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Đề Thi THPTQG T 2013 - 2023
Đề Thi THPTQG T 2013 - 2023
Mã đề thi 913
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning
to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 6: The boy does not resemble his brother in any way.
A. look after B. take up C. take after D. look up
Question 7: I received housing benefit when I was unemployed.
A. out of work B. out of order C. out of date D. out of fashion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. sure B. sort C. sun D. seem
Question 9: A. understand B. industrial C. discussion D. university
Question 10: A. borrowed B. complained C. conserved D. approached
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 11: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Mary?” said Mike.
A. Mike asked Mary if she didn’t like to come to his birthday party.
B. Mike didn’t know that Mary had come to his birthday party.
C. Mike was told to come to Mary’s birthday party.
D. Mike invited Mary to come to his birthday party.
Question 12: You won’t have a seat unless you book in advance.
A. You didn’t have a seat because you didn’t book in advance.
B. You won’t have a seat if you don’t book in advance.
C. You can’t have a seat although you book in advance.
D. You will have a seat if you don’t book in advance.
Trang 1/4 - Mã đề thi 913
Question 13: She started working as a teacher of English ten years ago.
A. She had been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
B. She has worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
C. She had worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
D. She has been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
Read the following passage adapted from the Encyclopedia Britannica 2011 and mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 14 to
18.
The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), a special program of the United Nations, is
devoted to aiding national efforts to improve the health, nutrition, education, and general welfare of
children.
UNICEF was created in 1946 to provide relief to children in countries devastated by World War II.
After 1950 the fund directed its efforts toward general programs for the improvement of children’s
welfare, particularly in less-developed countries and in various emergency situations. The
organization’s broader mission was reflected in the name it adopted in 1953, the United Nations
Children’s Fund. UNICEF was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1965. It is headquartered in
New York City.
UNICEF has concentrated much of its effort in areas in which relatively small expenditures can
have a significant impact on the lives of the most disadvantaged children such as the prevention and
treatment of diseases. In keeping with this strategy, UNICEF supports immunization programs for
childhood diseases and programs to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS; it also provides funding for
health services, educational facilities, and other welfare services. Since 1996 UNICEF programs have
been guided by the Convention on the Rights of the Child (1989), which affirms the right of all
children to “the enjoyment of the highest attainable standard of health and to facilities for the
treatment of illness and rehabilitation of health”. UNICEF’s activities are financed by both
government and private contributions.
Question 14: What was the objective of UNICEF when it was created in 1946?
A. to win the Nobel Prize for Peace
B. to devote to the general welfare of children all over the world
C. to improve the health, nutrition, education of nations
D. to help children in countries devastated by World War II
Question 15: When did UNICEF win the Nobel Prize for Peace?
A. In 1965 B. In 1950 C. In 1946 D. In 1953
Question 16: The underlined word “It” in paragraph two refers to ______.
A. UNICEF B. the Nobel Peace Prize
C. the United Nations D. New York
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The headquarters of UNICEF is in New York City.
B. UNICEF has guided the Convention on the Rights of the Child.
C. UNICEF stands for the United Nations Children’s Fund.
D. UNICEF provides funding for health services and educational facilities.
Question 18: UNICEF receives money from ______.
A. the United Nations organisations B. international corporations
C. governments and individuals D. national and international businesses
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 19: Our flight from Bangkok to London was delayed ______ the storm.
A. since B. because of C. because D. in spite of
Question 20: She had no difficulty ______ at her new school.
A. making friends B. to make friends C. make friends D. to making friends
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 44: I can’t go out tonight because I have too many work to do.
A B C D
Question 45: Driving on the left made my daughter very surprising when she first visited London.
A B C D
Question 46: Bella had better to change her study habits if she wants to be admitted to
A B C
a good college.
D
Question 47: Before the 1920s, no women have voted in national elections in the US.
A B C D
Question 48: We were told to plan everything very careful before the journey.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 49: Nowadays a large number of young people spend much time ______.
A. to surf the Internet B. surfing the Internet
C. surf the Internet D. with surfing the Internet
Question 50: It was not until he failed the final examination ______.
A. that he realised how important the revision was
B. when he realised how important the revision was
C. that he realises how important the revision is
D. when he realises how important the revision is
Mã đề thi 419
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 1: All of the students in this course will be assessed according to their attendance, performance, and
A B C
they work hard.
D
Question 2: Most of the students are queuing in lines waiting to enter the classroom.
A B C D
Question 3: Women in many parts of the world have had lower status than men, which the extent
A B
of the gap between genders varies across cultures and times.
C D
Question 4: Since January this year, Joe has suffered two injuries, one to his ankle and the other in New York.
A B C D
Question 5: As seeing from the mountain top, the area looks like a picturesque harbour town.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their desks by eight
o'clock and take good care of their own business.
A. run faster than others B. organize things inefficiently
C. have a good voyage D. manage an inflexible system
Question 7: Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. approves of B. looks for C. puts off D. attends to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. advantage B. enrichment C. sovereignty D. edition
Question 9: A. fertilize B. illustrate C. interact D. specify
Question 10: A. commit B. index C. open D. preview
Question 11: A. attendance B. wilderness C. habitat D. candidate
Question 12: A. economic B. continental C. territorial D. considerate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 22.
Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S. law. They are approved to
operate as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations (13)______ education and training. Increasingly, state
authorities are requiring approved educational providers to apply (14)______ and receive accreditation as a
condition of final and continued approval.
As corporate entities, U.S. institutions are internally self-governing and are (15)______ to make property,
facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide whom to admit to
study and to graduate; (16)______ their own funds from outside sources; enter into contracts and compete for
grants; and do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions compete (17)______ one another for
students, research funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public institutions may compete within the same state
or territory for budget appropriations. It is the corporate nature of institutions and the competition within the
system that (18)_____ Americans to refer to the concept of the educational or academic marketplace - an
important distinctive element of the way U.S. education is organized.
Mã đề thi 194
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. recipe B. candidate C. instrument D. commitment
Question 4: A. conceal B. contain C. conserve D. conquer
Question 5: A. advantageous B. oceanic C. compulsory D. influential
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: The receptionist, ______ answered the phone, told me that the director was out.
A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 7: Changes have been made in our primary schooling program. As a result, young children ______
do homework any more.
A. needn’t B. oughtn’t C. couldn’t D. haven’t
Question 8: ______ the salesman promised to exchange the defective CD player for a new one, they insisted
on getting a refund.
A. Despite B. Although C. And D. But
Question 9: The headmaster has decided that three lecture halls ______ in our school next semester.
A. will build B. will be built C. are being built D. will be building
Question 10: Although MERS (Middle East Respiratory Syndrome) spreads through close contact with sick
people, not through the air, many people still avoid ______ to crowded places.
A. to go B. having gone C. gone D. going
Question 11: Students will not be allowed into the exam room if they ______ their student cards.
A. produced B. hadn’t produced C. didn’t produce D. don’t produce
Question 12: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made ______ accident.
A. at B. on C. in D. by
Question 13: When asked about their preference for movies, many young people say that they are in favour
______ science fiction.
A. in B. for C. of D. with
Question 14: A molecule of water is ______ of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen.
A. composed B. created C. included D. consisted
Question 15: Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. nice brown wooden B. brown wooden nice C. nice wooden brown D. wooden brown nice
Question 16: Global warming will result ______ crop failures and famine.
A. of B. to C. in D. from
Question 17: John has finally found a new job after being ______ for three months.
A. out of order B. out of mind C. out of work D. out of reach
Question 18: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien performed so well in the 28th Sea Games women’s 200m butterfly that
none of her rivals could ______ her.
A. catch up with B. look up to C. come up to D. put up with
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 25: When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a
feast – a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth-watering.
A. concerning nutrition and health B. involving hygienic conditions and diseases
C. relating to medical knowledge D. having to do with food and cooking
Question 26: Suddenly, it began to rain heavily, so all the summer hikers got drenched all over.
A. very tired B. refreshed C. completely wet D. cleansed
Question 27: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to me.”
A. an object that I really love B. a book that is never opened
C. a subject that I don’t understand D. a theme that I like to discuss
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 28: It is common knowledge that solar heating for a large office building is technically different
A B C
from a single-family home.
D
Question 29: The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent
A B C
severe earthquake.
D
Question 30: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their age, sex,
A B C
or nationality.
D
Question 31: Since poaching is becoming more seriously, the government has imposed stricter laws
A B C
to prevent it.
D
Question 32: Reminding not to miss the 15:20 train, the manager set out for the station in a hurry.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 43: “Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist
Question 44: “Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight.”
A. turn down B. look up C. slow down D. put forward
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 45 to 54.
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming. Scientists
have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and
birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration
patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In
many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland
blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those
found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not
possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling
sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated
that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of
resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain
number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food
and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple
farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers
of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of reading books. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet.
Mã đề thi 642
SECTION A (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. maintains B. imports C. laughs D. drops
Question 2: A. campus B. brush C. justice D. culture
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. biography B. curriculum C. admirable D. compulsory
Question 4: A. inflation B. applicant C. maximum D. character
Question 5: A. anxious B. comfort C. confide D. struggle
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 6: In a modern family, the husband is expected to join hands with his wife to ______ the
household chores.
A. do B. take C. make D. run
Question 7: Canned food is not as healthy as fresh food, ______?
A. isn’t it B. is it C. doesn’t it D. does it
Question 8: ______ they are delicious, hamburgers and French fries are too high in fat.
A. Because B. Although C. Despite D. However
Question 9: In the wake of increasing food poisoning, many consumers have turned to vegetables ______
organically.
A. grown B. are grown C. which grows D. that grown
Question 10: This part of the country is famous ______ its beautiful landscapes and fine cuisine.
A. of B. with C. for D. about
Question 11: Without your help, I ______ the technical problem with my computer the other day.
A. could solve B. wouldn’t solve C. can’t solve D. couldn’t have solved
Question 12: It is raining heavily with rolls of thunder. We ______ such a terrible thunderstorm.
A. would never see B. have never seen C. never see D. had never seen
Question 13: Most teenagers enjoy ______ the Internet for information and entertainment.
A. to surf B. surf C. surfed D. surfing
Question 14: Candidates are requested to ______ the form to the admissions officer by July 25th.
A. hand in B. fill out C. show up D. pass over
Question 15: The US president Barack Obama ______ an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of
great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership.
A. gave B. paid C. delivered D. offered
Question 16: Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is ______.
A. well established quite by the age of five
B. quite well established by the age of five
C. by the age of five it is quite well established
D. by the age of five and quite well established
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 25: According to most doctors, massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and
A B
speeding up recovery from illnesses.
C D
Question 26: Because of bad weather conditions, it took the explorers three days reaching their destination.
A B C D
Question 27: New sources of energy have been looking for as the number of fossil fuels continues to decrease.
A B C D
Question 28: The longer the children waited in the long queue, the more impatiently they became.
A B C D
Question 29: The science of medicine, which progress has been very rapid lately, is perhaps the most important
A B C
of all sciences.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 30: It is widely known that the excessive use of pesticides is producing a detrimental effect on the
local groundwater.
A. useless B. fundamental C. harmless D. damaging
Question 31: His dreamlike villa in the new residential quarter is the envy of his friends.
A. something that everybody dreams of B. something that everybody looks for
C. something that nobody can afford D. something that nobody wants
Question 32: As stated in paragraph 1, tropical cyclones are storms with winds blowing at speeds of ______.
A. no less than 200 kph B. more than 100 kph
C. at least 200 kph D. less than 100 kph
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. tropical cyclones B. wind speeds
C. weather professionals D. sweet-sounding names
Question 34: According to the passage, tropical cyclones are called typhoons in ______.
A. the Atlantic Ocean B. the Pacific Ocean
C. the Indian Ocean D. the Arctic Ocean
Question 35: The word “humid” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. thin B. thick C. dry D. moist
Question 36: Which of the following comes first in the process of storm formation?
A. Liquid water falls. B. Warm, humid air moves upward.
C. Wind speed reaches 118 kph. D. Water vapor condenses.
Question 37: According to the passage, a storm surge is ______.
A. pushing seawater B. a tropical cyclone
C. inland flooding D. a rise in sea level
Question 38: What is true about the storm surge of Cyclone Nargis?
A. It caused flooding in New Orleans in 2005. B. It pushed seawater 4 kilometers inland.
C. It took a very high death toll. D. It occurred in Myanmar in 2005.
Question 39: The word “evacuate” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. call for relief supplies B. make accurate predictions
C. move to safer places D. take preventive measures
Question 40: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are difficult to forecast.
B. The center of a growing storm is known as its eye.
C. Tropical cyclone predictions depend entirely on computer assistance.
D. Tropical cyclones are often given beautiful names.
Question 41: Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Tropical Cyclones B. Cyclone Formation
C. Cyclone Forecasting D. Storm Surges
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 45 to 54.
THE DANGERS OF DIETING
Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of computers than
ever before, the (45)______ of overweight people is at a new high. As people frantically search for a solution
(46)______ this problem, they often try some of the popular fad diets being offered. Many people see fad diets
(47)______ harmless ways of losing weight, and they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only don’t
fad diets usually (48)______ the trick, they can actually be dangerous for your health.
Although permanent weight loss is the (49)______, few are able to achieve it. Experts estimate that 95
percent of dieters return to their starting weight, or even (50)______ weight. While the reckless use of fad
diets can bring some (51)______ results, long-term results are very rare.
(52)______, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often turn to fad
diets. (53)______ being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dietary changes. They advise eating only one type
of food, or they prohibit other types of foods entirely. This results in a situation (54)______ a person’s body
doesn’t get all the vitamins and other things that it needs to stay healthy.
Adapted from “Active Skills for Reading: Book 3” by Neil J. Anderson
Question 45: A. amount B. sum C. number D. range
Question 46: A. to B. of C. on D. with
Question 47: A. by B. through C. like D. as
Question 48: A. bring B. do C. take D. play
Question 49: A. profit B. benefit C. goal D. case
Question 50: A. lose B. reduce C. put D. gain
Question 51: A. initiative B. initiating C. initiate D. initial
Question 52: A. Nonetheless B. Consequently C. Additionally D. Furthermore
Question 53: A. Rather than B. In spite of C. In addition to D. More than
Question 54: A. where B. which C. why D. what
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 55 to 64.
The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or community gardens
scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within
and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban agriculture doesn’t necessarily
equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area,” says Jason Niebler, who directs the
Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College. “It means we are
providing for growing population food needs from surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core
urban landscape.”
Picture a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some food at varying capacities,
surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become increasingly more rural with distance. The
hope is that such land use planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will encourage local ecologically
sound sustainable food production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and decrease reliance on distant food
products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers in complete sentences on your answer sheet.
Question 1: He now regrets that he didn’t take the doctor’s advice.
He now wishes ___________________________________________________________.
Question 2: “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework,” Peter said to the teacher.
Peter apologised __________________________________________________________.
Question 3: I’m sure that he didn’t attend the Conference on Wildlife Protection yesterday.
He can’t _________________________________________________________________.
Question 4: She didn’t pass the exam because of her serious illness.
Had she not ______________________________________________________________.
Question 5: Ms Betty is proud of her singing.
Ms Betty prides ___________________________________________________________.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of knowing how to swim. Write
your paragraph on your answer sheet.
-----
_________THE END_________
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police
Question 2. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. date B. face C. page D. map
Question 4. A. played B. planned C. cooked D. lived
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Congratulations!
C. Better luck next time! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 6. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm leaving now C. I'm thirty years old D. Fine, thank you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy
Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. deceived deliberately
C. given a lift D. treated with sincerity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. hard B. easy C. interesting D. simple
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience B. understanding C. confidence D. assistance
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 23 to 27.
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on
etiquette. This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture, both
the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times
before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is common
in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 28 to 34.
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea,
for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to
tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for
the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of
throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece
of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one another
for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain reaction
that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food chain. For
example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential. However, there
may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss can threaten the
survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction can have a ripple
effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals that
prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals have
been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial value.
Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and animals
with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-native species
to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the environment. The
combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease or low birthrates
has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance of survival without
human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful
species? Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is
extinction an inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are
some difficult questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
D. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
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Question 45. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 46. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 47. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 48. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
GỢI Ý ĐÁP ÁN
(Tham khảo)
• Khóa học ôn luyện và thi thử THPT quốc gia trực tuyến
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. consist B. carry C. remove D. protect
Question 2: A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. touch B. round C. ground D. shout
Question 4: A. combined B. travelled C. behaved D. practiced
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 5: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
- Shop assistant: “Do you need anything else?” - Customer: “_______”
A. Good job! B. That's all. Thanks. C. With pleasure. D. You're welcome.
Question 6: Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
- Ann: “I think children should be paid for doing the housework.”
- Peter: “_______. It's their duty in the family.”
A. You're exactly right B. That's what I think
C. There's no doubt about it D. I don't think so
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: These photos brought back many sweet memories of our trip to Hanoi last year.
A. recalled B. released C. revised D. caught
Question 8: At first, John said he hadn't broken the vase, but later he accepted it.
A. denied B. discussed C. protected D. admitted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 9: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 10: It's quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they witness in the
street.
A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for C. show respect for D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: As they remembered _______ about the danger of getting lost in the forest, the tourists closely followed
the tour guide.
A. being warned B. warning C. to be warned D. to warn
Question 12: Once____for viruses, the software can be installed in the school computer system for use.
A. has tested B. is tested C. testing D. tested
Question 13: The teacher entered the room while the students _______their plan for the excursion.
A. discuss B. were discussing C. discussed D. are discussing
Question 14: His choice of future career is quite similar _______mine.
A. with B. at C. for D. to
Question 15: With his good sense of humour, Martin is quite _______with the students.
A. popularity B. popular C. popularize D. popularly
Question 16: The residents of the village are living a happy life _______they lack modern facilities.
A. because of B. although C. therefore D. despite
Question 17: Action films with big stars tend to_______ great public attention.
A. achieve B. show C. attract D. reach
Question 18: This is _______most beautiful song I've ever listened to.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
Question 19: The scientists are working on a drug capable of _______the spread of cancerous cells.
A. arresting B. catching C. seizing D. grasping
Question 20: The little boy took an instant liking to his babysitter_______.
A. upon their first meeting B. before he first met her
C. prior to their first meeting D. as soon as he meets her
Question 21: It's time he acted like a ________ adult and stopped blaming others for his wrongdoings.
A. responsible B. sociable C. believable D. suitable
Question 22: We _______on a field trip if the weather is fine this weekend.
A. could have gone B. will go C. would go D. went
Question 23: One recipe for success is to stay focused and _______yourself to whatever you do.
A. apply B. attach C. assign D. adhere
Question 24: It's not my _____to tell you how to run your life, but I think you should settle down and have a family.
A. work B. chore C. job D. career
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Becoming an independent language learner
In an educational context, the term “learner independence” has gained increasing importance in recent years.
It is of particular (25) ___to language learning and commonly refers to the way students confidently control and
organize their own language learning process. While some people seem to have an almost (26) ___ flair for
languages, others have rely on strategies to maximize their skills and learn a foreign language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above all on
taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available to you to learn.
You also increase your chances of (27) ___by learning according to your own needs and interests, using all available
resources. Research shows that learners (28) ___ adopt this approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their
language abilities considerably and, (29) ___, are more likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.
(Adopted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Malthews and Barbara Thomas)
Question 25: A. resemblance B. relevance C. acquaintance D. acceptance
Question 26: A. habitual B. spiritual C. perceptive D. instinctive
Question 27: A. successfully B. successful C. succeed D. success
Question 28: A. who B. why C. where D. which
Question 29: A. as a result B. in contrast C. though D. because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Tribal tourism is a relatively new type of tourism. It involves travelers going to remote destinations, staying
with local people and learning about their culture and way of life. They stay in local accommodation, share facilities
with local people, and join in with meals and celebrations. At the moment, less than one percent of holidays are tribal
tourism holidays, but this is set to change.
Tribal tourism is often compared with foreign exchange visits. However, a foreign exchange involves staying
with people who often share the same values. Tribal tourism takes visitors to places where the lifestyle is very
different from that in their home location. Those who have been on tribal holiday explain that experiencing this
lifestyle is the main attraction. They say that it offers them the chance to live in a way they never have before.
Not everyone is convinced that tribal tourism is a good thing, and opinions are divided. The argument is
about whether or not it helps the local population, or whether it exploits them. The main problem is that, because
tribal tourism is relatively new, the long-term influences on local populations have not been studied in much detail.
Where studies have been carried out, the effects have been found to be negative.
So, is it possible to experience an exotic culture without harming it in some way? “With a bit of thought, we
can maximise the positive influences and minimise the negative”, says travel company director Hilary Waterhouse.
“The most important thing for a tribal tourist is to show respect for, learn about, and be aware of, local customs and
traditions. Always remember you're a guest.”
(Adopted from “Complete IELTS” by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Old Tourist Destination B. Holidays with a Difference
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other electronic equipment become
obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little choice but to buy newer ones to keep up. Millions of tons
of computers, TVs, smartphones, and other equipment are discarded each year. In most countries, all this waste ends
up in landfills, where it poisons the environment - e-waste contains many toxic substances such as lead, mercury, and
arsenic, that leak into the ground.
Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts of valuable metals like
gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling gold from old computers is more efficient - and
less environmentally destructive - than digging it from the earth. The problem is that a large percentage of e-waste
dropped off for recycling in wealthy countries is sold an diverted to the developing world, posing an increasing threat
to the health of the people there.
To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the 1989 Basel Convention,
an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing nations of hazardous waste shipments coming into
their countries. Then, in 1995 the Basel Convention was modified to ban hazardous waste shipments to poor countries
completely. Although the ban hasn't taken effect, the European Union, where recycling infrastructure is well
developed, has already written it into their laws. One law holds manufacturers responsible for the sale disposal of
electronics they produce.
Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit from clean e- waste
recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine able to separate electronic products into their
component materials. As the machine's steel teeth break up e-waste, all the toxic dust is removed from the process.
This machine can handle some 70,000 tons of electronics a year. Although this is only a fraction of the total, it
wouldn't take many more machines like this to process the entire USA's output of high-tech trash.
Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not compulsory, and while shipping
waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more profitable than processing it safely in the USA. Creative
Recycling Systems is hoping that the US government will soon create laws deterring people from sending e-waste
overseas.
(Adopted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and Nancy Hubley)
Question 35: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup B. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons
C. E-waste - An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste - A Mess to Clear up
Question 36: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. outdated B. inaccurate C. broken D. incomplete
Question 37: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in the developed
countries _______.
A. is buried deep in the soil at landfills B. contains all valuable metals except gold
C. is later recycled in local factories D. is eventually sent to developing nations
Question 38: The word “notify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assure B. notice C. excuse D. inform
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. the ban B. recycling infrastructure
C. the European Union D. the Basel Convention
Question 40: According to the European Union's laws, electronics manufacturers are required to _______.
A. upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 43: Peter moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. If only Peter had moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. Peter wishes he hadn't moved abroad for a fresh start.
C. If Peter moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
D. Peter regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
Question 44: Smartphones are becoming reasonably priced. New applications make them more appealing.
A. Appealing though smartphones are with new applications, they are becoming less affordably priced.
B. Whatever new applications smartphones have, they are becoming more appealing with reasonable prices.
C. No matter how reasonable the prices of smartphones are, they are not so appealing with new applications.
D. Not only are smartphones becoming more affordable but, with new applications, they are also more appealing.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 45: It was wrong of you to criticise your son in front of his friends.
A. You shouldn't have criticised your son in front of his friends.
B. You must have criticised your son in front of his friends.
C. You mightn't have criticised your son in front of his friends.
D. You could have criticised your son in front of his friends.
Question 46: My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn't like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
B. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers.
C. My father doesn't like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
D. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
Question 47: “How long have you lived here, Lucy?” asked Jack.
A. Jack asked Lucy how long did she live here. B. Jack asked Lucy how long she had lived there.
C. Jack asked Lucy how long she lived here. D. Jack asked Lucy how long had she lived there.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 48: At the beginning of the ceremony, there was a respectable one-minute silence in remembrance of the
victims of the earthquake.
A. the ceremony B. respectable C. remembrance of D. earthquake
Question 49: My mother gets up usually early to prepare breakfast for the whole family.
A. gets up usually B. to prepare C. for D. whole
Question 50: The money raised in the appeal w ill use to help those in need in remote areas.
A. the B. w ill use C. help D. areas
-------------------HẾT-------------------
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. alive B. careful C. happy D. nervous
Question 2: A. customer B. festival C. suggestion D. capital
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. clap B. take C. face D. save
Question 4: A. wanted B. cried C. seemed D. rained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Tuan is late for the class meeting.
- Tuan: “Sorry I’m late, Ha.” - Ha: “_______”
A. Good idea. B. Never mind. C. Same to you. D. Thanks a lot.
Question 6: Mai is talking to Hoa about Hoa’s new dress.
- Mai: “You’ve got a nice dress, Hoa.” - Hoa: “_______”
A. Congratulations! B. Thank you. C. Me too. D. No problem.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 7: I like this_______song because it reminds me of my schooldays.
A. beautiful B. beautifully C. beauty D. beautify
Question 8: When the visitor saw with her own eyes the beach covered with tons of plastic rubbish
washed up from around the world, a chill went down her _______.
A. spine B. bone C. mind D. brain
Question 9: _______the book again and again, I finally understood what the author meant.
A. Have been reading B. Have been read C. Have read D. Having read
Question 10: _______, he will go out with his friends.
A. When Tony finished his project B. When Tony finishes his project
C. When Tony had finished his project D. When Tony was finishing his project
Question 11: You should wear _______to keep your hands warm. It’s very cold outside.
A. hats B. gloves C. shoes D. boots
Question 12: My sister and I share the housework. We take turns to_______ the dishes and clean the
house.
A. wash up B. wash over C. wash away D. wash through
Question 13: Her aunt gave her a_______ handbag on her birthday last week.
A. beautiful reel Korean B. red Korean beautiful
C. beautiful Korean red D. Korean red beautiful
Question 14: Jane has been trying to solve this problem all week, but she still hasn’t been able
to_______
A. shatter B. break C. crack D. crash
Question 15: We like to live in the countryside _______ we want to be close to nature.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 16: Life here is so good, _______?
A. was it B. has it C. isn’t it D. wasn’t it
Question 17: The students _______ the topic when the bell rang.
A. discuss B. were discussing C. have discussed D. are discussing
Question 18: Don’t worry too much. We all_______ mistakes sometimes.
A. give B. put C. take D. make
Question 19: Nam’s family has been living _______ Ha Noi for twenty years.
----------HẾT----------
BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2022
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát ề.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. pointed B. cycled C. played D. occurred
Question 2: A. take B. wave C. blame D. wrap
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. village B. student C. worker D. hotel
Question 4: A. relative B. equipment C. customer D. document
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in
each of the following questions.
Question 5: I would be grateful if you could tell me how to download this file from the website.
A. thankful B. amazed C. interested D. fortunate
Question 6: Vietnamese women are expected to maintain traditional key values from young ages.
A. careful B. clear C. important D. amazing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The arguments Prof. Parker made were controversial and some scholars were taking issue with him.
A. showing agreement B. expressing doubt C. becoming aware D. getting annoyed
Question 8: If you want to become a famous music composer, you need to have talent and determination.
A. outstanding B. unknown C. public D. well-known
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 9: Fiona and Lan are talking about hunting wild animals.
- Fiona: “I think hunting wild animals should be banned.”
- Lan: “_____. Many wild animals are in danger of extinction.”
A. I disagree completely B. No problem C. You’re wrong D. That’s for sure
Question 10: Tony is in a café.
- Tony: “Can I have a cup of coffee with ice?”
- Waiter: “_______.”
A. Don’t mention it, please B. It’s too hard
C. Sure. Wait a minute, please. D. Sorry for saying that
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: The party will begin _______.
A. when all the guests were arriving B. as soon as all the guests arrive
C. by the time all the guests arrived D. after all the guests had arrived
Question 12: He will apply for a new job, _________?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. won’t he D. will he
Question 13: In order to _________ soft skills, my brother has decided to attend a training course.
A. sharp B. sharply C. sharpen D. sharpness
Question 14: My mom really loves the _________ handbag I gave her on her birthday.
A. American red big B. red American big C. big red American D. red big American
Question 15: _________ you practise speaking English, the more fluent your English becomes.
A. The better than B. More than C. The more than D. The more
Question 16: You should _________ the form and hand it in as soon as possible.
A. fill in B. go on C. put up D. give up
Question 17: A new restaurant in our district _________ two days ago.
A. opens B. have opened C. open D. was opened
Question 18: They have been living here since they _________ married.
A. is getting B. will get C. got D. get
Question 19: Most of the houses in the neighbourhood _________ terrible damage in the fire.
A. perceived B. sustained C. conceived D. persevered
Question 20: _________ she studied hard, she couldn’t get a high score.
A. Because of B. Although C. In spite of D. Despite
Question 21: He lives in a small house _________ the city.
A. on B. in C. at D. from
Question 22: The teacher tries her best to _________ sure that her students can understand her explanations.
A. keep B. get C. go D. make
Question 23: The _________ in the theatre gave the singer a long applause for her excellent performance.
A. watchers B. spectators C. audiences D. viewers
Question 24: I picked up some holiday brochures _________ around the table at the travel agency.
A. lied B. were lying C. lain D. lying
Question 25: We could tolerate your noisy parties time and again, but throwing bottles out of the window was beyond the
_________.
A. dull B. faint C. pale D. sick
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Since the invention of the Internet, the world has become a different place. People are sending messages, apparently
up to 60 billion a day, and it usually takes only seconds to deliver them. (26) ______ are we now forgetting how to
communicate face-to-face?
Without a doubt, there are (27) ______ challenges, but there are also examples of when the Internet has changed
someone’s life for the better. Look at Tara Taylor’s case, a mother (28) ______ lives in the USA: when she uploaded a photo
of her daughter to Facebook, a facefriend (29) ______ a problem with one of the child’s eyes, so Tara took her to the doctor.
It turned out that the girl had a rare disease, but her sight was saved! The story of communication is, in many (30) ______,
the story of the human race: we have always shared knowledge and built relationships, whatever means of communication
we use.
(Adapted from High Note)
Question 26: A. For B. Since C. Although D. But
Question 27: A. every B. some C. much D. another
Question 28: A. which B. when C. whose D. who
Question 29: A. developed B. avoided C. created D. spotted
Question 30: A. ways B. paths C. roads D. routes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 31 to 35.
As Australia’s largest and oldest city, Sydney, carries many traces of its history. Time seems to stand still in the city’s
old streets and in its many magnificent, ancient buildings, such as the Sydney Town Hall, the Queen Victoria Building, and
St. Mary’s Cathedral. To explore the city’s present and past, head for The Rocks - the oldest neighbourhood in Australia and
Sydney, where sandstone houses built in the 18th century still stand. You can stroll through the pretty streets, visit a
traditional pub for some craft beer, and try delicious local dishes.
Sydney is blessed with natural gifts that few cities can rival. This city is full of greenery. Parks and nature reserves
mingle with urban areas. Thanks to this, you need not travel far to see rare species in numerous city zoos; or enjoy fresh air
and a range of plants from all corners of the world, all gathered in boundless parks. For those visitors keen to explore the sea,
Sydney is heaven with over 7- spectacular bays and beaches. These include beautiful Bondi Beach, which is said to be the
loveliest on the planet, where visitors can sunbathe, and play various water sports.
Sydney is said to be a miniature world of attractions, captivating visitors. It is a must-go destination on every
tourist’s bucket list, should they visit the beautiful land of Australia.
(Adapted from Heritage)
Question 31: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Sydney - The World’s Oldest City B. Sydney - A Must-go Destination
C. Sydney - A City that Never Sleeps D. Sydney - The Present and The Past
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, The Rocks ________.
A. has the most beautiful streets in Australia
B. is the oldest area in Sydney and Australia
C. offers the most delicious local dishes
D. has traces of houses destroyed in the 18th century.
Question 33: The word rival in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. enjoy B. satisfy C. match D. agree
Question 34: The word These in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. boundless parks B. visitors C. water sports D. bays and beaches
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about Sydney, according to the passage?
A. Visitors prefer Sydnet’s beaches to its parks.
B. Tourists have to travel long distances to reach Sydney’s zoos
C. In Sydney, urban areas are mixed with parks and nature reserves.
D. Sydney was estalished in the 18th century.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 36 to 42.
When I saw her name on the screen, it took me right back to the moment she had moved away with her family ten
years before. We had been such close friends at primary school. To begin with, she and I had not hit it off, perhaps because
we were both timid. We had quickly got over that, though, and as time went on, we had become really good friends, until you
almost never saw one of us without the other.
And now after so much time apart, there was her name. She had sent me a friend request. I knew she had been living
abroad, and her profile picture showed her on the beach. I had been expecting her to look different fter ten years. The girl in
the photo was the same old Lauren, though.
Nowadays, it is easy to find old friends thanks to social networking sites. There are lots of stories about long lost
friends getting back in touch after years apart. It was odd because I had been thinking about our friendship too and now here
she was!
She told me about the place where she had been living for the past ten years, and I told her about things that had
happened to me. Before long, the years melted away and we were the same two girls who had spent so much time together.
Of course, true friends are loyal and listen to you when you are down. And they are the people you have fun with. But deep
down, I realised that the truest friends are those you are most yourself with. And that is something that never changes. That is
what Lauren and I learned that day, the day we realised our friendship was so precious and had never really ended in the first
place.
(Adapted from Optimise)
Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Online Friendships That Last B. Long Lost Friends
C. Why Do Friends Stay Aparts? D. How to Make Friends Online?
Question 37: The phrase hit it off in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. progressing slowly B. disliking each other
C. arguing with each other D. becoming friends immediately
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, the author _________.
A. thought Lauren’s appearance had changed over time
B. did not accept Lauren’s friend request at once
C. was unaware of Lauren living in another country
D. did not recognise Lauren in her profile picture
Question 39: The word odd in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. strange B. common C. lonely D. quick
Question 40: The word they in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. things B. years C. two girls D. true friends
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Social networking sites have enabled old friends to get back in contact with one another.
B. True friends are loyal and lend a sympathetic ear when you are in low spirits.
C. Very few long lost friends have got back in touch after years apart.
D. The author learned that the truest friends are those you act most naturally with.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Both the author and Lauren had changed in many ways over the last ten years.
B. Before Lauren’s reappearance, the author thought that their friendship had ended.
C. The time they were apart was hard for both Lauren and the author.
D. Lauren had lived in many places since she left the country.
Mark ther letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 43: The newly advertised product had just been on sale. Customers realised that it had lots of defects.
A. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when producers realised that it had lots of defects.
B. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when customers wouldn’t realise that it had lots of defects.
C. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when customers realised that it had lots of defects.
D. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when did customers realise that it had lots of defects?
Question 44: It’s impossible for Laura to finish the report. You should help her.
A. But for your help, Laura would be able to finish the report.
B. Provided you help her, Laura wouldn’t have been able to finish the report.
C. Laura will be able to finish the report if you don’t help her.
D. Unless you help her, Laura won’t be able to finish the report.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 45: The principle of comprehensive inputs states that the language provided for students should go only a little
A B
beyond their current experience and understanding.
C D
Question 46: The new exhibition centre in our town has attracted many visitors because of their unique collections of visual
A B C D
arts.
Question 47: The Tale of Tam and Cam use to be one of her favourite stories when she was at school.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 48: She last wrote to her pen pal 6 months ago.
A. She has written to her pen pal for 6 months. B. She won’t write to her pen pal for 6 months.
C. She hasn’t written to her pen pal for 6 months. D. She didn’t write to her pen pal for 6 months.
Question 49: It is possible that he will not attend the meeting.
A. He must attend the meeting. B. He may not attend the meeting.
C. He shouldn’t attend the meeting. D. He needn’t attend the meeting.
Question 50: “My mum gave me some pocket money,” said Jerry.
A. Jerry said that my mum gave me some pocket money.
B. Jerry said that his mum had given him some pocket money.
C. Jerry said that my mum gives me some pocket money.
D. Jerry said that his mum gives him some pocket money.