assist in the decision-making processes
d. electromagnetic energy in wide regions \./
13. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a. 'Fields' are geographic phenomena that occur everywhere in study area.
b. 'Objects' are geographic phenomena-.that occur 'densely' in study area.
c. Fields can be continuous or discrete.
d. Objects can be classified based on location, shape, size and orientation.
14. Which is the first fundamental step in image processing?
a. Filtration b. Image acquisition
c. Image enhancement d. Image restoration
15. The orbit of a polar satellite is

a. elliptical b. spherical c. helical d. circular
r6 scattering will be more prominent in a polluted environment.

a. Rayleigh b. Mie c. Non-Selective d. Raman
\-/
l'7 . The spectral range of NIR region in the EMS is
a. 700 - 900 nm b. 700 - 1250 nm
c. 700 - 1500 nm d. 700 - 2000 nm
18. The instruments which provide electromagnetic radiation of specified wavelength or a band
of wavelengths to illuminate the earth surface, are called
a. Passive Sensors b. Active sensors c. Sensors d. Flash gun
19. Which among these can be an active medium of Remote Sensing?

a. Eye b. Radiometer c. Radar d. Digital Camera
24. A sensor that will be measuring only one wide band of wavelength is which type of
sensor?
a. Panchromatic sensor b. Multispectral sensor
c. Hyperspectral sensor d. Radiometric sensor
AprilAvl&Y,2023
26 Aii ?l?3

Semester : I
Year : III
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins. F. M. '.40
SECTION "B"
[4Q. x 10 = 40 marks]
AttemptALL questions.
1. a. example.
Eye is analogous to the Remote Sensing. Explain with suitable t3l
b. Write in short about the history of aerial photographs. 12)
c. Describe briefly how Electromagnetic Radiation interacts with the environment. t51
2. a. What is DEM? Explain its importance in Watershed Management. t1+41
b. Explain the different data formats in GIS. t5l
3. a. Why Atmospheric Window is important in the Remote Sensing? Explain with neat
figure. tsl
b. Explain role of the Remote Sensing to monitor land use changes. t3l
c. Explain linear contrast enhancement. t2)
4. a. What is an orbit of the Satellite? Explain Geosynchronous orbits with their advantages
in our daily life. [l+4]
b. How Visual Image Interpretation helps for better understanding the image? Explain
with suitable figures. t5l
,A\
,A\
ApriUMay 2023
Level : B.E. Course : CHEG 311
-;,1 ?i??
Registration No.: Date ,? $
f,
j1i |.\.r1. U
SECTION "A"
[20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marks]
1. Petroleum liquid fuels having flash point greater than 66'C is considered as safe during
storage and handling. Which of the following has flash point > 66"C?
a. Naptrttra b. Petrol c. Kerosene d. Heavy fuel oil
Z. Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) is mainly a mixture of

a. Propane & butane b. Methane & ethane
c High boiling olefins d. High boiling naphthenes
3 Dearomatization of kerosene (by liquid sulphur dioxide extraction) is done to

a. Increase its smoke point b.Improve its oxidation stability
c. Decrease the breathing loss d. None of these
4 In edible oil processing, Stripping solvent off a meal is called

a. Buttering b. Toasting c. dehulling d. Coking
5 Plastic tubes & pipes are generally made by moulding

a. Injection b. Transfer c. Extrusion d. Compression
6. In edible oil refining, oil is

,}^
a. Dehulled / Pressed / Extracted / Filtered / Centrifuged / Packed
b. De-acidified / Steam blown through oil in vacuum / Packed
c. Filterdd / Centrifuged, De-acidified / Steam blown through oil in vacuum
d. Steam blown through oil with activated charcoal & filtered
7 Where does saponification take place in 'continuous soap making process'?

a. Hydrolysis tower b. Blender c. Vacuum Still d. Mixer
8. Which one of the following additive converts yellow glycerin into sweet water?
a. Potash b. Activated charcoal
builders
c. Detergent d. Caustic soda
9 The organic acid monomer in nylon-66 is .
a. Sebacic acid b. Terephthalic acid c. Adipic acid d. Benzoic acid
10. Which of the following statement is IVRONG?

a. Wet strength can be increased by sizing the paper with dialdehyde starch
b. Coloring can be done by water insoluble pigments
c. White water cannot be reused
d. Calendaring is done to improve the quality of paper
11. Which of the following indicates 'continuous process for soap production'?
a. Mixer ) blender ) vacuum still ) hydrolysis tower
b. Vacuum still ) hydrolysis tower ) blender )mixer
c. Hydrolysis tower ) blender ) vacuum still ) mixer
d. Hydrolysis tower ) vacuum still ) mixer ) blender
12. Which catalyst is used in the hydrogenation of edible oils?

a. Activated platinum b. Activated nickel
c. Activated rhodium d. Activated palladium
13. Pulp suitable for producing high strength bleached paper is obtained by
a. Bleached GWP )Oxidizing b. Semi-chemical ) bleached
c. Chemical pulping )bleached d. Recycled fiber )bleached
14. Percentage of alcohol in wine is range of

a.3.8-8.87o b. 9.5-15.27o c.38-42Vo d. above 957o
v
15. Which evaporator is used to concentrate the clarified juice obtained in extraction of
sugarcane to produce white crystalline sugar?
a. Open pan evaporators b. Multiple effect evaporators
c. Vacuum evaporators d. Agitated film evaporators
1,6. What is the percentage of starch in matze kernels?

l5-27%o b. 30-35 c. 60-657o d.70-857o
t7 Tetra-ethyl lead is added in gasoline to

a. Increase its smoke point b. Reduce gum formation
c. Reduce the pour point d. Increase its octane number
18. Fillers such as zinc oxide and carbon black are added to the crude natural rubber before
vulcanisation in order to improve its
a. Elasticity b. Strength
c. Plasticity d. Weathering characteristics
--
19. Tyres ffe made by .
a. Injection molding b. Extrusion

c. Rotational molding
-. d. Compression molding
20.. In case of dry spinning.of polymers, the polymer solution in a volatile solVent is forced
through the ipinnerut r into a wilm air chamber, rvhere the solvent evaporatei leaving
behind the polymer in the filament form. Dry spinning is used for fibres.
a. Polythene b. PVC c. Rayon d. Polyvinyl acetate
-
2$ t';'i
April/May 2023
Time :2brs. 30 mins. F. M. :40
..B"
SECTION
[4Q.x 5 =20 marks]
Attempt ANY F OUR questions.
1. Explain the steps involved in production of starch powder from corn.
Z. Explain the steps involved in production of refined peanut oil using solvent extraction
method.
3. Explain in detail about the processes involved in preprocessing of crude oil before feeding
to ADU.
4. Explain the steps involved in production of raw rubber.
5. Explain the steps involved in production of raw nylon.
SECTION "C''
[5Q.x 4 =20 marks]
Attempt ANY FIVE questions.
6. What is bleached pulp? Explain process steps to achieve bleached pulp.
7 . Draw block diagram of processes involved in production of 'Beer from grain'.
8. Draw block diagram of process involved in 'production of detergent'.
9. Explain various techniques used in synthetic fiber production.
10. Write about use of hydration and hydrolysis in ethanol production.
ll. Define polymerization. Explain about various polymerization techniques? Give an
. example of polymerized product.

/\
2^\
April/IU?Y,2023
Level : B.Sc. Course : ESEE 305
Semester : I
Year : III
Exam Roll No.: Time: 30 mins. F.M :2O
?i?3
Registration No.:
..A"
Date t$ f"?t
SECTION
[20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marks]
se"ln
Mark in the appropriate box.
1. The transmission of is influenced by meteorological conditions including

rainfall and humidity and often exhibits strong seasonality.
[ ]Dengue [ ]Meningitis [ ]Measles [ ]Tetanus
2. can develop quickly, sometimes in just a few minutes and without any
visible signs of rain.
[ ]Fastfloods [ ]Rapidflood [ ]Flashfloods [ ]FlushFlood
3 is the popu lation, buildings and civil engineering works, economic

activities, public services, utilities and infrastructure, etc at risk in a given atea.
I I Environmentalhazard t I Risk
t I Vulnerability t I Elernents at risk (E)
4 Meteoroids are generally exploded in an aerial burst in the atmosphere at an altitude

between km, or collide with earth.
t l15and80 l1l2and50 t l30and70 t l50and90
5. is degree of loss (range from 0%o, tro damage to l0A7o, total loss).
l Environmentalhazard I I Risk
l Vulnerability t I Elements at risk (E)
... :l
6. is the mixing of sand or soil and groundwater during the shaking of a moderate
or strong earthquake.
[ ]Liquiation [ ]Liquefaction [ ]Liquilization [ ]Liquefraction
-event
7 An of June 30, 1908, shortly after Tamin Siberia, Observing a blue-white fireball
with a glowing tail descending from the sky is known as
t I The Tunguska event t I The fireball event
t I The Yellow stone event t I The Tung Tista event
8. Drought can occur by improper distribution of in time and space, and not
just by its amount.
i lflood [ ]rain [ ]snowfalt t ldust
9 are like small tsunamis. -

I I Seiches t I Sesiches I I Schiie I I Shichite
10. A localized depression in the surface topography, usually caused by the collapse of a
subterranean structure, such as a cave is
[ ]Sinkerhole [ ]Sinkhole [ ]Sinkaihole [ ]Holesink
11. An outbreak of a contractible disease that spreads at a rapid rate through a human
population
[ ]Epidemic [ ]NAET [ ]Meningitis [ ]Tetanus
12. Frozen water and/or carbon dioxide plus small rock fragments and dust like a "dirty
smowball" core is called
[ ]Comet [ ]Meteorite [ ]Meteor [ ]Asteroid
13. There were more than 73,000 snow shoveling-related injuries treated at hospital emergency
rooms, doctors' offices and clinics in each year in
[ ]Canada t IUS t lNepal [ ]India
Y
14. Mathematics, that has been set by the Indian Meteorological Division (IMD) for identifying
the
t I drought t J volcano t learthquake t llandslide
15 ts a phenomenon where the sun suddenly releases a great amount of solar

radiation, much more than normal.
[ ]Solarstorm [ ]Solarflare [ ]Solarblizzard [ ]Solartornado
16. The term Tsunami has been derived from a term Tsu meaning 'harbor'and nami
meaning'waves'.
[ ]Chinese [ ]Japanese [ ]American [ ]Italian
t7 ThePTWCisabletoalertcountriesseveralhoursbeforethe-strikes.
[ ]landslide [ ]volcano [ ]earthquake [ ]tsunami
18. Wild fire scientists and firefighter classify fire behavior according to the layer of
that is allowing the fire spread. .V
[ ]soil [ ]fuel [ ]rain [ ]wind
19. The second main earthquake hazard is ground displacement (ground movement) along a
t I fold t I coast t I ridge I I fault
20. A meteoroid entering the atmosphere at about

-o
km above Earth's surface will
become a meteor with emitting the light.
t l6s t l7s t l8s t les
..B"
SECTION
[20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marks]
56P' for false.

Mark 6(T" for true and
2l . In 1995 the US National OcOanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) began

developing the Deep Ocean Assessment and Reporting of Tsunami (DART) system. t l
2 0 ii,i 2i13
Astronomers group Asteroids, Meteoroids, and Comets on the basis of diameter and
composition. t l
On a yearly basis,70 to 75 damaging volcanoes occur throughout the world. t l

Local tsunami events or those less than 30 minutes from the source cause the majority of
damage. t l
A supravolcano is an eruption which is thousands of times lesser than a normal eruption.

tl
Social drought is form of drought occurs when moisture level in soil is insufficient to
maintain average crop yields. t l
An earthquake is a sudden, rapid shaking of the Earth caused by the breaking and shifting
,,\ of soil beneath the Earth's surface. t l
There are a significant number of meteorite craters on the surface of Earth, and more than
170 have been identified. t l
Drought is basically caused by deficit rainfall, which is a meteorological phenomenon.
tl
During a wildfire, plant tissue and other organic material is rapidly oxidized and broken
down by combustion, or burning. t l
Most of the hazards to people come from disasters are caused by natural structures itself.
tl
Anthropogenic hazard is a threatening event, or the probability of occurrence of a
potentially damaging phenomenon naturally within a given time period and an area. t l
Drought is negative balance between precipitation and water use (through evaporation,
,.^ transpiration by plants, domestic and industrial uses etc) in a geographical region. t l
The tsunamis travel much slower than ordinary waves. tl

Snow shoveling can pose threats to the leg and knee, ifproper precautions are not taken.
tl
Source of infection is more likely to be the killed people than survivors by the natural
disaster. t l
Sudden numbers of dead bodies in the disaster-affected area can fuel fears of outbreaks.
tl
The first main volcano hazard is the effect of ground shaking. t l
The state of Bihar in India which receives more than 3000 mm of rainfall every year is
declared drought affected as it is insufficient to have two good crops. t l
Wildfire is a self-sustaining, rapid, high-temperature biochemical oxidation reaction that
releases heat, light and other products. t l
A
,A\
End Semester Examination tcl j'";-ii
April/Tvl ?y,2423
?0 i*'13
Level : B.Sc. Course : ESEE 305

..C"
SECTION
[3Q.x7 -21 marks]
Attempt ANY THREE questions.
1 If your home village is close to a forest, how will you manage the wildfire hazards during
dry season? Make a list of actions you can undertake to protect yourself as well as your
home and community.
/.^
2. Why is natural disaster management important for maintaining Earth's environmental
sustainability? Discuss challenges for effective management in developing countries like
Nepal.
3 Discuss different ways of prevention of communicable diseases during post disaster

management phase.
4. What is a seismic hazard? What could we do for minimizing impacts and damages if an
earthquake similar in intensity to Gorkha Earthquake 2015 occurs again? Please write
precisely.
SECTION "D"
5. Write short note on (ANY FOUR) [4Q.x4= 16marks]

a. Techniques of assessment in disaster response phase
,,\ b. Mitigation measures for flood during monsoon
c. Poverty and vulnerability
d. Role of information dissemination in disaster management
e. Atmospheri c Hazards
6 Differentiate between (ANY FOUR) [4Q.x3=I?marks]

a. Rbconstruction and Relief
b. Meteor and comet
c. Hazard and total risk
d. Snowfall and Blizzards
e. Creep and Slump
7 Discuss in the following terms (ANY THREE) [3Q.x2-6marks]
a. Tornado
b. Post flood impacts
c. Impact Hazards
d. Drought mathematics
.-\
l t'-
End Semester Examination tCI li -'t ?ui3
AprilAvlay 2023 ?B i1l .\
Level : B.Sc. Course : COMP 317

..C"
SECTION
[3Q " 7:21 marks]
1 Diet for a sick person must contain at least 4,000 units of vitamins, 50 units of minerals
and 1,400 caloiies. Two foods A and B are available at a cost Rs.4 and Rs.3 per unit
respectively. If one unit of A contains 200 units of vitamins, lunits of mineral and 40
callries and one units of B contains 100 units of vitamins, 2 units of minerals and 40
calories, find by graphical method what combinations of foods be used to have the least
cost?
OR
Show that for maximizing linear programming problem the feasible optimal solution
always exists in the vertex of the feasible region.
2. In Chame's Big-M method of solving LP problem, why the Big M is called penalty? By
using this method find the optimal solution of the following LP problem:
Mtnimize Z = 4xt * 12 Subject to the constraints
3x1* xz = 3
4x1*3x2> 6
x1* 2x2 I 3
X7'X2) 0
3. Explain types of simulation. In a single channel queuing system random numbers for
arrivals of customers are 99,05,16,,21,74,68 and random numbers for services of
customers are: 17,80,88,,34,76,68, and using Monte Carlo simulation for the queuing
System starts at 7:00 AM and Probability of arriving and servicing is given in the table
below: Find l7l
i. Mean queue length.
ii. Mean inter arrival time of a customer
iii. Mean service time of a customer.
iv. Mean idle time of server.
v. Mean time that a.customer spends in the sys.tem
vi. Percentage of the time during which server remains idle
Inter-arrival Probability Service Probability

time (min) time (min)
8 4.25 7 0.35
4 0.40 6 0.30
2 0.15 9 0.05
9 0.20 l0 0.30
SECTION "D"
[5Q"5-25marks]
4. A manufacturer has distribution centers located at Butwal, Biratnagar and Pokhara. These
centers have an available 40,20,40 units of the product respectively. His retail outlets at
A, B, C, D and E require 25,10,20,30, and 15 units of the products respectively. The
shipping cost per unit (in rupees between each center and outlet is given in the following
table: t5l
Distribution Retail outlets

center AB C D E
Butwal 55 30 40 50 40
Pokhara 3s 30 r00 45 60
Biratnagar 40 60 95 35 30
v
Find the optimal units of goods that can be distributed over retailers from distribution
centers so as to minimize the shipping cost.
5 By using the Simplex method, find the optimal solution of the following LP-problem:
Mintmize Z = xr - 3xz * 3x3 Subject to the constraints t5l
3xr- x2 * Zxs < 7
2x1* 4x2> -LZ
-4x1*3x2* 8x3 < 10
X1,X2,X3 2 0
OR
Findoptimarsorutionotf oilow.rl,srrr*_rly:*yrx',llir11.j;simplexmethod: tsl
x1*x2 > L; 2x1*3x2 >2 ,xr,xz20

6. A barber shop has space to accommodate only 5 customers. He can serve only one person
"Y
at a time. [f a customer comes to his shop and finds it full goes to next shop. Customers
randomly arrive at al average rate of l0 per hour and the barber's service time is
exponential with an average of 5 minutes per customer. Find 12.5+2.51
(a) Probability that the barber is idle
(b) Average number of customers in the system
7 Discuss CPM of the network analysis? tlI

Consider the following information.
Activity l-2 l-3 2-6 3-4 3-5 4-6 5-6 5-7 6-7
Timeindays4 6 8 7 4 6 5 l9 t0
(a) Draw the network diagram of the following information t21

(b) Find the expected duration of completion of project tu
(c) Find free floating of non-critical activities tu
8. A team of 5 horses and 5 riders has entered a jumping show contest. The number of
penalty points to be expected when each rider rides any horse is shown below. Find the
bptimum assignment of horses to the riders so as to minimize the expected loss of the
team? Also find expected minimum loss. t5l
Rr Rz Rl R4 Rs
Hr 5 3 4 7 1
Hz 2 3 7 6 5
Hl 4 I 5 2 4
a
H+ 6 8 1 2 J
Hs 4 2 5 7 1
SECTION "E"
t2Q x2-4marksl
g. Differentiate between Linear programming problem and integer programming problem.
10. Discuss redundancy in constraints.

,.^
r r"I; n^'1
AprilA4aY 2023 2$ [;-i i" "J
Semester : I
Year : III
SECTION "C"
[3Q * 7:21 marks]
Diet for a sick person must contain at least 4,000 units of vitamins, 50 units of
minerals
1
Rs.4 and Rs.3 per unit
and 1,400 caloiies. Two foods A and B are available at a cost
respectively. If one unit of A contains 200 units of vitamins, lunits of mineral
and 40
40
calfries *d on. units of B contains 100 units of vitamins, 2 units of minerals and
to have the least
calories, find by graphical method what combinations of foods be used
cost?
.r1, OR
Show that for maximizing linear programming problem the feasible optimal solution
always exists in the vertex of the feasible region.
In Chame's Big-M method of solving LP problem, why the Big M is called penalty?
By
2
using this method find the optimal solution of the following LP problem:
Nltntmtze Z = 4xt * 12 Subject to the constraints
3x1* xz = 3
4x1*3x2> 6
x1* 2x2 I 3
X1,X2) $
3 Explain types of simulation. In a single channel queuing system random numbers for
arrivals of customers are 99,05,16,,21,74,68 and random numbers for services of
customers are: 17,80,88,,34,76,68, and using Monte Carlo simulation for the queuing
System starts at 7100 AM and Probability of arriving and servicing is given in the table
below: Find 171
i. Mean queue lengh.
ii. Mean inter arrival time of a customer
iii. Mean service time of a customer.
iv. Mean idle time of server.
v. Mean time that a.customer spends in the syslem
vi. Percentage of the time during which server remains idle
Inter-arrival Probability Service Probability
time (min) time (min)
8 0.25 7 0.35
4 0.40 6 0.30
2 0.15 9 0.05
9 0.20 10 0.30
SECTION ..D"
[5Q*5-25marks]
4. A manufacturer has distribution centers located at Butwal, Biratnagar and Pokhara. These
centers have an available 40,20,40 units of the product respectively. His retail outlets at
A, B, c, D and E require 25, 10,20,30, and 15 units of the products respectively. The
shipping cost per unit (in rupees between each center and outlet is given in the following
table: t5l
Distribution Retail outlets

center AB C D E
Butwal 55 30 40 50 40
Pokhara 35 30 100 45 60
Biratnagar 40 60 9s 35 30
Find the optimal units of goods that can be distributed over retailers from distribution v
centers so as to minimize the shipping cost.
5 By using the Simplex method, find the optimal solution of the following LP-problem:
Minimize Z = xt - 3xz * 3x, Subject to the constraints t5l
3xt-x2*,Zxr17
2x1* 4x2> -LZ
-4x1*3x2* 8x3 < 10
X1,X2,X3 2 0
OR
Find optimal solution of following LP- problem by using dual - simplex method: tsl
Minimi.ze Z = 3xt * x2 subject to
x1*x2 > L; 2x1*3x2 >2 ,x1,x220
6. A barber shop has space to accommodate only 5 customers. He can serve only one person
at a time. [f a customer comes to his shop and finds it full goes to next shop. Customers v
randomly arrive at an average rate of 10 per hour and the barber's service time is
exponential with an average of 5 minutes per customer. Find 12.5+2.5)
(a) Probability that the barber is idle
(b) Average number of customers in the system
7 Discuss CPM of the network analysis? tu

Consider the following information.
Activity l-2 I -3 2-6 3-4 3-5 4-6 5-6 5-7 6-7
Timeindays4 6 8 7 4 6 5 19 l0
(a) Draw the network diagram of the following information 12)

(b) Find the expected duration of completion of project tll
(c) Find free floating of non-critical activities tll
?6 fi;t ?ui3
8. A team of 5 horses and 5 riders has entered a jumping show contest. The number of
penalty points to be expected when each rider rides any horse is shown below. Find the
optimum assignment of horses to the riders so as to minimize the expected loss of the
t-eam? Also find expected minimum loss. t5l
Rr Rz Rr R+ Rs
Hr 5 3 4 7 1
Hz 2 3 7 6 5
Hl 4 1 5 2 4
F)
H+ 6 8 1 2 J
Hs 4 2 5 7 1
(CE))
SECTION
[2Qt2=4marks]
9 Differentiate between Linear programming problem and integer programming problem.
10. Discuss redundancy in constraints.

,4.
A
Marks Scored:
April/Tvl&y,2023
Level : B.E./B.Sc. Course : COMP 315
Exam Roll No. Time: 30 mins. F.M. :10
:
a ?023
Registration No.: Date 2 ,B 'ri'i
C(A))
SECTION
[20Q' x 0'5 = l0 marks]
Mark [x] for the most appropriate alternative or fill in the blanks.
l. On a Karnaugh map, grouping the 0s produces

.a [ ] aproduct-of-sumsexpression [ ] a"don'tcare condition"
[ ]asum-of-productsexpression [ ]AND-ORlogic
Z. When an inverter is placed between both inputs of an SR flip flop, the resulting flip flop is:
t lJKflipflop t lDfliPfloP
I t r flip flop [ ] Master slave JK flip flop
3. The m-bit parallel adder consists of

[ ] (m+l) tull adders I lml2 full adders
[ ] m-l tull adders [ ] m tull adders
4. In 4 bit binary counter with parallel load and synchronous clear, when clock pulses are
applied to the Clock terminal, Clear input is 0, Load and lncrement input is 1, what
operation will it perform?
[ ] No change [ ] Increment Counter by 1
[ ] Load inputs [ ] Clear outPuts to 0
5. What is the binary code for a decimal digit 6 in Excess-3 code?
t 10110 [ ]1100 [ ]1001 [ ]1101
6. The decimal number (-34)ro is expressed in 2's complement form as

[ ]0l0l1ll0 [ ]10100010 t l1l0llll0 [ ]0l0lll0
7 The representation of (-17)ro in ANSI 32-bit floating point numbers in byte format is
[ ] 00000101 10001000 00000000 00000000
[ ] 10000100 01000100 00000000 00000000
I I 10001011 10001000 00000000 00000000
[ ] 10000101 10001000 00000000 00000000
8 How many decoders are required to construct a common bus for k registers of n bits each
using 3-state buffers?
t Ik [ ]k+l [ ]n [ ]n+l
9 Which operation sets to I the bits in register A where there is corresponding l's in
the register B?
[ ] Selectiveclear [
] Selective set
[ ]SelectiveComplement ]Insert [
10 In basic computer instruction formats, if opcode field contains I 1 1, it is
instruction.
a. Memory-reference
b. Register-reference
c.Input-output
t Ja t Ib t lc t laorb
I l. In Increment and Skip if Zero instruction, the RTL at the execution cycle at T4 is
[ ] DoT+: PC-AR, AR-AR+I
[ ] DoT+: M [AR] .-PC, AR*AR+I
[ ] DoT+:DR-M [AR]
[ ] DoTc: DR*M [AR], AR*AR+I
12. In which addressing the operand is actually present in instruction

[ ]Registerdirect [ ]Direct [ ]Immediate [ ]Relative \J
13. The infix expression (A* (B I C) + D)has reverse polish notation equivalent to:
t IABC/*D+ t IABC*/D+ t IABC/D*+ t IABC/D+*
14. Consider the two 8-bit numbers A=01000001 and B: 10000100. Add the two binary
numbers assuming that the numbers are represented in 2's complement form. After
performing add operation which conditional branch instruction will have true condition?
I I Branch if Zero [
] Branch if overflow
[ ] Branch if minus [
] Branch if carry
15. What is done between multiplicand and partial product in booth's algorithm, when we
, encounter the first least significant I in a string of I's in the multiplier?
[ ]Addition [ ]Subtraction [ ]Nothing [ ]Logicalshiftright
16 In bin ary division the sign of the remainder is same as the sign of ..
t lquotient t ldividend t ldivisor t ] sequence counter

\./
17. During DMA acknowledgement cycle, CPU relinquishes
t ] Control, status, data output, data input
t ] Data input, dataoutput, status, control
t ] Control, flug, data output, address
t ] Data input, data output, status bit, address
,.Seek disk", the given command belongs to
18. a given record on a magnetic
[ ] Control command [ ] Status command
[ ] Data input command [ ] Logical command
19. Cache memory works on the principle of:

[ ] Locality of data [ ] Locality of reference
[ ] Locality of memory [ ] Locality of reference & memory
20. How many 128 x 8 RAM chips are needed to provide a memory capacity of 2048 bytes?
t12 tl8 tl4 []16
KATHMANDU UNIVERSTTY
e$
tir tl23
April/May,2023
Level : B.E. lB.Sc. Course : COMP 315
658"
[6Q't 4:24 marks]

Attempt ANY SIX questions.
l. Differentiate between computer organization and computer architecture? Describe about

two different types ofROIris? 12+21
2. What are the advantage of Signed 2's complement representation over Signed magnitude
representation and SigneO l's complement representation? Derive the circuits for a 3-bit
parity generator and 4--bit parity checker using an even-paritybit? [l+3]
3. Design an arithmetic circuit with one selection variable S and two n-bit data inputs A and
g. fhe circuit generates the following four arithmetic operations in conjunction with the
input carry Cio. Draw the logic diagram of first 2 MSB's'
S -0 Cir:1
1 D-A-l (Decrement) D-A+B'+ I (Subtract)
0 D-A+B(Ado D-A+l(Increment)
4. Describe the complete instruction cycle for the basic computer while executing an
instruction ISZ Qnuement and Skip dzero) with a suitable flowchart?
5. Describe two different types of CPU organization? A two-word instruction is stored in

memory at an address designated by the symbol W. The address field of an instruction
(stored at W+1) is designated by the symbol Y. The operand used during the execution of
the instruction is stored at an address symbolizedby Z. An index register contains the
value X. State how Z is calculated from the other addresses if the addressing mode of the
instruction is a) Immediate b) Indirect c) Relative d)Indexed 12+21
6. Explain the priority intemrpt handling using daisy chaining.
7. A digital computer has a memory unit of 64K x 16 and cache memory of lK words. The
cache uses direct mapping with a block size of four words.
a. How many bits are there in the tag, index, block, and word fields of the address
format?
b. How many words are bits are there in each word of cache, ahd how are they divided
into ftrnctions? Include a valid bit.
c. How many blocks can the cache accommodate?
SECTION "C"
[2Q. 8 - 16 marksJ
'
AttemptlIZ questions.
- 8. Explain with flowchart for adding and subtracting two fixed-point binary numbers using
signed magnitude representation? Show the step-by-step division process using 2's
complement division algorithm for performing (-17)ro / (-5)ro. 14+41
9. What are the fundamental differences between strobe pulse method and handshaking
method? With necessary figures and RTL, discuss the Fetch, Decode and Execute cycle
of ADD and ISZ. [3+5]
,*.
KATHMAI{DU UNIVERSITY Marks Scored:
April/M?Y,2A23
Level : B.E./El.Tech. Course : CIEG 305
Semester : I
Year : III
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins F.M. :10
r:i
,fi .t
11? l
L|t.'.r)
No.: Date ? B
SECTION "A"
[20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marksJ
,.^ l. The strain energy stored in a simply supported beam of span 'I' and flexural rigidity 'EI'
due to a central concentrated load 'w' is
-b.-wzlz wz 13 - w2l2
a.
wz13
C.-96Et d.-
48EI 48EI 96EI
2. Maximum energy that a given component can absorb without undergoing any permanent
deformation upto elastic limit is known as
a. proof resilience b. resilience c. hardness d. toughness
3. A cantilever beam, 2 mm in length, is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 5 Kn/m.

-.
if E = 200 GPa and I = 1000 cm4, the strain energy stored in the beam will be
a.7Nm b. 12Nm c'8Nm d'10Nm
4. Which of the following is carried by truss members?

-.
a. flexural load b. bending load c. axial load d. shear load
5. Which of the following methods of structural analysis is a force method?

a. three-moment equation b. slope deflection method
/1
c. column analogy method d. moment distribution method
6. An arch may be subjected to
a. shear and axial force b. bending moment and shear force
c. bending moment and axial force d. shear force, thrust, and bending moment
7 What is the SI unit of stiffness coefficient?
a. m/kN b. kN/m c. kN d. m
8. For a beam carrying a UDL, the strain energy will be maximum in case the beam is
-.
a. cantilever b. simPlY suPPorted
c. propped cantilever d. fixed at both ends
9. Strain energy per unit volume that a material can absorb without exceeding its proportional
limit is called
a. strain hardening b. shear modulus of material
c. material
bulk modulus of d. modulus of resilience
10. Cable in a suspension bridge supports load mainly by
a. shear b. bending c. torsion d. tension
-.
11. Beam composed of more than one material rigidly connected together so as to behave as
a single piece are known as _.
a. Compound beams b. Determinate beams
c. Flexural beams d. Composite beams
12. A three-hinged parabolic arch of span 20 m and rise 4m carries a concentrated load of 150
kN at 4m from the left support 'A'. Calculate the vertical reaction and the horizontal thrust,
respectively at support'A'.
a. Vn = 40 kN and Ha = 80 kN b. Vn = 75 kl\l and Hr = 120 klrl
c. Vn = 80 kN and He = 50 kN d. Ve = 120 kN and Ha = 75 L:Irl
13. A two-hinged arch is a
a. determinate structure b. indeterminate structure
c. parabolic structure d. semi-circular structure
\-/
L4. Pin joint is replaced by in conjugate beam.
a. roller b. pin c. fixed support d. link
15. The area moment theorem with respect to the bending of beams states that the area of the
M/EI diagram between the sections of a beam gives _.
a. the difference in slopes between those two sections
b. the difference in the maximum bending strains between those two sections
c. the difference in deflections between those two sections
d. the difference in strain energies between those two sections
16. A prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The ratio of
bending moment at the supports to the bending moment at the mid span is _.
a. 0.5 b. I c. 1.5 d. 2.0
17. A UDL of l0 kN/m of length is moving from left to right support on a simply supported
beam of span 10 m. The maximum bending moment at 4m from the left support is
\-/
a. 70 kN-m b. 90 kN-m c. 50 kN-m d. 30 kN-m
18. -.
In moment distribution method, the sum of distribution factors of all the members meeting
at anv ioint is alwavs
a. 0 b. less than 1 c. I d. greater than 1
t9 In influence line diagram (ILD)

a. points remain fixed, position of load changes
b. point changes, position of load remains fixed
c. both of them
d. neither of them
20. The principle of virtual work states that, for a body to be in equilibrium, the virtual work
should be
a. any value between 0 and 1 b.0
c. maximum d. minimum
l efr ?i J)
April/Tvl &Y,2023 eB
Level : B.E./B.Tech. Course : CIEG 305
Semester : I
Year : III
F.M. :40
..B"
SECTION
AttemptALL questions. Assume data if necessary'
l. A cable of span / has its end at the height of hr and hz above the lowest point of the cable.
It carries a uniformly distributed load of w per unit run of the span. Show that the horizontal
reaction at each it given bY t6l
"nd
w12
H=
z(ffi+lTDz
2. A three-hinged arch consists of two quadrantal parts AC and CB of radii 2m and 4m

respectively as shown in figure 1. For the load system acting on the arch, calculate the
reactions at the support and the bending moments under the load. t6l
40 kN
40 kN
/a\
Vb
Figure 1
3 A simply supported beam has a span of 15 m. A uniformly distributed load of 50 kN/m and
5 m long crosses the girder from left to right. Draw the influence line diagram for shear
force and bending moment at a section 6 m from left end. Use these diagrams to calculate
the maximum shear force and bending moment at this section. t6l
4 Determine the maximum forces in the members l,Z,3,and 4 of the ffuss shown in the given
figure 2, when uniformly distributed load of 40 kN/m longer than the span traverses along
the bottom chord members. U\
ul Ua
h
L1 L2 L3 L4
5 X 4=20 rn
\/
Figure 2
5 Calculate the deflection at point B and D using conjugate beam method for the figure 3 as
shown below. t8l
20 kN
A c B
5 3m , ., 1,- ,3m -l
Figure 3
\-/
6. Determine the vertical displacement at joint B as shown in figure 4. For each member
A--400 mm2, E= 200 GPa. Use the method of virtual work. Ul
F E fr
1.5 m
A C
B
45 kN
2rn 2m
Figure 4
April/Ivt&y,2A23
Level : B.E. Course : EPEG 302
No.: Date :2 B I'ili I0iJ

SECTION "A"
:
[20Q. x 0.5 l0 marksJ
1. The principle of operation of a three phase induction motor is similar to that of a-.
a. Synchronous motor b. Repulsion start induction motor
c. Transformer with a shorted secondary d. Capacitor start induction run motor
2. A 3 phase 6 pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at speed of 990 rpm. The rotating field
produced by the stator rotates at speed of _ rpm with respect to the rotor
a. 1000 b. 50 c. 500 d. Zerc
3. The crawling of an induction motor is caused by

a. High loads b. Low voltage suPPlY
c. Improper design of machine d. Harmonics developed in motor
4. Pull out torque of a squirrel cage induction motor occurs atthat value of slip where rotor
Dower factor eouals
a. Unrty b. 0.866 c. 0.707 d. 0.5
5 A double squirrel cage induction motor .
a. Two rotors moving in opposite direction

b. Two parallel windings in rotor
c. Two parallel windings in stator
d. Two series winding in rotor
6 A squirrel cage induction motor runs at constant speed only so long as
a. Torque developed by it remains constant
b. Its supply voltage remains constant
c. lts torque exactly equals the mechanical load
d. Stator flux remains constant
7 The torque developed by a here phase induction motor depends upon
a. Speetl, frequency and number of poles
b. Voltage, current and stator impedances
c. Synchronous speed, rotor speed and frequency
d. Rotor emf, rotor current and rotor pf
8 Thechemicalusedinbreatheroftransformershouldhavethequalityof-
a. Ionizing air b. Cleansing the transformer oil
c. Absorbing moisture d. Cooling the transformer oil
9 The function of a radiator in transformer is

a. To protect against internal fault
b. Expand and contrast the transformer oil subjected to temperature variation
c. To reduce copper as well as core losses
d. To cool the transformer oil
I id..-. ' .
10. The neutral terminal is fundamental to three phase sat to star connection for
a. Suppression of harmonics
b. Passage ofunbalanced currents due to unbalanced loads
c. Provision of dual electric service
d. Balancing of phase voltage with respect to line voltages
11. A load of 500 kVA at 0.8 power factor lagging is to be shared by two three phase
transformers A and B of equal ratings. [f the equivalent delta impedances as referred to
secondary are (2+j6)O for A and (2+j5)O for B, the load supplied by transformer A is
a. 230.7 < 38.70 b. 230.7 < - 38.70 c. 270 < 40.280 d. 270 < 40.280
12. The tapping are provided in three phase transforrner at
a. At the phase end of LV side b. At the phase end of HV side
c. At the neutral side end of HV sided. At the middle of HV side
13. The voltage regulation of an alternator having 0.75 leading power factor load, no load
emf of 24A0 V and rated terminal voltage of 3000 V is
a. 20 percent b. -20 percent
c. 150 percentd. -26.7 percent v
14. With a Ioad power factor of leading, the effect of armature reaction on the main field flux
of an alternator is
a. Distortional b. Magnetizing c. Demagnetizing d. Nominal
15. A synchronous motor can be used a synchronous capacitor when it is
a. Under loaded b. Over loaded c. Under excited d. Overexcited
16. A synchronous machine is called doubly excited machine because
a. [t can be overexcited
b. It has two set of rotor poles
c. Both its stator and rotor are excited
d. It needs twice the norrnal exciting cuffent
17. An alternator is connected to an infinite busbars. Its excitation is decreased while its
driving power remains constant. This will result in
a. Less lagging power factor b. More lagging power factor
c. Terminal voltage drop d. Terminal voltage increase \/
18 Two steam turbines driven identical turbo generators are running in proper synchronism
and carry equal loads. If excitation of one generator is decreased without changing its
input steam turbine supply
a. It will keep supplying same load b. kVAR supplied by it would decrease
c. Its power factor will increase d. kVA supplied by it would decrease
19. Two alternators are running in proper synchronism and if the voltage of machine is
suddenly increased
a. The machines will stop
b. The machines will burn out
c. Synchronizingtorque will be produced to restore further synchronism
d. One of the machine will operate as a motor
20 The oscillation in a synchronous motor can be damped out by

a. Maintaining constant excitation
b. Running the motor on leading power factors
c. Providing damper bars in the rotor pole faces
d. Oscillation cannot be damped out
AprilAvldy,2A23 2 B Air ?0?3
Level : B.E. Course : EPEG 202
Year : III Semester : I I
SECTION "B"
:
[4Q. x 10 40 marks]
Attempt ANY FouRquestions. Assume any suitable data if required.
1.
a. Explain, graphically the concept of rotating magnetic field in a three phase induction
,A. motor. t5l
b. A double cage induction motor following equivalent circuit parameters, all of

has the
which are phase values referred to the primary
Stator Rr:2.0C1 Xr:3.8Q
Outer cage R.zo'=4.OQ Xzo' :2.0d1
lnner cage Rzi'=0.55Q Xzi =7.AO
The primary is delta connected and supplied from 380V. Calculate the starting torque
when running at slip of 2o/o. The magnetizing branch is assumed to be negligible. I5l
2
a. The power crossing the air gap of a 60 Hz, four-pole induction motor is 20 kW, and
the power converted from electrical to mechanical form in the motor is 18.5 kW.
i. What is the slip of the motor at this time? tll
ii. What is the induced torque in this motor? tll
iii. Assuming that the mechanical losses are 150 W at this slip, what is the load
torque of this motor? tl]
b. A 440V, four pole, 70-hp 50-Hz, Y-connected three-phase induction motor develops
its full-load induced torque at 2.5 percent slip when operating at 50 Hz and 440 V.
The per-phase circuit model impedances of the motor are
Rr :0.05 Q Xr'a: l0 Q
Xr: 022 {2 :
Xz 0.28 Q
Mechanical, core, and stray losses are neglected.
. i. Find the value of rotor resistance, Rz. tU
ii. Find maximum torque, maximum slip, and the rotor speed at maximum torque for
thismotor. tll
iii. Find the starting torque of this motor. tll
c. "The principle of operation of a three phase induction motor is similar to that of a
three phase transformer with secondary short circuited". Explain. t4l
3
a. Derive the expression for power developed by a salient pole synchronous generator
and show that the total power is combination of power due to field excitation and
saliency. t5l
b. A 250 kVA, 460 V, 50 Hz, Y-connected synchronous generator with a rated field
current of 5.5 A was tested and the following data were obtained:
Open circuit voltage, Vr,oc : 560 V at the rated field current, 1p.
Short circuit current, Il,sc : 320 A at the rated field current, 1p.
When a DC voltage of 12 V was applied to two of the terminals, a current of 29 A

was measured. Find the generator's armature resistance and the approximate
synchronous reactance and explain the conditions if the armature resistance is
neglected. t5l
4.
a. A 14,400/480-V three-phase Y-A-connected transformer bank consists of three
identical 100-kVA 8314/480-V transformers. It is supplied with power directly from a
large constant-voltage bus. In the short-circuit test, the recorded values on the high-
\r'
voltage side for one of these transformers
Zsc:510 V Isc: 12.6 A Psc: 3000 W
If this bank delivers a rated load at 0.8 PF lagging and rated voltage, what is the line-
to-line voltage on the primary of the transformer bank? l2l
b. A three phase step down transformer takes 20A when connected to 11000V mains.
The turn ratio per phase is 10. Neglecting losses, find the secondary line voltage, line
current and output if the transformer windings are connected 12+21
i. Star/delta connected.
ii. Delta/star connected
c. Explain about the V-curve of a synchronous generator. 141
5
a. Two three transformers are connected in parallel. The load of 200 kVA at 0.95 p.f. is
to be shared by them. Determine how the load will be shared when transformer I has
\/
percentage resistance and percentage reactance l.2Yo and 5.2Yo respectively and the
transformer 2 has percentage resistance and percentage reactance l.6Yo and 4.2Yo
respectively. t5I
b. Describe with a neat sketch about various parts of a powbr transformer being
employed in switchyards. t5l
April/Ivl zy,2A23
Level : B.E. Course : MEEG 315
Exam Roll No.: Time: 30 mins. F. M. :24
t,- -
jri
Registration No.: Date 28 i\ l0/3
SECTIOI{ ..A"
[20Q. x 1 =20 marks]
Choose the most appropriate answer and mark [X]. Use of Data Book is NOT allowed.
I What is the primary advantage of using a riveted joint over other types of joints?
,--\ [ ] High strength [ ] Low cost
[ ] Ease of assembly [ ] All of these
2. Which type of riveted joint is best suited for applications that require high strength and
resistance to shear forces?
[ ]Labjoint [ ]Buttjoint [ ]Teejoint [ ]Cornerjoint
3 What is the primary advantage of using a welded joint over other types of joints?
[ ] High Strength [ ] Low cost
[ ] Ease of assembly t I All of these
4. Which type of welded joint is best suited for applications requiring high strength and
fatigue resistance?
[ ]Filletweld [ ]Buttweld [ ]Spotweld [ ]Plugweld
5 Which type of thread is typically used for applications that require high load-bearing
capacity?
/^ [ ]Coarsethread [ ]Finethread [ ]Unifiedthread [ ]Metricthread
6. Which type of thread is typically used for applications that require high load-bearing
capacity?
[ ] Hex bolt [ ] Wing nut
[ ] Set screw [ ] Socket head cap screw
7 Which type of locking deyice is typically used for applications that require easy assembly
and disassembly?
[ ] Split lock washer [ ] Cotter pin
[ ] Thread locker [ ] Nylon insert lock nut
8 Which of the following factors determines the stiffness of a helical spring!

[ ] Number of coils [ ] Spring diameter
[ ] Spring diameter t I All of these
9 What is the primary advantage of using a variable pitch spring over a constant pitch
spring?
[ ] Higher Stiffness [ ] Greater durability
[ ] Compact design [ ] Greater load bearing
10. Which of the following is not a common material used for journal-bearing bushings?
[ ]Brass [ ]Bronze [ ]Sreel [ ]plastic
11. which type of journal bearing provides the least amount of friction?
[ ]Hydrodynamic [ ]Hydrostatic
[ ] Rolling element t I All of these
12. which rolling contact bearing type can handle radial and axial roads?
[ ] Deep groove ball bearing [ ] Spherical roller bearing
[ ] Tapered roller bearing [ ] Thrust ball bearing
13. Which of the following is not a common type of rolling element used in rolling contact
bearings?
[ ]Balls [ ]Rollers [ ]Needles [ ]Cylinders
14. Which type of rolling contact bearing is typically used to support heavy radial loads and
moderate axial loads?
\-./
[ ] Deep groove ball bearings [ ] Cylindrical roller bearing
[ ] Tapered roller bearing [ ] Thrust ball bearing
l5 Which of the following is a common way to reduce stress concentration in a mechanical
component?
[ ] Increase the diameter of the component
[ ] Add a fillet to the component
[ ] Increase the length of the component
[ ] Change material
16. What is the main advantage of a multi-leaf spring compared to a single-leaf spring?
[ ] Higher load capacity [] Better ride quality
[ ] Easier to install [] Easier maintenance
17. Which of the following is not a factor that influences the notch sensitivity of a material?
[ ] Material strength [ ] Material ductility
[ ] Size and shape of the notch t I Temperature of the material v
18. In hydrodynamic bearings
[ ] grease is used for lubrication
[ ] do not require external supply of lubricant
[ ] the oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
[ ] the oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journdl
19. In hydrostatic bearing

[ ] grease is used for lubrication
[ ] do not require external supply oflubricant
[ ] the oil film is maintained by supplying oil under pressure
[ ] the oil film pressure is generated only by the rotation of the journal
20. Self-locking in a power screw is better achieved by

[ ] decreasing the helix angle and decreasing the coefficient of friction.
[ ] decreasing the helix angle and increasing the coefficient offriction.
[ ] increasing the helix angle and increasing the coefficient of friction.
[ ] increasing the helix angle and decreasing the coefficient of friction.
?. B l*i[
2813
AprilAvlzy,2023
SECTION "B"
[5Q x 11 = 55 marks]
AttemptAZZ questions. Use of Data Book is ALLOWED for this examination. Assume and/or
select suitable data if not specified
1 a. What are the advantages and disadvantages of welded joints compared to other types
of joints in terms of strength, durability, and cost? Provide an example of a structural
A application where welded joints are commonly used. t3l
b. What are the stages involved in the mechanical design cycle? Provide a brief
description of each stage and explain the importance of each stage in the design
process. Also, provide an example of a product that underwent the mechanical design
cycle and discuss how each stage was implemented in the design of the product t3l
c. A welded joint is subjected to an eccentric load of 10 kN at a distance of 30 mm from

its centerline. The joint has a thickness of 8 mm and a width of 40 mm. If the yield
strength of the material is 400 MPa, design the joint for both in-plane and out-of-
plane eccentricity. Assume that the joint is fully restrained against rotation and
displacement at its ends. t5l
2 a. How does stress concentration occur in materials and what are the common factors
that lead to its development? Provide an example of a design feature that can mitigate
stress concentration in a mechanical component. t3l
b. A boiler needs to be made of a 20 mm thick mild steel plate with ultimate tension,
crushing, and shear strength as 60 N/mm2, 100 N/mm2' and 45 N/mm2 respectively.
Design the longitudinal joint for a boiler considering a triple-riveted, single-cover
plate butt joint with a joint efficiency of 72 Vo. t4l
c. An angle of .size 200 mm x 150 mm x 20 mm is welded to a flat plate with the long
side.of the angle along the length of the plate, as shown in Figure I with an Axial
load of 15 kN. The allowable shear stress for static loading may be taken as 70 MPa.
Design the joint. t4l
Steel
plutc
T I0 mm
2ffi**
r5-I
IS0mrr [**
Figure 1
3 a. What is a buttress thread and how does it differ from other types of threads in terms
of its shape and function? Provide an example of an application where buttress
threads are commonly used. t3l
b. A power screw is used to transmit a force of 5 kN along its axis. The screw has a
pitch of 6 mm, a diameter of 20 mm, and a length of 100 mm. The coefficient of
friction between the screw and the nut is 0.15. Determine the torque required to raise
the load and the efficiency of the screw. Assume a lead angle of 10 degrees and a
thread angle of60 degrees. l4l
c. A journal bearing supports a shaft rotating at 3000 rpm with a radial load of 1000 N
and an axial load of 500 N. The bearing diameter is 150 mm, and the length is 300
mm. The bearing material is bronze with a static coefficient of friction of 0.2. The
viscosity of the lubricant is 0.02 Pa.s, and the clearance between the shaft and the
bearing is 0.05 mm. Determine the minimum oil film thickness required to prevent \./
direct contact between the shaft and the bearing. t4l
4. a. "spherical roller bearings are used to support the shafts that drive belts in a conveyor
system". Provide your arguments to support this statement. t3]
b. What are the different types of journal bearings and how do they differ in terms of
their design and application? Provide an example of an industrial application where a
particular type of journal bearing is commonly used and explain why it is preferred
over other types in that application t3l
c. A shaft rotating at 2500 rpm requires a deep groove ball bearing to support a radial
load of 2 kN and an axial load of 1 kN. The bearing will be mounted on a shaft with a
diameter of 25 mm. Select an appropriate deep groove ball bearing for this
application and justify your selection. Assume a safety factor of 2 and a bearing life
\-/
of 20,000 hours. t5I
5. a. Explain the application of disc spring l2l
b. A helical compression spring is required to support a load of 500 N when cofnpressed

to a solid height of 50 mm. The spring must have a minimum of 10 mm clearance
when fully compressed, and a maximum of 100 mm free length when not loaded. The
spring will be made of oil-tempered wire with a diameter of 10 mm and a shear
modulus of 80 GPa. Determine the number of active coils required, the spring rate,
and the stress in the wire. Also, provide a sketch of the spring indicating its
dimensions and parameters. t5l
c. Considering a composite spring (two springs in series) with load 10kN, find the
maximum shear stress developed in both springs when they are compressed to 10
mm. Both springs has outer diameter of 50 mm, wire diameter of 5 mm and stiffness
of t5 N/mm2. t4l
April/Mly,2023 |4&i.* Z-8, ?A Lg
Level : B.E. Course : EEEG 309
Year : II Semester : I
SECTION "B"
[5Q.x8=40marks]
Attempt ANY FNE questions. Use constants and relations provided if needed. Assume suitable
values for missing parameters if any.
t. a. Explain spherical co-ordinate system with relevant figures and expressions. tzl
b. Electric field intensity due to an unknown charge configuration at a point in
space using cylindrical coordinates is given as
E--zsin@ ar*3pcosQ aO*p cos@ sin0 ar.
Convert the field expression to Cartesian (rectangular) co-ordinates. Also find
the field vector at point P(x = L,! = l,z : t). t3l
c. Two positive point charges each of magnitude Qt = Qz = 2 ttC are located on

xy plane along y axis at points ! = *2 m. Find the electric field intensity due to
the charges at P1(4,0,0). Consider that the medium is air. t3I
2. a. Electric flux density at some space isD:O.3rzarnClmz. Find electric field
intensity E at point P (r=2, 0=25",0=90"). If we construct a closed sphere with
center at origin and radius r=3, use Gauss's theorem to find the total charge t3l
within the sphere?
b. Define electric potential and potential difference. How is it related to the electric
field intensity? t2)
c. State Maxwell's equation for static and time varying fields in integral and point
forms. t3l
3. a. A 9.4 GHz uniform plane wave is propagating in a medium with €r = 2.25 and
Itr = l.If the magnetic field intensity is 7 mA/m and the material is loss less,
find t41
i) Velocity of propagation ii) The wave length iii) Phase constant iv) Intrinsic
impedance v) Magnitude of electric field intensity
b. What do you understand by 'uniform plane wave'? Starting from Maxwell's

equations, derive the expressions for field components of a uniform plan wave
travelling in the perfect dielectric medium t41
4. a. Explain the propagation characteristics when uniform plane wave travel in free
space, perfect dielectrics and good conductors. t2)
b. A lossless transmission line with Zs = 50 O is 30m long and operates at 2 MHz.
The line is terminated with a load Zr, = 60 + j 40 O . If velocity is
v = 3 x 108 mf s on the line, find (a) the reflection coefficient, (b) the standing
wave ratio and the input impedance. t4l
c. What do you understand by voltage standing wave ratio? What is its importance
in transmission lines? t21
5. a. Explain in brief the modes supported by rectangular waveguides. Consider a
rectangular waveguide with e, = 2, Fr - pro with dimensions a: t.07 crit,
b = 0.43 cm. Find the cut off frequency for IM11 mode and the dominant mode. I3l
b. Explain impedance matching in transmission lines using quarter wave
transformer and single stub. t3l
c. What is pointing vector? Why is it important in field of electromagnetics? l2l
7 . a. A load of 100 + i 150 O is connected to a75 A lossless line. Find using Smith
Chart: t3l
i) reflectioncoefficient
ii) vswR
iii) load admittance
iv) In put impedance at 0.4.1 from the load.
\-/
b. What do you understand by the cutoff frequency in waveguides? Derive the
expression for cutoff frequency and wavelengths for a parallel plate waveguide. t3l
c. Explain the boundary condition for electric field and magnetic fields at
conductorairboundary. l2l
Some useful constants and relations:
-
rs B.B5 x 10-"F /*
lto = 4Tr x 10-'H /*
Relation between vectors in cylindrical and Cartesian coordinates
: :xi ;:T Il
[fi] [,']r lllfi] ffil f*ir hl
\../
flI'
8y"
ap
cosS
sin rf
ag
*sinf
cos rf
*-
0
0
p ,lw
il,i, 0 0 l x- pcosf
y-pstnQ z--z
For a transmission line:
Za:
ft + i*tl +j *}cl :ffimff+ifr
G+JUC
For parallel plate waveguides
rt*j ? ?wc hnd

#*m:T
firfit c
fr*: c
IE{ry} r
t
5br*,
I *im-(re
- tilst+p_ rn
WT
Aprilflvlay 2023
Level : B.Pharm. Course : PHAR 320
Exarn Roll No.: Time: 30 mins. F. M. :2O
?,8 l-;'i
?023
No.: Date
..A"
SECTIOI{
[20Q. x 1 =20 marks]
1. Growth hormone promotes growth by all of the followings except

a. InducinghyperPlasia
/.^ b. Fat utilization for energy
c. Retention of nitrogen
d. Increase uptake of glucose by muscle
2. The first line of oral hypoglycemic drug for obese patient would be
a. Sulfonylureas c. Meglitinide
b. Biguanides d. Glitazone
3. All of the followings are uterine stimulant except
a. Ethacridine c. Ergometrine
b. Misoprostol d. Atosiban
4. Drug of choice for neumocystis pneumonia
a. ciprofloxacin c. daPtomYcin
b. trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole d. none of above
5 Dose of ciprofloxacin for treatment of urinary tract infection is
a. 250- 500mg BD for 7 days c.
750mg BD for 7 days
b. 750mg BD for 3 days d. 500- 750mg BD for 7 days
6. Concurrent administration of iron & zinc preparation can interfere with the absorption of
this drugs
a. sulfamethoxazole c. polymyxin B
b. nitrofurantoin d. ciprofloxacin
7 All of the following about Metronidazole is ffue except
a. Drug of choice for extraluminal amebiasis
b. Kill rophozoites but not cyst
c. Completely absorbed after oral administration
d. Is selectively toxic to aerobic bacteria
8. W-hich of the anthelmintics activates nicotinic receptor in Ascaris lumbricoides?

a. Pyrantel c. Albendazole
b. Ivermectin d. Praziquantel
9 Gonorrhea caused by penicillinase producing organism can be treated by
a. Cefniaxone c. VancomYcin
b. Cefotetan d. Aztreonam
10. Which of the following drugs is used topically only?
a. Amikacin c. Gentamicin
b. Neomycin d. Streptomycin
11. Androgen are contraindicated in all of the following except
a. Prostate cancer c. Pregnancy
b. Migraine d. Muscle wasting
12. All of the following side effects are seen due to insulin except
a. Hypoglycemia c. Urticaria
b. Lipodystrophy d. Anorexia
13. One of the following drugs is suitable to treat the symptoms of Addison's disease
a. Prednisolone c.
Dexamethasone
b. Fludrocortisone d. MetYraPone
14. Bactercidal
a. Kills the bacteria \-/
b. Inhibit metabolic reaction
c. Number of microorganisms remains constant
d. Inhibit protein synthesis
15. It is poorly absorbed sulfonamide
a. sulfisoxivole c. sulfacetamide
b. sulfas alazine d. sulfadoxime
16. These microorganisms are highly susceptible to ciprofloxacine except

a. coli
E. c.
StreP. Pneumoniae
b. S .typhii d. H. influenza
r'7 . One of the following is urin ary tract antiseptics

a. gentamicin c. lomefloxacine
b. methinamine d. nitrofurantoin
18. It is an injectable antitubercular drug \-/
a. amikacin c. pyruzinamide
b. rifampin d. ethambutol
19. Testosterone shows following characteristics except

a. Inactive orally c. Tll2=l'2 hours
b. 987o plasma protein bound d. Metabolites are excreted in urine
20. Which of the following is the first choice of drug to treat trematode infestations
a. Piperazine c. PYrantel
b. Praziquantet d. Niclosamide
I(ATHMANDU UNIVERSITY
End Semester Examination [C] ,\TUft i.;ti ?St3
April/May 2423 ile

SECTIOI{ "B"
[5Q.x3-t5marks]
Attempt N,{Y FNE questions.
1. Name any three anabolic steroids .What are its uses and side effects.
2. Elaborate the drug 5-o reductase inhibitor.
/^ 3. Classify synthetic progestin and give its pharmacokinetics, uses and adverse effects.
4. Differentiate between the bacteriostatic & bactericidal drugs. List out the factors that
governs selection of antimicrobial agents.
5. Write down the mechanisms of development of drug resistance of sulfonamide.
6. List out the most common adverse effects associated with the use of cytotoxic drugs.
7. Write in brief about clindamycin.
SECTION "C"
[5Q.x 5 =25 marks]
Attempt ANY FM questions.
8. Give an account on leprosy. Classify antileprotic drugs. Elaborate on the drug dapsone.
/.^
g. Elaborate aldosterone and its synthetic preparations along with its mechanism of action,
kinetics, uses, doses and adverse effects.
10. Why is L-thyroxine preferable to liothyroxine? Discuss different conditions in which L-

thyroxine can be used along with its dose. Classify thyroid inhibitors.
11, expiain the mechanism of action, therapegtic indication & adverse effects of
fluroquinolones.
lZ. Write down the mechanism of action of chloroquine along with its side effects? Give any
one dosages regiment for treatment of chloroquine sensitive malaria & chloroquine
resistant malaria.
-1 3. Exptain the meehanism of action & adverse effects of metronidazole. Why this drug
shouldn't be taken with alcohol? Give a mechanism of toxicity.
14. Classify the azoles group of antifungal drugs. Write down the mechanism of action,
therapeutic indication of fluconazole along with its merits and demerits.
SECTION
..D"
[2Q. x7.J = 15 marks]
Attemp t N{Y TWO questions.
15 How can type II Diabetes Mellitus be managed? Explain different types of insulin
regimen. Explain how glitazones acts as hypoglycemic.
16. What is tuberculosis? Classify the drugs used to treat tuberculosis with an example. State
the mechanism of action, kinetic characteristics, dose, and adverse effect of Isoniazid.
How tuberculosis can be ffeated in category I, II patients & pregnant women. Give its
Eeatment regimen.
l'7 . A. Explain in detail about the mechanism of action of the penicillin. Classify the
cephalosporin with at least two example of each group. t3.51
B. How does aminoglycoside produce a bactericidal effect? Mention the symptoms

observed in gray baby syndrome? I4l \'./
\./'
AprillMzY,2023

Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins F. M. 20
Date t3 (:
N
(C ),
[20Q.xt=Z}marks]
l. Stagnation point is the point in fluid mechanics where the velocity of the fluid at that
/.^ point is
a. Infinite b. Constant c. Maximum d' Z'eto
2. Which of the following is formula for the friction factor of circular pipes?
a
a. Ret64 b' 16/Re c. 64lRe d' Re/16
the mechanical efficiency of a centrifugal pump is 68Vo and the manometric efficiency
,-,
J If
isT4%o,what is the overall efficiency of the pump?
a. 0.5032Vo b. 50.32%o c. 83.2Vo d' O'832Vo
4 Rain drops are spherical because of

a. Viscosity b. Air resistance
c. Surface tension forces d. Atmospheric pressure
5. The pitot tube is used to measure
a. Velocity at stagnation point b. Stagnation pressure
c. Static pressure d. Dynamic pressure
/.^ 6. The line action of the buoyant force acts through the Centroid of the
a. Submerged body -.
b. Volume of the floating body
c. Volume of the fluid vertically above the body
d. Displaced volume of the fluid
7. The imaginary line drawn in the fluid in such a way that the tangent to any point gives the
direction of motion at that point, is known as
a. Path line b. Stream line c Streak line d. Potential line
8. Which of the following parameter has the unit of force per unit length?
a. Dynamic viscosity b. Kinematic viscosity
c. Surface tension d. Wall stress
9 Aflowinwhichtheviscosityoffluidisdominatingovertheinertiaforceiscalled
a. Steady flow b. Unsteady flow c. Laminar flow d. Turbulent flow
10. An open tank contains I m deep water with 50 cm depth of oil of specific gravity 0.8
above it. The pressure at the bottom of the tank will be
a. 4 kN/m2 b. 10 kN/m2 c. 12 kNlmz d. 14 kNlm2
11. Stream lines and path lines always coincide in case of _.
a. Steady flow b. Laminar flow c. Uniform flow d. Turbulent flow
12. Equation of continuity is based on the principal of conservation of

a. Mass b. Energy c. Momentum d. None of these
13. The major loss of energy in long pipes is due to

a. Sudden enlargement b. Sudden contraction
c. 90 degree bend d. Friction
14. In the case of an external parallel flow over a flat plat, which of the following drag can be
neglected?
a. Pressuredrag b. Friction drag
c. Total drag d. Both drags are significant
15. With the same cross-sectional area and immersed in same turbulent flow, the largest total \-/
drag will be on a
a. circular disc of plate held normal to flow
b. sphere
c. cylinder
d. streamlined body
16. For laminar flow in a prpe of circular cross section, the Darcy's friction factor f is
a. directly proportional to Reynolds number and independent of pipe wall roughness
b. directly proportional to pipe wall roughness and independent of Reynolds number -.
c. inversely proportional to Reynolds number and independent of pipe wall roughness
d. inversely proportional to pipe wall roughness and independent of Reynolds number
17. The velocity distribution for laminar flow through a circular tube in the fully developed
a. is constant over the cross-section

b. varies linearly from zero at walls to maximum at centre
c. varies parabolically with maximum at the centre v
d. depends on the entrance length
18. The hvdraulic srade line is .
a. always above the centre line of pipe

b. never above the energy grade line
c. always sloping downward in the direction of flow
d. always above the energy grade line
19. In series-pipe problems
a. the head loss is same through each pipe
b. the discharge is same through each pipe
c. the discharge through each pipe is added to obtain total discharge
d. none of the above
-20. Bernoullis equation deals with the law of conservation of
a.' mass b. momentum c. energy d. work
April/IUaY,2023
3 0 Aiii 2023
Semester : I
Year : III F.M. :55
..B"
SECTION
t5Q x l1 = 55 marksl
Attem pt ALLquestions. Assume suitable data if any is missing
t21
1. a. Define Viscous and Inviscid regions of the flow.
b. Given the Eulerian velocity vector field
v-3t.i*xz.i+tyz.k
Find the total acceleration of a particle. t4l
,1^
c. Two water tanks are connected to each other through a mercury manometer with
inclined tubes, as shown in Figure 1. If the pressure difference between the
two tanks
is 20 kPa, calculate a and o. t5l
CIN
Mercury
Sfi = l].6
Figure 1
2 a. Explain hydrodynamicall y fully developed region in a pipe using figure and mathematical
/^\ relation. t4l
Air
b. A 1.5 m high, 0.8 m diameter cylindrical water tank
whose top is open to the atmosphere is initially filled
with water. Now the discharge plug near the bottom of
the tank is pulled out, and a water jet whose diameter
is 2 cm streams out. The average velocity of the jet'is
approximated as V - JTn, where h is the height
of water in the tank measure from the center of the
hole (a variable) and is the gravitational acceleration.
g lo,
Determine how long it takes for the water level in the
tank to drop to 0.5 m from the bottom. l7l
Figure 2
3 a. A wind tunnel draws atmospheric air at20 oC and 101.3 kPa by a large fan located
near the exit of the tunnel. If the air velocity in the tunnel is 3 m/s, determine the
pressure in the tunnel. t5l
b. An oil pump is drawing 25 kw of electric power while pumping oil with
P = 860 k9*3 at a rate of 0.1 m3/s. The inlet and outlet diameters of the pipe are g cm
and 12 cm, respectively. If the pressure rise of oil in the pump is measured to
be
250 kPa and the motor efficiency is 90 percent, determine the mechanical efficiency
of the pump. Take the kinetic energy correction factor to be 1.05.
t6l
25 k$r'
I2 cm
Purnp
oil AP = ?50 kPa
0.1 m3/s \-/

Figure 2
4. a. Water at 10oC (p =999.1kglm3 and p = I.307 x t0-3 kg/m.s) is flowing steadily in a
0.12 cm diameter, 15 m long pipe at an average velocity of 0.9 m/s. t5l
Determine i) the pressure drop, ii) the head loss, iii) the pumping power requirement
to overcome this pressure drop.
b. The top surface of the passenger car of a ffain moving at a velocity of 95 km/tr is 2.1
m wide and 8 m long. If the outdoor air is at I atm and 25oC, determine the drag force
acting on the top surface ofthe car. t6l
Air 95 kilut
25oC _>
Figure 3
5. a. What are different techniques for measurement of velocity and flow rate? Explain
three of the techniques in detail. t5l
b. Water at 15oC is drained from a large reservoir
using two horizontal plastic pipes connected in
series. The first pipe is 20 m long and has a
l0 cm diameter, while the second pipe is 35 m I Figure4
long and has a 4 cm diameter. The water level in

the reservoir is 18 m above the centerline of the ?Sm 35 m
pipe. The pipe entrance is sharp-edged and the
contraction between the two pipes is sudden. Neglecting the effect of the energy
correction factor, determine the discharge rate of water from the reservoir. t6I
3 [i ir; j;:J
:i
Some relevant formula and datasheet:

' rJl
t {*,tt} ?.5 I \
!'f *\3'7 ReW {turbulent l-luwi
,A-
1.33
Inminur: cf Rer 5 5 x l$'
R#
0.074
I urhulen{; CT 5 x lOs s Rer.:s I07
R*i"'
^ 0.074 1742
LF:
R"r R%
5xlffsRe.sl07
/.1
April/TvlvY,2023
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F. M. '.20
Date 30 llrfi 20i3

Registration No.:
66A"
t20 Q. x I =20 marksl

A
1. Which among the following technique is NOT suitable for polymorphism study?
a. Capillary melting b. Hot stage microscopy
c. Differential scanning calorimetry d. Thin layer chromatogaphy
2. Which one of the following is an example of tablet binder?
a. Ac-di-sol b. Talc c. Primojel d. Sucrose
3 In a tablet compression machine, tablet weight is NOT affected by adjusting

a. Pressure roller b. Powder volume in hopper
c. Weight adjustment knob d. Hopper to feed frame distance
4. Which among the following shows correct order for stages of granulation?
a. Dry-Pendular-Capillary-Funicular b. Dry-Pendular-Funicular-Capillary
c. Dry-Funicular-Pendular-Capillary d. Dry-Funicular-Capillary-Pendular
5. Drying material is agitated in dryer.
/A\ a. Tunnel b. Truck c. Fteeze d. FBD
6 At the end of ......, critical moisture content (CMC) is reached.

a. Initial adjustment b. Constant rate period
c. First falling rate period d. Second falling rate period
7 Pharmaceutical mixgd powder is an example of ... ... . . . .. .i. ! ...

o
a. Positive mixture b. Negative mixture

c. Neutral mixture d. Variable mixture
8 Drying air is introduced through hollow perforated ribs in

a. Conventional pan b. Glatt coater
c. [mmersion tube d. Accela-cota
9. Which of the following step in sugar coating of tablet is used for making tablet spherical?
a. Rounding b. Sub coating c. Smoothing d. Spheronization
10. Which of the following is NOT an example of coating defect?
a. Pitting b. Dull c. Filling d. Leaching
11. Which of the following is NOT an example of enteric coating polymers
a. Shellac b. Hypromellose acetate succinate
c. Polyvinyl Acetate Phthalate d. Cellulose phthalate
12. Which of the following ingredients in the coating formulation is used as plasticizer?
a. IPA b. CAP c. PEG d. SLS
13. Which among the following material can be used for preparation of hard gelatin capsule
shell for oral administration of drug?
a. PVA b. PET c. PVC d. PVDC
14. Compressor in Semi-automatic Hard Gelatin capsule filling machine is used for
a. Orientation of empty capsuleshell b. Filling of empty capsule shell
c. Opening of empty capsule shell d. Sealing of filled capsule shell
15 Mineral oil in soft gelatin capsules is used as

a. Gelatin diluter b. Softening agent c. Vehicle d. Moisturizer
t6 Decrease in moisture content of empty hard gelatin capsule shell below llVo can render it
a. Brittle b. Flexible c. Sticky d. Color loss
t7 After microencapsulation of Vitamin A, it is available as

a. Tablet b. Capsule c. Dry Powder d. Solution
18. Encapsulation of Peppermint oil and methyl salicylate is done to.

a. Avoid incompatibilities b. Reduce volatility
c. Taste masking d. Reduce gastric irritation
19. Which among the following is most importantly prevented for stability of an emulsion?
a. Breaking b. Coalescence c. Flocculation d. Creaming
20. Insoluble Powders used in semisolid preparations must be. .. .....
a. gntty to touch b. <75 p in size
c. crystalline form of drug d. hygroscopic in nature
End Semester Examination [C] 3 0 [l ii ?ti3
April/Ivlty,2023
Level : B.Pharm. Course ; Pt{trP 321
Note: Check ({) the number of each question you have answered in the front page of main answer
book (of sections B, c and D). ..8,,
SECTION
[5 Q. x 3 = 15 marks]
Attempt ANY FNE questions.
.A l. Prepare a list of the physicochemical pirameters that are studied during preformulation
studies.
2. What is dispersible tablet? Write down its advantages.
3. What causes "capping and lamination" tablet defects? How can you prevent it?
4. What causes "tablet pitting" film coating defect? How can you prevent it?
5 Write down the composition of hard and soft gelatin capsules shells.
6. Prepare a list of microencapsulation techniques.
7. What are ointments?
..C"
SECTION
[5 Q.x 5 -25 marks]
Attempt ANY FM questions.
8. How chemical compatibility of drug and excipients are evaluated?
g. How disintegrcnts disintegrates tablets? Explain the mechanisms.
10. Write about the factors that influences mixing of solids.
11. Prepare a basic formulation of film coating solution. Explain the function of each
ingredient.
12. Write about the advantages of soft gelatin capsules over hard gelatin capsules.
13. Write short note on "Coacervation phase separation technique for microencapsulation".
14. Why topical formulations are important? Give your reasons.

SECTION "D"
[2 Q. x 7 .5 - 15 Marks]
Attempt AIW TWO questions.
15. Why different granulation methods are required for preparation of granules? Illustrate the
particle bonding mechanism in wet granulation method.
16. Explain in detail with well labeled diagrams about the different designs of coating
equipment that are used in coating of tablets.
17. Write in detail about the powder filling procedure in hard gelatin capsule shell using semi-
automatic capsule filling machine. Discuss on how fill weight of thJcapsules is controlled.
-J
IGTHMANDU UNIVERSITY Marks Scored:
April/Tvlay,2023
Date in
I\?'i ?u?3
Registration No.:
66A"
t20Q.x 0.5 = 10 marksl
Tick (0 the correct answer(s) or fill in the blanks with most appropriate word/phrase
Which application of computer graphics uses the technique to summarize the financial,
^\t statistical, mathematical, scientific and economic data?
[ ]Visualization [ ]ComputerArt
i I n"*"ntation Graphics [ ] Engineering and manufacturing
2. If you are drawing a circle with radius 7.5 and center at (100,1CI) using midpoint
algorithm then the initial decision parameter Po is
t I -6.5 t I -6.25 t t-6 t 18.5
3. In Bresenham line drawing algorithm the initial decision parameter Po for lml=l can be
calculated using
a. -
Po= ZAy Ax b. Po= ZLx - Ly c. Po = ZLy - ZAx
t J aorb t laorc t laonly t lbonly
4. The smallest size object that can be displayed on a monitor is called
[ ]pictureelement [ ]dotpitch [ ]point [ ]aspectratio
5 Ifwe want to resize a 1024 x 768 image to one that is 640 pixels wide with the sarne
aspect ratio, what would be the height of the resized image?
t l8s3 t l8s4 t l48o 1768 t
6. The architecture of Random display system consists of
a. Display Processing Unit b. Pixmap c. System Memory
t la&b t la&c t laonlY t la,b&c
7 The lrast Significant Bit of the region code of a point (X,Y) is 'f if
t lx>xwMIN t lx<xwMIN
t lx<xwMAx t lx>xwMAx
8. In X-direction shear relative to the line y =[ref, with shearing factor Sh* and Shy in X
and Y direction, the transformed X- coordinate will be
t lx+Sh**y [ ]x
t lx+Sh*(y-y'"r) t Ishv*0-yrer)+y
9 If you rotatethe point (20, 30) by 90 degree, then translate it by (-20, 0) and then scale it
by (2,1), where will be the point?
[ ](100,-20) [ ](100,10) [ ](100,20)
-. [ ](-100'20)
10. Two successive translations are
t ]additive t lmultiplicative t ]inverse t I subtractive
11. The process of mapping a world window in world coordinate system to viewport is called
[ ]Transformationviewing [ ]Viewport
[ ] Clipping window [ ] Screen coordinate system
12. Consider the rnatrix given by

Assuming that a + b * c, to what transformation does this 4x4 matrix
[-n0ool
Io b o oil
correspond?
t I Shearing t
!o o c ol'
t lTranslation t
I Non Uniform Scaling
lUnifbrmScaling
fooor_l
13. The one point perspective projection occurs, when the projection plane is perpendicular to
t lXandYaxes t lXandZaxes t lYandZaxes [ ]X,YorZaxes \-/
14. In cabinet projection, the lines perpendicular to the viewing surface are projected at
in their length.
[ ]nochange t )ll2 I 1'/, t 1314
15. What is the Maximum number of overlapping objects that can be handled by using the
Z-btffer algorithm?
[ ]Singleobject [ ]Twoobject [ ]Multipleobject [ ]Twoopaqueobject
16. Which hidden surface removal method takes care of both opaque surfaces as well as
ffansparent surfaces?
[ ] Back face removal method I )Z buffer method
[ ] Scan line method t I A buffer method
17. The total diffuse reflection I oir is given by
t lKoI" t lKolcos0 t lKoh(N.L) t I KoIr+ KoIr(N. L)
v
18. In Gouraud Shading, each polygon surface is rendered by performing the following
calculations:
a. Determine all light sources incident on the object
b. Determine.the average unit normal vector at each polygon vertex
c. Linearly interpolate the vertex intensities over the surface of the polygon
t la&b t la&c [ ]b&c I la,b,&c
19. If the CMY color triplet is (0.5,0.1,0.2), what is its resulting RGB color triplet?
[ ](0.5,0.3,0.1) [ ](0.5,0.9,0.8) [ ](0,0.1,0.2) [ ](0,0,0)
24. Real-time animation requires
a. movement of whole object
b. movement of parts of the object
c. fluid coordination of the moving parts
t la&b t lb&c t la&c t f a, b & c
End Semester Examination tcl 30 [;\i ?01]
AprilflvlaY,2023
Level : B.Sc.
Course : COMP 342
Semester : I
Year : III
Time : 2 hrs. 30 mins- F.M. :40
..B"
SECTION
[6Q.x4=24 marks]
Attempt N,{Y SX questions.
l. What is computer graphics? Describe the significance of computer graphics in the field
of
Image Proceising inA Cornpoter Vision with relevant examples? [1+3]
/1A
2. Differentiate between Raster and Vector display? Consider a raster system with the
resolution of 1024 x768 pixels and the color palette calls for 65,536 colors. What is the
minimum arnount of video RAM that the computer must have to support the above-
mentioned resolution and number of colors? 12+21
3. what are the advantages of using homogeneous coordinate systems in compare to

Cartesian system? poin. the necJssary transformation equations for rotating a
point
P(x, y) by fl with reference to (X", Y.) geometrically? [1+3]
4. What is the relationship between clipping and windowing? Clip the line with end points A
(3, l0) B (3,7) against the clipping window with lower left corner (1, 2) and upper right
corner (9, 8) using Liang-Barsky algorithm? [ Show the entire step as per the algorithm]
[1+3]
5. Why is it easier to locate hidden surfaces when parallel projection is used? Explain depth
buffer algorithm with supporting mathematical relations and examples? [l+3]
6. Describe Constant Intensity Shading with relevant example? Differentiate between

Specular Reflection and Gouraud reflection? [l+t]
7 Write Short notes on: [2+21

a. RGB Color model
b. Morphing
SECTION "C"
t2Qx8=16marksl
AttemptAlZ questions
-8. Derive all the required decision parameters and write an algorithm for drawing a line with
t"l ,= 1 using Bresenham algorithm. Digitizn, a first region of an ellipse with Center
izo, to) and Rx = 8 Rv=6 using Midpoint ellipse drawing algorithm? 16+21
9
a. What are applications of Parallel Projection in Computer Graphics? Derive the
composite transformation matrix for rotating any 3D object by 30o about an axis
parallel to X-axis using homogeneous coordinate system? tl+41
b. Gokul sat in the car, and find the side mirror is 0.4m on his right and 0.3m in his
front he started his car and drove 5m forward, turned 30 degrees to right, moved
5m forward again, and turned 45 degrees to the right, and stopped? what is the
position of the side mirror now, relative to where Gokul was sitting in the
beginning? t3l
'\r/
\f,/
0 ll{AY 2023
Marks Scored:
AprilAvl?y, 2023
Label : B.E. Course : GEOM 316
Registration No.: Date
..A"
SECTION
[20 Q x 0.5 = 10 marks]
Encircle the most appropriate answer among the given options.
1 Pick the correct statement on the principle of Photogrammetry.

a. The departures from the central projection can be modelled as random effors in the
collinearity condition.
b. There is deviation of light rays passing through the the camera lens.
c. The camera is assumed to produce a perfect orthogonal projection.
d. The principle of collinearity embraces three translations and three rotations as the
degree of freedom of the camera.
horizon
2. Identify the type of image shown.
a. A Nadir Aerial Image
b. A Low Oblique Aerial Image
c. A High Oblique Aerial Image 6
d. A Satellite Image
3 An optical axis of a camera lens _.

a. is the line passing through the optical centre of the camera lens and it is perpendicular
to the photo plate
F
b. is the line passing through the optical centre of the camera lens and it is perpendicular
to the negative
c. is the line passing through the optical centre and front and rear nodal points
d. exactly coincides with the camera axis
4. Photographs are taken using a camera with a focal length and a sensor width of 25mm each.
If the photographs have 2500x2000 (w x h) pixels, calculate the GSD of the photographs
if the flying altitude is 100m.
a. 4 cm/pixel b. 8 cm/pixel c. 16 cm/pixel d.32 cmlpixel
5 Suppose an aeroplane is capturing images from a flying height of 5000m, if the differential
parallax between the top and the bottom of a tower is measured as 0.6cm and average image
base length is 4.4 cm. The height of the tower would be m.
a. 200 b. 400 c. 600 d. 800
6. is an attachment or facility on a camera that operates the shutter regularly at set
intervals over a period.
a. Intervalometer b. View Finder c. Film Magazine d. Mount
7 Suppose one hundred images has to be captured in a drone flight. If images have
2048 x 2048 pixels and a radiometric resolution of 8 bits is used for 3 bands , z _
memory stick will be required.
a. 4GB b. 8 cB c. 16GB d. 32cB
8 Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding Fudicual marks?
a. They ate marks on cameta image plate.
b. They are transferred to the image film when exposed to light.
c. There exists odd number of such marks.
d. They are used for camera calibration and interior orientation.
9 Suppose high-accurcy DTM is required for an irrigation planning of a 60 sq km v
municipality in Terai. Which of the following technology would be the best?
a. Field Surveying with a Total Station
b. Aerial Surveying with optical imaging sensor
c. Drone LiDAR Survey
d. Manual digitization of Topographic maps
10. Which of the following does not possess a 3D Coordinate System in Photogrammetry?
a. Real World Coordinate b. Digital Image Coordinate System
c. Digital Camera System d. Object Coordinate System
11. The depth can not be perceived monoscopically

a. on the basis of relative size of the object b.
b. by analyzing hidden objects
c. through shadows
d. to estimate it more accurately
12. An aerial photograph has v
a. a uniform scale b. an orthogonal projection
c. symbology d. an original radiometric property
13 influence the geometric quality of orthophoto

a. DTM accuracy b. dynamic range of the scanner
b. radiometric enhancement d. sharpness of the tilm diapositive
14. Which projection does the figure represent?

a. Central projection
b. Orthogonal projection a
n
c. Map like projection
d. Isometric projection ;
a
15 Calculate the number of images required to cover an area of 50 x 50 km2 if the scale of the
photograph be 1: 20,000 and the photograph format is 23 cm x23 cm. Consider the forward
overlap and the sidelap as707o and507o respectively.
a. 900 b. 600 c. 300 d. 100
16. The figure below depicts .
a. Barrel distortion
b. Coma
c. Chromatic aberration
d. Pincushion distortion olhlue nerclrngth
t7 A 2D aftine coordinate transformation has parameters.

a.3b.4c.6 d.7
,A\
18 A relative orientation finds solution for parameters.
a. three b. four c. five d. six
t9 solves for camera internal paramters.

a. Block Adjustment with Self Calibration
b. Block Adjustment by Independent Models
c. Resection
d. Polynomial Strip and Block Adjustment
20 Which of the following makes image matching faster?
a. Correlation coefficient
b. Image Paramid
C. DSM
d. Extracting and matching features from Topographic maps
A
,4.
,a-\
t
December 2022
0 7. l{lAY 2023
Label : B.E. Couise : GEOM 316
SECTION "B"
t6Qx4=24marksl
Attempt ANI SIX questions. Assume data wherever necessary.
1. Describe types of aerial photographs. Explain forward overlap and endlap with necessary
diagrams. 12 + 21
,^
2. Explain area based image matching with an example. I4l
3. How is feature extraction used in topographic mapping? Explain image interpretation.

+21 12
4. What is parallax in Photogrammetry? How does it help in estimating height of an object
from aerial images? Illustrate with an example. t4I
5. How does epipolar constraint help image matching? Illustrate with an example. t4l
6. Explain relative orientation with necessary diagrams. t4l
7. Illustrate radial distortion in aerial images. How is lighting condition important in

Terrestrial Photogrammetry? 12 + 2l
..C"
SECTION
t2Qx8=16marksl
A AttemptAIL questions.
8. How is an orthophoto different from an aerial photogrpah? Discuss radiometric problems
for image mosaic and your recommendations for its quality improvement. How does error
in DTM influence the quality of orthophoto? Illustrate with a diagram. 12 + 3 + 3l
9 Describe pre-pointing of GCPs. For aphotograph with exterior orientation (1.5o,2", 89:5"),
camera center at (15500, 14000, 2500)m, and camera parameters
(xo, yo, D=C0.022,-0.032,151.70) mm, calculate the coordinates of image of the ground
poini 1ISZO0, 13900, 850) m, in the fiducial based system. 12 + 6l
,4.
0 ?[nt zrLJ

April/Ivl ty,2023
Level : B.E./El.Sc Course : COMP 307
Registration No.: Date

..A"
SECTION
[20Q. x 0.5 = 10 marks]
Encircle the most appropriate answer.
1 Which of the following is NOT a function of an operating system?

A. File Management B. Virtual Memory Management
Management
C. Virnralization D. Interface Management
2 In Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) .
A. Each processor run identical copy of the OS

B. Each processor is assigned specific task
C. It uses loosely coupled system
D. It may make use of commodity platform
3 Which of the following cannot be considered as an advantage of a Distributed System?

A. Fail-Safe B. Resource sharing
C. Computational speed up D. Tightly coupled
A. efficiently distribute resources B. implement less busy waiting

C. prevent deadlock D. recover from deadlock
5 Pagesizeis-proportionaltointernalfragmentation.
A. directly B. inversely C. constantly D. exponentially
6. The size of virtual memory of any system is dependent on

A. RAM size B. Swap memory C. Address Bus D. Data Bus
7 Translation lookaside buffer help to -.

A. Reduce page fault B. Increase page fault
C. Efficient page handling D. Reduce EAT
8 Which queue is used to list the processes that are prepared to be executed?
A. Ready Queue B. Waiting Queue
C. Execution Queue D. Job Queue
9 Which of the following is efficient among file allocation methods?

A. Linked B. Contiguous C. Stacked D. Indexed
10 Which of the following is a component of the process conffol block?

A. Accounting information B. Different processes states
C. Operating System information D. Secondary memory information
11. Which of the following is also known as double buffering?
1. ICFS buffering B. Buffer siapping
C. Circular swapping D. Waited Uufferirig
12. ln which oS structure the operating system services such as memory
management and
process management are provided by the kernel?
A. Macro B. BDS C. Linux D. Monolithic
, *r! rr"
13 Information about which of the foilowing is not stored in the page

table?
t i:?:.:fl:t,, addressoieach page

B: Bli!
14. Page replacement algorithm implements the concept of
to mitigate page fault ratio.
A. Random access B. Dimand paging
C. Locality of reference -
D. Thrashing
-
15 What could be the constraints of compaction to remove external fragmentation? \./
A. Double buffering B. UO response
C. Kernel buffering D. VO buifering
16. A process is said to be in state if it is waiting for an event that will never occur?
A. waiting B. starvation c. Ready D. Deadlock
-
17. which of the following is Nor a benefit of microkernel system structure?
A. Easier to port to next operating system
B. Easier to communicate between sub process
C. More secure and more reliable
D. More operations moves from kernel mode to user mode
18. No preemption in deadlock characterization means
A'
_.
Processes must not be using a resourcing and demanding other
resources at same
time.
B. Process must have priority of using resources.
c. Process can release the resource only when it complete its task \-l
D. Processes can be forced to release the resource uyitre operating system.

t9 If there is a cycle in a resource allocation graph with several instances per resource
type,
then it may lead to the following condition
A. It will lead to a deadlock. B: It will not lead to a deadlock.
C. Possibility of deadlock. D. It will lead to allocation problems.
20. Binary semaphore is also known as _.

A. Counting Semaphore B. Mutex lock
C. Busy waiting luck D. Monitor lock
,t+$,+
End Semester Examination [C] 02 tlAY 2023
April/NIlY,2023
Level : B.E./EI.Sc. Course : COMP 307
SECTION "B"
[6Q.x4=2;4 marks]
Attempt ANY SN questions.
l. What are the operations of an operating system as a resource manager and as a control
manager? 12+21
2. Write in brief about kernel, system program and application programs. [1+1.5+1.5]
3. List the methods used to pass parilmeters to the OS in a system call with brief explanation.
4. What is the purpose of segmentation? How segmentation is used for efficient memory
-
allocation? [1+3]
5. Explain in brief about the concept of shared library using virtual memory with appropriate
diagrams.
6. Write in brief about device directory and information that are available in device directory.
7. What are the drawbacks of contiguous allocation of disk space?
SECTION..C"
t2Qx8=16marks]
8. Describe in brief about the steps of handling page faults and aspects of demand paging with
appropriate diagrams. [5+3]
g. A. Explain the use of monitors for Process Synchronization using any classical problem.
t4l
B. Write is brief about procedures involved in Direct Memory Access using appropriate
diagram. t4l
10. Consider the following set of processes with CPU burst time and arrival time given in
milliseconds L2+4+21
Process Burst Time Arrival Time
P1 8 1
P2 ) 0
P3 2 2
P4 1 1
P5 5 3
a. Draw Gantt charts illustrating the execution of these processes using SJF non
' preemptive and RR(quantum = 2) scheduling.
b. What is the turnaround time of each process for each of the scheduling algorithms?
c. Which of the algorithms result in minimal average waiting time?
A
;\
AprilAday 2023
Level : B.E. lB.Sc./Ei.Tech. Course : MGTS 301
Registration No.: Date .0 LllAY ?afi
SECTION "A"
:
[20Q. x 0.5 10 mar*s]
Encircle the most appropriate alternative from the given choices.
l. To be economically acceptable, solutions to engineering problems must demonstrate

a. a positive balance of current benefits over current costs
/.^ b. a positive balance of long-term benefits over current costs
c. a positive balance of current benefits over long-run costs
d. a positive balance of long-term benefits over long-run costs
2. Which one of the following is NOT among one of the Principles of Engineering
Economy?
a. Develop the alternatives b. Focus on the expected future outcomes
c. Use a consistent viewpoint d. Make risk and uncertainty explicit
3 is common to all alternatives, is not part of the future

(prospective) cash flows, and can be disregarded in an engineering economic analysis
a. Standard cost b. Incremental cost c. Sunk cost d. Opportunity cost
4. A company produces an electronic timing switch that is used in consumer and

commercial products. The fixed cost is $73,000 per month, and the variable cost is $83
:
per unit. The selling price per unit (p) is expressed as p $180 - 0.02(D), where D
iepresents the demand. What is the optimal volume for this product?
a. 932units per month b. 2,425 units per month
c. 3,glSunitspermonth d. l,4g3unitspermonth
5 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct regarding cost estimation?
a. A 'tottom-up" procedure for estimating total product cost is commonly used by
companies to trelp them make decisions about what to produce and how to price their
n'riXd"'ijlot
b. which is a top-down approach, is to design prodscts
e of target costing,
out of costs before those products enter the manufacturing process.
c. The practice of considering cost performance as important as technical performance
during the design process is termed design to cost.
d. Conventional tools, such as work breakdown structure and cost estimating, are used
to prepare a bottom-up total manufacturing cost projection.
6. Which of the following methods convert cash flows resulting from a proposed problem
- solution into their equivalent worth at some point (or points) in time by using an interest
rate known as the MARR?
L. Present Worth Method and Annual Worth Method
b. Present Worth Method and Internal Rate of Return
c. Intemal Rate of Return and Payback Period
d. Internal Rate of Return and Extemal Rate of Return
7 Your monthly mortgage payment (principal plus interest) is S1,500. If you have a 30-year
loan with a fixed interest rate of 0.5% per month, how much did you borrow from the bank
to purchase your house?
a. $180,000 b. $250,000 c. $300,000 d. 5540,000
8 What is the principal remaining after 20 monthly payments have been made on a $20,000
five-year loan? The annual interest rate is l2ohnominal compounded monthly?
a. $10,224 b. $13,333 c. $14,579 d. $16,073
9. MARR, which is sometimes called the stands for
a. breakeven interest rate; minimum average rate of refurn

b. hurdle rate; minimum attractive rate of refurn
c. hurdle rute; minimal attractive rate of return
d. breakeven interest rate; minimal attractive rate of return
10. Which one ofthe following statements regarding return to capital is CORRECT?
a. If capital is invested in a project, investors u,ould expect, as a minimum, to receive a \.-/
retum at least equal to the amount they have sacrificed by not using it in some other
available opportunity of comparable risk.
b. If capital is invested in a project, investors would expect, as a minimum, to receive a
return equal to the amount they have sacrificed by not using it in some other available
opportunity of comparable risk.
c. If capital is invested in a project, investors would expect, as a minimum, to receive a
retum greater than ttre amount they have sacrificed by not using it in some other
available opporttmity of comparable risk.
d. If capital is invested in a project, investors would expect, as a minimum, to receive a
retum that is equal to or greater than the amount they have sacrificed by not using it
in some other available opportunity of comparable risk.
11. A corporate jet costs $1,350,000 and will incur $200,000 per year in fixed costs and$277
per hour in variable costs. The jet will be operated for 1,200 hours per year for five years
and the'n sold S650,000. Given MARR = l5o/o, what is the capital recovery cost of the jet?
a. CR: $1,350,000 (NP,l5yo,5) - $650,000 (A/F, l5%,5)
b. CR: $1,350,000 (PIA,l5yo,5) - $650,000 (F/A, l5%,5) \-',
c. CR: $1,350,000 (NF,l5oh,5) - $650,000 (A/P, l5%,5)
d. CR: $1,350,000 Gp/A,lsyo,5) - $650,000 (A/F, l5%,5)
12. A specialized automatic machine costs $300,000 and is expected to save $111,837.50 per
year while in operation. Using a l2%o interest rate, what is the discounted fayback
period?
a. 4 years b. 5 years c. 6 years d. 7 years
13. When comparing and selecting among mutually exclusive alternatives where useful lives
are unequal, the most preferred method is
a. Present Worth GUD method b. Capitalized Worth (CW) method
c. Anntral Worth (AUD method d. Future Worth (FUD method
14. An equipment that costs $12,000 has a life of eight years with a salvage value $2,000.
What is the straight line depreciation amount for each year?
a. $1,500 b. $1,000 c. $1,200 d. $1,250
15. The three major reasons for rePlacement analYsis include
a. physical impairment, altered requirements, technologY
b. depreciation, Physical deterioration, altered requirements
c. depreciation, physical impairment, obsolescence
d. physical imPairment, technology , sunk cost
16. is normally used for the evaluation of public projects.
a. Present worth method b. Breakeven analYsis
c. Benefit-cost ratio method d. Internal rate of return method
17.
offset tt o earn profits or pay income taxes'
"it
a. self-liquidating projects b. multiple-purpose projects
c. mutualiy exclusive projects d' public projects
18. which one of the following is NoT among the criticisms of the B-c ratio?
/A. a. It is often used as a tool for after-the-fact justifications rather than for project
evaluation.
b. Serious distributional inequities (i.e., one goup reaps the benefits
while another
incurs the costs) may not be accounted for in B-c studies.
c. Qualitative informaiion is often ignored
in B-C studies'
C-omputational diffrculty and poriibl. multiple values associated with
B-C ratio.
d.
19. is used to explore what happens to a project's
profitability when the estimated value of study factors is changed.
a. Breakeven analYsis b. Sensitivity analYsis
c. Spiderplot d. Breakeven chart
The relative degree of sensitivity of the PW to each factor is indicated by the slope
of the
20.
curyes.
a. The steeper the slope of a curve the less sensitive the PW is to the factor.
b. The steeper the slope of a curve the more sensitive the PW is to the factor.
c. The largir the value of PW the more sensitive it is to the factor.
d. The smaller the value of PW the less sensitive it is to the factor.
zA\.
End Semester Examination
April/Ivlay 2023
0 2 iltAI 2023
Level : B.E./Ei.Sc./Ei.Tech. Cotrse : MGTS 301

SECTION "B"
[6Q. x {:24 marks]
l. Explain with relevant examples fixed costs, variable costs, and overhead costs
2 a. What is the size of eight equal annual payments to repay a loan of $1,000? The first
payment is due one year after receiving the loan.
b. A credit card company of 1.375% per month on the unpaid

charges an interest rate
balance of all accounts. The annual interest rate, they claim is 16.5%. What is the
effective rate of interest per year being charges by the companf
3 you are faced with making a decision on a large capital investment proposal. The capital
investnent amount is $O+d',OOO. Estimated annual revenue at the end of each year in the
eight-year study period is $180,000. The estimated annual year-end expenses are $42,000
rtrrting in yearone. These expenses begin decreasing by $4,000 per year at end of year
four anA continue decreasing through end of year eight. Assuming a $20,000 market
value at the eighth year and a MARR = l2o/oper year. Use the PW method to determine
the profitability of this investment.
4. The International Parcel Service has installed a new radio frequency identification system
to help reduce the number of packages that are incorrectly delivered. The capital
investrnent in the system is $65,000, and the projected annual savings are given below.
The system's market value at the end of fifth year is negligible, and MARR = l8o/o.
Determine the discounted payback period.
a
EOY 1 2 J 4 5
Savinss ($) 25,000 30,000 30,000 40,000 46,000
5 An established consulting company has purchased new furniture for their offices at a
retail price of $100,000. An additional $20,000 has been charged for insurance, shipping
and hindling. The company expects to use the furriiture for l0 years and then sell it at a
salvage vaft of $10,000:Determine the annual depreciation amounts using the SL
mettrod. Tabulate the annual depreciation amounts and the book value of the fumiture at
the end ofeach year.
6. A project is being considered by the Department of Transportation to replace an aging

bridge across the state highway. The existing two-lane bridge is expensive to maintain
and creates a traffic bottleneck because the state highway is four lanes wide on either side
of thetridge. The'new bridge can be constructed at a cost of $300,000, and estimated
annual maintenance costs are $10,000. The existing bridge has annual maintenance costs
of $18,500. The annual benefit of the new four-lane bridge to motorists, due to the
removal of the fiaffic bottleneclq has been estimated to be $25,000. Using a MARR of
8% anda study period of 25 years, determine whether the new bridge should be
constructed.
7 Write short notes on (r4^MY TWO):
a. Value engineering
b. Sunk cost trap
c. Evaluating public-sector projects
SECTION "C"
[2Q' 8: 16 marks]
"
8. Suppose that the parents of a young child decide to make annual deposits into a savings
account, with the first deposit being made on the child's fifth birthday and the last deposit
being made on the 15ft birthday. Then, the parents plan to withdraw S2,000, $2,400,
$2,800, and $3,200 respectively starting on the child's 18th birthday. If the effective
annual interest rate is 8% during this period of time, what are the annual deposits to be
made from year five to year fifteen? Use the concept of uniform gradient to find the
solution. Draw a cash flow diagram.
g. Four mutually exclusive projects are being considered for a new two-mile jogging track.
\-/
The life of the track is expected to be 80 years, and the sponsoring agency's MARR is
l2o/oper year. Annual benefits to the public have been estimated by an advisory
committee and are shown below. Use the IRR method (incrementally) to select the best
jogging track.
Alternative
A B C D
Initial cost s62,000 $52,000 s150,000 $55,000
Annual benefits $ 10,000 $8,000 $20,000 s9,000
Rate of return on 16.loh 15.40h 13.30 16.40
investment
10. Zerith P. Ltd. is considering the capital investment of $30,000. The estimated annual
revenues and expenses are $20,000 and $5,000 respectively. At the end of the useful life
of five yeaxs, themarket value is expected to be $1,000. MARR is 15% per year. However,
the managers are nervous because all of the cash flows and the useful life are approximate \../
values. The capital investment is lorown to be within + 5%. Annual expenses are known to
be within + tfi/o. The annual revenue, market value, and useful life estimates are known
to be within +2}%.Analyze the sensitivity of PW to changes in each estimate individually
and graph. your results.
0 LI'{AY 2023
KATHMANDU UNIVERSTTY Marks Scored:

April/Tvlay 2023
Exarn Roll No.: Time: 30 mins F. M. l0
Registration No. Date
SECTION "A"
t20Q.x 0.5 = 10 marksl
l. Finite State Machine can recognize
a. Any Grammar c. Regular Grammar
b. Oniy CFG d. Unambiguous Grammar
2. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a. A Finite State Machine with 3 stacks is more powerful than Finite State Machine with
2 stacks.
b. A Turing Machine cannot solve halting problem.
c. Set of recursively enumerable languages is closed under union.
d. Context sensitive grammar can be recognized by a linearly bounded memory
machine.
3. The transition function 6 ofNFA is

a.6:QxX-Q c.6:QxE-Q'
b. 6:QxZ-2a d. B.6:Q'X-X
4. Language of an DFA L(D) is defined as
a. L(D) = {wef,.l8(qs,w)nFliD} c. L(D): 1wef,-l6JCo,w) eF}
b. L(D): {wei*16(qo,w) nFlO} d. L(D): {weX+16(qs,w) €F}
5. Which of the following is true for grammar A-Aa/B

a. tr+ pA'ld, A' - aA'|fr c. A+ A'F, A' -> aA'le
b. A+ A'pl a, A' -> aA'lB d. tr+ PA'lF, A' + aA'la
/.^
6. If p and q be two R.E , the unique solution for r-q+rp is
a. r-qp. b. r:qp c. r-qq+ d. r: qp+ W*
7. RE to represent the set of all possible strings over I : {a, b} is

a. (a + b). b. (ab). c. (a+b)(a+b) d. .(a + b)*
8 Basic step for extended transition function 6 of NFA is
a. 6(q,a) - tq) b. 6(q,e) - {e} c.6(q,e) : tq} d. 6(q,a) - {e}
9 What is the equivalence of DFA and NFA?

a. Both can process and recognize the regular language.
b. Both can gorerate the similar strings.
c. Both are finite state machine with output.
d. Both are finite state machine that can process Context Free Grammar.
10. Pumping Lemma is generally used for proving
a. A given grammar is regular
b. A gven gralnmar is not regular
c. Whether two given regular expressions are equivalent or not.
d. A grammar is context sensitive.
I l. Which of the following algebraic rules are true for Regular Expression?
a. p.(q.r) = (p.q).r c. Both A and B
b. O+p:p*O=p d. pfp:p*
,. i*{,i
12. Any string of terminals that can be generated by the following CFG is
S-+XY
X-+axluxla
Y-+ ya lvt I u
a. Has no consecutive a's or b's c. Has at least two a's

b. Has at least one 'b' d. Should end in a a' o
13. The variable XeV is generating symbol

*** if
*
a. X=+w b. X+V* c. X+T*V* d. X + w*V*
14. Which of the following grammar is right linear?
a. S-*S l0/0 c. S---0S I / 1 S0/0
b. S-*0A, A*l0A/€ d. $---+lS1/0 \./
15. Which of the following condition must be satisfied before converting the grammar into
GNF?
a. The grammar must be simplified and productions are of the form A+
aB1B2...Bnor A + a.
b. The grammar must be in CNF.
c. The grammar must be without left recursion.
d. The grammar must be in CNF and productions are of the form A+ BC or + a.
16. The transition function of PDA P={Q, \,r,6, Qo, zo,F} is defined as
a. d: Qx f, -rQx r. c. d: Qx [X u e] +Qx z*
b. d:Qx{Xue}a7+Qxz* d. d:QxXxr+Qxr*
17. Which statement is true?
a. The PDA must have one accept state and one reject state
b. The PDA must have one accept state and two reject state
c. The PDA must have two accept state and two reject state
d. There is no reject state in the PDA. \/
l8 Sentential form of the CFG is
a. Any string from (7 U I)- that can be derived ftom any variable.
b. Any string from (7 u I)* that can be derived from any variable.
9. Any string from (7 u I)'that can be derived from start variable.
d. Any string from (7 U I)* that can be derived from start variable.
19. An tD of Turing Machine consists of
a. present state and entire input to be processed
b. present input only
c. entire input to be processed
d. input to be processed
20. A Turing Machine that can simulate the other Turing Machine is
a. Nested Turing Machine.
b. Counter Machine.
c. Multi-Tape Turing Machine.
d. Universal Turing Machine.
End Semester Examination tCI
April/Tvlay 2023
0 ?I{AY 2013
Level : B.Sc. ioutt. : COMP 316
"8"
SECTIONI
t6Q.x4:24marks]
l. Construct a DFA with transition diagrarn and transition table over alphabet !:{0,1} that
accepts the language L: {wl w is string that start with I and end with 0l }
2 Prove that for any NFA N accepting a Language L there is DFA D that also accepts L. i.e.
L(N): L(D).
3 Prove that L:{0"1uln>0} is not regular language.
4. Explain the different derivation approaches of Context Free Grammar.
5. Convert the following grammar into Finite Automata.

A-0AllDlO
B-+lC|OD
C-OBIlDlO
D*DllD
6. Define Parse Tree and Yield of Parse Tree with example.
7. Explain Instantaneous Description (ID) of Turing Machine with suitable example.
SECTION "C"
t2Q.x8-16marksl
Attempt AI\IY TWO questions.
/..\
8. Convert the following c-NFA into equivalent DFA.
t a b c
+A B A
B C C
:l.C C
9 Simplify the following CFG

S-ABC
A--,BBle
B--CCla
C-*AAlb
10. Write short notes with example. 12"4:8I

a. Chomsky Normal Form
b. Equivalence of PDA and CFG
,4.
/.^
End Semester Examinatioq tcl
April/IvltY,2023
Registration No.: Date :09' M -aL3

..A"
SECTION
[20Q. x 0.5 - 10 marks]
1. For a MIMO process consisting of 3 inputs & 4 outputs, the total number of transfer
functions for the system would be'
a.3 b.4 c.7 d'lz
K(-0.1s+ 1)
2. Consider the transfer function (s) : (5s+ 1)(3s+ 1)(0.5s+ 1)
. When approximated as a
FOPDT model using Taylor series, the transfer function would become
Yr-2'Ls - K e- 3.6s K e-z.Ls - Ke-3.5s
(1. b.- 5s+ 1 d.- 5.5s+ 1
6.5s*1 5s+ 1
'
3 For a stirred-tank heater, assume the transfer function between the heater input change
u(t) (caUsec) and the tank temperature change y(t) CC) can be modeled as
G(s) = Using the Final Value Theorem, the steady-state response for a unit
Ch
rectangular pulse change in the heating rate ( U(s) = T ) would be
a.0 b.l c.@ d.-1
4. An overdamped system consists of two first-order processes operating in series (tt = 4,

rz = l). The equivalent values of r and ( for this system are respectively
a. 2 & 1.25 b. 2 &0.40 c. 1.25 &2 d- 0.40 &2
5 A liquid flows through an equal percentage valve at a rate of 2 m3lh when the valve is
l07o open. When the valve is 20% open, the flow rate increases to 3 m3/tr. Assume that
the pressure drop across the valve and the density of liquid remains constant. When the
valve opens to S\Vo,the flow rate in m3/h is
a. 4.50 b. 6.00 c. 6.75 d. 10.12
6. A control valve having turndown ratio of 50 follows equal perceltage characteristic. The
flow rate of liquid ttrough the valve at 40Vo stem position is I m3ftr. The flowrate in m3/tr
at 507o stem position if pressure drop across the valve remains unchanged would be
a. 1.47 b. 1.63 c. 2.45 d. 3.91
7 The overall transfer functisn for 2 noninteracting capacities in series can be described by
Ke::
Go(s) = Gr(s).Gz(s)' = trrs+7'+.
tp2s+7
The response for such a system can never be
a. underdamped b. overdamPed
c. critically damped d. oscillatory
f(tt
8 Laplace transform of the following periodic function is I

-s L- e-s -se -s
a.TL_e-s -se
u'@
h
-s
L_e-s -se -s L- e-s -se
A'@
c.@ t
2345S7
For the Routh array given below, the value of K" and r1
for a stable system would'
9,
Row I 1 2+Kc
2 Kc
Row 2
T1
Kc a
Row i
2(Z + Kr) - T1
2
\.r'
Row 4 Kc
T1
a. Kc - 100, Tr = 0.1 b. K, = 10, TI = 0'5

c. Kc - 1000, Tr = 0-1 d. K, = 100, Tt = A'2
For an open loop ffansfer function Gor, the cross-over frequency is given as
=fff,
10.
1-.], the ultimate value of K" would be
dco = 17 rad/min. Considering a gain margin of
a. 0.20 b. 4.90 c' 0'59
d' 28'90
.:',1€F
11. Match the following

1. Piezoelectric sensors A. Liquid level
ii. Dielectric measurement B. Viscosity
iii. Rheometer C. TemPerature V
iv. Radiation D. Pressure
a. i -B, ii -A, iii -D, iv -c b. i -A, ii -D, iii -B, iv -c
c. i -D, ii -A, iii -B, iv -c d. i -D, ii - c, iii -A, iv -B
12. Offset for a unit step change in setpoint for

a pure capacitive system'using a P - only
controller would be
b. Kc c.0 d.m
a. 1
A step change of magnitude 4 is introduced into

a system having a transfer function
107
fhe overshoot for the system would be
ffi. c' 250 d. 10
a. 0.25 b' 0'62
function would be
14. The crossover frequency for the open-loop transfer #
a. rad/time
5 b. 2 tailtime c. 0.5 rad/time d. 2.5 rad/time
a
$teailt
suppf-
15. The P&ID shown in the figure shows which
control strategy?
a. Ratio
b. Feed forward
c. Cascade
d. Adaptive gain CoH &ed in
16. Choose the most apProPriate one.

cond'il'"E drdn
a. In cascade control, the master loop is trained I'bated eilllttent
before the slave loop.

b. In cascade control, the controller which is nearest to the final control element is the
fastest controller.
c. Cascade control always increases the sluggishness of the overall response.
d. Cascade controller is most advantageous when the primary process is significantly
,^ faster than the secondary process.
1,7 . A unity negative feedback system has an openJoo transfer function G(s) = ;6}11.*"
gain K for the system to hav e a damping ratio of 0.25 is
a. 400 b. 500 c. 25A d. 475
18 A first order system with unity time gain and time constant r is subjected to a sinusoidal
input of frequency ot = t/t.The amplitude ratio o the system is
a. 1 b. 0.5 c. ltfi. d.0.25
19. The response of the system G(s) = unit step input u(t) is y(t). The value of
6ffia
92att + 0+ is
dt
a. 0 b. 0.5 c. 1.0 d.m
20. The proper 'fail safe' status of a valve should always be dictated by
a. The configuration of the positioner
b. The controller's tuning
c. The controller's action (direct or reverse)
d. The nature of the process
/4,
,A
April/MdY,2023
SECTION "B"
t2Qx5= l0marksl
1. An electronic PI temperature controller has an output p of 12 mA when the set point

equals the nominal pioc"s temperature. The controller response to step change in the
,A\
temperature set poini of 2.5 mA (equivalent to a change of 5"F) is shown below
I,S p, mA
0+ 8.0
0- 6.7
2A 6.0
60 4.7
80 4.0
a. Determine the controller gain K" (mA/mA) and the integral time, r1. t3I
b. Is the controller reverse-acting or direct-acting? Justify your answer. tzl
2. For the liquid-level control system in Figure 1. the level transmitter has negligible
dynamics, *t ite ttte control valve has a time constant of 10 s. The following numerical
valuesareavailable:
A=3ftz
Qs = 10 gaYmin
Km- 4mMt
D 6
4s+ I
Y
I(. 4"0
0.5 *?-
$+3 1*r
I
$+10
Figure 1
Determine the numerical values of K, and rl for a PI controller that result in a stable
closed-loop system. tsl
'YPlt
-,ffi,
3. The response of a system to a unit step change in the input (occurring at time 0) is shown
in Figure 2.
1.6 8 tl I rt{ttlll{l
-)-l--.-?-F .i-+-F{'t'
? rt t ftrlrlital I
:.L -r-J, t -L J- l -r- J- L t
- Llratllrtlt l-r-l-t-LJ-.1,
1.4 , l, t rlllrll
ttla,al
, t trtrtltttt t
I I - f .r- 1- r -t. 1-?.t-.!. f ?-t-1-f-r-1-f
I I t
t.2
Itl I
Itl I
I tl
-L-i-.t
tll tt
y 0.8
ll{
-l.-r-f
,tt
tt
,r tl
rllltlllrtl
r -r- 1 - l''- 1- f -r- 1'1-f
I tlrtlltlr atttrtlrlllrlllt
.L LJ-J-L-l-*-t-t-J- -L J -1, -t- J- L -t- r - .l -t- J * f -l- J - I-L
0.6 t
I
{rt{tlrl{
ttrt ttrlt
{lttrltl}t{rtll{
,lttrlltlll.ltll
r r-I.1-r
{llrl
.r1.?-r1-r.t-.'.T.r1.t-f.I.l.r
rlrtlltlltllrtl,
t
-l-a-t-r-{- -).. .{- } -1.. l- l" -{- I r t -l-.a- } -l- { - l -1.
0.4 l.
I lr
tt
rll.t tt)rlr{}tllltll}
llrrlltttlrllt!l
!- -r-!-!-r-.!-
, ta ,trtr trllllrtt,tlttlt
I {tt}l{r{lltltllt
o.2 'r
.L -l-J-r
I I t at tta
lr ltt ,ll
0 -r, I ll
f -t-
t,
r-f -f-r-1
510 15 2A 25 30
Time (s)
Figure 2
\-/
a. Derive a second-order plus time delay model approximation for the system. t3l
b. Provide values for the gain, time constraints, and time delay of the SOPTD model. [2]
c.c),
[3Q x 10 = 30 marks]
Attempt ANI THREE questions.
4. Consider the following cascade connection of isothermal reactors as shown in Figure 3. A

first-order reaction A +
B occurs in both reactors, with reaction rate constant k' The
volumes of liquid in the reactors, V, are constant and equal; the flow rates Fs, F1, F2 and
R are constant. Assume constant physical properties and a negligible time delay for the
recycle line.
Fg, Cg R, \/
"v v F2,C2
Ft, ct
Figure 3
a. Write a mathematical model for this process. t3l
b. Derive a transfer function model relating the output concentration of A, C2 to the inlet
concentration of A, Cs. 12)
c. Verify that, in the limit of no recycle (R + 0), the transfer function derived in part b
is equivalent to the transfer function of the two tanks connected in series. 12.5)
d. Show that when k = 0 and a very large recycle flow rate is used (i.e., the limit as
R + o), the transfer function derived in part b becomes the transfer function of a
single tank that has the volume equal to 2V and a gain of one. 12.5)
(Hint Recognize that F1 = R * F2 and Fo = Fz)
5 The control system shown in Figure 4 contains a PID controller.
U
fr C
Figure 4
a. For the closed loop, develop formulas for the natural period of oscillation
z and the
damping factor 6 in t"..t oith" parameters K,Tp,r1 dndrv tll
For the following parts, ?p - rr = | andtr=2,
b. Calculate f wtien f is O.S and when K is2. 121
/A. c. Do { and t approach limiting values as K increases, and if so, what are these values?
12)
d. Determine the offset for a unit-step change in load if K is 2. tll

e. Sketch the response curve (C versus r) for a unit-step change in load when K is 0'5
and when K is 2. 12)
f. In both cases of part e determine the maximum value of C and the time at which it
occurs. l2l
6. As a newly hired engineer of the Ideal Gas Company, you are trying to make a rePutation
in the process Control Group. However, this objective turns out to be a real challenge
with I. M. Appelpolscher as your supervisor. At lunch one day, I.M.A. declares that a
simple g"ond-ord"r process with a Pi controller will always have a stability upper limit
on &; that is, 4 is limited for all values of 11 > 0. His best argument is that the open-
loop lrocess with the controller is third order. Furthermore, he claims that any critically
damped second-order process will show he is right.
tf,tuttering "au contraire," you leave the table and_quickly investigate the properties of
5
/i.
a. What ale the conditions for closed-loop stability for a PIcontroller? l2l
b. From these conditions, can you find a relationship for 11 in terms of K" that will
guarantee stabilitY? t3l
c. Show the stabilitt region in a plot of z1 vs K.. l2l
d. Do some values of ry guarantee stability for all values of Kr? If so, what is the
smailest value? t3I
Consider the open-loop transfer function

7
6ffi5
a. Draw an approximate root locus diagram by using the rules for manual drawing of
root locus foi closed-loop system as controller gain is changing from 0 to infinity. [3]
b. Find the approximate critical frequency & the maximum gain. 12)
c. Find optimil controller parameters for a PI controller using Ziegler-Nichols criteria.
t3l
d. What is the offset if the setpoint is increased by 2 unit? 12)
A.
,,A.
t
KATHMANDU TJNIVERSITY Marks Scored

AprilAvl?Y,2023
Level : B.Tech. Course :BIOT 302
Year : III Semester :I
F. M. 2A
a
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mlns.
No.: Date ,M ,.o L9

(c
A))
t20Q'x l=20 marksl
l. What is the difference between site specific recombination and transposition?

a. One uses recombinase another uses transposase that are different.
b. The specificity of the DNA locations from which jumping takes place are different.
c. The DNA location to which DNA jumps in specified in one and not specified in
another.
d. One describes jumping of DNA while another describes jumping of RNA'
2 Autonomous means
a. Able to jump from one location to another.
b. Having its own copy of transposase.
c. Able to move through RNA intermediate.
d. Able to jump to any location in the genome.
a
J Promoter escape by RNA polymerase in eukaryotes
a. involves phosphorylation of polymerase tail
b. involves RNA capping
c. does not involve ATP hydrolYsis
d. involves RNA loop formation
4 There isn't a channel in RNA polymerase for which of the following activities
a. Intake of ribonucleotide tri phosphase b. Release of DNA chain
c. Release of RNA chain d. Release of ribonucleotide di phosphate
5 Splicing
a. takes place in all prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
b. is active in lower eukaryotes Such aS S. cerevisiae.
c. is almogt non existent in fly organisms such as drosophila.
d. is very active in mice.
6. What is TRUE about Group I introns?
a. Branch site contains guanine.
b. Catalytic machinery is the minor spliceosome.
c. Catalytic machinery is the major spliceosome.
d. It is very common in eukaryotes.
7 Dscam gene splicing
a. is very well studied in humans
b. produces heavy and light chains in drosophila
c. can produce thousand of isoforms
d. contains docking site and discriminator sequence
t
8. For the attachment of amino acid to tRNA

a. The amino acid must first react with GMP
b. The amino acids directly react to 5' OH of tRNA
c. The amino acids directly react to 3' OH of IRNA
d. The amino acid must first be attached to AMP
9. Ribosome is a ribozyme. This means
a. Peptidyl transferase unit of ribosome has RNA
b. Peptidyl transferase unii of ribosome is partly RNA
c. Decoding center of ribosome has RNA
d. Decoding center of ribosome is partly RNA
10. How does iron level regulate ferritin protein production?
a. Iron changes transcription of ferritin protein
b. High level of iron binds to IRE
c. High level of iron binds to IRP which can no longer bind to IRE
d. High level of iron binds to eIF4F/B protein \./
11. What is the function of 5'capping of mRNA?
a. It helps recruit ribosome during translation initiation
b. It helps release ribosome after translation is complete
c. It helps release GTF from mRNA during promoter escape
d. It measures total mRNA levels in a cell
t2 Genetic code
a. is overlapping
b. can sometimes have non universal triplet code
c. can sometimes have doublet code
d. is non degenerate
13 LacZ,LacY and LacA are in an operon. What does this mean?
a. It means that the genes operate together
b. It means that the genes lie together and are transcribed from a promoter
c. It means that the three genes are translated by a common ribosome
d. [t means the genes are homologous to each other \-/
t4 How is RecA and lysis/lysogeny related?
a. Lamda repressor resembles LexA and is cleaved by action of RecA
b. RecA downregulates lamda repressor transcription
c. RepA upregulates lamda repressor transcription
d. RecA binds to the operator sites to switch lysis to lysogeny
15 What is common aboutNtrC and MerR regulation?
a. One directly regulates transcription, another regulates translation
b. They work by changing recruitment
c. They work by allosteric modification
d. They both bind to oPerator sites
16. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about transcription regulation of eukaryotes
compared to prokaryotes?
a. Regulation involves more regulatory sequences
b. Regulation involves more proteins
c. Regulation involves binding to sites further upstream than promoter
d. Regulation involves binding to intronic sites
,
I
t7 What are insulators?

a. They insulate charge between activators
b. They insulate activity of an enhancer on a promoter
c. They insulate activity of two activators
d. They insulate charge from an enhancer to a promoter
18. Aptamer and expression platforrn are parts of
a. Long non coding RNA that regulate sex determination
b. CRISPR RNA that degrade viral DNA sequences
c. Riboswiches that regulate expression of tryptophan
d. miRNA that regulate gene expression
19. What is CRISPR and what are Cas genes?
a. CRISPR is sequence found in virus and Cas are genes encoding nucleases in virus
b. CRISPR is sequence found in bacteria and Cas are genes found in bacteria
.*a c. CRISPR encodes for nucleases whereas Cas encode for proteases
d. There is no difference between CRISPR and Cas
20. Which of the following is NOT an example of the biological significance of negative
autoregulation?
a. Regulation of insulin receptor gene to maintain glucose homeostasis
b. Quick adaptation of E. coli to changes in nutrients in the environment
c. Sporulation in the bacterium Bacillus subtilis
d. Regulation of thyroid hormone level in the bloodstream
/-\
KATHMANDU LINIVERSITY
April/Muy,2A23
Dj' I'Lq a
Level : B.Tech. Course : BIOT 302

Year : tII Semester : I
Tirne : 2 hrs. 30 mins F.M. :55
658"
SECTI
[5Q' ' 3: 15 marks]
Attempt ANY FlllE questions.
1. What is special about serine recombinase? Describe'
2. What are mediators in transcription?
3. What is ribosome and polysome profiling?
A\ 4. What did Jacob and Monod describe about lac operon?
5. How can the pattern of DNA methylation be maintained through cell division?
6. What is domain swap experiment in eukaryotic transcription regulation?
7. How can RNAi be used as a defense mechanism?
..C"
SECTION
[5Q.'5-25marks]
Attempt ANY F /ZE questions.
8. Other than RNA capping, what are the other RNA processing activities? Describe.
9. How does spliceosome find splice sites reliably?
10. Describe antibiotics that block translation.
/^ 11. Describe how the genetic code was cracked.
12. How do operators work together in lamda phage to switch between lysis and lysogeny?
13. How do long non-coding RNAs lead to X chromosome inactivation?
14. What is noise in systems biology? Explain using examples. Describe the expression of
somite genes in vertebrate development. 12.5 + 2.51
..D''
SECTION
[2Q'" 7'5:15 marks]
Attempt ANY IIZO questions.
15. What are three types of transposons? Describe their genomic organization. Describe how
poly A retrotransposons move in the genome. [3 + 4.5]
16. How is sex determined in flies through splicing? How is pluripotency determined by
splicing? t4 + 3.5I
17. Describe the structure of tRNA and ribosome. [5 + 2.5]

.
.A\
KATHMANDU UNIVERSTTY Marks Scored:
AprilAvl?y,2023
Level : B.E Course : CIEG 303
Exam Roll No. : Time: 30 mins. F. M. : l0
Registration No.: Date ,3,Ntuf -oLs

SECTION "A"
:
[20Q. x 0.5 l0 marks]
I The rock fragments produced by transportation of wind is called

a. alluvial soil b. colluvial soil c. aeolian soil d. residual soil
A^
). The value of coefficient of curvature of a poorly-graded soil should be
a. less than I b. in between 1 and 3
c. more than 4 d. in between 0 and 0.5
3. When drainage is not permitted under initially applied normal stress only and full primarily
consolidation is allowed to take place, the test is known as
a. consolidated undrained test b. consolidated drained test
c. unconsolidated undrained test d. unconsolidated undrained test
4. A cohesive soil sample was taken from an SPT and returned to the laboratory in a glass jar
and the mass of the sample was 140.5 gm. The sample was ten placed in a container of
volume of 500 cm3 and 423 cm} of water was added to fill the container. What was the unit
weight of soil in kN/m3?
a. 17.9 b. 20 c. 21.5 d. 19.5
5 What is the value of low plasticity limit?

a. >80Yo b.70%-80% c. 50Yo-70% d. <50%
6 Slurrv oile wall
a. vertical wide flange steel members with horizontal timber lagging
b. cylinder or box filled with rocks, concrete
c. precast concrete members linked together to form a crib
d. cast-in-place concrete walls built using bentonite slurry
7 The intemal molecular attraction of a soil, the cohesion--
a. ismore in well compacted clays
b. depends uponthe external applied load
c. increases as the moisture content decreases
d. decreases as the moisture content increases
8 The O.C.R. of an over consolidated clay is
a. approximately 1.5 b. equal to I
c. less than I d. more than I
9. The seepage force in a soil is

a. inversely proportional to the exit gradient
b. inversely proportional to the exit gradient
c. parallel to the head loss
d. perpendicular to the equipotential lines
10. The ratio of settlement at any time 't' to the final settlement, is known as
a. consolidation of undisturbed soil b. degree of consolidation
c. coefficient of consolidation d. compressibility index
ll. The stability of a slope is increased by

a. shock caused by an earthquake
b. decreasing pore water pressure installing proper drainage paths s
c. increasing pore water pressure in the soil
d. cutting of the toe -.
12. The norrnal stress is
a. an abstract quantity b. equal to total stress
c. principal stress d. actual contact stress
13. The coefficient of active earth pressure is

a. 1-tan$'/1+tan$' b. l+sino'/l-sin$' c. l-sin$'/l+sin$' d. l+tan$'/l-tano'
\-/
14. The seepage force in a soil, is
a. inversely proportional to the exit gradient
b. inversely proportional to the exit gradient
c. perpendicular to the equipotential lines
d. parallel to the head loss
15. The angle that Coulomb's failure envelope makes with the horizontal is called
a. cohesion b. angleof intemal friction
c. dilatancy d. angle of rePose
16. The term 'rock mass' refers to

a. in-situ rock together without its discontinuities and fractures
b. the rock material with its discontiriuities and fractures
c. a large and indistinct massive body
d. the rock material without having weathering profiles
t7 If the RQD value in a tunnel alignment is found to be 75-90o/o,what should be the rock mass
quality?
a. good b. very good quality c. fair d. excellent
18. The coeffrcient of passive earth pressure is

a. l-tanO'/l+tan0' b. l+sin0'/l-sinOf c. l-sin$'/l+sin$' d' 1+tan$'/1-tanQ'
19. Which of the following conditions need to fulfil for the plane failure to be occurred?
a. joints, beddings or foliation is at same direction with the direction of slope 1+ 20")
and daylight the slope face
b. planar feature dip opposite to hill/cut slope with hill/cut slope at least 55o
c. intersections of any two or more discontinuities
d. wedge with close slope direction (up to 32o)
-.
20. The equal-angle Projection
a. preserves the angular relationships
b. preserves the area
c. represents with the help of rose diagram
d. represents the data in Schmidt stereo net
AprilAv1ay,2023 09'14ry
668"
SECTION
[8Q'"5:40marks]
AttemptlZZ questions.
l. Write down one specific problem of swelling clay with an example. Write down the
properties of equipbtential iine and flow line. Use the grain size_distribution curve shown
below to classiiy soils A and B using USCS. Soil B's Atterberg Limits are,LL: 49% ary!
pL:45yo. U+l+3I
silr Clay
Sand
^\ Gravd
Crarte I'lSlum Flre
tJ
o D
s t
4
? ,
6 ,
6
..q
z6
100
90
80
,y
t
I
E?o
t
B
.]
e
60
E
L
Eso
I
[40
30
a0
r0
0
[0 11' 2 1 0.420 0,1 0.075 0.01 0-oo2 G.001
Pertkle Eirmotr (rnm)
2 Define effective stress bf a soil. A soil particle is found to be subjected to a rhaximum stress
of 14.6 killlm2, and a minimum stress of -4.18 kN/m2. Find the oe srd te on the plane of
0 = 50o with respect ofthe major principal stress, and also find t."r.
[l+4]
3. Determine the equation for the factor of safety of infinite slope using Coulomb's law. The
bulk unit weight of soil is determined to be 2.0 t/m3 and angle of internal friction
determined in the laboratory shear test is 30". The depth of the slide is identified as 2.0 m
and the angle of landslide profile is measured to be 43'. Determine the stability number of
the given landslide. Assume unit weight of water is l0 kN/m3.
12+31
4. Describe the procedure to determine pre-consolidation pressure with a suitable diagram.

Discuss the normally consolidated soil and over consolidated soil with approPlia!9
equation. t2'5+2'51
5 A retaining wall with a smooth vertical back is 5 m high and retains a two-layer sand backfill
with the following parameters as shown below in the diagram. Determine the active earth
pressure distribution at the top, boundary and at the bottom of the layer. Assume that the water
table is situated below the base of the wall. 12.5+2.51
0rn
t
c'= 0
S'= 33"
3
T = 18 kNlrn
2,5
c'= 0
*'= 36.' \/
3
? = 20 kNJrn
I
5rn
6. Differentiate between intact rock and rock mass. Describe the rock mass classification in
detail with suitable example from Nepal Himalaya. 12+31
7 Differentiate between (AIIY TWO). [2Q. * 2-5 - 5]

a. Active earth pressure and passive earth pressure
b. Over consolidated soil and norrnally consolidated soil
c. Plane failure and Wedge failure
8 Write ShortNotes on (AI{Y fwq. t2Q.x/.5:5]
a. Types of hemispherical projection
b. Stratified permeability
c. Direct shear test of soil
\/
( 4

April/Tvl?Y,2023
Semester : I
Year : III
Registration No.:
Date : J 'l,tlalr oL3
..A"
LECTION
:
[20Q. x 0.5 10 marks]
1. Which of the following statement is INCORRECT?

a. Approximate Estiriate may be prepared by different method but accurate method
is prepared by detailed estimate method.
b. Excavated earth is used in trench filling and plinth filling and usually not paid for
rate.
separately, but may also be included under a separate item and paid at lesser
A
c. No Aeauction for opening is considered up to 1 square feet in masonry.
d. For pointing in walls deductions are different than plastering.
2. statement is INCORRECT?
Which of the following-water
a. For sanitary and supply works 8%o and for electrification 8% of the
estimated cost of the building works are usually provided in estimate.
b. In general dimension should be measured to the nearest 0.01 m, area should be
worked out to the nearest 0.01 sq m and cubic contents should be worked out to
the nearest to 0.01 cu m.
c. Shallow and thin surface work shall be taken in cubic meter.
d. Piece work, job work etc. shall be taken in number.
a. RCC is measured in cubic meter
b. Honey combing brickwork is measured in square meter
c. Jack arch roofing including top finishing is measured in square meter
,A.
d. Iron work in truss is measured in cubic meter
a. Removing of paint or varnishing is measure in square meter
b. Dismantling of brick masonry is measured in cubic meter
c. Tents, sholdaries (size specified) is measured in square meter
d. Usually supply of coal is done in tonne
5 The size of room is 3 meter by 10 meter by 5 meter (height) having one opening of (3
meter by I meter) for ventilation, then
a. Total wall plaster is 130 square meter b. Total wall plaster is 254 square meter
c. Total wall plaster is 260 square meter d. Total wall plastet is 124 square meter
a. For Earthwork excavation , the rate of the item will be same if it is done by labor
or machine
b. For earthwork excavation, rate will be increased by 3% for tools and equipment's.
c. Number and rate ofnon-skilled labor will be different for brick work either it is in
ground floor or other above floor.
d. For plastering in wall and ceiling, the number of skilled manpower will be
different.
a. Number of skilled manpower for 1 cubic meter brick work of 1:3 C:S and l:5 C:S
is same
b. Number of brick unit required for I cubic meter brick work of l:3 C:S and 1:5
C:S is same
c. Amount of cement quantity for I cubic meter of brick works for l:3 C: S and 1:5
Cement sand is same.
d. Amount of water is more if the quantity of cement is more for mortar in brick
work.
8 For 12.5 mm, 100 square meter plaster work, with C:S (l:2), the amount of sand
required is
a. l.22squaremeter b. 1.22 cubicmeter
c. 1.28 square meter d. 1.28 cubic meter
9 The size of brick considered for the rate analysis as per DUDBC norms is
a. 224 mm by 108 mm by 57 mm b. 230 mm by 115 mm by 55 mm
c. 240 mm by 115 mm by 57 mm d. 190 mm by 90 mm by 90 mm
\-/
10. Which ofthe following statement is INCORRECT?
a. Steel reinforcement is calculated as per actual requirement as laid in position
including over-laps, hooks, cranks etc. and it is determined from the detailed
drawings.
b. In absence of detailed estimate, approximately the percentage for steel concrete is
considered as 6 to 8% for column
c. In absence of detailed estimate, approximately the percentage for steel concrete is
considered as 0.5 to 0.8% for foundation.
d. In RCC work if it is not specified, the side and end cover may be considered as 4 to 5
cm.

a. The length of one hook may be taken as 9 times the diameter of steel bar.
b. For the steel bar having horizontal length L and one hook, total bar length is
L+18D (D is diameter of bar)
c. The schedule of bar is a list of reinforcement bars in a tabular form giving the
particulars of bars shape of bending with sketches , length of each and total length V
and total weight.
d. Clear cover, end cover, side cover, top cover, bottom cover etc. for slab will be
normally less than that of beam.
I2_. For the plan of foufldation having dimension 3 meter by 3 meter, if the 20 mm
. diameter bar spacing is 20 cm center to center in both directions, assuming end cover
of 4 cm, what would be the length of bar with trvo standard end bends?
a. 3 meter b. 3.1 meter c. 2.92 meter d. 3.28 meter
13. The covered area of a proposed building is 200 square meter including a rear
courtyard of 5 meter by 3 meter. If the prevailing plinth area rate for similar building
isNRs.1500permetersquare,thecostofthebuildingsis-(inNRs).
a. 277,500 b. 300,000 c. 322,500 d. 2000 to 3000
14. The value of the structure at the end of 5 years (by Declining balance method), having
initial cost NRs. 20,000, Scrap Value NRs. 5,000 and life expectancy 15 years is
a. Rs. 12600 b. Rs. 15000 c. Rs.13334 d. Rs.7400
J
15. For earth of road work for 200 meter length for a portion of a road in a uniform
ground the heights of banks at two ends being 1 meter and 1.6 meter. The formation
width is 10 meter and side slope is (H:V) 2:l and no transverse slope then
a. Area by mid-section method is more than mean section method
b. Area by mid-section method is less than mean section method
c. Area by both method is same
d. There is no relation between quantities calculated by both the methods
16. The quantity of loose metal required for a 3.7 meter wide Macadam road for one
kilometer lengh for one layer of 8 cm compacted thickness (volume of loose metal
gets reduced by one third on compaction)
a. 296 cubic meter b. 444 cubic meter
c. 198 cubic meter d. 390 cubic meter
17. Inconect statement is

a. In booking dimension the order of dimension shall be length, breadth and height
or thickness or depth
/1^ b. Foundation to plinth level should be measured under same item of category
c. From plinth level to second floor level should be considered as a separate item
d. Lead ihall be measured from the center of the area of excavation to the center of
the area of soil heap
18. Most accurate method of estimation is

a. Plinth arearate method b. Cubic content method
c. Approximate method d. Revised estimate
19. Capitalized value of the property fetching a net annual rent of Rs. 1000 and the
highest rate of interest prevalent being 5% is as follows
a. Rs.20,000 b. Rs. 50 c. Rs.12500 d. Rs' 20
20 Which is the type of specification?

a. General Specification b. Detailed Specification
c. Technical specification d. Supplementary specification
,+-\
I
KATHMANDU IINIVERSITY
End Semester trxamination [C]
April/IM&y,2023
o??Ma*q26LZ
..B"
SECTION
AttemptALL questions. Assume data suitably if required.
1. a. What are the main items of works for the estimation of RCC Building? Explain
about the measurement unit and opening deduction of plastering work for
quantity estimation. [1+2]
b. liri.flyd"rcribe about the principle of unit for various items of work. tll
c. Writelhe unit of measurement of the following items of works.
[8 x 0-25 :2]
i. Quarrying of stone
ii. Sundried brick work
,A\ iii. Weather course
iv. Bending of steel reinforcement
v. Iron gates
vi. Bituminous painting
vii. Painting of furniture
viii. Supply of slaked lime
2 Estimate the quantity of following items of work from the given plan and section
Figure (2) of motor Earage. (Calculate for Garage only excluding Ramp portion)
i. Earthwork in excavation in foundation (Garage) tl]
ii. Lime concrete in foundation (Garage) tU
(Garage)
iii. I-Class brick work in foundation and plinth l2l
iv. 2 cm DPC work tll
v. I-Class brick work in superstructure l2l
3 Workout the quantity of steel reinforcement for following component of a RCC

framed structure as shown in Figure (3), Assume suitable covers of concrete, hook
lengths etc.
i. Foundation ttl
ii. Column 121
iii. Slab 12)
4. Calculate the quantity of earthwork of a hill road in side-long ground. Tangent of

traverse slope of ground (tanO) is equal to 0.2 althrough as measured by Ghat Tracer.
The length of chain is 20 meter. The formation width of road is 7 meter and'slope
bank is 2:1. RL of formation level and Ground level at the center of the road are as
follows: t5l
Distance RL of Ground RL of formation level
Chain-age /Station (m)
(m) (m)
5 100 200.0 2A1.2
6 t20 199.7 5 201 .8
7 AA 200.50 202.4
8 r60 201 .70 203.0
5 Prepare the quantity estimate of the surface drain for 10 meter length from the given
section Figure (5). t3I
6. a. What are the factors affection the rate analysis? tl]
b. Prepare the rate analysis for 10 m3 of 1:3:6 PCC work. Assume required data
suitably. t4l
7 What are the purpose of doing valuation? Compute the depreciation charge and book
value of each year by sinking fund method with following information for the
property. [1+4:5]
o Initial cost of asset: NRs. 500, 000 & Salvage Value: NRs. 80,000
o Life of asset: l0 years and interest rate (R) :l\Yo
8 Write short notes. [2 x 2: 4]
a. Specification (t1pes and points to be considered while writing specification)
b. Approximate Estimate (Types)
MOTOR GARAGE
7.5 crn L.C. To,asng ovet llcrn R.C.C. Slab
7.5 cm
YL 12 cnr \./
l5 cm -r
20 cm R.C.C. Lintet 30 cm
30 cm 0 cmR.C.C. Lintel
l--
3.00 m 2.30 m
1
2 cm D.P.C. 5 cm thick
T- Slab 2.00 m -{
L
40
2.5 cm CC over OTI 2Qz
30 crn 7.5 crn L.C. Cr
4-r 10 crn
I
-{60 crnf-- SECTION ON AB 4 crn C.C. over 7.5 crn L.C. cm
30 crn
Shetues r-'I
\/
E
W-l.ffim x 1.20 m 1.00m x 1.80m a
.o a
2m m -.{ I
x T a
B
A
E E RamP -)
^rr I ac, Garage 6.50 m x 3.00 m 2.5 m
l0 cm
E 6.50 m .-.-.rD -ttJ
-,,.,i_l -.
PI,AN
Figure (2) Ior Question Number (2) (Plan and Section of the Garage)
Arrchor bars
2mm 9rnrn02nos
I
U'
I
N I
'l
o 9rnm g (l) 425 ,l
t Stirrups
(as rn L-sec.)
t8 mm q 2 nos. (d)
12 rnm 0 2 nos (e)
c, 18 mm o 2 nos' Ivtilrl Span Seoion
--a-bar
Long section
Beam - 8,
Anchor baa 600
nos. (m)
mmS4nos.(n)
I
o
|o 9mmg 8mm0(g)
ffic-bar
(All dimen$ons
(1) stinups 2 nos.
in crn exept
l
oher wise (as per Pla! cl
nrn 0 (o) 18 mm 0 (h)
nen[oned) bearn 81)
15 cm 0C 2 nos.
stirnrps ;:H: ) s rnm o 24 cm crc
,A, c-bar 6 mm 0 30 crn c/c
Fl Mid Span Seclron
Slab 12 crn
-T Beam B,
hrct
-ol
:t A.rrchor bars
9mmo
Br us, B,
la.-- 2ms I
to
9mrntb) N
15 cm C}/C
hh ways lSmmE(/
2 nos
i
(, I rnrn o mm q (k/
p t0 cm c/c 2 nos
ginups
Micl Span Sectlon Jg

Beam B,
Ff l Scc:li.:.i.l
Figure(3) for Question Number (3) (Plan and Section of the building)
12 mm cement plaster 1 : 4
,1 l*- 200 rF-loo -{
Brickworkinl:6
200 cement sand mortar
100 (All dimensions in mm'
80 a
a o
ro oa t
l_
C.C 1 :2:4
C.C1:4:8
Figure (5) lor Question Number (5) (cross section of a surfoce drain)
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2023 April May III I (C)

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KATHMANDULINIVERSITY Marks Scored:

End Semester Examination [C]

Year : III Semester: I

Encircle the most appropriate alternative from each set of choices'

The transfer function is defined as ...... ..

2. The Laplace transform of e-2' sin 2t is

a. One resistor value c. Three resistor values

16. A low pass filter is formed using... ... ...

b. Explain what is meant by open-loop transfer function in relation to a closed-loop

4. a. The unity feedback system is characterized by an open loop transfer function

5. a. The open-loop transfer function of a control system is given below: t4I

Encircle the most appropriate alternative from each set of choices.

l. [f a microprocessor is capable of addressin g 64K bytes of memory, its address-bus width is

2. The timing diagram for CMP M instruction requires ... T states.

a.0,0 b.0, I c. 1,0 d. l, I

a. 67 pts b.33.5ps c. l4ps d.23ps

7 TheHOLD pin ... Intel8085.

a. 30H b.22H C.4FH d.zCH

17. A after the execution of the following instructions is

DJNZ R2, REPEAT

a. 00H b. l5H C. OFH d. FOH

1 . a. Describe the function of different bus of a microprocessor. l2l

button Green light

Direct solar radlatlon

CEl and CEZ: chrp enable purs

KATHMANDU UNIVERSITY Marks Scored:

Exam Roll No.: Time: 30 mins. F.M. :10

1. and height of water in reservoir is 30

2. Horizontal earthquake acceleration acts towards downstream of the river, then

18. The safety valve of a dam is

ApriUMay 2023 l" [i :-t i i-: :J

Attempt ALL questions. Assume data suitably if required.

6 An earth dam made up of homogeneous material has the following data

No.: Date , X€ [-o t-9

Encircle the most appropriate answer from the given choices.

1 The instrumental method, i s based on the scattering of radiation

2. Which of these statements is TRUE?

4. In which region of the electromagnetic spectrum does an absorption at 380 nm come?

6. Which one of the following is a hard source?

7 Which of the following isotopic peak is much intense for CHsBr?

11. of light is transmitted through the sample

13. The absorption frequency in a 2.35 T magnetic field of 'H

14. detector which is used in GC employs a

l'7 . s an example of anion exchange resin

20. GC separation where temperature remains same throughout analysis is called

Year : III Semester: I

Attempt ANY FNE questions.

2. What do you mean by spectral interference? In a hydrogen-oxygen flame, the atomic

3. What is calibration of an instrument? When is standard addition method used for

band and their relative areas. t3l

Attempt AMI FIVE questions.

9 a. Define auxochrome. What are the effects of substituent and conjugation on

13. a. What do you know about charge transfer absorption? t3l

Attempt ANY TWO questions.

15. a. Describe the various kinds of columns used in GC. t4l

t7 a. Write short note on sample handling techniques in IR. [3.5]

l. ........method is used to find optimal solution of Assignment

2 Objective function of salesman problem is ...

5. Maximizing assignment problem is solved by converting into minimizing assignment

6. tf LP-Problemis Maxtmize Z - l0 x1* 20x2 then 10 indicates

7. Objective function is parallel to one of the constraints giving the

9. Full form of CPM is ...

1 l. In network analysis critical activity indicates