Đề Thi THPTQG T 2013 - 2023

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2013
Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH - Chương trình Chuẩn và Nâng cao

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút.
(Đề thi có 04 trang)
Mã đề thi 913
Họ, tên thí sinh: ..........................................................................

Số báo danh: .............................................................................
Read the following passage adapted from the Encyclopedia Britannica 2010 and mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 1 to 5.
A person who tosses a can or a napkin on the ground is contributing to land pollution. This
(1)______ of pollution mainly involves the depositing on land of solid wastes that cannot be broken
down quickly or, in some cases, at all. Heaps of trash are not only unpleasant to look at - they can
(2)______ interfere with the lives of plants and animals.
Land pollution also includes the build-up of (3)______ chemicals on land. The use of pesticides in
farming is a major source of this type of pollution. These chemicals are spread over fields to kill
insects, weeds, fungi, or rodents that are a threat to crops. But pesticides harm or (4)______ other
living things too. When they drift with the wind or become absorbed (5)______ fruits and vegetables,
they can become a source of health problems such as cancer and birth defects.
Question 1: A. use B. type C. plan D. train
Question 2: A. also B. too C. so D. such
Question 3: A. poisoning B. poisonously C. poison D. poisonous
Question 4: A. kill B. make C. get D. help
Question 5: A. into B. up C. on D. of
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is closest in meaning
to the underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 6: The boy does not resemble his brother in any way.
A. look after B. take up C. take after D. look up
Question 7: I received housing benefit when I was unemployed.
A. out of work B. out of order C. out of date D. out of fashion
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. sure B. sort C. sun D. seem
Question 9: A. understand B. industrial C. discussion D. university
Question 10: A. borrowed B. complained C. conserved D. approached
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 11: “Would you like to come to my birthday party, Mary?” said Mike.
A. Mike asked Mary if she didn’t like to come to his birthday party.
B. Mike didn’t know that Mary had come to his birthday party.
C. Mike was told to come to Mary’s birthday party.
D. Mike invited Mary to come to his birthday party.
Question 12: You won’t have a seat unless you book in advance.
A. You didn’t have a seat because you didn’t book in advance.
B. You won’t have a seat if you don’t book in advance.
C. You can’t have a seat although you book in advance.
D. You will have a seat if you don’t book in advance.
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Question 13: She started working as a teacher of English ten years ago.
A. She had been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
B. She has worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
C. She had worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
D. She has been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
Read the following passage adapted from the Encyclopedia Britannica 2011 and mark the letter A,
B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 14 to
18.
The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), a special program of the United Nations, is
devoted to aiding national efforts to improve the health, nutrition, education, and general welfare of
children.
UNICEF was created in 1946 to provide relief to children in countries devastated by World War II.
After 1950 the fund directed its efforts toward general programs for the improvement of children’s
welfare, particularly in less-developed countries and in various emergency situations. The
organization’s broader mission was reflected in the name it adopted in 1953, the United Nations
Children’s Fund. UNICEF was awarded the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1965. It is headquartered in
New York City.
UNICEF has concentrated much of its effort in areas in which relatively small expenditures can
have a significant impact on the lives of the most disadvantaged children such as the prevention and
treatment of diseases. In keeping with this strategy, UNICEF supports immunization programs for
childhood diseases and programs to prevent the spread of HIV/AIDS; it also provides funding for
health services, educational facilities, and other welfare services. Since 1996 UNICEF programs have
been guided by the Convention on the Rights of the Child (1989), which affirms the right of all
children to “the enjoyment of the highest attainable standard of health and to facilities for the
treatment of illness and rehabilitation of health”. UNICEF’s activities are financed by both
government and private contributions.
Question 14: What was the objective of UNICEF when it was created in 1946?
A. to win the Nobel Prize for Peace
B. to devote to the general welfare of children all over the world
C. to improve the health, nutrition, education of nations
D. to help children in countries devastated by World War II
Question 15: When did UNICEF win the Nobel Prize for Peace?
A. In 1965 B. In 1950 C. In 1946 D. In 1953
Question 16: The underlined word “It” in paragraph two refers to ______.
A. UNICEF B. the Nobel Peace Prize
C. the United Nations D. New York
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The headquarters of UNICEF is in New York City.
B. UNICEF has guided the Convention on the Rights of the Child.
C. UNICEF stands for the United Nations Children’s Fund.
D. UNICEF provides funding for health services and educational facilities.
Question 18: UNICEF receives money from ______.
A. the United Nations organisations B. international corporations
C. governments and individuals D. national and international businesses
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 19: Our flight from Bangkok to London was delayed ______ the storm.
A. since B. because of C. because D. in spite of
Question 20: She had no difficulty ______ at her new school.
A. making friends B. to make friends C. make friends D. to making friends

Question 21: I enjoy playing ______ at weekends.
A. the badminton B. one badminton C. a badminton D. badminton
Question 22: Dr. Fleming, ______ discovered penicillin, was awarded the Nobel Prize of Medicine
in 1945.
A. which B. who C. that D. whom
Question 23: To save energy, we should remember to ______ the lights before going out.
A. turn up B. turn on C. turn down D. turn off
Question 24: Tears contain an antiseptic that helps protect our eyes ______ infection.
A. with B. in C. on D. from
Question 25: Helen: “Shall I collect the tickets for the concert for you?”
Peter: “______”
A. Nice to meet you! B. Make yourself at home.
C. It’s kind of you to do so. D. Long time no see.
Question 26: You ______ wash those apples. They have already been washed.
A. need B. must C. needn’t D. mustn’t
Question 27: If I were you, I ______ for that intensive English course.
A. will apply B. apply C. applied D. would apply
Question 28: Neil Armstrong is the first man ______ foot on the moon.
A. set B. to be set C. to set D. setting
Question 29: Many countries’ cultural ______ is a result of taking in immigrants from all over the
world.
A. diversity B. diversified C. diversify D. diverse
Question 30: Tom’s sister is five years ______ than he is.
A. the eldest B. elder C. older D. the oldest
Question 31: As soon as I saw the advertisement, I ______ the house agent.
A. phone B. had phoned C. phoned D. have phoned
Question 32: Mrs Black: “Thank you for your help!”
Tim: “______”
A. Just for fun. B. You’re welcome. C. The same to you! D. How do you do?
Question 33: I decided ______ the book you told me about some days ago.
A. to buying B. buy C. to buy D. buying
Question 34: At present, the new director ______ to foster a culture of open communication within
the company.
A. was trying B. tries C. tried D. is trying
Question 35: The former Olympic ______ was invited to speak at a charity dinner.
A. victory B. champion C. trophy D. triumph
Question 36: Susan is fond ______ reading comic books in her free time.
A. on B. for C. at D. of
Question 37: I really enjoy being with my father. He has got a really good ______ of humour.
A. mood B. way C. sense D. feeling
Question 38: Jack: “______”
Rose: “That’s a good idea.”
A. Sorry, I’m late. B. What about going to the cinema tonight?
C. Glad to see you. D. Excuse me, where’s the post office?
Question 39: Her newly-published book is ______ from the previous ones.
A. differ B. different C. differently D. difference
Question 40: She was overjoyed because her article ______.
A. had published B. had been published C. has been published D. has published
Question 41: There were ten athletes ______ in the final round.
A. competing B. requiring C. taking D. sharing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in
the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 42: A. effective B. national C. historic D. important
Question 43: A. honest B. modern C. machine D. village
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 44: I can’t go out tonight because I have too many work to do.
A B C D
Question 45: Driving on the left made my daughter very surprising when she first visited London.
A B C D
Question 46: Bella had better to change her study habits if she wants to be admitted to
A B C
a good college.
D
Question 47: Before the 1920s, no women have voted in national elections in the US.
A B C D
Question 48: We were told to plan everything very careful before the journey.
A B C D
Question 49: Nowadays a large number of young people spend much time ______.
A. to surf the Internet B. surfing the Internet
C. surf the Internet D. with surfing the Internet
Question 50: It was not until he failed the final examination ______.
A. that he realised how important the revision was
B. when he realised how important the revision was
C. that he realises how important the revision is
D. when he realises how important the revision is
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI TUYỂN SINH ĐẠI HỌC NĂM 2014
Môn: TIẾNG ANH; Khối D
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 419
Họ, tên thí sinh:..........................................................................
Số báo danh:............................................................................
ĐỀ THI GỒM 80 CÂU (TỪ QUESTION 1 ĐẾN QUESTION 80)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
Question 1: All of the students in this course will be assessed according to their attendance, performance, and
A B C
they work hard.
D
Question 2: Most of the students are queuing in lines waiting to enter the classroom.
A B C D
Question 3: Women in many parts of the world have had lower status than men, which the extent
A B
of the gap between genders varies across cultures and times.
C D
Question 4: Since January this year, Joe has suffered two injuries, one to his ankle and the other in New York.
A B C D
Question 5: As seeing from the mountain top, the area looks like a picturesque harbour town.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 6: We run a very tight ship here, and we expect all our employees to be at their desks by eight
o'clock and take good care of their own business.
A. run faster than others B. organize things inefficiently
C. have a good voyage D. manage an inflexible system
Question 7: Any student who neglects his or her homework is unlikely to do well at school.
A. approves of B. looks for C. puts off D. attends to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other
three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 8: A. advantage B. enrichment C. sovereignty D. edition
Question 9: A. fertilize B. illustrate C. interact D. specify
Question 10: A. commit B. index C. open D. preview
Question 11: A. attendance B. wilderness C. habitat D. candidate
Question 12: A. economic B. continental C. territorial D. considerate
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 13 to 22.
Postsecondary institutions and private schools are corporations under U.S. law. They are approved to
operate as non-profit, for-profit, or public corporations (13)______ education and training. Increasingly, state
authorities are requiring approved educational providers to apply (14)______ and receive accreditation as a
condition of final and continued approval.
As corporate entities, U.S. institutions are internally self-governing and are (15)______ to make property,
facilities, equipment, and utilities transactions; make their own personnel decisions; decide whom to admit to
study and to graduate; (16)______ their own funds from outside sources; enter into contracts and compete for
grants; and do most of the other things that corporations do. Institutions compete (17)______ one another for
students, research funding, faculty, and other benefits. Public institutions may compete within the same state
or territory for budget appropriations. It is the corporate nature of institutions and the competition within the
system that (18)_____ Americans to refer to the concept of the educational or academic marketplace - an
important distinctive element of the way U.S. education is organized.
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Some institutions are governed (19)______ under multi-campus arrangements. These include most local
public schools (governed by school districts) and many state community college and university systems.
Whether single- or multi-campus, institutional corporations (20)______ by boards of citizens, both alumni and
non-alumni, who are ultimately responsible for all operations. They appoint senior (21)______, such as
principals, headmasters, presidents, and deans; and approve the actions taken (22)______ their name.
From A Diverse Educational System: Structure, standards, and challenges. InfoUSA (CD version)
Question 13: A. provided B. provision C. providing D. provide
Question 14: A. to B. on C. with D. for
Question 15: A. capable B. probable C. possible D. able
Question 16: A. lend B. raise C. call D. rise
Question 17: A. for B. with C. at D. to
Question 18: A. prevents B. makes C. causes D. lets
Question 19: A. collection B. collect C. collectively D. collective
Question 20: A. being controlled B. are controlling C. are controlled D. controlled
Question 21: A. assistants B. judges C. trainees D. leaders
Question 22: A. above B. in C. on D. at
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to
Question 23: Many parents may fail to recognize and respond to their children’s needs until frustration
explodes into difficult or uncooperative behavior.
A. slowly reaches the boiling point B. stays under pressure
C. remains at an unchanged level D. suddenly becomes uncontrollable
Question 24: Those children who stay longer hours at school than at home tend to spend their formative
years in the company of others with similar aims and interests.
A. enjoying the care of parents B. forming a new business company
C. being separated from peers D. being together with friends
Question 25: “A friend in need is a friend indeed”: Our friends have voiced their strong criticism of China’s
escalation of tension on our continental shelf.
A. easing the tension B. facing the reality
C. worsening the situation D. improving the condition
correct answer to each of the questions from 26 to 35.
We live in a world of tired, sleep deprived people. In his book Counting Sheep, Paul Martin - a behavioural
biologist - describes a society which is just too busy to sleep and which does not give sleeping the importance it
deserves.
Modern society has invented reasons not to sleep. We are now a 24/7 society where shops and services
must be available all hours. We spend longer hours at work than we used to, and more time getting to work.
Mobile phones and email allow us to stay in touch round the clock and late-night TV and the Internet tempt
us away from our beds. When we need more time for work or pleasure, the easy solution is to sleep less. The
average adult sleeps only 6.2 hours a night during the week, whereas research shows that most people need
eight or even eight and a half hours' sleep to feel at their best. Nowadays, many people have got used to
sleeping less than they need and they live in an almost permanent state of 'sleep debt'.
Until the invention of the electric light in 1879 our daily cycle of sleep used to depend on the hours of
daylight. People would get up with the sun and go to bed at nightfall. But nowadays our hours of sleep are
mainly determined by our working hours (or our social life) and most people are woken up artificially by an
alarm clock. During the day caffeine, the world's most popular drug, helps to keep us awake. 75% of the
world's population habitually consume caffeine, which up to a point masks the symptoms of sleep deprivation.
What does a chronic lack of sleep do to us? As well as making us irritable and unhappy as humans, it also
reduces our motivation and ability to work. This has serious implications for society in general. Doctors, for
example, are often chronically sleep deprived, especially when they are on 'night call', and may get less than
three hours' sleep. Lack of sleep can seriously impair their mood, judgment, and ability to take decisions. Tired
engineers, in the early hours of the morning, made a series of mistakes with catastrophic results. On our
roads and motorways lack of sleep kills thousands of people every year. Tests show that a tired driver can be
just as dangerous as a drunken driver. However, driving when drunk is against the law but driving when
exhausted isn't. As Paul Martin says, it is very ironic that we admire people who function on very little sleep
instead of criticizing them for being irresponsible. Our world would be a much safer, happier place if everyone,
whatever their job, slept eight hours a night.
New English File Upper-intermediate by Clive Oxenden and Christina Latham-Koenig, OUP

Question 26: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE about Paul Martin?
A. He is a scientist who is chronically deprived of sleep.
B. He describes the modern world as a place without insomnia.
C. He shows his concern for sleep deprivation in modern society.
D. He gives an interesting account of a sleepless society.
Question 27: The phrase “round the clock” in the second paragraph is similar in meaning to ______.
A. having a round clock B. during the daytime
C. surrounded with clocks D. all day and night
Question 28: The writer mentions the Internet in the passage as ______.
A. a factor that is not related to sleep deprivation B. a temptation that prevents us from sleeping
C. an easy solution to sleep deprivation D. an ineffective means of communication
Question 29: According to the third paragraph, which of the following statements is NOT TRUE?
A. Our social life has no influence on our hours of sleep.
B. The electric light has changed our daily cycle of sleep.
C. The sun obviously determined our daily routines.
D. The electric light was invented in the 19th century.
Question 30: The word “which” in the third paragraph refers to ______.
A. masking the symptoms B. the world's population
C. reaching a point D. caffeine consumption
Question 31: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the last paragraph?
A. Sleep deprivation has negative effects on both individuals and society.
B. Doctors ‘on night call’ do not need more than three hours of sleep a day.
C. Thousands of people are killed every day by drunken drivers.
D. Our motivation decreases with the bigger number of hours we sleep.
Question 32: The word “catastrophic” in the last paragraph probably means ______.
A. bound to bring satisfaction B. becoming more noticeable
C. likely to become worthless D. causing serious damage or loss
Question 33: Which of the following would the writer of the passage approve of?
A. Both drunken drivers and sleep-deprived people should be criticized.
B. There is no point in criticizing irresponsible people in our society.
C. Our world would be a much safer place without drinkers.
D. We certainly can function well even when we hardly sleep.
Question 34: All of the following are mentioned as those whose performance is affected by ‘sleep debt’
EXCEPT ______.
A. biologists B. doctors C. engineers D. drivers
Question 35: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage?
A. A Well-known Biologist B. A Society of Sleepless People
C. Sleep Deprivation: Causes and Effects D. Accident Prevention: Urgent!
Question 36: “My secretary will book you an afternoon flight and have you ______ at the airport.”
A. picked up B. to pick up C. picking up D. pick up
Question 37: Carbon dioxide ______ as one of the main contributors to the greenhouse effect.
A. had been identified B. has been identified C. had identified D. has identified
Question 38: The bank has more than 100 branches, ______ in a major urban area.
A. each locating B. each located C. and are located D. the location of which
Question 39: We’ve already bought the house but won’t ______ it until May, when the present occupants
have moved out.
A. take possession of B. catch sight of C. keep track of D. gain recognition of
Question 40: Minh, a student from Hai Phong, is going to take the college entrance exam in Hanoi next week.
His father is seeing him off at the railway station. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Dad: “Good luck with the exam, Minh!”
Minh: “______, Dad.”
A. I wish so B. Never mind C. Thank you D. By no means
Question 41: Jane had difficulty carrying her suitcase upstairs, and Mike, her friend, offered to help. Select the
most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: “Need a hand with your suitcase, Jane?”
Jane: “______”
A. Not a chance. B. That’s very kind of you.
C. I don’t believe it. D. Well done!

Question 42: China’s placement of its oil rig in Vietnam’s East Sea EEZ has been denounced by ASEAN and
Western politicians and professionals as the violation of Vietnam’s ______ waters.
A. territorial B. fresh C. farmed D. inland
Question 43: ______, she continued to carry out her duties.
A. Despite her good health B. Although in poor health
C. Although she is in good health D. No matter how poor her health
Question 44: While I was looking through my old albums the other day, I ______ this photograph of my
parents' wedding.
A. came across B. took after C. made up D. turned down
Question 45: Students are encouraged to develop critical thinking ______ accepting opinions without
questioning them.
A. in addition B. instead of C. for instance D. because of
Question 46: Jessica looks very tired. She ______ have stayed up late to finish her assignment last night.
A. must B. would C. will D. should
Question 47: Visitors to the local museum are mostly attracted by ______ rocking chair.
A. an old beautiful wooden European B. a wooden old beautiful European
C. an old wooden European beautiful D. a beautiful old European wooden
Question 48: “Could you turn off the stove? The potatoes ______ for at least thirty minutes.”
A. were boiling B. are boiling C. have been boiling D. boiled
Question 49: The young lady sat still in the afternoon breeze, with her hair ______ her back.
A. flowed down B. fallen against C. streaming down D. running over
Question 50: In the last match, Sabella changed his formation at half-time, introducing Fernando Gago in
midfield and Higuain in attack, but in the end it was Messi’s magic that ______ the difference.
A. made B. gave C. did D. took
Question 51: In my opinion, ______ new technology who will finally decide which ideas take off.
A. it is the user of B. that the user of
C. it is the development of D. that the development of
Question 52: They got lost in the forest, and ______ made matters worse was that night began to fall.
A. it B. what C. that D. which
Question 53: We need to talk more about ______ for the summer vacation before July.
A. where to go B. how to make C. when to use D. why to choose
Question 54: The carefully nurtured gardens with a wide ______ of flowers and fruit trees have added
elegance to this place and made it a major tourist attraction.
A. amount B. variety C. number D. species
Question 55: Phuong Thao is a student in Ms Lan’s writing class. She is asking for Ms Lan’s comments on her
last essay. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Phuong Thao: “You must have found reading my essay very tiring.”
Ms Lan: “______. I enjoyed it.”
A. At all costs B. Just in case C. Not in the least D. You are welcome
Question 56: He applied for a teaching ______ at Bales University with great confidence.
A. career B. employment C. post D. work
Question 57: The cinema is no longer as popular as it was in the 1930's and 1940's, but it is still an
important ______ of entertainment.
A. origin B. status C. source D. prospect
Question 58: ______ my mother’s encouragement, I wouldn’t have made such a daring decision.
A. Until B. In spite C. Providing D. But for
Question 59: In no circumstances ______ on campus.
A. smoking should be allowed B. should smoking be allowed
C. we should allow smoking D. should allow smoking
Question 60: “Take a spare tyre ______ you have a puncture on the way to the beach.”
A. unless B. in case C. if D. so that
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions.
Question 61: “Believe me. It’s no use reading that book,” Janet told her boyfriend.
A. Janet managed to persuade her boyfriend that reading the book was worthwhile.
B. Janet opposed her boyfriend’s idea that reading the book was not useful.
C. Janet suggested to her boyfriend that reading the book was useful.
D. Janet tried to convince her boyfriend that the book was not worth reading.

Question 62: The early failure of the Spanish squad in the 2014 World Cup deeply disappointed their fans.
A. Living up to their fans’ expectation, the Spanish squad left the 2014 World Cup so early.
B. That their squad left the 2014 World Cup so early was very disappointing for the Spanish sportsmen.
C. The Spanish squad was terribly disappointed that their fans had to leave the 2014 World Cup so early.
D. To the disappointment of their fans, the Spanish squad had to leave the 2014 World Cup too early.
Question 63: “Send this urgent document immediately!” the officer told the soldier.
A. The officer ordered the soldier to deliver the urgent document instantly.
B. The officer recommended the soldier leave right away because of the urgent document.
C. The officer advised the soldier to send the urgent document right away.
D. The officer requested that the soldier rush out due to the document’s urgency.
Question 64: “Why don't you join us for our next class reunion?” Mary said to me.
A. Mary insisted on my joining them for the next class reunion.
B. Mary strongly urged me to join them for the next class reunion.
C. Mary cordially invited me to join them for the next class reunion.
D. Mary advised me not to join them for the next class reunion.
Question 65: The president placed his car at my disposal as a bonus for my good work.
A. To show his appreciation for my good work, the president allowed me to use his car whenever I liked.
B. To get rid of the car, the president decided to sell it to me, his good worker, at a bonus price.
C. I was willing to drive the president’s car as a compliment for my good performance at work.
D. In order to praise me as a good worker, the president took me home in his own car.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines the
pair of sentences given in each of the following questions.
Question 66: She wrote the text. She selected the illustration as well.
A. In order to select the illustration, she had to write the text.
B. The text she wrote was not as good as the illustration she selected.
C. If she had written the text, she would have selected the illustration.
D. She not only wrote the text but also selected the illustration.
Question 67: Most scientists know him well. However, very few ordinary people have heard of him.
A. Not only scientists but also the general public know him as a big name.
B. Many ordinary people know him better than most scientists do.
C. Although he is well known to scientists, he is little known to the general public.
D. He is the only scientist that is not known to the general public.
Question 68: She looked through the hotel advertisements. She stopped only when taking a fancy to one piece.
A. She took so great a fancy to the hotel advertisements that she could not stop reading them.
B. She stopped reading the hotel advertisements only when one of them caught her fancy.
C. She found the hotel advertisements so interesting that she could hardly turn away from them.
D. She stopped looking through the hotel advertisements only when she had found another piece.
Question 69: I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books. I don't get muddled up.
A. I do not get muddled up due to the separation between homework and schoolwork.
B. Having two separate books at home and at work helps me avoid getting muddled up.
C. I would get muddled up if I did not separate homework from schoolwork.
D. I do my homework and schoolwork in separate books so that I don't get muddled up.
Question 70: Nam defeated the former champion in three sets. He finally won the inter-school table tennis
championship.
A. Although Nam defeated the former champion in three sets, he did not win the title of inter-school table
tennis champion.
B. Being defeated by the former champion, Nam lost the chance to play the final game of inter-school table
tennis championship.
C. Having defeated the former champion in three sets, Nam won the inter-school table tennis championship.
D. Having defeated the former champion in the inter-school table tennis, Nam did not hold the title of
champion.
Centuries ago, man discovered that removing moisture from food helped to preserve it, and that the easiest
way to do this was to expose the food to sun and wind. In this way the North American Indians produced
pemmican (dried meat ground into powder and made into cakes), the Scandinavians made stockfish and the
Arabs dried dates and apricots.

All foods contain water - cabbage and other leaf vegetables contain as much as 93% water, potatoes and
other root vegetables 80%, lean meat 75% and fish anything from 80% to 60% depending on how fatty it is. If
this water is removed, the activity of the bacteria which cause food to go bad is checked.
Fruit is sun-dried in Asia Minor, Greece, Spain and other Mediterranean countries, and also in California,
South Africa and Australia. The methods used vary, but in general the fruit is spread out on trays in drying
yards in the hot sun. In order to prevent darkening, pears, peaches and apricots are exposed to the fumes of
burning sulphur before drying. Plums for making prunes, and certain varieties of grapes for making raisins and
currants, are dipped in an alkaline solution in order to crack the skins of the fruit slightly and remove their wax
coating, so increasing the rate of drying.
Nowadays most foods are dried mechanically; the conventional method of such dehydration is to put food in
chambers through which hot air is blown at temperatures of about 110°C at entry to about 45°C at exit. This is
the usual method for drying such things as vegetables, minced meat, and fish.
Liquids such as milk, coffee, tea, soups and eggs may be dried by pouring them over a heated horizontal
steel cylinder or by spraying them into a chamber through which a current of hot air passes. In the first case,
the dried material is scraped off the roller as a thin film which is then broken up into small, though still relatively
coarse flakes. In the second process it falls to the bottom of the chamber as a fine powder. Where recognizable
pieces of meat and vegetables are required, as in soup, the ingredients are dried separately and then mixed.
Dried foods take up less room and weigh less than the same food packed in cans or frozen, and they do not
need to be stored in special conditions. For these reasons they are invaluable to climbers, explorers and soldiers
in battle, who have little storage space. They are also popular with housewives because it takes so little time to
cook them.
From Practical Faster Reading by Gerald Mosback and Vivien Mosback. CUP
Question 71: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Mechanization of drying foods. B. Water: the main component of food.
C. Advantages of dried foods. D. Different methods of drying foods.
Question 72: The phrase “do this” in the first paragraph mostly means ______.
A. moisten foods B. expose foods to sun and wind
C. remove moisture from foods D. produce pemmican
Question 73: The word “checked” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ______.
A. put a tick B. reduced considerably C. motivated to develop D. examined carefully
Question 74: In the process of drying certain kinds of fruits, sulphur fumes help ______.
A. crack their skin B. kill off bacteria
C. remove their wax coating D. maintain their color
Question 75: Nowadays the common method for drying vegetables and minced meat is ______.
A. spreading them out on trays in drying yards
B. dipping them in an alkaline solution
C. putting them in chambers and blowing hot air through
D. pouring them over a heated horizontal steel cylinder
Question 76: What does the word “which” in the fourth paragraph refer to?
A. Foods B. Chambers C. Things D. Vegetables
Question 77: The final product of the process of drying liquids that uses the first method will be ______.
A. dried soup B. recognizable pieces C. fine powder D. small flakes
Question 78: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Liquids are not dried in the same way as fruits and vegetables.
B. People in India began to use drying methods centuries ago.
C. Dried foods have several advantages over canned or frozen foods.
D. Fruit is usually dried by being laid out on trays in the sun.
Question 79: According to the passage, dried foods are most useful for ______.
A. people who are on the move B. explorers who are underweight
C. housewives who have little storage space D. soldiers who are not in battle
Question 80: This passage is mainly ______.
A. informative B. fictional C. argumentative D. analytical
---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2015
Môn: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Mã đề thi 194
Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................

Số báo danh:................................................................................
SECTION A (8 points)
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. deal B. teach C. break D. clean
Question 2: A. supported B. approached C. noticed D. finished
three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. recipe B. candidate C. instrument D. commitment
Question 4: A. conceal B. contain C. conserve D. conquer
Question 5: A. advantageous B. oceanic C. compulsory D. influential
Question 6: The receptionist, ______ answered the phone, told me that the director was out.
A. whose B. whom C. who D. that
Question 7: Changes have been made in our primary schooling program. As a result, young children ______
do homework any more.
A. needn’t B. oughtn’t C. couldn’t D. haven’t
Question 8: ______ the salesman promised to exchange the defective CD player for a new one, they insisted
on getting a refund.
A. Despite B. Although C. And D. But
Question 9: The headmaster has decided that three lecture halls ______ in our school next semester.
A. will build B. will be built C. are being built D. will be building
Question 10: Although MERS (Middle East Respiratory Syndrome) spreads through close contact with sick
people, not through the air, many people still avoid ______ to crowded places.
A. to go B. having gone C. gone D. going
Question 11: Students will not be allowed into the exam room if they ______ their student cards.
A. produced B. hadn’t produced C. didn’t produce D. don’t produce
Question 12: A large number of inventions and discoveries have been made ______ accident.
A. at B. on C. in D. by
Question 13: When asked about their preference for movies, many young people say that they are in favour
______ science fiction.
A. in B. for C. of D. with
Question 14: A molecule of water is ______ of two atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen.
A. composed B. created C. included D. consisted
Question 15: Jane really loves the ______ jewelry box that her parents gave her as a birthday present.
A. nice brown wooden B. brown wooden nice C. nice wooden brown D. wooden brown nice
Question 16: Global warming will result ______ crop failures and famine.
A. of B. to C. in D. from
Question 17: John has finally found a new job after being ______ for three months.
A. out of order B. out of mind C. out of work D. out of reach
Question 18: Nguyen Thi Anh Vien performed so well in the 28th Sea Games women’s 200m butterfly that
none of her rivals could ______ her.
A. catch up with B. look up to C. come up to D. put up with

Question 19: After the new technique had been introduced, the factory produced ______ cars in 2014 as the
year before.
A. twice many as B. as twice many C. as many twice D. twice as many
Question 20: It is ______ of businessmen to shake hands in formal meetings.
A. familiar B. typical C. ordinary D. common
Question 21: Such characters as fairies or witches in Walt Disney animated cartoons are purely ______.
A. imaginary B. imagining C. imaginative D. imaginable
Question 22: ______ at school yesterday when we were informed that there was no class due to a sudden
power cut.
A. We had arrived hardly B. We have hardly arrived
C. Hardly we had arrived D. Hardly had we arrived
Question 23: Mike and Lane are university students. They are talking about Lane’s upcoming high-school
reunion. Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Mike: “So, you have your fifth high-school reunion coming up?”
Lane: “______”
A. Oh, the school reunion was wonderful. B. The food at the reunion was excellent.
C. Yeah. I’m really looking forward to it. D. No. You’re in no mood for the event.
Question 24: Ken and Tom are high-school students. They are discussing where their study group will meet.
Select the most suitable response to fill in the blank.
Ken: “Where is our study group going to meet next weekend?”
Tom: “______”
A. We are too busy on weekdays. B. The library would be best.
C. Why don’t you look at the atlas? D. Studying in a group is great fun.
Question 25: When Susan invited us to dinner, she really showed off her culinary talents. She prepared a
feast – a huge selection of dishes that were simply mouth-watering.
A. concerning nutrition and health B. involving hygienic conditions and diseases
C. relating to medical knowledge D. having to do with food and cooking
Question 26: Suddenly, it began to rain heavily, so all the summer hikers got drenched all over.
A. very tired B. refreshed C. completely wet D. cleansed
Question 27: “It’s no use talking to me about metaphysics. It’s a closed book to me.”
A. an object that I really love B. a book that is never opened
C. a subject that I don’t understand D. a theme that I like to discuss
Question 28: It is common knowledge that solar heating for a large office building is technically different
A B C
from a single-family home.
D
Question 29: The number of homeless people in Nepal have increased sharply due to the recent
A B C
severe earthquake.
D
Question 30: All the candidates for the scholarship will be equally treated regarding of their age, sex,
A B C
or nationality.
D
Question 31: Since poaching is becoming more seriously, the government has imposed stricter laws
A B C
to prevent it.
D
Question 32: Reminding not to miss the 15:20 train, the manager set out for the station in a hurry.
A B C D

correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 33 to 42.
Library is a collection of books and other informational materials made available to people for reading,
study, or reference. The word library comes (33)______ liber, the Latin word for “book”. (34)______, library
collections have almost always contained a variety of materials. Contemporary libraries maintain collections
that include not only printed materials such as manuscripts, books, newspapers, and magazines, (35)______
audio-visual and online databases. In addition (36)______ maintaining collections within library buildings,
modern libraries often feature telecommunications links that provide users with access to information at
remote sites.
The central mission of a library (37)______ to collect, organize, preserve, and provide access to
knowledge and information. In fulfilling this mission, libraries preserve a valuable record of culture that can be
passed down to (38)______ generations. Libraries are an essential link in this communication between the
past, present, and future. Whether the cultural record is contained in books or in electronic formats, libraries
ensure (39)______ the record is preserved and made available for later use.
People use library resources to gain information about personal (40)______ or to obtain recreational
materials such as films and novels. Students use libraries to supplement and enhance their classroom
experiences, to learn (41)______ in locating sources of information, and to develop good reading and study
habits. Public officials use libraries to research legislation and public policy issues. One of the most valued of
all cultural institutions, the library (42) ______ information and services that are essential to learning and
progress.
From "Library (institution)" by Richard S. Halsey et al.
Question 33: A. from B. in C. to D. out
Question 34: A. Despite B. However C. Therefore D. Instead
Question 35: A. only if B. as well C. or else D. but also
Question 36: A. on B. to C. in D. from
Question 37: A. are B. is C. have D. has
Question 38: A. succeeding B. succeed C. successful D. success
Question 39: A. what B. which C. who D. that
Question 40: A. profits B. attractions C. interests D. appeals
Question 41: A. abilities B. skills C. talents D. capacities
Question 42: A. relates B. applies C. supplies D. digests
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 43: “Don't be such a pessimist. I'm sure you'll soon get over it. Cheer up!”
A. activist B. feminist C. optimist D. hobbyist
Question 44: “Be quick! We must speed up if we don’t want to miss the flight.”
A. turn down B. look up C. slow down D. put forward
Plants and animals will find it difficult to escape from or adjust to the effects of global warming. Scientists
have already observed shifts in the lifecycles of many plants and animals, such as flowers blooming earlier and
birds hatching earlier in the spring. Many species have begun shifting where they live or their annual migration
patterns due to warmer temperatures.
With further warming, animals will tend to migrate toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher
elevations. Plants will also attempt to shift their ranges, seeking new areas as old habitats grow too warm. In
many places, however, human development will prevent these shifts. Species that find cities or farmland
blocking their way north or south may become extinct. Species living in unique ecosystems, such as those
found in polar and mountaintop regions, are especially at risk because migration to new habitats is not
possible. For example, polar bears and marine mammals in the Arctic are already threatened by dwindling
sea ice but have nowhere farther north to go.
Projecting species extinction due to global warming is extremely difficult. Some scientists have estimated
that 20 to 50 percent of species could be committed to extinction with 2 to 3 Celsius degrees of further

warming. The rate of warming, not just the magnitude, is extremely important for plants and animals. Some
species and even entire ecosystems, such as certain types of forest, may not be able to adjust quickly enough
and may disappear.
Ocean ecosystems, especially fragile ones like coral reefs, will also be affected by global warming. Warmer
ocean temperatures can cause coral to “bleach”, a state which if prolonged will lead to the death of the coral.
Scientists estimate that even 1 Celsius degree of additional warming could lead to widespread bleaching and
death of coral reefs around the world. Also, increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere enters the ocean and
increases the acidity of ocean waters. This acidification further stresses ocean ecosystems.
From "Global Warming" by Michael Mastrandrea and Stephen H. Schneider
Question 45: Scientists have observed that warmer temperatures in the spring cause flowers to ______.
A. die instantly B. bloom earlier C. become lighter D. lose color
Question 46: According to paragraph 2, when their habitats grow warmer, animals tend to move ______.
A. south-eastwards and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
B. north-westwards and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
C. toward the North Pole and down mountainsides toward lower elevations
D. toward the poles and up mountainsides toward higher elevations
Question 47: The pronoun “those” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. species B. ecosystems C. habitats D. areas
Question 48: The phrase “dwindling sea ice” in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. the frozen water in the Arctic B. the violent Arctic Ocean
C. the melting ice in the Arctic D. the cold ice in the Arctic
Question 49: It is mentioned in the passage that if the global temperature rose by 2 or 3 Celsius degrees,
______.
A. half of the earth’s surface would be flooded
B. the sea level would rise by 20 centimeters
C. water supply would decrease by 50 percent
D. 20 to 50 percent of species could become extinct
Question 50: According to the passage, if some species are not able to adjust quickly to warmer
temperatures, ______.
A. they may be endangered B. they can begin to develop
C. they will certainly need water D. they move to tropical forests
Question 51: The word “fragile” in paragraph 4 most probably means ______.
A. very large B. easily damaged C. rather strong D. pretty hard
Question 52: The bleaching of coral reefs as mentioned in paragraph 4 indicates ______.
A. the water absorption of coral reefs B. the quick growth of marine mammals
C. the blooming phase of sea weeds D. the slow death of coral reefs
Question 53: The level of acidity in the ocean is increased by ______.
A. the rising amount of carbon dioxide entering the ocean
B. the decrease of acidity of the pole waters
C. the extinction of species in coastal areas
D. the loss of acidity in the atmosphere around the earth
Question 54: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Influence of climate changes on human lifestyles
B. Effects of global warming on animals and plants
C. Global warming and possible solutions
D. Global warming and species migration
Overpopulation, the situation of having large numbers of people with too few resources and too little
space, is closely associated with poverty. It can result from high population density, or from low amounts of
resources, or from both. Excessively high population densities put stress on available resources. Only a certain
number of people can be supported on a given area of land, and that number depends on how much food
and other resources the land can provide. In countries where people live primarily by means of simple
farming, gardening, herding, hunting, and gathering, even large areas of land can support only small numbers
of people because these labor-intensive subsistence activities produce only small amounts of food.

In developed countries such as the United States, Japan, and the countries of Western Europe,
overpopulation generally is not considered a major cause of poverty. These countries produce large quantities
of food through mechanized farming, which depends on commercial fertilizers, large-scale irrigation, and
agricultural machinery. This form of production provides enough food to support the high densities of people
in metropolitan areas.
A country’s level of poverty can depend greatly on its mix of population density and agricultural
productivity. Bangladesh, for example, has one of the world’s highest population densities, with 1,147 persons
per sq km. A large majority of the people of Bangladesh engage in low-productivity manual farming, which
contributes to the country’s extremely high level of poverty. Some of the smaller countries in Western Europe,
such as the Netherlands and Belgium, have high population densities as well. These countries practice
mechanized farming and are involved in high-tech industries, however, and therefore have high standards of
living.
At the other end of the spectrum, many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have population densities of less
than 30 persons per sq km. Many people in these countries practice manual subsistence farming; these
countries also have infertile land, and lack the economic resources and technology to boost productivity. As a
consequence, these nations are very poor. The United States has both relatively low population density and
high agricultural productivity; it is one of the world’s wealthiest nations.
High birth rates contribute to overpopulation in many developing countries. Children are assets to many
poor families because they provide labor, usually for farming. Cultural norms in traditionally rural societies
commonly sanction the value of large families. Also, the governments of developing countries often provide
little or no support, financial or political, for family planning; even people who wish to keep their families small
have difficulty doing so. For all these reasons, developing countries tend to have high rates of population
growth.
From "Poverty" by Thomas J. Corbett
Question 55: Which of the following is given a definition in paragraph 1?
A. Overpopulation B. Population density C. Simple farming D. Poverty
Question 56: What will suffer when there are excessively high population densities?
A. Available resources B. Skilled labor C. Farming methods D. Land area
Question 57: The phrase “that number” in paragraph 1 refers to the number of ______.
A. people B. densities C. resources D. countries
Question 58: In certain countries, large areas of land can only yield small amounts of food because ______.
A. there is lack of mechanization B. there are small numbers of laborers
C. there is an abundance of resources D. there is no shortage of skilled labor
Question 59: Bangladesh is a country where the level of poverty depends greatly on ______.
A. its population density only
B. both population density and agricultural productivity
C. population density in metropolitan areas
D. its high agricultural productivity
Question 60: The phrase “engage in” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. escape from B. look into C. give up D. participate in
Question 61: The word “infertile” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. disused B. impossible C. unproductive D. inaccessible
Question 62: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. In certain developed countries, mechanized farming is applied.
B. In sub-Saharan African countries, productivity is boosted by technology.
C. There is no connection between a country’s culture and overpopulation.
D. All small countries in Western Europe have high population densities.
Question 63: Which of the following is a contributor to overpopulation in many developing countries?
A. High-tech facilities B. Economic resources
C. Sufficient financial support D. High birth rates
Question 64: Which of the following could be the best title for the passage?
A. High Birth Rate and its Consequences B. Overpopulation: A Cause of Poverty
C. Overpopulation: A Worldwide Problem D. Poverty in Developing Countries

SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Question 1: If John does not change his working style, he will be sacked soon.
Unless _____________________________________________________.
Question 2: “Would you like to come to my 18th birthday party?” he asked me.
He invited __________________________________________________.
Question 3: People believe that this new teaching method is more effective than the old one.
This new teaching method ____________________________________.
Question 4: He did not realize how difficult the task was until he was halfway through it.
Not until __________________________________________________.
Question 5: It was wrong of you to leave the class without asking for your teacher’s permission.
You should not _____________________________________________.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of reading books. Write your
paragraph on your answer sheet.
The following prompts might be helpful to you.

- Widening knowledge
- Improving language
- Relaxing
---------------------------------------------------------- THE END ----------

Môn: TIẾNG ANH
Mã đề thi 642
Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................

Số báo danh:................................................................................
SECTION A (8 points)
Question 1: A. maintains B. imports C. laughs D. drops
Question 2: A. campus B. brush C. justice D. culture
Question 3: A. biography B. curriculum C. admirable D. compulsory
Question 4: A. inflation B. applicant C. maximum D. character
Question 5: A. anxious B. comfort C. confide D. struggle
Question 6: In a modern family, the husband is expected to join hands with his wife to ______ the
household chores.
A. do B. take C. make D. run
Question 7: Canned food is not as healthy as fresh food, ______?
A. isn’t it B. is it C. doesn’t it D. does it
Question 8: ______ they are delicious, hamburgers and French fries are too high in fat.
A. Because B. Although C. Despite D. However
Question 9: In the wake of increasing food poisoning, many consumers have turned to vegetables ______
organically.
A. grown B. are grown C. which grows D. that grown
Question 10: This part of the country is famous ______ its beautiful landscapes and fine cuisine.
A. of B. with C. for D. about
Question 11: Without your help, I ______ the technical problem with my computer the other day.
A. could solve B. wouldn’t solve C. can’t solve D. couldn’t have solved
Question 12: It is raining heavily with rolls of thunder. We ______ such a terrible thunderstorm.
A. would never see B. have never seen C. never see D. had never seen
Question 13: Most teenagers enjoy ______ the Internet for information and entertainment.
A. to surf B. surf C. surfed D. surfing
Question 14: Candidates are requested to ______ the form to the admissions officer by July 25th.
A. hand in B. fill out C. show up D. pass over
Question 15: The US president Barack Obama ______ an official visit to Vietnam in May 2016, which is of
great significance to the comprehensive bilateral partnership.
A. gave B. paid C. delivered D. offered
Question 16: Most psychologists agree that the basic structure of an individual’s personality is ______.
A. well established quite by the age of five
B. quite well established by the age of five
C. by the age of five it is quite well established
D. by the age of five and quite well established

Question 17: Two close friends Tom and Kyle are talking about Kyle’s upcoming birthday. Select the most
suitable response to complete the exchange.
- Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your birthday party?”
- Kyle: “______”
A. The more the merrier. B. That’s right.
C. It’s my honour. D. Let’s do it then.
Question 18: The table in the living room should be moved to ______ the new TV set.
A. get rid of B. take hold of C. make room for D. pave the way for
Question 19: All the ______ in the stadium applauded the winner of the marathon when he crossed the
finishing line.
A. watchers B. audience C. spectators D. viewers
Question 20: The firefighters’ single-minded devotion to the rescue of the victims of the fire was ______.
A. respective B. respectable C. respectful D. respecting
Question 21: The Government has brought ______ a new law in an effort to prevent further environmental
deterioration.
A. on B. in C. about D. up
Question 22: The university administrations are introducing new measures to ______ that the enrolment
process runs smoothly.
A. improve B. maintain C. facilitate D. ensure
Question 23: She took a course in fine arts ______ starting her own business in interior design.
A. in terms of B. with a view to C. in order to D. with reference to
Question 24: A waiter in a restaurant is talking to a customer who has just finished his meal there. Select the
most suitable response to complete the exchange.
- Waiter: “Here’s your bill, sir.”
- Customer: “______”
A. You’re welcome. B. What do you have?
C. Don’t mention it. D. Can I pay by credit card?
Question 25: According to most doctors, massage relieves pain and anxiety, eases depression and
A B
speeding up recovery from illnesses.
C D
Question 26: Because of bad weather conditions, it took the explorers three days reaching their destination.
A B C D
Question 27: New sources of energy have been looking for as the number of fossil fuels continues to decrease.
A B C D
Question 28: The longer the children waited in the long queue, the more impatiently they became.
A B C D
Question 29: The science of medicine, which progress has been very rapid lately, is perhaps the most important
A B C
of all sciences.
D
Question 30: It is widely known that the excessive use of pesticides is producing a detrimental effect on the
local groundwater.
A. useless B. fundamental C. harmless D. damaging
Question 31: His dreamlike villa in the new residential quarter is the envy of his friends.
A. something that everybody dreams of B. something that everybody looks for
C. something that nobody can afford D. something that nobody wants

Though called by sweet-sounding names like Firinga or Katrina, tropical cyclones are huge rotating storms
200 to 2,000 kilometers wide with winds that blow at speeds of more than 100 kilometers per hour (kph).
Weather professionals know them as tropical cyclones, but they are called hurricanes in the Caribbean Sea,
typhoons in the Pacific Ocean, and cyclones in the Indian Ocean. They occur in both the northern and
southern hemispheres. Large ones have destroyed cities and killed hundreds of thousands of people.
Tropical cyclones begin over water that is warmer than 27 degrees Celsius (80 degrees Fahrenheit) slightly
north or south of the earth’s equator. Warm, humid air full of water vapor moves upward. The earth’s
rotation causes the growing storm to start to rotate around its center (called the eye). At a certain height, the
water vapor condenses, changing to liquid and releasing heat. The heat draws more air and water vapor
upward, creating a cycle as air and water vapor rise and liquid water falls. If the cycle speeds up until winds
reach 118 kilometers per hour, the storm qualifies as a tropical cyclone.
Most deaths in tropical cyclones are caused by storm surge. This is a rise in sea level, sometimes seven
meters or more, caused by the storm pushing against the ocean’s surface. Storm surge was to blame for the
flooding of New Orleans in 2005. The storm surge of Cyclone Nargis in 2008 in Myanmar pushed seawater
nearly four meters deep some 40 kilometers inland, resulting in many deaths.
It has never been easy to forecast a tropical cyclone accurately. The goal is to know when and where the
next tropical cyclone will form. “And we can’t really do that yet,” says David Nolan, a weather researcher from
the University of Miami. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are also difficult to predict, even with
computer assistance. In fact, long-term forecasts are poor; small differences in the combination of weather
factors lead to very different storms. More accurate forecasting could help people decide to evacuate when a
storm is on the way.
Adapted from “Reading Explorer 2” by Paul Maclntyre
Question 32: As stated in paragraph 1, tropical cyclones are storms with winds blowing at speeds of ______.
A. no less than 200 kph B. more than 100 kph
C. at least 200 kph D. less than 100 kph
Question 33: The word “they” in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. tropical cyclones B. wind speeds
C. weather professionals D. sweet-sounding names
Question 34: According to the passage, tropical cyclones are called typhoons in ______.
A. the Atlantic Ocean B. the Pacific Ocean
C. the Indian Ocean D. the Arctic Ocean
Question 35: The word “humid” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. thin B. thick C. dry D. moist
Question 36: Which of the following comes first in the process of storm formation?
A. Liquid water falls. B. Warm, humid air moves upward.
C. Wind speed reaches 118 kph. D. Water vapor condenses.
Question 37: According to the passage, a storm surge is ______.
A. pushing seawater B. a tropical cyclone
C. inland flooding D. a rise in sea level
Question 38: What is true about the storm surge of Cyclone Nargis?
A. It caused flooding in New Orleans in 2005. B. It pushed seawater 4 kilometers inland.
C. It took a very high death toll. D. It occurred in Myanmar in 2005.
Question 39: The word “evacuate” in paragraph 4 mostly means ______.
A. call for relief supplies B. make accurate predictions
C. move to safer places D. take preventive measures
Question 40: Which of the following statements is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The direction and strength of tropical cyclones are difficult to forecast.
B. The center of a growing storm is known as its eye.
C. Tropical cyclone predictions depend entirely on computer assistance.
D. Tropical cyclones are often given beautiful names.
Question 41: Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Tropical Cyclones B. Cyclone Formation
C. Cyclone Forecasting D. Storm Surges

Question 42: Environmentalists appeal to the government to enact laws to stop factories from discharging
toxic chemicals into the sea.
A. producing B. dismissing C. obtaining D. releasing
Question 43: Not until all their demands had been turned down did the workers decide to go on strike for
more welfare.
A. reviewed B. sacked C. deleted D. rejected
Question 44: The overall aim of the book is to help bridge the gap between theory and practice, particularly
in language teaching.
A. increase the understanding B. reduce the differences
C. minimise the limitations D. construct a bridge
THE DANGERS OF DIETING
Thanks to our modern lifestyle, with more and more time spent sitting down in front of computers than
ever before, the (45)______ of overweight people is at a new high. As people frantically search for a solution
(46)______ this problem, they often try some of the popular fad diets being offered. Many people see fad diets
(47)______ harmless ways of losing weight, and they are grateful to have them. Unfortunately, not only don’t
fad diets usually (48)______ the trick, they can actually be dangerous for your health.
Although permanent weight loss is the (49)______, few are able to achieve it. Experts estimate that 95
percent of dieters return to their starting weight, or even (50)______ weight. While the reckless use of fad
diets can bring some (51)______ results, long-term results are very rare.
(52)______, people who are fed up with the difficulties of changing their eating habits often turn to fad
diets. (53)______ being moderate, fad diets involve extreme dietary changes. They advise eating only one type
of food, or they prohibit other types of foods entirely. This results in a situation (54)______ a person’s body
doesn’t get all the vitamins and other things that it needs to stay healthy.
Adapted from “Active Skills for Reading: Book 3” by Neil J. Anderson
Question 45: A. amount B. sum C. number D. range
Question 46: A. to B. of C. on D. with
Question 47: A. by B. through C. like D. as
Question 48: A. bring B. do C. take D. play
Question 49: A. profit B. benefit C. goal D. case
Question 50: A. lose B. reduce C. put D. gain
Question 51: A. initiative B. initiating C. initiate D. initial
Question 52: A. Nonetheless B. Consequently C. Additionally D. Furthermore
Question 53: A. Rather than B. In spite of C. In addition to D. More than
Question 54: A. where B. which C. why D. what
The concept of urban agriculture may conjure up images of rooftop, backyard or community gardens
scattered among downtown city streets and surrounding neighborhoods. But in the Seattle area, and within
and beyond the Puget Sound region, it means a great deal more. “Urban agriculture doesn’t necessarily
equate to production that occurs only in a metropolitan urban area,” says Jason Niebler, who directs the
Sustainable Agriculture Education (SAgE) Initiative at Seattle Central Community College. “It means we are
providing for growing population food needs from surrounding rural landscapes, as well as from the core
urban landscape.”
Picture a series of concentric circles, with an urban core that produces some food at varying capacities,
surrounded by a series of outlying rings of small farms that become increasingly more rural with distance. The
hope is that such land use planning, from the inner core to the outer rings, will encourage local ecologically
sound sustainable food production. This, in turn, will create local jobs and decrease reliance on distant food
products that originate from petroleum-intensive large scale farms.

That’s the idea behind SAgE, believed to be the nation’s first metropolitan-based community college
sustainable agriculture program that emphasizes farming practices across diverse landscape types from urban
centers to surrounding rural environs. “It’s small scale agriculture with an urban focus,” Niebler says. “Any
urban population, large or small, can practice sustainable agriculture, improve food security and protect the
environment, which ultimately results in resilient food systems and communities.”
SAgE is a part of the National Science Foundation’s Advanced Technological Education (ATE) Program,
which is providing the project with $157,375 over two years. ATE’s goal is to support projects that strengthen
the skills of technicians who work in industries regarded as vital to the nation’s prosperity and security. The
support largely goes to community colleges that work in partnership with universities, secondary schools,
businesses and industries, as well as government agencies, which design and implement model workforce
initiatives.
The SAgE project focuses on the environmental, socioeconomic, political and cultural issues related to
sustainable food systems within Puget Sound watersheds through student and community education and
research, and technological innovation. The curriculum offers courses that cover such issues as agricultural
ecology, urban food systems, food politics and ethics, soil science, sustainable food production and
technology, the integration of food and forests, and career opportunities.
“We’ve created a curriculum that is fundamental in nature, addressing the principles of sustainable
agriculture and what a food system is – how it functions both locally and globally,” Niebler says. “These
courses are challenging, robust and inspirational. One of the really wonderful things about them is that we
offer service learning opportunities, where students volunteer a portion of their time to working with local
partner organizations. They can do a research project, or a service learning option. The ideal would be to
prompt students into careers that involve sustainable practices in an urban agriculture setting.”
Adapted from “Promoting Sustainable Agriculture” by Marlene Cimons
Question 55: It is stated in the passage that Jason Niebler ______.

A. directs the SAgE Initiative B. provides food for Seattle’s population
C. preserves the core urban landscape D. studies at Seattle Central Community College
Question 56: It can be inferred from the passage that the conventional idea of urban agriculture ______.
A. focuses mainly on agriculture within and beyond the Puget Sound region
B. concerns with food production in any city’s surrounding areas
C. aims at food production and consumption in both rural and urban regions
D. is associated with production only in metropolitan urban areas
Question 57: The word “concentric” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. having the same center B. going in different directions
C. having the same size D. coming from different places
Question 58: Which of the following is supposed to be an outcome of the SAgE’s new land use planning?
A. Modernized farming practices in rural environs
B. Dependence on distant food products
C. Employment opportunities for local residents
D. Increased food production in large scale farms
Question 59: The phrase “in partnership with” in paragraph 4 probably means ______.
A. in addition to B. instead of C. together with D. in place of
Question 60: The curriculum of SAgE at Seattle Central Community College offers courses covering the
following EXCEPT ______.
A. integration of food and forests B. career opportunities
C. urban system development D. agricultural ecology
Question 61: In Niebler’s opinion, the courses offered by the SAgE project are ______.
A. robust but unpromising B. functional but impractical
C. challenging and costly D. hard but encouraging
Question 62: The word “them” in paragraph 6 refers to ______.
A. courses B. opportunities C. students D. principles
A. Resilient food systems can be attributed to sustainable agricultural practices.
B. The curriculum that the SAgE project designs is fundamental in nature.
C. The SAgE project alone will offer students sufficient jobs in urban agriculture.
D. ATE helps to improve the skills of technicians in the nation’s major industries.
Question 64: Which of the following best describes the author’s tone in the passage?
A. Satirical B. Supportive C. Provocative D. Skeptical

SECTION B (2 points)
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence
printed before it. Write your answers in complete sentences on your answer sheet.
Question 1: He now regrets that he didn’t take the doctor’s advice.
He now wishes ___________________________________________________________.
Question 2: “I’m sorry. I didn’t do the homework,” Peter said to the teacher.
Peter apologised __________________________________________________________.
Question 3: I’m sure that he didn’t attend the Conference on Wildlife Protection yesterday.
He can’t _________________________________________________________________.
Question 4: She didn’t pass the exam because of her serious illness.
Had she not ______________________________________________________________.
Question 5: Ms Betty is proud of her singing.
Ms Betty prides ___________________________________________________________.
II. In about 140 words, write a paragraph about the benefits of knowing how to swim. Write
your paragraph on your answer sheet.
The following prompts might be helpful to you.

- Keeping fit
- Relaxing
- Surviving/Saving people’s lives
-----
_________THE END_________

Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Họ, tên thí sinh: ......................................................................... Mã đề thi 401

Số báo danh: .............................................................................
Question 1. A. teacher B. lesson C. action D. police
Question 2. A. importance B. happiness C. employment D. relation
Question 3. A. date B. face C. page D. map
Question 4. A. played B. planned C. cooked D. lived
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 5. Liz is telling Andrew about her first novel.
Liz: "Guess what? My first novel has just been published."
Andrew: "______"
A. It's my pleasure. B. Congratulations!
C. Better luck next time! D. It's very kind of you.
Question 6. Jenny and her teacher are meeting at the bus stop.
Jenny: "Good afternoon, Miss. How are you?"
Teacher: "______. And you?"
A. I'm going home B. I'm leaving now C. I'm thirty years old D. Fine, thank you
Question 7. As a sociable boy, Jack enjoys spending his free time going out with friends.
A. mischievous B. outgoing C. caring D. shy
Question 8. It's not a pleasant feeling to discover you've been taken for a ride by a close friend.
A. driven away B. deceived deliberately
C. given a lift D. treated with sincerity
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning
Question 9. Heavy rain makes driving on the road very difficult.
A. hard B. easy C. interesting D. simple
Question 10. A series of programs have been broadcast to raise public awareness of healthy living.
A. experience B. understanding C. confidence D. assistance

Question 11. It is not always easy to make a good ______ at the last minute.
A. decide B. decision C. decisive D. decisively
Question 12. Mr Brown has kindly agreed to spare us some of his ______ time to answer our questions.
A. valuable B. worthy C. costly D. beneficial
Question 13. More and more investors are pouring ______ money into food and beverage start-ups.
A. an B. the C. Ø D. a
Question 14. A survey was ______ to study the effects of smoking on young adults.
A. commented B. filled C. conducted D. carried
Question 15. The better the weather is, ______.
A. the most crowded the beaches get B. the most the beaches get crowded
C. the more crowded the beaches get D. the more the beaches get crowded
Question 16. The book ______ you gave me is very interesting.
A. when B. which C. who D. where
Question 17. The ______ of the Internet has played an important part in the development of
communication.
A. research B. occurrence C. invention D. display
Question 18. When the manager of our company retires, the deputy manager will ______ that position.
A. stand for B. take over C. catch on D. hold on
Question 19. I ______ my old school teacher last week.
A. visited B. visit C. am visiting D. have visited
Question 20. Paul has just sold his ______ car and intends to buy a new one.
A. black old Japanese B. Japanese old black C. old black Japanese D. old Japanese black
Question 21. You ______ use your mobile phone during the test. It's against the rules.
A. mightn't B. mustn't C. oughtn't D. needn't
Question 22. A university degree is considered to be a ______ for entry into most professions.
A. demand B. requisite C. claim D. request
In the early twentieth century, an American woman named Emily Post wrote a book on
etiquette. This book explained the proper behavior Americans should follow in many different social
(23)______, from birthday parties to funerals. But in modern society, it is not simply to know the
proper rules for behavior in your own country. It is necessary for people (24)______ work or travel
abroad to understand the rules of etiquette in other cultures as well.
Cultural (25)______ can be found in such simple processes as giving or receiving a gift. In
Western cultures, a gift can be given to the receiver with relatively little ceremony. When a gift is
offered, the receiver usually takes the gift and expresses his or her thanks. (26)______, in some
Asian countries, the act of gift-giving may appear confusing to Westerners. In Chinese culture, both
the giver and receiver understand that the receiver will typically refuse to take the gift several times
before he or she finally accepts it. In addition, to (27)______ respect for the receiver, it is common
in several Asian cultures to use both hands when offering a gift to another person.
(Source: Reading Advantage by Casey Malarcher)

Question 23. A. positions B. conditions C. situations D. locations
Question 24. A. who B. which C. where D. whose
Question 25. A. differences B. different C. differently D. differ
Question 26. A. Moreover B. Therefore C. However D. Otherwise
Question 27. A. show B. get C. feel D. take
Different cultures follow their own special customs when a child's baby teeth fall out. In Korea,
for example, they have the custom of throwing lost teeth up on the roof of a house. According to
tradition, a magpie will come and take the tooth. Later, the magpie will return with a new tooth for
the child. In other Asian countries, such as Japan and Vietnam, children follow a similar tradition of
throwing their lost teeth onto the roofs of houses.
Birds aren't the only animals thought to take lost teeth. In Mexico and Spain, tradition says a
mouse takes a lost tooth and leaves some money. However, in Mongolia, dogs are responsible for
taking teeth away. Dogs are highly respected in Mongolian culture and are considered guardian
angels of the people. Tradition says that the new tooth will grow good and strong if the baby tooth
is fed to a guardian angel. Accordingly, parents in Mongolia will put their child's lost tooth in a piece
of meat and feed it to a dog.
The idea of giving lost teeth to an angel or fairy is also a tradition in the West. Many children
in Western countries count on the Tooth Fairy to leave money or presents in exchange for a tooth.
The exact origins of the Tooth Fairy are a mystery, although the story probably began in England
or Ireland centuries ago. According to tradition, a child puts a lost tooth under his or her pillow
before going to bed. In the wee hours, while the child is sleeping, the Tooth Fairy takes the tooth
and leaves something else under the pillow. In France, the Tooth Fairy leaves a small gift. In the
United States, however, the Tooth Fairy usually leaves money. These days, the rate is $1 to $5 per
tooth, adding up to a lot of money from the Tooth Fairy!
(Source: Reading Challenge 2 by Casey Malarcher & Andrea Janzen)
Question 28. What is the passage mainly about?

A. Traditions concerning children's lost teeth B. Presents for young children's lost teeth
C. Animals eating children's lost teeth D. Customs concerning children's new teeth
Question 29. The word "their" in paragraph 1 refers to ______.
A. houses' B. roofs' C. children's D. countries'
Question 30. According to the passage, where is a child's lost tooth thought to be taken away by a mouse?
A. In Mexico and Spain B. In Mongolia
C. In Japan and Vietnam D. In Korea
Question 31. According to paragraph 2, parents in Mongolia feed their child's lost tooth to a dog
because ______.
A. they know that dogs are very responsible animals
B. they believe that this will make their child's new tooth good and strong
C. they think dogs like eating children's teeth
D. they hope that their child will get some gifts for his or her tooth

Question 32. The word "origins" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. countries B. families C. beginnings D. stories
Question 33. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the tradition of
tooth giving in the West?
A. Children give money to the Tooth Fairy.
B. Children put their lost teeth under their pillows.
C. Children hope to get money or gifts from the Tooth Fairy.
D. Lost teeth are traditionally given to an angel or fairy.
Question 34. The phrase "the wee hours" in paragraph 3 probably refers to the period of time
______.
A. early in the evening B. soon after midnight
C. late in the morning D. long before bedtime
Earth is richly supplied with different types of living organisms which co-exist in their
environments, forming complex, interrelated communities. Living organisms depend on one another
for nutrients, shelter, and other benefits. The extinction of one species can set off a chain reaction
that affects many other species, particularly if the loss occurs near the bottom of the food chain. For
example, the extinction of a particular insect or plant might seem inconsequential. However, there
may be fish or small animals that depend on that resource for foodstuffs. The loss can threaten the
survival of these creatures and larger predators that prey upon them. Extinction can have a ripple
effect that spreads throughout nature.
In addition to its biological consequences, extinction poses a moral dilemma for humans, the
only species capable of saving the others. The presence of humans on the planet has affected all
other life forms, particularly plants and animals. Human lifestyles have proven to be incompatible
with the survival of some other species. Purposeful efforts have been made to eliminate animals that
prey on people, livestock, crops, or pose any threat to human livelihoods. Some wild animals have
been decimated by human desire for meat, hides, fur, or other body parts with commercial value.
Likewise, demand for land, water, and other natural resources has left many wild plants and animals
with little to no suitable habitat. Humans have also affected nature by introducing non-native species
to local areas and producing pollutants having a negative impact on the environment. The
combination of these human-related effects and natural obstacles such as disease or low birthrates
has proven to be too much for some species to overcome. They have no chance of survival without
human help.
As a result, societies have difficult choices to make about the amount of effort and money they
are willing to spend to save imperiled species. Will people accept limits on their property rights,
recreational activities, and means of livelihood to save a plant or an animal? Should saving such
popular species as whales and dolphins take priority over saving obscure, annoying, or fearful
species? Is it the responsibility of humans to save every kind of life form from disappearing, or is
extinction an inevitable part of nature, in which the strong survive and the weak perish? These are
some difficult questions that people face as they ponder the fate of other species living on this planet.
(Source: http://www.encyclopedia.com)

Question 35. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The importance of living organisms B. Causes of animal extinction
C. Humans and endangered species D. Measures to protect endangered species
Question 36. The word "inconsequential" in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. unimportant B. unavoidable C. unexpected D. unrecognizable
Question 37. Which of the following can result from the loss of one species in a food chain?
A. There might be a lack of food resources for some other species.
B. Animals will shift to another food chain in the community.
C. Larger predators will look for other types of prey.
D. The connections among the creatures in the food chain become closer.
Question 38. The word "They" in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. natural obstacles B. low birthrates
C. some species D. human-related effects
Question 39. In paragraph 2, non-native species are mentioned as ______.
A. an achievement of human beings B. a harmful factor to the environment
C. a kind of useful plants D. a kind of harmless animals
Question 40. The word "perish" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. disappear B. complete C. remain D. develop
Question 41. According to the passage, which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Some animals and plants cannot survive without human help.
B. No other species can threaten the survival of humans on Earth.
C. The existence of humans is at the expense of some other species.
D. Humans have difficult choices to make about saving endangered species.
Question 42. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Animal and plant species which pose threats to humans will die out soon.
B. Humans will make changes in their lifestyles to save other species.
C. The dilemma humans face between maintaining their lives and saving other species remains.
D. Saving popular animal and plant species should be given a high priority.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 43. I haven't met my grandparents for five years.
A. I often met my grandparents five years ago.
B. I last met my grandparents five years ago.
C. I have met my grandparents for five years.
D. I didn't meet my grandparents five years ago.
Question 44. We survived that accident because we were wearing our seat belts.
A. But for our seat belts, we would have survived that accident.
B. Had we not been wearing our seat belts, we wouldn't have survived that accident.
C. Without our seat belts, we could have survived that accident.
D. If we weren't wearing our seat belts, we couldn't have survived that accident.
Question 45. "No, I won't go to work at the weekend," said Sally.
A. Sally refused to go to work at the weekend.
B. Sally promised to go to work at the weekend.
C. Sally apologized for not going to work at the weekend.
D. Sally regretted not going to work at the weekend.
Question 46. Animals like frogs have waterproof skin that prevents it from drying out quickly
A B C
in air, sun, or wind.
D
Question 47. My brother usually ask me for help when he has difficulty with his homework.
A B C D
Question 48. Many people object to use physical punishment in dealing with discipline problems
A B C
at school.
D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 49. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water. Others live in sea water.
A. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, for others live in sea water.
B. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, and others live in sea water.
C. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, or others live in sea water.
D. Some kinds of fish live in fresh water, so others live in sea water.
Question 50. My mother is very busy with her work at the office. She still takes good care of us.
A. In spite of being very busy with her work at the office, my mother takes good care of us.
B. Because my mother is very busy with her work at the office, she takes good care of us.
C. My mother is so busy with her work at the office that she cannot take good care of us.
D. My mother is too busy with her work at the office to take good care of us.
------------------------ THE END ------------------------

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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KÌ THI TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG QUỐC GIA NĂM 2019
ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: Ngoại ngữ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
(Đề thi có 05 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................................

Số báo danh:......................................................................... Mã đề thi: 401
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. consist B. carry C. remove D. protect
Question 2: A. solution B. principal C. passenger D. continent
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. touch B. round C. ground D. shout
Question 4: A. combined B. travelled C. behaved D. practiced
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 5: A shop assistant is talking to a customer.
- Shop assistant: “Do you need anything else?” - Customer: “_______”
A. Good job! B. That's all. Thanks. C. With pleasure. D. You're welcome.
Question 6: Ann and Peter are talking about housework.
- Ann: “I think children should be paid for doing the housework.”
- Peter: “_______. It's their duty in the family.”
A. You're exactly right B. That's what I think
C. There's no doubt about it D. I don't think so
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: These photos brought back many sweet memories of our trip to Hanoi last year.
A. recalled B. released C. revised D. caught
Question 8: At first, John said he hadn't broken the vase, but later he accepted it.
A. denied B. discussed C. protected D. admitted
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 9: Children brought up in a caring environment tend to grow more sympathetic towards others.
A. loving B. dishonest C. healthy D. hateful
Question 10: It's quite disappointing that some people still turn a blind eye to acts of injustice they witness in the
street.
A. take no notice of B. have no feeling for C. show respect for D. pay attention to
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: As they remembered _______ about the danger of getting lost in the forest, the tourists closely followed
the tour guide.
A. being warned B. warning C. to be warned D. to warn
Question 12: Once____for viruses, the software can be installed in the school computer system for use.
A. has tested B. is tested C. testing D. tested
Question 13: The teacher entered the room while the students _______their plan for the excursion.
A. discuss B. were discussing C. discussed D. are discussing
Question 14: His choice of future career is quite similar _______mine.
A. with B. at C. for D. to
Question 15: With his good sense of humour, Martin is quite _______with the students.
A. popularity B. popular C. popularize D. popularly
Question 16: The residents of the village are living a happy life _______they lack modern facilities.
A. because of B. although C. therefore D. despite
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Question 17: Action films with big stars tend to_______ great public attention.
A. achieve B. show C. attract D. reach
Question 18: This is _______most beautiful song I've ever listened to.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø
Question 19: The scientists are working on a drug capable of _______the spread of cancerous cells.
A. arresting B. catching C. seizing D. grasping
Question 20: The little boy took an instant liking to his babysitter_______.
A. upon their first meeting B. before he first met her
C. prior to their first meeting D. as soon as he meets her
Question 21: It's time he acted like a ________ adult and stopped blaming others for his wrongdoings.
A. responsible B. sociable C. believable D. suitable
Question 22: We _______on a field trip if the weather is fine this weekend.
A. could have gone B. will go C. would go D. went
Question 23: One recipe for success is to stay focused and _______yourself to whatever you do.
A. apply B. attach C. assign D. adhere
Question 24: It's not my _____to tell you how to run your life, but I think you should settle down and have a family.
A. work B. chore C. job D. career
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 25 to 29.
Becoming an independent language learner
In an educational context, the term “learner independence” has gained increasing importance in recent years.
It is of particular (25) ___to language learning and commonly refers to the way students confidently control and
organize their own language learning process. While some people seem to have an almost (26) ___ flair for
languages, others have rely on strategies to maximize their skills and learn a foreign language more effectively.
The main thing to remember is that becoming a truly independent learner ultimately depends above all on
taking responsibility for your own learning and being prepared to take every opportunity available to you to learn.
You also increase your chances of (27) ___by learning according to your own needs and interests, using all available
resources. Research shows that learners (28) ___ adopt this approach will undoubtedly manage to broaden their
language abilities considerably and, (29) ___, are more likely to achieve their objectives in the longer term.
(Adopted from “Complete Advanced” by Laura Malthews and Barbara Thomas)
Question 25: A. resemblance B. relevance C. acquaintance D. acceptance
Question 26: A. habitual B. spiritual C. perceptive D. instinctive
Question 27: A. successfully B. successful C. succeed D. success
Question 28: A. who B. why C. where D. which
Question 29: A. as a result B. in contrast C. though D. because
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 30 to 34.
Tribal tourism is a relatively new type of tourism. It involves travelers going to remote destinations, staying
with local people and learning about their culture and way of life. They stay in local accommodation, share facilities
with local people, and join in with meals and celebrations. At the moment, less than one percent of holidays are tribal
tourism holidays, but this is set to change.
Tribal tourism is often compared with foreign exchange visits. However, a foreign exchange involves staying
with people who often share the same values. Tribal tourism takes visitors to places where the lifestyle is very
different from that in their home location. Those who have been on tribal holiday explain that experiencing this
lifestyle is the main attraction. They say that it offers them the chance to live in a way they never have before.
Not everyone is convinced that tribal tourism is a good thing, and opinions are divided. The argument is
about whether or not it helps the local population, or whether it exploits them. The main problem is that, because
tribal tourism is relatively new, the long-term influences on local populations have not been studied in much detail.
Where studies have been carried out, the effects have been found to be negative.
So, is it possible to experience an exotic culture without harming it in some way? “With a bit of thought, we
can maximise the positive influences and minimise the negative”, says travel company director Hilary Waterhouse.
“The most important thing for a tribal tourist is to show respect for, learn about, and be aware of, local customs and
traditions. Always remember you're a guest.”
(Adopted from “Complete IELTS” by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 30: Which best serves as the title for the passage?
A. An Old Tourist Destination B. Holidays with a Difference

C. Different Customs of a Tribe D. Peak Holiday Seasons

Question 31: The word “They” in paragraph 1 refers to _______.
A. travellers B. facilities C. local people D. remote destinations
Question 32: According to paragraph 2, what is the main attraction of tribal tourism?
A. Tourists can stay with people of the same values.
B. Tourists can interact with other foreign visitors.
C. Tourists can experience a different lifestyle.
D. Tourists can explore beauty spots in remote areas.
Question 33: The word “divided” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. similar B. important C. different D. interesting
Question 34: According to Hilary Waterhouse, the most important thing for a tribal tourist is to_____.
A. forget about negative experiences B. respect local customs and traditions
C. learn about other guests D. be accompanied by other travellers
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 35 to 42.
E-waste is being produced on a scale never seen before. Computers and other electronic equipment become
obsolete in just a few years, leaving customers with little choice but to buy newer ones to keep up. Millions of tons
of computers, TVs, smartphones, and other equipment are discarded each year. In most countries, all this waste ends
up in landfills, where it poisons the environment - e-waste contains many toxic substances such as lead, mercury, and
arsenic, that leak into the ground.
Recycling is the ideal solution to the problem. E-waste contains significant amounts of valuable metals like
gold and silver that make it attractive to recycle. In theory, recycling gold from old computers is more efficient - and
less environmentally destructive - than digging it from the earth. The problem is that a large percentage of e-waste
dropped off for recycling in wealthy countries is sold an diverted to the developing world, posing an increasing threat
to the health of the people there.
To address the problem of the international trade in e-waste, 170 nations signed the 1989 Basel Convention,
an agreement requiring that developed nations notify developing nations of hazardous waste shipments coming into
their countries. Then, in 1995 the Basel Convention was modified to ban hazardous waste shipments to poor countries
completely. Although the ban hasn't taken effect, the European Union, where recycling infrastructure is well
developed, has already written it into their laws. One law holds manufacturers responsible for the sale disposal of
electronics they produce.
Companies like Creative Recycling Systems in Florida, the USA, are hoping to profit from clean e- waste
recycling. The key to their business is a huge, building-size machine able to separate electronic products into their
component materials. As the machine's steel teeth break up e-waste, all the toxic dust is removed from the process.
This machine can handle some 70,000 tons of electronics a year. Although this is only a fraction of the total, it
wouldn't take many more machines like this to process the entire USA's output of high-tech trash.
Unfortunately, under current policies, domestic processing of e-waste is not compulsory, and while shipping
waste abroad is ethically questionable, it is still more profitable than processing it safely in the USA. Creative
Recycling Systems is hoping that the US government will soon create laws deterring people from sending e-waste
overseas.
(Adopted from “Reading Explorer 4” by Paul MacIntyre and Nancy Hubley)
A. Waste Recycling: A Storm in a Teacup B. Domestic Recycling: Pros and Cons
C. E-waste - An Export Commodity of the Future D. E-waste - A Mess to Clear up
Question 36: The word “obsolete” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. outdated B. inaccurate C. broken D. incomplete
Question 37: As stated in paragraph 2, a large percentage of e-waste meant for recycling in the developed
countries _______.
A. is buried deep in the soil at landfills B. contains all valuable metals except gold
C. is later recycled in local factories D. is eventually sent to developing nations
Question 38: The word “notify” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. assure B. notice C. excuse D. inform
Question 39: The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _______.
A. the ban B. recycling infrastructure
C. the European Union D. the Basel Convention
Question 40: According to the European Union's laws, electronics manufacturers are required to _______.
A. upgrade their recycling infrastructure regularly

B. sell their e-waste to developed nations only

C. sign the Basel Convention
D. take responsibility for disposing of their products safely
Question 41: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. The USA's total e-waste output amounts to 70,000 tons per year.
B. Creative Recycling Systems has made a fortune from their recycling machine.
C. The Basel Convention originally banned the import of high-tech trash into European countries.
D. Shipping e-waste abroad yields greater profit than recycling it safely in the USA.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Most countries have made enormous efforts to manage their e-waste exports.
B. Legislative action is fundamental to solving the problem of e-waste effectively.
C. Strict laws against sending e-waste abroad have recently been upheld in Florida.
D. Developing nations benefit more from the trade in e-waste than their developed counterparts.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 43: Peter moved abroad for a fresh start. He regrets it now.
A. If only Peter had moved abroad for a fresh start.
B. Peter wishes he hadn't moved abroad for a fresh start.
C. If Peter moved abroad for a fresh start, he would regret it.
D. Peter regrets not having moved abroad for a fresh start.
Question 44: Smartphones are becoming reasonably priced. New applications make them more appealing.
A. Appealing though smartphones are with new applications, they are becoming less affordably priced.
B. Whatever new applications smartphones have, they are becoming more appealing with reasonable prices.
C. No matter how reasonable the prices of smartphones are, they are not so appealing with new applications.
D. Not only are smartphones becoming more affordable but, with new applications, they are also more appealing.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of
the following questions.
Question 45: It was wrong of you to criticise your son in front of his friends.
A. You shouldn't have criticised your son in front of his friends.
B. You must have criticised your son in front of his friends.
C. You mightn't have criticised your son in front of his friends.
D. You could have criticised your son in front of his friends.
Question 46: My father likes reading newspapers more than watching TV.
A. My father doesn't like watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
B. My father likes watching TV more than reading newspapers.
C. My father doesn't like reading newspapers as much as watching TV.
D. My father likes watching TV as much as reading newspapers.
Question 47: “How long have you lived here, Lucy?” asked Jack.
A. Jack asked Lucy how long did she live here. B. Jack asked Lucy how long she had lived there.
C. Jack asked Lucy how long she lived here. D. Jack asked Lucy how long had she lived there.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each
of the following questions.
Question 48: At the beginning of the ceremony, there was a respectable one-minute silence in remembrance of the
victims of the earthquake.
A. the ceremony B. respectable C. remembrance of D. earthquake
Question 49: My mother gets up usually early to prepare breakfast for the whole family.
A. gets up usually B. to prepare C. for D. whole
Question 50: The money raised in the appeal w ill use to help those in need in remote areas.
A. the B. w ill use C. help D. areas
-------------------HẾT-------------------

ĐỀ THI CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………..
Mã đề thi 401
Số báo danh: …………………………..
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. expensive B. successful C. important D.musical
Question 2: A. practise B. include C. arrive D. accept
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. clouds B costs C. pains D. farms
Question 4: A. lake B. game C. shape D flat
Mark the letter A, B, C. or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: Tickets for such events will be typically cheap unless you want seats in the VIP areas.
A. rarely B. normally C. directly D. carefully
Question 6: Peter was very sick until he took the marvelous medicine that Doctor Staples prescribed.
A wonderful B. secret C. attractive D. terrible
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 7: Despite numerous hard pushes, he couldn't make the window open.
A. gentle B. strong C. firm D. plain
Question 8: When I suggested he was mistaken, John got hot under the collar and stormed out of the room.
A. got emotional B. became furious C. remained calm D. felt anxious
Mark the letter A, B, C, or on your answer sheet lo indicate the corrected answer to each other following
questions.
Question 9: It's no good _____ a fuss and arguing over such an unimportant issue.
A. making B. holding C. doing D. getting
Question 10: Health experts strongly advise patients with hypertension to avoid _____ food amounts of fat.
A. contained B containing C. contains D. is contained
Question 11: The graphics of this book are attractive, but its _____ is not original at all.
A content B. chapter C. character D. page
Question 12: If I _____ you, I would spend more time with the children.
A. would be B. were C. will be D. am
Question 13: Bill's mother won't let him go out with his friends _____.
A. when he finished his homework B. after he had finished his homework
C. once he finished his homework D until he has finished his homework
Question 14: Peter is an ambitious man who will never _____ till he gets what he wants.
A. turn down B. give up C. put on D. take back
Question 15: I would like to extend my gratitude to all the staff for their _____ support, without which our
company couldn't have overcome the crisis.
A. unbending B. unfailing C. unmoving D. unfeeling
Question 16: Most women expect _____ more help with the housework from their husbands.
A. to getting B. get C. getting D. to get
Question 17: Having your private life scrutinised closely by the public is regarded as part and _____ of being a
celebrity.
A. package B. post C. packet D. parcel
Question 18: He is often _____ last person to leave the office.
A. an B. a C. the D. Ø ( no article)
Question 19: One _____ method for keeping our mind active is doing cross
A. popularity B. popularize C. popularly D popular
Question 20: Mary feels confident about the competition _____ she has been well-prepared for it.
A. because of B. because C. although D. despite
Question 21: Her academic performance has greatly improved since she _____ her study methods.
A. will change B. changed D. would change C. was changing
Question 22: You like the food here, _____?
A won't you B. didn't you C. don't you D. haven't you
Question 23: The whole world is waiting _____ a vaccine against Covid-19.
A. by B. for C. to D. in
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option the best completes the following
exchanges.
Question 24: Jenny and Kathy are arranging to see a new film.
- Jenny: "Why don't you come over and see the new film with me?"
- Kathy: “_____”
A Great! I'd love to. B. Oh, I'm afraid so.
C. You're welcome. D. Wow! I didn't realise that.
Question 25: Helen and Sarah are talking about their school's field trip.
- Helen: "This is the best field trip we've ever had."
- Sarah: "_____” . Everyone enjoyed it to the fullest."
A. I don't think that's a good idea B. I totally disagree
C You're right D Never mind
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the correct
INTERNSHIPS
In many countries going through difficult economic times, job openings for new graduates can be few and far
between. In this competitive environment, relevant work experience can help job seekers stand out from the
crowd, and (26) _____ organisations now offer temporary placements, called internships. The problem with
numerous internships, (27) _____, is that they are unpaid, and this often puts young people off applying for
them.
Employers and interns sometimes come to mutually beneficial arrangements, however. Dinesh Pathan, applying
for an internship with an IT company, negotiated a deal in which he would be given travel (28) _____ only for
two weeks, and then, as long as he could show his marketing work was adding value, he would be paid a wage.
The arrangement worked well: Dinesh had a(n) (29) _____ to work hard, and he ended up feeling "not so much
an intern as a temporary staffer". HR consultant Denise Baker says similar arrangements are common. What is
more, "if interns do well, employers would often rather make them full employees than recruit people (30) _____
they don't know".
(Adapted from Exam Essentials Practice Tests - Cambridge English by Tom Bradbury and Eunice Yeates)
Question 26: A. much B. every C. another D many
Question 27: A. instead B. therefore C. moreover D. however
Question 28: A. companions B. restrictions C expenses D. destinations
Question 29: A. profit B. incentive C. persuasion D. promotion
Question 30: A who B. when C. where D. which
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
Staying in hotels and resorts has been a traditional part of travel since the beginning of mass tourism. But
nowadays, many tourists want a more intimate experience. For this reason, they are choosing to 'go native'. This
often means staying in the kinds of places that local people inhabit. In big cities, you can try staying with the
friend of a friend. You may end up sleeping on the couch or the floor, but the advantages outweigh the
discomfort. The biggest plus is that you'll be staying with a local and seeing the city from a local perspective.
Another option is house-swapping. Several websites allow you to connect with people who want to trade
living situations. It's usual to exchange emails about favourite places in the city before the swap, meaning you
can have a truly local experience. But of course, you can only do this if you don't mind having strangers staying
in your house.
For the more adventurous, staying in a native structure in an African village or a hut on the water in Vietnam
or Thailand can be real thrill. These might not even include plumbing or electricity, and that is part of the
charm. The experience of dealing with oil lamps and carrying water really gives you a sense of how the people
live..
No matter how unadventurous you feel, you might want to consider crossing hotels off your list. Getting to
know the local way of life is the most valuable part of travel. And what better way is there to do this than staying
where the local people actually live?
(Adapted from Solutions - Third Edition by Tim Falla and Paul A Davies)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. New holiday accommodation trends B. Adventurous holiday activities
C. World heritage sites D. Main tourist attractions in Asia
Question 32: The word "they" in paragraph 1 refers to _____
A. resorts B. hotels C. local people D. tourists
Question 33: What is the biggest advantage of tourists' going native?
A It enables them to experience the local lifestyle.
B. It offers them opportunities to make new friends.
C. It is more comfortable than staying in hotels and resorts.
D. It is cheaper than staying in other kinds of accommodation.
Question 34: The word "charm" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____
A. price B. attraction C. safety D. danger
Question 35: Which of the following is mentioned in the passage?
A. There are several websites used for house-swapping purposes.
B. Tourists to Thailand prefer staying in a native structure to staying in a hut.
C. Staying with local people is more popular than staying in hotels and resorts.
D. Dealing with oil lamps is the most thrilling experience for tourists to Vietnam.
One day, a middle-aged man asked a taxi to take him to see Chelsea play Arsenal at football. He told the driver
"Stamford Bridge", the name of Chelsea's stadium, but he was delivered instead to the village of Stamford
Bridge in Yorkshire. Of course, he missed the match.
What had happened? With the Sat-Nav system in place, the driver in this story felt he did not need to know
where he was going. He confidently outsourced the job of knowing this information to the Sat-Nav. Using an
Internet search engine takes a broadband user less than a second. And with smartphones at hand, people will be
online almost all of the time.
The same could be true of university education. Today, the average student seems not to value general
knowledge. If asked a factual question, they will usually click on a search engine without a second thought.
Actually knowing the fact and committing it to memory does not seem to be an issue, it's the case with which we
can look it up.
However, general knowledge has never been something that you acquire formally. Instead, we pick it up from all
sorts of sources as we go along, often absorbing facts without realising. The question remains, then: is the
Internet threatening general knowledge? When I put that to Moira Jones, expert in designing IQ tests, she
referred me to the story of the Egyptian god Thoth. It goes like this: Thoth offers writing as a gift to the king of
Egypt, declaring it an "elixir of memory and wisdom." But the king is horrified, and tells him: "This invention
will induce forgetfulness in the souls of those who have learned it, because they will not need to exercise their
memories, being able to rely on what is written."
Who wants to be a millionaire finalist David Swift, responding to the same question, recognises that there was a
problem of young people saying: "I don't need to know that", but he is far more excited about the educational
potential of the Internet. "There is so much more information out there, giving people opportunities to boost their
general knowledge."
After all, the Internet might just help us to forget more and more. But meanwhile, the continuing popularity
popularity of quizzes and game-shows shows us that general knowledge is strong enough to remain.
(Adapted from English Unlimited by Adrian Deff and Ben Gok)
A. The Age of the Robot? B. Novel Applications of the Sat Nav System
C. New Perspectives on Tertiary Education D. The End of General Knowledge?
Question 37: Why did the middle aged man miss the football match?
A. Because the Sat-Nav in his car was out of order
B. Because the taxi driver was over-dependent on technology
C. Because he did not remember the directions to the stadium
D. Because the search engine in the taxi failed to work
Question 38: The word " outsourced” in paragraph 2 mostly means
A. exchanged B. lessigned C. submitted D. imposed
Question 39: The word "that" in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
B. general B. knowledge C. the Internet D. the question
Question 40: The word "induce" in paragraph 4 mostly means _____.
A. ease B. limit C. promote D. cause
Question 41: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Young people do not seem to bother themselves with memorising factual information.
B. General knowledge tends to have been mainly acquired through formal schooling.
C. The majority of undergraduates are reluctant to look for answers to factual questions online.
D. On being offered the gift of writing, the king of Egypt was hopeful about its potential.
A. Many universities worldwide have switched to virtual platforms for learning and teaching
B. Moira Jones is not positive about the potential of the Internet in general knowledge acquisition.
C. When it comes to IQ tests, the ability to recall factual information is of little importance.
D. David Swift believes that informal acquisition of knowledge has been overrated these days.
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheer te indicate the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 43: John's classmates like him since he is friendly, honest, and kindness.
A B C D
Question 44: Richard enjoy taking part in social activities during his summer holiday.
A B C D
Question 45: Public speaking is quite a frightening experience for many people as it can produce a
A B
status of mind similar to panic.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheer to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each
of the following questions.
Question 46: She is more responsible than her brother.
A. She is less responsible than her brother.
B. Her brother is more responsible than she is.
C. She is as responsible as her brother.
D. Her brother isn't as responsible as she is.
Question 47: It is compulsory for the students in this school to wear uniform.
A The students in this school must wear uniform
B. The students in this school can't wear uniform
C. The students in this school may wear uniform.
D. The students in this school needn't wear uniform.
Question 48: "I'm going back to work next week," said Harry.
A. Harry said that he was going back to work the following week.
B. Harry said that I am going back to work next week.
C. Harry said that I was going back to work the following week.
D. Harry said that he was going back to work next week.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of
sentences in the following questions.
Question 49: Online distribution of pirated publications is illegal. Many Internet users still commit the offence.
A. Such is the offence of many Internet users that online distribution of pirated publications is illegal.
B. As long as many Internet users commit the offence, online distribution of pirated publications is illegal.
C. Were online distribution of pirated publications illegal, many Internet users wouldn't commit the offence.
D. Illegal though online distribution of pirated publications is, many Internet users still commit the offence.
Question 50: He lacked commitment to the job. He wasn't considered for promotion.
A. But for his lack of commitment to the job, he would have been considered for promotion.
B. Suppose that he lacked commitment to the job, he wouldn't be considered for promotion.
C. If it had not been for his lack of commitment to the job, he would be considered for promotion.
D. Without his commitment to the job, he would be considered for promotion.
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ, Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH
Họ, tên thí sinh: ………………………………………. Mã đề thi 401

Số báo danh: ……………………………………….
Question 1: A. alive B. careful C. happy D. nervous
Question 2: A. customer B. festival C. suggestion D. capital
three in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. clap B. take C. face D. save
Question 4: A. wanted B. cried C. seemed D. rained
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each
of the following exchanges.
Question 5: Tuan is late for the class meeting.
- Tuan: “Sorry I’m late, Ha.” - Ha: “_______”
A. Good idea. B. Never mind. C. Same to you. D. Thanks a lot.
Question 6: Mai is talking to Hoa about Hoa’s new dress.
- Mai: “You’ve got a nice dress, Hoa.” - Hoa: “_______”
A. Congratulations! B. Thank you. C. Me too. D. No problem.
Question 7: I like this_______song because it reminds me of my schooldays.
A. beautiful B. beautifully C. beauty D. beautify
Question 8: When the visitor saw with her own eyes the beach covered with tons of plastic rubbish
washed up from around the world, a chill went down her _______.
A. spine B. bone C. mind D. brain
Question 9: _______the book again and again, I finally understood what the author meant.
A. Have been reading B. Have been read C. Have read D. Having read
Question 10: _______, he will go out with his friends.
A. When Tony finished his project B. When Tony finishes his project
C. When Tony had finished his project D. When Tony was finishing his project
Question 11: You should wear _______to keep your hands warm. It’s very cold outside.
A. hats B. gloves C. shoes D. boots
Question 12: My sister and I share the housework. We take turns to_______ the dishes and clean the
house.
A. wash up B. wash over C. wash away D. wash through
Question 13: Her aunt gave her a_______ handbag on her birthday last week.
A. beautiful reel Korean B. red Korean beautiful
C. beautiful Korean red D. Korean red beautiful
Question 14: Jane has been trying to solve this problem all week, but she still hasn’t been able
to_______
A. shatter B. break C. crack D. crash
Question 15: We like to live in the countryside _______ we want to be close to nature.
A. although B. because of C. despite D. because
Question 16: Life here is so good, _______?
A. was it B. has it C. isn’t it D. wasn’t it
Question 17: The students _______ the topic when the bell rang.
A. discuss B. were discussing C. have discussed D. are discussing
Question 18: Don’t worry too much. We all_______ mistakes sometimes.
A. give B. put C. take D. make
Question 19: Nam’s family has been living _______ Ha Noi for twenty years.
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A. over B. in C. at D. on
Question 20: The prize_______ to Xuan yesterday.
A. awards B. has awarded C. was awarded D. was awarding
Question 21: _______ you love English, the better you can learn it.
A. Most B. Most of C. The more D. More
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Wilson is a sociable boy. He makes friends at his new school quitejeasily.
A. shy B. careful C. nervous D. friendly
Question 23: The children enjoy learning about plants and how they grow.
A. studying B. changing C. breaking D. building
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
Question 24: It’s about time you pulled your socks up and started working seriously. Your final
exams are coming.
A. studied harder B. got furious C. became lazy D. lost confidence
Question 25: The couple have saved a lot of money for their old age.
A. spent B. earned C. left D. won
Redd the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
Many people say that schooldays are the best days of their life, and they often feel that this should
be a period of enjoyment. (26) _______, exams often make them unhappy, and many students prefer
having no exams at all. They say the exams (27) _______ they have to take often make them worried,
and they have no time to relax. Others, on the other hand, say that exams help students study better.
They will have to study throughout the year, and if they do well, they will become more (28) _______
in studying.
There are (29) _______ students who prefer only final exams. They say that they have to work
hard for two months a year and so they have more time for their leisure activities. They think that this
is a better way of (30) _______ students’ knowledge and ability in the subjects they are studying.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools by Brook-Hart, Hutchison, Passmore and Uddin)
Question 26: A. Although B. Moreover C. Therefore D. However
Question 27: A. where B. who C. when D. pwhich
Question 28: A. bored B. nervous C. friendly D. interested
Question 29: A. each B. another C. some D. fever
Question 30: A. accessing B. assessing C. assisting D. accepting
Since the 19th century, companies have looked for better and cleaner ways of creating electricity.
One UK company has created a special type of floor made of square tiles. Under each square, there is a
system that can create electricity very cheaply when someone steps on it!
The design of the floor works very well when it is used in very busy areas. And the reason is that a
lot of energy is created simply because of the large numbers of people walking across the floor.
The floor can have other uses too; one of them is to record how many people visit a shopping
centre. This kind of inionnation is very' useful for shop owners because very often they want to know
at which times of days they have the highest numoers of customers, bo the next time you visit
shopping centre, have a careful look at the floor that you are walking across!
(Adapted from Preliminary for Schools Trainer)
Question 31: What is the passage mainly about?
A. A shopping centre that sells electricity. B. A new way to build houses.
C. A special floor that creates electricity. D. A difficulty in creating electricity.
Question 32: According paragraph 1, the special floor creates electricity when______.
A. someone covers it B. someone steps on it C. someone looks at it D. someone cleans it
Question 33: The word useful in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to______.
A. kind B. false C. helpful D. careful
Question 34: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to_______.
A. people B. times C. days D. shop owners
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a good thing about the floor in the
passage?
A. It helps shops attract more customers. B. It is good for shop owners.
C. It creates electricity very cheaply. D. It works very well in very busy areas.
Today, text-messaging has probably become young people’s most common form of
communication. Someleachers think that because of this, young people are not writing correctly at
school. They fear that once students get used to it, they will find it hard to switch back to using correct
grammar and spelling. How did things begin this way?
It all began with e-mail, online chat rooms, and games. Then step by step young people made
sentences, phrases and words shorter. As text-messaging continued to become popular, people
invented more and more words. Today, it is like a real language with its own grammar and
vocabulary. The growth of text-messaging has raised an important question: As students become fluent
in textmessaging, do their writing skills suffer?
People have different ideas about the effects of text-messaging on students’ writing skills. Some
say that students are losing the ability to write long, correct sentences. Others say that text-messaging
is having a good effect on the language students use in then schoolwork. It shows that they are creative
and good at expressing themselves. And if students can keep the two systems separate - one for text-
messaging and one for school - this will help students appreciate reading and writing more.
Some people suggest that one way to reduce the bad effects of text-messaging is to find ways to use
technology as a positive learning tool. For example, students can be allowed to type their assignments in
a cell phone message and send them to their teachers, but they must type correctly. In this way, students
are using the technology that they are familiar with to communicate in a form of language suitable for
schoolwork. It shows students that text-messaging is fine for social communication, but correct
grammar and spelling are necessary for communication in school.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading by Richards and Eckstut-Didier)
Question 36: Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. What is Text-messaging Doing to Students’ Writing?
B. How have Schools Changed Technology?
C. What can be Done to Increase the Quality of Text-messaging?
D. How can Teachers Teach Text-messaging?
Question 37: The word switch in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. give B. change C. look D. send
Question 38: The word invented in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_______.
A. explained B. created C. described D. guessed
Question 39: According to paragraph 3, how can text-messaging affect students’ writing?
A. Students no longer use handwriting for their schoolwork.
B. Students’ ability to write long, correct sentences is gradually decreasing.
C. Students will lose interest in their school writing.
D. Students are losing their creativity in writing.
Question 40: The word them in paragraoh 4 refers _______.
A. effects B. people C. students D. assignments
Question 41: Which of the folio wing is NOT true according to the passage?
A. People have different opinions about the effects of text-messaging on students writing.
B. Correct grammar and spefiing are important for communication in school.
C. Text-messaging has probably become the most common form of communication for young
people.
D. Text-messaging is like a real language with its own grammar and vocabulary.
Question 42: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage.
A. Text-messaging has been accepted as an official language.
B. Text-messaging can help students write more correctly.
C. Students should know how to use standard language in all circumstances.
D. Students should know how to use text-messaging properly for their purposes.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 43: Mike doesn’t feel well today. He can’t go out with his friends.
A. If Mike had felt well today, he couldn’t have gone out with his friends.
B. Mike wishes he felt well today so that he could go out with his friends.
C. If only Mike had felt well today, he couldn’t have gone out with his friends.
D. Provided that Mike feels well today, he can’t go out with his friends.
Question 44: Students are forbidden to bring their phones into the exam room.
A. Under no circumstances are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
B. On no account are students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
C. At no time were students permitted to bring their phones into the exam room.
D. In no way are students prohibited from bringing their phones into the exam room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 45: “I have a lot of homework to do,” Ha said.
A. Ha said that I had a lot of homework to do.
B. Ha said that I have a lot of homework to do.
C. Ha said that she has had a lot of homework to do.
D. Ha said that she had a lot of homework to do.
Question 46: She last phoned her close friend two months ago.
A. She has two months to phone her close friend.
B. She didn’t phone her close friend two months ago.
C. She has phoned her close friend for two months.
D. She hasn’t phoned her-oldse friend for two months.
Question 47: It is not neccessary for you to wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
A. You can’t wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
B. You needn’t wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
C. You must wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
D. You would wear formal clothes to the party this evening.
correction in each of thefollowing questions.
Question 48: The boy has a lot of toy cars, but he never plays with it.
A B C D
Question 49: The spokesman had an uphill struggle to find an explanation that was readily intelligent
A B C
to the layman.
D
Questions 50: She borrows a lot of English books from the school library last week.
A B C D
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MÔN ANH - Mã đề: 401

1. A 2. C 3. A 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. B
11. B 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. C
21. C 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. A 26. D 27. D 28. D 29. C 30. A
31. C 32. B 33. C 34. D 35. A 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. D
41. B 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. D 46. D 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. A

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(Đề thi có 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát ề.
Họ, tên thí sinh: ……………………………………………………….. Mã ề thi 405
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three
in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. pointed B. cycled C. played D. occurred
Question 2: A. take B. wave C. blame D. wrap
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of
stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. village B. student C. worker D. hotel
Question 4: A. relative B. equipment C. customer D. document
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word in
Question 5: I would be grateful if you could tell me how to download this file from the website.
A. thankful B. amazed C. interested D. fortunate
Question 6: Vietnamese women are expected to maintain traditional key values from young ages.
A. careful B. clear C. important D. amazing
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
Question 7: The arguments Prof. Parker made were controversial and some scholars were taking issue with him.
A. showing agreement B. expressing doubt C. becoming aware D. getting annoyed
Question 8: If you want to become a famous music composer, you need to have talent and determination.
A. outstanding B. unknown C. public D. well-known
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 9: Fiona and Lan are talking about hunting wild animals.
- Fiona: “I think hunting wild animals should be banned.”
- Lan: “_____. Many wild animals are in danger of extinction.”
A. I disagree completely B. No problem C. You’re wrong D. That’s for sure
Question 10: Tony is in a café.
- Tony: “Can I have a cup of coffee with ice?”
- Waiter: “_______.”
A. Don’t mention it, please B. It’s too hard
C. Sure. Wait a minute, please. D. Sorry for saying that
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 11: The party will begin _______.
A. when all the guests were arriving B. as soon as all the guests arrive
C. by the time all the guests arrived D. after all the guests had arrived
Question 12: He will apply for a new job, _________?
A. does he B. doesn’t he C. won’t he D. will he
Question 13: In order to _________ soft skills, my brother has decided to attend a training course.
A. sharp B. sharply C. sharpen D. sharpness
Question 14: My mom really loves the _________ handbag I gave her on her birthday.
A. American red big B. red American big C. big red American D. red big American
Question 15: _________ you practise speaking English, the more fluent your English becomes.
A. The better than B. More than C. The more than D. The more
Question 16: You should _________ the form and hand it in as soon as possible.
A. fill in B. go on C. put up D. give up
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Question 17: A new restaurant in our district _________ two days ago.
A. opens B. have opened C. open D. was opened
Question 18: They have been living here since they _________ married.
A. is getting B. will get C. got D. get
Question 19: Most of the houses in the neighbourhood _________ terrible damage in the fire.
A. perceived B. sustained C. conceived D. persevered
Question 20: _________ she studied hard, she couldn’t get a high score.
A. Because of B. Although C. In spite of D. Despite
Question 21: He lives in a small house _________ the city.
A. on B. in C. at D. from
Question 22: The teacher tries her best to _________ sure that her students can understand her explanations.
A. keep B. get C. go D. make
Question 23: The _________ in the theatre gave the singer a long applause for her excellent performance.
A. watchers B. spectators C. audiences D. viewers
Question 24: I picked up some holiday brochures _________ around the table at the travel agency.
A. lied B. were lying C. lain D. lying
Question 25: We could tolerate your noisy parties time and again, but throwing bottles out of the window was beyond the
_________.
A. dull B. faint C. pale D. sick
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Since the invention of the Internet, the world has become a different place. People are sending messages, apparently
up to 60 billion a day, and it usually takes only seconds to deliver them. (26) ______ are we now forgetting how to
communicate face-to-face?
Without a doubt, there are (27) ______ challenges, but there are also examples of when the Internet has changed
someone’s life for the better. Look at Tara Taylor’s case, a mother (28) ______ lives in the USA: when she uploaded a photo
of her daughter to Facebook, a facefriend (29) ______ a problem with one of the child’s eyes, so Tara took her to the doctor.
It turned out that the girl had a rare disease, but her sight was saved! The story of communication is, in many (30) ______,
the story of the human race: we have always shared knowledge and built relationships, whatever means of communication
we use.
(Adapted from High Note)
Question 26: A. For B. Since C. Although D. But
Question 27: A. every B. some C. much D. another
Question 28: A. which B. when C. whose D. who
Question 29: A. developed B. avoided C. created D. spotted
Question 30: A. ways B. paths C. roads D. routes
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 31 to 35.
As Australia’s largest and oldest city, Sydney, carries many traces of its history. Time seems to stand still in the city’s
old streets and in its many magnificent, ancient buildings, such as the Sydney Town Hall, the Queen Victoria Building, and
St. Mary’s Cathedral. To explore the city’s present and past, head for The Rocks - the oldest neighbourhood in Australia and
Sydney, where sandstone houses built in the 18th century still stand. You can stroll through the pretty streets, visit a
traditional pub for some craft beer, and try delicious local dishes.
Sydney is blessed with natural gifts that few cities can rival. This city is full of greenery. Parks and nature reserves
mingle with urban areas. Thanks to this, you need not travel far to see rare species in numerous city zoos; or enjoy fresh air
and a range of plants from all corners of the world, all gathered in boundless parks. For those visitors keen to explore the sea,
Sydney is heaven with over 7- spectacular bays and beaches. These include beautiful Bondi Beach, which is said to be the
loveliest on the planet, where visitors can sunbathe, and play various water sports.
Sydney is said to be a miniature world of attractions, captivating visitors. It is a must-go destination on every
tourist’s bucket list, should they visit the beautiful land of Australia.
(Adapted from Heritage)

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Question 31: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Sydney - The World’s Oldest City B. Sydney - A Must-go Destination
C. Sydney - A City that Never Sleeps D. Sydney - The Present and The Past
Question 32: According to paragraph 1, The Rocks ________.
A. has the most beautiful streets in Australia
B. is the oldest area in Sydney and Australia
C. offers the most delicious local dishes
D. has traces of houses destroyed in the 18th century.
Question 33: The word rival in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____.
A. enjoy B. satisfy C. match D. agree
Question 34: The word These in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. boundless parks B. visitors C. water sports D. bays and beaches
Question 35: Which of the following is TRUE about Sydney, according to the passage?
A. Visitors prefer Sydnet’s beaches to its parks.
B. Tourists have to travel long distances to reach Sydney’s zoos
C. In Sydney, urban areas are mixed with parks and nature reserves.
D. Sydney was estalished in the 18th century.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions from 36 to 42.
When I saw her name on the screen, it took me right back to the moment she had moved away with her family ten
years before. We had been such close friends at primary school. To begin with, she and I had not hit it off, perhaps because
we were both timid. We had quickly got over that, though, and as time went on, we had become really good friends, until you
almost never saw one of us without the other.
And now after so much time apart, there was her name. She had sent me a friend request. I knew she had been living
abroad, and her profile picture showed her on the beach. I had been expecting her to look different fter ten years. The girl in
the photo was the same old Lauren, though.
Nowadays, it is easy to find old friends thanks to social networking sites. There are lots of stories about long lost
friends getting back in touch after years apart. It was odd because I had been thinking about our friendship too and now here
she was!
She told me about the place where she had been living for the past ten years, and I told her about things that had
happened to me. Before long, the years melted away and we were the same two girls who had spent so much time together.
Of course, true friends are loyal and listen to you when you are down. And they are the people you have fun with. But deep
down, I realised that the truest friends are those you are most yourself with. And that is something that never changes. That is
what Lauren and I learned that day, the day we realised our friendship was so precious and had never really ended in the first
place.
(Adapted from Optimise)
Question 36: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage?
A. Online Friendships That Last B. Long Lost Friends
C. Why Do Friends Stay Aparts? D. How to Make Friends Online?
Question 37: The phrase hit it off in paragraph 1 mostly means ______.
A. progressing slowly B. disliking each other
C. arguing with each other D. becoming friends immediately
Question 38: According to paragraph 2, the author _________.
A. thought Lauren’s appearance had changed over time
B. did not accept Lauren’s friend request at once
C. was unaware of Lauren living in another country
D. did not recognise Lauren in her profile picture
Question 39: The word odd in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. strange B. common C. lonely D. quick
Question 40: The word they in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. things B. years C. two girls D. true friends

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A. Social networking sites have enabled old friends to get back in contact with one another.
B. True friends are loyal and lend a sympathetic ear when you are in low spirits.
C. Very few long lost friends have got back in touch after years apart.
D. The author learned that the truest friends are those you act most naturally with.
A. Both the author and Lauren had changed in many ways over the last ten years.
B. Before Lauren’s reappearance, the author thought that their friendship had ended.
C. The time they were apart was hard for both Lauren and the author.
D. Lauren had lived in many places since she left the country.
Mark ther letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in
the following questions.
Question 43: The newly advertised product had just been on sale. Customers realised that it had lots of defects.
A. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when producers realised that it had lots of defects.
B. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when customers wouldn’t realise that it had lots of defects.
C. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when customers realised that it had lots of defects.
D. Hardly had the newly advertised product been on sale when did customers realise that it had lots of defects?
Question 44: It’s impossible for Laura to finish the report. You should help her.
A. But for your help, Laura would be able to finish the report.
B. Provided you help her, Laura wouldn’t have been able to finish the report.
C. Laura will be able to finish the report if you don’t help her.
D. Unless you help her, Laura won’t be able to finish the report.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
Question 45: The principle of comprehensive inputs states that the language provided for students should go only a little
A B
beyond their current experience and understanding.
C D
Question 46: The new exhibition centre in our town has attracted many visitors because of their unique collections of visual
A B C D
arts.
Question 47: The Tale of Tam and Cam use to be one of her favourite stories when she was at school.
A B C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
Question 48: She last wrote to her pen pal 6 months ago.
A. She has written to her pen pal for 6 months. B. She won’t write to her pen pal for 6 months.
C. She hasn’t written to her pen pal for 6 months. D. She didn’t write to her pen pal for 6 months.
Question 49: It is possible that he will not attend the meeting.
A. He must attend the meeting. B. He may not attend the meeting.
C. He shouldn’t attend the meeting. D. He needn’t attend the meeting.
Question 50: “My mum gave me some pocket money,” said Jerry.
A. Jerry said that my mum gave me some pocket money.
B. Jerry said that his mum had given him some pocket money.
C. Jerry said that my mum gives me some pocket money.
D. Jerry said that his mum gives him some pocket money.
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Họ, tên thí sinh: .......................................................................... Mã đề thi 401

Số báo danh: ...............................................................................
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the
following exchanges.
Question 1: Hong and Mike are in the school canteen.
- Hong: “______?”
- Mike: “Here you are.”
A. Can you sit here B. Can you play basketball
C. Can you speak Japanese, please D. Can you pass the salt, please
Question 2: Peter and Khanh are talking about learning foreign languages.
- Peter: “I think students should learn two foreign languages when they are at school.”
- Khanh: “______. It helps them communicate with more people and broaden their minds.”
A. I quite agree with you B. I don’t think it’s a good idea
C. That’s not a good idea D. I quite disagree with you
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. post B. cold C. sport D.
Question 4: A. chorus B. chairman C. chicken D. children
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of stress in each of the following questions.
Question 5: A. important B. terrific C. exciting D. confident
Question 6: A. arrive B. require C. connect D. follow
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word in each of the following questions.
Question 7: Returning home after the earthquake, Simon saw that his house was extremely chaotic.
A. organised B. tidy C. messy D. neat
Question 8: My uncle dreams of having a new house, so he plans to save up for it.
A. leaves B. moves C. intends D. quits
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
Question 9: He had some business to do in a foreign country, but his company denied responsibility to pay
for his expenses.
A. accepted B. refused C. avoided D. neglected
Question 10: I think should apologise to Mary. What you commented on her new hairstyle yesterday was
really below the belt.
A. fair and unkind B. fair and cruel C. fair and kind D. cruel and kind
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
Question 11: The Youth International Conference ______ by a lot of young people from around the world.
A. was attending B. attended C. attends D. was attended
Question 12: The man ______ home when his car broke down.
A. was driving B. drives C. has driven D. is driving
Question 13: Although the students in my class have been learning English for three months, they can
______ confidently with foreigners.
A. communicative B. communicate C. communicatively D. communication
Question 14: We have travelled to almost every tourist attraction in ______ Africa.
A. the B. an C. Ø (no article) D. a
Question 15: Binh is 1.80 meters tall, and Linh is 1.65 meters tall. Binh is ______ Linh.
A. younger than B. older than C. taller than D. shorter than
Question 16: Her parents are working on the farm, ______?
A. are they B. don’t they C. do they D. aren’t they
Question 17: The foreign teacher was speaking so fast. Nga couldn’t ______ the main contents of his lesson.
A. call for B. go on C. note down D. make up
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Question 18: The journalist is talking about having a new ______ published in the local newspaper next
week.
A. editor B. documentary C. cartoon D. article
Question 19: It’s not difficult ______ her to go to work because the office is near her home.
A. on B. for C. towards D. to
Question 20: ______ a job in a small company, he turned it down and kept on applying for a more suitable
one.
A. Offered B. Having offered C. Offering D. To offer
Question 21: Before you decide to purchase that car, it is crucial that you should look into it carefully. It’s
unwise to buy a pig ______.
A. in a pack B. in a roll C. in a rack D. in a poke
Question 22: Nam is trying to break the ______ of staying up too late.
A. sound B. habit C. option D. race
Question 23: She promised ______ to my birthday party, but she didn’t.
A. to come B. come C. coming D. to coming
Question 24: It is uncommon for the director to ______ power to his finance manager to make financial
decisions for the company.
A. authorise B. stimulate C. navigate D. delegate
Question 25: We will inform you ______.
A. as soon as we have the interview result B. as soon as we were having the interview result
C. as soon as we had the interview result D. as soon as we had had the interview result
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair
of sentences in the following questions.
Question 26: The boy band had just finished their first live performance. All the audiences at the theatre gave
them a loud round of applause.
A. No matter when the boy band finished their first live performance did all the audiences at the theatre give
B. Had it not been for the boy band’s first live performance, all the audiences at the theatre would have given
C. Not until all the audiences at the theatre gave them a loud round of applause did the boy band finish their
first live performance.
D. Barely had the boy band finished their first live performance when all the audiences at the theatre gave
Question 27: The gold ring was expensive. I couldn’t afford to buy it.
A. If the gold ring had been cheaper, I can’t have afforded to buy it.
B. If the gold ring had been less expensive, I could have afforded to buy it.
C. If the gold ring had been cheaper, I couldn’t have afforded to buy it.
D. If the gold ring had been more expensive, I could have afforded to buy it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
Question 28: Mark started learning Spanish seven years ago.
A. Mark has learned Spanish for seven years.
B. Mark has started learning Spanish since seven years.
C. Mark has learned Spanish since he was seven years old.
D. Mark started learning Spanish when he was seven years old.
Question 29: “I helped the old lady cross the road,” said the teacher.
A. The teacher said I helped the old lady cross the road.
B. The teacher said she helped the old lady cross the road.
C. The teacher said she would help the old lady cross the road.
D. The teacher said she had helped the old lady cross the road.
Question 30: Students are not allowed to bring food into the computer room.
A. Students wouldn’t bring food into the computer room.
B. Students won’t bring food into the computer room.
C. Students mustn’t bring food into the computer room.
D. Students needn’t bring food into the computer room.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction
in each of the following questions.
Question 31: Their pioneering research showed that the learning motivation of the two groups of
A
learners quite distinctive from each other, and the comparative group whose learning motivation
B C
was stronger performed better than the control group.
D
Question 32: The man bought the old painting and then sold them to a collector at a higher price.
A B C D
Question 33: They give a good presentation on how to adopt a green lifestyle last week.
A B C D
Getting work experience is a good way for young people who are still at school to see whether they
would enjoy a particular career. Future employers like to know about their work experience (34) ______
they think is important for them in the process of recruiting employees. And young people get the chance to
consider (35) ______ possibilities for a future career with working professionals. In addition, they will find
these professionals’ advice specially helpful thinking about the different choices they will have to (36)
______.
Work experience often involves uncomfortable situations, (37) ______ people who are in such situations
can learn how to behave appropriately in front of clients and how to respond to things in the workplace.
Appearance is also important and they need to dress suitably whether they are going for a job as an engineer
or an IT specialist, or a job which is perhaps less technical but equally (38) ______, such as a medical doctor
or a teacher.
(Adapted from Complete First for Schools)
Question 34: A. who B. which C. when D. where
Question 35: A. each B. many C. none D. one
Question 36: A. build B. fill C. do D. make
Question 37: A. nor B. for C. but D. either
Question 38: A. confusing B. commanding C. demanding D. understanding
Device-centred communication has become almost universal over the past twenty years. More than three
quarters of people in the world now own a mobile device, and more than half communicate via social
networking.
It is now hard to imagine a world without mobile devices consisting of such things as mobile phones,
laptops and tablets. They allow us to stay in touch with a large network of friends, no matter where they are.
But many experts say that communicating with a device is nothing like talking with someone in person.
“Body language, eye contact and tone of voice can tell us so much,” psychologist Mary Peters says. “And
none of those exist on a device. Even video chat removes many subtle clues.”
We don’t know to what extent these technologies will permanently change the way people interact.
People will always want to meet up with others in small and large groups. Indeed, it is fair to say that social
media makes it easier than ever before for people to organise social events. However, there is still a danger
that device-centred communication may have a negative long-term impact on the way people interact with
each other on a day-to-day basis.
We must not, therefore, lose sight of the need to focus on the actual people around us, and remember
that they deserve our real – not virtual – attention. The idea of a culture where people always have a screen
between them sounds a bit funny, because deep understanding comes when we see the reactions on other
people’s faces.
(Adapted from Solutions)
Question 39: The passage is mainly about ______.
A. the development of device-centred communication
B. the impact of device-centred communication
C. the definition of device-centred communication
D. the misunderstanding of device-centred communication
Question 40: The word They in paragraph 2 refers to ______.
A. mobile phones B. tablets C. mobile devices D. laptops

Question 41: In paragraph 2, in her statement about the advantages of communicating in person, Mary Peters
mentioned all of the following EXCEPT ______.
A. body language B. eye contact C. handshake D. tone of voice
Question 42: The word meet up in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. come down B. get together C. get away D. come away
Question 43: According to paragraph 4, deep understanding appears when ______.
A. we communicate through social networking B. we interact with modern technology
C. we care about our virtual friends D. we see the reactions on the faces of other people
A recent survey into how teenagers in a Southeast Asian country spend their free time has come up with
what some people regard as a surprising finding: many of those surveyed reported that they would rather
stay at home and do things indoors than go out and experience real-life adventures. One in four teenagers
surveyed believed that online experiences were as fulfilling as real life, and more than half were actually
afraid of trying new experiences. When asked about their most memorable experience over the previous ten
months, nearly 30% of boys said ‘playing a new video game’, while 10% of all teenagers said it was watching
a new TV series. On asking for more detailed information, researchers found that 20% of boys and 22% of
girls said they had never had a real-life adventure.
It would be easy to blame technological advances for these findings. After all, today’s teenagers have
many more indoor activities to choose from than did their parents. About half a century ago children were
expected to spend more of their free time outside. But researchers do not put the blame wholly on technology.
To members of older generations, these findings are worrying, because it means that young people
increasingly rely on virtual reality and are consequently missing out on real outdoor activities such as
mountain climbing, kayaking, etc., which have always been regarded as both enjoyable and character-
building. The surveyed adults said they thought today’s youth were more protected than they had been when
they were growing up. Giving examples of this protection, more than half said they would not let their
teenage children hitchhike or go on holiday without an adult. Seven in ten said they would not even allow
their teenagers to get into a taxi on their own. It is not clear whether adults believe the world is more
dangerous than it used to be or whether they do not trust today’s youngsters to look after themselves.
(Adapted from Cambridge English First for Schools)
Question 44: Which of the following can be the main idea of the passage?
A. Thorough research on teenagers’ online games and outdoor activities
B. Teenagers’ free-time activity preferences and adults’ concerns
C. Viewpoints on teenagers’ free-time adventures and online games
D. Fears and tensions encountered by teenagers and adults’ concerns
Question 45: The word fulfilling in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. frightening B. satisfying C. devastating D. discouraging
Question 46: The word advances in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. movements B. advantages C. barriers D. developments
Question 47: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to ______.
A. outdoor activities B. young people C. older generations D. surveyed adults
Question 48: According to paragraph 3, the older generations are worried about ______.
A. the young’s preferences for outdoor activities B. the young’s reliance on virtual reality
C. the young’s ignorance about virtual reality D. the young’s lack of indoor activities
Question 49: Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
A. One fourth of the surveyed teenagers believed online experiences in their free time were as pleasing
as real life.
B. The older generations surveyed thought that today’s teenagers were more protected than they had
been.
C. The majority of teenagers surveyed enjoyed real outdoor activities in their leisure time.
D. Researchers do not put all the blame on technology for causing teenagers’ lack of real-life experiences.
A. Many adults think that the present world is as dangerous as it used to be.
B. Many adults are doubtful about their children’s ability to take care of themselves.
C. Virtual life is considered to be more and more challenging for teenagers in the present world.
D. The majority of teenagers surveyed believed virtual reality was as interesting as the real life.
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BỘ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2013

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Họ, tên thí sinh: ..........................................................................

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Họ và tên thí sinh:..........................................................................

Trang 1/6 - Mã đề thi 194

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The following prompts might be helpful to you.

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Trang 1/6 - Mã đề thi 642

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