VALUE OF CONSTANTS IMPORTANT FOR CALCULATION

Plank’s constant ℎ = 6.62𝑥10−34 𝐽. 𝑠 = 4.136𝑥10−15 𝑒𝑣. 𝑠,

Speed of light c in vacuum= 3𝑋108 𝑚/𝑠, Rest energy 𝐸0 of the electron= 511𝑘𝑒𝑣

Rest energy 𝐸0 of the proton= 0.939𝐺𝑒𝑣, Mass of electron 𝑚𝑒 = 9.11𝑥10−31 𝑘𝑔

Mass of proton = 1.6726219x 10−27 𝑘𝑔, Compton wavelength 𝜆𝑐 = 2.426𝑥10−12 𝑚

1. As an object approaches the speed of light, it’s mass becomes _____________

A. Zero
B. Double
C. Remains Same
D. Infinite
2. A spaceship, moving away from the Earth at a speed of 0.9c, fires a light beam backward. An
observer on Earth would see the light arriving at a speed of
A. 0.1c.
B. more than 0.1c but less than c.
C. c.
D. more than c but less than 1.9c.
3. An atom A, moving relative to the scientist, with velocity 0.6c emits a particle
B which moves with a velocity of 0.4c with respect to the atom. The velocity of the
emitted particle relative to the scientist is _____________
A. c
B. 0.8c
C. 0.5c
D. 0.2c
4. The momentum of a photon having energy 1𝑥10−17 𝐽 is
A. 1.33𝑥10−26 𝑘𝑔 𝑚/𝑠
B. 2.33𝑥10−26 𝑘𝑔 𝑚/𝑠
C. 3.33𝑥10−26 𝑘𝑔 𝑚/𝑠
D. 4.33𝑥10−26 𝑘𝑔 𝑚/𝑠
5. If the total energy of a body is two times its rest, its velocity will be
√2
A. c
2
√3
B. c
3
√2
C. c
3
√3
D. 2 c
6. Starship "Alpha" is traveling at 0.8c (γ = 5/3) with respect to the identical starship "Beta."
Each starship has rest length 10,000 m. The ship's engineer aboard the "Beta" measures the
length of the "Alpha" as it passes by his window. What result should he get?
A. 6,000 m
B. 8,000 m
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 C. 10,000 m
D. 12,500 m
7. A frame of reference has four coordinates, x,y,z and t is referred as
A. inertial frame of reference
B. non-inertial frame of reference
C. space-time reference
D. four dimensional plane
8. Given what we’ve learned about relativity, which of the following is better to
say than “matter can neither be created nor destroyed”:
A. Matter can be converted to waves.
B. Matter can be converted to particles.
C. Matter exists as a particle and wave at the same time.
D. Mass and energy can be seen as two names for the same underlying,
conserved physical quantity.
9. In special relativity
A. The reference frame is either at rest or moving with constant velocity.
B. The reference frame is moving with constant acceleration.
C. The reference frame is moving with non-constant acceleration.
D. Newton laws are not valid
10. If the total energy of a particle is two times its rest energy, its momentum is?
A. √2moc
B. 2moc
C. √3moc
D. 3moc
11. A star is estimated to have a lifetime of 20 billion years. The star is moving away from Earth
at a speed of 0.6c. The estimated lifetime of the star according to an observer on Earth is;
A. 10 billion years
B. 20 billion years
C. 25 billion years
D. 30 billion years
12. How much energy would be produced if 1𝑥10−3 kilogram of matter was entirely converted to
energy
A. 3𝑥1013 J
B. 3𝑥1019 J
C. 9𝑥1013 J
D. 9𝑥1019 J
5𝑚
13. A man who weighs m on earth weighs on a rocket as measured by an observer on earth.
4
What is the speed of the rocket?
A. 0.5c
B. 0.6c
C. 0.7c

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 D. 0.8c
14. The group velocity of anomalous dispersive media is
A. Less than the phase velocity
B. greater than phase velocity
C. Equal to the phase velocity
D. Half of the phase velocity
15. For particle diffraction, we have a mathematical formula nλ = 2dsinθ where n = 1, 2, 3… is
order of diffraction, d is the distance between reflecting planes and the angle θ. In this relation
λ is
A. The wavelength of diffracted particle
B. The wavelength of light
C. The wavelength of x-ray
D. Path difference of reflected rays
16. If a photon has a 6.6 × 10−32 m wavelength, what is its momentum?
A. 4.4 × 10−65 kg.m/s
B. 1.0 × 10−2 kg.m/s
C. 1.0 × 10−1 kg.m/s
D. 2.4 × 1012 kg.m/s
17. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of wavelength λ incident on the
surface of a metal of work function 𝛷, is [h = Planck's constant, c = speed of light and m =
mass of electron]
2(hc−Φ)
A. √ m

2(hc+Φ)
B. √
m

2(hc−λΦ)
C. √ m

2(hc+λΦ)
D. √
m

18. Two photons, each of energy 2.5 eV are simultaneously incident on the metal
surface. If the work function of the metal is 2 eV, then from the surface of
metal
A. one electron will be emitted with energy 0.5 eV
B. two electrons will be emitted with energy 0.5 eV
C. one electron will be emitted with energy 3 eV
D. two electrons will be emitted with energy 3 eV
19. The threshold wavelength for a metal having work function 𝜙𝑜 𝑖𝑠 𝜆0 . What is the threshold
𝜙
wavelength for a metal whose work function is 𝑜 ?
2
𝜆𝑜
A. 4

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 𝜆
B. 2𝑜
C. 2𝜆0
D. 4𝜆0
20. In Compton effect the greatest wavelength change is observed when the scattering angle is
A. 00
B. 450
C. 900
D. 1800
21. When radiation is incident on a photoelectron emitter, the stopping potential is found to be
1 V. If e/m for the electron is 1.8 𝑥 11011 C/kg, the maximum velocity of the ejected
electron is
A. 1.8 𝑥 1105 𝑚/𝑠
B. 2 𝑥 1105 𝑚/𝑠
C. 6 𝑥 1105 𝑚/𝑠
D. 8 𝑥 1105 𝑚/𝑠
22. If someone knows the velocity of a subatomic particle precisely, then
A. he knows nothing about the particle’s position.
B. he known a very limited amount about the particle’s position.
C. The particle must be at rest.
D. The particle can’t be at rest.
23. A photon with energy E is scattered by a stationary free electron. If the photon’s frequency is
reduced to 75% of its initial frequency due to scattering, the kinetic energy of electron will be?
A. 75% of E
B. B. 50% of E
C. C. 45% of E
D. D. 25% of E
24. Which characterizes a photon of light?
A. both energy and momentum
B. energy, but not momentum
C. momentum, but not energy
D. neither energy nor momentum
25. The work function of Tungsten, Aluminium, Lithium and Gold are 4.5 eV, 4.2 eV, 2.3 eV
and 4.82 eV respectively. Which material can be used for designing photocell operable with
visible light of wavelength 5000 Å?
A. Tungsten
B. Aluminium
C. Lithium
D. Gold
26. A photon with momentum 𝑝 is scattered by a stationary free electron. Its momentum on
𝑝
scattering becomes p' = 2 . At what angle the electron will recoil if the photon is scattered by
an angle of 370 from the horizontal?
A. 26.60
B. 33.60

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 C. 370
D. 530
27. The de Broglie wavelength of a 0.060 kg golf ball is 4.28 x 10-34 m. What is its speed?
A. 15 m/s
B. 26 m/s
C. 31 m/s
D. 48 m/s
28. At what kinetic energy would an electron have the wavelength of 5896 Å?
A. 3.93 × 10–25 J
B. 4.93 × 10–25 J
C. 5.93 × 10–25 J
D. 6.93 × 10–25 J
29. Experiments performed with light indicate that light exhibits
A. Particle properties, only
B. Wave properties, only
C. Both particle and wave properties
D. Neither particle nor wave properties
30. The threshold frequency in a photoelectric experiment is most closely related to the
A. brightness of the incident light
B. thickness of the photo-emissive metal
C. area of the photo-emissive metal
D. work function of the photo-emissive metal
31. Which determines the number of electrons emitted by a photoelectric material?
A. intensity
B. color
C. frequency
D. wavelength
32. According to the de Broglie hypothesis, which of the following statements is applicable to the
wavelength of a moving particle?
A. directly proportional to its energy
B. inversely proportional to its energy
C. directly proportional to its momentum
D. inversely proportional to its momentum
33. The radius of the Bohr orbit depends on which of the following?
A. n
B. 1/n
C. n2
D. 1/n2
34. What causes bright lines on an emission spectrum?
A. electrons jumping to higher energy levels when absorbing light
B. electrons falling to lower energy levels, releasing light
C. protons jumping to higher energy levels when absorbing light

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 D. protons falling to lower energy levels, releasing light
35. What causes an atom to absorb light?
A. photons take in energy and jump to a higher energy level
B. electrons take in energy and jump to a higher energy level
C. electrons release energy when falling to a lower energy level
D. photons release energy when falling to a lower energy level
36. In Bohr model of hydrogen atom, the energy of electron in its lowest orbit is
A. Infinite
B. Maximum
C. Minimum
D. Zero
37. The wavelength of photon that is emitted when a hydrogen atom undergoes a transition from
nf = 5 to ni =2 is
A. 2860 Å
B. 3400 Å
C. 4340 Å
D. 5440 Å
38. Velocity of electron in the second Bohr’s orbit as compared to the velocity in first orbit is
A. Equal
B. two times
C. half
D. one forth
39. With increasing quantum number, energy difference between adjacent levels n atoms will be
A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Remain constant
D. Zero
40. According to Bohr’s atomic model, the angular momentum of electron in nth orbit is equal to
an integral multiple of
ℎ
A.
𝜋
2ℎ
B. 𝜋
ℎ
C. 2𝜋
3ℎ
D. 𝜋
41. From the figure, what’s the relation between T 1, T2, and T3?

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 A. T3 > T1 > T2
B. T3 > T2 > T1
C. T1 > T2 > T3
D. T2 > T1 > T3
42. X-rays with wavelength 0.1 nm are scattered from a carbon block. The scattered radiations
are viewed at right angles to the direction of incident beam. What is the

Compton shift?

A. 0.0014 nm
B. 0.0044 nm
C. 0.0034 nm
D. 0.0024 nm
43. If the electron in H atom jumps from the third orbit to the second orbit, the wave length of
the emitted radiation is given by
5
A. 𝜆 = 𝑅
36
B. 𝜆 = 5𝑅
5𝑅
C. 𝜆 = 36
𝑅
D. 𝜆 = 6

44. An atom changing from an energy state of – 0.54 𝑒𝑉 to an energy state of – 0.85 𝑒𝑉 will emit
a photon whose energy is

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 A. 0.31 eV
B. 0.54 eV
C. 0.85 eV
D. 1.39 eV
45. What is the binding energy (MeV), and the binding energy per nucleon of the uranium
nucleus (23892U) respectively. The measured mass of the natural atom is 237.9987u MP =
1.0072765u Mn = 1.0086649u
A. 1804.3155MeV and 7.58MeV
B. 1804.3155MeV and 8.5MeV
C. 1604.5MeV and 7.58MeV
D. 1604. 5MeV and 8. MeV
46. These two consistent of nucleus, protons and neutrons are referred to collectively known as
A. Nucleons
B. Nuclides
C. Nuclei
D. Nucleus
47. A nucleus with the same neutron number, but different proton and mass number is called---
-----------
A. Isomers
B. isotopes
C. isobars
D. isotones
48. The charge of nucleus is positive
A. Due to presence of neutron
B. Due to presence of proton
C. Due to presence of electron around it.
D. Due to presences of charge less nucleon.

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49. ___________ Represents the electric repulsion between each pair of protons in a nucleus also
contributes toward decreasing its binding energy.
A. Coulomb term

B. volume term

C. surface term

D. pairing term

50. Which of the following is not made from quarks?

A. Neutrons
B. Protons
C. electron
D. 𝜋 − 𝑚𝑒𝑠𝑜𝑛
51. Which pair of nuclei express isobaric,
A. 146𝐶 , 136𝐶
B. 146𝐶 , 147𝑁
C. 146𝐶 , 137𝑁
D. 146𝐶 , 157𝑁
52. The probability of an event may occur when a single particle is shot perpendicular at a target
consisting of one particle per unit area is called
A. Radioactivity
B. Reaction Energy
C. Cross-section
D. Scattering
53. Which of the following is not true about fetchers of magic number?
A. A Nuclei Neutron or proton numbers are magic number shell is closed.
B. Number of N> 𝑜𝑟 < magic number ready to absorb neutrons
C. Elements with proton equal to a magic number have a larger natural abundance than
those of nearby elements
D. The energies of the excited states are much lower than the ground state if either N or
Z or both are magic numbers.
54. One of the following nuclei does not full fill double magic number
48
A. 20Ca
208
B. 82Pb
16
C. 8O
17
D. 8O

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55. According to LS Coupling one is not true,
A. Even-even nuclei have zero nuclear spin
B. Even-Odd or Odd-Even; Nuclear spin determined by the single unpaired nucleon
C. For any number of neutrons and proton is spin always zero
D. Odd-odd nuclei: Nuclear spin determined by combination of unpaired nucleons

56. Nuclear reaction does no depends on the

A. energy of the projectile particles
B. number and type of projectile particles
C. number of target nuclei in the target materials (No)
D. Factors of Temperature and pressure
57. Which of the following is not true about Condition for occurrence of beta minus decay
A. the neutron - proton ratio N/Z too large for stability
B. the neutron - proton ratio N/Z too small for stability
C. During that the number of energy state or energy level decrease
D. during, A is constant, but Z increases by 1
58. When a target nucleus is bombarded by an appropriate beam of particles or light nuclei,
which one of the following Conditions is true about the residual nucleus?
A. A nucleus with greater mass number, but not a less mass number.
B. A nucleus with a smaller atomic number but not with a greater atomic number.
C. A nucleus with either a greater or smaller mass number and atomic number
D. A nucleus with a greater atomic number but not a smaller atomic number.
59
59. When 27𝐶𝑜 undergoes positron emission, what is the immediate nuclear product?
59
A. 28𝑁𝑖
59
B. . 26𝐹𝑒
58
C. 30𝑍𝑛
58
D. 26𝐹𝑒
14
60. What is the Q-value of the following reaction? N + 4He = 1p + 17
O,
14
Rest mass energy for N, 4He, 1p and 17O respectively (14.003074), (4.002603),
(1.007825) and (16.999131) by amu(u)

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 A. 1.191 Me
B. . -1.191 MeV
C. 1.279X10-3 MeV
D. -1.279X10-3 MeV
1
61. In the fission reaction 0𝑛 +238U → 146Ba + 92Kr + neutrons, the number of
Neutrons produced (emitted) is
A. 4 .
B. 1.
C. 2.
D. 3
62. Which of the following statement is not true about alpha decay
A. Alpha rays have maximum ionizing power
B. They are high penetrating power
C. we can stop them just a sheet of paper
D. They are deflected only slightly towards the negative plate in electric field
63. Which order is correct for increasing order of radiation ionizing power?
A. Gamma ray < beta < alpha
B. beta< alpha < gamma
C. Alpha < beta < gamma
D. alpha < gamma <beta
64. Consider the case of a radioactive element X which decays by electron capture (beta)
emission with a half-life of 8 days to a stable nuclide of element Y. Which of the following
statements is correct?
A. After 8 days the sample will consist of 1/4 element Y and three-fourths element X.
B. Element Y will weight exactly the same as element X when decay is complete.
C. 100 g of element X is decay to produce 1.25 g of element Y after 24 days.
D. The sample X is decay to produce ½ elements Y after third half-life.
65. Which of the following statements is true about basic properties of radioactive decay?
A. It is dependent of external factors such as pressure, temperature, state of substance.
B. It is a spontaneous and reversible process
C. A radioactive element does not emit α and β particles simultaneously.

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 D. A radioactive element does emit α and β particles simultaneously
66. Which one of the following statements is not true about isomers?
A. They are sometimes metastable nuclides.
B. nuclei with the same atomic number and mass number but different energy states
C. produced when emitting neutrons from nuclides
D. They are d/nt from another excited state.
67. The main cause of alpha decay is
A. strong nuclear force to dominate the Coulomb repulsion force
B. coulomb repulsion force to dominate nuclear strong force
C. to decrease the energy level of nucleons
D. to transfer proton to neutron
68. _________is emission of energy starts from out sides the nucleus.

A. X- ray
B. Gamma - ray
C. radiation
D. gamma decay
69. All of the following are units used to describe the activity of sample nuclei, except
A. Curie.
B. decay/second
C. bequriel (Bq).
D. day/decay
70. During nuclear reaction which quantity does conserved.
A. Mass number only
B. Energy only
C. Momentum only
D. Charge ,mass, energy, momentum
1
71. What is the Q-value of the following reaction? 1𝐻 + 71𝐿𝑖 → 42𝐻𝑒 + 42𝐻𝑒 , 1
1𝐻 = 1.007825u,
7
3𝐿𝑖 = 7.016003 U, 42𝐻𝑒 =4.002603 u
A. 17.35 Me
B. 4.5 MeV

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 C. -4.5 MeV
D. -17.35MeV
72. The primary radionuclide used for therapeutic nuclear medicine procedures is

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 A. Technetium-99m (99mTc)
B. Iodine-131 (131I)
C. Cobalt-60 (60Co )
D. Iodine-132 (132I)
73. Nuclear fission is possible in which of the following cases?
A. Only between light nuclei
B. Only between heavy nuclei
C. Between both light and heavy nuclei
D. Only between nuclei, which are stable against decay
69
74. Complete and balance the following equation. 31 𝐺𝑎 + 42𝐻𝑒 _____ + neutron. The
missing term is _____
A. 72 33𝐴𝑠
72
B. 32𝐺𝑎
C. 7132𝐺𝑒
D. 7333𝐴𝑠
75. A radioisotope has a half-life of 12 minutes. What fraction of the radioisotope will be left
after 2 hours?
𝑁0
A. 64
𝑁0
B. 1024
𝑁0
C. 512
𝑁0
D. 128

Answer: B
76. Which of the following statement is not true about gamma ray?
A. They are ionize other atoms directly
B. . high penetrating power
C. It takes a thick sheet of metal , lead
D. they are waves
77. A radioisotope of argon, 35Ar, lies below the "band of stability" (n/p ratio too low). One
would predict that it decays via_____.
A. gamma emission
B. Beta minus emission
C. Positron emission

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 D. Alpha emission
Answer: C
78. As a result of the process of electron capture ("K-capture") by 209
85𝐴𝑡, the new isotope formed

is:
209
A. 85𝐴𝑡
210
B. 85𝐴𝑡
209
C. 84𝑃𝑜
211
D. 86𝑅𝑛

79. The minimum energy which the projectile must possess that the nuclear reaction may take
place is called ___________
A. Q-Value
B. Threshold energy
C. kinetic energy of projectile
D. kinetic energy of target nucleus
80. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Alpha decay decrease mass number by 4 and atomic number unchanged
B. Beta minus emission decrease mass number by 1 and atomic number by 1
C. Beta plus emission decrease atomic number by 1 and mass number unchanged.
D. Electron capture increase mass number by 1 and atomic number by 1
81. The radioactive element commonly detected in human is________
A. 60Co
B. 40K
C. 131 I
D. 40 Ca
Answer: B
82. The fuel for nuclear fusion in the center of the sun is
A. H
B. He
C. Tritium
D. Any radioactive material
83. How old is a bottle of wine if the tritium ( 3H) content (called activity) is 25% that of a new
wine? The half-life of tritium is 10 years.
A. 20 yr
B. 50 yr
C. 25 yr
D. 30 yr

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84. One of the following statements is not true about radioactive decay:
A. Life goes on to infinity. The original sample was completely changed to other nuclides.
B. when decay constant is more means sample decays rapidly
C. When the decay constant is less, the sample decays slowly.
D. Life time goes to infinity, and the original sample approaches zero
85. What is the reaction responsible for the production of light energy from the sun?
A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. Nuclear
D. Emission
86. _________is a type of scattering, in which the incident and the outgoing particle has the same
without exited state.
A. Elastic Scattering
B. Elastic and Inelastic scattering
C. Inelastic scattering
D. Pick up
87. the process of radiation detecting, the detector used in the interaction of a particle with some
materials and cause flash of light is called
A. Scintillation detectors
B. Semi-conductors
C. Gas-filled detector
D. All
88. Which of the following acts as ionizing gas in Geiger - Muller counter
A. Alcohols
B. Argon gas
C. Krypton
D. Hydrogen
89. In case of rectangular potential barrier, the relation is…………….
A. 𝑅 − 𝑇 = 1
B. 𝑅 + 𝑇 = 1
C. 𝑅 + 𝑇 = 0
D. 𝑅 − 𝑇 = 0
90. The quantity |𝛹|2 is called…………

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 A. probability density
B. probability current density
C. probability current
D. current density
91. The 𝑥 − 𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑝𝑜𝑛𝑒𝑛𝑡 of momentum operator is given by
ℎ 𝜕
A. 𝑖 𝑥 𝜕𝑦
ℎ 𝜕
B. 𝑖 𝜕𝑥
ℎ 𝜕
C.
2𝑚 𝜕𝑥
ℎ 𝜕
D. 2𝜋𝑖 𝜕𝑥
92. Eigenvalue of Hamiltonian operator is….
A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. both a and b
D. Total energy
∂
93. Which one of the following is an eigenfunction of the linear momentum operator −iℏ
∂x
with a positive eigenvalue ℏk ;
A. 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑘𝑥
B. 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑘𝑥
C. 𝑒 −𝑖𝑘𝑥
D. 𝑒 𝑖𝑘𝑥
94. Several classical models were proposed to explain the observed blackbody’s spectral
emittance. In one particular derivation it was found that it diverged at short wavelengths. This
result is known as
A. Stefan’s law.
C. The Compton effect.
B. The ultraviolet catastrophe.
D. Wien’s law
95. Which of the following phenomena most clearly demonstrate the wave nature of particle?
A. Photoelectric effect
C. The Compton scattering
B. Blackbody radiation
D. Diffraction of electron by crystals
96. Which of the following pair of observables can’t be simultaneously measured?
A. 𝑥, 𝑦
B. 𝑝𝑥 , 𝑝𝑦
C. 𝑥, 𝑝𝑦
D. 𝑦, 𝑝𝑦
97. Which one of the following is not the criterion for well-behaved function?
A. Square integerable

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B. Discontinuous
C. Single Valued
D. Orthonormalized
98. A particle of mass is confined to an infinitely deep square-well potential 𝑉(𝑥) = ∞, 𝑥 ≤ 0, 𝑥 ≥
𝑎; 𝑉 (𝑥) = 0, 0 < 𝑥 < 𝑎. The normalized wave eigenfunction, labeled by quantum number 𝑛, are 𝜓𝑛 (𝑥) =
2 𝑛𝜋𝑥
√ sin . For any state 𝑛 the expectation value of momentum of the particle is
𝑎 𝑎
A. 0
ℏ𝑛𝜋
B. 𝑎
ℏ𝑛𝜋
C. 𝑎
ℏ𝑛𝜋
D. 𝑎
(𝑐𝑜𝑠𝑛𝜋 − 1)
99. According to the de Broglie hypothesis, matter waves are associated with
A. electrons only
B. charged particles only
C. neutral particles only
D. all particles

100. The concept of matter wave was suggested by

A. Heisenberg
B. De Broglie
C. Schrodinger
D. Laplace
101. Electrons behaves as waves because they can be:
A. Defected by an electric field
B. Diffracted by a crystal
C. Defected by magnetic field
D. They ionize a gas
102. Which among following is Schrodinger time independent wave equation?
2𝑚
A. ∇2 𝜓 + (𝐸 − 𝑉 )𝜓 = 0
ℏ2
𝑚
B. ∇2 𝜓 + ℏ
(𝐸 − 𝑉 )𝜓 = 0
2𝑚
C.∇2 𝜓 − (𝐸 − 𝑉 )𝜓 = 0
ℏ2
2𝑚
D. ∇2 𝜓 + (𝐸 + 𝑉 )𝜓
ℏ2

103. If a quantum particle is restricted to move inside infinitely rigid box then the mini-
mum energy possessed by particle is
𝜋 2 ℏ2
A.2𝑚𝐿2
𝜋 2 ℏ2
B.
4𝑚𝐿2

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 ℏ2
C. 2𝑚𝐿2

D. Zero

104. The commutator [𝑥 2 , 𝑝𝑥 2 ] is

A. 2𝑖ℏ𝑥𝑝𝑥
B. 2𝑖ℏ(𝑥𝑝𝑥 + 𝑝𝑥 𝑥)
C. 2𝑖ℏ𝑝𝑥 𝑥
D. 2𝑖ℏ(𝑥𝑝𝑥 − 𝑝𝑥 𝑥)
105.A particle is infinite square well with wall at 𝑥 = 0 and 𝑥 = 𝐿. If the particle is in the state
3𝜋𝑥
𝜓(𝑥 ) = 𝐴𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( ), where 𝐴 is constant, what is the probability that the particle is between 𝑥 =
𝐿
𝐿 2𝐿
and ?
3 3
A. 0
1
B. 3
1
C.
√3
2
D. 3
106. Degeneracy with respect to an energy eigenstate can be best described by saying
A. Two or more different particle states have the same energy
B. An energy eigenstate has at least two different energies
C. Two or more particle states have zero momentum
D. Two or more particle states have zero energy
107. A is an operator which does not vary with time, and 〈𝐴〉 the expectation value of 𝐴 in the state
|Ψ⟩.What of the following equation is correct in the Schrodinger representation?
𝑑 1
A. 〈𝐴〉 = 〈[𝐴, 𝐻]〉
𝑑𝑡 𝑖ℏ
𝑑 1
B. 𝑑𝑡 〈𝐴〉 = − 𝑖ℏ 〈[𝐴, 𝐻]〉
𝑑 1 1
C. 𝑑𝑡 〈𝐴〉 = − 𝑖ℏ 〈𝐻−𝐴〉
𝑑
D. 〈𝐴 〉 = 0
𝑑𝑡
108. A particle of mass m is represented by the wave function Ѱ(𝑥) = 𝐴𝑒 𝑖𝑘𝑥 , where 𝑘 is the wave
vector and A is a constant. The magnitude of the probability current density of the particle is:
ℏ𝐾 ℏ𝐾 (ℏ𝐾)2 (ℏ𝐾)2
A. |𝐴|2 𝑚
B. |𝐴|2 2𝑚 C. |𝐴|2 𝑚
D. |𝐴|2 2𝑚
𝑖𝑘𝑥 −𝑖𝑘𝑥
109. The wave function of a particle moving in free space is given by Ѱ(𝑥) = 𝑒 + 2𝑒 .The
energy of the particle is
5ℏ2 𝑘 2 3ℏ2 𝑘 2 ℏ2 𝑘 2 ℏ2 𝑘 2
A. 2𝑚
B. 2𝑚
C. 2𝑚
D. 𝑚
110. Which rule is not correct for Hermitian adjoint?
†
A. (𝐴̂† ) = 𝐴̂
̂ )† = 𝐴̂† + 𝐵̂† + 𝐶̂ † + 𝐷
B. (𝐴̂ + 𝐵̂ + 𝐶̂ + 𝐷 ̂†

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C. (𝐴̂𝑛 )† = (𝐴̂† )𝑛
̂ )† = 𝐴̂† 𝐵̂† 𝐶̂ † 𝐷
D. (𝐴̂𝐵̂𝐶̂ 𝐷 ̂†

111. Frequency below which no electrons are emitted from metal surface is
A. Minimum frequency
B. Maximum frequency
C. Angular frequency
D. Threshold frequency
112.If 𝐿𝑥 , 𝐿𝑦 , 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐿𝑧 are component of angular momentum operator in three dimension, the
commutator [𝐿𝑥 , 𝐿𝑥 𝐿𝑦 𝐿𝑧 ] may be simplified to
A. 𝑖ℏ𝐿𝑥 (𝐿𝑧 2 − 𝐿𝑦 2 )
B. 𝑖ℏ𝐿𝑧 𝐿𝑦 𝐿𝑥
C. 𝑖ℏ𝐿𝑥 (2𝐿𝑧 2 − 𝐿𝑦 2 )
D. 0
113. The photoelectric effect takes place only when the wavelength of incident light is
A. Above threshold wavelength
B. Equal threshold wavelength
C. Below threshold wavelength
D. Any wavelength
114. The wave function for a particle trapped in an infinite square well defined for 0 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 𝑎 can be
written as
𝑛𝜋𝑥
A.𝜙𝑛 (𝑥) = 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑎
)
2 𝑛𝑥
B. 𝜙𝑛 (𝑥) = √𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑎 )
2 𝑛𝜋𝑥
C. 𝜙𝑛 (𝑥) = √ 𝑐𝑜𝑠 ( )
𝑎 𝑎

2 𝑛𝜋𝑥
D. 𝜙𝑛 (𝑥) = √𝑎 𝑠𝑖𝑛 ( 𝑎
)
115.The expectation value of an operator A can be written as
∞
A.〈𝐴〉 = ∫−∞ 𝜓 ∗ (𝑥)𝐴𝜓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥
B. 〈𝐴〉 = ⟨𝜓|𝐴|𝜓⟩
C. 〈𝐴〉 = ∫ 𝜓 ∗ (𝑥)𝐴2 𝜓(𝑥)𝑑𝑥
D.Both A and B.
116. For 𝐸 < 𝑉0 , the reflection coefficient (R) in classical regime is…
A.1
B. 0
C.0.5
D.−1

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 𝜕
117. The eigenvalue of operator 𝜕𝑥 for 𝑒 𝑥 is
A.1
B.−1
C. 0
D.2
118. An energy operator in one dimension is
𝜕
A. −𝑖ℏ 𝜕𝑥
𝜕
B. 𝑖ℏ 𝜕𝑥
𝜕
C. 𝑖ℏ
𝜕𝑡
𝜕
D. ℏ 𝜕𝑥
2
119. A wave function of the free particle in the range −∞ to ∞ is given by𝜓(𝑥 ) = 𝐴𝑒 −𝛼𝑥 then
〈𝑥 〉 will be
𝛼
A. 2
B. 𝛼
C. 2𝛼
D.0

Answer

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1. D 26. A 51. B 76. A 101. B

2. C 27. D 52. C 77. C 102. A

3. B 28. D 53. D 78. C 103. A

4. C 29. C 54. D 79. B 104. B

5. D 30. D 55. C 80. C 105. B

6. A 31. A 56. D 81. B 106. A

7. C 32. D 57. B 82. A 107. A

8. D 33. C 58. C 83. A 108. A

9. A 24. B 59. B 84. A 109. C

10. C 35. B 60. B 85. A 110. D

11. C 36. C 61. D 86. A 111. D

12. C 37. C 62. B 87. A 112. A

13. B 38. C 63. A 88. B 113. C

14. B 39. A 64. C 89. B 114. D

15. A 40. C 65. C 90. A 115. D

16. B 41. B 66. C 91. D 116. A

17. C 42. D 67. B 92. D 117. A

18. B 43. B 68. A 93. D 118. C

19. C 44. A 69. D 94. B 119. D

20. D 45. A 70.D 95. D

21. C 46. A 71. A 96. D

22. A 47. D 72. B 97. B

23. D 48. B 73. B 98. A

24. A 49. A 74. A 99. D

25. C 50. C 75. B 100. B

22 | P a g e
23 | P a g e