NCERT Class 10 Economy English (WWW - Pdfnotes.co)

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Q.1) If women are engaged in paid work, what is its Q.6) The Human Development Index (HDI) includes
possible social consequences? which of the following parameters/indicators/ sub-
a) Their dignity in the household and society indicators of development:
increases. 1. Real Per capita income adjusted for Purchasing
b) They are boycotted by society power parity (PPP).
c) The working women start feeling more insecure 2. Asset ownership by population.
than non-working women. 3. Participation of women in the workforce.
d) None of the above. Choose the correct answer using the options given
below
Q.2) “World Development Report” is brought in by a) 2 and 3 Only
which of the following international institutions? b) 1 and 3 Only
a) IMF c) 1 Only
b) World Bank d) 1 and 2 Only
c) World Trade Organisation
d) None of the above Q.7) Which of the following SAARC country has best
performance in terms of human development in HDI
Q.3) Consider the following statements: 2020?
1. Countries with per capita income of US$ 12,056 per a) Sri Lanka
annum and above in 2017 are called rich countries. b) Bangladesh
2. India comes in the category of low middle-income c) Nepal
countries. d) Pakistan
Choose the correct statements using the code given
below. Q.8) Consider the following statements:
a) 1 Only 1. Kerala has the highest per capita income amongst
b) 2 Only states of India.
c) 1 and 2 both 2. Bihar has the least per capita income amongst
d) Neither 1 nor 2 states of India.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Q.4) ‘Human Development Report’ published by: a) 1 Only
a) United Nations b) 2 Only
b) World Bank c) Both 1 and 2
c) UNESCO d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) None of the above
Q.9) Which one among the following is a non-farm
Q.5) Which of the following criterion/criteria is/are activity?
being used in Human Development Report? a) Multiple cropping
1. Educational level b) Crop rotation
2. Health status c) Dairy farming
3. Per capita consumption d) Modern farming
Select the correct answer using the options given
below: Q.10) How is the average income of any country
a) 1 and 2 Only calculated?
b) 1 and 3 Only a) By dividing the total income of the country by its
c) 2 and 3 Only total population.
d) All the above b) By multiplying the total income of individuals
whose annual income is 1 lakh rupees by the total
population.
INDIAN ECONOMY 10TH CLASS TEST 1

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c) By dividing the total income of the people above ways of manufacturing associated with industrial
the poverty line by the total population. sector.
d) By dividing the total tax amount received by the Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
government from the total population. a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only
Q.11) Which of the following states has lowest infant c) 1 and 2 both
mortality rate? d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Maharashtra
b) West Bengal Q.16) Which of the following is/are part of secondary
c) Kerala sector of an economy?
d) Tamil Nadu 1. Transport
2. Storage
Q.12) Consider the following statements: 3. Communication
1. The Green Revolution in the late 1960s introduced Select the correct answer using the options given
the Indian farmer to cultivation of wheat and rice below:
using high yielding varieties (HYVs) of seeds. a) 1 Only
2. Traditional seeds needed high to very high b) 1 and 2 Only
irrigation. c) 2 and 3 Only
The correct statement(s) is/are: d) None of the above
a) Only 1
b) Only 2 Q.17) Consider the following statements:
c) 1 and 2 both 1. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the value of all
d) Neither 1 nor 2 final goods and services produced within a country
during a particular year.
Q.13) Which neighboring country is better than India in 2. In India, the mammoth task of measuring GDP is
terms of the HDI rank in the world? undertaken by the NITI Aayog.
a) Nepal Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
b) Sri Lanka a) 1 Only
c) Myanmar b) 2 Only
d) Bangladesh c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.14) National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) is
an important institution which estimates the national Q.18) Consider the following statements:
income of a given fiscal year. The NSSO is under the 1. The tertiary sector has emerged as the largest
administrative control of: producing sector in India.
a) Ministry of Finance 2. The secondary sector of Indian economy continues
b) Ministry of Industry and Commerce to be the largest employer.
c) Ministry of Statistics, Planning and Programme Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
Implementation, a) 1 Only
d) NITI Aayog b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 both
Q.15) Consider the following statements: d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Goods in secondary sector is produced by directly
exploiting the natural resources. Q.19) Which of the following is the primary
2. The tertiary sector covers activities in which natural characteristic of ‘underemployment’?
products are changed into other forms through a) Wages are low
b) No social security


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c) More people are involved than the required Choose the correct answer using the codes given
d) All of the above below:
a) 1 and 2 Only
Q.20) Which of the following Acts is mandated to b) 1 and 3 Only
implement the ‘Right to Work’? c) 1 Only, 2 and 4
a) Right to Information (RTI) Act d) All the above
b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA 2005) Q.25) Which of the following is/are part of 'terms of
c) Right to Education (RTE). 2010 credit'?
d) None of the above 1. Interest rate
2. Collateral and documentation requirement
Q.21) In which of the following system(s) ‘double 3. Mode of repayment
coincidence of wants’ is an essential feature? Choose the correct answer using the codes given
a) Money as a medium of exchange system below:
b) Barter exchange system a) 1 and 2 Only
c) Both a and b b) 1 and 3 Only
d) None of the above c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All the above
Q.22) Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the Reserve Bank of India issues currency Q.26) Consider the following statements:
notes on behalf of the central government. 1. The Reserve Bank of India supervises the
2. Use of rupee as a medium of payment cannot be functioning of both formal sources as well as
refused in settling transactions in India. informal sources of loans.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. 2. Informal lenders charge a much higher interest on
a) 1 Only loans than formal lenders.
b) 2 Only Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
c) 1 and 2 both a) 1 Only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 both
Q.23) Consider the following statements: d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Banks keep only a small proportion of their
deposits as cash with themselves. Q.27) Which of the following act(s) as inhibiting
2. Banks charge a higher interest rate on loans than factor(s) in formal credit accessibility of poor and
what they offer on deposits. marginalised people?
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. 1. Lack of bank presence in rural areas
a) 1 Only 2. Lack of collateral
b) 2 Only 3. Complex paperwork for credit from formal sources
c) 1 and 2 both 4. Lack of liquidity for formal sources of credit.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Choose the correct answer using the options given
below:
Q.24) Which of the following can be used as a collateral a) 1 and 2 Only
part of terms of credit? b) 1 and 3 Only
1. Land c) 1, 2 and 3 Only
2. Building d) All the above
3. Vehicle
4. Livestock Q.28) Consider the following statements with respect
to Self-Help Groups (SHGs):


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1. A typical SHG has 150-200 members, usually Choose the correct answer using the options given
belonging to one neighbourhood. below:
2. Members can take interest-free small loans from a) 1 Only
the group itself to meet their needs. b) 2 Only
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. c) 1 and 2 both
a) 1 Only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 both Q.33) Which of the following factor(s)
d) Neither 1 nor 2 determines/determine the location of production
Centres of MNCs?
Q.29) Grameen Bank of Bangladesh is one of the 2. Proximity to market
biggest success stories in reaching the poor to meet 3. Available of skilled workforce
their credit needs at reasonable rates. Who is the 4. Cheap manufacturing
founder of Grameen Bank of Bangladesh? Choose the correct answer using the options given
a) Sheikh Mujibur Rahman below:
b) Sheikh Hasina a) 1 and 2 Only
c) Kazi Nazrul Islam b) 1 and 3 Only
d) Muhammad Yunus c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All the above
1. The SHGs help borrowers overcome the problem of Q.34) Which of the following is/are among benefits of
lack of collateral. collaboration of domestic company with MNCs?
2. The SHGs also provide a platform to discuss and act 1. More capital investments
on a variety of social issues such as health, 2. Newer technology
nutrition, domestic violence, etc. 3. Guaranteed market
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. Choose the correct answer using the options given
a) 1 Only below:
b) 2 Only a) 1 and 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 both b) 1 and 3 Only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 c) 2 and 3 Only
d) All the above
Q.35) Which of the following is the most common way
1. Until the middle of the twentieth century,
of MNC investment in a country?
production was largely organised within countries.
a) Acquisition of smaller domestic companies and
2. An MNC is a company that owns or controls
then expand the business
production in more than one nation.
b) Placing orders for production with small producers.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
c) Being an equal partner in total production
a) 1 Only
d) None of the above
b) 2 Only
c) 1 and 2 both
Q.36) Which of the following is the most basic function
d) Neither 1 nor 2
of foreign trade?
a) To create an opportunity for the producers to
Q.32) Under the globalisation system, Multi-National
reach beyond the domestic markets.
Companies (MNCs):
b) To earn foreign exchange reserve for the
1. Produce the goods and services globally.
government.
2. Sell its finished products globally.


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c) Making local advantages available to all across the a) 1 Only

world. b) 2 Only
d) None of the above. c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.37) Globalisation causes cross-border movement of
which of the following? Q.41) World Trade Organisation (WTO) is concerned
1. Movements of goods with:
2. Investments and technology a) International Foreign exchange system
3. Political control b) Eradication of global poverty
Choose the correct answer using the options given c) Liberalisation of international trade
below: d) None of the above
a) 1 and 2 Only
b) 1 and 3 Only Q.42) Which of the following can be the consequences
c) 2 and 3 Only of ‘Protectionism’ coupled with ‘Import Substitution’?
d) All the above 1. Blocking large MNCs from entering into domestic
markets
Q.38) Consider the following statements: 2. Revival of domestic employment
1. After independence, India did not allow import of 3. Reduction in foreign investment
any goods. Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
2. All developed countries, during the early stages of a) 1 and 3 Only
development, have given protection to domestic b) 2 and 3 Only
producers. c) 1 and 2 Only
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. d) All the above
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only Q.43) In the context of the primary motive of the
c) 1 and 2 both colonial government behind the policy of
d) Neither 1 nor 2 systematically deindustrializing India, consider the
following statements:
Q.39) Consider the following statements: 1. They wanted to make India a mere exporter of
1. Post-1991 economic reforms, businesses have important raw materials for the upcoming modern
been allowed to make decisions freely about what industries in Britain.
they wish to import or export. 2. They wanted to turn India into a sprawling market
2. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the for the finished products of those industries.
government is known as liberalisation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. a) Only 1
a) 1 Only b) Only 2
b) 2 Only c) 1 and 2 both
c) 1 and 2 both d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.40) Consider the following statements about Special 1. The consumer movement arose out of company’s
Economic Zones (SEZs): benevolence attitude towards consumers welfare.
1. SEZs are to have world class infrastructure 2. Currently, the responsibility of ensuring quality of
facilities. goods and services lies with the sellers.
2. Companies who set up production units in the SEZs Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
are completely tax free. a) 1 Only
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. b) 2 Only


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c) 1 and 2 both Choose the correct answer using the options given
d) Neither 1 nor 2 below:
a) 1 and 2 Only
Q.45) Consider the following statements: b) 2 Only
1. In 1985 United Nations adopted the UN Guidelines c) 2 and 3 Only
for Consumer Protection. d) All the above
2. Consumers International has become an umbrella
body to over 220 member countries. Q.49) Which of the following rights(s) is/are valid in
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. context of consumer protection in India?
a) 1 Only 1. Right to choose
b) 2 Only 2. Right to be informed
c) 1 and 2 both 3. Right to seek redressal
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Choose the correct answer using the options given
below:
Q.46) Consider the following statements: a) 1 and 2 Only
1. Following 1985 United Nations adopted the UN b) 2 Only
Guidelines for Consumer Protection, Indian c) 2 and 3 Only
government was the enactment of the Consumer d) All the above
Protection Act 1986.
2. Under the provisions of the Act, producers need to Q.50) Consider the following statements with respect
strictly follow the required safety rules and to consumer forums:
regulations. 1. They are voluntary in nature.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. 2. They guide consumers on how to file cases in the
a) 1 Only consumer court.
b) 2 Only 3. They also receive financial support from the
c) 1 and 2 both government for creating awareness among
d) Neither 1 nor 2 people.
Choose the correct answer using the options given
Q.47) Consider the following statements: below:
1. Consumers have the right to be informed about the a) 1 and 2 Only
particulars of goods and services that they b) 2 Only
purchase. c) 1 and 3 Only
2. One can also protest and complain if someone sells d) All the above
a good at more than the printed price on the
packet. Q.51) Consider the following statements:
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. 1. Under COPRA, a two-tier quasi-judicial machinery
a) 1 Only at the district and state levels was set up for
b) 2 Only redressal of consumer disputes.
c) 1 and 2 both 2. The district-level court called District Forum deals
d) Neither 1 nor 2 with the cases involving claims upto Rs. 20 lakh
while the state- level court called State
Q.48) Which of the following has/have bearing on Commission between Rs. 20 lakh and Rs. 1 crore.
consumer protection in India? Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
1. UN Guidelines for Consumer Protection. a) 1 Only
2. Consumer Protection Act 1986 b) 2 Only
3. Right to Information Act, 2005 c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2


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2. Land reform policies were most successful in the

Q.52) Consider the following statements: western Indian states due to lesser number of
1. ISI, Agmark or Hallmark etc. logos and certification landless people as compared to other states.
help consumers get assured of quality while Choose the correct statement using the code given
purchasing the goods and services. below.
2. The organisations that monitor and issue these a) 1 Only
certificates allow producers to use their logos b) 2 Only
provided they follow certain quality standards. c) Both 1 and 2
Choose the correct answer using the code given below. d) None of the Above
a) 1 Only
b) 2 Only Q.57) Consider the following statements:
c) 1 and 2 both 1. In first seven Five Year Plans (FYPs), trade policy
d) Neither 1 nor 2 aimed at substituting imports with domestic
production.
Q.53) Which of the following right is not available 2. Tariffs and quotas were used extensively as
under Consumer Protection Act, 1986? economic policy tool to protect the domestic
a) Right to representation industries from foreign competition.
b) Right to safety 3. It was assumed that the domestic industries need
c) Right to consumer education protection since they will never be able to compete
d) All the above are available under the Act with foreign industries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Q.54) India embarked upon a planned and ‘mixed’ a) 1 and 2 Only
economic model after the independence. Which of the b) 2 and 3 Only
following best describes the mixed economic model? c) 1 and 3 Only
a) The co-existence of industry and services sectors. d) None of the Above
b) The co-existence of the central planning body with
the state planning bodies. Q.58) Quality of life of human being invariably depends
c) The co-existence of private and public sectors. upon:
d) None of the above 1. Stable income
2. Equal treatment
Q.55) Which of the following is/are inhibiting factor(s) 3. Freedom
upon consumer redressal process in India? 4. Respect of others
1. Non issuance of cash memos Choose the correct answer using the options given
2. Large proportion of small retail sales below:
3. Lack of clarity on laws a) 1 and 2 Only
Choose the correct answer using the options given b) 1, 2 and 3 Only
below: c) 2, 3 and 4 Only
a) 1 and 2 Only d) All the above
b) 2 Only
c) 2 and 3 Only Q.59) Consider the following statements:
d) All the above 1. Post-independence, India followed an economic
system where all the factories and farms in the
Q.56) Consider the following statements: country were owned by the government.
1. Under land ceiling in post-independence land 2. The ‘Industrial Policy Resolution’ of 1948 and the
reforms policies, the land ownership limitation was Directive Principles of the Indian Constitution
fixed on individual basis. reflects India's mixed economic status.
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:


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a) 1 Only 1. A third dimension “accessibility” in food security

b) 2 Only was added by Amartya Sen in 1975 World Food
c) Both 1 and 2 Summit.
d) None of the Above 2. The 1995 World Food Summit recognised that
"poverty eradication is essential to improve access
Q.60) If women are engaged in paid work, which of the to food".
following are not its possible social consequences? Choose the correct statements using the code given
a) Their dignity in the household and society below.
increases. a) Only 1
b) They are boycotted by society b) Only 2
c) The working women start feeling more insecure c) 1 and 2 both
than non-working women. d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Both b and c
Q.61) Which of the following was/were the objectives 1. The most devastating famine that occurred in India
of land reform policies post-independence India? was the famine of Bengal in 1943.
1. To incentivise farmers to invest in land for greater 2. After the great Bengal famine 1943, no such famine
productivity. has taken place in India.
2. To promote equity in agriculture. Choose the correct statements using the code given
3. To unjust the historical injustice. below.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) Only 1
a) 1 and 2 Only b) Only 2
b) 2 and 3 Only c) 1 and 2 both
c) 1 and 3 Only d) Neither 1 nor 2
d) None of the Above
Q.66) Which of the following group(s) is/are vulnerable
Q.62) Which of the following is/are essential aspect(s) to food insecurity?
of food security? 1. SC/STs and OBCs
1. Availability of food 2. Pregnant women
2. Accessibility 3. People facing natural disasters
3. Affordability of food Select the correct answer using the options given
Select the correct answer using the options given below:
below: a) Only 1 and 2
a) Only 1 and 2 b) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 1 and 3 c) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 2 and 3 d) All the above
d) All the above
Q.63) The food security is ensured in a country only if: 1. The food insecure people are uniform throughout
a) Enough food is available for all the persons the country.
b) All persons have the capacity to buy food of 2. The food insecurity is higher in economically
acceptable quality. backward states with high incidence of poverty,
c) There is no barrier on access to food. tribal and remote areas.
d) All the above Choose the correct statements using the code given
below.
Q.64) Consider the following statements: a) Only 1
b) Only 2


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c) 1 and 2 both Which of the following correct expansion of acronym

d) Neither 1 nor 2 FCI?
a) Food Corporation of India
Q.68) Consider the following statements: b) Food Council of India
1. Chronic hunger is a consequence of diets c) Food Corporate and Industry
persistently inadequate in terms of quantity and/ or d) None of the above
quality.
2. Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food growing Q.73) Consider the following statements:
and harvesting. 1. The provision of rationing in India was started only
Choose the correct statements using the code given after independence.
below. 2. Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) were
a) Only 1 introduced in 1975 amidst high poverty incidence.
b) Only 2 Choose the correct statements using the code given
c) 1 and 2 both below.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 a) Only 1
b) Only 2
Q.69) Who among the following was the Prime c) 1 and 2 both
Minister when ‘Green Revolution’ was started in India? d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
b) Indira Gandhi Q.74) Under the National Food Security Act, 2013,
c) Lal Bahadur Shashtri what percentage of urban and rural population is
d) Morarji Desai eligible to be covered?
a) 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban
Q.70) Consider the following statements: population.
1. The highest rate of growth in wheat production as b) 65% of the rural population and 45% of the urban
a result of Green Revolution was achieved in population.
Punjab. c) 75% of the urban population and 50% of the rural
2. The increase in foodgrains as impact of Green population.
Revolution was hugely disproportionate. d) 65% of the urban population and 45% of the rural
Choose the correct statements using the code given population.
below.
a) Only 1 Q.75) Consider the following statements:
b) Only 2 1. Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) was launched in
c) 1 and 2 both December 2000.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Under this scheme ten crores of the poorest among
the BPL families covered under the targeted public
distribution system were identified.
Q.71) The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is declared by
the government every year:
below.
a) Before sowing season
a) Only 1
b) After sowing season
b) Only 2
c) During sowing season
c) 1 and 2 both
d) During procurement time
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q.72) The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the
farmers in states where there is surplus production.


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1. The stock of wheat and rice with FCI has remained d) Market Price
consistently significantly lower than the buffer
norms. Q.82) Which of the following statements is/are
2. The storage of massive food stocks has been correct?
responsible for high carrying costs, in addition to 1. Buffer Stock is the stock of foodgrains procured by
wastage and deterioration in grain quality. the government through Food Corporation of India
Choose the correct statements using the code given (FCI).
below. 2. Under the 'Minimum Support Price', the farmers
a) Only 1 are paid a pre-announced price for their crops.
b) Only 2 Choose the correct answer using the code given below.
c) 1 and 2 both a) 1 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
Q.77) The success story of Amul milk is an example of d) Neither 1 nor 2
success of:
a) Government enterprise Q.83) Which of the following is correct with respect to
b) Self Help Groups ‘Issue Price’?
c) Microfinance a) Distribution of food grains to the poor sections of
d) Co-operatives the society at a lower price than the market price.
b) Distribution of grain on the market price to the
Q.78) Which of the following crops are related to Green poor sections of the society.
Revolution? c) Distribution of grain to all the people of the society
a) Wheat and Rice at a price lower than the market price.
b) Cotton and Bajra d) Distribute grain to rich people of the society at a
c) Maize and Rice lower price than market price.
d) Bajra and Wheat
Q.84) In the context of ration cards, which of the
Q.79) Farmers are paid a pre-announced price by the following pairs is /are correctly matched?
government for their crops. It is called: 1. Antyodaya cards -for the poorest of the poor
a) Issue Price 2. BPL cards - for all others
b) Invested Price 3. APL cards - below poverty line
c) Market Price Choose the correct answer using the code given
d) Minimum Support Price. below.:
a) 1 only
Q.80) The price at which the government offers to sell b) 2 only
foodgrains lower than the market price is known as c) 1 and 3
a) Procurement Price d) All the above
b) Minimum Support Price
c) Issue Price Q.85) Consider the following statements:
d) Market Price. 1. The WTO agreements cover trade in goods as well
as services.
Q.81) The minimum guaranteed price at which the 2. The WTO agreements facilitate multilateral trade
government offers to purchase any quantity is known systems only and do not cover bilateral trade
as; systems.
a) Procurement Price Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
b) Minimum Support Price a) 1 Only
c) Issue Price b) 2 Only


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c) Both 1 and 2 This task was undertaken by few individuals. Who

d) None of the Above among the following has/have such distinction?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
Q.86) Which of the following is/are benefit(s) of 2. William Digby
organic farming? 3. Findlay Shirras
1. Low input cost 4. V.K.R.V. Rao
2. Good returns on investment 5. R.C. Desai
3. Increased export Choose the correct answer using the options given
4. More labour input below:
Choose the correct answer using the options given a) Only 1 and 2
below: b) Only 1, 4 and 5
a) Only 1, 2 and 4 c) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5
b) Only 1, 3 and 4 d) All the above
c) Only 2, and 3
d) Only 1, 2 and 3 Q.90) The stagnation in the agricultural sector during
colonial period can be attributed to which of the
Q.87) Muslin was a very famous cotton textile all over following factor(s)?
the world during 17th century. Consider the following 1. Land settlement policies pursued by the British
statements with reference to it: 2. Low levels of technology
1. Muslin type of cotton textile had its origin in Kerala 3. Lack of irrigation facilities
and neighboring region. 4. Absolutely no use of fertilisers
2. Malmal was the finest variety of Muslin found in the Choose the correct answer using the options given
Indian subcontinent. below:
Choose the correct statements using the code given a) Only 1 and 2
below. b) Only 1 and 3
a) Only 1 c) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 2 d) All the above
c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.91) Which of the following is most appropriately
correct with respect to ‘human capital formation’?
Q.88) Consider the following statements with a) It is when the output on investment in human
reference to the characteristics of Indian economy resources if greater than the inputs.
prior to the advent of British: b) It is when the existing ‘human resource’ is further
1. The agriculture was the main source of livelihood developed by becoming more educated and
for most people and there was dearth of variety in healthier.
manufacturing activities. c) It is when the per capita savings in higher
2. India was particularly well-known for its handicraft d) None of the above
industries in the fields of cotton and silk textiles,
metal and precious stone works, etc. Q.92) Consider the following statements:
The incorrect statement(s) is/are: 1. Market activities involve remuneration to anyone
a) Only 1 who performs.
b) Only 2 2. Consumption and processing of primary product
c) 1 and 2 both and own account production of fixed assets are
d) Neither 1 nor 2 examples of non-market activities.
Q.89) British did not make any sincere attempts to below.
estimate India’s national income of per capita income. a) Only 1


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b) Only 2 d) All the above

c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.97) Who of the following great personalities insisted
that India would be truly independent only when the
Q.93) Consider the following statements: poorest of its people become free of human suffering?
1. Employment in organised sector is Characterised by a) Sardar Patel
irregular and low income. b) Jawahar Lal Nehru
2. In unorganised sector there is an absence of basic c) Mahatma Gandhi
facilities like maternity leave, childcare and other d) Dada Bhai Naoroji
social security systems.
Choose the correct statements using the code given Q.98) Which of the following determine vulnerability of
below. a community?
a) Only 1 1. Education
b) Only 2 2. Health
c) 1 and 2 both 3. Job opportunities.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. Natural disasters
Choose the correct answer using the options given
Q.94) Consider the following statements: below:
1. Literacy among males is nearly 16.6% higher than a) Only 1, 2 and 3
females and it is about 16.1% higher in urban areas b) Only 3 and 4
as compared to rural areas. c) Only 1, 2 and 4
2. According to census, 2011 Bihar has the least d) All the above
literacy rate among all states. Q.99) Consider the following statements:
Choose the correct statements using the code given 1. A common method used to measure poverty is
below. based on the income only.
a) Only 1 2. A person is considered poor if his or her income or
b) Only 2 consumption level falls below a given “minimum
c) 1 and 2 both level” necessary to fulfill the basic needs.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Choose the correct statements using the code given
below.
Q.95) Which of the following type of unemployment is a) Only 1
most common in urban areas? b) Only 2
a) Seasonal unemployment c) 1 and 2 both
b) Disguised unemployment d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Educated unemployment
d) Cyclical unemployment Q.100) Consider the following statements:
1. The present formula for food requirement while
Q.96) Which of the following essentially is/are aspects estimating the poverty line is based on the desired
of poverty? calorie requirement.
1. Lack of a regular job at a minimum decent level. 2. The accepted average calorie requirement in India
2. Lack of access to basic health and sanitation is 2100 calories per person per day in rural areas
3. Hunger and lack of shelter. and 2400 calories per person per day in urban
Choose the correct answer using the options given areas.
below: Choose the correct statements using the code given
a) Only 1 and 2 below.
b) Only 2 a) Only 1
c) Only 3 b) Only 2


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c) 1 and 2 both
d) Neither 1 nor 2


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Q.1) Ans: a compares countries based on the educational

Exp: levels of the people, their health status and per
 Option a is correct: If women are engaged in paid capita income.
work, their dignity in the household and society
increases. However, it is also the case that if there Q.6) Ans: c
is respect for women there would be more sharing Exp:
of housework and a greater acceptance of women  Option c is correct: Amongst given parameters in
working outside. A safe and secure environment the options, only real per capita income adjusted
may allow more women to take up a variety of jobs for Purchasing power parity (PPP) is selected as the
or run a business. determining factor of Human Development Index
(HDI).
Q.2) Ans: b
Exp: Q.7) Ans: a
 Option b is correct: The World Development Exp:
Report is an annual report published since 1978 by  Option a is correct: Sri Lanka is much ahead of
the International Bank for Reconstruction and India in every respect such as Gross National
Development or World Bank. Each WDR provides Income, life expectancy at birth, literacy rate for
in-depth analysis of a specific aspect of economic 15+ years population.
development.  According to HDI 2020, India was ranked 131
among 189 countries. India scored 0.624 and was
Q.3) Ans: c placed in medium human development category.
Exp: Human Development Index is the measure of a
 Statement 1 is correct. Countries with per capita nation's health, education, and standards of living.
income of US$ 12,056 per annum and above in While India is ranked 131, its neighbors Bhutan is
2017, are called rich countries and those with per ranked 129, Bangladesh 133, Nepal 142, and
capita income of US$ 955 or less are called low- Pakistan 154, Sri Lanka 72, China 85.
income countries.
 Statement 2 is correct. India comes in the category Q.8) Ans: b
of low middle-income countries because its per Exp:
capita income in 2017 was just US$ 1820 per  Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is
annum. The rich countries, excluding countries of correct: The per capita income of Haryana is more
Middle East and certain other small countries, are than that of Kerala. Bihar has the least per capita
generally called developed countries income amongst all states. On an average, a person
in Haryana earned Rs. 1,62,034 in one year
Q.4) Ans: a whereas, on an average, a person in Bihar earned
Exp: only around Rs. 31,454.
 Option a is correct: Human Development Report
published by UNDP compares countries based on Q.9) Ans: c
the educational levels of the people, their health Exp:
status and per capita income.  Option c is correct: Dairy farming is an example of
non-farm production activity. In the future, one
Q.5) Ans: a would like to see more non-farm production
Exp: activities in the village. Unlike farming, non-farm
 Statement 1 and 2 are correct and 3 is incorrect: activities require little land. People with some
The third factor is not amongst determinants of a amount of capital can set up non-farm activities.
country's position on Human Development Report.
Human Development Report published by UNDP Q.10) Ans: a


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Exp: than was possible earlier. Traditional seeds needed

 Option a is correct: The income of the country is less irrigation.
the income of all the residents of the country. This
gives us the total income of the country. However, Q.13) Ans: b
for comparison between countries, total income is Exp:
not a useful measure. Since, countries have  Option b is correct: Sri Lanka is much ahead of
different populations, comparing total income will India in every respect such as Gross National
not tell us what an average person is likely to earn. Income, life expectancy at birth, literacy rate for
Hence, we compare the average income which is 15+ years population.
the total income of the country divided by its total  According to HDI 2020, India was ranked 131
population. among 189 countries. India scored 0.624 and was
 The average income is also called per capita placed in medium human development category.
income. In World Development Report 2006, Human Development Index is the measure of a
brought out by the World Bank, this criterion is nation's health, education, and standards of living.
used in classifying countries. Countries with per While India is ranked 131, its neighbors Bhutan is
capita income of Rs. 4,53,000 per annum and ranked 129, Bangladesh 133, Nepal 142, and
above in 2004, are called rich countries and those Pakistan 154, Sri Lanka 72, China 85.
with per capita income of Rs. 37,000 or less are
called low-income countries. India comes in the Q.14) Ans: c
category of low-income countries because its per Exp:
capita income in 2004 was just Rs. 28,000 per  Option c is correct: The employment figures and
annum. The rich countries, excluding countries of national income related data are generally taken
Middle East and certain other small countries, are from the five- yearly surveys on employment and
generally called developed countries. unemployment conducted by the National Sample
Survey Organisation (NSSO). NSSO is an
Q.11) Ans: c organisation under the Ministry of Statistics,
Exp: Planning and Programme Implementation,
 Option c is correct: Kerala has the lowest infant Government of India.
mortality rate. Infant Mortality Rate (IMR)
indicates the number of children that die before Q.15) Ans: d
the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live Exp:
children born in that particular year.  Neither of the statement is correct. When we
 The infant mortality rate is low in Kerala, because produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it
the fundamental features of health and education is an activity of the primary sector. The secondary
are available here in sufficient quantity. sector covers activities in which natural products
are changed into other forms through ways of
Q.12) Ans: a manufacturing that we associate with industrial
Exp: activity. It is the next step after primary.
 Statement 1 is correct. The Green Revolution in
the late 1960s introduced the Indian farmer to Q.16) Ans: d
cultivation of wheat and rice using high yielding Exp:
varieties (HYVs) of seeds.  None of the above is part of secondary sector. All
 Statement 2 is incorrect: Compared to the three are parts of tertiary sector. These are
traditional seeds, the HYV seeds promised to activities that help in the development of the
produce much greater amounts of grain on a single primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by
plant. As a result, the same piece of land would themselves, do not produce a good but they are an
now produce far larger quantities of foodgrains aid or a support for the production process.


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implement the ‘Right to Work’. Under MGNREGA

Q.17) Ans: a 2005, all those who are able to, and are in need of
Exp: work in rural areas are guaranteed 100 days of
 Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is employment in a year by the government. If the
incorrect: Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the government fails in its duty to provide
value of all final goods and services produced employment, it will give unemployment
within a country during a particular year. In India, allowances to the people.
the mammoth task of measuring GDP is
undertaken by a central government ministry. This Q.21) Ans: b
Ministry, with the help of various government Exp:
departments of all the Indian states and union  Option b is correct: ‘double coincidence of wants’
territories, collects information relating to total is an essential feature of barter exchange of goods
volume of goods and services and their prices and system. A person holding money can easily
then estimates the GDP. exchange it for any commodity or service that he
or she might want. Therefore, there is no
Q.18) Ans: a occurrence of ‘double coincidence of wants’ in
Exp: money exchange system.
 Statement 1 is correct. Over the forty years
between 1973-74 and 2013-14, while production in Q.22) Ans: c
all the three sectors has increased, it has increased Exp:
the most in the tertiary sector.  Statement 1 is correct. In India, the Reserve Bank
 Statement 2 is incorrect: As a result, in the year of India issues currency notes on behalf of the
2013-14, the tertiary sector has emerged as the central government. As per Indian law, no other
largest producing sector in India replacing the individual or organisation is allowed to issue
primary sector. A remarkable fact about India is currency.
that while there has been a change in the share of  Statement 2 is correct. Moreover, the law legalizes
the three sectors in GDP, a similar shift has not the use of rupee as a medium of payment that
taken place in employment. The primary sector cannot be refused in settling transactions in India.
continues to be the largest employer even now. No individual in India can legally refuse a payment
made in rupees. Hence, the rupee is widely
Q.19) Ans: c accepted as a medium of exchange.
Exp:
 Option c is correct: If any sector involves more Q.23) Ans: c
people than it is actually required, the condition is Exp:
called underemployment. For example: Indian  Statement 1 is correct. Banks keep only a small
agriculture sector. There are more people in proportion of their deposits as cash with
agriculture than is necessary. So, even if you move themselves. For example, banks in India these days
a few people out, production will not be affected. hold about 15 per cent of their deposits as cash.
Thus, we can call that there is underemployment in Banks use the major portion of the deposits to
agriculture. extend loans. Banks make use of the deposits to
meet the loan requirements of the people.
Q.20)  Statement 2 is correct. Banks charge a higher
Ans: b interest rate on loans than what they offer on
Exp: deposits. The difference between what is charged
 Option b is correct: Mahatma Gandhi National from borrowers and what is paid to depositors is
Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA their main source of income.
2005) was enacted by the government to Q.24) Ans: d


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Exp: one of the major reasons which prevents the poor

 All of the Above are correct: All the above can be from getting bank loans.
used as collateral parts of terms of credit. Every
loan agreement specifies an interest rate which the Q.28) Ans: d
borrower must pay to the lender along with the Exp:
repayment of the principal. In addition, lenders  Statement 1 is incorrect. A typical SHG has 15-20
may demand collateral (security) against loans. members, usually belonging to one
Collateral is an asset that the borrower owns (such neighbourhood, who meet and save regularly.
as land, building, vehicle, livestock, deposits with Saving per member varies from Rs. 25 to Rs. 100 or
banks) and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until more, depending on the ability of the people to
the loan is repaid. save.
 Statement 2 is incorrect. Members can take small
Q.25) Ans: d loans from the group itself to meet their needs. The
Exp: group charges interest on these loans but this is
 All of the Above are correct: Interest rate, still lesser than what the moneylender charges.
collateral and documentation requirement, and After a year or two, if the group is regular in
the mode of repayment together comprise what is savings, it becomes eligible for availing loan from
called the terms of credit. The terms of credit vary the bank.
substantially from one credit arrangement to
another. Q.29) Ans: d
Exp:
Q.26) Ans: b  Option d is correct: Muhammad Yunus was the
Exp: founder of Grameen Bank of Bangladesh. It is one
 Statement 1 is incorrect. The Reserve Bank of India of the biggest success stories in reaching the poor
supervises the functioning of formal sources of to meet their credit needs at reasonable rates.
loans only. There is no organisation which Started in the 1970s as a small project, Grameen
supervises the credit activities of lenders in the Bank in 2018 has over 9 million members in about
informal sector. They can lend at whatever interest 81,600 villages spread across Bangladesh. Almost
rate they choose. There is no one to stop them all the borrowers are women and belong to the
from using unfair means to get their money back. poorest sections of the society. These borrowers
 Statement 2 is correct: Compared to the formal have proved that not only are poor women reliable
lenders, most of the informal lenders charge a borrowers, but that they can start and run a variety
much higher interest on loans. Thus, the cost to the of small income-generating activities successfully.
borrower of informal loans is much higher.
Q.30) Ans: c
Q.27) Ans: c Exp:
Exp:  Statement 1 is correct. The SHGs help borrowers
 Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct and 4 is incorrect: overcome the problem of lack of collateral. They
Lack of liquidity for formal sources of credit is not can get timely loans for a variety of purposes and
amongst inhibiting factors in formal credit at a reasonable interest rate.
accessibility of poor and marginalised people.  Statement 2 is correct. Moreover, SHGs are the
Banks are not present everywhere in rural India. building blocks of organisation of the rural poor.
Even when they are present, getting a loan from a Not only does it help women to become financially
bank is much more difficult than taking a loan from self-reliant, but also provides a platform to discuss
informal sources. Bank loans require proper and act on a variety of social issues such as health,
documents and collateral. Absence of collateral is nutrition, domestic violence, etc. (by the regular
meetings of the group)


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two-fold. First, MNCs can provide money for

Q.31) Ans: c additional investments, like buying new machines
Exp: for faster production. Second, MNCs might bring
 Statement 1 is correct. Until the middle of the with them the latest technology for production.
twentieth century, production was largely
organised within countries. What crossed the Q.35) Ans: a
boundaries of these countries were raw material, Exp:
food stuff and finished products. Colonies such as  Option a is correct: The most common route for
India exported raw materials and food stuff and MNC investments is to buy up local companies and
imported finished goods. Trade was the main then to expand production. MNCs with huge
channel connecting distant countries. wealth can quite easily do so. In fact, many of the
 Statement 2 is correct. This was before large top MNCs have wealth exceeding the entire
companies called multinational corporations budgets of the developing country governments.
(MNCs) emerged on the scene. An MNC is a
company that owns or controls production in more Q.36) Ans: a
than one nation. Exp:
 Option a is correct: The most basic function of
Q.32) Ans: c foreign trade is to create an opportunity for the
Exp: producers to reach beyond the domestic markets,
 Both are correct statements. Under globalisation, i.e., markets of their own countries. Producers can
MNCs are not only selling its finished products sell their produce not only in markets located
globally, but more importantly, the goods and within the country but can also compete in markets
services are produced globally. As a result, located in other countries of the world. Similarly,
production is organised in increasingly complex for the buyers, import of goods produced in
ways. The production process is divided into small another country is one way of expanding the
parts and spread out across the globe. choice of goods beyond what is domestically
produced.
Q.33)
Ans: d Q.37) Ans: a
Exp: Exp:
 All the above factors determine the location of  Statement 1 and 2 are correct, statement 3 is
production Centres of MNCs. MNCs set up incorrect: Globalisation does not cause cross-
production where it is close to the markets; where border movement of political control. Even though
there is skilled and unskilled labour available at low there is greater movement of goods, investment
costs; and where the availability of other factors of and technology, the political control remains with
production is assured. In addition, MNCs might the host country. The sovereignty under
look for government policies that look after their globalisation remains intact.
interests.
Q.38) Ans: b
Q.34) Ans: a Exp:
Exp:  Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian government,
 Statement 1 and 2 are correct and 3 is incorrect: after Independence, had put barriers to foreign
Guaranteed market is not among the benefits of trade and foreign investment. But, it did not place
collaboration of domestic company with MNCs. At a blanket ban on imports. India allowed imports of
times, MNCs set up production jointly with some of only essential items such as machinery, fertilisers,
the local companies of these countries. The benefit petroleum etc. The second statement is correct.
to the local company of such joint production is


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 Statement 2 is correct: All developed countries, present 164 countries of the world are currently
during the early stages of development, have given members of the WTO.
protection to domestic producers through a variety
of means. Q.42) Ans: d
Exp:
Q.39) Ans: c  All of the Above statements are correct:
Exp: Protectionism is a strategy adopted by nations
 Statement 1 is correct. Starting around 1991, some which means saving domestic industries from the
far- reaching changes in policy were made in India. tough competition posed by the large MNCs. It
The government decided that the time had come helps to generate local employment as imports are
for Indian producers to compete with producers also discouraged.
around the globe. It felt that competition would  This pushes the opening of domestic industries.
improve the performance of producers within the  Import substitution supplements Protectionism. It
country since they would have to improve their means meeting the demand of the same goods
quality. This decision was supported by powerful which were earlier imported, from the domestic
international organisations. industries.
 Statement 2 is correct. Thus, barriers on foreign
trade and foreign investment were removed to a Q.43) Ans: c
large extent. This meant that goods could be Exp:
imported and exported easily and also foreign The primary motive of the colonial government behind
companies could set up factories and offices here. this policy of systematically de- industrialising India
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the was two-fold:
government is what is known as liberalisation. o Statement 1 is correct: The intention was, first, to
reduce India to the status of a mere exporter of
Q.40) Ans: a important raw materials for the upcoming modern
Exp: industries in Britain and,
 Statement 1 is correct. In recent years, the central o Statement 2 is correct: To turn India into a
and state governments in India are taking special sprawling market for the finished products of those
steps to attract foreign companies to invest in industries so that their continued expansion could
India. Industrial zones, called Special Economic be ensured to the maximum advantage of their
Zones (SEZs), are being set up. SEZs are to have home country - Britain.
world class facilities: electricity, water, roads,
transport, storage, recreational and educational
facilities. Q.44) Ans: b
 Statement 2 is incorrect. Companies who set up Exp:
production units in the SEZs do not have to pay  Statement 1 is incorrect: The consumer movement
taxes for an initial period of five years. arose out of dissatisfaction of the consumers as
many unfair practices were being indulged in by
Q.41) Ans: c the sellers. There was no legal system available to
Exp: consumers to protect them from exploitation in
 Option c is correct: World Trade Organisation the marketplace.
(WTO) is an international organisation whose aim  For a long time, when a consumer was not happy
is to liberalise international trade. with a particular brand product or shop, he or she
 Started at the initiative of the developed countries, generally avoided buying that brand product, or
WTO establishes rules regarding international would stop purchasing from that shop.
trade, and sees that these rules are obeyed. At  Statement 2 is correct: It was presumed that it was
the responsibility of consumers to be careful while


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buying a commodity or service. It took many years for a replacement. If the expiry period was not
for organisations in India, and around the world, to printed, the manufacturer would blame the
create awareness amongst people. This has also shopkeeper and will not accept the responsibility.
shifted the responsibility of ensuring quality of  If people sell medicines that have expired severe
goods and services on the sellers. action can be taken against them. Similarly, one
can protest and complain if someone sells a good
Q.45) Ans: a at more than the printed price on the packet.
Exp:
 Statement 1 is correct. Consumer International Q.48) Ans: d
patronise organisation working in the sector of Exp:
consumer interests protection and does not confer  All of the Above statements are correct: All the
membership to countries. In 1985 United Nations above have bearing upon the consumer protection
adopted the UN Guidelines for Consumer in India.
Protection. This was a tool for nations to adopt  Consumer International patronise organisation
measures to protect consumers and for consumer working in the sector of consumer interest’s
advocacy groups to press their governments to do protection and does not confer membership to
so. countries.
 Statement 2 is incorrect. At the international level,  In 1985 United Nations adopted the UN Guidelines
this has become the foundation for consumer for Consumer Protection.
movement. Today, Consumers International has  This was a tool for nations to adopt measures to
become an umbrella body to over 220-member protect consumers and for consumer advocacy
organisations from over 115 countries. groups to press their governments to do so.
 The right to information has been expanded to
Q.46) Ans: c cover various services including consumer
Exp: protection.
 Both are correct statements. Following the United
Nations guidelines on consumer protection, a Q.49) Ans: d
major step taken in 1986 by the Indian government Exp:
was the enactment of the Consumer Protection Act  All of the Above statements are correct: All the
1986, popularly known as COPRA. above rights are available to consumers in India.
 Under the provisions of the Act, producers need to Consumers have the right to be informed about the
strictly follow the required safety rules and particulars of goods and services that they
regulations. There are many goods and services purchase. Consumers can then complain and ask
that we purchase that require special attention to for compensation or replacement if the product
safety. proves to be defective in any manner. Other rights
have been incorporated as features of the
Q.47) Ans: c provisions of Consumer Protection Act 1986,
Exp: popularly known as COPRA.
 Both are correct statements. Consumers have the
right to be informed about the particulars of goods Q.50) Ans: d
and services that they purchase. Exp:
 Consumers can then complain and ask for  Statement 1 is correct. The consumer movement
compensation or replacement if the product in India has led to the formation of various
proves to be defective in any manner. organisations, locally known as consumer forums
 For example, if we buy a product and find it or consumer protection councils.
defective well within the expiry period, we can ask


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 Statement 2 is correct. They guide consumers on Exp:

how to file cases in the consumer court. On many  Option c is correct: Mixed economy simply means
occasions, they also represent individual the co-existence of private and public sectors. In
consumers in consumer courts. mixed economies, the government and the market
 Statement 3 is correct. These voluntary together answer the three questions of what to
organisations also receive financial support from produce, how to produce and how to distribute
the government for creating awareness among what is produced. In a mixed economy, the market
people. will provide whatever goods and services it can
produce well, and the government will provide
Q.51) Ans: b essential goods and services which the market fails
Exp: to do.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Under COPRA, a three-
tier quasi- judicial machinery at the district, state Q.55) Ans: d
and national levels was set up for redressal of Exp:
consumer disputes.  All the above are acting as inhibiting factors upon
 Statement 2 is correct: The district-level court consumer redressal process in India.
called District Forum deals with the cases  The consumer redressal process is becoming
involving claims upto Rs. 20 lakh, the state- level cumbersome, expensive and time consuming.
court called State Commission between Rs. 20  Many a time, consumers are required to engage
lakh and Rs. 1 crore and the national-level court - lawyers. These cases require time for filing and
National Commission - deals with cases involving attending the court proceedings etc.
claims exceeding Rs. 1 crore.  Statement 1 is correct: In most purchases cash
memos are not issued hence evidence is not easy
Q.52) Ans: c to gather.
Exp:  Statement 2 is correct: Moreover, most
 Statement 1 is correct: ISI, Agmark or Hall- mark, purchases in the market are small retail sales.
etc. logos and certification help consumers get  Statement 3 is correct: The existing laws also are
assured of quality while purchasing the goods and not very clear on the issue of compensation to
services. consumers injured by defective products.
 Statement 2 is correct: The organisations that
monitor and issue these certificates allow Q.56) Ans: a
producers to use their logos provided they follow Exp:
certain quality standards.  Statement 1 is correct: Under land ceiling policies,
the Government fixed the maximum size of land
Q.53) Ans: d which could be owned by an individual. Thus, land
Exp: ceiling policies adopted 'individual' as the basis to
Option d is correct: All the above-mentioned rights are redistribute the land.
provided under Consumer Protection Act, 1986.  Statement 2 is incorrect: Land reforms were most
Right to choose. successful in the states of Kerala and West Bengal
 Right to information. because these states had governments committed
 Right to redressal. to the policy of land to the tiller.
 Right to representation
 Right to safety Q.57) Ans: a
 Right to consumer education Exp:
 Statement 1 is correct: In the first seven plans,
Q.54) Ans: c trade was characterised by what is commonly


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called an inward-looking trade strategy. the Indian Constitution reflects India's mixed
Technically, this strategy is called import economic status.
substitution. This policy aimed at replacing or
substituting imports with domestic production. Q.60) Ans: d
 Statement 2 is correct: The government protected Exp:
the domestic industries from foreign competition. Option d is correct:
Protection from imports took two forms: tariffs  If women are engaged in paid work, their dignity in
and quotas. Tariffs are a tax on imported goods; the household and society increases.
they make imported goods more expensive and  However, it is also the case that if there is respect
discourage their use. Quotas specify the quantity for women there would be more sharing of
of goods which can be imported. housework and a greater acceptance of women
 Statement 3 is incorrect: The policy of protection working outside.
was based on the notion that industries of  A safe and secure environment may allow more
developing countries were not in a position to women to take up a variety of jobs or run a
compete against the goods produced by more business.
developed economies. It was assumed that if the
domestic industries are protected, they will learn Q.61) Ans: a
to compete in the course of time. Exp:
 Statement 3 is incorrect: There was no such
Q.58) Ans: d objective as to unjust the historical injustice.
Exp:  Equity in agriculture called for land reforms which
 All the above factors collectively determine the primarily refer to change in the ownership of land
quality of life. holdings.
 Statement 1 is correct: Money, or material things  Statement 1 is correct: Just a year after
that one can buy with it, is one factor on which our independence, steps were taken to abolish
life depends. intermediaries and to make the tillers the owners
 Statement 2, 3 and 4 are correct: But the quality of of land. The idea behind this move was that
our life also depends on non-material things such ownership of land would give incentives to the
as equal treatment, freedom, security, and respect tillers to invest in making improvements provided
of others, etc. mentioned above. sufficient capital was made available to them.
 Statement 2 is correct: Land ceiling was a policy to
Q.59) Ans: b promote equity in the agricultural sector.
Exp:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian leaders didn’t Q.62) Ans: d
choose the kind of socialism established in the Exp:
former Soviet Union where all the means of  Food security means availability, accessibility and
production, i.e., all the factories and farms in the affordability of food to all people at all times.
country, were owned by the government.  Statement 1 is correct: Availability of food means
 There was no private property. It is not possible in food production within the country, food imports
a democracy like India for the government to and the previous years stock stored in government
change the ownership pattern of land and other granaries.
proper- ties of its citizens in the way that it was  Statement 2 is correct: Accessibility means food is
done in the former Soviet Union. within the reach of every person.
 Statement 2 is correct: The ‘Industrial Policy  Statement 3 is correct: Affordability implies that
Resolution’ of 1948 and the Directive Principles of an individual has enough money to buy sufficient,


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safe and nutritious food to meet one's dietary Q.66) Ans: d

needs. Exp:
 All the above groups are food insecure. The
Q.63) Ans: d social composition along with the inability to buy
Exp: food also plays a role in food insecurity.
Option d is correct: Food is as essential for living as air  The SCs, STs and some sections of the OBCs (lower
is for breathing. But food security means something castes among them) who have either poor land-
more than getting two square meals. base or very low land productivity are prone to
Food security means availability, accessibility and food insecurity.
affordability of food to all people at all times. Thus,  The people affected by natural disasters, who
food security is ensured in a country only if have to migrate to other areas in search of work,
 enough food is available for all the persons. are also among the most food insecure people.
 all persons have the capacity to buy food of  A high incidence of malnutrition prevails among
acceptable quality and. women.
 there is no barrier on access to food.
Q.67)
Q.64) Ans: b Ans: b
Exp: Exp:
 Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is  Statement 1 is incorrect: The food insecure people
incorrect: A third dimension “accessibility” in food are not uniform throughout the country.
security was added by Amartya Sen in 1995 World  Statement 2 is correct: The food insecure people
Food Summit. are disproportionately large in some regions of the
 In the 1970s, food security was understood as the country, such as economically backward states
“availability at all times of adequate supply of basic with high incidence of poverty, tribal and remote
foodstuffs” (UN, 1975). areas, regions more prone to natural disasters etc.
 Amartya Sen added a new dimension to food  In fact, the states of Uttar Pradesh (eastern and
security and emphasised the “access” to food south-eastern parts), Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa,
through what he called ‘entitlements’ - a West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, parts of Madhya
combination of what one can produce, exchange in Pradesh and Maharashtra account for largest
the market along with state or other socially number of food insecure people in the country.
provided supplies.
Q.68) Ans: c
Q.65) Ans: c Exp:
Exp:  Statement 1 is correct: Chronic hunger is a
 Statement 1 is correct: The most devastating consequence of diets persistently inadequate in
famine that occurred in India was the Famine of terms of quantity and/or quality.
Bengal in 1943.  Statement 2 is correct: Poor people suffer from
 Statement 2 is correct: This famine killed thirty chronic hunger because of their very low income
lakh people in the province of Bengal. Nothing like and in turn inability to buy food even for survival.
the Bengal Famine has happened in India again. Seasonal hunger is related to cycles of food
 But it is disturbing to note that even today, there growing and harvesting.
are places like Kalahandi and Kashipur in Orissa  This is prevalent in rural areas because of the
where famine-like conditions have been existing seasonal nature of agricultural activities and in
for many years and where some starvation deaths urban areas because of casual labourers, e.g.,
have also been reported. there is less work for casual construction
labourers during the rainy season.


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 Statement 1 is incorrect: The introduction of

Q.69) Ans: b Rationing in India dates back to the 1940s against
Exp: the backdrop of the Bengal famine.
 Option b is correct: Indira Gandhi was the Prime  The rationing system was revived in the wake of
Minister of India when Green Revolution was an acute food shortage during the 1960s, prior to
started in India. the Green Revolution.
 Indira Gandhi, the then Prime Minister of India,  Statement 2 is correct: The important food
officially recorded the impressive strides of Green intervention programmes were introduced:
Revolution in agriculture by releasing a special Public Distribution System (PDS) for food grains
stamp entitled 'Wheat Revolution' in July 1968. (in existence earlier but strengthened thereafter);
Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)
Q.70) were introduced in 1975 amidst high poverty
Ans: b incidence.
Exp:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: The highest rate of Q.74) Ans: a
growth of wheat production was achieved in Uttar Exp:
Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh, which was 44.01  Option a is correct: The National Food Security
and 30.21 million tonnes. Act, 2013 provides for food and nutritional
 The total foodgrain production was 252.22 million security life at affordable prices and enables
tonnes in 2015-16 and it has changed to 275.68 people to live a life with dignity.
million tonnes in 2016-17.  Under this act, 75% of the rural population and
 Statement 2 is correct: The increase in foodgrains 50% of the urban population have been
as impact of green revolution was hugely categorised as eligible households for food
disproportionate. security.
Q.71) Ans: a
Exp:
 Option a is correct: The Minimum Support Price Q.75) Ans: a
(MSP) is declared by the government every year Exp:
before the sowing season to provide incentives to  Statement 1 is correct: AAY was launched in
farmers for raising the production of these crops. December 2000. Under this scheme one crore of
 The purchased foodgrains are stored in granaries. the poorest among the BPL families covered
under the targeted public distribution system
Q.72) were identified.
Ans: a  Statement 2 is incorrect: Poor families were
Exp: identified by the respective state rural
 Option a is correct: Buffer Stock is the stock of development departments through a Below
foodgrains, namely wheat and rice, procured by Poverty Line (BPL) survey.
the government through the Food Corporation of
India (FCI). Q.76) Ans: b
 The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the Exp:
farmers in states where there is surplus  Statement 1 is incorrect: In 2014, the stock of
production. wheat and rice with FCI was 65.3 million tonnes
which was much more than the minimum buffer
Q.73) Ans: b norms.
Exp:


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 However, these remained consistently higher than Exp:

the buffer norms. The situation improved with the  Option c is correct: The MSP is declared by the
distribution of foodgrains under different schemes government every year before the sowing season
launched by the government. to provide incentives to farmers for raising the
 There is a general consensus that high level of production of these crops.
buffer stocks of foodgrains is very undesirable and  The purchased foodgrains are stored in granaries.
can be wasteful.  This is done to distribute foodgrains in the deficit
 Statement 2 is correct: The storage of massive areas and among the poorer strata of the society
food stocks has been responsible for high carrying at a price lower than the market price also known
costs, in addition to wastage and deterioration in as Issue Price.
grain quality.
Q.81) Ans: b
Exp:
Q.77) Ans: d  Option b is correct: The minimum guaranteed
Exp: price at which the government offers to purchase
 Option d is correct: Amul is a success story of any quantity is known as Minimum Support Price.
cooperatives in milk and milk products from  The FCI purchases wheat and rice from the farmers
Gujarat. in states where there is surplus production.
 It has brought about the White Revolution in the  The farmers are paid a pre- announced price for
country. their crops. This price is called Minimum Support
 The cooperatives are playing an important role in Price (MSP).
food security in India especially in the southern and
western parts of the country. Q.82) Ans: c
 The cooperative societies set up shops to sell low Exp:
priced goods to poor people.  Statement 2 is correct: The MSP is declared by the
government every year before the sowing season
Q.78) Ans: a to provide incentives to farmers for raising the
Exp: production of these crops.
 Option a is correct: Wheat and Rice are mainly  Statement 1 is correct: Buffer Stock is the stock of
related to Green Revolution. foodgrains procured by the government through
 The Green Revolution, or Third Agricultural Food Corporation of India (FCI).
Revolution, is a set of research technology
transfer initiatives occurring between 1950 Q.83) Ans: a
and the late 1960s, that increased agricultural Exp:
production worldwide, particularly in the  Option a is correct: The government procures
developing world, beginning most markedly in grains, wheat and rice through the Food
the late 1960s. Corporation of India (FCI), which is also called
buffer stock.
Q.79) Ans: d  The purchased food grains are stored in granaries.
Exp:  This is done to distribute foodgrains in the deficit
Option d is correct: Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a areas and among the poorer strata of society at a
form of market intervention by the Government of price lower than the market price also known as
India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp Issue Price.
fall in farm prices.  This also helps resolve the problem of shortage of
food during adverse weather conditions or during
Q.80) Ans: c the periods of calamity.


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Q.88) Ans: a
Q.84) Ans: a Exp:
Exp:  Statement 1 is incorrect: At the eve of advent of
Option a is correct: There are three kinds of ration the British, though agriculture was the main source
cards: of livelihood for most people, yet, the country's
o Antyodaya cards for the poorest of the poor; economy was Characterised by various kinds of
o BPL cards for those below poverty line; and manufacturing activities.
o APL cards for all others.  Thus, there was no dearth of variety in Indian
manufacturing activities.
Q.85) Ans: a  Statement 2 is correct: India was indeed
Exp: particularly well-known for its handicraft industries
 Statement 1 is correct: WTO agreements cover in the fields of cotton and silk textiles, metal and
trade in goods as well as services to facilitate precious stone works, etc.
international trade.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: It also covers bilateral Q.89) Ans: d
and multilateral trading system and envisages Exp:
removal of tariff as well as non-tariff barriers and  All of the Above are correct: Dadabhai Naoroji,
providing greater market access to all member William Digby, Findlay Shirras, V.K.R.V. Rao, R.C.
countries. Desai made attempts to estimate India's national
income and per capita income.
Q.86) Ans: d  However, among all such studies, V.K.R.V. Rao's
Exp: study has been considered the most accurate
 Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct and 4 is incorrect: assessment and economically prudent.
More labour input is not an advantage. Rest of all
the above are benefits of Organic farming. Q.90) Ans: c
 Organic agriculture offers a means to substitute Exp:
costlier agricultural inputs (such as HYV seeds,  Statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct and 4 is incorrect:
chemical fertilisers, pesticides, etc.) with locally The fourth enumerated factor is an extreme and
produced organic inputs that are cheaper and testing aspirant's capacity to maintain balance.
thereby generate good return on investment.  The use of fertilisers was in vogue way back in
 Organic agriculture also generates income through British India but they were in such low scale that
exports as the demand for organically grown crops they did nothing to improve the agricultural
is on a rise. productivity.
 Rest of the factors were reasonably responsible for
Q.87) Ans: b the low yield and stagnation in agriculture sector of
Exp: India.
 Statement 1 is incorrect: Muslin was a type of  Particularly, under the zamindari system which
cotton textile which had its origin in Bengal, was implemented in the then Bengal Presidency
particularly, places in and around Dhaka- now the comprising parts of India's present-day eastern
capital city of Bangladesh. states, the profit accruing out of the agriculture
 Statement 2 is correct: The finest variety of muslin sector went to the zamindars instead of the
was called malmal. Sometimes, foreign travelers cultivators.
also used to refer to it as malmal shahi or malmal  Thus, denying the fruits among farmers took heavy
khas implying that it was worn by, or fit for, the toll on the agriculture sector as a whole.
royalty.


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Q.91) Ans: b  Statement 2 is correct: In 2011, literacy rates

Exp: varied from 94% in Kerala to 62% in Bihar.
 Option b is correct: When the existing ‘human
resource’ is further developed by becoming more Q.95) Ans: c
educated and healthier, we call it ‘human capital Exp:
formation’ that adds to the productive power of  Option c is correct: Educated unemployment is
the country just like ‘physical capital formation’. most common to see in urban spaces.
 Investment in human capital (through education,  Many youth with matriculation, graduation and
training, medical care) yields a return just like post-graduation degrees are not able to find job. A
investment in physical capital. study showed that unemployment of graduate and
post-graduate has increased faster than among
Q.92) Ans: c matriculates.
Exp:  A paradoxical manpower situation is witnessed as
 Economic activities have two parts - market surplus of manpower in certain categories coexist
activities and non-market activities. with shortage of manpower in others.
 Statement 1 is correct: Market activities involve  There is unemployment among technically
remuneration to anyone who performs i.e., activity qualified people on one hand, while there is a
performed for pay or profit. dearth of technical skills required for economic
 These include production of goods or services, growth on the other.
including government service.
 Non-market activities are the production for self- Q.96) Ans: d
consumption. Exp:
 Statement 2 is correct: These can be consumption  Statement 3 is correct: Poverty means hunger and
and processing of primary product and own lack of shelter.
account production of fixed assets.  It also is a situation in which parents are not able
to send their children to school or a situation
Q.93) Ans: b where sick people cannot afford treatment.
Exp:  Statement 2 is correct: Poverty also means lack of
 Statement 1 is incorrect: A majority of women clean water and sanitation facilities.
work in unorganised sector. Women are paid low  Statement 1 is correct: It also means lack of a
compared to men. Most women work where job regular job at a minimum decent level. Above all it
security is not there. Various activities relating to means living with a sense of helplessness.
legal protection is meagre. Employment in this
sector is Characterised by irregular and low Q.97) Ans: c
income. Exp:
 Statement 2 is correct:In this sector there is an  Option c is correct: One of the biggest challenges
absence of basic facilities like maternity leave, of independent India has been to bring millions of
childcare and other social security systems. its people out of abject poverty.
 Mahatma Gandhi always insisted that India would
Q.94) Ans: c be truly independent only when the poorest of its
Exp: people become free of human suffering.
 Statement 1 is correct: Literacy among males is
nearly 16.6% higher than females and it is about Q.98) Ans: d
16.1% higher in urban areas as compared to rural Exp:
areas.  All of the Above are correct: All the above
determine the vulnerability of a community.


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 Vulnerability to poverty is a measure, which

describes the greater probability of certain
communities (say, members of a backward caste)
or individuals (such as a widow or a physically
handicapped person) of becoming, or remaining,
poor in the coming years. Vulnerability is
determined by the options available to different
communities for finding an alternative living in
terms of assets, education, health and job
opportunities.
 Further, it is analysed on the basis of the greater
risks these groups face at the time of natural
disasters (earthquakes, tsunami), terrorism etc.
Q.99) Ans: b
Exp:
 Statement 1 is incorrect: A common method used
to measure poverty is based on the income or
consumption levels.
 Statement 2 is correct: A person is considered poor
if his or her income or consumption level falls
below a given “minimum level” necessary to fulfill
the basic needs.
 What is necessary to satisfy the basic needs is
different at different times and in different
countries.
Q.100) Ans: a
Exp:
 Statement 1 is correct: The figures have been
interchanged. The present formula for food
requirement while estimating the poverty line is
based on the desired calorie requirement.
 Food items, such as cereals, pulses, vegetable,
milk, oil, sugar, etc., together provide these
needed calories.
 The calorie needs vary depending on age, sex and
the type of work that a person does.
 Statement 2 is incorrect: The accepted average
calorie requirement in India is 2400 calories per
person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories per
person per day in urban areas.

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c) Making local advantages available to all across the a) 1 Only

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2. Land reform policies were most successful in the

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a) 1 Only 1. A third dimension “accessibility” in food security

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c) 1 and 2 both Which of the following correct expansion of acronym

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c) Both 1 and 2 This task was undertaken by few individuals. Who

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b) Only 2 d) All the above

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Q.1) Ans: a compares countries based on the educational

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Exp: than was possible earlier. Traditional seeds needed

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implement the ‘Right to Work’. Under MGNREGA

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Exp: one of the major reasons which prevents the poor

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two-fold. First, MNCs can provide money for

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 Statement 2 is correct. They guide consumers on Exp:

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safe and nutritious food to meet one's dietary Q.66) Ans: d

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 Statement 1 is incorrect: The introduction of

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