MOCK TEST PAPER 2

General Instructions: Same as Mock Test Paper 1

PHYSICS
1 1
Section A (a) 2mv02 (b) mv02 (c) mv02 (d) mv02
2 4
1. The ratio of the dimension of Planck’s constant and that 8. The displacement of a particle varies with time according
of the moment of inertia is the dimension of to the relation y = a sin wt + b cos wt
(a) time. (b) frequency. (a) The motion is oscillatory but not SHM
(c) angular momentum. (d) velocity. (b) The motion is SHM with amplitude a + b
2. In an unbiased p-n junction, holes diffuse from the (c) The motion is SHM with amplitude a2 + b2
p-region to n-region because:
(a) free electrons in the n-region attract them.
(d) The motion is SHM with amplitude a2 + b 2
(b) they move across the junction by the potential differ- 9. A beam of light of l = 600 nm from a distant source falls
ence.
on a single slit 1 mm wide and the resulting diffraction
(c) hole concentration in p-region is more as compared to
n-region. pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance
(d) All of the above. between first dark fringes on either side of the central
3. An N-P-N transistor conducts when: bright fringe is:
(a) both collector and emitter are negative with respect to (a) 1.2 cm (b) 1.2 mm (c) 2.4 cm (d) 2.4 mm
the base. 10. An ideal diatomic gas occupies a volume V1 at a pressure
(b) both collector and emitter are positive with respect to P1. The gas undergoes a process in which the pressure
the base. is proportional to the volume. At the end of process the
(c) collector is positive and emitter is negative with rms speed of the gas molecules has doubled from its
respect to the base.
initial value then the heat supplied to the gas in the given
(d) collector is positive and emitter is at same potential as
process is:
the base.
(a) 7 P1V1 (b) 8 P1V1 (c) 9 P1V1 (d) 10 P1V1
4. A block of mass 50 kg slides over a horizontal distance of
1 m. If the coefficient of friction between their surfaces is 11. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about
0.2, then work done against friction is: a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis
(a) 98 J (b) 72 J (c) 56 J (d) 34 J perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point
5. If n1, n2 and n3 are the fundamental fre­quencies of three on its rim will be:
segments into which a string is divided, then the original (a) 5I (b) 3I (c) 6I (d) 4I
funda­mental frequency n of the string is given by: 12. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and
(a)
1 1
 
1

1
(b)
1
+
1
+
1 moving with an acceleration 4 m/s2 in the third second is:
n n1 n2 n3 n1 n2 n3 3
(a) 6 m (b) 4 m (c) 10 m (d) 19 m
(c) n  n1  n2  n3 (d) n = n1 + n2 + n3 3 3
13. The two nearest harmonics of a tube closed at one end
6. In Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are 2 mm apart
and open at other end are 220 Hz and 260 Hz. What is the
and are illuminated by photons of two wavelengths l1
fundamental frequency of the system?
= 12000 Å and l2 = 10000 Å. At what minimum distance
(a) 20 Hz (b) 30 Hz (c) 40 Hz (d) 10 Hz
from the common central bright fringe on the screen, 2 m
from the slit will a bright fringe from one interference 14. The de Broglie wavelength of a neutron of mass m in
pattern coincide with a bright fringe from the other ? thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature
(a) 3 mm (b) 8 mm (c) 6 mm (d) 4 mm T (Kelvin) is:
(a) h (b) 2h (c) 2h (d) h
7. A mass m moves in a circle on a smooth horizontal plane
with velocity v0 at a radius R0. The mass is attached to a 3mkT 3mkT mkT mkT
string which passes through a smooth hole in the plane 15. An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30° with an
as shown. The tension in the string is increased gradually electric field of intensity 2.0 × 105 N/C. It experiences a
and finally m moves in a circle of radius R0/2. The final torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the
value of the kinetic energy is: dipole length is 2 cm, is:
(a) 8 mC (b) 2 mC (c) 5 mC (d) 7 mC
0 16. Three liquids of densities r1, r2 and r3 (with r1 > r2 >
R0
m r3) having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the
same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of
contact q1, q2 and q3 obey:
(a) p/2 > q1 > q2 > q3 ≥ 0 (b) 0 ≤ q1 < q2 < q3 < p/2
(c) q1 = q2 = q3 = p (d) p > q1 > q2 > q3 > p/2
26
17. A particle moves for 20 seconds with velocity 3 m/s and 27. A gas is compressed at a constant pressure of 50 Nm–2
then with velocity 4 m/s for another 20 seconds and finally from a volume of 10 m3 to a volume of 4 m3. Energy of 100
moves with velocity 5 m/s for next 20 seconds. What is the J is then added to the gas by heating. Its internal energy
average velocity of the particle: is:
(a) 3 m/s (b) 4 m/s (c) 5 m/s (d) Zero (a) increased by 400 J (b) increased by 200 J
18. A mass m is suspended from a string of length l and force (c) increased by 100 J (d) decreased by 200 J
constant k. The frequency of vibration of the mass is f1. 28. A ball of mass m approaches a wall of mass M (>> m)
The spring is cut into two equal parts and the same mass
with speed 4 m/s along the normal to the wall. The speed
is suspended from one of the parts. The new frequency
of wall is 1 m/s towards the ball. The speed of the ball
of vibration of mass is f2. Which of the following relation
between the frequencies is correct. after an elastic collision with the wall is:
(a) 5 m/s away from the wall (b) 9 m/s away from the wall
(a) f1 = 2 f2 (b) f1 = f2
(c) 3 m/s away from the wall (d) 6 m/s away from the wall
(c) f1 = 2f2 (d) f2 = 2 f1
29. What is the effect of increasing the intensity of the
19. Light travels through a glass plate of thickness t and light that falls on the emitter in a photoelectric effect
having refractive index n. If c is the velocity of light in apparatus?
vacuum, the time taken by the light to travel this thickness (a) Cut-off frequency decreases
of glass is: (b) Stopping potential decreases
(a) t/nc (b) tnc (c) nt/c (d) tc/n (c) Time delay for emission of photoelectron decreases
20. Which of the following figures represent the variation (d) Saturation photocurrent increases
of particle momentum and the associated de Broglie 30. This question has Statement I and Statement II. Of the
wavelength? four choices given after the statement, choose the one
that best describes the two statements.
(a) p (b) p Statement I: Specific heat capacity is the cause of
formation of land and sea breeze.
Statement II: The specific heat of water is more than land.
 
(a) Statement I is true; Statement II is true and Statement
II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) p (d) p (b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, but Statement
II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true; Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false; Statement II is true.
 
31. A ray of light from a liquid (m = 3) is incident on a
21. The potential gradient along the length of a uniform wire
is 10 V/m. B and C are the two points at 30 cm and 60 system of two right angled prisms of refractive indices 3
cm on a meter scale fitted along the wire. The potential and 2 as shown. The ray suffers zero deviation when
difference between B and C will be: emerges into air from CD. The angle of incidence i is:
(a) 3 V (b) 0.4 V (c) 7 V (d) 4 V A D
Liquid i
22. Magnetic field intensity at the centre of a coil of 50 turns, m= 2 air
radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of 2 A is :
(a) 0.5 × 10−5 T (b) 1.26 × 10−4 T
−5 m= 3
(c) 3 × 10 T (d) 4 × 10−5 T B
C
23. The e.m.f E = 4 cos 1000t volts is applied to an LR circuit
containing inductance 3 mH and resistance 4 W connected (a) 45° (b) 35° (c) 20° (d) 10°
in series. The amplitude of current is: 32. This question has Statement I and Statement II. Of the
4 four choices given after the statement, choose the one
(a) 4 7 A (b) 1.0 A (c) A (d) 0.8 A that best describes the two statements.
7
Statement I: When a machine-gun fires n bullets per second
24. The displacement of a particle as a function of time t is
with kinetic energy K, then the power of the machine-gun
given by the expression S = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4, where S
is p = nK.
is in metre and t in second. Then the magnitude of the
Statement II: Power is the rate at which work is done.
velocity of the particle, when its acceleration is zero is:
(a) Statement I is true, Statement II is true and Statement
(a) 4 ms–1 (b) 5 ms–1 (c) 3 ms–1 (d) 9 ms–1
II is the correct explanation of Statement I
25. A particle of mass m is moving with a uniform velocity v1. (b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true, but Statement
It is given an impulse such that its velocity becomes v2. II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
The impulse is equal to: (c) Statement I is true, Statement II is false
(a) m[|v2| – |v1|] (b) 1  v22  v12  (d) Statement I is false, Statement II is true
2 
33. When unpolarized light beam is incident from air onto
(c) m[v2 + v1] (d) m[v2 – v1]
glass (n = 1.5) at polarising angle:
26. The wavelength of light diminishes m times (m=1.33 for (a) Reflected light is polarized 100 percent
water) in a medium. From inside water a diver looks at an (b) Reflected & refracted beams are partially polarized
object whose natural colour is green. He sees the object as: (c) Reflected & refracted beams are completely polarized
(a) Green (b) Blue (c) Yellow (d) Red
(d) Refracted light is polarized 100 percent
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 27
34. If a small amount of antimony is added to germanium 41. At what angle (q) with the horizontal should a body be
crystal: projected so that its horizontal range equals the maximum
(a) it becomes a p-type semiconductor height it attains?
(b) the antimony become an acceptor atom (a) q = tan–1 (1) (b) q = tan–1 (2)
(c) q = tan–1 (3) (d) q = tan–1 (4)
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the
42. A steel wire of cross sectional area 3 × 10–6 m2 can
semiconductor
withstand a maximum strain of 10–3. Youngs modulus of
(d) its resistance is increased steel is 2 × 1011 N/m2. The maximum mass the wire can
35. A piece of copper and silicon are cooled from T1 to T2. The hold is (g = 10 m/s2
resistance of (a) 40 kg (b) 60 kg (c) 80 kg (d) 100 kg
(a) Copper increases and silicon decreases 43. Two spherical soap bubbles formed in vaccum have radius
of 3.0 mm and 4.0 mm. They coalesce to form a single
(b) Copper decreases and silicon increases
spherical bubble. If the temperature remains unchanged
(c) Both will increase then the radius of new bubble formed is?
(d) Both will decrease (a) 5.0 mm (b) 7.0 mm (c) 6.0 mm (d) 12.0 mm
44. At what temperature would the root mean square speed
Section B of a gas molecule have twice its value at 100°C ?
(a) 200°C (b) 473°C (c) 927°C (d) 1219°C
36. When a long spring is stretched by 2 cm, its potential
45. The amplitude of the electric field of a plane EM wave in
energy is U. If the spring is stretched by 10 cm, the
air is 9.0 × 10–4 Vm–1. The amplitude of the magnetic field
potential energy stored in it will be:
will be
(a) 25 U (b) U/5 (a) 2 × 10–8 T (b) 2 × 10–10 T
(c) 5 U (d) 10 U (c) 3 × 10–12 T (d) 3 × 104 T
37. The electric and the magnetic field, associated with 46. The relative permeability of a substance X is slightly
an e.m. wave, propagating along the +z-axis, can be greater than unity while that of substance Y is slightly less
than unity.
represented by:
(a) X is ferromagnetic and Y is paramagnetic
(a) E = Eoî, B = Bo ĵ (b) E = Eo k̂, B = Boî (b) X is diamagnetic and Y is paramagnetic
(c) E = Eo ĵ , B = Boî (d) E = Eo ĵ , B = Bo k̂ (c) X is paramagnetic and Y is diamagnetic
(d) X is ferromagnetic and Y is diamagnetic
38. A railway engine of mass 106 kg, moving towards north
47. A cylindrical tube open at both ends has a fundamental
at 10 m/s collides elastically with a trolley of mass 50 kg at
frequency n. If it is half immersed in water its fundamental
rest on the straight horizontal track. After collision frequency becomes
(a) the engine moves with a speed less than 10 m/s n n
(a) (b) 2n (c) (d) n
towards north 2 4
(b) the trolley moves towards the North at a speed of 10 48. Three capacitors connected in series have an effective
m/s capacitance of 6 mF. If one of the capacitors is removed
(c) the trolley gets locked to the engine the effective capacitance is 10 mF. The capacitance of the
(d) the trolley moves towards the North at a speed of 20 capacitor that is removed is
(a) 5 mF (b) 10 mF (c) 15 mF (d) 20 mF
m/s
49. The orbital speed of the electron in the ground state of
39. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of hydrogen atom is v. What will be its orbital speed when it
Earth, are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of satellite absorbs a photon of energy 10.2 eV?
A is 3V, then the speed of satellite B will be: v v
(a) 3v (b) (c) 2v (d)
(a) 3V/4 (b) 6V (c) 12V (d) 3V/2 3 2
40. The resistance of a wire is ‘R’ ohm. If it is melted and 50. The primary of a transformer has 400 turns, while the
stretched to ’n’ times its original length, its new resistance secondary has 2000 turns. If the power output from the
will be: secondary at 1000 V is 12 kW, what is primary voltage?
(a) 600 V (b) 200 V (c) 800 V (d) 900 V
(a) R/n (b) n2R (c) R/n2 (d) nR

CHEMISTRY
Section A 53. Which of the following statements is not true for
halogens?
51. When 22.4 L of H2 (g) is mixed with 11.2 L of Cl2(g), each (a) All halogens show positive oxidation states.
at STP, the moles of HCl(g) formed is equal to: (b) All are oxidizing agents.
(a) 1 mole of HCl(g) (b) 2 moles of HCl(g)
(c) All form monobasic oxyacids.
(c) 0.5 mole of HCl(g) (d) 1.5 moles of HCl(g)
(d) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy.
52. Ionic mobility of which of the following alkali metal ions
is lowest when aqueous solution of their salts are put 54. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for which n = 3
and l = 1 ?
under an electric field?
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 14
(a) Na (b) K (c) Rb (d) Li
28
55. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution 68. An aqueous solution is 1.00 molal in KI. Which change
to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is will cause the vapour pressure of the solution to increase?
converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than (a) Addition of NaCl (b) Addition of Na2SO4
four carbon atoms. (A) is: (c) Addition of 1.00 molal KI (d) Addition of water
(a) CH3–CH3 (b) CH2=CH2 (c) CHºCH (d) CH4 69. Cobalt (III) chloride forms several octahedral complexes
56. Which of the following pairs of compounds is isoelectronic with ammonia. Which of the following will not give test
and isostructural? for chloride ions with silver nitrate at 25°C?
(a) BeCl2, XeF2 (b) TeI2, XeF2 (a) CoCl3.3NH3 (b) CoCl3.4NH3
(c) IBr2–, XeF2 (d) IF3, XeF2 (c) CoCl3.5NH3 (d) CoCl3.6NH3
57. Hot concentrated, sulphuric acid is a moderately strong 70. Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the
following reagent involves nucleophilic addition
oxidizing agent. Which of the following reactions do not
followed by the elimination of water. The reagents is:
show oxidizing behaviour?
(a) a Grignard reagent.
(a) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O
(b) hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution.
(b) S + 2H2SO4 → 3SO2 + 2H2O (c) hydrocyanic acid.
(c) C + 2H2SO4 → CO2 + 2SO2 + 2H2O (d) sodium hydrogen sulphite.
(d) CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF
71. The correct order of increasing reactivity of C—X bond
58. The radical CH2 is aromatic because it has: towards nucleophile in the following compounds is:
X X
(a) 6p orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons.
NO2
(b) 7p orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons.
(c) 7p orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons. (CH3)3C—X (CH3) 2CH—X
(d) 6p orbitals and 7 unpaired electrons.
59. Oxidation number of Xe in XeOF2 ion is NO2
(a) Zero (b) +2 (c) +4 (d) +3 I II III IV
60. The solubility of AgCl(s) with solubility product 1.6 ×
10–10 in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be: (a) I < II < IV < III (b) II < III < I < IV
(a) 1.26 × 10–5 M (b) 1.6 × 10–9 M (c) IV < III < I < II (d) III < II < I < IV
(c) 1.6 × 10–11 M (d) Zero 72. In which of the following molecules, all atoms are
61. The structure of isobutyl group in an organic compound coplanar?
is:
H 3C

(a) CH  CH 2 

H3C (a) (b)
(b) CH3CH2CH2CH3
CH 3
|
(c) CH3CH2CH2CH2 (d) CH3  C  CH3 CN
|
(c) C C (d)
CH 3
CH3 CN
62. In a zero order reaction for every 10°C rise of temperature,
the rate is doubled. If the temperature is increased from 73. On polymerisation Acetaldehyde gives...
10°C to 100°C, the rate of the reaction will become: (a) Paraldehyde (b) Meta aldehydes
(a) 256 times (b) 512 times (c) 64 times (d) 128 times (c) Trioxane (d) Tetraoxane
63. Consider the nitration of benzene using mixed conc. 74. Which of the following oxide is amphoteric?
H2SO4 and HNO3. If a large amount of KHSO4 is added (a) SnO2 (b) CaO (c) SiO2 (d) CO2
to the mixture, the rate of nitration will be: 75. The value of ∆H for the reaction
(a) Unchanged (b) Doubled
X2(g) + 4Y2(g)  2XY4(g)
(c) Faster (d) Slower
is less than zero. Formation of XY4(g) will be favoured at:
64. The basic structural unit of silicates:
(a) Low pressure and low temperature.
(a) SiO– (b) SiO44– (c) SiO32– (d) SiO42–
(b) High temperature and low pressure.
65. When initial concentration of a reaction is doubled in a
(c) High pressure and low temperature.
reaction, its half-life period is not affected. The order of
the reaction is: (d) High temperature and high pressure.
(a) zero (b) second (c) first 76. 0.5 molal aqueous solution of a weak acid (HX) is 20%
(d) more than zero but less than first ionized. If kf for water is 1.86 K kg mol–1, the lowering in
66. Total number of structural isomers of alcohols having freezing point of the solution is:
molecular formula C4H10O are... (a) –1.12 K (b) 0.56 K
4 and 10 are subscripts (c) 1.12 K (d) –0.56 K
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 7 (d) 2 77. Given,
67. A hydrogen gas electrode is made by dipping platinum (i) Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu, E° = 0.337 V
wire in a solution of HCl of pH = 10 and by passing (ii) Cu+ → Cu2++ 2e–, E° = 0.153 V
hydrogen gas around the platinum wire at 1 atm pressure. Electrode potential, E° for the reaction,
The oxidation potential of electrode would be: Cu+ + e– → Cu, will be:
(a) 0.059 V (b) 0.591 V (c) 0.118 V (d) 1.18 V (a) 0.52 V (b) 0.90 V (c) 0.30 V (d) 0.36 V
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 29
78. Predict the products in the given reaction: 84. Which of the following complex ions is not expected to
CHO absorb visible light?
(a) [Ni(CN)4]2– (b) [Cr(NH3)6]3+
2+
50% KOH (c) [Fe(H2O)6] (d) [Ni(H2O)6]2+
85. Among the following which is the strongest oxidizing
Cl agent?
(a) Br2 (b) I2 (c) Cl2 (d) F2
(a) Section B
86. Effective atomic number (EAN) for Mn in complex
[Mn2(CO)10]
(a) 35 (b) 34 (c) 37 (d) 36
(b) 87. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) H3PO4 does not contain reducing hydrogen
(b) White phosphorus is poisonous in nature
(c) SO2 gives reaction with NaOH similar to CO2
(d) All of these
(c) 88. Incorrect statement regarding PCl3F2 is
(a) Axial bond is shorter than equatorial bond
(b) Molecule is non polar
(c) F placed at axial bond
(d) Molecule is polar
(d) 89. Which is conjugate acid of water?
(a) H3O+ (b) OH–
(c) H2O (d) None of these
79. Which one of the following orders is not in accordance 90. The enthalpy for the reaction
with the property stated against it?
Fe2O3(s) + 3H2(g) → 2Fe(s) + 3H2O(l) at constant
(a) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (Oxidizing power)
temperature is:
(b) HI > HBr > HCl > HF (Acidic property in water)
(a) ∆ H = ∆U (b) ∆ H = ∆ U + RT
(c) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (Electronegativity)
(c) ∆ H = ∆ U + 3RT
(d) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (Bond dissociation energy)
(d) ∆ H = ∆ U – 3RT
80. What is the dominant intermolecular force on bond that
91. Which of the following statement(s) is incorrect?
must be overcome in converting liquid CH3OH to gas?
(a) When phenol vapour is passed over Zn dust, benzene
(a) Hydrogen bonding
is produced.
(b) Dipole-Dipole interaction
(b) The phenolic —OH group is ortho and para directing.
(c) Covalent bonds
(c) o-nitrophenol has more boiling point than p-nitrophenol.
(d) London or dispersion forces
(d) Phenol is more acidic than o-cresol.
81. For the four successive transition elements (Cr, Mn, Fe
92. Which of the following statement(s) is correct?
and Co), the stability of +2 oxidation state will be there in
(a) IE, of oxygen is more than that of nitrogen but IE2 of N
which of the following order ?
is higher than that of O.
[Atomic number Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe =26, Co = 27] (b) The electron gain enthalpy of N is almost zero but of P
(a) Fe > Mn > Co > Cr (b) Co > Mn > Fe > Cr is –74.3 kJ mol–1.
(c) Cr > Mn > Co > Fe (d) Mn > Fe > Cr > Co (c) Isoelectronic ions belong to the same period.
82. Which one of the following does not exhibit the (d) The covalent radius of iodine is more than its Van der
phenomenon of mutarotation? Waal radius.
(a) (+) Sucrose (b) (+) Lactose 93. 1g-atom of nitrogen represents
(c) (+) Maltose (d) (–) Fructose (1) 14 g nitrogen
83. In the following reaction, the product (A) is: (2) 11.4 L of N2 at STP
+
– (3) 22.4 L of N2 at STP
N ≡≡NCl NH2
(4) 6.023 × 1023 molecules of N2
H+ 94. Match List I with List II.
+ [A]
Yellow dye List I List II
(a) (a) Ni(CO)4 (i) high spin complex
(b) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (ii) 1.73 BM
(c) 3– (iii) Tetrahedral complex
[CoF6]
(b)
(d) [Mn(CN)6]4– (iv) low spin complex
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(c) (a) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(b) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(c) (a) - (ii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(d)
(d) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
30
95. Given below are two statements: (d) Resorcinol (iv) HO OH
Statement I: Phenol is less acidic than 4-methylphenol.
Statement II: The presence of an electron releasing group
in phenol makes it less acidic.
(a) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(b) Both statement I and statement II are true. (a) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(c) Both statement I and statement II are false. (b) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii), (d) - (iv)
(d) Statement I is correct but statement II is false. (c) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)
96. The species having pyramidal shape is: (d) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(a) SO3 (b) BrF3 (c) SiO32– (d) OSF2 98 Which of the following coordination complexes shows
97 Match List I with List II facial and meridional geometrical isomers?
List I List II (a) [Co(NH3)6] (b) [CoCl2(NH3)4]
(c) [Co(NH3)3Cl3] (d)[CO(en)3]3+
(a) Catechol (i) OH 99 A system absorbs 10 kJ of heat at constant volume and its
temperature rises from 270°C to 370°C. The value of ∆U is:
(a) 100 kJ (b) 10 kJ (c) 0 kJ (d) 1 kJ
100. Calculate the entropy change for the reaction, N2(g) +
CH3
3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) from the data given below:
(b) Cresol (ii) OCH3 Species NH3(g) N2(g) H2(g)
S° (J/K/mol) 192.3 191.5 130.6
(a) –37.65 J/K/mol (b) –198.7 J/K/mol
(c) –31.25 J/K/mol (d) +31.25 J/K/mol
(c) Anisole (iii) OH
OH

BOTANY
Section A (a) Unsaturated, 16 (b) Saturated, 18
(c) Unsaturated, 18 (d) Saturated, 16
101. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi? 107. What will be the amount of DNA in meiosis-II products if
(a) They are both unicellular and multicellular. the meiocyte contains 40 pg DNA in G1-phase?
(b) They are eukaryotic. (a) 20 pg (b) 40 pg (c) 10 pg (d) 30 pg
(c) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall. 108. Select the incorrect statement with respect to isobrachial
(d) They are heterotrophic. chromosome.
102. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross for seed shape and seed (a) They are metacentric chromosome.
colour the F2 progeny produced with genotype RrYy : (b) The centromere is present at the centre.
rrYy : Rryy : rryy are respectively. (c) During anaphase, these chromosome are divided into
(a) 4 : 2 : 2 : 1 (b) 2 : 4 : 2 : 1 (c) 2 : 2 : 4 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4 two equal arms.
103. Properties of starch useful for making it storage material (d) They appear L-shaped during anaphase.
are: 109. The basic and lowest category in taxonomic hierarchy is:
(i) Easily translocated (a) Kingdom (b) Species (c) Genus (d) Order
(ii) Chemically non-reactive 110. Ploidy level of endosperm in a typical angiosperm is:
(iii) Easily digestible (a) n (b) 2n (c) 3n (d) 4n
(iv) Osmotically inactive 111. Which of the given steps is first step of glycolysis and
catalysed by hexokinase?
(v) Synthesized during photosynthesis
(a) Glucose → Glucose - 6 - phosphate
(a) (i) and (v) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(b) Glucose - 6 - phosphate → Fructose - 6 - phosphate
(c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (v)
(c) Fructose - 6 - phosphate → Fructose - 1, 6 - bisphosphate
104. Cells of which of the following regions of root, undergo (d) 2 – phosphoglycerate → phosphoenolpyruvate
rapid enlargement and are responsible for the growth of
112. Ethidium bromide gives _____ colour in ultraviolet
root in length?
radiations.
(a) Maturation region (b) Elongation region
(c) Root cap (d) Meristematic region Choose the option that fills the blank correctly.
(a) Bright orange (b) Purple
105. The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close
(c) Green (d) Violet
to one end are:
(a) Sub-metacentric (b) Metacentric 113. The causal agent of ‘mad cow’ disease:
(c) Acrocentric (d) Telocentric (a) Contains DNA as genetic material.
(b) Are abnormally folded proteins.
106. Palmitic acid is a/an ___ fatty acid with ___ carbon atoms.
(c) Are larger than viruses.
The option that fills the blanks correctly respectively is: (d) Do not cause any disease in humans.
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 31
114. How many hot spots of biodiversity in India have been 126. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought
identified? about by the agency of:
(a) 25 (b) 3 (c) 43 (d) 17 (a) Bats (b) Water
115. Codon which has dual function is (c) Insects or winds (d) Birds
(a) AUG (b) GAG (c) UAG (d) AGA 127. Protonema is:
116. Which one of the following statements is wrong? (a) Haploid and is found in mosses
(a) Glycine is a sulphur containing amino acid. (b) Diploid and is found in liverworts
(b) Sucrose is a disaccharide. (c) Diploid and is found in mosses
(c) Cellulose is a polysaccharide. (d) Haploid and is found in pteridophytes
(d) Uracil is a pyrimidine. 128. Given below is a sample of a portion of DNA strand
117. What is wrong about mycoplasma? giving the base sequence on the opposite strands?
(a) They are called PPLO. 5′ GAATTC 3′
(b) They are pleomorphic. 3′ CTTAAG 5′
(c) They are sensitive to penicillin. What is so special shown in it?
(d) They produce diseases in plants. (a) Replication completed
118. Which of the following statements is not an adaptation of (b) Deletion mutation
the desert plants? (c) Start codon at the 5′ end
(a) Desert plants have a thick cuticle on their leaf sur- (d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
faces. 129. Nuclear membrane is absent:
(b) Desert plants have their stomata arranged in sunken (a) Volvox (b) Nostoc (c) Penicillium (d) Agaricus
pits. 130. During secondary treatment of sewage the anaerobic
(c) Desert plants have a special photosynthetic pathway methanogenic bacteria in the anaerobic sludge digesters,
called CAM. digest the:
(d) Desert plants have soft stems and large leaves. (a) Organic matter only
119. Select the wrong statement from the following: (b) Organic matter and aerobic bacteria only
(a) The chloroplasts are generally much larger than mito- (c) Inorganic matter and aerobic bacteria
chondria. (d) Organic matter, aerobic bacteria, fungi and other aero-
(b) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain an inner bic microbes
and an outer membrane. 131. Mannitol is stored food in:
(c) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal (a) Porphyra (b) Fucus (c) Gracilaria (d) Chara
compartment the thylakoid space bounded by the
132. Among the situation given below, choose the one that
thylakoid membrane.
prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy:
(d) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contains DNA.
(a) Monoecious plants bearing unisexual flowers.
120. NADP reductase enzyme is located on ___A______ (b) Dioecious plants bearing only male or female flower.
Breakdown of proton gradient leads to release of (c) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers.
_____B____ (d) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers.
(a) A: Stroma lamellae, B: energy
133. The enzyme that hydrolyses phosphodiester bonds
(b) A: Grana lamellae, B: electrons
within a polynucleotide chain is:
(c) A: Grana lamellae, B: energy
(a) Endonuclease (b) Exonuclease
(d) A: Stroma lamellae, B: electrons
(c) Carboxypeptidase (d) Aminopeptidase
121. Which of the following group exhibits more species
134. Frustule is the name of cell wall present in______:
diversity?
(a) Slime molds (b) Cyanobacteria
(a) Gymnosperms (b) Algae
(c) Dinoflagellates (d) Diatoms
(c) Bryophytes (d) Fungi
135. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental
122. The proteins for DNA packaging in prokaryotes are:
conditions because of:
(a) Histones (b) Tubulins
(a) Broad hardy leaves (b) Superficial stomata
(c) Actin (d) Polyamines
(c) Thick cuticle (d) Presence of vessels
123. Bacillus thuringiensis forms protein crystals which contain
insecticidal protein. This protein: Section B
(a) Binds with epithelial cells of midgut of the insect pest
136. India has deserts, rainforests, mangroves, coral reefs,
ultimately killing it.
wetlands, estuaries and alpine meadows. What kind of
(b) Is coded by several genes including the gene cry.
biodiversity is depicted in this statement?
(c) Is activated by acid pH of the foregut of the insect
(a) Geographic diversity (b) Species diversity
pest.
(c) Ecological diversity (d) Genetic diversity
(d) Does not kill the carrier bacterium, which is itself
resistance to its toxin. 137. During chemiosmosis in mitochondria, all protons are
channelled from:
124. A competitive inhibitor of succinic dehy­drogenase is:
(a) inner chamber of mitochondria to outer chamber by
(a) Oxalic acid (b) Sulphanilamide
F0 part of oxysome.
(c) Malonate (d) a-ketoglutarate
(b) outer chamber of mitochondria to inner chamber by
125. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to F0 part of oxysome.
form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. (c) outer chamber of mitochondria to inner chamber by
Such strings of ribosomes are termed as: complex IV.
(a) Plastidome (b) Polyhedral bodies (d) inner chamber of mitochondria to outer chamber by
(c) Polysome (d) Nucleosome complex V.
32
138. Lenticels are involved in: (a) Polymerase (b) Phosphorylase
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Transpiration (c) Recombinase (d) Transferase
(c) Gaseous exchange (d) Food transport 147. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid
139. Select the incorrect statement regarding humus. nitrogen having a temperature of
(a) Essential for nutritional cycling. (a) –196°C (b) –80°C (c) –120°C (d) –160°C
(b) Is light coloured amorphous substance. 148 Read the following statements and select the correct
(c) Is slightly acidic, colloidal and acts as reservoir of option.
nutrients.
(d) Is highly resistant to microbial action. Statement A: In Cycas, both male strobilus and
megasporophylls present on different plants.
140. A female is mentally retarded with small round head,
furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad Statement B: In Cycas, both male strobilus and
palm with characteristic palm crease. What will be the megasporophylls present on the same plants.
karyotype analysis of such an individual? (a) Only statement A is incorrect
(a) Trisomy of chromosome 21 (b) Only statement B is incorrect
(b) 47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes (c) Both statements A and B are correct.
(c) 45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes (d) Both statements A and B are incorrect.
(d) 47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes 149 Match the following columns and select the correct
141. A couple has a child with Down syndrome (Trisomy 21). option.
What is the most likely cause of this genetic disorder?
(a) Autosomal recessive inheritance Column I Column II
(b) Autosomal dominant inheritance A. Bacteriophage f × 174 1. 4.6 × 106 bp
(c) Chromosomal nondisjunction during gamete forma-
tion B. Bacteriophage lambda 2. 48502 bp
(d) X-linked recessive inheritance
C. Escherichia coli 3. 5386 nucleotides
142. Stele is constituted by all given tissues, except:
(a) Vascular bundles (b) Endodermis D. Human DNA 4. 3.3 × 109 bp (haploid
(c) Pericycle (d) Medulla content)
143. Insectivorous plants occupy the trophic level:
(a) T1 (b) T4 A B C D
(c) T1 and T3 simultaneously (d) T2 only (a) 3 1 4 2
144. Which step of Krebs cycle operates substrate level (b) 3 2 1 4
phosphorylation? (c) 4 3 1 2
(a) a-ketoglutarate → succinyl CoA (d) 3 4 2 1
(b) Succinyl CoA → succinate 150 If scientists succeed in introducing apo-mictic gene into
(c) Succinate → fumarate hybrid varieties of crops which of the following can be
(d) Fumarate → malate expected?
145. Which type of spatial patterns is noticed in ecosystem (a) There will be segregation of the desired characters
structure? only in the progeny.
(a) Zonation (b) Stratification (b) Polyembryony will be seen and each seed will pro-
(c) Zonation and stratification duce many plantlets.
(d) Zonation, stratification and distribution (c) Seeds of hybrid plants will show longer dormancy.
146. Which enzyme catalyses the crossing over and exchange (d) Farmers can keep on using the seeds produced by the
of genetic material between homologous chromosomes hybrids to raise new crop year after year.
in meiosis?

ZOOLOGY
Section A 154. Which of the following does not favour the formation of
large quantities of dilute urine?
151. Which one of the following pairs of animals comprises (a) Alcohol (b) Caffeine (c) Renin
jawless fishes ? (d) Atrial-Natriuretic factor
(a) Mackerals and Rohu. (b) Lampreys and hagfishes 155. Which one of the following diseases cannot be cured
(c) Guppies and hagfishes (d) Lampreys and eels. using antibiotics?
152. Saddle joint is present between: (a) Pneumonia (b) Cholera
(a) Humerus and pectoral girdle (c) Common cold (d) Typhoid
(b) Atlas and axis 156. The terga, sterna and pleura of cockroach body are joined
(c) Between carpal and metacarpal by:
(d) Between the carpals (a) Cartilage (b) Cementing glue
153. Which animals out of the following are radially (c) Muscular Tissue (d) Arthrodial membrane
symmetrical? 157. The main function of mammalian corpus luteum is to
(a) Cockroach and earthworm produce:
(b) Starfish and Hydra (a) Estrogen only
(c) Taenia and Ascaris (b) Progesterone
(d) Sepia and Pila (c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(d) Relaxin only
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2
158. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites
for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle
contraction.
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium
(c) Sodium (d) Potassium
159. Vital capacity of lungs is correctly represented:
(a) TV + IRV + ERV (b) TV + IRV + RV
(c) TV + ERV (d) IRV + ERV
160. Heart attack is also known as:
(a) Heart block (b) Myocardial infarction
(c) Cardiac arrest (d) Heart failure
161. The body having meshwork of cells, internal cavities
lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect
development are the characteristics of phylum:
(a) Coelenterata (b) Porifera
(c) Mollusca (d) Protozoa
162. A foetal sex determination test based on the chromosomal
pattern in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing
embryo, called amniocentesis, cannot determine
(a) Cleft palate (b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Haemophilia (d) Sickle-cell anaemia
163. In clinical diagnosis a girl child was identified as sufferer
of a genetic disorder, but none of her parents are suffering
from this disease. The disease is most probably
(a) Colour blindness (b) Haemophilia
(c) Myotonic dystrophy (d) Thalassemia
164. Select the incorrect match regarding hormones and their
chemical nature.
(a) Pancreatic hormones Polypetides
(b) Thyroid hormones Steroidal
(c) Hormones of adrenal Amino acid derivatives
medulla
(d) Pituitary hormones Proteinaceous
165. Read the following statements.
(1) Myelinated nerve fibres enveloped with Schwann
cells are found in spinal and cranial nerves.
(2) Unmyelinated nerve fibres are enclosed within
Schwann cells and are commonly found in autono-
mous and somatic neural systems.
(3) Midbrain, pons and medulla oblangata form the brain
stem.
(4) Cornea is the outer proteinaceous layer and is the
least sensitive part of eye.
How many of the given statements are wrong?
(a) Two (b) One (c) Three (d) Zero
166. Infection of Ascaris usually occurs by:
(a) Tse tse fly (b) Mosquito bite
(c) Drinking water containing eggs of Ascaris
(d) Eating imperfectly cooked pork
167. Which is not the character of red skeletal muscle fibres ?
(a) It has high number of mitochondria.
(b) It works for short duration.
(c) It has high myoglobin content.
(d) It carries out aerobic oxidation.
168. Which one of the following hormone is not involved in
sugar metabolism?
(a) Glucagon (b) Cortisone
(c) Aldosterone (d) Insulin
169. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS
causative agent HIV?
(a) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of
single stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse
transcriptase.
33
(b) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical
molecules of single stranded RNA and two molecules
of reverse transcriptase.
(c) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus.
(d) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune
response.
170. Periodic abstinence involves avoiding of coitus from:
(a) Day 10-15 of menstrual cycle
(b) Day 10-17 of menstrual cycle
(c) Day 5-10 of menstrual cycle
(d) Day 14-28 of menstrual cycle
171. Which of the following sets of disease are viral?
(a) Cholera, Mumps, Chikungunya
(b) Flu, Chikungunya, Measles, Hepatitis
(c) Dengue, Diphtheria, Leprosy, Small pox
(d) Chicken pox, Flu, Pneumonia, Plague
172. A man with blood group ‘A’ marries to woman with blood
group ‘B’. If their child has blood group ‘O’ then what
could be their genotype?
(a) Both are homozygous.
(b) Man is homozygous while woman is Heterozygous.
(c) Both are heterozygous.
(d) Man is heterozygous while woman is Homozygous.
173. Which one of the following pairs of animals is similar to
each other pertaining to the feature stated against them ?
(a) Pteropus and Ornithorhyncus – viviparity
(b) Garden lizard and Crocodile – three chambered heart
(c) Ascaris and Ancylostoma – metameric segmentation
(d) Sea horse and Flying fish – cold blooded (poikilother-
mal)
174. In human adult females, oxytocin:
(a) Causes strong uterine contractions during parturition.
(b) Is secreted by anterior pituitary.
(c) Stimulates growth of mammary glands.
(d) Stimulates pituitary to secrete.
175. Which of these is not an important compo­ nent of
initiation of parturition in humans?
(a) Increase in estrogen and progesterone ratio.
(b) Synthesis of prostaglandins.
(c) Release of oxytocin.
(d) Release of Prolactin.
176. Which one of the following options correctly represents
the lung conditions in emphysema and asthma,
respectively?
(a) Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of
bronchioles.
(b) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory.
(c) Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of
bronchioles.
(d) Increased number of bronchioles; Increased
respiratory.
177. 70 to 80 percent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed
in:
(a) Distal convoluted tubule
(b) Proximal convoluted tubule
(c) Ascending limb of Loop of Henle
(d) Descending limb of Loop of Henle
178. Obturator foramen is present in:
(a) Between right and left atria
(b) Pelvic girdle
(c) Between third and fourth ventricles of brain
(d) Occipital bone of cranium
179. Which one of the following hormones though synthesised
elsewhere, is stored and released by the master gland?
(a) Melanocyte stimulating hormone
(b) Antidiuretic hormone
(c) Luteinizing hormone
(d) Prolactin
34
180. Which is the correct order in which the proteins 191. According to Darwin, organic evolution is due to:
participate in clotting of blood? (a) Competition with closely related species.
(a) Prothrombinase → Prothrombin → Thromboplastin (b) Interspecific competition.
→ Thrombin (c) Intraspecific competition.
(b) Thromboplastin → Prothrombinase → Prothrombin (d) Reduced feeding efficiency in one ­species due to the
→ Thrombin presence of another species.
(c) Prothrombin → Thromboplastin → Thrombin → Pro- 192. Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is
thrombinase normally diploid?
(d) Thrombin → Prothrombin → Thromboplastin → Pro- (a) Spermatid (b) Spermatogonia
thrombinase (c) Second polar body (d) Secondary oocyte
181. A DNA segment has 75 cytosine and 40 thymine 193. Which two scientists independently gave the
nucleotides. What shall be the total number of phosphates chromosomal theory of sex deter­mination in the same
in the DNA segment? year?
(a) 115 (b) 230 (c) 75 (d) 220 (a) Mendel and Henking (b) Johannsen and Punnet
182. Bowman’s glands are located in: (c) Nettie Stevens and EB Wilson
(a) Cortical nephron (b) Olfactory epithelium (d) Beecher and Franklin
(c) Hypodermis of skin (d) External auditory canal 194. ________________ is a segment of DNA that codes for a
183. According to the central dogma, the flow of genetic specific polypeptide.
information is unidirectional, i.e., (a) Operon (b) Cistron (c) Muton (d) Codon
Replication DNA
‘A’
mRNA
Translation
‘B’ 195. Industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston bitularia
shows which type of natural selection?
Fill the blanks ‘A’ and ‘B’ by choosing correct option. (a) stabilising (b) directional (c) disruptive (d) artificial
(a) ‘A’ - Mutation; ‘B’ - Protein 196. ‘Theory of Natural Selection’ is based on several
(b) ‘A’ - Transcription; ‘B’ - Amino acids observations. Which of the following observation is
(c) ‘A’ - Elongation; ‘B’ - Polypeptide incorrect?
(d) ‘A’ - Transcription; ‘B’ - Protein (a) There are limited natural resources.
184. Medullary osmolarity gradient in kidney is maintained (b) Population are stable in size except for seasonal fluc-
mainly by tuations.
(a) NaCl and urea (b) Ketone bodies and H+ (c) Similar characteristics in members of a population.
(c) NH3 and urea (d) H+ and NaCl (d) Theoretically, population grows exponentially if eve-
rybody reproduces maximally.
185. Which one is mainly and directly responsible for
reabsorption of Na+ in distal parts of nephron? 197. Choose the correctly matched pair
(a) Angiotensin II (b) Atrial natriuretic factor (a) Polyploidy –  Increase in a whole set of chromo-
(c) Aldosterone (d) ADH somes
(b) Allopolyploidy –  Containment of multiple chromo-
Section B some sets desired from a single spe-
cies.
186. Industrial melanism is an example of: (c) Autopolyploidy – Containment of multiple chromosome
(a) Neo Darwinism (b) Natural selection sets desired from different species.
(c) Mutation (d) Neo Lamarckism (d) Aneuploidy – Presence of normal number of chromo-
187. Select the correct match of the digested products in somes in a all.
humans given in column I with their absorption site and 198. Frederick Griffith’s experiment with Streptococcus
mechanism in column II pneumoniae (bacterium) reveals about the ‘transforming
principle’. His series of experiments and observations are
Column I Column II
given below. Read carefully.
(a) Glycine, lucose Small intestine, active absorption (1) S-strain bacteria → Injected into mice → Mice died
(b) Fructose, Na+ Small intestine, passive absorption (2) R-strain bacteria → Injected into mice → Mice died
(3) S-strain (heat killed) → Injected into mice → Mice
(c) Glycerol, fatty Duodenum, move as
lived
acids chylomicrons
(4) S-strain (heat killed) + R-strain (live) → Injected into
(d) Cholesterol, Large intestine, active absorption mice → Mice died
maltose How many of the above observations are incorrect?
188. During cellular respiration, which stage produces the (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
majority of ATP in eukaryotic cells? 199. Which theory of origin of life was rejected by Louis
(a) Glycolysis Pasteur?
(b) Krebs cycle (Citric Acid Cycle) (a) Theory of special creation
(c) Electron Transport Chain (ETC) (b) Theory of panspermia
(d) Pyruvate Decarboxylation (c) Theory of spontaneous generation
189. Choose the unisexual animal: (d) Theory of chemical evolution
(a) Earthworm (b) Leech 200. Haploid-diploid method of sex-determination is seen in
(c) Tapeworm (d) Cockroach some insects. How many of the insects listed in the box
190. A DNA molecule of E. coli in which both strands have 14N shows this method?
is allowed to replicate in an environment containing 15N.
What will be the exact number of DNA molecules that Ants, Grasshopper, Honeybees, Droso­phila, Wasps,
contain the 14N after three replications? Cockroach
(a) one (b) two (c) four (d) eight (a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 3
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 35

ANSWER KEY

Physics Botany
1. (b) 14. (a) 27. (a) 40. (b) 101. (c) 114. (b) 127. (a) 140. (a)
2. (c) 15. (b) 28. (d) 41. (d) 102. (a) 115. (a) 128. (d) 141. (c)
3. (c) 16. (b) 29. (d) 42. (b) 103. (c) 116. (a) 129. (b) 142. (b)
4. (a) 17. (b) 30. (a) 43. (a) 104. (b) 117. (c) 130. (d) 143. (c)
5. (a) 18. (d) 31. (a) 44. (d) 105. (d) 118. (d) 131. (b) 144. (b)
6. (c) 19. (c) 32. (a) 45. (c) 106. (d) 119. (c) 132. (b) 145. (c)
7. (a) 20. (d) 33. (b) 46. (c) 107. (a) 120. (c) 133. (a) 146. (c)
8. (d) 21. (a) 34. (c) 47. (d) 108. (d) 121. (d) 134. (d) 147. (a)
9. (d) 22. (b) 35. (b) 48. (c) 109. (b) 122. (d) 135. (c) 148. (a)
10. (c) 23. (d) 36. (a) 49. (d) 110. (c) 123. (a) 136. (c) 149. (b)
11. (c) 24. (d) 37. (a) 50. (b) 111. (a) 124. (c) 137. (b) 150. (d)
12. (c) 25. (d) 38. (d) 112. (a) 125. (c) 138. (c)
13. (a) 26. (a) 39. (b) 113. (b) 126. (c) 139. (b)

Chemistry Zoology
151. (b) 164. (b) 177. (b) 190. (b)
51. (a) 64. (b) 77. (a) 90. (d)
152. (c) 165. (b) 178. (b) 191. (b)
52. (d) 65. (c) 78. (c) 91. (c)
153. (b) 166. (c) 179. (b) 192. (b)
53. (a) 66. (a) 79. (d) 92. (b)
54. (b) 67. (b) 80. (a) 93. (a) 154. (c) 167. (b) 180. (b) 193. (c)

55. (d) 68. (d) 81. (d) 94. (b) 155. (c) 168. (c) 181. (b) 194. (b)

56. (c) 69. (a) 82. (a) 95. (a) 156. (d) 169. (b) 182. (b) 195. (b)

57. (d) 70. (b) 83. (d) 96. (d) 157. (b) 170. (b) 183. (d) 196. (c)

58. (a) 71. (a) 84. (a) 97. (a) 158. (a) 171. (b) 184. (a) 197. (a)

59. (c) 72. (a) 85. (d) 98. (c) 159. (a) 172. (c) 185. (c) 198. (a)

60. (b) 73. (a) 86. (d) 99. (b) 160. (b) 173. (d) 186. (b) 199. (c)

61. (a) 74. (a) 87. (d) 100. (b) 161. (b) 174. (a) 187. (a) 200. (d)

62. (b) 75. (c) 88. (d) 162. (a) 175. (d) 188. (c)

63. (d) 76. (c) 89. (a) 163. (d) 176. (a) 189. (d)

mmm

ANSWERS WITH EXPLANATION

 2 I 
PHYSICS
h 

n 

I I
Section A h 2  2 ( 2 f )
 
1. Option (b) is correct. I n n
Since angular momentum: h 1
 [T ]
 I 
mvr = nh or, I   nh
2 2
2. Option (c) is correct.
h = 2I In an unbiased p-n junction, the diffusion of charge
n carriers across the junction takes place from higher
Here, I = moment of inertia concentration to lower concentration.
3. Option (c) is correct.
 2 I  When the collector is positive and the emitter is negative
h  n 
 w.r.t. base, it causes forward biasing for each junction,
I I
which causes the conduction of current.
h 2  2 ( 2 f )
 
I n n
h 1
 [T ]
 I 
36
4. Option (a) is correct. R 5 R
W = μmgS = 0.2 × 50 × 9.8 × 1 J = 98 J C = CV – = R – −1 − 1 = 3R
x −1 2
5. Option (a) is correct.
Let the total length of the string be l. Then for the three But as rms speed is doubled therefore tempera­ ture
segments: becomes four times.
l = l1 + l2 + l3 Hence, Q = nCDT
= n × 3R × 3Ti = 9 nRTi = 9 P1V1
nstring = n =  1  × T
m 11. Option (c) is correct.
 2l 
M.I. of the uniform circular disc about its diameter = I
T is the tension in the string and m is the string’s the
linear mass density. M.I. of the disc about its axis = 1 mr2
So, 1 2
n∝ According to the Theorem of perpendicular axes
l
Hence, 1 = 1 + 1 + 1 Iz = I x + I y
n n1 n2 n3 M.I. of the disc about its axis,
6. Option (c) is correct. Iz = I + I = 2I
From the question,
n1l1 = n2l2 (Condition for maxima) Thus, 2I = 1 mr2
So, n1 = λ 2 2
n2 λ1 \ mr2 = 4I
As per the parallel axes theorem,
= 10000 = 5
12000 6 Moment of inertia of disc about the perpen­dicular axis
passing through its rim:
Hence, minimum values for n1 and n2 are 5 and 6.
Distance of the maxima corresponding to n1 and n2 from = 1 mr2 + mr2
2
the center of the screen: = 2I + 4I = 6I
Xmin = n1l1 D 12. Option (c) is correct.
d
Distance traveled by the particle in the nth second
= 5(12000  10 10 )2 1
Snth  u  a( 2n  1)
2  10 3 2
= 6 × 10–3 m = 6 mm where u = initial speed, a = acceleration of particle
7. Option (a) is correct. Here,
Let v be the final velocity of m. Then the conser­vation of n = 3, u = 0, a = 4 m/s2
angular momentum, we see that: 3
1 4
mv0R0 = mv × R 0 So, S3rd   ( 2  3  1)
2 2 3
or, v = 2v0 10
 m
Now, Final KE = 1 × m(2v0)2 = 2mv02 3
2
13. Option (a) is correct.
8. Option (d) is correct. The difference in frequencies of closed pipe
y = a sin wt + b cos wt 2v
 260  220  40 Hz
Let a = A cos q; b = A sin q 4l
Þ a2 + b2 = A2 (cos2 q + sin2 q) = A2 v
So, the fundamental frequency, f   4l  20 Hz
or A = a2 + b 2
Hence, 14. Option (a) is correct.
Y = A cos q sin wt + A sin q cos wt Wavelength,
A sin (wt + q) l= h
p
= a 2 + b 2 ⋅ sin ( ωt + θ)
h
It is SHM with amplitude A = a2 + b 2 l=
2mE
9. Option (d) is correct. h
Given: l = 600 × 10–9 m 
2 m  3 / 2 kT
D=2m h
h
and d = 1 mm = 10–3 m or, l= =
2m ×( 3 / 2 )kT (3mkT)½
Now width of central maxima is given as:
15. Option (b) is correct.
W0 = 2λD
d Torque is given by t = pE sin q
t = pE sin q = qlE sin q
2
= 2 × 600 × 10–9 ×  4
10 −3 or, q= = = 2 mC
E sin  ( 2  10 2  0.5  2  10 5 )
= 2.4 × 10–3 m = 2.4 mm
16. Option (b) is correct.
10. Option (c) is correct.
Since, h = 2 × T cos q/rrg
As PµV
As T, h, g and r are constants
\ PV–1 = constant Þ x = –1
r↑ Þ q↓
Also for diatomic gas, q1 < q2 < q3[as r1 > r2 > r3]
5 It shows 0 ≤ q1 < q2 < q3 < p/2
CV = R
2
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 37
17. Option (b) is correct. 27. Option (a) is correct.
As the period for which the particle moves with velocities Work done by the gas =PDV
v1, v2 and v3 is same (t = 20 s), the = –50 (10 – 4) = –300 J
Using, dQ = dU + dW
Time average velocity = v1 + v2 + v3 = 3 + 4 + 5 = 4 m/s Þ dU = dQ – dW
3 3
18. Option (d) is correct. = 300 + 100 = 400 J
So, the internal energy is increased by 400 J.
fµ k 28. Option (d) is correct.
If the spring is divided in equal parts then the force
constant of each part gets double 4 m/s
V
f2/f1 = k2 / k1 = 2 1 m/s 1 m/s

f2 = 2 f1
19. Option (c) is correct. Before collision After collision
distance t nt Let v be the velocity of ball after collision. For elastic
Time = = =
c
speed c collision coefficient of restitution,
n e=1
20. Option (d) is correct. or relative velocity after collision = relative velocity
The de Broglie wavelength is given as: before collision
h \ v–1=4+1
l=
p or v = 6 m/s (away from the wall)
Þ Wavelength is inversely proportional to momen­tum, 29. Option (d) is correct.
1
lµ Intensity cannot affect the cut-off frequency or stopping
p
21. Option (a) is correct. potential. High intensity means more number of
We know that potential gradient photons, so the chances of hitting the electron by them
dV increases and hence more photoelectrons are emitted i.e.,
= 10 V/m
dr photocurrent increases.
dr = 0.6 – 0.3 = 0.3 m 30. Option (a) is correct.
The temperature of land rises rapidly as compared to sea,
So, dV = VB – VC   dV   dr because of specific heat of land is five times less than that
 
 dr 
of sea water. Thus, the air above the land become hot and
= 10 × 0.3 V
light and rises up. To compensate the drop of pressure, the
= 3.0 V
cooler air starts blowing towards land from sea so set-up
22. Option (b) is correct.
sea breeze.
Magnetic Field B = m0Ni/2r During night land as well as sea radiate heat energy. The
= 4p × 10–7 × 50 × 2/(2 × 0.5) temperature of land falls more rapidly as compared to sea
= 1.26 × 10−4 T water, as sea water consists of higher specific heat, capacity.
23. Option (d) is correct. The air above sea water being warm and light rises up. To
i0 = v0 take its place the cold air from land starts blowing towards
Z sea and set-up land breeze.
Z = R 2  ( L ) 2 31. Option (a) is correct.
A
= 4 2  (1000  3  10 3 )2 = 5 W Liquid i p
–r
D
2
4 p
i0 = –i
5 2 i
i0 = 0.8 A
24. Option (d) is correct. B C
S = t3 – 6t2 + 3t + 4 By Snell’s law at the surface AC
ds
 3t 2  12t  3 
v
dt 3 sin   i  = 2 sin r ...(i)
dv 2 
a  6t  12
dt By Snell’s law at the surface DC,
a = 0 when t = 2  
2 sin   r  = 1 sin i...(ii)
Þ va=0 = 3 × 4 – 12 × 2 + 3 = –9 ms–1 2 
From equation (i) and (ii),
Þ |v| = 9 ms–1
2cos2i + 1 = 2
25. Option (d) is correct.
1
Apply Newton’s second law. or, cos i =
Change in momentum is equal to Impulse. 2
I = m(v2 – v1) or, i = 45°
26. Option (a) is correct. 32. Option (a) is correct.
It is noted that the color of light is found from its From statement II:
frequency, so when the frequency remains the same, work n  K
Power P =   nK
color will also remain the same, so it will remain green. time 1
 38
33. Option (b) is correct. 40. Option (b) is correct.
When the incident light crosses the interface the light Resistance R = rl/A
is absorbed temporarily by the atoms in the second Length and area of a cross-section of stretched wire:
medium. Electrons in these atoms oscillate back and forth
in the direction of the electric field vectors in the refracted l′ = nl, A   A ,
ray, perpendicular to the direction, the refracted ray is n
traveling. Resistance of the stretched wire:
The light is remitted by the atoms to form both the l 
R 
reflected and refracted rays. A
The electric field vector in the light match the directions nl l 2
the electrons were oscillating, and they must be R   n
A/n A
perpendicular to the direction of prorogation of the wave.
When the lights come in at the Brewster angle the R   Rn2
reflected wave has no electric field vectors parallel to the 41. Option (d) is correct.
refracted ray, because the electrons do not oscillate along Height = Range
that direction. The reflected wave also has no electric field
vectors parallel to the reflected ray, because that’s the u2 sin 2  u2 sin 2

direction of propagation of the wave. The only direction 2g g
possible is perpendicular to the plane of the picture. So, u2 sin 2  u2 2 sin  cos 
the reflected rays acquire maximum plane polarization. 
34. Option (c) is correct. 2g g
If a small amount of antimony is added to the germanium sin 2 
 2 sin  cos 
the crystal, crystal becomes an n-type semiconductor.
Hence, there will be more free electrons than holes. 2
35. Option (b) is correct. sin q = 4 cosq
For copper, resistance will decrease and for silicon, it will tan q = 4
increase. As silicon is a semiconductor its resistance will q = tan–1(4)
increase when the temperature reduces. The opposite is 42. Option (b) is correct.
the case for copper as it is a conductor. stress
Young’s Modulus =
Section B strain
stress = Y ⋅ strain
36. Option (a) is correct. F = Y ⋅ strain
Let k be the spring constant of the spring, so
A
1
U = × k × (2)2 = 2k F = YA (strain)
2
Now for Dx = 10 cm: mg = YA (strain)
1 YA(strain)
m=
Ufinal = × k × (10)2 = 50k g
2
U 2k 1 11 6 3
Further, = = m = 2  10  3  10  10
U final 50 k 25 10
So, Ufinal = 25 U m = 60 kg
37. Option (a) is correct. 43. Option (a) is correct.
As the e.m. wave is propagating along +z direction, the
cross product of the unit vector along the electric field Excess pressure inside a soap bubble = 4s
with the unit vector along the magnetic field associated r
with the e.m. wave should be along the +z axis. As temperature = constant (from Boyle’s law)
 
= \ E E= ˆi and B B ˆj P1V1 = P2V2 = PV
0 0
38. Option (d) is correct. 4s 4 3 4s 4 3 4s 4 3
The one-dimensional elastic collision of a moving massive  r1   r2   r
r1 3 r2 3 r 3
body with a light body at rest, brings the velocity of the
light body to double the velocity the massive body, but the
r12 + r22 = r2
velocity of the massive body remains unchanged.
39. Option (b) is correct.
Orbital velocity of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius
r12 + r22 = r
‘R’ is inversely proportional to the square root of radius.
32 + 4 2 = r = 5 mm
Thus,
v2 R1  44. Option (d) is correct.
=  GM 
v1 R2  As v=  Vrms =
3RT
 R  M
or, v2 4 × R1
= 3RT1
v1 R1 Vrms1 =
M
or, v2 = v1 × 2
as v1 = 3V 3RT2
Vrms2 =
So, v2 = 6V M
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 39

V1 T1 1 1 1
=  
V2 T2 C3 6 10

V 273+100 1 4
=
= C3 60
2V T2
C3 = 15 mF
1 373 49. Option (d) is correct.
=
2 T2 E = −13.6 eV
n
T2 = 4 × 373 K = 1492 K n2
T2 = (1492 – 273)°C = 1219°C
−13.6 eV
45. Option (c) is correct. For n = 1, Eg =
Amplitude of Electric Field 12
Speed of EM wave = When an atom absorbs a photon of energy 10.2 eV its new
Amplitude of Magnetic Field
energy becomes
E –13.6 eV + 10.2 eV = –3.4 eV
c=
B –3.4 eV = −13.6
E 9.0  10 4 n2
B=  = 3 × 10–12 T
c 3  10 8 n2 = −13.6 eV
–12
−3.4 eV
B = 3 × 10 T
46. Option (c) is correct. n2 = 4
n=2
The relative permeability of a paramagnetic substance Electron jumps to the second orbit
is slightly greater than one, while that of diamagnetic 1
substance is less than one. vn µ
n
For ferromagnetic substances, it is much greater than one. 1
47. Option (d) is correct. v1 µ
1
For open pipe n= V v2 µ
1
2L 2
For closed pipe n– = V
v1 2
=
4L v2 1
When the open pipe is dipped half into water it will v
behave like the closed pipe of a half-length v2 =
2
V
n– = V = =n 50. Option (b) is correct.
 L 2 L For a transformer
4 
2 number of turns in secondary coil
number of turns in primary
y coil
48. Option (c) is correct.
1 1 1 1 1 voltage across secondary coil
Case I:     …(i) =
C s C1 C 2 C 3 6 voltage across primary coil
2000 1000
1 1 1 1 =
Case II:    …(ii) 400 VP
C s C1 C 2 10
VP = 200 V
Subtracting (i) – (ii)

CHEMISTRY
Section A 52. Option (d) is correct.
Among the alkali metals, the Li+ ion is the smallest thus,
51. Option (a) is correct. the extent of hydration is maximum in Li+ ion, i.e., The
22.4 L of H2 gas at STP = 1 mole Li+ ion in water gets hydrated to form a bulky species.
11.2 L of Cl2 gas at STP = 0.5 mole Thus, the smaller the size of a cation, the greater is the
Now, the chemical equation is represented as follows: extent of hydration and the lesser is the ionic mobility.
H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl Thus, the order of ionic mobility is:
Initial: 1 mole 0.5 mole 0 Li+ < Na+ < K+ < Rb+
Final: 0.5 mole 0 2 × 0.5 mole 53. Option (a) is correct.
Due to high electronegativity and small size, F forms only
Now, according to the balanced chemical equation, 1 one oxoacid, HOF known as Fluoric (I) acid. The oxida-
mole of each of H2 and Cl2 reacts to give 2 moles of HCl. tion number of F is –1 in HOF.
Here, only 0.5 mole of Cl2 is present. Thus, it is the limiting 54. Option (b) is correct.
reagent and it reacts completely to form HCl with twice For n = 3 and l = l, the corresponding subshell is
the concentration of that of Cl2. 3p. p-subshell has 3 orbitals. Each orbital of 3p can
accommodate two electrons.
Thus, the mole of HCl formed is 1 mole.
Hence, total 6 electrons can fit for n = 3 and l = 1.
40
55. Option (a) is correct. when, temperature is increased from 10°C to 100°C,
Br2 Na change in temperature = 100° – 10°
CH 4  CH3  Br  CH3  CH3 = 90°C
h dry ether
i.e., n=9
 (less than four ‘C’ atoms) So, rate = 29 = 512 times
56. Option (c) is correct. 63. Option (d) is correct.
Both IBr2– and XeF2 have linear geometry. So, they are iso- HNO3 + 2H2SO4  NO2+ + 2HSO4– + H3O + NO2+
structural and the number of valence electrons present
in both the species is the same, i.e., 22. Thus, they are also +
NO2 +
isoelectronic. Nitronium ion
S. Compounds Number of valence Geometry Benzene
NO2
No. electrons Nitrobenzene
1. BeCl2 2 + 14 = 16 Linear When KHSO4 is added to this mixture then it dissociates
to K+ and HSO4– ions which increases HSO4– concentration
2. XeF2 8 + 14 = 22 Linear in the mixture thus, equilibrium shifts to backward
3. Tel2 6 + 14 = 20 Bent or reaction, and hence the rate of nitration becomes slower.
V-shaped 64. Option (b) is correct.
The basic building unit of all silicates is the tetrahedral
4. lBr2– 7 + 14 + 1 = 22 Linear
SiO44–. It is represented as,
5. lF3 7 + 21 = 28 T-shaped – – –
57. Option (d) is correct.
CaF2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2HF Si
– –
– =O
Here, the oxidation state of Ca, F, H, S, and O remains the – = Si
same so, it is not a redox reaction.
58. Option (a) is correct. –
65. Option (c) is correct.
CH2 For a first-order reaction
Benzyl free radical is aromatic as per Huckel’s rule it has 2.303 [R ]
k= log 0
6p electrons present in p-orbital of carbon atoms involved t [ R]
in formation of benzene ring (Aromatic nature) [R0 ]
At t1/2, [R] =
2
\ k = 2.303 log [ R]
CH2 t1/2 [R0 ] / 2

= 2.303 × 0.3010
6-p-orbitals and 6 unpaired electrons t1/2
59. Option (c) is correct.
XeOF2 Þ t1/2 = 0.693
k
x–2–1×2= 0
x = +4 Hence, t1/2 for first-order reaction is inde­pendent of initial
60. Option (b) is correct. concentration of a reactant.
Let the solubility of AgCl be S mol L–1 66. Option (a) is correct.
AgCl → Ag+ + Cl–
S S S + 0.1
Concentration of Cl– is (S + 0.1) mol L–1 because S mol L–1
from ionization of AgCl and 0.1 mol L–1 from ionization of
0.1 M NaCl.
Now, Ksp = [Ag+][Cl–]
1.6 × 10–10 = S (S + 0.1)
67. Option (b) is correct.
1.6 × 10–10 = S (0.1) { S << 0.1}
Oxidation half reaction is
S = 1.6 × 10–9 M
61. Option (a) is correct. H2 → 2H+ + 2e–
Iso means one, CH3 group is present in the side chain (1 atm) (At pH 10)
(attached to 2nd carbon) and thus the structure of the iso-
If pH = 10, [H+] = 10–10
butyl group is:
CH3 From Nernst Equation
  2
H 3C  C  CH 2
Ecell = E°cell  0.0591 log [ H ]


 2 PH 2
H
For hydrogen electrode E°cell = 0
62. Option (b) is correct. −10 2
For every 10° rise in temperature the rate of reaction Ecell = − 0.0591 log (10 ) = 0.0591 log 1010
doubles. So, rate = 2n 2 1
when, n = 1; rate = 21 = 2 Ecell = 0.591 V

MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 41
68. Option (d) is correct. 75. Option (c) is correct.
The addition of solute decreases the vapor pressure as As ∆H < 0 i.e., the given reaction is exothermic. According
some sites of the surface is occupied by solute particles to the Le-Chatelier principle, for an exothermic reaction, a
resulting in decreased surface area. However, the addition forward reaction is favored when the temperature becomes
of solvent, i.e., dilution increases the surface area of the low. Also, there are 5 gaseous moles on the reactant side
liquid surface, thus resulting in increased vapor pressure. and 2 gaseous moles on the products side. So, the forward
Hence, the addition of water to the aqueous solution of (1 reaction is favored when the pressure of the reaction
molal) KI results in increased vapor pressure. mixture becomes high. The reason is that at high pressure,
69. Option (a) is correct. the reaction tends to move in a direction where is are a
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] does not ionize so does not give test for lesser number of gaseous moles.
chloride ions. 76. Option (c) is correct.
While all other give test for chloride ions: HX  H+ + X–
[Co(NH3)6]Cl3 → [Co(NH3)6]3+ + 3Cl– Initially 1 0 0
[Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl → [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ + Cl– At equilibrium 1–a a a
Total moles = 1 – a + a + a = 1 + a
[Co(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 → [Co(NH3)5Cl]2+ + 2Cl– 1
70. Option (b) is correct. i

The reaction of carbonyl compounds with ammonia
derivatives give an addition product followed by the as a = 20% = 0.2
elimination reaction (elimination of water). Slightly acidic Thus, i = 1 + a = 1 + 0.2 = 1.2
medium generate a nucleophilic center for the attack of DTf = ikf m = 1.2 × 1.86 × 0.5 = 1.12 K
weak base like ammonia derivatives. 77. Option (a) is correct.
71. Option (a) is correct. ∆G° = –nFE°
Among the given halides aryl halides (C6H5X) is least For reaction, Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu
reactive towards nucleophile as in the C—X bond acquire ∆G° = –2 × F × 0.337 …(i)
some double bond character due to resonance. For reaction,
→ NO2 show –I effect hence facilitates the nucleophilic Cu+ → Cu2+ + e–
attack, 3° halides are more reactive due to the formation a ∆G° = +1 × F × 0.153 …(ii)
more stable carbocation.
Thus the order of reactivity of the C—X bond towards
Adding eq. (i) and (ii) we get
nucleophile is Cu+ + e– → Cu, ∆G° = –0.521 F
X X ∆G° = –nFE° = – 0.521
NO2 \ E° = 0.52 V
78. Option (c) is correct.
< < (CH3)2CH—X < (CH3)3C—X

NO2
(I) (II) (IV) (III)
72. Option (a) is correct.
Biphenyl is coplanar as all carbon atoms are sp2 hybridized.
73. Option (a) is correct. This reaction is called Cannizzaro’s reaction.
Paraldehyde is a polymer of acetaldehyde 79. Option (d) is correct.
The correct bond dissociation energy order of halogen
CH3 molecules is Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2. The exceptionally low
O value of fluorine molecule is due to the small size of
fluorine and hence there is large electronic repulsion that
HCl takes place which leads to lower bond dissociation energy.
3CH3 — C — H
Acetaldehyde 80. Option (a) is correct.
H3C CH3 CH3OH forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding is
shown as follows:
Paraldehyde H—O H—O H—O
CH3
CH3 CH3 CH3
CH3
C Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
H O This hydrogen bonding must be overcome to convert
H HCl liquid CH3OH to a gas.
O 81. Option (d) is correct.
C
CH3 CH3 From E° values of M2+/M, we have
CH3 C CH3
O Paraldehyde E°/V Cr Mn Fe Co
H M2+/M –0.90 –1.18 –0.44 –0.28
Acetaldehyde E° value for Mn is more negative than expected from general
74. Option (a) is correct. trend due to extra stability of half-filled Mn2+ ion.
SnO2 reacts with acid as well as the base. Thus, the correct order should be
Mn > Cr > Fe > Co
So, SnO2 is an amphoteric compound. But an examination of E° values for redox couple M3+/
SnO2 + 4HCl → SnCl2 + 2H2O M2+ shows that Cr+2 is strong reducing agent (E°M3+/M2+
SnO2 + 2NaOH → Na2SnO3 + H2O = 0.41 V) and liberates H2 from dilute acids.
CaO is basic in nature while SiO2 and CO2 are acidic in 2Cr+2(aq) + 2H+(aq) → 2Cr3+(aq) + H2 ↑ (g)

nature. Thus, correct order is Mn > Fe > Cr > Co.
42
82. Option (a) is correct. 89. Option (a) is correct.
Sucrose does not show mutarotation. The Conjugate acid of water is H3O+.
Only those sugars which have a free aldehyde (—CHO) 90. Option (d) is correct.
or ketone   C = O group are capa­ble of showing We know that ∆H = ∆U + ∆ngRT
  For a given reaction ∆ng = nP – nR = 0 – 3 = –3
mutarotation. \ ∆H = ∆U + (–3)RT
83. Option (d) is correct. ∆H = ∆U –3RT
+
– 91. Option (c) is correct.
N ≡≡N Cl NH2
p-nitrophenol has more boiling point than o-nitrophenol
due to the presence of ­intra­molecular H-bonding in it
H+
+ which makes it slow volatile also.
– HCl Thus option (c) is an incorrect statement.
Benzene 92. Option (b) is correct.
diazonium H The electron gain enthalpy of N is almost zero but of
chloride Aniline
P is –74.3 kJ mol–1. This is because N has a small size as
compared to P. It requires extra energy to add an electron
—N==N— —NH2 as it is an endothermic process.
93. Option (a) is correct.
[A] 1 g-atom N = (1/2) mole N2 =14 g N
(Yellow dye)
(p-azo benzene compound)
94. Option (b) is correct.
(a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
84. Option (a) is correct.
For the absorption of visible light, the presence of 3d 4s 4p
unpaired d-electrons are a necessity. [Ni(CO)4]
In [Ni(CN)4]2–
Ni+2 = [Ar] 3d8 4s0
2–
\ [Ni(CN)4] orbitals sp3
3d 4s 4p
It has sp3 hybridization, thus it has a tetrahedral geometry
×× ×× ×× ××
with a dipole moment of 0 B.M.

dsp2 [Co(NH)3]3+
–
Pairing occurs because CN is a strong field ligand. Thus,
[Ni(CN)4]2– does not contain an unpaired electron it does d2sp3
not absorb visible light.
All other complexes in the option contain unpaired It has d2sp3 hybridization, thus will have octahedral
electrons thus absorbing visible light. geometry and is low spin complex a dipole moment of 0
85. Option (d) is correct. BM.
The standard reduction potential of halogens are
positive and decrease from fluorine to iodine.
3d 4s 4p 4d
[CoF6]3–
So, F2 is the strongest oxidizing agent.
Section B
sp3d2
86. Option (d) is correct.
The atomic number of manganese is 25. Carbonyl is a It has sp3d2 hybridization, octahedral geometry and is a
neutral ligand so, oxidation number of manganese is high spin complex with 4.9 BM.
zero.
EAN = No. of electrons of metal + M - L bond or co-
3d 4s 4p
[Mn(CN)6]4–
ordination number + Electrons shared by two atoms of
metal.
EAN = 25 + 1 + 10 = 36.
d2sp3
It has d2sp3 hybridization, octahedral geometry, low spin
complex with 1.73 BM.
95. Option (a) is correct.
Phenol is more acidic than 4-methyl phenol because
of stabilization of phenoxide ion thro­ ugh resonance.
87. Option (d) is correct. Presence of electron-withdrawing group increases the
• In H3PO4, all H are bonded with O acidity of phenol whereas the electron-donating group
• SO2 and CO2 both are acidic oxide decreases its acidity.
88. Option (d) is correct. 96. Option (d) is correct.
Among the given options OSF2 has a pyramidal shape. It
has one S=O bond and two S—F single bonds and one
lone pair of electrons.
••

S
F F
• m = 0 hence non polar O
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 43
97. Option (a) is correct. (d) Resorcinol (iv) HO OH
List I List II
(a) Catechol (iii) OH
OH
98. Option (c) is correct.
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] is of type MA3B3 which shows facial and
meridional isomers.
(b) Cresol (i) OH
99. Option (b) is correct.
At constant volume, w = 0 [w = –PDV]

CH3 Also, DU = q + w DU = q = 10 kJ
100. Option (b) is correct.
(c) Anisole (ii) OCH3 DS° = SS° = SS°
P R
= 2 × 192.3 – [191.5 + (3 × 130.6)]
= 384.6 – 583.3 = –198.7 J/K/mol

BOTANY
Section A G2–phase → 80 pg
Gametes → 20 pg (products of meiosis-II)
101. Option (c) is correct. 108. Option (d) is correct.
Cell walls of fungi are made up of chitin and polysaccharides. Isobrachial (metacentric) chromosome appears L –
102. Option (a) is correct. Shaped during anaphase.
Dihybrid Cross 109. Option (b) is correct.
RY Ry rY ry Species is the basic and lowest category in taxonomic
hierarchy.
110. Option (c) is correct.
RY RRYY RRYy RrYY RrYy Endosperm is triploid (3n) in most of the angiospermic
plant as two polar nuclei fuse with a male gamete and three
of them are haploid.
Ry RRYy RRyy RrYy Rryy 111. Option (a) is correct.
In glycolysis, glucose is phosphorylated to glucose - 6 -
phosphate by using ATP in the presence of hexokinase.
112. Option (a) is correct.
rY RrYY RrYy rrYY rrYy When exposed to ultraviolet light, EtBr will show
fluorescence with bright orange color, intensifying almost
20-fold after binding to DNA.
ry RrYy Rryy rrYy rryy 113. Option (b) is correct.
Prions cause mad cow disease. They form abnormal
aggregates of proteins called amyloids, which accumulate
in infected tissue and responsible for tissue damage and
RrYy rrYy Rryy rryy
cell death.
114. Option (b) is correct.
4 : 2 : 2 : 1 There are three biodiversity hotspots in India.
103. Option (c) is correct. 115. Option (a) is correct.
Starch synthesis during the daytime is coordinated with AUG has dual functions, it codes for methionine and it
sucrose synthesis in the cytosol. Starch is a chemically also acts as an initiator codon.
non-reactive and osmotically inactive polysaccharide of 116. Option (a) is correct.
much greater molecular weight. Glycine is the simplest amino acid in which R is replaced by
104. Option (b) is correct. hydrogen. Cysteine and methionine are sulfur-containing
Elongation region have meristematic cells which
amino acids.
undergoes continuous cell division and responsible for
growth of root because of enlargement of cells numbers. 117. Option (c) is correct.
105. Option (d) is correct. Mycoplasma is inhibited by tetracycline but insensitive to
In sub-metacentric chromosomes, the centro­ mere is penicillin.
situated a little above the center. In the metacentric, the 118. Option (d) is correct.
centromere is positioned in the center, and in a telocentric, Explanation: Many desert plants have a thick cuticle on
the centromere is positioned terminally. their leaf surfaces and stomata in deep pits to minimize
106. Option (d) is correct. loss of water by transpiration. They also have a special
Palmitic acid is a saturated fatty acid that contains 16 photosynthetic pathway (CAM - Crassulacean acid
carbon atoms including carboxyl carbon. Oleic acid is an metabolism). Some have their leaves reduced to spines
18 C unsaturated fatty acid. and the photosynthetic function is taken over by the
107. Option (a) is correct. flattened stems. Thus option (d) is the answer.
44
119. Option (c) is correct.
The thylakoid space bounded by the thylakoid membrane
is present only in the chloroplast.
120. Option (c) is correct.
NADPH reductase enzyme is located on grana lamella
towards the stroma side. Break down of proton gradient
releases energy.
121. Option (d) is correct.
Fungi are group of eukaryotic heteromorphic organisms
with diverse forms, sizes, physiology and mode of
reproduction. They exhibit more species diversity.
122. Option (d) is correct.
Polyamines.
123. Option (a) is correct.
Bacillus thuringiensis bacterium forms some protein
crystals (cry) during a particular phase of their growth.
These crystals contain a toxic insecticidal protein. This
toxin does not kill the Bacillus because Bt toxin exists as
inactive protoxins in them. But once an insect ingests Bt
toxin, it is converted into an active form of toxin due to
the alkaline pH of the gut which solubilises the crystals.
The activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut
epithelial cells and creates pores that cause swelling and
lysis leading to the death of an insect.
124. Option (c) is correct.
Competitive inhibition is a form of enzyme inhibition
where binding of the inhibitor to the active site on the
enzyme prevents binding of the substrate and vice
versa. Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme
succinate dehydrogenase: malonate binds to the active
site of the enzyme without reacting, and so competes
with succinate, the usual substrate of the enzyme.
125. Option (c) is correct.
Ribosomes may occur singly a monosomes or in rosettes
and helical groups called polysomes. The different
ribosomes of a polysome are connected with a strand of
m-RNA. Nucleosome is a basic unit of DNA packaging
in eukaryotes. Plastidome are the plastids of a cell when
they are referred to a functional unit. Polyhedral bodies
are involved in carbon fixation are present in autotrophic
bacteria.
126. Option (c) is correct.
In a majority of aquatic plants such as water hyacinth and
water lily, the flowers emerge above the level of water
and are pollinated by insects or wind as in most of the
land plants.
127. Option (a) is correct.
Protonema is a haploid thin thread-like structure found in
mosses. It represents the juvenile phase.
128. Option (d) is correct.
Each restriction endonuclease recognises a specific
palindromic nucleotide sequences in the DNA. The
sequences read the same on the two strands in 5′ – 3′
direction. This is also true if read in the 3′ – 5′ direction.
129. Option (b) is correct.
Nostoc is a cyanobacterial cell with a membrane bound
organelles absent.
130. Option (d) is correct.
Fact.
131. Option (b) is correct.
Mannitol or laminarin is stored food in Fucus. On the
other hand, food is stored in the form of fluoride starch in
Porphyra and Gracilaria and as starch in Chara.
132. Option (b) is correct.
Dioecious plants bear unisexual flowers that promote
only xenogamy.
133. Option (a) is correct.
Endonucleases or restriction enzymes cleave only at very
specific nucleotide sequences within a polynucleotide
chain.
134. Option (d) is correct.
Diatoms are unicellular algae, which have a glass-like
wall made up of silicon dioxide embedded in the matrix.
Their cell wall is a unique type and is known as frustule
which is divided into epitheca and hypotheca.
135. Option (c) is correct.
The leaves in gymnosperms are well adapted to
withstand extremes of temperature, humidity and wind.
The needle-like leaves reduce the surface area. Their thick
cuticle and sunken stomata help to reduce water loss.
Section B
136. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: Ecological diversity is the diversity at
ecosystem level. India with its deserts, rainforests,
mangroves, coral reefs, wetlands, estuaries and alpine
meadows has a greater ecosystem diversity.
137. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: During chemiosmosis, protons are
channeled from outer chamber of mitochondria into inner
chamber by F0 part of oxysome (complex V) embeded in
inner mitochondrial membrane.
138. Option (c) is correct.
Lenticels permit the exchange of gases between the outer
atmosphere and the internal tissue of the stem.
139. Option (b) is correct.
Humus is a dark-colored amorphous substance.
140. Option (a) is correct.
Explanation: If a female individual is with small head,
furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm
with characteristic palm crease and also the physical
psychomotor and mental development is retarded,
the individual is suffering from Down’s syndrome, an
autosomal trisomy (chromosomal disorder).
The karyotype analysis of such an individual will show
trisomy of chromosome number 21.
141. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: In nondisjunction, the separation fails to
occur causing both sister chromatids or homologous
chromosomes to be pulled to one pole of the cell. In
Down syndrome non-disjunction results in an embryo with
three copies of chromosome 21 instead of the usual two.
142. Option (b) is correct.
Fact.
143. Option (c) is correct.
Insectivorous plants belong to first and third, both trophic
levels of the ecosystem. They are partially heterotrophic
and partially autotrophic.
144. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Substrate-level phosphorylation is the direct
formation of ATP or GTP by transferring a phosphate
group from a high energy compound to an ADP or
GDP molecule. During the conversion of succinyl-CoA
to succinic acid a molecule of GTP is synthesised during
Krebs cycle. This is a substrate level phosphorylation.
145. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: The variation due to space results in spa-
tial pattern. There are two types of spatial patterns. viz.
Stratification and Zonation.
146. Option (c) is correct.
Explanation: Crossing over and exchange of genetic
material between homologous chromosomes occurs during
pachytene stage of meiosis.
Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material between
non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes. It
is an enzyme-mediated process and the enzyme involved is
called recombinase.
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2 45
147. Option (a) is correct. Bacteriophage lambda 48502 bp
Fact.
Escherichia coli 4.6 × 106 bp
148. Option (a) is correct.
Out of the given statements, only statement B is correct. Human DNA 3.3 × 109 bp (haploid content)
In Cycas, both sexes are present on different plants. It 150. Option (d) is correct.
means these plants are considered as dioecious. Male Explanation: If the seeds collected from hybrids are
plants bear male cone or strobilus and female plants bears sown, the plants in the progeny will segregate and do not
megasporophylls. maintain hybrid characters. Production of hybrid seeds
149. Option (b) is correct. is costly and hence the cost of hybrid seeds become too
The correct matching of options is as follows: expensive for the farmers
If hybrid seeds are made into apomicts, there is no
Organism Number of nucleotides/ base segregation of characters in the hybrid progeny.
pairs Then the farmers can keep on using the hybrid seeds to
Bacteriophage 5386 nucleotides raise new crop year after year and he does not have to
φ × 174 buy hybrid seeds every year.

ZOOLOGY
Section A
151. Option (b) is correct.
Lamprey and Hagfish are Cyclostomes which are jawless
fishes.
152. Option (c) is correct.
Fact.
153. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Coelenterates are radially symmetrical.
Radial symmetry is found in the cnidarians such as Hydra
and echinoderms such as Starfish.
Cockroach and earthworm; Taenia and Ascaris; Sepia and
Pila exhibit bilateral symmetry.
154. Option (c) is correct.
Renin secreted by JGA regulates the glomerular filtration
rate by inducing multi­ hormonal system i.e., RAAS
(Renin Angiotensin-Aldosterone system). Activation of
this system increases the reabsorption rate of sodium
(Na+) and water, making the urine more concentrated.
Alcohol and Caffeine decreases vasopressin level which
lowers reabsorption of water thus making urine more
dilute. ANF causes vasodilation and acts as check on
RAAS.
155. Option (c) is correct.
Pneumonia, cholera, and typhoid are bacterial diseases
that can be cured using antibiotics. The common cold
is caused by Rhinovirus and cannot be treated using
antibiotics.
156. Option (d) is correct.
The terga, sterna, and pleura are chitinous plates that
cover the cockroach body. The arthrodial membranes join
these three.
157. Option (b) is correct.
After successful fertilization, the ruptured Graafian
follicle gets converted into corpus luteum. It chiefly
secrets progesterone.
158. Option (a) is correct.
Increase in Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium
with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby
remove the masking of active sites for myosin.
159. Option (a) is correct.
Forceful expiration after forceful inspiration is defined as
vital capacity
VC = TV + IRV + ERV
= [500 + 3000 + 1100] ml = 4600 ml
160. Option (b) is correct.
A complete stoppage of heart function is called cardiac
arrest. Inadequate blood supply to the body possibly due
to a defect in the heart valve is called heart failure.
161. Option (b) is correct.
The body has a meshwork of cells internal cavities
lined with food filtering flagellated cells and indirect
development is the characteristic of the phylum Porifera.
Poriferans are commonly called sponges.
These are multicellular organisms which are sessile/
sedentary in nature.
Most of them are marine while a few are freshwater
forms.
The body is cylindrical, asymmetrical, or has radial
symmetry.
162. Option (a) is correct.
Amniocentesis is used to test for the presence of certain
genetic disorders.
163. Option (d) is correct.
Due to mutation.
164. Option (b) is correct.
Thyroid hormones are iodothyronine.
165. Option (b) is correct.
The cornea is extremely sensitive to pain.
166. Option (c) is correct.
The eggs of the parasite are excreted along with the faeces
of infected persons which contaminate soil, water, plants,
etc. A healthy person acquires this infection through
contaminated water, vegetables, fruits, etc.
167. Option (b) is correct.
Red muscles are skeletal muscles that are rich in
capillaries, myoglobin, and mitochondria. Capillaries are
very small blood vessels that deliver oxygenated blood
to the muscles. This oxygen is taken up by a protein
called myoglobin. The myoglobin then helps provide the
oxygen to the mitochondria, the sort of power plant of the
cell. They use oxygen, among other things, to produce a
lot of energy.
168. Option (c) is correct.
Aldosterone regulates the homeostasis of sodium and
potassium ions whereas the remain­ ing hormones are
involved in sugar metabolism.
169. Option (b) is correct.
Fact.
170. Option (b) is correct.
Periodic abstinence involves avoiding coitus 4 days before
and 3 days after ovulation.
46
171. Option (b) is correct.
Mumps, measles, pneumonia (viral or bacterial or
fungal), chickenpox, smallpox, dengue, chikungunya,
and Hepatitis are viral diseases.
172. Option (c) is correct.
Both parents should be heterozygous for blood groups ‘A’
and ‘B’ to have a child with blood group ‘O’.
[ → IAI0 , → IBI0 ]
173. Option (d) is correct.
Pteropus is viviparous and Ornithorhynchus is oviparous.
Garden lizard has three-chambered heart and crocodile
has a four-chambered heart. Ascaris and Ancylostoma have
pseudo segmentation. Sea horse and flying fish are cold-
blooded or poikilothermic animals.
174. Option (a) is correct.
Oxytocin is called Birth Hormone as it causes the
contraction of smooth muscles of the uterus leading to
the birth of the child.
175. Option (d) is correct.
Parturition is triggered by oxytocin which initiates
uterine contractions. Prostaglandins are produced in
response to oxytocin which is effective in causing uterine
contractions at times. Oestrogen, progesterone level
marks the beginning of parturition. Prolactin hormone is
responsible for milk secretion at the end of pregnancy.
176. Option (a) is correct.
Explanation: Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which
alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory
surface is decreased.
Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due
to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
177. Option (b) is correct.
Maximum reabsorption of electrolytes and water occurs
in PCT.
178. Option (b) is correct.
The Obturator foramen is the largest foramen of the
skeleton but is closed by a fibrous membrane. It is formed
by ischium and pubis.
179. Option (b) is correct.
After the production of ADH in the cell bodies of
neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus, it is transported
axonally to neurohypophysis (posterior pituitary) where
they are stored and released.
180. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Thromboplastin, helps in the formation
of enzyme prothrombinase. This enzyme inactivates
heparin and it also converts inactive prothrombin into its
active thrombin.
Thromboplastin → Prothrombinase → Prothrombin →
Thrombin
181. Option (b) is correct.
Explanation: Chargaff ’s law = A + G = T + C
Also, the number of adenine is equal to thymine while the
number of guanine is equal to cytosine.
From Chargaff ’s law mentioned above: A and T has 40
nucleotides and G and C has 75 nucleotides. Thus, the total
nucleotides = 75 + 40 = 115
Now these many nucleotides are on one strand. Therefore,
on both the strands it will be 115 × 2 = 230 nucleotides.
182. Option (b) is correct.
The olfactory epithelium is specialized in the nose
involved in smell.
183. Option (d) is correct.
In 1958, Francis Crick proposed the hypothesis
of the central dogma. He proposed that genetic
Transcription
information flows from DNA  RNA
Translation
 Protein
184. Option (a) is correct.
NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the ascending
portion of vasa recta. Similarly, small amount of urea
enter the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s
loop which is transported back to the interstitium by the
collecting tubule. This transport of substances facilitated
by the special arrangement of Henle’s loop and vasa
recta is called the counter current mechanism. This
mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in
the medullary interstitium.
185. Option (c) is correct.
Aldosterone is mineralocorticoid hormone which is
essential for sodium conservation in kidney.
Section B
186. Option (b) is correct.
Industrial melanism is the evolutionary consequence,
here the population of animals living in that particular
industrial region where the environment is soot-
darkened causing the variation in animals by darkening
of body tissues by excessive production of melanin. The
melanization caused for these kind of organism result of
industrialization increases and they are expected that its
member will survive and reproduce. This process takes
place over time and causing generations as a result of
natural selection of lighter more distinct animals by
predators.
187. Option (a) is correct.
Fructose is absorbed by facilitated transport and Na+
by active transport. Absorption of Glyce­ rol and fatty
acids does not occur in the duodenum. Absorption
of Cholesterol and Maltose does not occur in the large
intestine. Glycine (amino acid) and glucose are actively
absorbed in small intestine.
188. Option (c) is correct.
During cellular respiration, the Electron Transport Chain
(ETC) is the stage where the majority of ATP (adenosine
triphosphate) is produced in eukaryotic cells. The Electron
Transport Chain is located in the inner mitochondrial
membrane and is the final stage of aerobic respiration.
189. Option (d) is correct.
Earthworm, leech, and tapeworm are hermaphrodites/
bisexual animals.
190. Option (b) is correct.
E. coli takes 20 minutes to divide. So, after 60 minutes,
there will be three generations.
At time = 0, there is only 1 light strand.
After 20 minutes, the first generation will be formed. It
will have all the hybrid strands which means all the new
DNA will be intermediate.
After 40 minutes, we will have a second generation. In
this half of the DNA will be hybrid strand and the other
half will be light strand. 50% of the DNA is 14N labeled
and 50% of the DNA is 15N labeled.
After 60 minutes, we will have a third-generation having
75% of the DNA as 15N labeled and 25% of the DNA as 14N
labeled. The exact number of DNA molecules that contain
the 14N after three replications will be 2.
191. Option (b) is correct.
Fact.
192. Option (b) is correct.
Spermatogonia are diploid germ cells of seminiferous
tubules that undergo mitosis to form the primary
spermatocytes. The spermatid, second polar body and
secondary oocyte are haploid.
193. Option (c) is correct.
The chromosomal theory of sex determination was given
by two scientists, namely Nettie Stevens and Edmund
Beecher Wilson, inde­pendently in the same year. They
named X and Y chromosomes sex chromosomes or
MOCK TEST PAPER - 2
allosomes and other chromosomes which have no
relation with the sex and contain genes are named
autosomes. They also discovered that males have XY and
females have XX sex chromosomes.
194. Option (b) is correct.
Cistron is a segment of DNA that codes for a specific
polypeptide for the synthesis of RNA or protein. Cistron is
an alternative term for a gene.
195. Option (b) is correct.
Industrial melanism observed in moth, Biston bitularia
show directional selection as there is an increase in
darker forms of the peppered moth (Biston betularia) that
occurred in industrial areas. In directional selection, the
population changes towards one particular direction.
196. Option (c) is correct.
According to one of the observations of the ‘Theory
of Natural selection’, members of a population vary
extensively in their characteristics, i.e., no two members
of a population are exactly alike even though they look
superficially similar.
197. Option (a) is correct.
Polyploidy occurs when there is failure of cytokinesis after
telophase stage of cell division resulting in an increase in
a whole set of chromosomes in an organism.
Other statements can be corrected as -
Autopolyploidy is the containment of multiple
chromosome sets derived from same species.
Allopolyploidy is the containment of multiple
47
chromosome sets derived from different species.
Aneuploidy is the presence of abnormal number of
chromosomes in a cell.
198. Option (a) is correct.
Frederick Griffith observed that when the bacteria
Streptococcus pneumonia were grown on a culture plate,
some of them produce S-type virulent colonies, while
others form R-type colonies that are non-virulent. Thus,
when the mice were infected with the R-strain they did
not develop pneumonia and they lived.
R-strain bacteria (non-virulent) → Injected into mice →
Mice lived.
199. Option (c) is correct.
Louis Pasteur 1860 rejected the theory of spontaneous
generation which states that life originated from non-
living matter automatically. But Pasteur disproved this
theory and demonstrated that life came from pre-existing
life.
200. Option (d) is correct.
Out of the given insects, only three, i.e., ants, honeybees
and wasps shows haploid-diploid method of sex-
determination. In these insects, males are haploid which
develop from unfertilized eggs of females. Whereas,
females are diploid which develop from fertilized
eggs. Therefore, in them sex-determination is referred
as haploid-diploid and it is usually observed in
Hymenopteran species.
