Constitution 2

Previous Year Questions
Constitution of India
Statement II : The official work of

Parliament can be performed in English or Hindi
Year No of Question asked only.
2009-11 26
Answer: D
2012-13 29
2014 35 3. Statement I : Point of Order is used by the
2015 33 Member of Parliament in the House to discuss
some matters of national importance.
2016-17 30
2018 21 Statement II : Point of Order is a device used
2019-20 51 by the Members to attract the attention of the
Chair when the Rules of the Procedure are
2021-22 49
deviated.
2023 24
Answer: D
4. Statement I: Members of Parliament enjoy

2009-11 Parliamentary privileges.
Statement II : During the currency of the

Directions: The following 06 (Six) items consists Parliamentary session, as member of Parliament
of two statements. statement I and statement can not be arrested in his constituency on any
II. You are to examine these two statements criminal case.
carefully and select the answers to these items
using the code given below : Answer: C
Code: 5. Statement I: The year 1921 is a ‘Year of

Great Divide’ in the demographic history of
(a) Both the statements are individually true India
and statement II is the correct
explanation of statement I. Statement II: Mortality in India started to
(b) Both the statements are individually true decline from the your 1921 lending to
but statement II is not the correct acceleration in the rate of population growth.
explanation of statement I. Answer: A
(c) Statement I in true but statement II is
false. 6. Statement I: The experience with the
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is functioning of local governments in India in the
true past decade has shown that they enjoy limited
autonomy to perform the functions assigned to
1. Statement I : The proposal to summon them.
Rajya Sabha or Lok Sabha is initiated by the
Prime Minister, Statement II: Many states till date have not
transferred must of the subjects to the local
Statement II : The Prime Minister is the bodies.
Leader of Rajya Sabba or Lok Sabha
Answer: A
Answer: D
7. Which of the following statements is/are
2. Statement I : A member of Parliament can correct?
take oath/subscribe affirmation in English or
Hindi only
1
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As per the provisions of the Constitution of (b) It tries appeals from lower courts in
India the right against exploitation includes constitutional cases only, not in civil and
prohibition of criminal cases
1. traffic in human beings. (c) It can grant special leave to an appeal from
2. employment of children below the age of any judgment passed by any court in the
16 years in hazardous jobs. territory of India
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) It advises the President and all Governors of
below: States on matters of public importance and
law
(a) 1 only
Answer: C
(b) 2 only
10. With regard to which one of the following
(c) Both I and 2
has there been no jurisdictional issue between
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the Parliament and the Judiciary?
Answer: A (a) What are the clearly delineated and

overlapping powers of the Union and the
8. Which one among the following is/are States?
justiciable right/rights
(b) What is the scope of the right to private
1. Right to adequate livelihood and equal
property?
pay for equal work
(c) What is the scope of the Parliament’s power
2. Right to primary health care
to curtail, abridge or abrogate the
3. Right to work of all adults in rural areas Fundamental rights?
4. Right of children in the age group of 6 to (d) Can the Parliament make laws that abridge
14 years to free and compulsory fundamental right; while enforcing directive
education principles?
Select the correct answer using the code given Answer: A

below:
11. Which of the following statements about the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 federal system as provided by the Constitution
of India are correct?
(b) 3 and 4
1. Asymmetrical representation of the States
(c) 4 only in Rajya Sabha
(d) 3 only 2. Division of powers is common to all the
Answer: B States in the Seventh Schedule
9. Which one among the following statements 3. Special provisions for the North-Bantam
about the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of States only
India is correct? 4. Inter-State disputes come under the
(a) It settles disputes between Union and States jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India
only and not amongst States Select the correct answer wring the code given
below :
(a) 1 and 3
2
(b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Neither I nor 2
(c) 2 and 4 only Answer: B
(d) 1 and 2 only 15. During the proclamation of financial

emergency under Article 369, which one among
Answer: B
the following directives can not be issued by the
12. Who among the following can take a President of India ‘?
decision on any dispute arising out of the
(a) Reduction of salaries and allowances of all
election of the President/the Vice President of
or any class of persona serving the affairs of
India?
the Union or the States
(a) The Election Commission of India
(b) Reservation of Money bills or other bills to
(b) An authority or body constituted by which the provisions of Article 207 apply for
Parliament the consideration of the President alter they
are passed by the Legislatures
(c) The Supreme Court of India
(c) Reduction of salaries and allowances of
(d) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
judges of the Supreme Court of India and
Answer: C the High Courts
13. Secretary of Zila Parishad is (d) Change in the pattern of distribution of taxes
between the Union and the States
(a) District Development Officer.
Answer: D
(b) Collector of the district
16. Which of the following statements regarding
(c) Deputy Development Commissioner. motion is/are correct?
(d) Block Development Officer. 1. The term ‘motion’ in its wider sense means
Answer: B any proposal submitted to the House for
eliciting a decision of the House.
14. Which among the following statements
regarding the amendment procedure of the 2. A Substitute motion is not for considering a
Constitution of India is/are correct? matter or policy or a situation or a statement.
l. All Constitutional amendments can only 3. A Substantive motion is a self-contained

be passed in Parliament by special independent proposal submitted for approval of
majority. the House and capable of expressing a decision
of the House.
2. Amendments regarding Centre-State
relations can be made by special majority Select the correct answer using the code given
of both Houses of Parliament along with below:
the approval of atleast half of the States (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) l and 3 only
below:
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(a) l only
(d) 3 only
(b) 2 only
Answer: B
(c) Both 1 and 2
3
17. Which among the following is the correct Answer: D

chronology regarding passing of a bill in Lok
20. Which one among the following pairs is
Sabha/Rajya Sabha:
correctly matched?
1. Discussion on the principles of the Bill and
(Provision in (Procedure of
its provisions
Constitution) Amendment)
2 Motion for leave to introduce a bill (a) Citizenship clause Special majority of
both Houses of
3. Discussion on the motion that the bill be
Parliament along
passed
with ratification by
4. Clause by clause consideration of the bill as atleast half of the
introduced State legislatures
(b) Right to freedom of Simple majority of
Select the correct answer using the code given
religion both Houses of
below:
Parliament
(a) l-2-3-4 (c) Changes in the Special majority of
Union List both Houses of
(b) 2-1-4-3
Parliament
(c) 2-4-1-3 (d) Changes in State Simple majority of
Boundaries both Houses of
(d) l-4-3-2
Parliament
Answer: B Answer: D
18. Which of the following statements regarding 21. Consider the following statements about
the Right to Constitutional Remedies under Finance Commission:
Article 32 of the Constitution of India is not
1. The Finance Commission is appointed at
correct?
the expiration of every five years.
(a) It is the citizens’ right to move the
2. The main responsibilities of the
Supreme Court for the enforcement of the
Commission is to lay down the principles
rights given in Part-III of the
governing the distribution of taxes
Constitution.
between the Centre and the States.
(b) The Supreme Court shall have power to
issue writs to enforce the fundamental 3. It is not mandatory for the government to
rights. place the recommendations of the
(c) This right can not be suspended during commission on the Table of Parliament
the period of a national emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) This right can also be enforced by the
correct ?
High Courts.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
(b) 1 and 2 only
19. Which one among the following is a
constitutional agency? (c) 2 and 3 only
(a) National Development Council (d) l only

(b) Planning Commission
Answer: B
(c) National Human Rights Commission
(d) Inter-State Council
4
22. Which of the following statements about the (b) Right to personal liberty
Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India
(c) Right to freedom of speech and expression
are correct?
(d) Right to approach the Supreme Court by
l. He shall be appointed by the President of
way of a writ petition
India
Answer: C
2 He can be removed on like manner and
grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court 25. Which of the following statements about
of India. State Election Commissioner are correct?
3. He shall perform such duties and exercise 1. The State Election Commissioner is
such powers in relation to the accounts appointed by the State Cabinet.
of the Union only as prescribed by
Parliament 2. The tenure of the Commissioner is upto the
age of 62 years.
4. CAG reports are directly submitted to
3. His status in that of a Judge of a High
both Houses of Parliament.
Court.
below: 4. His duty includes conduct of elections to the
Local Bodies in the State.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
below:
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
23. Which of the following pairs about (c) 3 and 4 only
Municipalities in India is/are correctly
Matched? (d) 1 and 2 only
1. Nagar Panchayat: Transitional area Answer: B

2. Municipal Councils: Larger urban area 26. Which one among the following statements
3. Municipal Corporation: Smaller urban about Pro-tem Speaker is not correct?
area
(a) He/She is appointed by the President of
Select the correct answer using the code given India
below:
(b) He/she takes oath/affirmation before the
(a) 1 only President in the Central Hall of
(b) 2 only Parliament.
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2 (c) He/She administers oath/ affirmation to
the newly elected members of Lok Sabha.
Answer: A
(d) The name of Pro-tem Speaker is
24. In India, the right to information is included suggested by the Prime Minister
in which one of the following fundamental
Rights? Answer: B
(a) Right to life
5
1. The President of India may, by writing

under his hand addressed to the Chief
2012-13 Justice of India, resign his office.
2. A person who has held the office of the

1. Which of the following statements regarding President of India shall be eligible for re-
the President of India is/are correct? election to the office.
l. The President can summon, adjourn or 3. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the
prorogue both the Houses of the expiration of the term of office of the Vice
Parliament. President shall be completed within thirty
days of such expiry of the term.
2. The President can summon, adjourn,
prorogue both the Houses and may send 4. The election of a President or Vice
messages to either House of the President may be challenged on the
Parliament. ground of any vacancy in the electoral
college, electing them.
3. The President can summon, prorogue
and dissolve the House of the People. Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
4. The President can convene a joint session
of both the Houses of the Parliament. (a) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) 1 and 2 only
below.
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(a) 1
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2
Answer: A
(c) 3 only
4. As far as the procedure of a State Legislature
(d) 3 and 4 is concerned, which of the following are correct?
Answer: D 1. In a State having two Houses (Legislative

Assembly and Legislative Council), the
2. If a President is impeached and removed by
rules as to the communication between
the Parliament, can he continue in his office till
the two Houses are to be made by the
the election of the new President?
Speaker and approved by the Chairman
(a) No, the Vice President of India shall act of the Legislative Council.
as the President of India
2. The State Legislature may make rules for
(b) He can continue to remain in office till a regulating, subject to the provisions of
new incumbent is sworn in the Constitution, its procedure and
conduct of its procedure.
(c) He can remain in office but will act as a
caretaker President 3. In a State having two Houses, the rules
as to procedure may be made by the
(d) He may remain in office but no immunity Governor, after consultation with the
will be available to him Speaker of the Legislative Assembly and
Answer: A the Chairman of the Legislative Council.
3. Which of the following statements is/are 4. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
correct? or Chairman of the Legislative Council
6
may permit any member who cannot (b) Harmonious construction

adequately express himself in the
(c) Doctrine of colourability
language of the State or in Hindi or in
English, to address the House in his (d) Pith and substance
mother tongue.
Answer: D
below. 7. In which one of the following cases did the
Supreme Court of India nullify the effect of an
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Amendment that “if any law of acquisition was
made with the object of giving effect to any of
(b) 2, 3 and 4
the directives, the reasonableness of such a law
(c) 3 and 4 only cannot be questioned under Article 14 or 19"?
(d) 2 and 4 only (a) R. C. Cooper u. Union of India
Answer: B (b) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
5. Under what circumstances, the Parliament (c) Minerva Mills u. Union of India
may legislate with respect to a matter in the
(d) S. R. Bornmai v. Union of India
State List?
Answer: D
1. If the majority of members of the Council
of States has declared by a resolution 8. Which of the following statements is correct?
that it is necessary or expedient in
(a) All authorities, civil and judicial, in the
national interest
territory of India shall act in aid of the
2. While a Proclamation of Emergency is in Supreme Court
operation
(b) When the President of India makes a
3. if two or more States pass resolutions to reference to the Supreme Court a
that effect in all the Houses of the question for its consideration, the Court
Legislatures of those States shall, alter hearing it, report to the
President its opinion thereon
4. For implementing any treaty, agreement
or convention with any other country (c) On questions of disqualification of a
Member of either House of the
Parliament, the decision shall be given by
below.
the President in consultation with the
(a) 1, 3 and 4 Chief Justice of India
(b) 1 and 4 only (d) A Bill pending in the Parliament shall

lapse by reason of the prorogation of the
(c) 2 and 3 only
Houses
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Answer: D
9. Which one among the following statements
6. What rule is applied by the courts in India to regarding the Vice President of India is correct?
determine whether a particular enactment falls
(a) The members of the Union or State
under an entry in the Lists of Schedule VII?
Legislature cannot be elected as the Vice
(a) Golden rule of interpretation President
7
(b) The Vice President can be removed by the (c) one year
process of impeachment
(d) three years
(c) When the Vice President discharges the
Answer: B
functions of the President, he ceases to
perform the duties of the office of the 13. On presentation of a Bill passed by the
Chairman of the Council of States State Assembly, the Governor may
(d) If any dispute relating to the election of 1. accord assent to the Bill
the Vice President arises, the Election
Commission will decide the matter 2. return the Bill to the Legislature for
reconsideration
Answer: C
3. reserve the Bill for the assent of the
10. Which of the following is not correct President
regarding veto power of the President of India?
(a) The President in case of Bills other than below.
Money Bills, can return for
(a) 1 only
reconsideration to the Parliament
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) It is not obligatory for the President to
give assent to a Bill passed by the State (c) 2 and 3 only
Legislature
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) It is obligatory for the President to give
his assent to the Constitutional Answer: D
Amendment Bill 14. Which of the following statements is not
(d) The President is bound by the correct?
Constitution to give his assent to a Bill (a) The Governor can issue an Ordinance
within six months only when the State Legislature or either
Answer: D of the two Houses is not in session
(b) The Governor may refuse to promulgate
11. The resolution to remove the Vice President an Ordinance
of India from office can originate (c) The State Legislative Assembly shall be
(a) only in the Rajya Sabha competent to withdraw an Ordinance at
any time
(b) only in the Lok Sabha (d) The scope of Ordinance making power of
the Governor is coextensive with the
(c) in either House of the Parliament
legislative power of the State Legislature
(d) at the Joint Session of both the Houses of
Answer: C
the Parliament
15. As per the Constitution of India, the Right to
Answer: A
Freedom of Speech is subject to reasonable
12. Emergency proclaimed under Article 356 of restriction on the ground of
the Constitution, duly approved by the
(a) sovereignty and integrity of the country
Parliament, lasts at a stretch for the duration of
(b) the dignity of the Council of Ministers
(a) two months
(c) the dignity of the office of the Prime Minister
(b) six months
8
(d) the dignity of constitutional functionaries 19. Which of the following statements are
correct?
Answer: A
1. The Parliament may by law empower any
16. Which one among the following landmark
court in India to exercise within the local
cases deprived the Parliament of making any
limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the
change in Part III of the Constitution?
powers exercisable by the Supreme Court
(a) Sankari Prasad v. Union of India under Article 32 Clause (2).
(b) Chiranjitlal Choudhury v.Union of India 2. State shall not make any law regulating
(c) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala any financial activity which may be
(d) I. C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab associated with religious practice.
3. Religious instruction may be provided in
Answer: D
an educational institution wholly
17. The Governor exercises his discretionary maintained out of State Funds.
powers with regard to 4. Taking blood sample from an accused
person will not violate his right under
(a) appointment of ministers Article 20(3).
(b) distribution of portfolios among the
ministers Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) appointment of the Advocate General below.
(d) None of the above
(a) 1 and 2 only
Answer: D
(b) 2 and 3 only
18. Consider the following statements :
(c) 1 and 4
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
(d) 1, 2 and 3
India can attend and cast vote in the Lok
Sabha or Rajya Sabha. Answer: C
2. The Attorney General of India shall have
20. Which of the following statements regarding
the right to speak in, and otherwise take
State reorganization in India is/ are correct?
part in the proceedings of either Houses
or any joint sitting of the Houses. 1. The President shall refer the Bill to the
3. The Solicitor General shall have the right Legislature(s) of the State/States which
to speak in, and otherwise take part in is/are going to be effected by the
the proceedings of either Houses or any proposed changes.
joint sitting of the Houses. 2. The State/States concerned shall give
its/their views to the President within
three months of such reference.
correct?
3. No Bill for this purpose can be introduced
(a) 1, 2 and 3 except on the recommendation of the
President.
(b) 2 only
4. The President shall be bound by the
(c) 2 and 3 only views of the State Legislatures.
(d) 1 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
Answer: B
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only

9
(c) 2 and 4 d) Banking Service (Repeal) Bill and

Terrorist and Disruptive Activities
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(Prevention) Bill
Answer: B
Answer: A
21. Consider the following statements regarding
simultaneous membership:
correct?
1. A member of a State Legislative Assembly
1. The Supreme Court of India on 27th
if elected to the Lok Sabha and he does
September, 2013 observed that right to
not resign his seat in one of the Houses,
reject candidates in elections is part of
his seat in the Lok Sabha shall
the Fundamental Rights.
automatically become vacant after
2. Parliamentarians in India are given the
completion of fourteen days of
option to press the button for abstaining
publication of the result.
while voting takes place in the
2. A member of a State Legislative Assembly
Parliament.
if elected to the Lok Sabha can resign one
of his seats fourteen days after taking Select the correct answer using the code given
oath in the Lok Sabha. below.
Which of the statements above is/are correct? (a) l only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C
Answer: A 25. Which of the following statements regarding

a Bill in the Parliament is/ are correct?
22. ‘Education’ comes under the
1. A Bill has to be introduced in both the
(a) Union List
Houses of the Parliament.
(b) State List 2. A Bill has to be passed by both the
Houses of the Parliament.
(c) Concurrent List
3. Constitutional Amendment Bill has to be
(d) None of the above passed by a majority of the total
membership of the House and two-third
Answer: C majority of members present and voting
23. Name two Bills passed in joint sittings of the in each House.
two Houses. 4. There can be joint sitting of the two
Houses on a Constitutional Amendment
a) Dowry Prohibition Bill and Prevention of Bill.
Terrorism Bill
b) Maternity and Child Care Bill and Select the correct answer using the code given
Human Rights Bill below.
c) Anti-Terrorism Bill and Cow Slaughter (a) 1, 2 and 3
(Prevention) Bill
(b) 2 and 3 only
10
(c) 3 only 28. Consider the following statements regarding

a Bill:
(d) l, 2 and 4
1. A Bill passes through three stages, viz,,
Answer: B
first reading, second reading and third
26. Consider the following statements regarding reading in the House.
Money Bill : 2. A Bill is sent to a Parliamentary
Committee after it is passed by one
1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in
House.
the Lok Sabha.
3. Report of a Parliamentary Committee on
2. A Money Bill has to be certified by the
a Bill has a recommendatory value.
Speaker, Lok Sabha.
4. A Bill introduced and passed in one
3. A Money Bill can be introduced without
House can be straight away taken up for
the recommendation of the President of
discussion in the other House.
India.
4. There cannot be a joint sitting of the Lok Which of the statements given above is/are
Sabha and Rajya Sabha over a Money correct?
Bill.
(a) 1, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is / are
(b) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(c) 4 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
(b) l and 2 only
Answer: A
(c) 3 and 4
29. Which of the following statements relating to
(d) 1 only
a Bill after its introduction in the Parliament is
Answer: A /are correct?
27. What is a Financial Bill? 1. That it be taken into consideration.

2. That it may be referred to a Select
a) A Bill if enacted would involve
Committee of the House or Joint
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund
Committee of the Houses.
of India
3. That it be circulated for the purpose of
b) A Bill containing only provisions dealing
eliciting opinion thereon.
with alteration, remission, addition of tax
4. That it be referred to a joint sitting of the
c) A Bill deals only with budget of a two Houses.
particular Ministry
d) A Bill if enacted would involve Select the correct answer using the code given
expenditure from the Consolidated Rind below.
of India and the Contingency Fund of
(a) 1, 2 and 4
India
(b) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only
Answer: B
11
(a) President oi’ India
2014 (b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Union Cabinet
1. Consider the following statements about (d) Union Council of Ministers

Panchayat System in India :
Answer: A
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India
4. With regard to the administration of
envisages a three-tier system of
Scheduled Areas under Article 244 of the
Panchayats.
Constitution of India, which one of the following
2. Seats in Panchayats shall be reserved for
statements is not correct?
the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes
and Other Backward Classes. a) States of Tripura and Meghalaya are
excluded
b) The Scheduled Areas are administered by
correct?
an Advisory Council
(a) 1 only c) The Governor of the State may direct that
a particular Act of the Parliament shall
(b) 2 only
not apply to a Scheduled Area
(c) Both I and 2 d) The Governor can increase the area of
any Scheduled Area
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Answer: A
5. Consider the following statements about
2. which of the following statements with regard Panchayati Raj Institutions in India:
to the Parliament of India is/are correct?
1. Courts shall have no jurisdiction to
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of
examine the validity of a law, relating to
India can take part in the proceedings
delimitation of constituencies or the
and cast vote in the Lok Sabha or the
allotments of seats, made under Article
Rajya Sabha.
243K.
2. The Attorney General of India shall have
2. Every five years the Governor of a State
the right to speak in, and otherwise take
shall appoint a Finance Commission to
part in the proceedings of either House.
review the financial position of the
3. The Solicitor General shall have the right
Panchayats and to make
to speak in, and take part in the
recommendations.
proceedings of either House or any joint
3. The report of the State Finance
sitting of the Houses.
Commission. together with a
Select the correct answer using the code given memorandum of action taken on it, shall
below. be laid before the Parliament.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are

(b) 2 only correct?
(c) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: B (b) 1 and 2 only
3. The executive powers of the Union vest in the (c) 2 and 3 only
12
(d) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are

correct?
Answer: B
(a) 1, 2 and 3
6. Which one of the following statements is
correct? (b) 2 and 3 only
a) The Legislature of the State of Karnataka (c) 1 only

consists of the Governor and the
(d) 1 and 2 only
Legislative Assembly
b) The Legislative Council of a State can be Answer: D
dissolved by a law made by the
9. Which one of the following is a constitutional
Parliament under Article 368 of the
body?
Constitution
c) For dissolution of the Legislative Council. a) Flaming Commission
it is mandatory that s resolution is b) Central Information Commission
passed by the Legislative Assembly of the c) National Security Council
State concerned by a majority of total d) (cl) The Comptroller and Auditor General
number of members of the Assembly and of India
by a majority of not less than 2/3rd
members present and voting Answer: D
d) The total number of members of the 10. Consider the following statements regarding
Legislative Council shall not exceed half Financial Bill under Article 117 (3) of the
of the number of members of the Constitution :
Legislative Assembly concerned
1. it can be introduced without the
Answer: C recommendation of the President.
7. Which one of the following statements 2. It can be introduced either in the Lok
relating to the Constitution of India is correct? Sabha or in the Rajya Sabha.
3. It would involve expenditure from the
a) Article 370 is a temporary provision Consolidated Fund of India.
b) The fundamental right to equality cannot 4. Unless the recommendation of the
be suspended under any circumstances President is received, the Bill cannot be
c) The Supreme Court of India has considered by the Lok Sabha/the Rajya
supervisory jurisdiction over all the Sabha.
Courts in the country
d) All provisions of the Constitution of India Which of the statements given above is/are
can be amended as provided under correct?
Article 368 (a) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 only
8. Consider the following statements regarding a (d) 4 only
Constitutional Amendment Bill: Answer: B
1. It is not treated as a Money Bill or 11. 121st Constitutional Amendment Bill seeks
Financial Bill. to
2. It can be introduced either in the Lok
Sabha or in the Rajya Sabha. a) set up the Judicial Appointments
3. It cannot be introduced without the Commission
recommendation of the President. b) set up an OBC Commission
13
c) confer constitutional status to Lok Pal 2/3rd majority of each House of the
d) set up a commission to enquire into Parliament
atrocities against women b) The Constitution (121st Amendment) Bill,
2014 was passed by the Parliament by
Answer: A
2/3rd majority of each House of the
12. Which of the following is/are considered as Parliament present and voting, and also
Constitutional Amendment Bill[s)? by a majority of total membership of each
House of the Parliament
1. Admission or establishment of new
c) The Constitution [121st Amendment) Bill,
States, alteration of areas, boundaries or
2014 passed by the Parliament requires
names of existing States (Articles 2, 3
ratification by the Legislatures of all
and 4)
States The State Legislatures have no role
2. Creation or abolition of Legislative
to play in a Constitutional Amendment
Councils in the States (Article 169)
d) The State Legislatures have no role to
3. Administration and control of Scheduled play in a Constitutional Amendment
Areas and Scheduled Tribes (Para 7 of
5th Schedule] Answer: B
4. Administration of Tribal Areas in the
States of Assam, Meghslaya, Tripura and
incorrect?
Mizorarn (Para 21 of 6th Schedule)
a) A judicial order passed by the Supreme
Court of India may be violative of the
below.
fundamental right of a citizen
(a) 1 and 2 only b) (b) The Supreme Court under Article 32
of the Constitution of India has no
(b) 3 and 4 only
discretion to refuse enforcement of a
(c) 1. 2, 3 and 4 fundamental right as against the power of
High Courts under Article 226
(d) None of the above c) (c) The punishment for offences
Answer: D pertaining to fundamental rights can be
prescribed only by the Legislatures and
13. Which of the following is not an All India not by the Executive
Service in terms of Article 312 of the d) The right to move the Supreme Court for
Constitution? enforcement of the right under Article 20
(a) Indian Forest Service cannot be suspended in any
circumstances
(b) Indian Revenue Service
Answer: C
(c) Indian Police Service
(d) Indian Administrative Sen/ice correct?
Answer: B 1. l. Writ of Certiorari is meant for deciding
the legality of an order/decision taken by
a Lower Court/Tribunal/Authority.
correct?
2. Writ of Prohibition is issued while
a) The Constitution (121st Amendment) Bill, deciding the legality of an ongoing
2014 was passed by the Parliament by proceeding before a bower
Court/Tribunal/Authority.
14
3. Both writs are supervisory in nature and c) The Prime Minister must disclose to the
the Writ Court can decide the case by President such information pertaining to
considering all the issues raised by the the decisions of the Council of Ministers
parties. relating to the administration of the
4. lf adequate material/evidence is not on affairs of the Union which he deems
record, the Writ Court can quash the proper
decision ongoing proceeding. as the case d) The Parliament also includes the
may be. President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given Answer: C

below.
19. With regard to reservations, which one of
(a) l and 2 the following statements is incorrect?
(b) 3 and 4 only a) The reservation in public services can

never exceed 50%
(c) 2 only
b) There can be no reservation in admission
(d) 2, 3 and 4 to super-speciality courses
c) There can be reservations in admissions
Answer: A
to private educational institutions
17. Which of the following statements is d) The reservation in public employment for
incorrect? Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
can be made only on proof of
a) Under the collegium system of backwardness, inadequate representation
appointment of Judges of the Supreme and efficiency of administration is not
Court, the recommendation of the affected
collegium was binding on the President
b) The appointment of a person as Minister, Answer: A
who is facing a trial for murder or rape, is
20. Who among the following was chosen to be
constitutionally invalid
the Chairman of the Planning Commission in
c) The appointment of a person as Prime
the Cabinet Resolution of March 1950 that
Minister pre-supposes that he has constituted the Planning Commission?
majority support in the House of the
People (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) lt is not necessary that the Chief
(b) The Prime Minister of India
information Commissioner appointed
under the RTI Act, 2005 must be a sitting (c) The Union Minister of Planning
or retired Judge
(d) The Chairman of the National Development
Answer: B Council
18. Which of the following statements is Answer: A

incorrect?
21. The Constitution of India does not
a) The Parliament cannot enact legislation guarantee which one of the following rights?
on water
(a) Right to keep silence
b) The Constitution of India does not
contain express provisions regarding (b) Right to get the trial quashed for inordinate
secret session, but the Parliament can delay in the trial
have secret session
(c) Right to legal representation
15
(d) Right to bail 2. render national service when required
Answer: B 3. renounce practices derogatory to women
22. Which one of the following statements is 4. develop humanism and abjure violence
Incorrect?
a) The fundamental right of freedom to below.
carry on trade does not include freedom
(a) 3 and 4 only
to sell liquor
b) There is no fundamental right of freedom (b) 2 and 4 only
to carry on trade by a publisher to get his
(c) 1, 2 and 3
book prescribed as a textbook in the
school (d) 2, 3 and 4
c) The fundamental right of freedom to
carry on trade prohibits reservation in Answer: D
admissions of students belonging to 25. Which of the following was not a mandate
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Second Administrative Reforms
under an Act of the Parliament Commission?
d) (d)The fundamental right of freedom to
carry on trade prohibits the State from (a) Ethics in Government
adopting executive measures to curtail it (b) Public Order
Answer: C (c) Centre-State Relation
23. Which one of the following statements is (d) Social Capital, Trust and Participative Public
correct? Service Delivery
a) A law made by the Legislature of a State Answer: C
under Article 31A of the Constitution of
India does not require assent of the 26. Which of the following statements is not
President of India correct?
b) The Acts included in the Ninth Schedule
a) The Legislature of a State may, by law,
of the Constitution of India are not
establish a Contingency Fund in the
completely immune from judicial scrutiny
nature of imprest.
c) A law made by the appropriate
b) The Contingency Fund of the State shall
Legislature to give effect to the Directive
be placed at the disposal of the Chief
Principles of State Policy cannot be
Minister of the State.
challenged on the ground of violation of
c) The fund shall be paid from time to time
the fundamental rights
such sums as may be determined by
d) (d)The fundamental rights can be
such law.
enforced only by the Supreme Court and
d) The Contingency Fund is meant to enable
High Courts, and by no other forum
advances to be made for the purpose of
Answer: B meeting unforeseen expenditure pending
authorization of such expenditure by the
24. Which of the statements are correct? Legislature.
Every citizen is under a fundamental duty to Answer: C
1. sing National Anthem
16
27. The freedom of press does not extend to 30. Under Panchayat Extension to Scheduled
publish Areas (PESA), a State legislation on the
Panchayats in a Scheduled Area may not be in
a) information received from a foreign
consonance with the
government
b) information relating to a pending case (a) customary taw
c) (c) information pertainingto commercial
(b) social and religious practices
confidence, except when public interest
requires disclosure (c) traditional management practices of
d) the sexual Activities of a person recorded community resources
secretly
(d) political ideology
Answer: D
Answer: D
28. Which one of the following statements is not
correct? 31. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect?
a) The freedom of religion can be restricted
on the ground of morality a) The power of the Governor to grant
b) ‘Begar’ means compelling a person to pardon is equal to the power of the
work without payment President
c) Children below 14 years of age cannot be b) The power of High Courts to issue writs
engaged in a mine under Article 226 of the Constitution of
d) The question of `minority' has to be India is wider than the power of the
decided on the basis of population of the Supreme Court under Article 32
country c) The executive power of the Governor is
wider than the executive power of the
Answer: D President
29. What is/are the difference between the d) The exercise of power by High Courts is
terms 'adjournment' and 'prorogue' in always subject to the powers 9f the
Parliamentary parlence? Supreme Court
1. Adjournment means postponement of the Answer: B

sitting of the House from one time to 32. Which one of the following statements is
another specified time for the correct?
reassembling of the House, Prorogue
means to conclude the sitting of the a) The President can promulgate an
House indefinitely. Ordinance whenever the Council of
2. Adjournment is made by the President, Ministers advises him to do so
while prorogue is done by the Speaker. b) An Ordinance promulgated by the
President of India may curtail any of the
Select the correct answer using the code given fundamental rights.
below: c) An Ordinance remains valid till the
(a) 1 only Council of Ministers decides
d) (d) An Ordinance can be promulgated to
(b) 2 only transfer an entry from the State List to
the Concurrent List
(c) Both 1 and 2
Answer: C
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
17
33. Procedure for removal is the same in 36. The Union Executive can issue directions to
respect of which of the following persons? a State in respect of which one of the following
matters?
a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of
India a) To ensure that minorities are duly
b) A Judge of High Court protected against violence
c) The Chairman of the Union Public b) To expedite quick disposal of criminal
Service Commission cases pending against politicians
d) The Attorney General of India c) To observe during the course or operation
or financial emergency, such canons of
financial propriety as may be specified in
below:
the directions
(a) 1, 2 and 3 d) To ensure cleanliness of inter-State rivers
(b) 2, 3 and 4 Answer: C
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 4
2015
Answer: C
34. The Constitution. of India, does not-contain

any provision with regard to cooperative
societies in respect of which one of the following
incorrect?
cases?
a) The Fundamental Right to Equality can
a) Prescribing the minimum number of
be claimed by any person.
Directors of a cooperative society
b) The Fundamental Right to Equality can
b) Supersession or the Board
be claimed against a statutory
c) Right of a member of a cooperative
corporation.
society to get information in respect of a
c) The Fundamental Right to Equality is
cooperative society
violated when the State resources are
d) Multi-State cooperative society
distributed in any manner other than by
Answer: A inviting bids.
d) The Fundamental Right to Equality is
violated if unguided power is conferred on
35. A law made by the Legislative of a State an administrative authority.
cannot empower a municipality to exercise
Answer: C
powers in relation to which of the following
matters? 2. Which one of the following relates to
Fundamental Rights?
(a) Regulation of land-use
(a) Right to Property
(b) Urban poverty alleviation
(b) Right to Education
(c) Public distribution system
(c) Free Legal Aid
(d) Fire services
(d) Social Justice
Answer: C
Answer: B
18
3. Consider the following statements: a) Altering the name of a State mentioned in

the First Schedule
1. Constitutional Amendment Bill must be
b) Amendment of the provisions of Article
passed by a majority of total Members of
124 for the appointment of judges to the
each House and by a two-thirds majority
Supreme Court of India
of the Members of each House of
c) Amendment of the Fourth Schedule to
Parliament present and voting.
the Constitution
2. An amendment to the First Schedule of
d) Establishment of a new State
the Constitution of India to give away a
portion of Indian territory to Bangladesh Answer: B
in exchange of certain territories
6. Under the Constitution of India
belonging to Bangladesh requires the
above procedure to be followed. 1. the State shall not make any law which
takes away the Fundamental Rights
2. law for taking away the Fundamental
correct?
Rights will include even an Ordinance
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
below.
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only
(d) Neither I nor 2
(b) 2 only
Answer: C
(c) Both 1 and 2
4. Which one of the following statements
relating to Constitutional Amendment Bill is (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
Answer: A
a) In case of any disagreement between the
7. Which one of the following statements with
two Houses of Parliament on a
regard to reservation is correct?
Constitutional Amendment Bill, there
cannot be a joint sitting of the Houses of a) The ceiling of 50% fixed for total
Parliament. reservations is not applicable when 3%
b) The President is not bound to give assent posts are reserved in public services for
to a Constitutional Amendment Bill persons with physical disability.
passed by prescribed special majority b) No special courts can be established in
and, where necessary, ratified by the view of equality clause.
requisite number of State Legislatures. c) A reserved category candidate has a right
c) There can be a joint sitting on a to relaxation in qualifications.
Constitutional Amendment Bill. d) A reserved category candidate must
d) Constitutional Amendment Bill can be always be considered against the
passed even without a division. reserved posts only,
Answer: A Answer: A
5. Which one of the following amendments in 8. Which one of the following writs can be
the Constitution of India is treated as a issued against a person who is illegally
Constitutional Amendment within the meaning occupying a public office?
of Article 368?
(a) Certiorari
19
(b) Mandamus (c) 2 and 3 only
(c) Quo warranto (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) Prohibition Answer: B
Answer: C 12. The Legislative Assembly of Delhi cannot

make law on
9. Which one of the following statements with
regard to writ of habeas corpus is correct? (a) land
a) It can be issued in case of a foreigner who (b) water

is in India.
(c) agriculture
b) The principle of laches is applicable for
this writ. (d) prison
c) The principle of res judicata is applicable
Answer: A
for this writ,
d) It can be issued after a person has been 13. The Lieutenant Governor of Delhi can
released from prison.
a) appoint Ministers for National Capital
Answer: A Territory of Delhi
b) promulgate an Ordinance on his own
10. Who among the following does not hold
when the Legislative Assembly of Delhi is
office at the pleasure of the President of India?
not in session
(a) A Civil Servant c) send a report to the President of India
that for proper administration of the
(b) A Union Minister
National Capital Territory of Delhi it is
(c) A Judge of the High Court necessary to suspend the provisions of
Article 239-AA of the Constitution,
(d) The Attorney General of India
indicating failure of constitutional
Answer: C machinery
d) dismiss the Chief Minister along with his
other ministers
Answer: C
1. certain Fundamental Duties have been
1. the President is required to act on the aid
imposed on all citizens of India
and advice of the Council of Ministers
2. laws made to give effect to Directive
2. the Governor of a State has some
Principles of State Policy can override the
discretionary powers
Fundamental Rights under Articles 14
3. the Chief Minister of National Capital
and 19
Territory of Delhi is appointed to aid and
3. children between 12-14 years of age can
advise the Lieutenant Governor of Delhi
be employed for all kinds of work
in the exercise of his functions in relation
Select the correct answer using the code given to matters with respect of which the
below. Legislative Assembly has power to make
laws except in respect of discretionary
(a) 1 only functions
(b) 1 and 2 only
20
Select the correct answer using the code given appointed and administered oaths of
below. office and of secrecy before the new Lok
Sabha holds its first sitting.
(a) 1 and 2 only
2. The Prime Minister and other ministers
(b) 2 only have also to make and subscribe oath or
affirmation as Members of Parliament in
(c) 3 only
the House to which they belong.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D below.
15. Which one of the following statements is (a) 1 only

incorrect? (b) 2 only
(c) Both l and 2
a) The principle of adult suffrage is (d) Neither l nor 2
contained under Article 326 of the Answer: C
Constitution of India.
b) Adult suffrage means eighteen years of 18. Public Interest Litigation cannot be filed
age of a person on a specified date.
a) before a High Court
c) Every citizen of India who is not less than
b) in respect of a service matter, except for a
eighteen years of age has a right to vote
writ of quo warranto
and contest all elections held by the
c) to get a crime investigated by CBI
Election Commission of lndia.
d) by a person who is not aggrieved
d) A citizen of India above eighteen years of
age may be disqualified to contest Answer: B
elections on the ground of non-residence.
19. Who has power to make law in respect of a
Answer: C residuary matter?
16. Which one of the following statements with a) Legislature of a State

respect to Union Public Service Commission is b) Parliament
correct? c) Both Parliament as Well as Legislature of
a State
a) A member holds office for five year
d) The President of India
b) A member retires at the age of sixty-two
years. Answer: B
c) A retired member is eligible for
20. Who determines the question as to whether
reappointment to that office.
a Member of Lok Sabha has become subject to
d) Under Article 317(1) of the Constitution
disqualification on the ground of defection in
of India, a member can be removed from
terms of Tenth Schedule of the Constitution?
his office only on the ground of
misbehaviour. (a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: D (b) The President of India
17. Which of the following statements relating to (c) The Supreme Court of India
the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers is/
(d) The Election Commission of India
are correct?
Answer: A
1. After a general election to Lok Sabha, the
Prime Minister and other ministers are
21
21. A High Court has power to (d) 1 and 3

Answer: B
1. enforce Fundamental Rights
24. Under the Constitution of India, a
2. decide disputes between States
Panchayat need not be constituted at the
3. enforce other legal rights
a) village level
Select the correct answer using the code given b) district level
below. c) intermediate level if the population of the
State does not exceed fifty lakh
(a) 3 only
d) intermediate level if the population of the
(b) 1 and 2 only State does not exceed twenty lakh
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D
Answer: C
25. The present bok Sabha is the
22. Which authority shall enquire into and
(a) Fourteenth Lok Sabha
decide the doubts and disputes arising out of or
in connection with the election of the President (b) Fifteenth Lok Sabha
and the Vice President of India?
(c) Sixteenth Lok Sabha
(a) The Election Commission of India
(d) Seventeenth Lok Sabha
(b) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: C
(c) Lok Sabha Secretariat
26. A civil servant can, be dismissed, removed
(d) Rajya Sabha Secretariat or reduced in rank without any inquiry and
hearing, where
Answer: B
1. such action is taken on the ground of
conduct which had led to his conviction
the President/Vice President are correct?
on a criminal charge
1. The President may resign his office by 2. the competent authority is satisfied that
writing under his hand addressed to the for some reasons, to be recorded by that
Chief Justice of India. authority in writing, it is not reasonably
2. The President may resign his office by practicable to hold such inquiry
writing under his hand addressed to the 3. the competent authority finds it
Vice President of India. expedient to do so
3. The Vice President may resign his office
by writing under his hand addressed to
below.
the President.
4. The Speaker of Lok Sabha may resign his (a) 1 only
office by writing under his hand
(b) 1, 2 and 3
addressed to the President.
(c) 2 and 3 only
below. (d) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 Answer: D
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
22
27. Which one of the following statements on (a) 1 only

adjournment and prorogation of Lok Sabha and
(b) 2 only
Rajya Sabha is correct?
(c) Both l and 2
(a) While the House is adjourned to meet
again at a particular time and date, (d) Neither 1 nor 2
prorogation ends the meeting of the
Answer: A
House without deciding any time and
date for its next meeting. 30. Consider the following statements regarding
(b) While the House is adjourned not to meet assent of the President on a Bill passed by Lok
again at a particular time and date, Sabha and Rajya Sabha :
prorogation ends the meeting of the
House by deciding time and date for its 1. The President can give assent or withhold
next meeting. assent to a Bill.
(c) Prorogation and adjournment are similar 2. The President is not bound to give assent
terms with regard to the Houses. to Constitutional Amendment Bill.
(d) Adjournment of the Houses completes Which of the statements given above is/ are
the business of the House. correct?
Answer: A (a) 1 only
28. A Bill undergoes three readings in each (b) 2 only
House before it is submitted to the President for
his assent. Which one of the following (c) Both 1 and 2
statements is not correct with regard to the (d) Neither 1 nor 2
three readings of the Bill?
Answer: C
(a) The first reading refers to the motion for
leave to introduce the Bill on the 31. Consider the following statements about
adoption of which the Bill is introduced. passage of Bills in Parliament:
(b) The second reading refers to general
1. Bills for admission or establishment of
discussion, clause by clause
new States, formation of new States and
consideration and adoption of the Bill.
alteration of areas, boundaries or names
(c) The third reading refers to passage of the
of existing States are passed by a simple
Bill.
majority of members present and voting.
(d) None of the above
2. Bills for creation or abolition of
Answer: D Legislative Councils in the States are
passed by a special majority.
29. Consider the following statements about
Money Bill : Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. Under the Constitution of India, a Money
Bill cannot be returned to the House by (a) 1 only
the President for reconsideration.
(b) 2 only
2. Provision of Article 108 of the
Constitution of India is applicable to a (c) Both I and 2
Money Bill.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
correct?
23
32. Under which of the following grounds, the

President may convene a joint sitting of
Parliament?
2016-17
1. If a Bill passed by one House is rejected
by the other House 1. Which one of the following statements is not
2. More than six months lapse from the date correct ?
of receipt of the Bill by the other House
a) Untouchability has been abolished in
without the Bill being passed by it
India.
Select the correct answer using the code given b) In India practising untouchability is an
below. offence.
c) The Civil Rights Protection Act, 1955
(a) 1 only
deals with untouchability.
(b) 2 only d) The offence of untouchability is
punishable by law made by the
(c) Both 1 and 2
legislature of a State.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Answer: C
2. According to the Constitution of India, which
33. Which one of the following statements with one of the following in not prohibited?
regard to special address by the President to
a) Conferment of a military title by the State
both Houses of Parliament is correct?
b) An Indian citizen accepting any title from
(a) Special address by the President in the a foreign State
Central Hall is not treated as a joint sitting c) An individual, who is not a citizen of
of the Houses. India but holding an office of profit in
(b) Special address by the President in the India, accepting a title from a foreign
Central Hall is considered as a part of the State after informing the President of
sitting of the Houses. India
(c) Special address by the President is held d) An individual holding an office of trust
immediately before every session of under the State, accepting any present
Parliament. without informing the Government of
(d) Special address by the President can also be India
held in the Rashtrapati Bhawan.
Answer: A
Answer: A
3. The citizens of India do not have which one of
the following fundamental rights?
a) Right to reside and settle in any part of

India
b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose of
property
c) Right to practice any profession
d) Right to form an association
Answer: B
24
4. Parliament of India consists of 7. Consider the following statements :
a) the President of India only 1. The Constitution of India empowers the

b) the House of the People and the Council Union to entrust its executive function to
of States only a State, by its consent.
c) The President of India, the House of the 2. A State cannot entrust its executive
People and the Council of States function to the Union.
d) the Vice-President of India, the House of
Which of the above statements is/are not
the People and the Council of States
correct ?
Answer: C
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2
The President of India can proclaim emergency
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. on the ground of war, aggression or
armed rebellion. Answer: B
2. only if the decision of the Union Council
8. The right to religious freedom under the
of Ministers is communicated to him in
Constitution of India does not mean
writing.
3. only if both houses of Parliament approve a) freedom to practice and profess areligion
the proclamation after its promulgation. of one‘s own choice
b) carrying of Kirpan by a person professing
Sikh religion
below :
c) preventing the State from making any law
(a) 1 only regulating economic activity associated
with any religion
(b) 1 and 2 only
d) freedom to establish and maintain
(c) 1, 2 and 3 institutions for religious and charitable
purposes
(d) 3 only
Answer: C
Answer: B
9. Which one of the following languages is
6. Which of the following statements about
not recognized in the Eighth Schedule of the
Attorney General of India is correct ?
Constitution of India ?
a) He has the right to take part in the
(a) English
proceedings and vote in either House of
Parliament. (b) Sanskrit
b) He has the right to take part in the
(c) Urdu
proceedings but has no right to vote in
either House of Parliament. (d) Nepali
c) He cannot attend a joint sitting of Lok
Answer: A
Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
d) He cannot take part in the Committee 10. Which of the following statements is/are
meetings of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. correct ?
Answer: B 1. A person above the age of thirty-five years
is eligible for President of India.
25
2. A person is qualified for election as Answer: B

President of India if he/she is qualified
for election as a member of the House of
correct with regard to removal of the Speaker of
the People.
Lok Sabha?
3. A person is not eligible for election as
President of India if he/she holds an a) The Speaker may be removed from his
office of profit. office by the President on a resolution of
Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the
then Members of the House.
below :
b) The Speaker may be removed from his
(a) 1 and 2 only office by a resolution of Lok Sabha
passed by a majority of all the then
(b) 2 only
Members of the House.
(C) 1, 2 and 3 c) At least 21 days notice has to be given to
move a resolution to remove the Speaker.
(d) 3 only
d) In computing the period of notice for
Answer: DROPPED removing the Speaker, both the terminal
days are included.
correct ? Answer: B
a) The Attorney General holds office during 14. Which one of the following statements
the pleasure of the President. with regard to Constitutional Amendments is
b) The Attorney General is appointed for a correct ?
term of five years or till the age of 65
a) The Constitutional provisions relating to
years whichever is earlier.
the election of the President of India can
c) There is no statutory age limit for
be amended simply by obtaining a special
appointment or retirement of the Attomey
majority.
General.
b) Amendment of a List in the VII Schedule
d) In the Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha, the
shall be effected only after obtaining the
Attomey General occupies a seat on the
ratification by one-half of the States, in
treasury benches and is entitled to all
addition to fulfilling the ‘special majority’
privileges and immunities of Members of
provision.
Parliament.
c) A bill seeking to establish a new State
Answer: B and alteration of areas, boundaries or
names of existing ones require to be
12 Which one of the following statements is passed by a special majority in both the
correct with regard to Speaker of Lok Sabha ? Houses of Parliament.
a) Speaker tenders his resignation letter d) For creation or abolition of Legislative
addressed to the President. Councils in the States the concerned bill
b) When the office of the Speaker is vacant has to be passed in both the Houses of
the duties of his office shall be performed Parliament by a special majority.
by the Deputy Speaker. Answer: B
c) The Speaker holds office at the pleasure
of the President. 15. Which of the following statements
d) The Speaker can summon a joint session relating to the Constitution (74th Amendment)
of Parliament. Act is/are correct?
26
1. It was passed to constitute Municipalities. d) While deciding any question regarding

disqualification of a Member of
2. It provides for elections to Municipalities.
Parliament, the President has power to
3. It has inserted Part IX A. decide the question alter consulting the
Supreme Court.
below : Answer: C
(a) 1 only 18. The Constitution of India under Part XXI

(b) 2 only does not contain special provision for which one
(c) 1 and 2 only of the following States?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Maharashtra
Answer: D
(b) Gujarat
16. Which of the following statements
relating to the citizenship of India is/are correct (c) Andhra Pradesh
? (d) Bihar
1. A person born outside India on or after Answer: D
January 26, 1950, but before 10th day of
19. Which of the following statements with
December 1992, if his/her father is a
regard to preventive detention is/are correct 7
citizen of India at the time of his/her
birth shall be a citizen of India by 1. The detenue has no rights other than
descent. those mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of
2. A foreigner who is being illegal migrant Article 22 of the Constitution of India.
can acquire Indian citizenship, on 2. The detenue can get bail on the ground
application for naturalization to the that he had been in prison beyond
Government of India. twenty-four hours without an order of the
magistrate.
below : Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Answer: A
17. Which one of the following statements is 20. The Supreme Court of India has no power to
correct? grant special leave to appeal against
a) Any citizen of India above eighteen years a) the decisions of the National Green
of age can be appointed as the Prime Tribunal
Minister. b) the decisions of the National Consumer
b) The Union Council of Ministers is Disputes Redressal Commission
collectively responsible to the Parliament. c) against the decisions of all those
c) While deciding any question regarding tribunals for which appeal is provided
the age of a judge of a High Court, the under the Legislation
President shall take advice of the Chief
Justice of India.
27
d) any judgment passed by any Court or 24. Which of the following statements relating to
tribunal constituted by or under any law Fundamental Rights is not correct ?
relating to the armed forces
a) The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed
Answer: D by the Constitution not only against the
actions of Executive but also against that
of the Legislature.
correct?
b) The Supreme Court strikes at the
a) Directive Principles of State Policy are not arbitrary action of the State.
justiciable. c) The Supreme Court has the jurisdiction
b) Legislations included in Ninth Schedule to enforce fundamental rights against
are not justiciable. private bodies and individuals.
c) Laws enacted under Article 323-A are not d) The Supreme Court cannot exercise its
justiciable. jurisdiction suo motu or on the basis of
d) Ordinances promulgated by the President PIL.
of India are not justiciable.
Answer: D
Answer: A
22. Consider the following statements with the Governor is not correct '?
regard to the Members of Parliament :
a) The Governor has no diplomatic or
1. Nominated and elected Members get military powers like the President.
Nomination/Election certificate from the b) The Governor possesses executive,
Returning Officer. legislative and judicial powers analogous
2. Nominated Member gets the Letter of to those of the President.
Nomination from the Ministry of Law. c) the Governor has equal power with that
3. A nominated Member can join any of the President to appoint judges of the
political party only within 6 months of his State High Court.
nomination. d) The Governor has the power to nominate
one member of Anglo-Indian community
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
to the Legislative Assembly, if he is
(a) 1 only satisfied that they are not adequately
represented.
(b) 2 only
Answer: C
(c) 1 and 3 only
26. Which of the following statements is not
(d) 2 and 3 only correct?
Answer: D a) All executive action of the Government of
23. Which one of the following Union Territories a State shall be expressed to be taken in
has a Legislative Assembly ? the name of the Chief Minister.
b) It is the duty of the Chief Minister to
(a) Puducherry communicate to the Governor of the State
(b) Chandigarh all the decisions of Council of Ministers
(c) Lakshadweep relating to the administration of the
(d) Daman and Diu State.
Answer: A c) The Governor makes rules for the more
convenient transaction of the business of
the Government of the State.
28
d) The validity of rules made by the 3. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha
Governor shall not be called in question. immediately before its dissolution can be
taken up by the Rajya Sabha.
Answer: A
27. Which one of the following statements
below :
regarding Speaker Pro-tem is correct ‘P
(a) 1, 2 and 3
a) Speaker Pro-tem is elected by the Lok
Sabha. (b) 1 and 2 only
b) Speaker Pro-tem is appointed by the
(c) 1 only
President and signs the Roll of Members
in Lok Sabha. (d) 2 and 3 only
c) Speaker Pro-tem does not preside over
Answer: B
the first meeting of Lok Sabha.
d) Speaker Pro-tem is appointed by the 30. Consider the following statements :
Prime Minister.
1. The Financial Bills of category B if
Answer: B enacted and brought into operation,
would involve expenditure from the
Consolidated Fund of India.
not correct?
2. Financial Bills of category A can be
(a) Before 1923, a Bill passed by one House introduced only in Lok Sabha.
and transmitted to the other House of the 3. Financial Bill of category B require
Central Legislative Assembly did not recommendation of the President for its
lapse upon dissolution of the House introduction.
which had passed it.
(b) Bills passed by Lok Sabha but pending in
(a) 1 only
Rajya Sabha on the date of dissolution of
Lok Sabha, lapse. (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha (c) 2 and 3 only
which have not been passed by Lok
Sabha but are still pending before Rajya (d) 1, 2 and 3
Sabha, lapse. Answer: B
(d) Only Bills originating in Rajya Sabha
which have not been passed by Lok
Sabha but are still pending before Rajya
Sabha, do not lapse.
Answer: C

correct with regard to the effects of dissolution
of Lok Sabha ?
1. The dissolution is irrevocable.

2. All business pending before the Lok
Sabha lapses.
29
wealth and means of production to the

common detriment.
2018
Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only

1. In Article 164 of the Constitution of India,
alter Clause (1), which one of the following (b) 2 and 3 only
clauses has been inserted ?
(c) 1 and 3 only
a) The total number of Ministers, including
(d) 1, 2 and 3
the Chief Minister, in the Council of
Ministers in a State shall not exceed ten Answer: A
percent of the total number of members
3. Consider the following statements:
of the Legislative Assembly of that State.
b) The total number of Ministers, including 1. The State shall, within the limits of its
the Chief Minister, in the Council of economic capacity and development,
Ministers in a State shall not exceed make effective provision for securing the
thirty percent of the total number of right to work, to education and to public
members of the Legislative Assembly of assistance in cases of unemployment, old
that State. age, sickness and disablement, and in
c) The total number of Ministers, including other cases of undeserved want.
the Chief Minister, in the Council of 2. The State shall make provision for
Ministers in a State shall not exceed securing just and humane conditions of
fifteen percent of the total number of work and for maternity relief.
members of the Legislative Assembly of 3. The State shall take steps to organise
that State. village panchayats and endow them with
d) The total number of Ministers, including such powers and authority as may be
the Chief Minister, in the Council of necessary to enable them to function as
Ministers in a State shall not exceed units of self-government.
twenty percent of the total number of
members of the Legislative Assembly of Which of the above statements are correct?
that State. (a) 1 and 2 only
Answer: C (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Consider the following statements regarding (c) 1 and 3 only
principles of policy to be followed by the State:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
The State shall, in particular, direct its policy
towards securing Answer: D
1. that the citizens, men and women 4. Consider the following statements in respect
equally, have the right to an adequate of the executive power of the Union
means of livelihood. 1. The executive power of the Union shall be
2. that the ownership and control of the vested in the President and shall be
material resources of the community are exercised by him either directly or
so distributed as best to subserve the through officers subordinate to him in
common good. accordance with the Constitution.
3. that the operation of the economic 2. Without prejudice to the generality of the
system results in the concentration of foregoing provision, the supreme
30
command of the Defence Forces of the a) Parliament must preserve the basic
Union shall be vested in the President; framework of the Constitution.
and the exercise thereof shall be b) Schedule I of the Constitution of India
regulated by law. can be amended by an ordinary
legislation.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
c) A Constitution amendment Bill must be
(a) 1 only passed by majority prescribed under
Article 368 of the Constitution of India.
(b) 2 only
d) The process of Constitutional amendment
(c) Both 1 and 2 can be initiated by a State legislature.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D
Answer: C 7. Which one of the following statements is not

correct?
5. Consider the following statements regarding
the time of holding an election to fill a vacancy a) The freedom of speech and expression
in the office of President and the term of office of includes freedom of press.
the person elected to fill a casual vacancy: b) The freedoms under Article 19 of the
Constitution of India can be claimed only
1. An election to fill a vacancy caused by the by citizens.
expiration of the term of office of the c) The right to equality under Article 14 can
President shall be completed before the be claimed only by a citizen.
expiration of the term. d) The right to life and personal liberty can
2. An election to fill a vacancy in the office be claimed by any person.
of President occurring by reason of his
death, resignation or removal, or Answer: C
otherwise shall be held as soon as
8. Clause (1) of Article 31A of the Constitution of
possible after, and in no case later than
India has been replaced by a new clause and
six months from, the date of occurrence
the amendment has been given retrospective
of the vacancy.
effect. As a result of the amendment, in addition
3. The person elected to fill the vacancy
to laws relating to the abolition of zamindari,
shall, subject to the provisions of Article
some more categories of welfare legislation have
52, be entitled to hold office for the full
been taken out from the purview of which of the
term of five years from the date on which
following Articles of the Constitution of India?
he enters upon his office.
(a) Articles 13 and 17
Which of the following statements are correct?
(b) Articles 14 and 19
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Articles 18, 21 and 23
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Articles 16, 20 and 32
(c) 1 and 3 only
Answer: B
(d) 1, 2 and 3
9. Which one of the following Constitutional
Answer: A
amendments amended a large number of
6. Which one of the following statements is not provisions in the Constitution of India so as to
correct regarding the power and procedure for give effect to the scheme of the States
Constitutional amendment in India? reorganization and also to certain other changes
31
relating to the High Courts and High Court Answer: A

Judges, the executive powers of the Union and
13. In the First Schedule to the Constitution of
the States and the legislative lists?
India, Daman and Diu is listed at present as
(a) Third amendment
(a) the fourth Union Territory
(b) Sixth amendment
(b) the sixth Union Territory
(c) Seventh amendment
(c) the seventh Union Territory
(d) Twelfth amendment
(d) the eighth Union Territory
Answer: C
Answer: A
10. A proviso has been added to which one of
the following Articles of the Constitution of India
making it possible that the same person may be Acts of Parliament shall not apply to Nagaland
appointed as Governor for two or more States? unless so decided by a resolution by the
Legislative Assembly of Nagaland with regard to
(a) Article 151
1. religious or social practices of the Nagas.
(b) Article 153
2. Naga customary law and procedure.
(c) Article 155 3. ownership and transfer of land and its
resources.
(d) Article 157
Which of the above statements are correct?
Answer: B
(a) 1 and 2 only
11. Which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India provides that the Governor (b) 2 and 3 only
of a State may, with the consent of the
(c) 1 and 3 only
Government of India, entrust any State
functions to that Government or its officers? (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Article 172A Answer: D
(b) Article 184A 15. Which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India provides for the
(c) Article 258A
appointment of a retired High Court judge to sit
(d) Article 281A and act as a judge of a High Court?
Answer: C (a) Article 222A
12. A new Article 372A has been inserted to (b) Article 224A
empower the President to make such
(c) Article 226A
adaptations and modifications in any law to
bring them into accord with the Constitution of (d) Article 228A
India as amended by
Answer: B
(a) the Constitution Seventh Amendment Act
16. Which one of the following schedules of the
(b) the Constitution Eighth Amendment Act Constitution of India has been amended to
include 'Sindhi' as one of the languages?
(c) the Constitution Ninth Amendment Act
(a) Fourth Schedule
(d) the Constitution Tenth Amendment Act
32
(b) Sixth Schedule (b) The Charter Act, 1813
(c) Eighth Schedule (c) The Charter Act, 1833
(d) Tenth Schedule (d) The Charter Act, 1853
Answer: C Answer: C
17. The Constitution (Twenty-sixth Amendment) 21. Supreme Court Rules, 2013 replacing the
Act, 1971, 1966 Rules have been framed under which
Article of the Constitution of India?
(a) omitted Articles 291 and 362
(a) Article 145
(b) substituted Article 365
(b) Article 144
(c) amended Article 367
(c) Article 143
(d) substituted Article 373
(d) Article 142
Answer: A
Answer: A
18. In which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India, the State shall provide
free and compulsory education to all children
between the age of six to fourteen years in such
manner as the State may, by law, determine? 2019-20
(a) Article 20A
(b) Article 21A 1. Which one of the following statements is not

correct?
(c) Article 22A
a) The President of India appoints the judges of
(d) Article 23A
the Supreme Court in accordance with the
Answer: B provisions of Article 124 of the Constitution
of India.
b) The President of India appoints the judges of
Constitution of India relates to National
the Supreme Court on the basis of the
Commission for Scheduled Castes?
recommendations of the collegium.
(a) Article 332 c) The President of India appoints the Chief
Justice of India on the basis of the
(b) Article 334
recommendations of the collegium.
(c) Article 336 d) The number of judges in the collegium for
recommending appointment of judges in the
(d) Article 338 Supreme Court and High Courts is not the
Answer: D same.
20. ‘Ministry of Law and Justice’ being the Answer: C

oldest limb of the Government of India, was the 2. Which provision of the Constitution of India
outcome of which Charter Act enacted by the refers to a political party?
British Parliament?
a) Election of the President of India under
(a) The Charter Act, 1793 Article 55
33
b) Disqualification for membership of the 6. Which one of the following Fundamental

Parliament under Article 102 Rights cannot be restricted on the ground of
c) Superintendence, direction and control of morality?
elections under Article 324
(a) Right of freedom under Article 19(1)(a)
d) Defection under Tenth Schedule
(b) Right under Article 25
Answer: D
(c) Right of freedom under Article 19(1)(d)
correct? (d) Right under Article 26
a) Article 370 of the Constitution of India Answer: C
has not been repealed.
7. Right to freedom of conscience and free
b) Article 370 of the Constitution of India is
profession is guaranteed to a Hindu that
no more a part of the Constitution of
includes which of the following?
India.
c) Jammu and Kashmir has become a 1. Buddhist
Union Territory by amending the
Constitution of India. 2. Jaina
d) The status of Jammu and Kashmir as a 3. Sikh
Union Territory is not identical with that
of Delhi. Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
Answer: B
(a) 1 and 2 only
4. Under which Article of the Constitution of
India can reservations for physically challenged (b) 2 and 3 only
persons be justified? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Article 14 and/or Article 16(1) (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Article 15(4) Answer: D
(c) Article 16(4) 8. Consider the following statements:
(d) Article 16(6) 1. Conferment of Padma Awards does not
Answer: A amount to conferring title under Article
18 of the Constitution of India.
5. If any person other than the one covered 2. No citizen of India shall accept any title
under Article 30 of the Constitution of India from any foreign State.
establishes a college, which Fundamental Right 3. A person not being a citizen of India can
can be claimed by him/her for managing that be appointed by the Government of India
institution? to any office of profit and he/she can
(a) Right to equality under Article 14 accept any title from any foreign State.
(b) Right to one of the freedoms under Article Which of the above statements is/are not
19(1) correct?
(c) Right under Article 29 (a) 1 only
(d) Right under Article 41 (b) 2 only
Answer: B (c) 3 only
34
(d) 1, 2 and 3 13. Which one of the following constitutional

amendments introduced the Goods and Services
Answer: C
Tax in India?
9. Which writ can be issued against a private
(a) 100th Amendment
trust/institution for failure to give effect to rules
made by the Government? (b) 101st Amendment
(a) Mandamus (c) 122nd Amendment
(b) Prohibition (d) 125th Amendment
(c) Quo warranto Answer: B
(d) Certiorari 14. Which one of the following Parts of the

Constitution of India deals with the Directive
Answer: A
Principles of State Policy?
10. Who was the first Comptroller and Auditor
(a) Part II
General of India soon after Indian
Independence? (b) Part III
(a) Shri Anil Kumar Chanda (c) Part IV
(b) Shri S. Ranganathan (d) Part V
(c) Shri Girish Chandra Murmu Answer: C
(d) Shri V. Narahari Rao 15. Which one of the following constitutional
amendments lowered the voting age from 21
Answer: D
years to 18 years?
(a) 42nd Amendment
Constitution of India deals with the President’s
rule in a State? (b) 61st Amendment
(a) Article 352 (c) 73rd Amendment
(b) Article 356 (d) 86th Amendment
(c) Article 360 Answer: B
(d) Article 370 16. How many Fundamental Rights are

guaranteed to Indian citizens under the
Answer: B
Constitution?
(a) 4
Constitution of India deals with the Council of
Ministers? (b) 6
(a) Article 44 (c) 8
(b) Article 74 (d) 10
(c) Article 101 Answer: B
(d) Article 123 17. The term ‘Lok Sabha' is borrowed from
which one of the following languages?
Answer: B
35
(a) Hindi Answer: C
(b) Sanskrit 21. Consider the following statements with

regard to the Fundamental Rights:
(c) Urdu
1. The Parliament has power to modify the
(d) English
rights conferred by Part III of the
Answer: B Constitution of India with regard to
persons employed in telecommunication
18. The President of India can nominate how
systems of certain categories.
many members to the Rajya Sabha?
2. During the course of enforcement of
(a) 6 martial law in any area, restrictions can
be imposed on the exercise of the
(b) 10 Fundamental Rights.
(c) 12 3. The Fundamental Rights cannot be
overridden for implementing any of the
(d) 16 Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer: C Which of the above statements is/are not
19. Which one of the following Articles of the correct?
Constitution of India deals with the (a) 1 only
appointment and removal of the Vice President?
(b) 2 only
(a) Article 54
(c) 3 only
(b) Article 62
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Article 76
Answer: C
(d) Article 67
22. Consider the following statements with
Answer: D regard to election of the President of India:
20. Consider the following statements with 1. The members of the House of the People
reference to the Constitution of India: can vote.
1. The word ‘socialist’ used in the Preamble is 2. The elected members of the Council of
directly related to the principles contained States can vote.
under Article 39. 3. The elected members of the State
2. The word ‘secular’ used in the Preamble is Legislatures can vote.
directly related to Article 29. Which of the above statements is/are not
3. The words ‘unity and integrity of the nation’ correct?
used in the Preamble are directly related to
Article 51A. (a) 1 only
Which of the above statements are correct? (b) 2 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only Answer: C
(d) 1, 2 and 3
36
23. Consider the following statements: d) Decision of the Speaker of the House of
the People regarding disqualification of a
The Constitution of India confers power on the
member of that House on the ground of
Governor to reserve a Bill passed by a State
defection
Legislature for consideration by the President of
India Answer: B
1. when the Bill is inconsistent with any law 26. Which one of the following statements
made by the Parliament relating to the Constitution of India is not
2. for any Bill correct?
3. when the Bill seeks to give effect to the
a) The provisions of Articles 324 to 329
Directive Principle mentioned under
apply equally to States as well as Union
Article 39(b)
Territories.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? b) Only some of the provisions of Articles
324 to 329 apply to one Union Territory.
(a) 1
c) The provisions of Articles 124(4) and
(b) 2 Only 124(5) apply to both the Supreme Court
and all the High Courts.
(c) 3 only
d) The definition of ‘State’ provided under
(d) 2 and 3 Article 12 applies to both the
Fundamental Rights as well as the
Answer: D Directive Principles of State Policy.
24. The Constitution of India does not require Answer: A
the constitution of Panchayats at
27. Which one of the following constitutional
(a) village level amendments introduced anti-defection laws in
(b) intermediate level with a population India?
exceeding 20 lakhs (a) 42nd Amendment
(c) all intermediate levels (b) 52nd Amendment
(d) district level (c) 73rd Amendment
Answer: C (d) 91st Amendment
25. Which one of the following Answer: B
actions/decisions/declarations has not been
treated final under the Constitution of India? 28. The National Human Rights Commission
(NHRC) is
a) Dispensation of an enquiry into the
misconduct of a civil servant on the (a) a constitutional body
ground that it was not practicable to hold (b) a statutory body
the enquiry
b) A declaration made in a law made by the (c) an autonomous body
Parliament that it was for giving effect to
(d) a Government department
the Directive Principle relating to
economic system with a view to control Answer: B
concentration of wealth
c) Advice tendered by the Ministers to the
President of India
37
29. The term ‘Vote on Account’ is related to (c) Ombudsman for Corruption Cases
(a) General Elections (d) Special Investigation Team
(b) State Budget Answer: C
(c) Interim Budget 34. The Constitution of India contains special

provisions for
(d) Local Body Elections
(a) Punjab
Answer: C
(b) Uttarakhand
30. The Preamble of the Constitution of India
reflects the ideals of (c) Gujarat
(a) equality, liberty and fraternity (d) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) sovereignty, socialism and secularism Answer: C
(c) justice, liberty, equality and fraternity 35. Consider the following statements:
(d) socialism, secularism and democracy No Act of the Parliament is applicable to
Answer: C 1. ownership and transfer of land in the

States of Mizoram and Nagaland.
31. Which one of the following Schedules of the
2. administration of criminal justice
Constitution of India specifies the languages of
involving decisions according to Mizo or
India?
Naga customary law.
(a) First Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(a) 1 only
(c) Eighth Schedule
(b) 2 only
(d) Tenth Schedule
(c) Both 1 and 2
Answer: C
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
32. Which one of the following is not a type of
Answer: C
writ issued by the Supreme Court or the High
Courts in India? 36. Which of the following States are involved in
paying/receiving a fixed amount of money
(a) Habeas corpus
to/from Travancore Devaswom Fund under the
(b) Mandamus Constitution of India?
(c) Curfew (a) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
(d) Certiorari (b) Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
Answer: C (c) Kerala and Andhra Pradesh
33. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 (d) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
provides for the establishment of the
Answer: A
(a) Anti-Corruption Bureau
(b) Corruption Eradication Commission
38
37. Consider the following statements: a) The detention of a person detained under
any preventive detention law has to be
1. A citizen cannot be discriminated only on
considered by an Advisory Board headed
the ground of place of birth but the
by a sitting judge of the High Court.
Parliament can make law prescribing any
b) An arrested person has a right of legal
requirement as to residence within a
representation.
State with regard to any class of
c) An arrested person has the right to know
employment in the State.
the grounds of his/her arrest.
2. There can be no discrimination only on
d) A person cannot be detained in custody
the ground of religion but the law may
beyond twenty-four hours [excluding
prescribe a requirement that an
journey time) without the authority of a
incumbent to an office in connection with
Magistrate.
any religious institution should belong to
a particular religion to which the Answer: A
institution belongs.
41. Consider the following statements with
Which of the above statements is/are correct? respect to Article 32 and Article 226 of the
Constitution of India:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 1. Article 32 confers a right on the petitioner
(c) Both 1 and 2 while Article 226 confers a discretion on
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 the High Court.
Answer: C 2. Article 32 and Article 226 confer identical
power on the Supreme Court and the
38. Which one of the following has been
High Courts to enforce the Fundamental
expressly included in Part III of the Constitution
Rights.
of India?
3. The power of superintendence of the
(a) Company Supreme Court over the High Courts is
not similar to the powers of
(b) Partnership
superintendence conferred on the High
(c) Trust Courts over the courts subordinate to
them.
(d) Cooperative society
Answer: D correct?
39. Which one of the following is included in the (a) 1 and 3
prohibition provided under Article 20(3)?
(b) 3 only
(a) Giving of finger impression
(c) 2 only
(b) Giving of a sample of handwriting
(d) 2 and 3
(c) Narco-analysis test
Answer: B
(d) Voice sample
Answer: C correct?
40. Article 22 of the Constitution of India does a) The Union Executive can exercise power
not provide for which one of the following? on any subject included in the Union List
39
of Seventh Schedule of the Constitution Answer: B

of India.
45. The jurisdiction of the courts has been
b) The Union Executive can exercise
ousted in which one of the following matters?
jurisdiction conferred on the Government
of India by any international treaty. a) Any law dealing with delimitation of
c) The Union Executive can exercise power constituencies with regard to election to
for any State on any subject included in municipalities
the Concurrent List of Seventh Schedule b) Reservations made for various categories
of the Constitution of India. for elections in municipalities
d) The Union Executive can issue directions c) Disqualification for membership of a
to the States for ensuring compliance Panchayat
with any law passed by the Parliament. d) Election of members of the board in a
cooperative society
Answer: C
Answer: A
43. Which of the following statements is correct?
a) A person who is not qualified to be a
member of the Parliament is not qualified 1. The Constitution of India prescribes
to be the President. limits of territorial waters and maritime
b) Every person who is qualified to be a zones of India.
member of the Parliament is eligible to be 2. The resources of the exclusive zone of
elected as the President of India. India vest in the Union of India.
c) A person qualified to be a member of the 3. The Constitution of India prescribes the
House of the People is qualified to be the limits of the exclusive economic zone of
President. India.
d) A person qualified to be a member of the
House of the People is qualified to be the
President if he/she fulfills other (a) 1 only
prescribed requirements.
(b) 2 and 3
Answer: D
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only
A High Court requires prior approval of the
Governor while making certain rules Answer: D
1. settling tables of fee to advocates and 47. Consider the following statements:
pleaders practicing before district courts The ‘pleasure’ doctrine with regard to service of
2. calling returns from district courts the civil servants under the Constitution of
3. which include rules for superintendence India is
of the district courts
1. absolute
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 2. subject to Article 309
(a) 1 only 3. subject to Article 311
(b) 1 and 2 Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(c) 2 only (a) 1 only
(d) 3 (b) 2 only
40
(c) 1 and 2 (d) election of the Presiding Officer in the

Parliament
(d) 3
Answer: B
Answer: D
48. The provisions for setting up Inter-State

Councils are mentioned in Article 263 of the 2021-22
Constitution of India. Which among the
following is not the correct composition of
member States in case of Eastern Zonal 1. The rule of law is the basic feature of the
Council? Constitution under which specific Article and
Clause of the Constitution of India provides that
(a) Bihar
no law (future laws) can be enacted which runs
(b) Jharkhand
contrary to the fundamental rights guaranteed
(c) West Bengal
under Part III of the Constitution of India?
(d) Chhattisgarh
Answer: D (a) Article 13(1)
49. With regard to Goods and Services Tax in (b) Article 13(2)
the course of inter-State trade or commerce,
(c) Article 13(3)
which one of the following statements is not
correct? (d) Article 13(4)
(a) It is levied by the Union. Answer: B
(b) It is levied and collected by the Union. 2. Under which Clause of Article 16, inserted by
the Constitutional (77th Amendment) Act, 1995,
(c) It is not apportioned between the Union and
stating that “Nothing in this Article shall
States.
prevent the State from making any provisions
(d) Goods imported are treated to be supply of for the reservation in matters of promotion [with
goods in the course of inter-State trade. consequential seniority] to any class or classes
of posts in the services under the State in favor
Answer: C
of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled
50. How many readings does a non-Money Bill Tribes, which, in the opinion of the State, is not
undergo in both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya adequately represented in the services under
Sabha? the State”?
(a) One reading (a) Article 16(1)
(b) Two readings (b) Article 16(2)
(c) Three readings (c) Article 16(3)
(d) Four readings (d) Article 16(4-A)
Answer: Answer: C
51. The term ‘guillotine’ is associated with 3. What does the 9th Schedule of the
Constitution of India contain?
(a) decision-making process in the
Parliament (a) List of Official Languages
(b) financial procedure in the Parliament
(b) Panchayati Raj System
(c) removal of a member from the Parliament
41
(c) Laws protected from Judicial review (c) Article 42 of the Constitution of India
(d) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (d) Article 43 of the Constitution of India
Answer: C Answer: A
4. Which among the following Constitutional 8. Consider the following as part of fundamental
Amendment Act is inserted [co-operative duties under the Constitution of India:
societies] in Clause (1) of the Article 19?
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect
a) The Constitutional (97th Amendment) its ideals and institutions, the National
Act, 2011 Flag and the National Anthem
b) The Constitutional (44th Amendment) 2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty,
Act, 1978 unity and integrity of India
c) The Constitutional (4th Amendment) Act, 3. To promote harmony and the spirit of
1955 common brotherhood amongst all the
d) The Constitutional (95th Amendment) people of India transcending religious,
Act, 2009 linguistic and regional or sectional
diversities; to renounce practices
Answer: A
derogatory to the dignity of women
5. Which among the following is not correct 4. To practice any profession or to carry on
under Article 19 of the Constitution of India? any occupation, trade or business
(a) ‘Freedom of speech and expression Which of the above fundamental duties is/are
correct?
(b) Assemble peaceably and with arms
(a) 1 only
(c) Form associations and unions
(b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Move freely throughout the territory of India
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Constitution of India deals with “Equal Justice Answer: C
and Free Legal Aid”?
9. Consider the following powers of the
(a) Article 14-A President of India:
(b) Article 38 1. The executive powers of the Union

2. The power to grant pardon and remit
(c) Article 39
punishment
(d) Article 39-A 3. The supreme commander of the Defence
forces of the Union
Answer: D
Which of the above powers is/are correct?
7. The Organization of Village Panchayats with
specific powers and authority as may be (a) 1 only
necessary to endow them to function as units of (b) 1 and 2 only
self-government, is mentioned in
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) Article 40 of the Constitution of India
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Article 41 of the Constitution of India
Answer: D
42
10. Which one of the following Schedules of the 14. Which among the following Articles of the
Constitution of India contains provisions Constitution of India deals with the Election of
regarding land reforms? the Vice President?
(a) Ninth Schedule (a) Article 63
(b) Twelfth Schedule (b) Article 64
(c) Fifth Schedule (c) Article 65
(d) Fourth Schedule (d) Article 66
Answer: A Answer: D
11. Which one of the following Articles of the 15. Which one of the following amendments to
Constitution of India provides for the the Constitution of India introduced the Right to
establishment of a National Judicial Education as a fundamental right?
Appointments Commission?
(a) 83rd Amendment
(a) Article 124A
(b) 86th Amendment
(b) Article 124C
(c) 85th Amendment
(c) Article 124B
(d) 92nd Amendment
(d) Article 124
Answer: B
Answer: A
16. The concept of “Socialist” in the Preamble of
12. Which one of the following Schedules of the the Constitution of India was inserted by which
Constitution of India contains the oath or one of the following amendments?
affirmation for members of the Union Council of
(a) 42nd Amendment
Ministers?
(b) 44th Amendment
(a) Second Schedule
(c) 46th Amendment
(b) Third Schedule
(d) 52nd Amendment
(c) Fourth Schedule
Answer: A
(d) Ninth Schedule
17. The concept of “Equal pay for equal work” is
Answer: B
enshrined in which one of the following Articles
13. The National Human Rights Commission of of the Constitution of India?
India is formed under which Article of the
(a) Article 14
Constitution of India?
(b) Article 39(d)
(a) Article 21
(c) Article 19
(b) Article 32
(d) Article 21(a)
(c) Article 356
Answer: B
(d) Article 377
Answer: A
43
18. Which one of the following Schedules of the 22. The “Doctrine of Pleasure” is related to the
Constitution of India contains the allocation of tenure of which constitutional authority in
seats in the Rajya Sabha to each state and India?
union territory?
(a) Governor of State
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Chief Justice of India
(b) Fourth Schedule
(c) Chief Information Commissioner
(c) Fifth Schedule
(d) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Eighth Schedule
Answer: A
Answer: B
23. Right to Property has been provided under
19. Which one of the following Articles of the which one of the following Articles of the
Constitution of India deals with the Constitution of India?
appointment and tenure of the Attorney General
(a) Article 19(l)(f)
of India?
(b) Article 31
(a) Article 76
(c) Article 300A
(b) Article 88
(d) Article 301
(c) Article 91
Answer: C
(d) Article 94
24. Which fundamental right is not guaranteed
Answer: A
under the Constitution of India to the majority
20. No fundamental rights can be claimed but is guaranteed to the minorities?
against
(a) Right under Article 15
(a) a Government company
(b) Right under Article 19
(b) a Municipal corporation
(c) Right under Article 25
(c) a Court
(d) Right under Article 30
(d) a Statutory corporation
Answer: D
Answer: C
25. The system of “Proportional Representation
21.Parliament cannot make law on which one of by Means of the Single Transferable Vote” is
the following subjects, except for a Union used for the election of
Territory?
(a) President of India
(a) Insurance
(b) Members of the Lok Sabha
(b) Railways
(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) Banking
(d) Members of the Legislative Councils
(d) Fisheries
Answer: C
Answer: D
44
26. Who among the following has the power to 30. Which one of the following Articles of the
summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Constitution of India is considered to raise the
Parliament in India? level of nutrition and the standard of living of
people and improve public health?
(a) Article 19
(b) Prime Minister of India
(b) Article 47
(c) Minister of Home Affairs of India
(c) Article 15
(d) Vice President of India
(d) Article 16
Answer: A
Answer: B
27. If a person occupies a public office illegally,
which one of the following writs/orders can be 31. Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
issued against him/her for getting the office General of India relating to the accounts of the
vacated? Union shall be submitted to the:
(a) Quo warranto (a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Prohibition (b) President of India
(c) Certiorari (c) Vice President of India
(d) Permanent injunction (d) Supreme Court of India
Answer: A Answer: B
28. The Supreme Court of India has the power 32. The President of India can promulgate an
to review its own judgments under which one of ordinance when:
the following Articles of the Constitution of
a) both Houses of Parliament are in session
India?
b) there is a financial emergency
(a) Article 129 c) there is a State emergency
d) both Houses of Parliament are not in
(b) Article 137
session
(c) Article 141
Answer: D
(d) Article 142
33. Consider the following statements :
Answer: B
1. The main sources of law in India are the
29. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution, Statutes (Legislations),
Constitution of India is considered for Customary Law, and Case Law.
prohibition of employment of children in 2. Decisions of the Supreme Court are not
factories? binding in all courts within the territory
of India.
(a) Article 24
(b) Article 19
(a) 1 only
(c) Article 39A
(b) 2 only
(d) Article 23
(c) Both 1 and 2
Answer: A
45
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) a person cannot be deprived of his

property without compensation
Answer: A
d) a person cannot be forced to be a witness
34. The Parliament is competent to make laws against himself
on matters enumerated in the Union list, and
Answer: A
similarly, the State Legislatures are competent
to make laws on matters enumerated in the 38. The procedure for the amendment of the
State list. The Parliament alone has the power Constitution is detailed in which part of the
to make laws on matters not included in the Constitution of India ?
State list or Concurrent list.
(a) Part II
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(b) Part XIV
(a) 1 only
(c) Part XX
(b) 2 only
(d) Part XXI
(c) Both 1 and 2
Answer: C
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
39. The phrase "We, the people of India" in the
Answer: C Preamble of the Constitution of India signifies
35. Which one of the following amendments to (a) Socialist principles

the Constitution of India introduced the concept
(b) Democratic principles
of "Constitutional bodies" ?
(C) Secular principles
(a) 42nd Amendment
(d) Sovereign power of the people
(b) 73rd Amendment
Answer: D
(c) 89th Amendment
40. In India, the power to levy and collect taxes
(d) 97th Amendment
is divided between the Central and State
Answer: C Governments. This division is provided under
which one of the following Articles of the
36. The National Commission for Women was
Constitution of India ?
set up as a statutory body in
(a) Article 246
(a) January 1990
(b) Article 268
(b) January 1992
(c) Article 270
(c) April 1990
(d) Article 275
(d) April 1992
Answer: C
Answer: B
41. What is the total number of writs which
37. In the context of the Constitution of India,
High Courts can issue ?
"Double Jeopardy" means
(a) 4
a) a person cannot be tried twice for the
same offence (b) 5
b) a person cannot be arrested without a
(c) 6
warrant
46
(d) 7 46. Consider the following statements regarding

the election of the President of India :
Answer: B
1. Every Member of Parliament can vote in
42. The distribution of powers between the
the election of the President of India.
Union and States in the Constitution of India is
2. Every elected Member of Parliament can
based on the recommendations of which one of
vote in the election of the President of
the following Commissions ?
India.
(a) Justice Verma Commission 3. Every elected member of a State
Legislative Assembly can vote in the
(b) Rajamannar Commission
election of the President of India.
(c) Fazal Ali Commission
(d) Venkatachaliah Commission correct ?
Answer: DROPPED (a) 1 only
43. Which one of the following is not a feature of (b) 2 and 3 only
a federal system of Government ?
(c) 3 only
a) Division of powers between the Central
(d) 1 and 2 only
and State Governments
b) A written Constitution Answer: A
c) Single citizenship
47. In context of the Constitution of India, what
d) Bicameral legislature
is the significance of "Writ of Mandamus" ?
Answer: C
a) It orders a public official to perform
44. Which one of the following statements is not his/her duty correctly
correct regarding the President of India ? b) It is a writ against unlawful detention
c) It is a writ for the enforcement of non-
a) The President of India is part of the
fundamental rights
Parliament.
d) It is a writ for acquiring lands and
b) The President of India can on his own
properties
dismiss a Union Minister for misconduct.
c) The President of India can ask the Union Answer: A
Council of Ministers to re-consider its
48. The President of India can dissolve the
advice given to him.
Lok Sabha on the advice of the
d) The President of India can pardon a
person sentenced to death. a) Council of Ministers
b) Chief Justice of India
Answer: B
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
45. Which writ can be issued in case of illegal d) Election Commission of India
arrest ?
Answer: A
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas corpus
Constitution of India allows the President to
(c) Quo warranto
seek advice from the Supreme Court on any
(d) Prohibition
matter of public importance?
Answer: B
(a) Article 139
47
(b) Article 143 4. Which of the following are included in the

basic structure of the Constitution of India?
(c) Article 148
1. Supremacy of the Constitution
(d) Article 150
2. Judicial Review
Answer: B 3. Principle of equality
4. Free and fair elections

below:
2023 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Constitution of India says that all public places
are open to all citizens? (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) Article 15(2) Answer:
(b) Article 16(2) 5. Which Constitutional Amendment provided

that the election of the President of India or
(c) Article 17
Vice-President of India cannot be challenged on
(d) Article 18 the ground of any vacancy in the appropriate
electoral college?
Answer:
(a) 11th Amendment Act, 1961
Constitution of India says that Directive (b) 12th Amendment Act, 1962
Principles are not enforceable by any court?
(c) 13th Amendment Act, 1962
(a) Article 36
(d) 14th Amendment Act, 1962
(b) Article 37
Answer:
(c) Article 38
6. A motion for the removal of a judge of the
(d) Article 39 High Court should be signed by how many
members in case of Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
(a) 40
3. The concept of privy purses and privileges of
the Rulers of former Indian States was (b) 50
terminated through:
(c) 60
a) the Constitution (First Amendment) Act
(d) 70
b) the Constitution (Twenty-sixth
Amendment) Act Answer:
c) the Constitution (Fifty-second
7. Which one of the following bills can the
Amendment) Act
Governor not return back for reconsideration of
d) the Constitution (Ninety-first
the State Legislature?
Amendment) Act
(a) Constitutional Amendment Bill
Answer:
(b) Money Bill
48
(c) Ordinary Bill 1. Commutation of punishment or the

sentence of any person
(d) Finance Bill
2. Remission of punishment or the sentence
Answer: of any person
3. Continuation of punishment or the
sentence of any person
Along with ‘Right to Life’ in Article 21 of the
Constitution of India, it also includes:
below:
1. Right to Health (a) 1, 2 and 3
2. Right to Food
3. Right to Water (b) 2 only
Which of the above statements is/are correct? (c) 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only Answer:
(c) 1 and 3 only 12. Which of the following represents the

disapproval of the policy underlying the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
demand?
Answer:
(a) Policy Cut Motion
9. While the proclamation of Emergency is in
(b) Economy Cut Motion
operation, the term of Lok Sabha may be
extended at a time for a period not exceeding (c) Token Cut Motion
(a) 2.5 years (d) Trade Cut Motion
(b) 1 year Answer:
(c) 1.5 years 13. In which article of the Constitution of India

is the office of the Attorney General for India
(d) Depends on the discretion of the President of
provided?
India
(a) Article 75
Answer:
(b) Article 76
10. Which article of the Constitution of India
deals with the promotion of international peace (c) Article 77
and security?
(d) Article 78
(a) Article 48A
Answer:
(b) Article 41
14. Approval of which among the following is
(c) Article 43A needed to draw funds from the Consolidated
Fund of India?
(d) Article 51
Answer:
(b) Parliament
11. Which of the following does not come under
the power of the President of India to pardon? (c) Council of Ministers
49
(d) Vice-President of India Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
Answer:
PQR
15. Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of
India deals with (a) 3 1 2
(a) Allocation of seats in the Council of States (b) 2 3 1
(b) Distribution of power between the Union and (c) 1 3 2

the States
(d) 2 1 3
(c) Power and authority of the Municipalities
Answer:
(d) Powers of the Governor of the State
18. Clause (4) of Article 15 has been added to
Answer: the Constitution of India by
16. Which one of the following Articles of the (a) The Constitution (First Amendment) Act
Constitution of India states that the State shall
(b) The Constitution (Second Amendment) Act
not deny to any person equality before the law
or the equal protection of law within the (c) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Act
territory of India?
(d) The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act
(a) Article 14
Answer:
(b) Article 19
19. Article 360 of the Constitution of India has
(c) Article 21 been invoked
(d) Article 256 (a) only one time
Answer: (b) two times
17. Match the following lists: (c) three times
List-I List-II (d) never

(Term) (Meaning)
Answer:
P. Executive An institution empowered
to administer justice and 20. A resolution passed under Clause (1) of
provide a mechanism for Article 249 of the Constitution of India shall
the resolution of legal remain in force for such period not exceeding
disputes.
(a) Three months
Q. Judiciary An assembly of people’s
representatives with the (b) Six months
power to enact laws for a
country. (c) Nine months
R. Legislature A body of persons having (d) Twelve months
authority to initiate major
policies, make decisions Answer:
and implement them based
on the Constitution and
laws of the country.
50
21. The power of the Parliament to amend the

Constitution of India is a constituent power laid
down in Article 368 by
(a) The Constitution (First Amendment) Act

(Twenty-Fourth)
(b) The Constitution (Second Amendment)
Act (Twenty-Sixth)
(c) The Constitution (Fourth Amendment)
Act (Forty-Second)
(d) The Constitution (Sixth Amendment) Act
(Forty-Fourth)
Answer:
22. The appropriate writ issued by the Supreme

Court to quash the appointment of a person to a
public office is
(a) Certiorari
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo Warranto
Answer:
23. The jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of

India may be enlarged by
(a) The President of India

(b) The Parliament by resolution
(c) The Parliament by Law
(d) The President in consultation with the
Chief Justice of India
Answer:
24. High Courts of Allahabad and Delhi affirmed

that the right to change one’s name is a
Fundamental Right under which one of the
following Articles of the Constitution of India?
(a) Article 13
(b) Article 18
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 23
Answer:
51

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Previous Year Questions

Statement II : The official work of

4. Statement I: Members of Parliament enjoy

Statement II : During the currency of the

Code: 5. Statement I: The year 1921 is a ‘Year of

Answer: A (a) What are the clearly delineated and

Select the correct answer using the code given Answer: A

(b) 1, 2 and 4 (d) Neither I nor 2

(c) 2 and 4 only Answer: B

(d) 1 and 2 only 15. During the proclamation of ﬁnancial

l. All Constitutional amendments can only 3. A Substantive motion is a self-contained

17. Which among the following is the correct Answer: D

(a) National Development Council (d) l only

1. Nagar Panchayat: Transitional area Answer: B

(a) Right to life

1. The President of India may, by writing

2. A person who has held the ofﬁce of the

Answer: D 1. In a State having two Houses (Legislative

may permit any member who cannot (b) Harmonious construction

(d) 2 and 4 only (a) R. C. Cooper u. Union of India

Answer: B (b) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(b) 1 and 4 only (d) A Bill pending in the Parliament shall

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 d) Banking Service (Repeal) Bill and

Which of the statements above is/are correct? (a) l only

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only

(b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: C

Answer: A 25. Which of the following statements regarding

(c) 3 only 28. Consider the following statements regarding

27. What is a Financial Bill? 1. That it be taken into consideration.

(a) President oi’ India

2014 (b) Prime Minister of India

(c) Union Cabinet

1. Consider the following statements about (d) Union Council of Ministers

(a) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are

(d) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/are

a) The Legislature of the State of Karnataka (c) 1 only

Select the correct answer using the code given Answer: C

(b) 3 and 4 only a) The reservation in public services can

18. Which of the following statements is Answer: A

(d) Right to bail 2. render national service when required

Answer: B 3. renounce practices derogatory to women

1. Adjournment means postponement of the Answer: B

(b) 2, 3 and 4 Answer: C

(c) 1 and 2 only

34. The Constitution. of India, does not-contain

3. Consider the following statements: a) Altering the name of a State mentioned in

(b) Mandamus (c) 2 and 3 only

(c) Quo warranto (d) 1, 2 and 3

(d) Prohibition Answer: B

Answer: C 12. The Legislative Assembly of Delhi cannot

a) It can be issued in case of a foreigner who (b) water

15. Which one of the following statements is (a) 1 only

16. Which one of the following statements with a) Legislature of a State

Answer: D (b) The President of India

21. A High Court has power to (d) 1 and 3

27. Which one of the following statements on (a) 1 only

32. Under which of the following grounds, the

a) Right to reside and settle in any part of

4. Parliament of India consists of 7. Consider the following statements :

a) the President of India only 1. The Constitution of India empowers the

2. A person is qualiﬁed for election as Answer: B