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CLSU ABE Review2021 - Agricultural Machinery and Mechanization
CLSU ABE Review2021 - Agricultural Machinery and Mechanization
CLSU ABE Review2021 - Agricultural Machinery and Mechanization
5
Agricultural
Machinery and
Mechanization
VOLUME
He was awarded by the Philippine Society of Agricultural Engineers (PSAE) as the “Most
Outstanding Agricultural Engineer in the field of Farm Power and Machinery”, in 1993. In
that same year, he was named by the Professional Regulation Commission (PRC) as the
“Outstanding Professional in the field of Agricultural Engineering”. And in 1997, he was
awarded by the TOYM Foundation and the Jerry Roxas Foundation as the “Outstanding
Young Filipino (TOYF) in the field of Agricultural Engineering”. In 2008, he was awarded
as “Associate Laureate of the Rolex Awards for Enterprise ” (Geneva, Switzerland) and in
2010 as a “Laureate in Economic Business Development Category of The Tech Awards”
(San Jose, California). He was adjudged as one of the “Inspiring Modern-Day Filipino
Heroes” by Yahoo Southeast Asia in 2011 and one of the “25 Heroes-for-Better” by the
Western Union in 2015. Recently, he has received the “2016 ASEAN Outstanding
Engineering Achievement Awards” given by the ASEAN Federation of Engineering
Organizations (AFEO), recipient of AMY Intellectual Property Award given by Philippine
Chamber of Commerce and Industry in 2018, and as one of the recipients of 2019 Manila
Water Foundation, Inc. (MWFI) Prize for Engineering Excellence Award.
by
Copyright © 2021
I am very much thankful to you God the Father, in the name of Jesus, and by the power
of Thine Holy Spirit for inspiring me to prepare this review material to help the
agricultural and biosystems engineering graduates as they prepare for the Professional
Agricultural and Biosystems Engineering Licensure Examination. May this review
material be instrumental to them on their pursuit of passing the board examination and
may You grant them the desire of their hearts in this endeavor!
All glory and honor belong to You Lord, in Jesus name, amen!
PREFACE
This book, Agricultural Engineering Student’s Handbook and Reviewer
Volume 5, was prepared primarily for the agricultural and biosystems
engineering graduates who are preparing for the professional agricultural
and biosystems engineering licensure examination. With this material, they
can be refreshed and updated on the new principles, systems, and
developments in agricultural and biosystems engineering. Also, they can
develop their analytical ability in analyzing the problems related to current
practices in agricultural and biosystems engineering particularly in
agricultural machinery and mechanization subject.
The contents of the book are short lecture material on each topic plus series
of questions and problems that compel the students to review the
fundamentals, theories, and concepts in agricultural and biosystems
engineering. Formula and samples problems are provided at the end of each
topic. The questions and problems are grouped into subtopics. Most
questions are practical in nature but tricky in nature to test whether students
have thorough understanding of the fundamental principles in each of the
different subject matters in agricultural machinery and mechanization used
ranging from production to post harvest and processing of agricultural crops
including their development, extension, and economics . The answers for
the questions and problems will be provided to the students as they pursue
the review proper so that they can grasp a deeper understanding and wider
know-how of the subject matter.
This book is still in draft form and is produced in limited copies only to those
who will attend the review classes. Additional items will be included in the
future to make this material more comprehensive. Comments and
suggestions are welcome for the improvement of this book.
May this book become useful to the you aspiring Agricultural and Biosystems
Engineers as you prepare for the Professional Board Examination!
God bless!
Chapter No. of
Pages
I INTRODUCTION 11
II MATERIALS OF CONSTRUCTION 18
III MANUFACTURING PROCESSES 18
IV DESIGNING AND DEVELOPING AGRICULTURAL MACHINES 7
V FUEL AND LUBRICANTS 10
VI PRIME MOVERS FOR AG MACHINERY 16
VII AGRICULTURAL MACHINERY MANAGEMENT 10
VIII TILLAGE EQUIPMENT 47
IX SEEDING AND PLANTING EQUIPMENT 25
Inter-Cropping - practice of
growing two or more crops in
alternate rows.
Suministrado, D. Status of
Agricultural Mechanization in the
Philippines. Paper presented at the
Regional Forum on Sustainable
Agricultural Mechanization in Asia
and Pacific. Quigdao, China. October
2013. 24pp.
QUESTIONS
12. In order to strengthen the farm and the 15. Monitoring body for the
fishery groups of DA, the ____ was created service warranty provided by the
to prepare, evaluate and recommend assemblers, manufacturers,
engineering plans for farm and fisheries importers, suppliers, distributors,
machinery. and dealers of agri-fisheries
a. Agricultural Fisheries Mechanization machines under AFMech Law.
Committee a. LGU and BAFE
b. National Agro-fishery Mechanization b. AMTEC and BAFE
Program c. PSAE and MATEC
c. Bureau of Agricultural and Fisheries d. None of the above
Engineering
d. None of the above
16. Bureau Director and Assistant e. Unify, rationalize and strengthen
Director of BAFE were appointed by the implementation, coordination
the ____. of activities and mechanism on
a. DA Secretary agricultural and fisheries
b. President of the Philippines mechanization programs and
c. Board of Directors of BAFE projects.
d. None of the above
f. Deliver integrated support
17. Which of the following is a services to farmers and other
declaration of the policy of AFMech stakeholders, and assist them to be
Law? able to viably operate and manage
a. Promote the development and their agricultural and fisheries
adoption of modern, appropriate and mechanization projects.
cost-effective and environmentally- g. All of the above
safe agricultural and fisheries
machinery and equipment to enhance 18. Arable land is a land that is
farm productivity and efficiency in ____.
order to achieve food security and a. not capable of being tilled and
safety and increase farmer ’s income. planted
b. Provide a conducive environment b. capable of being plowed and
for local assembling and used to grow crops.
manufacturing of engines, machinery c. a dry land that needs irrigation.
and equipment for agricultural and d. None of the above
fisheries production, processing and
marketing. 19. Arid land is a land with ____.
c. Ensure the quality and safety of the a. scarce of water resources
locally manufactured or imported where crop is difficult to grow.
machinery and equipment by b. sufficient supply of water for
strengthening regulation through the crop growth.
development and enforcement of c. water logged condition where
machinery and machine performance crops is difficult to grow.
standards, regular testing and d. None of the above
evaluation, registration, and the
accreditation and classification of 20. Practice of growing more than
suppliers, assemblers and one crop on the same land in one
manufacturers to ensure compliance year.
to prescribe quality standards. a. Mixed crop
d. Strengthen support services such b. Multiple cropping
as credit facilities, research, training c. Inter-cropping
and extension programs, rural d. None of the above
infrastructure, and marketing
services.
21. Practice of growing two or more
crops simultaneously and
intermingled with no row
arrangement.
a. Mixed cropping
b. Inter cropping
c. Multiple cropping
d. None of the above
• Metals ▪Hard
• Ferrous - Iron and steel ▪Easy to shape
• Cast Iron, Carbon Steel, Alloy Steel, ▪High melting temperature
etc. ▪Low specific heat
• None- Ferrous ▪Good electrical conductivity
• Aluminum, copper, magnesium, etc. ▪Good thermal conductivities
• Non-Metal ▪Ability to be deformed without fracture
• Inorganic materials
• Glass, ceramics, plastics, etc.
• Organic Materials
• Wood, rubber, leather, canvass, etc.
Classifications of Metal
Structural
0.25 4200 30 150
Steel
Machiner
0.40 5600 25 180
y Steel
Spring
0.75 7000 12 240
Steel
Non-Metallic Materials
▪Wood
▪Plastics
▪Rubber
▪Ceramics
▪Fibers
▪Glass
Plastics
•Large group of materials consisting of
combination of carbon and oxygen,
hydrogen, nitrogen, and other organic and
organic elements.
•Non-metallic material that can be
molded into shape. They are light in
weight, resistance to deterioration by
moisture, low elastic and thermal
conductivity, and good color range.
•They can be classified into
thermoplastics and thermo-setting
plastics.
Examples
▪Acrylic thermoplastics
▪Epoxy
▪Flouroplastics
▪Nylon
▪Phenolic Resin
▪Phenylene oxide
▪Polystyrene
▪Polyurethene
▪Polyvinyl chloride
▪Silicone
Engineering Ceramics
•Materials ranging from glass to furnace
brick.
•Include ceramic oxides, glass-ceramics,
carbides and nitrides.
Fibers
•The oldest engineering material that
includes jute, flax, and hemp.
•Usually used for engineered products
such as rope, cordage, nets, water hose,
and containers. Plant and animal fibers
are used for felt, paper, brushes, and
heavy structural cloth.
•This includes metal fibers, glass fibers,
and aramid fibers.
Glass
•A non-crystalline or amorphous solid.
•Most glass are made from silica, lime,
and sodium carbonate.
•Types include soda-lime glass,
Borosilicate glass, lead-alkali glass,
aluminosilicate glass, silica glass, and
fused silica.
Standard Materials
37. Substance commonly used as coating 43. M10x2 is a ____ threaded bolt.
to protect iron against corrosion. a. 2-mm pitch thread
a. Tin b. 0.2-in. pitch thread
b. Zinc c. 0.002-in. pitch thread
c. Aluminum d. None of the above
d. All of the above
44. The bearing is designated as 6205.
38. Which of the following materials is What is the bore diameter of the bearing?
not corrosion resistant and is used in a. 20 mm
fertilizer applicator? b. 25 mm
a. Wood and plastic c. 0.5 mm
b. Stainless steel d. None of the above
c. All of the above
d. None of the above 45. What is the type of the bearing in Item
44?
39. Spherical roller bearing. a. Thrust bearing
a. 1206 b. Tapered-roller bearing
b. 2206 c. Single-row deep-groove ball bearing
c. 3206 d. Spherical-roller bearing
d. None of the above e. None of the above
40. Example of self-aligning ball bearing. 46. What series the bearing in Item 44
a. 1205 belong?
b. 2205 a. 100 series (extra light)
c. 3205 b. 200 series (light)
d. None of the above c. 300 series (medium)
d. 400 series (heavy)
41. Medium-carbon steel plate is e. None of the above
designated as AISI 1040, the carbon
content is ____. 47. Number C-300 sand paper is finer than
a. 10% ____.
b. 1% a. C-120
c. 40% b. C-400
d. 0.4% c. C-600
e. None of the above d. None of the above
48. Which of the following is not 54. Which of the following is not
considered as fabrication materials for considered as engineering plastic?
agricultural machines? a. Polystyrene
a. Angle bar b. PVC
b. BI sheet c. Polypropylene
c. Bolt, nuts, and washer d. Polyethylene
d. None of the above e. None of the above
49. Which of the following are standard 55. An easy to cut and weld steel
materials for agricultural machines? containing 0.15 to 0.25% carbon and is
a. Screws commonly used in the construction of
b. Bolts, nuts, and washer agricultural machinery.
c. Bearings a. Mild steel
d. All of the above b. Cold-rolled steel
c. Hot-rolled steel
50. Alloy is a mixture of ____ . d. None of the above
a. the same metal
b. two or more different metals 56. A steel material with high resistance to
c. one metal and the other is non-metal corrosion and oxidation containing 1% Ni,
d. None of the above 11-14% Cr, 0.6% Mn, and 0.6% Si and is
commonly used in food processing
51. Stainless steel is generally a mixture industry.
of ____. a. Mild steel
a. iron and chromium b. Food steel
b. iron and copper c. Stainless steel
c. iron and aluminum d. None of the above
d. None of the above
57. A group of plastic materials that has
52. Bronze is generally a mixture of____. better mechanical and/or thermal
a. copper and tin properties than the more widely used
b. copper and aluminum commodity plastic.
c. copper and iron a. Engineering plastic
d. None of the above b. Organic plastic
c. Inorganic plastic
53. Medium carbon steel (0.25 to 0.50% d. None of the above
carbon) which are commonly used for
parts of machines requiring greater 58. Steel classification containing 0.25 to
strength and hardness, such as axles and 0.50% carbon usually used in making
connecting rods. structural and machinery steel.
a. Mild steel a. Low carbon steel
b. Stainless steel b. Medium carbon steel
c. Cold-rolled steel c. High carbon steel
d. None of the above d. None of the above
59. Steel classification with carbon 64. Copper alloy containing 5-20% tin
content not exceeding 0.25% and is commonly used in the manufacture of
commonly used as a material in the machine parts such as bushing, spring,
fabrication of agricultural machines. pipe, fittings, sprayer and pump.
a. Low-carbon Steel a. Brass
b. Medium-carbon steel b. Bronze
c. High-carbon steel c. Kelmet
d. None of the above d. None of the above
60. Steel classification with carbon 65. Copper alloy containing 10 to 40% zinc
content of above 0.50% and is usually alloy commonly used in the manufacture
used in the manufacture of spring and of radiator, pipe, screen, and instrument
tool steel. parts.
a. Low carbon steel a. Brass
b. Medium carbon steel b. Bronze
c. High carbon steel c. Kelmet
d. None of the above d. None of the above
61. An iron material with 1.7 to 6.7% 66. Long sheet of metal less than 12in.
carbon content that is low cost and with wide commonly used in the manufacture
good casting property, high compressive of building materials.
strength, high wearing resistance, brittle a. Sheet
and lower tensile strength. b. Plate
a. Pure iron c. Strips
b. Pig iron d. None of the above
c. Cast iron
d. None of the above 67. Characteristics of metals that are not
acted upon by outside forces which
62. Iron produced in a blast furnace by include color, density, weight, and
melting ore of hematite or magnetite electrical and heat conductivity.
with limestone and coke. a. Physical
a. Pure iron b. Mechanical
b. Pig iron c. Chemical
c. Cast iron d. None of the above
d. None of the above
68. Characteristics of metals giving their
63. Copper alloy containing 20 to 40% composition and their reaction to other
lead commonly used as bearing for metals such as resistance to corrosion.
diesel engine. a. Physical
a. Brass b. Mechanical
b. Bronze c. Chemical
c. Kelmet d. None of the above
d. None of the above
69. Characteristics of metal exhibited 75. Material’s resistance to being
when outside forces are applied to them. compressed.
a. Physical a. Malleability
b. Mechanical b. Compressive strength
c. Chemical c. Toughness
d. None of the above d. None of the above
70. The greatest stress seen in the 76. Capability of a material to be shaped
material’s resistance to being pulled and formed.
apart and is sometimes called “ultimate a. Malleability
strength”. b. Compressive strength
a. Tensile strength c. Toughness
b. Yield strength d. None of the above
c. Compression strength
d. None of the above 77. Ability of a material to withstand
bending and twisting and a desirable
71. Classification of stress usually property for loader frame and for
designated at a 0.2% permanent crankshaft.
elongation. a. Malleability
a. Tensile strength b. Compressive strength
b. Yield strength c. Toughness
c. Compression strength d. None of the above
d. None of the above
78. Characterized by ease with which
72. Tendency of a material to break metals are machined or cut by a machine
under impact. tool.
a. Ductility a. Ductility
b. Hardness b. Machinability
c. Brittleness c. Toolability
d. None of the above d. None of the above
73. Indication of how much a material is 79. Property to which metal, when it is at
deformed as it is stretched. the liquid state, easily join with other
a. Ductility metals.
b. Hardness a. Fixability
c. Brittleness b. Connectivity
d. None of the above c. Fusibility
d. None of the above
74. The microscopic measurement of
metal that shows differences in sizes that 80. Material’s resistance to penetration
relates directly to strength. and permanent deformation.
a. Grain size a. Ductility
b. Particle size b. Hardness
c. Material size c. Brittleness
d. None of the above d. None of the above
81. Type of steel used in turning 86. The higher the schedule number of
machines when cutting metals. the pipe, the ____ is the pipe.
a. Mild steel a. bigger
b. Spring steel b. weaker
c. Tool steel c. stronger
d. None of the above d. None of the above
82. Steel used as shock absorber 87. Prevailing price of stainless steel
attached to the wheel and to the sheet.
thresher support frame in mobile rice a. Times 1 of the MS sheet of the same
thresher. dimension and thickness
a. Mild steel b. Times 2 of the MS sheet of the same
b. Spring steel dimension and thickness
c. Tool steel c. Times 3 of the MS sheet of the same
d. None of the above dimension and thickness
d. None of the above
83. Steel type commonly used as
pegtooth for axial-flow rice threshers. 88. Prevailing price of perforated sheet.
a. Mild steel a. Times 1 of the MS sheet of the same
b. Cold-rolled steel dimension and thickness.
c. Tool steel b. Times 2 of the MS sheet of the same
d. None of the above dimension and thickness.
c. Times 3 of the MS sheet of the same
84. Fabrication materials being sold by dimension and thickness.
construction suppliers such as angle d. None of the above
bars, round bars, pipes, etc. are usually
painted at the end of each piece for the 89. Screw type used to fix metal parts
purpose of ____. together.
a. making it attractive to the potential a. Self-tapping screw
buyers. b. Cap screw
b. preventing the material from rusting c. Lag screw
c. easy identification of similar stock d. None of the above
sizes
d. None of the above 90. Screw with shield to properly fix the
materials together.
85. Pipe schedule matters with the pipe a. Cap screw
____. b. Tex screw
a. diameter c. Self-tapping screw
b. length d. None of the above
c. thickness
d. None of the above
91. A steel material containing 0.035 to
0.4% carbon and is widely used for the
production of steel plates, structural
steels, bars, etc.
a. Mild steel
b. Hard steel
c. Soft-centered steel
d. All of the above
Sawing
•It is the process of moving a hard metal
saw blade with teeth along its edge across a
metal to be cut.
•Hand Hacksaw – A manually operated saw
used for cutting metal by pushing and
pulling the blade on the metal being cut.
•Power Hacksaw – It is simply an
improvement of hand hack saw. It is an
extremely economical and efficient way of
cutting bigger sizes of metal bars.
•Blades of power hack saw are available
from 3 to ten teeth per inch.
•For mild steel, aluminum, and copper, 4 to
6 teeth per inch blades are used. For tubing
and small section 10 to 14 teeth per inch
are used.
•Stroke per minute ranged from 40 to 150
strokes per min. Soft metal uses high speed
while hard metal uses low speed.
•Bandsaw – It uses an endless blade which
move past the piece being cut in only one
direction.
•Cutting hard metals requires blades with
small teeth while soft materials requires
larger blades.
•The use of too coarse blade on hard metal
will cause the blade to become dull very
quickly. However, saw with very small teeth
requires longer time to cut metal.
•The rule is that at least two teeth should
be used when cutting a piece of metal.
Flame Cutting
•It is one of the fastest method of cutting
bars or steel plates having a thickness of
1/16 to 6 inches.
•In flame cutting the piece of steel must be
heated to its kindling temperature of
approx 1600°F.
•Acetylene gas, pure oxygen and a cutting
torch are usually used for flame cutting.
•Wire Cutting
•Laser Cutting
Milling Processes
•Facing - It is the process of cutting or
squaring of the end of a piece of work.
•Center Drilling – It is done with a
combination drill and countersink.
•Straight Turning – The work is first placed
on the centers, and the cutting tool is set
for cutting.
•Drilling Reaming and Counter Boring –
These are commonly performed with a drill
press or by a lathe. In here the work piece
is held in a lathe chuck while the drill,
reamer, countersink, or counter boring tool
is held in the tailstock.
•Knurling – It is the process of making the
handle of hand tool rough in order to give a
better grip.
•Boring – It is the cutting and enlarging of a
round hole to make a more exact size and
accurate with its axis.
•Threading – It is the process of making a
threads on screw either right-hand, left-
hand, external, or internal threads.
WELDING PRCESSES
• Soldering
• Brazing
• Oxyacetylene Welding
• Arc Welding
• Resistance Welding
• MIG Welding
• TIG Welding
Soldering
• It is the common method of joining
metal sheet especially non-ferrous metal.
• Soldering is done at a relatively low
temperature of 427°C compared with
other methods such as brazing and arch
welding.
Brazing
• It is the joining technique of metal
using oxyacetylene welding equipment
by melting a non-ferrous filler rod at a
temperature above 427 C but below the
melting point of metal being joined.
• Brazing is much stronger joint
compared with soldering.
Oxyacetylene Welding
• It is the common for of gas welding
process using oxygen and acetylene
gases to provide heat to melt and join
metal by means of fusion.
• Regulator – It the special valve to
properly mix the oxygen and the
acetylene gas.
• Hose – This caries the gases from the
cylinder to torch. Read hose is used for
acetylene gas while the green hose is
used for the oxygen gas.
• Blow pipe or torch
Arc Welding
• Process of welding metal by passing
high current into a flux-coated welding
rod. The flux serves as shield to prevent
oxidation to produce stronger weld.
• The arc welding electrodes melt and
provide filler metal to the joint.
Resistance Welding
• Uses the heat generated by electric
current passing through a small area of
the metal being joined. The pressure
forces the heated area together until
they have fused.
• Spot welding is the common form of
resistance welding.
MIG Welding
• Metal inert gas (MIG) welding – uses
continuous roll-fed welding rod.
• An inert gas is used to protect the weld
from oxidation. For steel, it uses carbon
dioxide while for aluminum and other
metals, a mixture of argon and helium is
used.
• MIG welding is easier than arc welding
in terms of heat setting, rate of wire
feed, and feed, and mixture of gases.
• MIG welding machine uses welding
wire instead of welding rod. CO 2 gas is
used as gas shield for the material being
weld to minimize warping. It can be
used in welding mild steel, stainless
steel, etc.
TIG Welding
• Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding -
widely used for welding aluminum,
stainless steel, and other non-ferrous
metals.
• It is similar to oxyacetylene welding in
that the filler rod is separate from the
torch and is fed with the opposite hand.
Classification of Manufacturer
According to Manufacturing Capability
•Manufacturer-Dealers – manufactures
their own line of item but also sell either
consigned items or several brands of
single cylinder engines, pumps, pump
set, and other types of farm machinery.
24. They carry several items and brand 29. Classification of manufacturers that
from varied sources and usually do not fabricate the machine in several number of
engaged in manufacture and fabrication. pieces as per contract with the dealer.
a. Manufacturer a. By mass production
b. Manufacturer-dealer b. By batch
c. Dealer c. By piece
d. None of the above d. None of the above
42. Which of the following welding 48. Method of welding that uses non-
equipment uses argon gas as cooling ferrous rod heated with oxyacetylene
element? torch at a temperature relatively above
a. Arc welding machine 427°C.
b. MIG welding machine a. Soldering
c. TIG welding machine b. Brazing
d. All of the above c. Resistance welding
d. None of the above
43. Which of the following welding
equipment does not use any gas as 49. Flux used during brazing to remove
cooling element? oxidation on metals being joined.
a. Arc welding machine a. Borax powder
b. MIG welding machine b. Sodium borate
c. TIG welding machine c. All of the above
d. All of the above d. None of the above
44. Welding method commonly used for 50. Bronze welding rod used in brazing
non-ferrous metal at relatively low basically consists of ____ copper and zinc.
temperature of around 427°C. a. 60/40
a. Soldering b. 50/50
b. Brazing c. 40/60
c. TIG welding d. None of the above
d. None of the above
51. Shorter but larger diameter storage
45. Solder used in soldering process tank of oxyacetylene welding is for ____.
consists of ____ lead and tin. a. oxygen
a. 50/50 b. acetylene
b. 40/60 c. carbon dioxide
c. 30/70 d. None of the above _
d. None of the above
52. Acetylene cylinder at full pressure
46. In oxyacetylene welding, the taller contains ___.
cylinder is where the ____ is stored. a. 150 psi
a. oxygen b. 250 psi
b. acetylene c. 350 psi
c. carbon dioxide d. None of the above
d. None of the above
53. Oxygen cylinder at full pressure 58. If there is a proper mixture of
contains ____. acetylene and oxygen, it will produce ___.
a. 1100 psi a. carbonizing flame
b. 2200 psi b. oxidation flame
c. 3300 psi c. neutral flame
d. None of the above d. None of the above
54. Component of a welding machine 59. Welding process that welds two pieces
used to mix the gas and the oxygen in an of metal sheets together using the flow of
oxyacetylene welding equipment. electric current of around 120,000 Amp.
a. Hose a. Arc welding
b. Torch b. Plasma welding
c. Regulator c. Resistance welding
d. None of the above d. None of the above
55. Which of the following is not part of 60. Other term used for resistance or spot
an oxyacetylene welding equipment? welding.
a. Oxygen and acetylene tanks a. Full welding
b. Regulator b. Tack welding
c. Hose c. Intermittent welding
d. Blow pipe d. None of the above
e. Lighter
f. Tongs 61. Welding too long in resistance welding
g. None of the above will create ____.
h. All of the above a. good weld
b. hole in metals being weld
56. In oxyacetylene welding, if the c. weak weld in metals
mixture of oxygen is too much with the d. None of the above
acetylene, it will produce ____.
a. carbonizing flame 62. Which of the following uses a flux-
b. oxidation flame coated welding rod?
c. neutral flame a. MIG welding equipment
d. None of the above b. Oxyacetylene welding equipment
c. Arc welding equipment
57. If acetylene is too much with the d. None of the above
oxygen, it will produce ____.
a. carbonizing flame 63. E6013 electrode is used for ____.
b. oxidation flame a. steel alloy
c. neutral flame b. mild steel
d. None of the above c. tool steel
d. None of the above
64. E7025 is used for ____. 70. Machine tools commonly used in
a. steel alloy making slots, keyways, etc.
b. mild steel a. Drill press
c. tool steel b. Lathe
d. None of the above c. Shaper
d. None of the above
65. Recommended current for 1/8 in.
electrode. 71. Process of forming metal by pushing it
a. 60 amp on a metal die.
b. 100 amp a. Extrusion
c. 250 amp b. Forging
d. None of the above c. Rolling
d. None of the above
66. Recommended current for 1/16 in.
electrode. 72. shop tool used for measuring the
a. 60 amp outside and inside diameter of a metal.
b. 100 amp a. Square
c. 250 amp b. Caliper
d. None of the above c. Trammel
d. None of the above
67. Recommended current for ¼ in.
electrode. 73. Tool used to scribe large circle or arc in
a. 60 amp a piece of metal that works similarly with
b. 100 amp divider.
c. 250 amp a. Square
d. None of the above b. Scriber
c. Trammel
68. Which of the following is not a d. None of the above
machine tool?
a. Lathe 74. Tool used to drive a cross recess screw.
b. Shaper and planers a. Ordinary flat-crew driver
c. Drill Press b. Phillip screw driver
d. Mill machines c. Allen wrench-screw driver
e. Grinder d. All of the above
f. None of the above
75. Tool used to drive slotted machine
69. Metal milling process of making the screws.
handle of a tool rough to provide a a. Ordinary flat-screw driver
better grip. b. Phillip screw driver
a. Boring c. Allen wrench-screw driver
b. Cutting d. All of the above
c. Knurling
d. None of the above
76. Thermal cycle involving heating to, 80. Thermal process used to increase the
and holding at a suitable temperature hardness and strength of steel by
and then cooling at a suitable rate for austenitizing then followed by cooling at a
such purposes as reducing hardness, rate sufficient to achieve partial or
improving machinability, facilitating cold complete transformation of metal to
working, producing a desired martensite.
microstructure, or obtaining desired a. Tempering
mechanical or other properties. b. Quenching
a. Annealing c. Annealing
b. Stress relieving d. None of the above
c. Case hardening
d. Quenching and tempering 81. One of the heat treatment processes of
e. None of the above steel and other ferrous alloys where these
materials are heated above their critical
77. Thermal cycle involving heating to a temperatures long enough for
suitable temperature usually 1000 to transformations to take place.
1200 F, holding long enough to reduce a. Austenitizing
residual stress from either cold b. Tempering
deformation or thermal treatment and c. Annealing
the cooling slowly enough to minimize d. None of the above
the development of new residual
stresses. 82. One or more processes of hardening
a. Annealing steel in which the outer portion, or case, is
b. Stress relieving made substantially harder then the inner
c. Case hardening portion, or core.
d. Quenching and Tempering a. Annealing
e. None of the above b. Stress relieving
c. Case hardening
78. Austenitizing temperature for d. Quenching and Tempering
different grades of carbon, alloys and tool e. None of the above
steels.
a. 100° to below 400°C 82. Material formed in carbon steels by the
b. 400° to 800°C rapid cooling (quenching) of the austenite
c. Above 800° to 1200°C form of iron at such a high rate that carbon
d. None of the above atoms do not have time to diffuse out of
the crystal structure in large enough
79. Process of reheating metal to a quantities to form cementite (Fe3 C).
temperature below the transformation a. Austenitize
range and then cooling at any desired b. Martensite
rate to improve the ductility and c. All of the above
toughness of the material. d. None of the above
a. Quenching
b. Tempering
c. Annealing
d. None of the above
IV. DESIGNING AND DEVELOPING AGRICULTURAL MACHINES
Important Notes:
n Unless the designer tries to meet the
needs of actual users, no amount of
design work will be utilized.
n The success of a good design is
indicated by the extent by which the
machine is adopted by farmers.
Definition of Terms
Philosophy of Design
1. Highly innovative and cross-disciplinary 5. Design classification that does not exist
process that uses the most acceptable, before and it is only done by few
aesthetic, efficiency, and economical dedicated designers who have personal
means to satisfy people’s need. qualities of a sufficiently high order.
a. Designing a. Adaptive design
b. Design b. Development design
c. Designer c. Original design
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Properties of LPG
Substance Density (g/cm3 ) Boiling Temp. Octane Member
(°C) (Research)
Methane - -125 110
Ethane 0.374 -53 104
Propane 0.508 -8 100
Butane 0.584 0 92
Pentane 0.631 36 61
Properties of Gasoline and Engine Kerosene - heavier product of the
Performance distillation of crude oil than gasoline.
• Density = 0.78 - 0.84 g/cm3
• Volatility • Octane Number = 30 – 40
• Antiknock property (octane number) - • Spark ignition engine cannot start by
index to resist detonation during only a kerosene fuel because the initial
combustion. High octane number is point of kerosene is higher than
necessary for high compression ratio gasoline.
and high performance engines. With • Gasoline is used as a start up fuel for
gasoline engine, raising the octane kerosene engine.
number improves engine performance
by allowing the compression ratio to
increase, thereby increasing the power Gas Oil or Diesel Fuel
and efficiency of the gasoline.
Tetraethylead compound is an additive • Diesel includes the heaviest oils used in
used to raise octane number and is the internal combustion engine.
most popular gasoline knock • Density = 0.82 - 0.89 g/cc
supressor. The amount added to • Ignition characteristics (cetane
gasoline is less than 0.3 ml/li. number) takes place in an engine in
• Corrosion - Sulfur compounds are three stages:
corrosive to metals. (a) ignition lag;
• Existent gum - Fuels have a tendency (b) burning injection; and
to form viscous liquids or solids called (c) burning after injection.
gum. The presence of large quantities • Excessive ignition lag results in the
of gum usually causes sticking of intake accumulation of unburned fuel which
valve and heavy deposits in the intake when subjected to high pressure and
manifold. temperature may detonate giving rise
• Gravity - Gravity of fuel is usually to diesel knock.
expressed in API (American Petroleum • In diesel engine, the desirable value of
Institute) degrees. cetane number is necessary to obtain a
good-quality ignition of fuel. High
API = (141.5 /specific gravity at 15°C) cetane fuel permits an engine to be
- 131.5 started at lower temperature.
(Specific gravity of gasoline is between • Relative high viscosity is important for
0.69 - 0.77.) diesel fuel because it must furnish the
lubrication for the injection pump and
the injector.
Fuel for Two-Cycle Gasoline Engine • The lowest temperature at which the
fuel ceases to flow is known as pour
The fuel for two-cycle gasoline engine is a point.
mixture of gasoline and lubricating oil
(ratio approximately 15-20 gasoline: 1
lubricating oil).
Lubricants Viscosity Index
Gear Oil
• Fluids are used in the hydraulic lifting • A semifluid or semisolid lubricants and
devices and hydrostatic transmission of are used primarily for moving parts when
tractors and other agricultural vehicles pressures are high and for parts that are
are the petroleum base oils. In general, concealed or inaccessible such as wheel
lubricating oils, particularly turbine oils bearings, spring shackles, axle bearings,
and gear oils usually having viscosity universal joints, and water pumps.
range varying from SAE 5W to 20W are • A mixture of a metallic soap and mineral
used. oil. Certain chemicals maybe added to
provide stabilization, oxidation,
resistance, rust prevention, and other
Properties Commonly Used Hydraulic
Oils desirable characteristics.
1. Substance that carries energy and 12. High-cetane-fueled engine uses ____.
produces power when ignited. a. diesel as fuel and is difficult to start
a. Heat at lower temperature
b. Fuel b. diesel as fuel and is easy to start at
c. Air lower temperature
d. None of the above c. gasoline fuel and is easy to start at
lower temperature
2. Elements necessary for combustion. d. None of the above
a. Fire
b. Air 13. Specific gravity of gasoline is at the
c. Fuel range of ____.
d. All of the above a. 0.67 to 0.76
e. Any two of the above b. 0.79 to 0.85
c. 0.85 to 0.91
6. Gas produced during perfect d. All of the above
combustion of fuel.
a. Carbon monoxide 14. Auto-ignition temperature of diesel is
b. Carbon dioxide ____ that of gasoline.
c. Hydrogen a. the same with
d. None of the above b. less than
c. more than
10. Caloric value of fuel is ____. d. None of the above
a. the amount of heat contained by the
fuel per unit weight 15. Auto-ignition temperature of
b. the weight of fuel to be heated gasoline.
c. the heat needed to burn a certain a. 256°C
weight of fuel b. 280°C
d. None of the above c. 301°C
d. None of the above
11. Amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of one pound water by one 16. Auto-ignition temperature of diesel.
degree Fahrenheit. a. 256°C
a. kcal b. 280°C
b. BTU c. 301°C
c. Joule d. None of the above
d. None of the above
17. Lowest temperature where the fuel 22. When low viscosity oil is used in the
evaporates to form combustible transmission box of a puddling type tiller,
concentration of gas. there will be ____ in the system.
a. Flash point a. more heat produced from liquid
b. Spontaneous combustion friction produce
temperature b. more mechanical friction
c. Cetane Rating c. no friction
d. None of the above d. None of the above
18. High flash point indicates that the 23. If the shaft rpm in a transmission box
fuel will ___ burn. is increased, the coefficient of friction of
a. not fluid will ____ .
b. easily a. remains the same
c. hardly b. decrease
d. None of the above c. increase
d. None of the above
19. Flash point temperature of gasoline.
a. - 10°F 24. The higher the viscosity of a fluid, the
b. - 45°F ____ is the energy required to slide the
c. + 10°F surfaces at a given speed and gap.
d. None of the above a. lesser
b. greater
20. Flash point temperature of diesel. c. None of the above
a. 70° to 95°F
b. 100° to 130°F 25. Lubricants viscosity basically ____
c. 135° to 160°F with the increase in temperature.
d. None of the above a. increases
b. decreases
21. When high viscosity oil is used in the c. do not change
transmission box of a puddling-type tiller d. None of the above
is high, there will be ____ in the system.
a. more heat from liquid friction 26. Measure of oil viscosity-temperature
produce behavior.
b. more mechanical friction will occur a. Oil Index
c. no friction b. Viscosity Index
d. None of the above c. V/T Index
d. None of the above
27. Viscosity index of SAE 10W-30 oil.
a. 100 V.I.
b. 120 V.I.
c. 140 V.I.
d. None of the above
Classifications of ICE
Spark-Ignition Engine
•uses a spark to ignite fuel (2) According to Number of
Stroke
•Gasoline is use as fuel
Two-Stroke Cycle Engine
Compression-Ignition Engine •Produces power in one
•Uses high compression to raise revolution of the crankshaft
the temperature of the air in a
Four Stroke Cycle Engine
chamber and ignites the injected •Produces power in two
fuel without spark revolution of the crankshaft
•Diesel is use as fuel
(3) According to Number
of Cylinders
Single-Cylinder
• One piston
Multiple-Cylinder
• More than one piston
(3, 4, 6, 8, 12)
Cycles of Events
n Intake Stroke – fuel and air or air Running Mates
alone is suck in the combustion
chamber as the piston moves in Pistons that go up and down
downward direction together in the same position
n Compression Stroke – fuel and air but of different function. One
or air is compressed by the piston of them is performing
as it moves in upward direction compression or power stroke
n Power Stroke – fuel and air is and the other is on the intake or
ignited to produce power at the exhaust stroke.
downward movement of the
piston and transmitted it into the
crankshaft of the engine
n Exhaust Stroke – burn fuel and
gases is discharged from the
combustion chamber
Fc = Fu / To SFC = Fc ρf / Ps
where: where:
Fc - fuel consumption, lph SFC - specific fuel consumption, g/kW-hr
Fu - fuel used, li Fc - fuel consumption, lph
To - total operating time, hr ρf - fuel density, kg/li
Ps - shaft power, Kw
Piston Area Number of Times Intake Valve Opens
π D2 N
A p = ------------ TO = --------
4 c
where: where:
A p - piston area, cm2 TO - number of times intake valve opens
D - piston diameter, cm N - crankshaft speed, rpm
c - 2 for four-stroke engine and
1 for two-stroke engine
Stroke-to-Bore Ratio Break Mean Effective Pressure
S (75) 50 BHP
R = --------- BMEP = --------------------
B L AN n
where: where:
R - stroke to bore ratio BMEP - brake mean effective pressure,
S - piston stroke, cm kg/cm2
B - piston diameter, cm BHP - brake horsepower, hp
L - piston stroke, m
A - piston area, cm2
N - number of power stroke per min
n - number of cylinders
ELECTRIC MOTOR
Motor Job
n The motor must be able to
drive the load at a proper
speed.
Use of Electric Motor n The motor must be able to
n Pumping of Water start the load.
n Driving Grain Milling
Equipment n The motor must be able to
n Driving Size Reduction withstand the abuse of the
Equipment surroundings.
n Driving Material Handling
Equipment
n Driving various food
equipment
Horsepower Rating of Motors
S = [Ns – N] / Ns Ns = 120 [ƒ / P]
where: where:
S - slip, dec Ns - rotor speed, rpm
Ns - motor synchronous speed, rpm ƒ - frequency of stator voltage, hertz
N - actual motor speed, rpm P - number of pole
Motor Size to Replace Human Motor Size to Replace Engine
where: where:
MHP - motor power, hp MHP - motor power, hp
NH - number of human EHP - engine power, hp
References
n Brown, R. 1956. Farm
Electrification. McGraw-Hill
Book company. New York.
n Miller, R. and R. Miller. 1984.
Small Gasoline Engines.
Theodore Audel and Company.
Boston. 632pp.
n Schulz, E. J. 1977. Diesel
Mechanics. McGraw-Hill Inc.
U.S.A. 420pp.
n Stephenson, G.E. 1984. Small
Gasoline Engines. 4 th Ed.
Delmar Publishers Inc. Canada.
279pp.
QUESTIONS and PROBLEMS
1. An engine that burns fuel inside the 7. The decrease or increase of engine
cylinder. speed or flow of fuel.
a. External combustion engine a. Throttling
b. Internal combustion engine b. Clutching
c. Sterling engine c. Atomization
d. None of the above d. None of the above
2. The part of an engine that slides up 8. A device that is used to actuate the throttle
and down the cylinder and transmits of an engine to increase its speed.
power to the crankshaft. a. Governor
a. Connecting rod b. Accelerator
b. Cylinder block c. Actuator
d. None of the above
c. Piston
d. Spark plug 9. A device that meters the fuel and the
e. None of the above air in spark-ignition engines and mixes
them into a harmonious mixture before
3. The amount of power that the the mixture enters the combustion
manufacturer specified for an engine. chamber of an engine.
a. Indicated horsepower
a. Governor
b. Brake horsepower b. Air injector
c. Rated horsepower c. Carburetor
d. None of the above d. All of the above
4. The constant volume combustion
10. The usable power delivered by the
cycle. engine.
a. Otto cycle a. Indicated horsepower
b. Diesel cycle b. Brake horsepower
c. Dual cycle c. Rated horsepower
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
5. The constant pressure combustion 11. An internal combustion engine that
cycle. produces power in one revolution of the
a. Otto cycle crankshaft.
b. Diesel cycle a. Four-stroke-cycle engine
c. Dual cycle b. Two-stroke-cycle engine
d. None of the above c. Rotary engine
d. None of the above
6. The distance of the movement of
piston from the top dead to the bottom
dead center.
a. Stroke
b. Bore
c. Valve clearance
d. None of the above
12. The ratio of total volume to the 18. During the power stroke, which of the
clearance volume. following valve is open?
a. Compression ratio a. Intake
b. Air-fuel ratio b. Exhaust
c. Bore stroke ratio c. Intake and exhaust
d. None of the above d. None of the above
13. The volume displaced by the piston in 19. The number of spark plugs for a 6-
making an upward or a downward stroke. cylinder diesel engine.
a. Piston displacement volume a. 6
b. Clearance volume b. 12
c. Total volume c. 4
d. None of the above d. None of the above
14. An engine has a piston displacement 20. At the downward stroke of the two-
of 38.4 in³. If the clearance volume of the stroke cycle engine, which of the events
cylinder is 2.5 in³, what is its compression are taking place?
ratio? a. Power, intake, and exhaust
a. 1:12 b. Compression
b. 1:16 c. Power & exhaust
c. 1:8 d. None of the above
d. None of the above
21. An engine that injects fuel into the
15. The ratio of the piston displacement combustion chamber near the end of the
volume plus the clearance volume over combustion stroke and is subsequently
the clearance volume. ignited only by heat of compression.
a. Compression ratio a. Gasoline engine
b. Air-fuel ratio b. Diesel engine
c. Bore-stroke ratio c. Steam engine
d. None of the above d. None of the above
16. Suppose a 4-cylinder engine has 3.5in. 22. The power transmitted to the piston
bore and 4.0in. stroke, what is the engine by the gas in the cylinder.
displacement. a. Brake horsepower
a. 154 in³ b. Indicated horsepower
b. 175 in³ c. Drawbar horsepower
c. 225 in³ d. All of the above
d. None of the above
23. The number of piston explosion in a
17. A device that provides ignition to a single-cylinder, four-stroke cycle engine
gasoline engine. and in 100 revolution of the crankshaft.
a. Fuel injector a. 100
b. Carburetor b. 50
c. Spark plug c. 25
d. None of the above d. None of the above
24. A device that connects and 29. What comes in during the intake
disconnects the power input to and from stroke of a compression-ignition engine?
the power output. a. Fuel and air
a. Clutch b. Fuel
b. Gear c. Air
c. Pulley d. None of the above
d. None of the above
30. A four-stroke, six-cylinder biomass gas
25. The space when the piston is at the producer engine has 8in. cylinder bore
top dead center. and 12in. stroke. If the engine is running
a. Piston displacement volume at 500 rpm speed, what is its indicated
b. Clearance volume horsepower? The mean effective pressure
c. Total volume is 80 psi.
e. None of the above a. 22.5 hp
b. 30.5 hp
26. How many piston strokes are there in c. 40.5 hp
one revolution of the crankshaft? d. None of the above
a. One
b. Two 31. Engine brake thermal efficiency.
c. Four a. Brake hp over fuel hp
d. None of the above b. Rated hp over indicated hp
c. Friction hp over flywheel hp
27. What is the indicated horsepower of a d. None of the above
four-stroke, six-cylinder engine with 4in.
bore and 4in. stroke. The engine is 32. A device that creates ignition of fuel in
running at 1500 rpm and the mean a diesel engine.
effective pressure is 80 psi. a. Spark plug
a. 35 hp b. Piston
b. 45 hp c. Carburetor
c. 52 hp d. None of the above
d. None of the above
33. The part of an engine that converts
28. The sequence by which the cylinder reciprocating motion to rotary motion.
delivers the power stroke. a. Crankshaft
a. Ignition b. Piston
b. Firing order c. Camshaft
c. Flash point d. None of the above
d. None of the above
34. Device that converts electrical energy 40. Which of the following are the jobs of
to mechanical energy to produce power. a motor?
a. Battery a. To drive the load at proper speed.
b. Motor b. To be able to start a load.
c. Generator c. To be able to withstand the abuse of
d. None of the above the surroundings.
d. All of the above
35. Term that indicates the maximum e. None of the above
load that can be successfully carried by
the motor if it is to be operated 41. NEMA stands for ____.
continuously and remain within a safe a. National Electric Motors Association
temperature range. b. National Electrical Manufacturers
a. Duty rating Association
b. Phase c. National Electrical Machinery
c. Service factor Association
d. None of the above d. None of the above
36. Motor torque at zero speed or 42. Based on NEMA standards, which of
maximum torque required to start the the following statements is true?
load. a. The higher the motor power, the higher
a. Twisting Torque
is the efficiency.
b. Driving Torque
c. Starting Torque b. The higher the efficiency of the motor,
d. None of the above the higher is the power factor.
c. The higher the motor power, the higher
37. Type of motor with medium starting is the power factor.
torque commonly used in industry. d. All of the above
a. Split-phase motor
b. Capacitance-type motor 43. Motor that is usually connected to the
c. Repulsion-start motor grid.
d. None of the above a. AC Motor
b. DC Motor
38. Type of motor with low starting c. Both AC & DC Motors
torque. d. None of the above
a. Split-phase motor
b. Capacitance-type motor
c. Repulsion-start motor
d. None of the above
Field efficiency - Ratio of effective field Effective field capacity - Actual rate of land
capacity to field capacity, expressed in processed in a given time.
percent.
Efc = ξf (0.1 W V)
ξf = (efc/tfc) x 100 where
where: Efc - effective field capacity, ha/hr
ξf- field efficiency, % ξfn - field efficiency, decimal
efc- effective field capacity, ha/hr W - implement width, m
tfc- theoretical field capacity, ha/hr V - implement velocity, kph
Fuel/Electricity Field/Throughput
Machine Power Requirement
Consumption Capacity
Power Tiller
Plowing 7-Hp Diesel Engine 0.87 L h-1 1 ha d-1 (8 hrs)
First harrowing -do- -do- -do-
Second harrowing -do- -do- -do-
Leveling -do- -do- -do-
Irrigation Pump 8-Hp Diesel Engine 0.8 to 1.0 L h-1 10 L s-1 for 24 hours
per ha
Combine Harvester 60-Hp Diesel Engine 15 L ha-1 2.5 ha d -1
Axial-Flow Rice Thresher 16-Hp Gasoline Engine 2 L h-1 1 ha harvest per 6 hrs
Flatbed Dryer 12-Hp Diesel Engine; 90,000 1.2 L h-1 ; 30 kg hr-1 6 tons for 10 hrs
kcal hr-1 Heat Energy Input rice husks
Biomass Furnace
Re-circulating Dryer 10-kW Electric Motor; 55,000 11.6 to 15 kW hr ton- 6 tons for 7-9 hrs
kcal/hr Heat Energy Input 1
Primary Objectives
Basic Operation
Terminologies
Furrow – trench left when the plow
bottom cuts and turns the furrow slice.
Back Furrow – raise ridge left at the
center of the strip of land when plowing is
started from center to side. Furrow Slice – soil mass cut, lifted,
pulverized, inverted, and thrown to one
Dead Furrow – open trench left between side of the plow bottom
the adjacent strips of land after finishing
Headland – unplowed soil at the end of
plowing operation.
the furrow strip.
Furrow Crown – peak of the turned
furrow slice. Ridge Height – bed height, hill height,
windrow height, or height of the soil
Furrow Depth – ditch depth, pat depth, above a specified soil surface.
trench depth, or depth of depression
below a specified soil surface
Classifications of Tillage Operation
1. Moldboard Plow
2. Disk plow
3. Rotary Plow
4. Chisel Plow
5. Subsoiler
Field Efficiency
Ratio of the effective field capacity to the
theoretical field capacity multiply by 100.
Semi-Mounted
Power Requirement and Field Efficiency of Various Tillage Implement
Equipment Draft Requirement Speed Field Efficiency
(kph) (%)
Plow, indigenous 0.14-0.7 kg/cm2 1.6 - 3.5 30-60
Plow, moldboard 0.21-1.12 kg/cm2 2.4 - 5.0 30-80
Plow, disk 0.21-1.00 kg/cm2 2.5 - 5.0 30-80
Disk Harrow, single action 0.45-1.50 kg/cm 1.6 - 4.2 65-85
Disk Harrow, double action 1.20-2.70 kg/cm 1.5 - 4.0 60-80
Rotary Tiller 0.70-3.50 kg/cm 0.8 - 2.8 60-80
Harrow, Spike/peg 1.80-2.70 kg/peg 1.6 - 6.0 70-90
Harrow, spring tine 10.0-25.0 kg/tine 1.6 - 5.0 70-90
Rolling or Leveling 0.15-0.90 kg/cm 0.8 - 2.5 60-80
Cultivating 6-20 kg/shank 1.6 - 4.0 60-85
where:
N - number of spaces between disk blades
S - blade spacing, m
D - diameter of disk blades, m
Other Tillage Implement
Soil Sifter
Roller Packer
Soil Dredger
Power Harrow
USEFUL FORMULA
A c = W c Dc F = A c δs
where: where:
A c - area of cut of plow, m2 F - draft of plow, kg
W c - width of cut, m A c - area of cut, m2
Dc - depth of cut, m δs - specific resistance of soil, kg/m2
Drawbar Horsepower Field Efficiency
F V EFC
DHP = ----------- ξf = --------- x 100
76.2 TFC
where: where:
DHP - drawbar horsepower ξf - field efficiency, %
F - draft of implement, kg EFC - effective field capacity, ha/hr
V - velocity of implement, m/s TFC - theoretical field capacity, ha/hr
Theoretical Field Capacity Effective Field Capacity
Problem 1
A tractor pulls a 1m-wide heavy-duty offset disk harrow at 6kph operating speed.
What is the theoretical field capacity of the machine? What is the effective field
capacity if field efficiency is 80%?
Given:
Implement - heavy-duty offset-disk harrow
W - 1.0 m
V - 6 kph
Required: Theoretical Field Capacity
Solution:
TFC = 0.1 W V
= 0.1 (1 m) (6 kph)
= 0.60 ha/hr
EFC =. 0.48 ha/hr
Problem 2
A rotary tiller has a 2m operating width. If the tractor runs at 2kph speed, what is
the theoretical field capacity of the machine?
Given:
Operating width - 2 m
Operating speed - 2 kph
Solution:
TFC = 0.1 W V
= 0.1 (2 m) (2 kph)
= 0.4 ha/hr
Problem 3
What is the force required to pull a single-moldboard plow on a clay loam soil
having 30cm width-of-cut and 15cm depth-of-cut? Soil draft is 8 psi.
Given:
Width-of-cut - 30 cm
Depth-of-cut - 15 cm
Soil draft - 8 psi
Solution:
F = A Ds
= (30 cm) (15 cm) (8 psi x in/2.54 cm x kg/2.2 lb)
= 253 kg
Problem 4
If the plow in Problem 3 has 5kph average speed, what is its drawbar horsepower?
Given:
Force to pull the plow - 253 kg
Velocity of the plow - 5 kph
Required:
Drawbar Horsepower
Solution:
DHP = F V
= 253 kg (5 kph x 1000 m/km x hr/3600 sec)
= 4.6 hp
Problem 5
What is the effective field capacity of a rotary tiller tilling theoretically at 0.4 ha/hr,
with 85% field efficiency?
Given:
Theoretical field capacity - 0.4 ha/hr
Field efficiency - 85%
Solution:
EFC = TFC ξf
= 0.4 ha/hr x 0.85
= 0.34 ha/hr
Problem 6
What is the effective field capacity of 2 moldboard plows having 25cm width,
each plowing at 7kph speed? The field efficiency is 80%.
Given:
Number of plows - 2
Plowing speed - 7 kph
Field efficiency - 80%
Solution:
EFC = Np W ξf
= 2 (0.25 m) (7 kph) (0.8)
= 0.28 ha/hr
Problem 7
The field capacity of a rotary tiller was measured at 0.23 ha/hr. If the operating
width and speed of the machine is 1.5 m and 2 kph, respectively, what is the field
efficiency of the tiller?
Given:
Actual field capacity - 0.23 ha/hr
Operating width - 1.5 m
Operating speed - 2 kph
Solution:
Problem 8
Given:
Width of implement - 3.0 m
Speed of the tractor - 10 kph
Solution:
TFC = 0.1 W V
= 0.1 (3 m) (10 kph)
= 3 ha/hr
Problem 9
A 3-bottom disk plow is plowing at a speed of 8 kph. The effective width per plow
bottom is 25 cm. If the plowing efficiency is 80%, what is the theoretical and the
effective field capacities of the implement?
Given:
Plow - disk
Number of disk -3
Speed - 8 kph
Width - 25 cm/plow
Efficienty - 80%
EFC = TFC ξf
= 0.6 ha/hr x 0.8
= 0.48 ha/hr
Problem 10
Find the effective field capacity of a 5-bottom disk plow with 25cm width-of-cut
per plow bottom. Assume a 0.8 field efficiency and 7kph operating speed.
Given:
Plow type - disk
Number of disk - 5
Field efficiency - 80%
Speed - 7 kph
Solution:
EFC = bV ξf
= 0.1 x 0.25 cm/disk x 7 kph x 5 disks x 0.8
= 0.70 ha/hr
Problem 11
Compute the drawbar pull and the drawbar horsepower of a 4-bottom moldboard
plow on a clay loam soil having 0.3m effective width-of-cut per bottom and 0.15m
depth-of-cut. The plowing speed is 10 kph. (Soil draft for clay loam soil is assumed
at 8 psi).
Given:
Plow - moldboard
No. of Plow - 4
Width of Cut - 0.3 m
Depth of Cut - 0.15 cm
Speed - 10 kph
Soil Draft - 8 psi
Required: Drawbar Pull
Drawbar Horsepower
Solution:
F = 0.15 m x 0.30 m x 4 plows x 5818.2 kg/m3
= 1014 kg
DHP = (1014 kg x 10 kph x 1000 m/km x hr/3600 sec) / 76.2
= 36.9 hp
Problem 12
A 3-bottom plow is plowing at 8kph speed. The effective width per plow bottom is
25 cm. If the plowing efficiency is 80%, what are the theoretical and effective field
capacities of the plow?
Given:
Number of plow - 3 bottom
Speed - 8 kph
Effective width/plow - 25 cm
Plowing efficiency - 80%
Required: Theoretical Field Capacity
Effective Field Capacity
Solution:
TFC = 0.1 (3 plows)(0.25 m/plow)(8 kph) /0.80
= 0.75 ha/hr
EFC = 0.1 (3 plows) (0.25 m/plow) (8kph)
= 0.60 ha/hr
Problem 13
What is the drawbar pull required for a 3m tractor-drawn offset-disk harrow? The
implement specific draft is 89 kg/m. Also, compute the drawbar horsepower of the
implement if it is running at 20kph speed.
Given:
Harrow - offset disk
Wc - 3m
δ - 89 kg/m
V - 20 kph
Required: Drawbar Pull
Drawbar Horsepower
Solution:
F = Wc x δ
= 3 m x 89 kg/m
= 267 kg
DHP = (267 kg x 20 kph x 1000 m/km x hr/3600 sec)/ 76.2 kg-m/sec-hp
= 19.5 hp
Problem 14
A power harrow has 6m operating width. If the tractor runs at 20kph speed, what
is the theoretical field capacity of the machine? What is the effective field capacity
of the harrow if its field efficiency is 0.85?
Given:
Operating width - 6m
V - 20 kph
Required: Theoretical Field Capacity
Effective Field Capacity
Solution:
TFC = 0.1 b V
= 0.1 x 6 x 20
= 12 ha/hr
EFC = TFC ξf
= 12 x 0.85
= 10.2 ha/hr
Problem 15
The field capacity of a tractor-drawn field cultivator was measured at 2.9 ha/hr. If
the operating width and speed of the machine is 2.5 m and 13 kph, respectively,
what is the field efficiency of the tiller?
Given:
Effective Field Capacity - 2.9 ha/hr
Operating Width - 2.5 m
Travel Speed - 13 kph
Solution:
Problem 16
A 16hp rotary tiller is tilling at 10cm depth. Its rotating tiller has 0.5m width. What
is the specific power output of the machine if it is traveling at 0.5mps speed?
Assume a 0.80 power transmission efficiency for the tiller.
Given:
Power Input - 16 hp
Depth-of-Cut - 10 cm
Width-of-Cut - 0.5 m
Speed of Tiller - 0.5 m/sec
Power Trans Eff - 0.80
Solution:
SPO = (16 Hp x 0.80 x 746 watt/Hp) / [100 cm/m (50 cm) (10 cm) (0.5 m/sec)]
= 0.382 watts/cm3
Problem 17
A 30-disk double-offset disk harrow is travelling at 10kph speed. If the disk diameter
is 40 cm spaced at 30 cm, what is the cutting width of the harrow? What is its
theoretical field capacity?
Given:
Type of harrow - double-offset
Number of disk - 30 disks
Travelling speed - 10 kph
Disk diameter - 40 cm
Disk spacing - 30 cm
Required: Cutting Width
Theoretical Field Capacity
Solution:
Wc = [0.95 N S + 0.85 D] / 1000
= 0.95 (29 disks x 300 mm) + 0.85 (400 mm) / 1000
= 8.6 m
TFC = 0.1 W V
= 0.1 x 8.6 m x 10 kph
= 8.6 ha/hr
Problem 18
A 16hp rotary tiller is tilling at 10cm depth. Its rotating tiller has 1.2m width. What
is the specific power output of the machine if it is traveling at 0.5mps speed?
Assume a 90% power transmission efficiency for the tiller.
Given:
Power Input - 16 hp
Depth-of-Cut - 10 cm
Width-of-Cut - 1.2 m
Speed of Tiller - 0.5 m/sec
Power Trans Eff - 0.90
Solution:
SPO = (16 Hp x 0.90 x 746 watt/Hp)/ (100 (120 cm) (10 cm) (0.5 m/sec)
= 0.178 watts/cm3
Problem19
Compute the drawbar pull of a plow on a power tiller with 10cm x 8cm depth- and
width-of-cut. The number of plow bottom is 2. Soil draft is equal to 5 psi. If the
plow is drawn at 10kph speed, what is the drawbar horsepower of the plow?
Given:
Width of Cut - 8 cm
Depth of Cut - 10 cm
No. of Plow - 2
Draft - 5 psi
Speed - 10 kph
Required: Drawbar Pull and Power
Solution:
A = 10 cm x 8 cm x 2 plows
= (80 cm2 /plow x 2 plows)
= 160 cm2
F = 160 cm2 (5 lb/in2 ) (in./ 2.54 cm)2 (kg/2.2 lb)
= 56.36 kg
DHP = F x V
= (56.36 kg x 10 kph x 1000 m/km x hr/3600sec)/76.2 kg-m/sec-Hp
= 2.04 Hp
Problem 20
Given:
Implement - moldboard plow
Effective width of cut - 10 cm
Area to be plowed - 2 has.
Solution:
A power tiller was tested on a 10m-wide plot. During the test, the machine made
22 rounds to complete the plowing operation using two 0.3m-diameter disk plows.
What is the average swath of the power tiller? Also, compute for the disk angle of
the plow.
Given:
Machine - power tiller
Width of plot - 10 m
Number of rounds - 22 rounds
Required: Average Swath of the Power Tiller
Disk Angle of the Plow
Solution:
S = width of plot / (2 x number of rounds)
= 10 m / [2 ( 22 rounds)]
= 0.23 m
Θ = sin -1 (0.23/0.3)
= 50 deg
Problem 22
Given:
Width of implement - 5 m
Specific draft - 89 kg/m
Speed - 6 kph
Required: Drawbar Pull
Solution:
F = Ds W
= 89 kg/m) ( 5 m)
= 445 kg
DHP = F V
= (445 kg)(6 kph)(1000 m/km) (hr/3600 sec) /76.2 kg-m/sec-hp
= 10 hp
Problem 23
A single-bottom moldboard is plowing on a clay loam soil (8 psi draft) having 0.3m
effective width-of-cut and 15cm depth-of-cut. What is the force exerted by the
plow?
Given:
Plow - single-bottom moldboard
Soil draft - 8 psi
Width of cut - 0.3 m
Depth of cut - 0.15 m
Solution:
F = A ds
= (0.3 m) (0.15 m) (8 psi) (in/0.254 m)2 (kg/2.2 lb)
= 253 kg
Problem 24
What is the drawbar horsepower of the plow in Problem 23 if its plowing speed is 5
kph?
Given:
Force - 253 kg
Velocity - 5 kph
Solution:
DHP = F V
= 253 kg (5 kph) (1000 m/km) (hr/3600 sec)
= 4.6 hp
Problem 25
In a 200-hectare corn project, the field has to be tilled within 30 days. What size of
a heavy-duty offset-disk harrow should be selected if the tractor to be used will be
operated at 5kph speed? Assume a 75% field efficiency and an 8-hour working
day.
Given:
Area - 200 has.
Tilling period - 30 days
Implement velocity - 5 kph
Field efficiency - 75%
Operating time - 8 hours per day
Solution:
W = RFC / [0.1 x V]
= 1.11 ha/hr / [0.1 x 5 kph]
= 2.2 m
Problem 26
Assume that you are the Agricultural Engineer in a 500-hectare corn farm with soil
type that gives 10psi draft when plowing at 4kph speed. Compute the drawbar
horsepower required to pull a 3-disk plow with 12inch-per-disk effective cut at 6
inches plowing depth.
Given:
Area - 500 ha. corn farm
Soil draft - 10 psi
Plowing speed - 4 kph
Plow bottom - 3 disk
Width-of-cut - 12 in. per disk
Plowing depth - 6 inches
Solution:
Problem 27
Referring to Problem 26, how many hectares does the tractor pulling the 3-disk
plow would be able to plow in one day (16 hours operation)? Assume a 30% total
time loss.
Given:
No. of disk - 3 disk
Width-of-cut - 12 in. per disk
Operating time - 16 hours per day
Time loss - 30%
Referring to Problem 26, how many days are required to plow the 500-hectare
farm using 10 units of the same kind of tractor and of plow?
Given:
Area to be plowed - 500 has.
Number of tractors - 10 units
Solution:
Problem 29
Still referring to Problem 26, what is the amount of fuel consumed, in liters, per 16-
hour/day operation of one tractor if the specific fuel consumption is 1 lb/dhp-hr
and the specific gravity of the fuel is 0.8?
Given:
Specific fuel consumption - 1 lb/dhp-hr
Specific gravity - 0.8
Solution:
What is the cutting width of the single-disk harrow set at 18-degree working angle
containing 20 disks spaced at 30 cm? Disk diameter is 40 cm.
Given:
Number of disks - 20 disks
Disk spacing - 30 cm
Disk diameter - 40 cm
Solution:
Problem 31
If the harrow in Problem 30 is a tandem disk harrow, what is its cutting width?
Given:
Type of harrow - tandem disk harrow
Required: Width-of-Cut
Solution:
Given:
Harrow - tandem
Work angle - 18 deg
Speed - 10 kph
Field Eff - 90%
No. Disks - 24 units
Disk Dia - 30 cm
Spacing - 20 cm
Solution:
What is the required drawbar pull for a 5m tractor-drawn spike-tooth harrow with
89 kg/m specific draft? What is the drawbar-horsepower of the implement if it is
running at 6kph speed?
Given:
Harrow - spike tooth harrow
Wc - 5m
δ - 89 kg/m
V - 6 kph
Required: Drawbar Pull
Drawbar Horsepower
Solution:
F = Wc x δ
= 5 m x 89 kg/m
= 445 kg
DHP = (445 kg x 6 kph x 1000 m/km x hr/3600 sec)/ 76.2 kg-m/sec-hp
= 9.7 hp use 10 hp
Problem 35
Determine the width-of-cut of six 800mm diameter disk plows , with 350mm disk
spacing.
Given:
W – 800 mm
No. of Disc – 6
S – 350 mm
Required: W
Given:
No. of Discs - 8 units of disc plow
Diameter of disc - 900
Disc spaces - 500 mm
Plowing Efficiency - 80%
Solution:
28. Primary-tillage plow for rice farming 34. What is the effective field capacity of
that is attached to the power tiller as a the machine in Item 33 above if field
replacement for the cage wheel. efficiency is 80%?
a. Rotary a. 0.24 ha/hr
b. Spiral b. 0.32 ha/hr
c. Disk c. 0.48 ha/hr
d. All of the above d. None of the above
29. Tool that cuts plant materials and soil 35. Secondary-tillage implement used to
ahead of another tool. stir the soil using multiple number of disk
a. Coulter blades arranged on a gang.
b. Jointer a. Spike tooth harrow
c. Injector b. Disk harrow
d. Two of the above c. Two of the above
d. None of the above
36. Hand-operated tractor, which is 41. Minimum peak transmission efficiency
suitable for both primary and secondary for power tillers.
tillage, used when the field has been a. 75 percent
soaked for at least half a day to soften b. 85 percent
the soil. c. 95 percent
a. Power tiller d. None of the above
b. Puddling-type floating tiller
c. Reaper 42. The size of the bottom of a furrower is
d. None of the above measured from ____.
a. the distance between the plow
37. Optimum puddler speed for bottoms
puddling-type floating tiller is ____. b. the left and to the right wing of
a. 100-150 rpm the share of the plow bottom
b. 200-250 rpm c. the height of the share tip to the
c. 300-350 rpm highest tip of the moldboard
d. None of the above d. None of the above
38. Tillage implement resembling a 43. Trench left when the plow bottom
double moldboard used to make ridges cuts and turns the furrow slice.
and beds for planting and trenches for a. Furrow
irrigation and drainage purposes. b. Furrow crown
a. Excavator c. Furrow depth
b. Trencher d. None of the above
c. Furrower
d. All of the above 44. Unbroken side of the furrow is called
____.
39. Special type walking-tractor with a. dead furrow
front-mounted tilling wheel and b. furrow wall
equipped with a floatation structure c. back furrow
commonly used in tilling water-logged d. None of the above
areas.
a. Float-assisted tiller 45. Raise ridge left at the center of the
b. Puddling-type floating tiller strip of land when plowing is started from
c. Hydro tiller center to side.
a. Back furrow
d. All of the above b. Dead furrow
c. Furrow crown
40. Device consisting of a single or a pair
d. None of the above
of wheels with radially-mounted tilling
blades attached to a common shaft and 46. Open trench left between the
supported and powered by the adjacent strips of land after plowing.
transmission drive of a float-assisted a. Furrow crown
tiller. b. Furrow depth
a. Drive wheel c. Dead furrow
b. Tilling wheel d. None of the above
c. Tines
d. All of the above
47. Peak of a turned furrow slice. 54. Toolbar-mounted device used to guide
a. Headland the operator in setting a furrower to
b. Furrow depth ensure uniform furrow spacing during
c. Furrow crown
operation.
d. None of the above
a. Coulter
48. Soil mass cut, lifted, pulverized, b. Jointer
inverted and thrown to one side of the c. Row marker
plow bottom. d. None of the above
a. Furrow depth
b. Furrow slice 55. Bed height, hill height, windrow
c. Furrow crown height, or height of the soil above a
d. None of the above specified soil surface.
a. Ridge height
49. Ditch depth, pat depth, trench depth
b. Furrow crown
or depth of depression below a specified
c. Headland
soil surface.
a. Furrow depth d. None of the above
b. Furrow slice
56. Soil zone which affects germination
c. Furrow crown
and emergence of seeds.
d. None of the above
a. Seedbed
50. Unplowed soil at the end of the b. Root bed
furrow strip. c. Root zone
a. Furrow d. None of the above
b. Ridge height
c. Headland 57. Soil blocks or masses that are cut,
d. None of the above sheared or broken loose by tillage tool.
a. Furrow slice
51. Headland is____. b. Clod
a. the strip of land at the ends of the c. Loose soil
field used for turning machinery d. None of the above
b. a piece of land owned and tilled by
the head of the family 58. If soil clods are needed to be inverted
c. the land at the top of the hill during plowing, the Agricultural Engineer
d. None of the above will recommend the use of a ____.
52. Part of the soil profile exploited by a. disc plow
the roots of the plants. b. moldboard plow
a. Seedbed c. spiral plow
b. Root bed d. All of the above
c. Root zone
d. None of the above 59. Type of plow equipped with plow
bodies that turn furrow slices to one side
53. Soil profile modified by tillage or
amendments for use by plant roots. only.
a. Seedbed a. One-way plow
b. Root bed b. Two-way plow
c. Root zone c. Two of the above
d. None of the above d. None of the above
60. Type of plow which has two sets of 65. Maximum friction in the moldboard
bodies mounted symmetrically on a plow is ____.
share frame which can be rotated over a. at the point of share
180 degrees along the longitudinal axis. b. between the share and the moldboard
a. Reversible plow c. at the moldboard
b. One-way plow d. None of the above
c. Lister plow
d. None of the above 66. Part of the moldboard plow which is
used to cut the soil.
61. Type of plow widely used in breaking a. Share
different types of soil for turning and b. Shin
covering crop residues. c. Moldboard
a. Rotary plow d. All of the above
b. Moldboard plow
c. Disk plow 67. Part of the plow bottom that helps
d. All of the above counteract the side pressure exerted by
furrow slices.
62. Size of a moldboard plow is a. Shin
determined ____. b. Landside
a. from the distance measured at the c. Share
wing of the share to the land side d. None of the above
b. from the width of the plow measured
at the intersection of the share and the 68. Part of the moldboard plow that
moldboard receives furrow slices from the share and
c. from the width of the moldboard turns them to break, crush, and pulverize.
d. None of the above a. Share
b. Shin
63. When plowing requires mixing the c. Moldboard
soil with grasses and weeds, what d. All of the above
implement will you recommend as an
Agricultural Engineer? 69. Type of plow used to break plow sole.
a. Disc plow a. Chisel plow
b. Rotary plow b. Lister plow
c. Moldboard plow c. Subsoiler
d. All of the above d. None of the above
64. Plow consisting of a durably-
70. If the task requires loosening of soil
constructed frame and a vertical leg
drawn to a subsoil in which the bullet- during plowing, a ____ is recommended
to use.
shape attachment creates a tube-like
a. subsoiler
cavity acting as a drainage channel.
a. Subsoiler b. field cultivator
c. chisel plow
b. Bullet plow
c. Mole plow d. None of the above
d. All of the above
71. Type of plow used primarily for 77. Implement used for seedbed
loosening the soil. preparation that crushes soil clods and
a. Lister plow smoothens and hardens soil surfaces.
b. Disk plow a. Roller harrow
c. Chisel plow b. Packer
d. All of the above c. Rotary Hoe
d. None of the above
72. Plow that combines the primary and
secondary tillage and, at the same time, is 78. Tool attached to the shank of the
used to cut and pulverize the soil. subsoiler used to cut through the soil.
a. Disk plow a. Main frame
b. Rotary plow b. Ripper point
c. Chisel plow c. Shank
d. All of the above d. None of the above
73. Structural member of a subsoiler 79. Amount of pull required to move the
commonly used in attaching a primary plow is called____.
tool to a beam. a. side draft
a. Main frame b. center of resistance
b. Ripper point c. plow draft
c. Shank d. None of the above
d. None of the above
80. Plow draft is dependent on the ____.
a. size of the plow and the depth of
74. Type of plow designed to reduce plowing
friction by making a rolling bottom instead b. climatic condition
of sliding along the furrow. c. correct use or adjustment of the
a. Moldboard implement
b. Rotary plow d. All of the above
c. Disk plow
d. None of the above 81. Metal plate attached to the shank to
reduce abrasion and to enhance
75. Moldboard plow has ____. durability of the shank.
a. lower draft than disk plow a. Ripper point
b. higher draft than disk plow b. Wear shin
c. equal draft with disk plow c. Shank cover
d. All of the above d. None of the above
76. When the center-of-load of a plow is 82. If the hitch of a plow is placed above
not on the same line with the center-of- the vertical line of pull, ____.
power, ____. a. there will be lifting action at the front
a. there will be a side draft of the plow and its bottom will tend to
b. tractor will be partly pulled sideways run shallow particularly on hard ground
c. forces on the tractor will be carried by b. the plow share will worn out easily
the rear of the tractor wheel c.the plow bottom will penetrate
d. All of the above d.None of the above
83. Line of pull that is straight from the 89. Disk angle that gives the minimum
center-of-load to the point where draft draft for a disk plow for a given width of
drawbar is attached to the tractor cut.
drawbar. a. 30-35 deg.
a. Horizontal-line draft b. 40-45 deg.
b. Vertical-line draft c. 45-50 deg.
c. Side draft d. None of the above
d. None of the above
90. Angle of the disk plow in reference to
84. Line of draft that is straight from the the vertical plane.
center-of-resistance or load to the point a. Tilt angle
where plow drawbar is attached to the b. Disk angle
tractor drawbar. c. All of the above
a. Horizontal-line draft d. None of the above
b. Vertical-line draft
c. Side draft 91. Angle on a vertical plane between the
d. None of the above centralized tool or reference axis and the
soil surface that is perpendicular to the
85. Percentage of work done in pulling direction of travel .
an average-size plow. a. Tilt angle
a. 50 % b. Lift angle
b. 18 % c. Side angle
c. 30% d. None of the above
d. None of the above
92. Angle of the disk plow in reference to
86. Percentage of work of plow used in the direction of travel of the plow.
turning a slice of soil. a. Tilt angle
a. 34% b. Disk angle
b. 25% c. All of the above
c. 60% d. None of the above
d. None of the above
93. Point in which all the horizontal and
vertical forces in the plow meet.
87. Percentage of work of plow used in
a. Side draft
cutting furrow slices.
b. Center-of-resistance
a. 43%
b. 58% c. Center-of-gravity
d. None of the above
c. 24%
d. None of the above 94. Center-of-resistance of the
moldboard plow is located ____.
88. Force that propels an implement to
a. at its center
the direction of travel.
b. at the intersection of the moldboard
a. Draft
and of the share
b. Drawbar horsepower c. at the center of the share
c. Side draft
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
95. Which of the following affect the draft 101. What is the drawbar-horsepower of
of plow? the implement in Item 100 if it is running
a. Soil condition and topography at 6kph speed?
b. Adjustment of plow and hitch of the a. 8 hp
tractor b. 10 hp
c. Depth and rate of plowing c. 23 hp
d. All of the above d. None of the above
96. Power required to pull an implement. 102. What is the theoretical field capacity
a. Wheel power of a 3m-wide tandem disk harrow pulled
b. Brake power by a 4-wheel-drive tractor running at 10
c. Drawbar power kph?
d. None of the above a. 3.0 ha/hr
b. 4.5 ha/hr
97. Drawbar horsepower is a factor of c. 5.2 ha/hr
____. d. None of the above
a. force exerted by plow
b. speed of plow 103. What is the effective field capacity
c. All of the above of a rotary tiller tilling theoretically at 0.4
d. None of the above ha/hr with 85% field efficiency?
a. 0.34 ha/hr
98. What is the force required to pull a b. 0.45 ha/hr
single-moldboard plow on a clay-loam soil c. 0.52 ha/hr
having 30cm width and 15cm depth-of- d. None of the above
cut. Soil draft is 8 psi. (Problem 3)
a. 314 kg 104. The effective width-of-cut of a
b. 253 kg single-bottom moldboard plow drawn by
c. 157 kg a power tiller is 10 cm. If the machine
d. None of the above will be used to plow a 2-hectare farm,
what will be the total distance that it will
99. If the plow in Item 98 has 5 km/hr travel to accomplish the task?
average speed, what is its drawbar a. 200 m
horsepower? b. 200 km
a. 4.6 hp c. 200 miles
b. 3.4 hp d. All of the above
c. 5.1 hp
d. None of the above 105. Type of implement that is directly
attached to the tractor and its power lift
100. What is the required drawbar pull for is dependent upon the tractor engine for
a 5m tractor-drawn spike-tooth harrow its general operation.
with 89 kg/m specific draft? a. Semi-integral
a. 345 kg b. Integral-mounted
b. 445 kg c. Trailing or pull
c. 500 kg d. None of the above
d. None of the above
106. Center-of-resistance in this type of 112. Type of implement which is
plow is at the intersection between the supported by two or three wheels and is
share and the moldboard and to the right hitched to the drawbar of the tractor that
of the shin. pulls it.
a. Disk plow a. Integral-mounted
b. Moldboard plow b. Trailing
c. All of the above c. Semi-integral
d. None of the above d. None of the above
Classifications
Methods
Problem 1
A corn plantation requires a population of 37,000 plants per hectare. The average
emergence is 90% and the row spacing is 1.2 meters. If the seeds are to be drilled,
what should be the seed spacing?
Given:
Required population - 37,000 plants per ha
Emergence - 90%
Row spacing - 1.2 meters
Solution:
Problem 2
Compute the number of plants required for a 2-hectare corn farm with the following
seed spacing: Plant spacing, 0.25 m and row spacing, 0.45 m.
Given:
Area - 2 ha
Sp - 0.25 m
Sr - 0.45
Solution:
A 120-hectare farm is to be planted with corn. The row and hill spacings are 50 cm
and 40 cm, respectively. How many hills are to be planted in the farm? If a 12-row
drill planter is to be used at 10kph implement speed, what is the theoretical and
effective field capacities of the machine? Assume an 80% field efficiency. If the field
requires 3 seeds per hill and has a percentage emergence of 90%, how many kilos of
seeds are needed for the entire area? Assume a 0.1 g weight per seed.
Given:
Area - 120 has.
Row spacing - 50 cm
Hill spacing - 40 cm
Machine - 12- row seeder/planter
Implement Speed - 10 kph
Field efficiency - 80%
% Emergence - 90%
No. of Seeds/hill - 3 seed
Wt. per seed - 0.1 g / seed
Required:
Number of Hills
Theoretical Field Capacity
Effective Field Capacity
Weight of Seeds needed for the entire farm
Solution:
TFC = 0.1 Wi Vi
= 0.1 x 12-row x 0.5 m x 10 kph
= 6 ha/hr
EFC = TFC ξf
= 6 ha/hr x 0.80
= 4.8 ha/hr
Given:
Area - 150 ha
Plant spacing - 60 cm
Row spacing - 120 cm
Speed - 6 kph
Oper time required - 10 day (8hr/day)
Field efficiency - 80 %
Required:
No. of Hills to be planted
Rate of Planting, in hills/ha
No. of Tractor/planter unit
Solution:
How many grams of cotton seeds are required per row for a hectare of farm,
assuming a seeder is to be used in planting the seeds at 0.20m row spacing and
0.50m plant spacing? The seeding rate is 10 kg/ha.
Given:
Crop - cotton
Seeding rate - 10 kg/ha
Row spacing - 0.5 m
Plant spacing - 0.20
Solution:
Problem 6
Compute the number of hills to be planted with corn seeds on a 100-hectare farm.
The seed spacing is 50 cm and the row spacing is 40 cm.
Given:
Seeds - corn
Area - 100 has.
Hill spacing - 50 cm
Row Spacing - 40 cm
Required:
Number of Hills to be planted
Solution:
Nh = 100 ha (10000) / [0.50 m x 0.40m]
= 5,000,000 hills
Problem 7
A 10-hectare farm will be planted with soybean at hill and row spacing of 20 cm x
30 cm. If the seed has 80% emergence, how many plants are expected to emerge
during the cropping season.
Given:
Area - 10 has.
Hill spacing - 20 cm
Row spacing - 30 cm
% emergence - 80
Solution:
Problem 8
A 5-hectare farm is to be planted with peanut at 250 kg per hectare. The hill and
row spacings are 30 cm x 50 cm, respectively. How many kilos of peanuts is to be
planted per hill?
Given:
Area - 5 has.
Seeding rate - 250 kg/ha
Hill spacing - 30 cm
Row spacing - 50 cm
Solution:
Given:
Area - 250 ha
Plant spacing - 60 cm
Row spacing - 120 cm
Speed - 8 kph
Operating time required - 10 day
(8hr/day)
Field efficiency - 90 %
Solution:
= 3,472,222.2 hills
A power tiller draws a two-row seeder at 30cm spacing. The seeder has a 6-pocket
metering device and is driven by a 0.4m ground wheel. If the required hill spacing is
0.3 m, what is the recommended sprocket ratio for the drive? What is the theoretical
field capacity of the implement if it runs at 4 kph? What is the effective field capacity
of the implement if its field efficiency is 90%? If the seeds per hole is required at 0.8
g/seed, how many kilos of seeds are needed to finish the 10 hectares? Assume a
90% germination percentage. How many hills will be planted for the 10-hectare
farm? How many days will it take to finish the operation? If the speed ratio to be
used is 1.5, what is the distance per hill?
Given:
No. of rows - 2
Spacing - 0.3 m
Metering device - 6 pocket
Hill spacing - 0. 3 m
Ground wheel - 0.4 m
Velocity - 4 kph
Efficiency - 90%
Weight of seed per hole - 0.8 g/seed
Germination percentage - 90%
Solution:
C ground wheel = π (0.4 m) = 1.25 m
α metering device = 360 deg/ 6 pockets = 60 deg per pocket
α ground wheel @ 0.3 m = 360 deg x 0.3 m/1.25 m = 86.4 deg @ 0.3 m travel
Ratio = 86.4 deg / 60 deg = 1.44
TFC = 0.1 x 0.3 m x 2 x 4 kph = 0.24 ha per hour
EFC = 0.24 ha per hour x 0.90 = 0.22 ha per hour
Weight of seeds in 10 ha 2
= 10 ha x 10,000 m /ha x 0.8g /hole /
[(0.3 m x 2 x 0.3 m) x 0.9]
= 493,827.2 g or 493.8 kg
No. of days = 10 ha / (0.22 ha/hr x 8 hr/day)
= 5.6 days
Distance per hill at 1.5 SR = 1.5 x 60 deg x1.25 / 360
= 0.3125 m
No of hills = 10 ha (10,000 m2/ha) / (0.30 m x 0.31 m)
= 1,075,268.8 hills
Problem 11
A five-row seeder will be used in seeding a 100-hectare farm at 5 seeds per hill. The
row spacing of the seeder is 30 cm while the hill spacing is 25 cm. Compute the number
of hills to be planted for the entire area? If the seeder travels at 15 kph, what is the
theoretical field capacity? What is the effective field capacity if it has a field efficiency of
90%. How long will it take for the seeder to finish the job if it will be operated at 8
hours per day and 20 days per month? If the seeds weigh 0.1 g/seed and requires 5
seeds per hill, what is the total weight of the seeds needed? Percent germinability of
the seeds is 98%.
Given:
No. of rows -5
Area to be planted with seeds - 100 ha
No of seeds per hill -5
Row spacing - 30 cm
Hill spacing - 25 cm
Velocity of travel - 15kph
Field efficiency - 90%
No. of seeds per hill - 5 seeds
Weight of seeds - 0.1 g/see
Germinability - 98%
Operating time per day - 8 hours per day
Solution:
57. What are the plant spacing and row 62. What is the effective field capacity of
spacing required for soybean? the seeder in Item 60 if it has a 90% field
a. 4-7 cm & 20-60 cm efficiency?
b. 5-10 cm & 22-60 cm a. 2.025 ha/hr
c. 3-5 cm & 15-22 cm b. 1.983 ha/hr
d. None of the above c. 1.869 ha/hr
d. None of the above
58. A corn plantation requires a
population of 37,000 plants per hectare. 63. How long will it take for the seeder in
The average emergence is 90% and the Item 60 to finish the job if it will be
row spacing is 1.2 meters. If the seeds operated at 8 hours per day and 20 days
are to be drilled, what should be their per month?
spacing? a. 2 days
a. 0.45 m b. 4 days
b. 0.35 m (0.30 m) c. 6 days
c. 0.25 m d. None of the above
d. None of the above
64. If the seeds weigh 0.1 g/seed and
59. Determine the number of hills in a 2- requires 5 seeds per hill, what is the total
hectare farm planted with corn having weight of the seeds needed? Percent
25cm x 45cm spacing. germinability of the seeds is 98%.
a. 150,000 hills a. 6.8 tons
b. 177,777 hills b. 6.2 tons
c. 185, 877 hills c. 7.9 tons
d. None of the above d. None of the above
60. A five-row seeder will be used in 65. A power tiller draws a two-row
seeding a 100-hectare farm at 5 seeds seeder at 30cm spacing. The seeder has
per hill. The row spacing of the seeder is a 6-pocket metering device and is driven
30 cm while the hill spacing is 25 cm. by a 0.4m ground wheel. If the required
Compute the number of hills to be hill spacing is 0.3 m, what is the
planted for the entire area? recommended sprocket ratio for the
a. 12,888,666 hills drive?
b. 13,333,333 hills a. 1.43
c. 14,121,122 hills b. 1.56
d. None of the above c. 2.01
d. None of the above
66. If the speed ratio to be used in Item 71. Referring to Items 69 & 70, how many
65 is 1.5, what is the distance per hill? days will the operation be finished?
a. 0.312 m a. 4.9 days
b. 0.314 m b. 5.7 days
c. 0.324 m c. 6.1 days
d. None of the above d. None of the above
67. What is the theoretical field capacity 72. Typical number of rows of walking-
of the implement in Item 65 if it will run type rice transplanter.
at 4 kph? a. 4 rows
a. 0.21 ha/hr b. 6 rows
b. 0.24 ha/hr c. 8 rows
c. 0.26 ha/hr d. None of the above
d. None of the above
73. Typical number of rows of riding-type
68. What is the effective field capacity of rice transplanter.
the implement in Item 65 if its field a. 4 rows
efficiency is 90%? b. 6 rows
a. 0.201 ha/hr c. 8 rows
b. 0.209 ha/hr d. None of the above
c. 0.216 ha/hr
d. None of the above 74. A 120-hectare farm is to be planted
with corn. The row spacing and hill
69. If 8 g/seed is required per hole, how spacing is 50 cm and 40 cm, respectively.
many kilos of seeds are needed to finish How many hills are to be planted in the
10 hectares? Assume a 90% farm?
germinability. a. 5,758,000 hills
a. 486 kg b. 6,000,000 hills
b. 498 kg c. 6,897,342 hill
c. 506 kg d. None of the above
d. None of the above
75. If a 12-row drill planter is to be used
70. How many hills will be planted for at 10kph implement speed, what is the
the 10-hectare farm in Item 69? effective field capacities of the machine
a. 999,999 hills assuming an 80% field efficiency.
b. 1,111,111 hills a. 4.8 ha/hr
c. 2,111,111 hills b. 5.2 ha/hr
d. None of the above c. 6.3 ha/hr
d. None of the above
75. If the field requires 3 seeds per hill 79. How many grams of cotton seeds are
and has a percentage emergence of required per row for a hectare of farm,
90%, how many kilos of seeds are assuming a seeder is to be used in
needed for the entire area? Assume a planting the seeds at 0.20m row spacing
0.1 g weight per seed. and 0.50m plant spacing? The seeding
a. 2,000 kg rate is 10 kg/ha.
b. 3,000 kg a. 0.07 g
c. 4,000 kg b. 0.10 g
d. None of the above c. 0.15 g
d. None of the above
76. A 2.4m sugar planter is used to
transplant sugarcane to a 150-hectare 80. Compute the number of hills to be
farm. The plant spacing is 60 cm and the planted with corn seeds on a 100-
row spacing is 120 cm. Compute the hectare farm. The seed spacing is 50 cm
number of hills the machine can plant and the row spacing is 40 cm.
for the entire area. a. 4,500,000 hills
a. 2,083,333.3 hills b. 4,750,000 hills
b. 2,038,333.3 hills c. 5,000,000 hills
c. 2,830,333.3 hills d. None of the above
d. None of the above
81. A 10-hectare farm will be planted
77. What is the rate of planting in hills with soybean at hill and row spacing of
per hectare if the machine travels at 20 cm x 30 cm. If the seed has 80%
6kph speed? emergence, how many plants are
a. 0.576 ha/hr expected to emerge during the cropping
b. 0.657 ha/hr season.
c. 0.765 ha/hr a. 1,333,111 plants
d. None of the above b. 1,111,333 plants
c. 1,333,333.33 plants
78. Estimate the number of units of d. None of the above
tractors and of planters required to
finish the entire area in 10 days at 8 82. A 5-hectare farm is to be planted
hours/day operation. Assume an 80% with peanut at 250 kg per hectare. The
planting efficiency. (Problem 4) hill and row spacings are 30 cm x 50 cm,
a. 2 tractor units respectively. How many kilos of peanuts
b. 3tractor units is to be planted per hill?
c. 4 tractor units a. 2.25 g
d. None of the above b. 2.52 g
c. 2.72 g
d. None of the above
83. A 4m sugar planter is used to
transplant sugar cane to a 250-hectare
farm. The plant spacing is 60 cm while
the row spacing is 120 cm. Compute the
number of hills the machine can plant
for the entire area.
a. 3,274,222.2 hills
b. 3,472,222.2 hills
c. 3,742,222.2 hills
d. None of the above
Operations
• Rear-Tractor-Mounted Cultivator -
They are usually unit assemblies
attached to tractors equipped with a
three point hitch as a single unit. Each
gang are provided a gauge wheel to
control the depth of cultivation. The
Rotary Hoe – Implement for dislodging gang are attached to a tool bar or
small weeds and grasses and for breaking frame bar.
soil crust and is used for fast, shallow
cultivation.
Cultivator Gangs Factors to Consider in the Selection of
Type of Shovel or Sweep
Gang or rig consists of a beam to which is
attached a shank or standard that has an 1 Type of soil
adjustable foot set at an angle so as 2 Crops
shovel or sweep can be bolted to it. 3 Weeds
Lister Cultivator
Rotary-Hoe Cultivator
12. Machine that has one or more 17. One-row cultivator is suitable for
elements rotating about a vertical axis ____.
and cuts the grass by impact. a. small farms
a. Rotary mower b. terraced fields with curving rows
c. All of the above
b. Grass cutter
d. None of the above
c. Power scythe
d. All of the above 18. Two-row cultivator is suitable for
____.
13. Power-take-off rpm of a lawn mower a. medium-size farms
and garden ride-on tractors. b. fields that have rows either straight or
a. 1000 rpm with gradual curves
b. 540 rpm c. All of the above
c. 2000 rpm d. None of the above
d. None of the above 19. Gangs are attached to a tool bar or to
a frame bar and each gang is provided
14. Which of the following is a with a gauge wheel to ____.
classification of a tractor-mounted a. control the depth of cultivation
cultivator? b. have deep penetration
a. Central-forward tractor-mounted c. All of the above
b. Rear tractor-mounted d. None of the above
c. All of the above
20. Which of the following is a factor to
d. None of the above
consider in selecting the type and the size
of the cultivator to use?
15. Type of unit assemblies of tractor- a. Area of the farm and kind of crop
mounted cultivator attached to tractors grown
equipped with a three point hitch as a b. Soil type and condition
single unit. c. Rainfall and type of farming practice
a. Central-forward d. All of the above
b. Rear
c. Any of the two 21. Type of gang assemblies depends on
d. None of the above the ____.
a. kind of crop and type of soil
b. farming practice
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
22. Implement used for seedbed 28. Gauge wheels control the ____.
preparation, weed eradication, or fallow a. depth of penetration of shovel
cultivation subsequent to some form of b. size of the cultivator
primary tillage, equipped with steel c. attachment for the application of
spring shanks. fertilizer
a. Beet and bean cultivator d. None of the above
b. Lister cultivator
c. Field cultivator 29. Listed crops are those planted in the
d. None of the above ____.
a. furrow
23. Shovels and sweeps are available in b. trench
____ width. c. below the general level of the ground
a. 2½ in. and 5 to 20 in. d. All of the above
b. 3½ in. and 6 to 24 in.
c. 4½ in. and 7 to 28 in. 30. Implement used for both dislodging
d. None of the above small weeds and grasses as for breaking
soil rust, and for fast, shallow
24. Which of the following is a factor to
consider in selecting the type of shovel or cultivation before or soon after crop
plants emerge.
sweep to be used?
a. Type of soil a. Roller harrow
b. Packer
b. Crops
c. Rotary Hoe
c. Weeds
d. All of the above d. None of the above
Related Terms
FCa = A s / Ts Qb = Qn Nn
where: where:
FCa - actual field capacity, ha/hr Qb - boom discharge, lpm
A s - area sprayed, ha Qn - nozzle discharge, lpm
Ts - time spent, hr Nn - number of nozzle
Volumetric Efficiency Number of Sprayer Load per Hectare
Problem 1
Walking in the rice field operating a 1m-spray-swath sprayer, a person covers 220
m/min. If the nozzle discharge is 0.4 li/min, what is the application rate per
hectare?
Given:
Swath - 1m
Walking speed - 20 m/min
Nozzle discharge - 0.4 li/min
Solution:
Application rate per hectare = (10, 000 m2 /ha x 0.4 li/min) / 20 m2 /min
= 200 li/ha
Problem 2
A farmer wishes to spray his vegetable farm at a rate of 300 gallons per hectare. A
16-nozzles, 18in. apart, sprayer will be used. The forward speed of the tractor is at 5
kph. Compute the field capacity of the sprayer in hectare per hour. What is the
required pump capacity for the sprayer? Also, what is the capacity per nozzle?
Given:
Spraying rate - 300 gal per ha
Number of nozzles - 16
Nozzle spacing - 18 in.
Tractor speed - 5 kph
If a boom sprayer has 6 nozzles and each nozzle discharges 0.6 li/ min, what is the
application rate if the spray swath and walking speed is 25 m/min?
Given:
No. of nozzles - 6
Nozzles discharge - 0.6 li/min
Swath - 6m
Walking speed - 25 m/min
Solution:
Application Rate per hectare = 3.6 li/min x 10, 000 m2 /min / 75 m2 /min
= 480 li/min
Problem 4
A sprayer containing 100 liters of mixture operates at 0.2 liter per minute per
nozzle discharge. If the sprayer boom consists of 6 nozzles, after how many hours
will the mixture be changed?
Given:
Sprayer capacity - 100 liters
Discharge - 0.2 l per min/nozzle
No. of nozzle - 6
Compute the volumetric efficiency of a sprayer pump having 5cm diameter and 20 cm
stroke. The actual volume of water displaced per stroke is 0.360 liter.
Given:
Pump diameter - 5 cm
Pump stroke - 20 cm
Actual volume displaced
per stroke of the pump - 0.360 liter
Required:
Volumetric efficiency of the pump
Solution
2. Equipment that breaks the liquid 7. Amount of spray liquid per unit
droplets to an effective size and distributes treated.
them uniformly over the surface or space a. Deposit rate
to be protected, and regulates the amount b. Active ingredient rate
of chemical solution to avoid excessive c. Spray rate
application that might prove harmful or d. None of the above
wasteful.
a. Duster 8. Unit for spray rate is ____.
b. Sprayer a. mg a.i./plant or animal
c. All of the above b. mg/plant or animal
d. None of the above c. ml/plant or animal
d. None of the above
3. When calibrating a sprayer, an
Agricultural Engineer ____. 9. Which of the following is a primary
a. measures the diameter of its tank function of sprayer?
b. cleans the nozzles a. Break liquid droplets to effective size.
c. measures and adjusts its application b. Distribute the droplets uniformly over
rate the surface or space to be protected.
d. None of the above c. Regulate the amount of chemical
solution to avoid excessive application
4. Amount of any material applied per that might prove harmful or wasteful.
unit treated. d. All of the above
a. Application rate
b. Active ingredient rate 10. Sprayer apparatus consisting of
c. Formulation rate pressure source as well as controlling and
d. None of the above specifically employing an over-the-crop
boom with automizer arranged in order to
5. Amount of chemical formulation provide uniform coverage of the treated
applied per unit treated. surfaces.
a. Application rate a. Boom sprayer
b. Active ingredient rate b. Knapsack sprayer
c. Formulation rate c. Compressed-air sprayer
d. None of the above d. None of the above
11. A farmer wishes to spray his cotton 16. Movement of chemicals outside the
plantation at a rate of 300 gallons per intended target area by air mass
hectare. A 16-nozzle, 18in. apart, sprayer transport diffusion.
will be used. The forward speed of the a. Deposit rate
tractor is 5 kph. Compute the field b. Formulation
capacity of the sprayer in hectare per c. Drift
hour. d. None of the above
a. 5.6 ha/hr
b. 3.6 ha/hr 17. Form of chemical supplied to the
c. 4.7 ha/hr user that includes both the active and
d. None of the above the inert ingredients.
a. Formulation
12. Type of hand sprayer that is useful for b. Drift
boom spraying when series of four c. Deposit rate
nozzles or more are operating at the d. None of the above
same time.
a. Knapsack sprayer 18. Which of the following are the
b. Compressed-air sprayer general classifications of sprayers?
c. Power sprayer a. Hand and power sprayers
d. None of the above b. Compressed-air and knapsack
sprayers
13. Mechanical or a thermal device that c. All of the above
produces liquid dispersion with less than d. None of the above
50 um volume median diameter.
a. Knapsack sprayer 19. Spraying apparatus that transports or
b. Aerosol generator operates with power such as tractor,
c. Compressed-air sprayer small engine or electric motor.
d. None of the above a. Knapsack sprayer
b. Compressed-air sprayer
14. Approximate pressure used in c. Power sprayer
spraying weedicide. d. None of the above
a. 10-25 psi
b. 25-40 psi 20. Type of hand sprayer that is
c. 40-60 psi particularly useful for spot and small
d. None of the above area application.
a. Knapsack sprayer
15. Amount of any material deposited per b. Compressed-air sprayer
unit area. c. Power sprayer
a. Deposit rate d. None of the above
b. Active ingredient rate
21. Capacity and the nozzle operating
c. Spray rate
pressure of a knapsack sprayer are____.
d. None of the above a. 7.5 to 15 liters & 3.5 kg/cm2
b. 17 liters & 3.8 to 4.0 kg/cm2
c. 22.5 liters & 4.2 to 5.4 kg/cm2
d. None of the above
22. Power sprayer usually operates at a 27. Application of chemical over the
pressure ____. entire area of a field.
a. under 40 kg/cm2 a. Basal application
b. at 40 kg/cm2 b. Banded application
c. above 40 kg/cm2 c. Broadcast application
d. None of the above d. None of the above
23. Amount of active ingredient per unit 28. Part of a typical boom-type sprayer
area treated, expressed in terms of mass that indicates the pressure of the
per relevant unit treated. chemical liquid to be released into the
a. Deposit rate sets of sprayer nozzles.
b. Active ingredient rate a. Boom gauge
c. Spray rate b. Relief valve
d. None of the above c. Boom valve
d. None of the above
24. Component of a typical boom-type
power sprayer that returns the chemical 29. Application rate can be determined
incase overpressure is developed at the using the formula ____.
tank. a. area x delivery / (swath x speed of
a. Boom gauge travel)
b. Relief valve b. area x speed of travel / (delivery x
c. Boom valve swath)
d. All of the above c. delivery x swath / (area x speed of
travel)
25. Method of chemical application in d. None of the above
which the distribution of chemical is in a
parallel bands leaving the area between 30. Factors affecting the rate of
the bands free of chemicals. application of sprayer.
a. Basal application a. Pressure of the spray tank
b. Banded application b. Size of nozzle
c. Broadcast application c. Spray swath
d. None of the above d. Speed of the sprayer
e. All of the above
26. Apparatus consisting of a hopper, a f. Three of the above
metering unit, and a distribution device
that uses either gravity, centrifugal force, 31. Lever-operated type of sprayer nozzle
or pendulum action to spread granules to consisting of a tip and a core or a swirl
the surface of the entire area to be plate that usually operates between 40 to
treated. 60 psi.
a. Broadcast spreader a. Cone-type nozzle
b. Granular applicator b. Fan-type nozzle
c. Power sprayer c. Impact-type nozzle
d. None of the above d. None of the above
32. Type of sprayer nozzle in which the 37. Spray classification with droplet
shape of the hole is responsible for the distribution of greater than 400 µm and
shape of the spray and the angle formed. less than or equal to 1200 µm.
a. Cone-type nozzle a. Course spray
b. Fan-type nozzle b. Fine spray
c. Impact-type nozzle c. Medium spray
d. None of the above d. None of the above
33. Type of spray nozzle in which 38. Spray classification with droplet
pressurized liquid passes through the distribution greater than 1200 µm
nozzle orifice which is relatively large and a. Course spray
strikes the angled face. b. Fine spray
a. Cone-type nozzle c. Medium spray
b. Fan-type nozzle d. None of the above
c. Impact-type nozzle
d. None of the above 39. Gas, liquid or solid used to propel or
to transport chemical.
34. Spray classification with greater than a. Spray material
50 µm and less than or equal to 100 µm b. Spray nozzle
droplet distribution. c. Carrier
a. Aerosol d. All of the above
b. Mist
c. Fine spray 40. To reduce the size of spray particle,
d. None of the above ____.
a. increase the operating pressure of the
35. Spray classification with droplet sprayer
distribution of greater than 100 µm and b. adjust the control valve opening of the
less than or equal to 400 µm. sprayer
a. Course spray c. adjust the opening of the spray nozzle
b. Fine spray d. None of the above
c. Medium spray
d. None of the above 41. Method of applying chemicals on the
stem, fruit, leaves, needles, or blades of
36. Spray classification in which the plant.
distribution of droplets is less than or a. Direct application
equal to 50 µm. b. Foliar application
a. Aerosol c. Space application
b. Mist d. All of the above
c. Course spray
d. None of the above
42. Application of chemical into the base of 48. Which of the following is the first
the plant. procedure when calibrating a hand-
a. Basal application operated sprayer?
b. Banded application a. Determine the walking speed
c. Broadcast application b. Calculate the application rate
d. None of the above c. Prepare the sprayer
d. None of the above
43. Method of applying chemicals to a
specific area such as row, bed or at the 49. Which of the following is the last step
base of the plant. in calibrating a hand-operated sprayer?
a. Direct application a. Calculate the liquid herbicides or
b. Spot treatment insecticides to mix in each sprayer per
c. Space application load.
d. None of the above b. Calculate the area sprayed.
c. Determine the width of spray or
44. When a sprayer is to be used, it is
swath.
important to ____.
d. None of the above
a. check the brand of the sprayer first
b. measure the dimension of the tank
50. A sprayer containing 100 liters of
c. calibrate it to meet the required rate of
mixture operates at 0.2 liter per minute
application
per nozzle discharge. If the sprayer
d. None of the above
boom consists of 6 nozzles, after how
45. Insecticide that kills insects when they many hours will the mixture be changed?
suck on plant tissues. a. 2.5 hrs
a. Contact b. 1.39 hrs
b. Stomach c. 0.8 hrs
c. Systemic d. None of the above
d. All of the above
51. Which of the following is a factor that
46. Application of chemical to a small affects the rate of application?
restricted area usually to control the spread a. Pressure of the spray tank and walking
of pest. speed.
a. Directed application b. Size of nozzle opening and spray
b. Foliar application swath.
c. Spot treatment c. All of the above
d. None of the above d. None of the above
47. Treatment method in which liquid or 52. Cold fog machine that sprays liquid-
dry particles are dispersed into the air in type chemicals as an aerosol.
such a manner that target pests are a. Hydraulic sprayer
exposed to chemicals. b. Blower sprayer
a. Spot treatment c. Aerosol generator or Fogger
b. Space treatment d. None of the above
c. Direct application
d. All of the above
53. Mechanical or thermal device that 58. Device used to hold the spray nozzle
produces a liquid dispersion having a close to the soil so the chemicals can be
volume median diameter of less than 50 sprayed on young grass in the plant row.
µm. a. Spray shield
a. Hydraulic sprayer b. Spray boom
b. Duster c. Spray holder
c. Aerosol generator or Fogger d. None of the above
d. None of the above
59. Substance used for spraying that
54. Device in which compressed-air from forms into a finely-divided solid particles
the fan is guided to the bottom of the when mixed with water.
tank to agitate the powder or granules. a. Emulsion
a. Hydraulic sprayer b. Suspension
b. Duster c. Solution
c. Aerosol generator or Fogger d. All of the above
d. None of the above
60. Amount of any material applied per
55. Type of power sprayer where the unit time treated by a sprayer.
spray pressure is built up by the direct a. Throughput rate
action of the pump on the liquid spray b. Application capacity
material. c. Application rate
a. Hydraulic sprayer d. All of the above
b. Blower sprayer
c. Hydro-pneumatic sprayer 61. Sprayer designed to charge the spray
d. All of the above droplet so that there is a powerful
attraction between the plants and the
56. Substance added to the spray charged droplet.
material that serves as sticker, stabilizer a. Electromagnetic sprayer
and conditioning agent. b. Electrolytic sprayer
a. Water c. Electrostatic sprayer
b. Petroleum gas d. All of the above
c. Gelatin
d. All of the above 62. Compute the volumetric efficiency of
a sprayer pump having 5-cm diameter and
57. Type of pump recommended for 20-cm stroke. The actual volume of water
sprayers used for abrasive spray displaced per stroke is 0.360 liter.
materials. a. 85%
a. Centrifugal pump b. 92%
b. Diaphragm pump c. 98%
c. Gear pump d. None of the above
d. All of the above
63. Minimum volumetric efficiency 69. Walking in the rice field operating a
requirement for Lever Operated 1m-spray-swath sprayer, a person covers
Knapsack Sprayer (LOKS). 220 m/min. If the nozzle discharge is 0.4
a. 80% liter/min, what is the application rate per
b. 88% hectare?
c. 95% a. 200 li/ha
d. None of the above b. 250 li/ha
c. 275 li/ha
64. Minimum capacity requirement for d. None of the above
LOKS.
a. 10 liters 70. If a boom sprayer has 6 nozzles and
b. 15 liters each nozzle discharges 0.6 li/ min, what
c. 20 liters is the total discharge of nozzle per min?
d. None of the above a. 2.7 li/min
b. 3.6 li/min
65. Maximum weight required for LOKS c. 4.1 li/min
at full load. d. None of the above
a. 12 kg
b. 22 kg 71. What is the area that can be covered
c. 32 kg by the sprayer in Item 70 per unit time?
d. None of the above a. 57 m2 /min
b. 69 m2 /min
66. Maximum pumping rate requirement c. 75 m2 /min
for LOKS. d. None of the above
a. 20 strokes per minute
b. 40 strokes per minute 72. What is the application rate of the
c. 60 strokes per minute sprayer in Item 70&71 if the spray swath
d. None of the above and walking speed is 25 m/min?
a. 480 li/min
67. Flow rate requirement for LOKS at b. 508 li/min
300 kPa mean pressure. c. 543 li/min
a. 0.3 to 1.4 lpm d. None of the above
b. 1.4 to 2.0 lpm
c. 2.0 to 2.9 lpm
d. None of the above
Mechanical Harvester
• Simplicity
• Ease of construction
• Robustness of rotor which can do
varied functions, such as
• Crop lifting
• Harvesting
• Partial threshing
• Crop transport
Combine Harvester - heads the standing Losses Related to Combining of Grains
grains, threshes and cleans the grains as
they move over the field. Using • Shatter Loss – grains lying on the
combine, eliminates the use of grain ground or out of reach of the cutter bar.
binder, of header, and of stationary • Cutter Bar Loss – grains lost due to
thresher as well as the activity of rough handling by the cutter bar.
stacking and hauling of grains. • Cylinder Loss – grains lost over the
• Combine is well adapted for straw rack in the form of unthreshed
harvesting small grains, soybeans, heads.
grain sorghum, rice, and many others. • Separating Loss – grains lost out of the
• The reel-type combine (Western rear of the combine in the form of
design) is more popular than the threshed grain.
check-row type combine (Eastern • Cleaning Loss – loss in the value of the
design). crop due to presence of foreign matter
in the grain tank.
Types of Combine
3. Miscellaneous Factor
Combining 50 – 75%
Mowing 50 – 80%
Raking 60 – 85%
Baling 50 – 75%
Field Chopping 40 – 70%
USEFUL FORMULA
Vw = Vf / cos α K = Vk / Vf
where: k falls 1.3 to 1.4
Vw - average star wheel velocity, m/s where:
Vf - machine forward velocity, m/s K - velocity ratio
α - angle of inclination of star wheel, Vk - average knife velocity, m/s
22 deg Vf - average forward velocity, m/s
Theoretical Field Capacity Effective Field Capacity
Problem 1
A combine harvester, with 3m-wide effective width, passes the field at a speed of 4
kph. If the field efficiency of the harvester is 70%, what is its field capacity?
Given:
Width of harvester - 3m
Velocity of harvesting - 4 kph
Field efficiency - 70%
Solution:
Problem 2
A rice reaper is designed to run at a speed of 20 km per hour. What is the design
velocity of the knife of the reaper? If the reaper is 1.0 m wide, what is its
theoretical field capacity?
Given:
Speed of the reaper - 20 kph
Reaper width of cut - 1.0 m
Field efficiency - 70%
Solution:
Given:
Width of implement - 1.2 m
Velocity - 3 kph
Width effective - 1.0 m
Time lost in crossing the dike - 5 min/ha
Time lost in repair - 10 min/ha
Turning and idle time - 10% of effective operating time
Lost in removing obstruction and
clogging - 15 min/ha
Solution:
Given:
No. of row - 5
Row spacing - 30 cm
Speed of harvesting - 2 kph
Field efficiency - 70%
Specific draft - 2 kg/row
Solution:
A 6m-wide harvester is harvesting corn at 100 kg per minute. The effective width
of the machine is 90% of its width. If it runs at 2.5kph speed, what are the
effective field capacity and the harvesting rate of the machine in tons per hectare?
Assume a 70% machine field efficiency.
Given:
Width of harvester - 6m
Effective width - 90% of machine width
Harvesting rate - 100 kg per minute
Speed of harvesting - 2.5 kph
Field efficiency - 70%
Required:
Effective Field Capacity
Harvesting Rate, in ton per ha
Solution:
3. Method of grain harvesting that uses 8. Harvesting equipment that cuts the
hand tools such as scythe, sickle and panicle and binds them together for ease
others. of hauling to the threshing place.
a. Manual harvesting a. Combine
b. Mechanical harvesting b. Stripper
c. Any of a & b c. Reaper/binder
d. None of the above d. None of the above
5. Machine that cuts rice stalks and 10. Good grains shattered during the
places them on a windrow where they cutting and transporting by horizontal
are gathered and bound into sheaves and flat belts towards the discharge end is
carried to a thresher. referred to as ____.
a. laying or windrow loss
a. Scythe
b. header loss
b. Stripper harvester c. crop damage loss
c. Reaper d. All of the above
d. Combines
e. None of the above
11. Losses related to reaping include: 17. Stripper harvesting is more
a. Laying or windrow loss advantageous to use because of its ____.
b. Header loss a. simplicity and ease of construction
c. Crop damage loss
d. All of the above b. robustness of rotor
c. both a & b
12. Unrecoverable good grains that are d. None of the above
available from standing crop that has
been knocked down or damaged by the 18. Which of the following functions can
machine during cutting is referred to as be done by stripper harvesting?
____. a. Harvesting and partial threshing
a. laying or windrow loss b. Crop lifting and transport
b. header loss c. All of the above
c. crop damage loss d. None of the above
d. All of the above
13. Good grains that are shattered when 19. Mechanical harvesting equipment that
cut crops are laid from a horizontal harvests, threshes and cleans the grains as
conveyor to the ground. it moves over the field.
a. Laying or windrow loss a. Combine
b. Header loss b. Stripper
c. Crop damage loss c. Reaper/binder
d. All of the above d. None of the above
14. Ways to reduce reaper ’s harvesting 20. Harvesting equipment that eliminates
losses include: the use of grain binder, header, stationary
a. Avoid sharp turn when cutting thresher as well as stacking and hauling of
b. Reduce cutting speed when cutting grains.
shattering variety a. Reaper
c. Clear the rice panicle off the upper b. Stripper
lugs and star wheels whenever possible. c. Combine
d. All of the above d. None of the above
15. Mechanical harvesting equipment 21. An equipment that is well-adopted for
that does not cut the panicle rather strips harvesting small grains, soybeans, grain
off grains from the panicles by combing sorghum, rice, and many others.
action. a. Reaper
a. Combine b. Stripper
b. Stripper c. Combine
c. Reaper/binder d. None of the above
d. None of the above
22. Which of the following is a type of
16. Machine used for combing the grain combine harvester?
from the plant while the plant remains a. Pull-type combine
anchored to the soil. b. Self-propelled combine
a. Reaper c. All of the above
b. Stripper harvester d. None of the above
c. Combine harvester
d. All of the above
23. Machine powered by 60 to 150hp 28. Portion of a reaper comprising the
industrial engine and is operated by one mechanism for gathering crops.
person. a. Crop gatherer
a. Self-Propelled Combine b. Star wheel
b. Pull-Type Combine c. Header
c. Any of the above
d. All of the above
d. None of the above
29. Portion of a combine comprising the
24. Device at the header of a combine
mechanism for gathering, cutting and
used for severing the plant stalk.
picking the crop.
a. Cutting mechanism
a. Reel
b. Star wheel
b. Header
c. Pickup
c. Cutter
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
25. Machine drawn by a tractor and power
30. Which of the following is not a basic
is transmitted through the power-take-off
function of a combine?
shaft in the case of a smaller unit and
a. Cuts standing grains and feeds the cut
through an auxiliary engine in the case of a
grains to the cylinder.
larger unit.
b. Threshes grains from the stalk and
a. Self-propelled combine
separates them from straw.
b. Pull-type combine
c. Cleans the grains by removing the
c. Any of the above
chaffs and other foreign matters.
d. None of the above
d. None of the above
26. Revolving slats or arms, with battens
31. Device for gathering crops in the
arranged parallel to the cutter bar of a
windrow of a combine.
combine, used to hold the crop in place as
a. Header
it is being cut by the knife and to guide the
b. Pickup
crop as it is conveyed to the platform of
c. Star wheel
the feeder auger.
d. None of the above
a. Star wheel
b. Reel
32. Harvest residue discharged from the
c. Header
cleaning devices of a combine.
d. None of the above
a. Foreign matters
b. Cut straws
27. Assembly of two or more racks which
c. Chaffs
agitates the straw and separates the
d. None of the above
remaining grains from the straw.
a. Straw stripper
33. Which of the following are losses
b. Straw walker
related to combining of grains?
c. Shaker
a. Shatter, cutter bar and cylinder losses
d. None of the above
b. Separating and cleaning losses
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
34. Grains lying on the ground or out of 40. Level of moisture content of paddy
reach of the cutter bar is referred to as during dry harvest season.
____. a. 18%
a. cylinder loss b. 21%
b. cutter bar loss c. 25%
c. shatter loss d. None of the above
d. None of the above
41. A single- or double-row machine
35. Grains lost due to rough handling by equipped with snapping rolls to remove
the cutter bar is referred to as ____. corn ears from standing stalks.
a. cylinder loss a. Corn harvester
b. cutter bar loss b. Corn picker
c. shatter loss c. Both a & b
d. None of the above d. None of the above
36. Grains lost over the straw rack in the 42. Which of the following is not a type of
form of unthreshed heads is referred to as corn picker?
____. a. Snapper
a. cylinder loss b. Picker-husker
b. cleaning loss c. Picker-sheller
c. separating loss d. None of the above
d. None of the above
43. Type of corn picker that snaps the corn
37. Grains lost out of the rear of the and shells it in the field.
combine in the form of threshed grains is a. Picker-husker
referred to as ____. b. Snapper
a. cylinder loss c. Picker-sheller
b. cleaning loss d. None of the above
c. separating loss
d. None of the above 44. Corn picker equipped with a husker
attachment in addition to the snapper and
38. Loss in the value of the crop due to the also removes the husks.
presence of foreign matters in the grain a. Picker-husker
tank is referred to as ____. b. Snapper
a. cylinder loss c. Picker-sheller
b. cleaning loss d. None of the above
c. separating loss
d. None of the above 45. Type of corn picker that snaps the ears
from the stalk and does not remove the
39. Level of moisture content of paddy husks.
during wet harvest season. a. Picker-husker
a. 18% b. Snapper
b. 21% c. Picker-sheller
c. 25% d. None of the above
d. None of the above
46. What are the factors affecting the 52. Ears separated from the stalk and
performance of a corn picker? lying on the ground out of reach of the
a. Plant characteristics gathering mechanism.
b. Mechanical and miscellaneous factors a. Picker ear loss
c. All of the above b. Loose ear loss
d. None of the above c. Shelled corn loss
d. None of the above
47. Which of the following is a
characteristic of corn variety or hybrid that 53. Ears left on the ground that were
is suitable for machine harvesting? attached to the stalks but escaped the
a. Stiff stalks that stand up and do not snapping rolls while being picked up by
break over. the gathering points.
b. Large ear size to reduce shelling losses. a. Picker ear loss
c. Hard shelling characteristics b. Loose ear loss
d. All of the above c. Shelled corn loss
d. None of the above
48. Which of the following is a mechanical
factor that affects the performance of a 54. Shelled corn lying on the ground as a
corn picker? result of shelling occurring at the
a. Type of snapping roll surface snapping roll.
b. Distance adjustment of snapping rollers a. Shelled corn loss
c. Timing of snapping rollers b. Separating loss
d. All of the above
c. Shelling loss
49. Which is not a factor affecting the d. None of the above
performance of a corn picker?
a. Rate of travel 55. Corn kernel loss over rack that was
b. Type of wagon hitch not shelled from the cob.
c. Adjustment of dividers picking up stalks a. Shelled corn loss
that are down b. Separating loss
d. None of the above c. Shelling loss
d. None of the above
50. The following are miscellaneous factors
affecting the performance of a corn picker, 56. Individual corn kernels lost over the
except ____. rack that were not separated from husks,
a. toughness of the ear shanks
silks, etc.
b. timeliness of harvest
c. length of rows and row spacing a. Shelled corn loss
d. None of the above b. Separating loss
c. Shelling loss
51. Which of the following are losses d. None of the above
related to corn harvesting?
a. Loose ear and picker ear losses 57. Machine that harvests cotton by the
b. Shelled corn losses combing action of the rolling pickets.
c. Shelling and separating losses a. Cotton harvester
d. All of the above b. Cotton stripper
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
58. Which of the following is a type of 63. Machine used for gathering silage
cotton stripper? crops such as grasses or straws for feeds.
a. Double roller a. Cotton harvester
b. Multiple finger or comb-type b. Forage harvester
c. Both a & b c. Corn harvester
d. None of the above d. None of the above
59. Equipment with alternate rows of 64. Which of the following does not
nylon brush bristles and flexible rubberized describe the advantage of using field
strips which is either self-propelled or forage harvesters?
centrally-mounted on a tractor. a. Eliminates drudgery of lifting and
a. Double roller loading heavy green bundles of corn per
b. Multiple finger or comb-type hectare.
c. Both a & b b. Permits filling the silo when the crop is
d. None of the above at the right stage.
c. Provides more uniform, slid-pack
60. Equipment that is either centrally without air pockets, thus preventing
mounted on the tractor or pulled behind molds.
the tractor. d. None of the above
a. Double roller
b. Multiple finger or comb-type 65. Machine that performs harvesting
c. Both a & b and chopping green raw crops which
d. None of the above consists of a plant-cutting unit and a
chopping unit.
61. Which of the following is a factor a. Forage harvester
affecting the performance of a cotton b. Sugarcane harvester
stripper? c. Cotton harvester
a. Plant characteristics and cultural d. None of the above
practices.
b. Thickness of plants in row. 66. Machine used to dig and separate the
c. Pick-up fingers or limb lifters. roots of crops from the soil.
d. All of the above a. Sugarcane harvester
b. Root harvester
62. Which of the following is a factor not c. Citrus harvester
affecting the performance of a cotton d. None of the above
stripper?
a. Design of stripping unit 67. Common applications of a root
b. Conveying system harvester are for ____.
c. Rate of travel a. beets and peanuts
d. None of the above b. potatoes and sweet potatoes
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
68. Based on field data, percent efficiency 73. What is the effective field capacity of
of reaping/binding is ____. the machine in Item 72?
a. 60-80 % a. 0.25 ha/hr
b. 50-75 % b. 0.30 ha/hr
c. 40-70 % c. 0.35 ha/hr
d. None of the above d. None of the above
69. Percent efficiency of combining is 74. What is the time lost in turning and
____. other idle time per hectare of the reaper
a. 50-75 % in Item 72?
b. 50-80 % a. 10 min
c. 60-85 % b. 17 min
d. None of the above c. 20 min
d. None of the above
70. Based on field data, operating speed
when reaping/binding ranges from ____. 75. Prevailing custom rate in combine
a. 1.6-3.5 kph harvesting per 100 sacks of harvested and
b. 2.4-5.0 kph threshed paddy.
c. 3.0-5.0 kph a. 2 to 9 sacks
d. None of the above b. 9 to 12 sacks
c. 12 to 17 sacks
71. Operating speed when combining d. None of the above
ranges from ____.
a. 1.6-3.5 kph 76. In combine harvesting, which of the
b. 1.6-4.8 kph following sequence is true and correct?
c. 2.4-5.0 kph a. Rice panicle is threshed first before
d. None of the above standing grains are cut.
b. Standing grains are cut first before
72. During the field demonstration of a cleaning.
rice reaper with 1.2-m cutter bar, c. Standing grains are cut first and are fed
performance showed that the machine into the threshing unit to separate the
travels at 3-kph average speed. The grains from straws followed by cleaning
average width of the cutter bar actually and collection of clean threshed grains.
utilized is 1.0 m. Time lost for crossing the d. None of the above
dike is 5 min/ha and for repair is 10
min/ha. Turning and other idle time is 10% 77. Part of the combine harvester that
of the effective operating time while properly holds the standing grains against
removing field obstruction and clogging is the knife while the stalks are cut.
15 min/ha. What is the theoretical field a. Reel
capacity of the machine? b. Divider
a. 0.36 ha/hr c. Cutter bar
b. 0.25 ha/hr d. None of the above
c. 0.18 ha/hr
d. None of the above
78. Reciprocating serrated-knife of the 83. A rice reaper is designed to run at a
combine harvester that cuts the standing speed of 20 km per hour. What is the
grains. design velocity of the knife of the reaper?
a. Reel a. 7.5 m/s
b. Divider b. 9.2 m/s
c. Cutter bar c. 10.1 m/s
d. None of the above d. None of the above
79. Typical rice combine harvester in the 84. If the reaper in Item 83 is 1.0m wide,
Philippines is powered by ____hp diesel what is its theoretical field capacity?
engine. a. 1.5 ha/hr
a. 40 b. 2.0 ha/hr
b. 60 c. 2.5 ha/hr
c. 100 d. None of the above
d. None of the above
85. What is the effective field capacity of
80. Diesel fuel consumption of typical the reaper in Items 83 if the field
rice combine harvester being used in the efficiency is 70%?
Philippines. a. 1.4 ha/hr
a. 10 liters per hour b. 1.6 ha/hr
b. 15 liters per hour c. 1.9 ha/hr
c. 20 liters per hour d. None of the above
d. None of the above
86. A five-row reaper, with 30cm-spacing
81. A combine harvester, with 3meter- per row, is harvesting at a speed of 2 kph.
wide effective width, passes the field at a The field efficiency of the reaper is 70%.
speed of 4 kph. What is the theoretical If the specific draft of the machine is 2 kg
field capacity of the harvester? per row, what is the power output of the
a. 1.2 ha/hr reaper?
b. 1.4 ha/hr a. 5.56 hp
c. 1.6 ha/hr b. 6.55 hp
d. None of the above c. 7.12 hp
d. None of the above
82. If the field efficiency of the harvester
In Item 81 is 70%, what is its field 87. What is the theoretical field capacity
capacity? of the reaper I Item 86?
a. 0.81 ha/hr a. 0.30 ha/hr
b. 0.84 ha/hr b. 0.43 ha/hr
c. 0.87 ha/hr c. 0.49 ha/hr
d. None of the above d. None of the above
88. What is the effective field capacity of
the reaper Item 86?
a. 0.18 ha/hr
b. 0.20 ha/hr
c. 0.21 ha/hr
d. None of the above
Methods of Threshing
Classifications of Thresher
Classifications of Through Flow
A. According to Operation
• Single Cylinder – Type of thresher which
consists of only one threshing cylinder.
1. Through Flow – Machine whereby
• Double Cylinder – Type of thresher
harvested products are threshed while
which consists of two cylinders
the cut plants are wholly fed into the
arranged in series or one after the
machine through an opening
other.
perpendicular to the cylinder and
directed to an outlet which is also
perpendicular to it. Usually the
diameter-to-length ratio of the
threshing cylinder is 1.
Hold-On Thresher – Mechanical thresher
wherein during the operation, the stalks
are held mechanically by the operator
until all the grains are detached from the
panicle.
Mobile Axial-Flow
Thresher
Self-Propelled Axial-Flow
Thresher
Typical Conventional Rasp Bar Cylinder
Settings for Various Crops
Crop Peripheral Clearance Clearance
Speed Front Rear (mm)
(m/s) (mm)
Barley 27-34 10-18 3-10
Beans 7-20 20-35 10-18
Maize 10-20 25-30 15-20
Oats 27-35 12-20 3-10
Peas 7-18 20-30 10-18
Rapeseed 15-24 20-30 10-20
Rye 25-35 12-20 3-10
Rice 20-30 14-18 3-6
Wheat 24-35 12-20 4-10
Testing Thresher
• Quantity to be dried
• Drying rate required
• Weather conditions
• Economics
Types of Mechanical Crop Dryer
Batch-In-Bin, Small 50
Batch-In-Bin, Large 23
Continuous-Flow, Large 60 - 80
SAMPLE FORMULA
Wi – Wf 60 (h2-h1) AR
DR = -------------- Qsd = ------------------------
Td γ
where: where:
DR - drying rate, kg/hr Qsd - heat supplied to the dryer, KJ/hr
Wi - initial weight, kg H2 - enthalpy of drying air, KJ/kg da
Wf - final weight, kg H1 - enthalpy of ambient air, KJ/kg da
Td - drying time, hr AR - airflow rate, m 3/min
γ - specific volume, m 3/kg da
Moisture Reduction Rate Heat System Efficiency
Problem 1
Given:
Initial moisture content - 20%
Final moisture content - 14%
Drying Time - 10 hours
Solution:
Problem 2
If the amount of heat used in removing the moisture from the grains in a
continuous-flow dryer is 3000 kJ/hr, what is the heat utilization efficiency of the
dryer if the burner uses 6000 kJ/hr of fuel?
Given:
Heat utilized - 3000 kJ/hr
Heat supplied - 6000 kJ/hr
Solution:
Given:
Capacity of the bin - 2 tons
Drying time - 10 hours
Initial MC - 20%
Final MC - 14 %
A 2ton mechanical dryer dries paddy from 24 to 14% in 8 hours. What is the final
weight of the product after drying?
Given:
Capacity - 2 tons
MCi - 24%
MCf - 14%
Time - 8 hrs
Solution:
Wf = Wi (1-MCi) / (1 – MCf)
= 2 tons (1-0.24) / (1-0.14)
= 1.767 tons
Problem 5
Given:
MC initial - 24 %
MC final - 14 %
Drying time - 8 hrs
Solution:
Given:
Wt initial - 2 tons
Drying time - 8 hrs
Solution:
Cd = Wi / Td
= 2 tons / 8 hrs
= 0.25 ton / hr
Problem 7
Still referring to Problem 4, what is the rate of moisture reduction per hour?
Given:
Wt initial - 2 tons
Wt final - 1.767 tons
Drying time - 8 hrs
Solution:
35. Air chamber maintained under 40. Fan used for a mechanical dryer is
pressure and is usually connected to one a/an ____ type.
or more distribution ducts in a drying a. axial
system. b. vane-axial
a. Drying bin c. tube-axial
b. Plenum chamber d. All of the above
c. Air duct
d. None of the above 41. Pressure build-up in the plenum
chamber of the dryer which maintains
36. Blower used for a mechanical dryer is uniform distribution of air flow through
a ____ type. the grain mass.
a. radial a. Velocity pressure
b. backward- or forward-curved b. Static pressure
c. mixed flow c. Dynamic pressure
d. Any of the above d. Any combination of the above
42. Which of the following biomass 48. Minimum heating efficiency
cannot be used as fuel for a dryer? requirement for a direct-fired biomass-
a. Rice husks fueled grain dryer.
b. Corn cobs a. 75%
c. Sugar bagasse b. 65%
d. None of the above c. 50%
d. None of the above
43. Which of the following is a drying
parameter? 49. Minimum heat utilization efficiency
a. Bin size and air flow rate requirement for a direct-fired petroleum-
b. Drying air temperature based fuel mechanical dryer, based on
c. All of the above the standard performance criteria .
d. None of the above a. 90%
b. 80%
44. Volume of air, in cubic meters, c. 70%
delivered to the product per unit time, in d. None of the above
minutes.
a. Drying air temperature 50. Suggested drying temperature for
b. Bin size sliced fruits as well as for split and whole
c. Airflow rate fish is ____, respectively.
d. None of the above a. 43°-50°C and 60°-70°C
b. 55°-57°C and 60°-70°C
45. Minimum drying efficiency c. 60°-70°C and 60°-70°C
requirement based on the standard d. None of the above
performance criteria for mechanical
dryers. 51. Ratio of the total heat utilized for
a. 90% drying to the heat available in the fuel,
b. 75% expressed in percent.
c. 50% a. Furnace/Burner Efficiency
d. None of the above b. Combustion Efficiency
c. Dryer Efficiency
46. Minimum heating efficiency d. All of the above
requirement for a direct-fired biomass-
fueled grain dryer. 52. Mechanical grain dryer wherein
a. 75% grains pass intermittently in cycles or in
b. 65% stages through a drying chamber either
c. 50% by mechanical means or by gravity with
d. None of the above subsequent cooling and tempering until
the grains reach the desired moisture
47. Typical power requirement of a 6ton content.
flat-bed dryer. a. Batch-In Bin Dryer
a. 7-hp electric motor b. Multi-Pass Dryer
b. 5-hp electric motor c. Recirculating Dryer
c. 3-hp electric motor d. All of the above
d. None of the above
53. Ratio of the heat supplied to the heat 59. Ratio of the total heat requirement to
available, expressed in percent. the heat supplied by the burner.
a. Burner efficiency a. Burner efficiency
b. Heating efficiency b. Heating efficiency
c. Heat utilization efficiency c. Heat utilization efficiency
d. None of the above d. None of the above
54. Rate of moisture removal from the 60. Total amount of heat utilized to
product. vaporize moisture in the material,
a. Drying efficiency expressed in kJ/kg of H2 O.
b. Drying rate a. Moisture reduction
c. Heating efficiency b. Heat utilization
d. None of the above c. Fuel consumption
d. All of the above
55. Amount of water removed from the
product per unit of time, expressed in 61. Axial fan of a flat-bed dryer is driven
kilogram per hour. by a 10-hp diesel engine. If gasoline
a. Moisture reduction engine will be used to drive the fan
b. Drying rate instead of diesel engine, what would be
c. Moisture removal rate the size of the gasoline engine?
d. All of the above a. 9.5 hp
b. 10 .2 hp
56. Recommended drying rate for a c. 11.1 hp
conduction-type rotary dryer is ____. d. None of the above
a. up to 8% per pass
b. up to 10% per pass 62. Continuous-flow dryer in which the
c. up to 15% per pass drying bin is similar to columnar drying
d. None of the above bin except that it includes louvers causing
mixing to occur as the grains flow through
57. Ratio of the average percent moisture the system.
content removed from the grain, to a. Mixing Type
drying time, expressed in percent per b. Stirring Type
hour c. Rotating Type
a. Moisture reduction d. All of the above
b. Heat utilization
c. Fuel consumption 63. A dryer in which the material being
d. All of the above dried moves through the drying chamber
and is subsequently discharged without
58. A 45°C drying temperature is equal to being recirculated.
____. a. Moving-Bed Type
a. 113°F b. Flow-through Type
b. 131°F c. Continuous Type
c. 121°F d. All of the above
d. None of the above
64. Continuous-type intermittent dryer 69. Continuous-flow dryer in which grains
basically consists of ____. in the drying bin flow through the column
a. a series of dryers in a straight path.
b. a drying and series of temporary a. Columnar Type
holding bins b. Non-Mixing Type
c. a holding bins c. Non-Stirring Type
d. All of the above d. All of the above
Milling Process
3 300 – 350
4 400 – 600
6 850 – 900
8 950 – 100
10 1500 – 2000
Bran Removal • Horizontal Abrasive Whitener - More
compact than the vertical abrasive
• Vertical Abrasive Whitener - whitener. It consists of an abrasive roll
Dehusked paddy enters the top center (emery stone to steel shaft) operating
and moves outward by centrifugal in a cylindrical metal perforated screen
force to the edge of metal cone. The mounted horizontally. Brown rice
cone has abrasive surface and turn enter at one end and discharges at the
inside a cylinder covered with screen. other end. Bran removal is
Clearance between the cone and accomplished similar to the vertical
screen is adjusted at 10 mm by raising abrasive whitener.
and lowering the cone. Vertical rubber
brakes (30 to 50mm wide) is placed at • Horizontal Friction Whitener - Often
an interval around the cone. Abrasive called jet or pneumatic pearler. Each
action takes place on brown rice as it machine uses a friction process in
moves down between the cone and which the bran is peeled off by friction
the screen. Peripheral speed of the of the rice grains. Steel hullers are also
cone is about 13 m/sec. Air aspiration used as friction-type whitener. Air is
through the whitener reduces used to remove bran.
breakage caused by heating and keeps
the dust out of the mill. • Rice Polishers - Sometimes called
pearlers or refiners to make the rice
more glossy and highly polished. They
are made of vertical or horizontal
abrasive whitener wherein cones are
covered with leather strips and
operated at lower rpm. The leather
strips roll the whitened rice against the
screen which make the remaining bran
to be removed and rice become shinier
and glossier. The machine produces
few broken grains and power
Air Quantities consumption is lesser than by 30 to
40% than that of the whitener.
Cone Size (mm) Air Quantities
(m3 /min)
500 8 Grading Equipment
600 10
800 12 • Vibrating or rotary sieves - used for
1000 15
separating small grains
• Trieurs, rotating cylinder, or drum
1250 20
grader - used for large broke grains
1500 20
Terminologies Milling Degree - extent or degree by which
the bran covering of the brown rice is
Abrasive-Type Whitener - consists of an removed as result of the whitening
abrasive-coated cylinder or cone which process.
rotates inside a perforated steel housing. Head Milled Rice - percentage mass of
head milled rice recovered from the mass
Frictional-Type Whitener - consists of a of the corresponding input paddy to the
fluted roller rotating inside a hexagonal rice whitener.
chamber with slot-type perforations. Head Milled Rice Recovery Index - ratio of
the head milled rice recovery from the test
Maximum Input Capacity - maximum rice mill to that from the laboratory
quantity of paddy that the rice mill can whitener.
process to a specified quality over a Percentage Broken Milled Rice -
given period, expressed in kg/h. percentage of milled rice grains measuring
less than ¾ the size of its full head rice
Output Capacity - mass of milled rice per from the mass of the corresponding input
unit of milling time, expressed in kg/h. paddy to the rice husker then to the
whitener.
Coefficient of Husking - ratio of the mass Broken Milled Rice Index - ratio of the
of brown rice to the total mass of paddy percentage broken milled rice recovery
input to the husker. from the test rice mill to that from the
laboratory whitener.
Coefficient of Wholeness - ratio of the
Total Milling Recovery - percentage total
mass of head brown rice grain to the mass of milled rice (head and broken rice)
total mass of brown rice (head broken) to the mass of the corresponding input
produced by the husker. paddy to the rice mill (husker or huller and
whitener).
Husking Efficiency - product of
Total Milling Recovery Index - ratio of the
coefficient of husking and the coefficient
milling recovery from the test rice mill to
of wholeness. that from the laboratory whitener.
Ch = W br / W p Cw = W wbr / W br
where: where:
Ch - hulling coefficient, dec Cw - wholeness coefficient, dec
W br - weight of brown rice, g W wbr - weight of whole brown rice, g
W p - weight of paddy, g W br - weight of brown rice, g
Hulling Efficiency Percentage Brown Rice Recovery
Vp = 𝝅 D N / 60
Where:
Vp - rubber roll huller peripheral velocity,
m/s
D - diameter of rubber roll, m
N - speed of rubber roll, rpm
SAMPLE PROBLEM
Problem 1
A single-pass rice mill was tested for 30 min. and gave the following results: input
paddy, 1000 kg; milled rice produced, 650 kg; broken rice produced, 150 kg; and
weight of head rice, 200 kg. Compute the following: (a) Throughput capacity, (b) %
Milling recovery, (c) % Broken grains, and (d) % Head rice recovery.
Given:
Wp - 1000 kg
W mr - 650 kg
W hr - 500 kg
W br - 150 kg
Time - 30 min.
Solution:
Throughput Capacity = Wp x MR / To
= 650 / 30 min/60 min/hr
= 1300 kg milled rice per hr
Five tons of paddy milled in 6 hours produces 3950 kg of brown rice and 3250 kg of
milled rice. What is the milling recovery?
Given:
Wt of paddy - 5 tons
Milling time - 6 hrs
Wt of brown rice - 3950 kg
Wt of milled rice - 3250 kg
Solution:
Problem 3
Given:
Weight of brown rice - 3950 kg
Weight of paddy - 5000 kg
Solution:
Given:
Weight of paddy - 1000 kg
Operating time - 2 hrs
Weight of brown rice - 805 kg
Weight of whole brown rice - 900 g per
kg of brown rice
Required:
Hulling Coefficient, Wholeness Coefficient,
Husking Efficiency, and Throughput Rate
Solution:
A disk huller with 600mm diameter will be installed as a return huller for a rice
milling plant. As an Agricultural Engineer, determine the diameter of the pulley
required for the huller. The motor for the huller will have 4in.-diameter pulley and
is expected to run at 1740 rpm.
Given:
Diameter of huller - 600 mm
Motor pulley - 4 in.
Motor speed - 1740 rpm
Required: Huller Pulley Diameter
Solution:
Huller rpm = (14 m/s ) (60 s/min) /[ 3.14 (0.6 m)]
= 445.8 rpm
Huller Pulley D = 4 in. (1740 rpm) / 445.8 rpm
= 15.6 in. use 16 in.
REFERENCES
2. Extent by which the bran layer of the 8. Fraction of grain with its length equal
brown rice is removed as a result of to or greater than an average of three-
whitening. fourths.
a. Milling degree a. Large broken grain
b. Degree of whitening b. Small broken grain
c. Milling recovery c. Head grain
d. All of the above d. None of the above
9. Minimum hulling efficiency
3. Machine that converts paddy to milled requirement for rice mill, based on
rice. standard performance criterion.
a. Paddy husker a. 90%
b. Rice whitener b. 80%
c. Rice mill c. 70%
d. All of the above d. None of the above
4. Kind of rice mill that employs only one 10. If five tons of paddy is milled in 6
whitening machine. hours produces 3950 kg of brown rice
a. “Kiskisan” rice mill and 3250 kg of milled rice, what is the
b. Single-pass rice mill milling recovery?
c. Rubber-roll rice mill a. 60%
d. None of the above b. 65%
c. 70%
5. Ratio of the weight of milled rice to the d. None of the above
weight of paddy multiplied by one 11. Referring to Item 10, what is the
hundred. hulling coefficient of the huller?
a. Percentage head rice recovery a. 0.79
b. Percentage milling recovery b. 0.89
c. Percentage milling capacity c. 0.99
d. None of the above d. None of the above
a. Fixed Hammer
b. Swinging Hammer
Hammer Mill
Batch Mixer
Continuous Mixer
19. A feed mixer characterized by high 24. The type of mixer suitable for
capacity, short mixing time, and high moderate to small operation in
power requirement. which overhead cost is low and
a. Horizontal mixer labor cost is not critical.
b. Inclined mixer a. Batch-type mixer
c. Vertical mixer b. Semi-continuous-type mixer
d. All of the above c. Continuous-type mixer
d. None of the above
20. Horizontal feed mixer is not
advantageous for feed mixing as
compared with vertical feed mixer for
the reason that ___.
a. it has lower capacity
b. it has high power requirement
c. it has shorter life span
d. None of the above
Classifications:
a. Precision-Cut
b. Semi-precision Cut
c. Random Cut
a. Cylinder cutterhead
b. Flywheel cutterhead
a. Let-fall type
b. Throw-away
c. Blow-up type
Rice Straw
According to Feeding Mechanism According Chopping Mechanism
Wi - Wuc Wus + Wp
ξc = ---------------- x 100 A(Ubm) = ---------------- x To
Wi Tc
where: where:
ξc - chopping efficiency, kg/h A(Ubm) - amount of unshredded biomass, kg
Wuc - weight of uncut materials, kg Wus - weight of unshredded biomass
Wi - weight of input materials, kg materials, kg
Wps - weight of partially shredded biomass
materials, kg
Tc - collection time of sample from
output chute, hr
Percent Unshredded Biomass Material Shredding Efficiency
1. Size reduction machine either power- 6. Machine used to cut biomass materials
or manually-operated which is used to cut into strips.
or slice root crops or banana into small a. Biomass stripper
thin pieces called chips. b. Biomass chopper
a. Shredder c. Biomass shredder
b. Slicer d. All of the above
c. Chipper
d. All of the above 7. Machine used to cut the crop into
short parallel lengths.
2. Amount of material that can be a. Chopper
processed by a chipping machine per unit b. Slicer
time. c. Cutter
a. Chipping throughput rate d. All of the above
b. Chipping capacity
c. Chipping efficiency 8. Forage chopper which uses a feeding
d. All of the above mechanism consisting of four or more
feed rolls to partially orient and advance
3. Device intended to slice the crop into the crop at a consistent rate into the
chips with reasonable consistency within a cutting mechanism.
range of optional settings. a. Precision-cut forage chopper
a. Cutter-head b. Random cut forage chopper
b. Chipping plate c. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper
c. Chipping disc d. None of the above
d. All of the above
9. Forage chopper which uses a feeding
4. Type of a chipper where knives on mechanism consisting of two feed rolls, or
cylindrical mountings are parallel with the other means such as an auger, to advance
axis of rotation of the cutter-head. the crop to the cutting mechanism.
a. Flywheel type a. Precision-cut forage chopper
b. Disc type b. Random cut forage chopper
c. Drum type c. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper
d. All of the above d. None of the above
5. Type of chipping machine with knives 10. Forage chopper without a distinct
mounted radially with the cutting edges feeding mechanism, usually employing
that are in perpendicular to the axis of flails to impact cut and chop crop directly
rotation of the cutter-head. into shorter pieces.
a. Flywheel type a. Precision-cut forage chopper
b. Disc type b. Random cut forage chopper
c. Drum type c. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper
d. All of the above d. None of the above
11. Type of forage chopper usually 16. Type of forage chopper where the
produces the longest mean particle chopped materials are dropped down the
lengths and the least uniformly bottom of the machine.
cut particles. a. Front-fall type
a. Precision-cut forage chopper b. Let-fall type
b. Random cut forage chopper c. Blow-up type
c. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper d. None of the above
d. None of the above
17. Type of forage chopper where the
12. Type of forage chopper where the chopped materials are forced by air-blast
mean particle lengths and particle through the duct or pipe outlet.
uniformity are intermediate between a. Front-fall type
those obtained with precision-cut and b. Let-fall type
random-cut forage choppers. c. Blow-up type
a. Precision-cut forage chopper d. None of the above
b. Random cut forage chopper
c. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper 18. Cylindrical roll generally with
d. None of the above protrusions or flutes used to gather,
compress and advance the crop into the
13. Type of forage chopper that is cutter-head.
capable of producing the shortest and a. Feed roll
most uniformly-cut particles. b. Crop roll gatherer
a. Precision-cut forage chopper c. Roller
b. Random cut forage chopper d. None of the above
c. Semi-precision-cut forage chopper
d. None of the above 19. Ratio of the weight of the fresh
chopped materials collected at all outlets
14. Fixed support providing a stationary to the total fresh weight of the input of
edge against which the cutter-head the chopper, expressed in percent.
knives shear the crop. a. Chipping efficiency
a. Shear bar b. Chopping efficiency
b. Shear plate c. Chopping index
c. Shear disc d. All of the above
d. All of the above
20. Machine used to crush matured
15. Type of forage chopper where the coconut husk through impact or beating
chopped materials are thrown away to action to separate coco fiber and coconut
the front area of the machine. peat from the husk.
a. Throw-away type a. Coconut crusher
b. Front-throw type b. Coconut mill
c. Outlet-throw type c. Coconut coir decorticator
d. None of the above d. All of the above
21. Part of the forage chopper where the 26. Ratio of fresh weight of fiber
forage to be chopped is loaded. extracted and the total fresh weight of
a. Feed tray input abaca tuxies to the abaca stripper,
b. Crop table expressed in percent.
c. Feeding table a. Potential fiber recovery
d. All of the above b. Product recovery
c. Fiber extraction recovery
22. Ratio of the weight of the input d. None of the above
coconut husk partially and totally
undecorticated coconut husk to the total 27. Mechanical device used for
weight of the input coconut husk to the extracting fibers by crushing, beating and
decorticator, expressed in percent. scraping actions effected by the rotating
a. Crushing efficiency cylinder with equally-spaced blades and
b. Decorticating efficiency breaker or scraper block.
c. Milling efficiency a. Fiber decorticator
d. All of the above b. Fiber crusher
c. Fiber shredder
23. Mechanical device used for extracting d. All of the above
primary fibers from abaca by scraping
action from blade and stripping block. 28. Part of the decorticator where raw
a. Abaca stripper materials are beaten up and crushed.
b. Abaca fiber decorticating machine a. Scraper block
c. Abaca fiber making machine b. Cutter-head
d. All of the above c. Shear bar
d. None of the above
24. Ratio of the total dry weight
(moisture content of 14%) of the fiber 29. Outside diameter generated by the
extracted to the potential fiber content outermost point of the cylinder
of abaca tuxies, expressed in percent. decorticating elements.
a. Extraction efficiency a. Effective cylinder diameter
b. Fiber efficiency b. Actual cylinder diameter
c. Stripping efficiency c. Rated cylinder diameter
d. All of the above d. All of the above
Applications
Power Drive for Water Pumps • Rotary – uses gears, vanes, lobe, or
screw to trap and convey fluid from inlet
• Electric motor to the outlet of the pump.
• Gasoline engine • Reciprocating – uses the back-and-forth
• Diesel engine motion of mechanical parts such as
• Human piston or diaphragms to pressurize the
• Animal fluid.
• Solar • Centrifugal – uses the centrifugal force
• Wind imparted to the fluid by one or more
rotating elements called impellers to
increase the kinetic energy and pressure
energy of the fluid.
Types of Pump Commonly Used for Types of Impeller for Centrifugal Pumps
Pumping Irrigation Water
• Open – used to pump water with
• Centrifugal Pump – pump with considerable amount of small solids.
impellers rotating inside a closed • Semi-Open or Semi-Enclosed – used to
casing which draws water into the pump water having some amount of
pump through a central inlet opening suspended sediments.
and forces water out through a • Enclosed – designed to pump clear
discharge outlet at the periphery of water.
the housing by means of centrifugal
force.
Types of Suction Inlet for Centrifugal
• Diffuser Pump – centrifugal pump Pumps
wherein the impeller is surrounded by
diffuser vanes. The diffuser vanes • Single-Action – has an impeller which
have small openings near the impeller has suction cavity on one side only.
and enlarge gradually to their outer • Double Action – has an impeller which
diameter where the water flows into has suction cavity on both sides.
the chamber and around to the pump
discharge. This is sometimes called a
turbine pump. Axis of Rotation of Centrifugal Pumps
N1 /N2 = q1 /q2 N1 2 / N2 2 = H1 / H2
where: where:
N1 - pump speed, rpm N1 - pump speed, rpm
N2 - pump speed, rpm N2 - pump speed, rpm
q1 - pump capacity, gpm H1 - pump head, ft
q2 - pump capacity, gpm H2 - pump head, ft
Speed vs Power
N1 3 / N2 3 = Hp1 / Hp2
where:
N1 - pump speed, rpm
N2 - pump speed, rpm
Hp1 - pump head, ft
Hp2 - pump head, ft
SAMPLE PROBLEMS
Problem 1
Given:
Pumping rate - 1000 gpm
Pumping head - 150 ft
Pump efficiency - 70%
Friction and other loss - 20% of the static head
Solution:
Problem 2
If a diesel engine will be used to drive the pump in Problem 1, what is the
recommended horsepower for the engine? Engine efficiency is 80%.
Given:
Pump horsepower - 64.8 hp
Engine efficiency - 80%
Solution:
EHP = PHP / ξe
= 64.8 hp / 0.80
= 80.9 hp
Problem 3
Compute the friction head from a 6m-depth suction pipe of a centrifugal pump
which discharges 0.012 m3 /sec of water. The pipe nominal diameter is 4 inches.
Given:
Length of pipe - 6 m
Discharge - 0.012 m3 /sec
Pipe diameter - 4 in.
Solution:
L x Q2
Hf = k
C2 x D 2
6 m x (0.012 m3 /sec)2
= 10
(1.0)2 x (4 in. x 2.54 cm/in. x m/100 cm)2
= 0.864 m
Problem 4
A pump was installed with 6m suction head and 10m discharge head. Its discharge
rate is 60 liters per minute. What is its water horsepower?
Given:
Suction head - 6 m
Discharge head - 10 m
Discharge rate - 60 lpm
Solution:
Given:
Pump discharge - 4 lps
Head - 6m
Input current - 1.5 amp
Input voltage - 220 volt
Power factor - 0.98
Required: Pump Overall Efficiency
Solution:
WHP = TDH x Q / 102
= (6 m) x ( 4 lps) / 102
= 0.235 kW
IP = V x I x cos θ
= 220 volt x 1.5 amp x 0.98
= 0.323 kW
ξp = (WHP / IP) x 100
= (0.235 kW / 0.323 kW) x 100
= 72.7 %
Problem 6
A pump was tested for flow rate measurement using a 90-degree triangular weir.
Tests have shown that the head of water into the weir averages at 13 cm. What is
the average rate of flow of the pump?
Given:
Machine - pump
Test rig - 90 deg triangular weir
Ave head reading - 15 cm
Required: Pump Flow Rate
Solution:
Q = 0.0138 H 5/2
= 0.0138 x (15 cm) 5/2
= 12.02 lps
Problem 7
At 1200 rpm, a rotary pump is used to deliver water at 6m head. The rate of flow of
the pump is 0.01 m3 /sec. What is the fluid and brake horsepower of the pump shaft
if it has a 75% efficiency? What is the motor horsepower if the transmission and
motor efficiencies are 91% and 99%, respectively?
Given:
Flow rate - 0.1 m3 /s
Total head - 6m
Specific gravity of milk - 1.1
Pump efficiency - 75%
Transmission efficiency - 91%
Motor Efficiency - 99%
Solution:
FHP = QH γ
= (0.1 m3 /s ) ( 6 m ) (1.1 x 1000 kg/m3 )
= 76.2 kg-m/sec-hp
= 0.87 hp
BHP = FHP / ξp
= 0.87 hp / 0.75
= 1.16 hp
What will be the flow rate, the working head, and the power requirement of the
pump system in Problem 7 if its speed is increased to 2100 rpm?
Given:
Speed1 - 1200 rpm
Flow rate - 0.1 m3 /s
Head1 - 6m
Horsepower 1 - 0.87 hp
Speed2 - 2100 rpm
Solution:
Q2 = (N2 /N1 ) x Q1
= (2100 rpm/1200 rpm) 0.1m3 /s
= 0.0175 m3 /s
H2 = (N2 /N1 )2 x H1
= (2100 rpm/1200 rpm)2 x 6 m
= 18.4 m
Given:
Pump diameter -
4 in.
Pump stroke -
6 in.
Lifting height -
20 ft
Delivery height -
12 ft
Pump speed -
10 lifting stroke
per min
Volumetric efficiency - 90%
Mechanical efficiency - 80%
Operating efficiency - 70%
Required:
Pump Capacity
Power to Lift
Time to Fill the Tank
Solution:
Given:
No. of broilers - 10,000 heads
Hs - 20 ft
Hd - 30 ft
SWR - 0.025 m3 /day-chicken
Friction Head - 20% of the Hs & Hd
Operating time - 20 hr per day
Required:
Pump Flow Rate
Total Head
Water Hp, Brake Hp and Motor Hp
Solution:
Required:
Pump Capacity, Total Head Loss
Water Hp, Brake Hp, & Motor Hp
Solution:
Irrigation Requirement = (10 mm/da + 2 mm/day)/(1000 mm/m) 50,000 m2
= 600 m3 /day
Diversion Requirement = (600 m3 /day ) 1.1 = 660 m3 /day
69. Throughput capacity of an STW pump in 74. What will be the working head of
rice irrigation. the pump above? (Problem 8)
a. 5 lps for 24 hours per ha a. 17.4 m
b. 10 lps for 24 hours per ha b. 18.4 m
c. 15 lps for 24 hours per ha c. 19.3 m
d. None of the above d. None of the above
75. What is the horsepower
requirement of the pump above?
(Problem 8)
a. 3.56 hp
b. 4.01 hp
c. 4.66 hp
d. None of the above
Ease of Operation
n Many implements that look well are
fond to require an unnecessary
amount of power and labor to make
them operate successfully.
n A dealer who is a good one will usually
take the machine out, have the farmer
go along, make necessary adjustments
and see that the machine is running
perfectly before turning it over to the
farmer.
Adaptability to Work and Conditions Comfort
2. Which of the following is not covered 6. After 4 months of continuous use, the
under warranty of agricultural machines? pillow-block bearing of a brand new rice
a. Accidental or natural disaster. thresher was heavily worn out. As an
b. Improper operation and maintenance Agricultural Engineer, what would you
of the machine. advise to the farmer-owner?
c. Unauthorized repair and/or use of a. Bring the bearing to the manufacturer
non-genuine parts. of the thresher for replacement .
d. All of the above b. Buy a new bearing and replace it.
e. None of the above c. Ask the manufacturer to pay for the
bearing unit.
3. Based on the Philippine Agricultural d. None of the above
Engineers Standard (PAES), warranty for
parts and services of a heated-air 7. The handle of a power tiller was
mechanical grain dryer is within ____ detached from the main frame assembly
after the acceptance of the machine by due to a tremendous lateral load during
the buyer. plowing. The machine was purchased 4
a. 12 months months ago from a nearby manufacturer.
b. 18 months What would you recommend to the
c. 24 months farmer?
d. None of the above a. Buy new handle and replace the old
one.
4. According to PAES, warranty for the b. Consult the manufacturer and request
construction and durability of mechanical for replacement of the handle.
rice thresher shall be within ____ after c. Bring a welding machine and weld the
the purchase of the machine. handle to the frame of the power tiller.
a. 6 months d. None of the above
b. 12 months
c. 18 months
d. None of the above
8. Assurance of the quality of materials
and of workmanship of the product
offered for sale or the length of
satisfactory use expected from a product
under normal use.
a. After-sales service
b. Warranty
c. Insurance
d. None of the above
XX. SAFETY IN AGRICULTURAL MACHINES
n Power-driven implement.
• Ensure all guards are in place,
• Do not make adjustments on moving
parts or clear blockages while the
machine is running,
• Always disengage the PTO drive
when work ceases even if only
temporarily, and
• Even when the PTO is disengaged, it
is safer to stop the tractor engine
before working on the machine.
1. A safety gray color at the ASABE safety 5. Protective device which is usually
code is used for ____. made of rail, fence or frame to keep
a. floors or work areas around dangerous parts of a machine out of
machines and equipment reach inadvertently.
b. traffic and housekeeping areas a. Shield
c. areas with radiation hazard b. Casing
d. All of the above c. Enclosure
d. None of the above
2. When pipeline is painted with green
and white color, it indicates that the pipe 6. Protective device designed and fitted
contains ____. to prevent dangerous parts of a machine
a. liquid of inherently low hazard from being reached from the side.
b. fire extinguishing materials a. Shield
c. flammable or explosive materials b. Casing
d. All of the above c. Enclosure
d. None of the above
3. The ASABE classification for slow-
moving vehicles such as animal-drawn or 7. Protective device designed and fitted
motorized conveyance, including to prevent dangerous parts of a machine
implements in tow, should not exceed from being reached from all sides.
____ travel speed. a. Shield
a. 30 kph b. Casing
b. 40 kph c. Enclosure
c. 50 kph d. None of the above
d. None of the above
8. In ASABE’s safety code for laboratory
4. For safety purposes, slow-moving equipment and typical applications, the
vehicles such as agricultural machines safety yellow color stands for ____.
must be provided with ____. a. danger stop
a. rear bumper to protect the machine b. warning
from impact c. caution
b. identification emblem to guide d. None of the above
motorists that the machine is slow
moving
c. signal light when travelling
d. None of the above
XXI. PRODUCTION AND OPERATING COSTS OF
OF AGRICULTURAL MACHINES
• Undiscounted Method - does not Labor Cost – cost incurred for the wage of
consider timing of cost and benefit flows labor in operating the machine based on
and the changing value of money over the 8-hour rate. For owner operator,
time. labor cost is determined from alternative
opportunities for use of time. This cost
varies depending on the prevailing cost of
Terminology labor in a certain area.
Cost Factors – total costs incurred in using Machine Custom Cost – amount paid for
the machine which include charges for hiring the equipment and operator
ownership and operation. services to perform a certain task.
• Fixed Cost – ownership cost that is
independent of use. Operating cost – cost incurred associated
• Variable Cost – cost associated with the with operating the machine which
operation of the machine, which vary includes labor, fuel, lubrication, and
directly with the amount of use. repair and maintenance costs.
Ownership Cost –cost which do not Specific Fuel Consumption – fuel
depend on the amount of use of the consumed by an engine to deliver a given
machine. It includes depreciation, amount of energy.
interest on investment, taxes, insurance,
and storage. Repair – restoration of a machine to
operative condition after breakdown,
Lease – contract for the use of a machine excessive wear, or accidental damage.
for an agreed period of time in return for
periodic payment. The ownership
remains with the lessor and the lessee Commonly Used Parameters in Analyzing
acquire the right of temporary possession the Economics of Agricultural Machines
and use of the machine.
1. Production Cost Analysis – How much
Obsolete – condition of a machine when is the cost to produce a certain
it is out of production and parts to repair agricultural machine?
and update it are not available from
normal suppliers, or it can be replaced by 2. Operating Cost analysis – How much is
other machine or method that will the cost to operate the machine?
produce a greater profit.
3. Payback Period – How long the
Price – market value per unit of a investment on the machine can be
machine. recovered?
Rent – short-term contract for the use of 4. Benefit-Cost Ratio – How much benefit
machinery in exchange for a fee. can be derived per unit investment on
the machine?
Gross – return for sale of product and the
value received for a service or product 5. Return on Investment – How many
before expenses are deducted. percent can be derived from the
investment of the machine?
Net – return for sale of a service or
product and the value received for a 6. Internal Rate of Return
service or product less all expenses
except income taxes.
Total 19,756.00
B. Standard Materials
10 pcs Hexagonal, bolt, nut, & washer 20mm x 2 in. 2.50/pc 25.00
Total 21,939.80
C. Consumables
10 kg Welding Rod 6013 110.00/kg 1,100.00
Total 2,460.00
6. Cost associated with the use of a 11. Amount charged for a unit of
machine. machines based on manufacturing cost
a. Operating cost plus tax payable, and incorporating a
b. Rental cost certain percentage for mark-up.
c. Custom cost a. Investment cost
d. All of the b. Administrative cost
c. Selling price
d. None of the above
12. Sum of the production cost, selling, 17. Internal rate of return of a project is
and administrative cost. analyzed to see whether it is viable or not.
a. Production cost Based on this, which of the statements
b. Overhead cost below is true?
c. Manufacturing cost a. The higher the internal rate of return,
d. None of the above the more viable is the project.
b. The lower the internal rate of return,
13. Itemized list and cost estimates of the more viable is the project.
fabricated and standard materials needed c. The internal rate of return must be
in the fabrication of a machine. equal with the prevailing rate to make it
a. Bill of lading viable.
b. Bill of payment d. None of the above
c. Bill of materials
d. All of the above 18. Useful life of a machine before it
becomes unprofitable for its original
14. Number of years required to recover purpose due to obsolescence or wear.
the cost of investment for a machine. a. Economic life
a. Benefit cost ratio b. Life span
b. Internal rate of return c. Profitable life
c. Payback period d. All of the above
d. None of the above
19. Ability of a machine to perform a
15. Indicator that attempts to summarize timely operation that optimizes return
the overall value of money in using a from crop considering quality and quantity
machine. of the product.
a. Percentage benefit over cost a. Operating time
b. Cost-Benefit Ratio b. Timeliness
c. Benefit-Cost Ratio c. Functional time
d. None of the above d. None of the above
16. Profitability measure used to evaluate 20. In trade circles, CIF stands for _____.
a. Cash-In-Fist
the efficiency of an investment on a b. Cost, Insurance and Freight
machine, which is determined by dividing c. Cost-In Freight
the return of an investment by the cost of d. None of the above
the investment times 100.
a. Payback period 21. Cost of machine including shipment.
a. Free-on-board
b. Benefit cost ratio
b. Freight-on-board
c. Return on investment c. Cost-in-freight
d. None of the above d. None of the above
21. Amount paid for hiring equipment 25. Using the following additional data,
and for operating services in performing what is the total variable cost that will be
a certain task. incurred for the thresher n Item 23? Size
a. Custom cost of engine = 10 hp,
b. Operating cost Specific fuel consumption = 0.85 lb/BHP-hr,
c. Rental cost Cost of fuel = P13.60/liter,
d. None of the above Fuel specific gravity = 0.76, and
Salary of Laborers = P100.00/day-person.
22. Change in the value of a machine due a. 159, 882.00/year
to wear and tear. b. 234, 765.00/year
a. Cost reduction c. 456,854.00/year
b. Depreciation d. None of the above
c. Lost of value
d. None of the above 26. What is the threshing cost for the
thresher in Item 23?
23. A thresher has a 30cavans-per-hour a. P3.85/cavan
capacity. Three men are required to b. P2.87/cavan
operate it. Other data are as follows: c. P2.78/cavan
Purchase price = P40,000 (including d. None of the above
engine); Utilization = 1,500 hours per
year, 8 hours/day; Estimated life = 7
years. What is the depreciation cost
using straight line method?
a. 6, 568.35/year
b. 3, 784.56/year
c. 5, 142.86/year
d. None of the above