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G3_English 1 [ Contd... L
Two bodies of mass m and 9m are placed at
« distance 2, The gravitational potential on
the line joining the bodies where the
gravitational field equals zero, will be
(G= gravitational constant) >
qr 2am 888
@) - ay
2 In hydrogen spectrum, the shortest
wavelength in the Balmer series is ».. The
shortest wavelength in the Bracket series is :
(1 162. (2), 2%
(3) 4% (4) 9%
3 Light travels a distance x in ti
.
in
and 10x in time ¢
medium, What i
medium?
@ soi)
®
(4) sin ‘Geer
@) sin (33)
4
4 The magnetic energy stored in an inductor
of inductance 4 yH carrying a current of 2 A
i
OY Spd Q 4uI
(3y 4m (4) &ms
G3_English |
I mount x enery egret form 2 s25p
jebble:of radius 2 exw fiom. somp action
is nearly : (surface tension of soap solution
= 003 N mr!)
(1) 50.1043
2) 30.16*10-4T
(3); 5,06x10-45 "
(4) 3.011043
6 The potential energy of a long spring when
stretched by 2 em is U. If the spring is.
stretched by 8 cm, potential energy stored
in it will be :
(@) 16u @ ww
@) 40 2 (4 8U
7 A football planer isNgoving southward and
suddenly with the same speed
force that acts on
8 The ratio of frequencies of fundamental
harmonic produced by an open pipe to that
of closed pipe having the same length is =
@y 3: Q) 1:2
@) 2:1 @) 1:3
9 The magnitude and direction of the current
in the following circuit is
20 Vv SV 10
A B
D
72
1.3 A from B to A through E
0.2 A from B to A through E
0.5 A from 4 to B through E
QQ)
Q).
GY
4) 3A from A to B through &
| Contd... 10
ut
12
13
14
‘an ac source is connected 10 a capacitor ¢
Due to decrease in its operating frequency :
(1) capacitive reactance remains constant
(2) capacitive reactance decreases.
(3) displacement current inereases.
@ displacement current decreases,
‘The errors in the measurement which arise
due to unpredictable fluctuations in
temperature and voltage supply are :
(2) Random errors
(2) Instrumental errors
(3) Personal errors
(4) Least count errors
The angular acceleration of a body, moving
along the circumference of a circle, is :
(1) along the axis of rotation
(2) along the radius, away from centre
(3) along the radius towards the centre
(4) along the tangent to its position
‘A vehicle travels half the distance with speed
» and the remaining distance with speed
20. Its average speed is:
38
(wD re (2)
20 40
o> Oo;
If the galvanometer G does not show any
deflection in the circuit shown, the value of
15
16
7
18
Ris given by : 19
4002 ©
+
lov Bi av
<
(1) 4000 (2) 2002
@) soa (a) 1000"
3
G3 English |
Resistance of a carbon resistor determined
from colour codes is (22000 15%) 0. The
colour of third band must be :
(2) Red
(4) Orange
(1) Yellow
(3) Green
A Camot engine has an efficiency of 50%
when its source is at a temperature 327° C
The temperature of the sink is :
(1) 200° c Q) 27°C
QB) 1s°c (4) 100° c
The net magnetic flux through any closed
surface is :
(1) Negative
(3) Positive
2) Zero
Infinity
A full wave rectifier circuit consists of two
p-n junction diodes, a centre-tapped
transformer, capacitor and a load resistance.
Which of these components remove the ac
ripple from the rectified output?
(1) Load resistance
(2) A centre-tapped transformer
(3)_p-n junction diodes
(4) Capacitor
The minimum wavelength of X-rays
produced by an electron accelerated through
‘a potential difference of V -volts is
proportional to:
a)? ¥ QW
1
@) OW
[ Contd... 20
21
2
23
‘The temperature of a gas is -S0° C. To what
temperature the gas should be heated so that
the mms speed is increased by 3 times?
() 223K 2 669°C
(3) 3295°C (4) 3097 K
In a series LCR circuit, the inductance Lis
10 mH, capacitance C is 1 uP and resistance
Ris 100.22. The frequency at which resonance
occurs is :
(1) 159 kHz 2) 15.9 rad/s
(@) 15.9kHz — (4) ‘1.59 rad/s
‘A 12V, 60 W lamp is connected to the
secondary of a step down transformer, whose
primary is connected to ac mains of 220 V.
‘Assuming the transformer to be ideal, what
is the current in the primary winding?
(1) 037A (2) 027A
@ 27A (4) 3.74
The work functions of Caesium (Cs),
Potassium (K) and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV,
230eV and 2.75 eV respectively. If incident
electromagnetic radiation has an incident
energy of 220eV, which of these
photosensitive surfaces may emit
Photoelectrons?
(1) Na only
2) Cs omy
(3) Both Na and K
@ K only
24
25
26
27
28
G3_English |
placed at an angle of
lectric dipole is
Paerieaiet of intensity
30° with an electric field
2x105N C7, It experiences a torque equal to
4 Nm. Calculate the magnitude of chase
on the dipole, if the dipole length is 2 em.
(1) 2 mC (2) 8 mC
@) 6mC (4) 4mC
tromagnetic wave travelling in
Ina plane elect See
i I
free space, the electric fie
oscillates sinusoidally at 2 frequency of
20x10" Hz and amplitude 48 Vm! Then the
gnetic field is:
i ‘lating ma;
amplitade of oscillating magnetic Ut i
(Speed of light in free space =
(1) 1.6%107°T @Q) 1.6x10°°T.
@G) 16x10 (4) 16107
‘A metal wire has mass (0.4 + 0.002) g, radius
(030.001) mm and length (50.02) em.
The maximum possible percentage error in
the measurement of density will nearly be:
(D> 14% * ) 1.2%
3) 13% (4) 1.6%
The half life of a radioactive substance is
20 minutes. In how much time, the activity
‘of substance drops to (5)! of its initial
value?
(1) 80 minutes (2) 20 minutes
3) 40 minutes (4) 60 minutes
The ratio of radius of gyration of a solid
sphere of mass M and radius R about its
own axis to the radius of gyration of the
thin hollow sphere of same mass and radius
about its axis is :
(1) 5:2 Q) 3:5
@)Si39 ay a5
[ Contd... The equivalent capacitance of the systein
29 yn in the following circuit is :
3nF
A it
3yF
(1) 9HF
@) 3HF
@) 2uF
@) our
30 For Young’s double slit experiment, two
statements are given below:
Statement I : If screen is moved away from
the plane of slits, angular separation of the
fringes remains constant.
Statement Il: If the monochromatic source
is replaced by another monochromatic source
of larger wavelength, the angular separation
of fringes decreases.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement I
is true.
Both Statement I and Statement II
are true.
Both Statement I and Statement IT
are false.
@
@)
@)
Statement I is true but Statement II
is false.
31 A bullet is fired from a gun at the speed of
280 ms! in the direction 30° above the
horizontal. The maximum height attained by
the bullet is (g=9.8m s, sin 30°=0.5) ¢
(1) 3000 m
(3) 2000 m
(2) 2800 m
(4) 1000 m
G3_English |
32
33
34
35
Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Photovoltaic devices can
convert optical radiation into electricity.
Statement I : Zener diode is designed to
operate under reverse bias in breakdown
region.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II
are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but
Statement I is incorrect.
@
8)
®
The venturi-meter works on :
(1) The principle of perpendicular axes
(2) Huygen’s principle
(3) Beroulli’s principle
(4) The principle of parallel axes
If 2 -d8=0 over a surface, then :
(1) the electric field inside the surface is
necessarily uniform.
the number of flux lines entering the
surface must be equal to the number of
flux lines leaving it.
the magnitude of electric field on the
surface is constant.
(4) all the charges must necessarily be
inside the surface,
2)
GB)
Let a wire be suspended from the ceiling
(rigid support) and stretched by a weight 17
attached at its free end. The longitudinal
stress at any point of cross-sectional area 4
of the wire is :
(1) Zero
@G) W/4
(2) 2W/A
@) wpa
[ Contd... 36
37
38
A bullet from a gun is fired on a rectangular | 39
wooden block with velocity 7. When bullet
travels 24 cm through the block along its
length horizontally, velocity of bullet
becomes. ; Then it further penetrates into
the block in the same direction before
coming to rest exactly at the other end of
the block. The total length of the block is
(1) 30 em 2 27cm
@) 2%4an (4) 28 om
40
A horizontal bridge is built across a river.
‘A student standing on the bridge throws a
small ball vertically upwards with a velocity
4ms-!. The ball strikes the water surface
after 4s. The height of bridge above water
surface is (Take g=10ms™) :
(1) 68m Q) Som 41
@) 60m (4) 64m
A very long conducting wire is bent in a
semi-circular shape from 4 to B as shown in
figure. The magnetic field at point P for
steady current configuration is given by :
i>
zoom A 2
bof 2 .
9-2] piel noe og
43
(2) #0 pointed into the
FF Pointed into the page
igh
er Pointed away from the page
byl],
=| Pointed away from page
The net impedance of circuit (as shown in
figure) will be :
“Sao v, 50 He
a) 252 Q) 10v22
@) 15a (4 sy¥5Q
The radius of inner most orbit of hydrogen
atom is 5.3x107!! m. What is the radius of
third allowed orbit of hydrogen atom?
(y 477A (2) 053A
G) 1.06A (159A
A satellite is orbiting just above the surface
of the earth with period 7. If d is the density
of the earth and G is the universal constant
of gravitation, the quantity 4 represents :
@ @ rT
Br @)
The resistance of platinum wire at 0°C is
2Q and 68Q at 80°C. The temperature
coefficient of resistance of the wire is:
(1) 3x10-F °c! 2) 3x10-4 ec
@G) 3x103 Cl 3x10-2 °C
Calculate the maximum acceleration of a
moving car so that a body lying on the floor
of the car remains stationary. The coefficient
of static friction between the body and the
floor is 0.15 (g= 10m s),
Q) soms? Q)
@) (4)
Lams?
150ms 15ms?
[ Conte 10 resistors, each of resistance R are
connected in series to a battery of emf £
ghd negligible internal resistance. Then those
are connected in parallel to the same battery,
the current is increased n times, The value
a
of nis:
a) 1000 (2) 10,
@ 100 @1
4g In the figure shown here, what is the
equivalent focal length of the combination
of lenses (Assume that all layers are thin)?
n=15
Ry= 200m
ny =1.6—
(1) -50 em (2) 40 cm
G) -40 cm (4) -100 em
46 Two thin lenses are of same focal lengths
(A), but one is convex and the other one is
concave. When they are placed in contact
with each other, the equivalent focal length
of the combination will be :
(1) Anfinite (2) Zero
@) 4/4 @ sp
47 The x-t graph of a particle performing simple
harmonic motion is shown in the figure. The
acceleration of the particle at 1=2 s is :
2 :
@) -Zms? @ Em?
2 eo
@ -East @ Feme
G3_English |
49
50
An electric dipole is placed as shown in the
figure.
Sm P
0
Pe Pe
~9* Fon? Tom? *4
‘The electric potential (in 10? V) at point P
due to the dipole is (ey= permittivity of free
space and coo :
a () Q) (Zax
@) (z)ax (4) ($)ax
For the following logic circuit, the truth table
is:
@Maspy QaaByr
oo°0 B29 3
o1 0 ort
iL? ¢ :
raid 11 0
@4aBY ay 4 et
0 0 0, oot
out oro
Toot rot
Proud 11 0
‘A wire carrying a current along the positive
‘x-axis has length L. It is kept in a magnetic
field B=(2)+3)-42) T. The magnitude of
the magnetic force acting on the wire is :
a) Bu Q2) 31
@) un (4) SIL
{ Contd... 52
53
55
G3_English |
In Lassaigne’s extract of an organic
Compound, both nitrogen and sulphur are
Present, which gives blood red colour with
Fe¥ due to the formation of
Q) [Fe(scn)]*
@) Fe,[Fe(cn), ], “#10
(3) NaSCN
(4) [Fe(cN), Nos]
‘The conductivity of centimolar:solution of
KCI at 25°C is 0.0210 ohm7! om! and the
resistance of the cell containing:the solution
at 25°C is 60 ohm, The value of cell constant
is -
(1) 3.34 emt
(3) 3.28 cm!
(2) 134 om!
(4) 1.26 em=! *
Amongst the following, the total number of
species NOT having eight electrons around
central atom in its outer most shell, is
NH;, AICI;, BeCl,, CCl,, PCls
ai @ 3
@) 2 @ 4
Amongst the given options which of the
following molecules / ion acts as a Lewis
acid?
(1) OH
@G) H,0
@) NH,
(@ BF;
Which of the following reactions will NOT
give primary amine as the product?
(@Liall,
_ @) CH,CONH, rie Product
(2) CH, CONH, —B2/KOH , Product
(@ CH,CN GUAM, Prodiict
(AZ0e
4) CH,NC—OLAMs Product
(i) H30@
56
87
58
59
60
The number of bonds, 7 bonds and long
pair of electrons in pyridine, respectively are,
(1) 12,2,1 @Q) 11,20
@) 12, 3,0 (@) U,3,1
‘A compound is formed by two elements
‘Aand B, The clement B forms cubic close
packed structure and atoms of A occupy
1/3 of tetrahedral voids. If the formula of
the compound is A,B,, then the value of
x+y is in option
(2
@) 4
(5
@ 3
The element expected to form largest ion to
achieve the nearest noble gas configuration
is:
(1) Na
@) F
@ 0
aN
Weight (g) of two moles of the organic
compound, which is obtained by heating
sodium ethanoate with sodium hydroxide in
presence of calcium oxide is :
() 18 (2) 16
G) 32 (4) 30
Which amongst the following molecules on
polymerization produces neoprene?
CH,
a HC=C-CH=CH,
(@) H,C=CH~-CH=CH,
cl
) H,C=C-CH=cH,
(4) -H,C=CH-C=CH
[ Contd... iomoleptie complex fom the following
complexes 15 * A
fpr Triamminetriaguachromium (Il)
chloride
@) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (IID)
@) Diamminechloridonitrito - N -
platinum (ID)
(4) Pentaamminecarbonatocobalt (I11)
chloride
gq Taking stability as the factor, which one of
the following represents correct
relationship?
(i) TH > TH;
(3) Inf; > Int
Q) TIC > TICI
(4) AICI > AICI,
63. Identify the product in the following reaction:
N2cl
i) CuBr) /HBr
ji) Mg/dry eth
Gi) Mg/ary ether, product
(iii) HO
on on
a QO @ O
Br
MgBr
0
64 The right option for the mass of COz
produced by heating 20g of 20% pure
limestone is (Atomic mass of Ca = 40)
4)
[caco, 200K ca0+€0, |
(2) 112g
(4) 2.648
OO 1328
(G) 1.76¢
G3_English |
66
67
Given“below are two statements : one is
Jabelléd as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : Helium is used to dilute
oxygen in diving apparatus,
Reasons R : Helium has high solubility
in 3.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below.
(1) Avis false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
Both A and R are true and R is NOT
the correct explanation of A.
(4) Ais true but
GB)
R is false.
For a certain reaction, the rate = k[A]’[B].
when the initial concentration of A is tripled
keeping concentration of B constant, the
initial rate would
(1) increase by a factor of three.
Q
QB)
oy
decrease by a factor of nine.
increase by a factor of six.
inerease by a factor of nine.
Which one is an example of heterogenous
catalysis?
(1. Combination between dinitrogen and
dihydrogen to form ammonia in the
presence of finely divided iron.
(2) Oxidation of sulphur dioxide into sulphur
trioxide in the presence of oxides of
nitrogen.
(3) Hydrolysis of sugar catalysed by H*
ions.
(4) Decomposition of ozone in presence of
nitrogen monoxide.
| Contd... 6 F
8 Which amongst the following options is
correct graphical representation of Boyle’s
Law?
» My,
T %
g
@
Vyevp2¥y
tT
T T4>T)>T
P
@
Ty
‘Tt
[ee
v—
fa
Ty
7 A
P
@ TTT,
KX
t ee
P
A
@ 5
G3_English |
10
69 Match List -1 with List - 1:
70
List -1 List -
A. Coke 1, Carbon atoms are
sp? hybridised.
B. Diamond —-.“Used asa dry
lubricant
C. fullerene ‘i. Used as @
reducing agent
D. Graphite Iv. Cage like
molecules
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) Adit, BAV, C1, DAT
(2) Adi, BAY, C+, D-II
@) AAV, B+, C-l, Dll
(4) AGI, BL, CV, Dl
Select the correct statements from the
following :
‘A. Atoms of all elements are composed of
two fundamental particles.
‘The mass of the electron is
B.
9.10939 x 1073! kg
C. All the isotopes of a given element show
same chemical properties.
D. Protons and electrons are collectively
known as nucleons.
E. Dalton’s atomic theory, regarded the
atom as an ultimate particle of matter.
Choose the eorreet answer from the options
given below :
(DB, C and E only
(2) A, Band C only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A and E only
[ Contd... ger the following reaction and identi
duct (P) ~
4-CH-CH,
1
consi
the Pro’
Hs act
CH, OH
3 -Methylbutan—2—ol
a
Her,
Product (P)
cH,
CH, -C- CH, Br
én,
Br
cH -€- CH, -CH,
cn,
CH, CH=CH -CH,
CH, CH-CH-CH,
CH, Br
Some tranquilizers are listed below. Which
one from the following belongs to
barbiturates?
(1) Veronal (2) Chlordiazepoxide
(3) Meprobamate (4) Valium
Which of the following statements are NOT
correct?
Hydrogen is used to reduce heavy metal
A.
oxides to metals.
B. Heavy water is used to study reaction
mechanism.
C. Hydrogen is used to make saturated fats
from oils. :
D. The H-H bond dissociation enthalpy is
to a single bond
of any element.
yetals that
lowest as compared
between two atoms
E. Hydrogen reduces oxides of m
are more active than iron.
Choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below :
() A,B,C only @) BC D, E only
G) BDonly 4) D»Bony
©3 English |
Identify product (A) in the following
reaction:
4
°
Ou
G)
OH
OH
I
CH
‘CH,OH
The correct order of energies of molecular
orbitals of N, molecule, is :
15
(1) ols 2Fe0 + CO,
(3) FeO+CO+ Fe + CO,
(4) C+C0, +2c0
Identify the major product obtained in the
following reaction :
oO
4 +2[As(NH5), | +
°
3-oH—4+ major product
Ou OH
(2)
Oe °C
:00~
oO oO
On "OL
‘COT
90 Which amongst the following options is the
correct relation between change in enthalpy
and change in internal energy?
(1) AH+AU=AnR
Q) AH=AU —an,RT
G) AH=AU + An, RT
(@ AH~AU
AnRT
| Contd... Pumice stone is an example of - is
(1) foam @) sol
@) gel (4) solid sol
a
Which of the following statements are
INCORRECT?
A. All the transition metals except
scandium form MO oxides which are
ionic.
\
The highest oxidatior’ number
corresponding to the group number in
transition metal oxides is attained in
$00, to Mn,07.
C. Basic character increases from V0,
V04 to V20s.
V0, dissolves in acids to give vO}
salts.
E. C10 is basic but Cr,0, is amphoteric.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) Band C only
(2) Aand E only
(> Band D only
(4) C and D only
On balancing the given redox reaction,
a Cr,02- + bSO} (aq) +c H* (aq) —>
2a Cr** (aq) + bSOF (aq) +5 H,0()
the coefficients a, b and c are found to be,
94
95
96
respectively -
Q) 81,3 @) 1,3,8
G) 3,81 (4) 1, 8,3
G3_English |
15
What fraction of one edge centred octahedral
void lies in one unit cell of fec?
Op @
@ 4 @ +
Which complex compound is most stable?
a) [co(nt),} {80,),
2) [Co(NH,),(H20)B*|(No,),
> [co(w,),(N0,), |
(4) [eocl,(en), | No,
Which amongst the following will be most
readily dehydrated under acidic conditions ?
NO,
) AAY
on
NO,
o Dh,
OH OH
Dy awa
Nay
) AN
On
[ Contd... 99 The equilibrium concentrations of the species
re 2, 3,10
0 K, AG?
97 Given below are two statements
: ; e2ctDal
in the veaction A+B C+D
Statement I: The nutrient deficient water
bodies lead to eutrophication and 6 mol L~!, respectively at 30
ee ol K)
Statement II :"Eutrophication leads to for the reaction i (R= 2 eal / m™
decrease in the level of oxygen in the water
bodies. (1) - 13,73 cal
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
(2) 1372.60 cal
below : (3) - 137.26 cal
(1) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true. (4) — 1381.80 cal
(2) Both Statement I and Statement I
oe ine 100 Match List - 1 with List - If:
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II .
are false. List-I(Oxoacids _List - 1! (Bonds)
(4) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is false. of Sulphur)
A, Peroxodisul- I, TwoS-OH,FourS=O,
98 Identify the final product [D] obtained in
phuric acid One S-O-S
the following sequence of reactions.
CH CHO sot [A] 224, [3] B. Sulphuricacid I. Two.S-OH, One S=O
C. Pyrosulphuric III. Two S-OH, Four S=Q,
Br 2s
e T acid One $-0-0-5 >
ES (Cl er 2] ;
D. Sulphurous acid IV. Two S-OH, Two S=O.
_—
() HC=C°Na Choose the eorreet answer from the options
given below :
(2) Cr
Q) AUL B-AV, Ct, D-t
6 Q) Ad, Ball, Cal, D-ty
O C G) Ad, B-IV, C+ D-II
4) CH,
“WH @ Ad, Ball, Cay, pay
G3_English | :
6
{ Conta... y
No. 101 to 135)
(Botany = No. 198 ea
101 What is the role of RNA polymerase Tl in
the process of transcription in Eukaryotes?
(1) Yranscription of only snRNAs
(2) Transcription of rRNAs (28S, 18S and
5.88)
(3) Transcription of tRNA, 5 stRNA and
snRNA
(4) Transcription of precursor of mRNA
102 Movement and accumulation of ions across
a membrane against their concentration
gradient can be explained by
(1) Active Transport
(2) Osmosis
3) Facilitated Diffusion
(4) Passive Transport
103 Upon exposure to UV radiation, DNA
stained with ethidium bromide will show
(1) Bright orange colour
(2) Bright red colour
(3) Bright blue colour
(4) Bright yellow colour
104 The thickness of ozone in a column of air in
the atmosphere is measured in terms of :
(1) Kilobase (2) Dobson units
(3) Decibels (4) Decameter
105 Among eukaryotes, replication of DNA takes
place in -
(1) Gy phase
2) M phase
(3 S phase
(4) G, phase
106 Spraying of which of the following
phytohormone on juvenile conifers helps in
hastening the maturity period, that leads to
early seed production?
(1) Abscisic Acid
(2) Indole-3-butyric Acid
(3° Gibberellic Acid
(4) Zeatin
G3_English |
107
108
109
110
Giyen below are two statements =
Statement I: The forces generated by
transpiration can lift a xylem-sized column
of water over 130 meters height.
Statement II: Transpiration cools leaf
surfaces sometimes 10 to 15 degrees, by
evaporative cooling,
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct,
Both Statement I and Statement II
are correct.
Both Statement I and Statement I
are incorrect.
Statement I is correct but
Statement IT is incorrect.
Q)
@)
4
The historic Convention on Biological
Diversity. “The Earth Summit’ was held in
Rio de Jatieiro in the year :
(y 2002> Q) 1985
(3) 1992 (4) 1986
Which micronutrient is required for splitting
of water molecule during photosynthesis?
(1) copper (2) manganese
(3) molybdenum (4) magnesium
Given below are two statements : One is
labelled as, Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : ATP is used at two steps in
glycolysis.
Reason R : First ATP is used in converting
glucose into glucose-6-phosphate and second
ATP is used in conversion of fructose-6-
phosphate ‘into fructose-1-6-diphosphate,
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below : :
(1) A is false but R is true. an
2) Both A as ey ae
t explanatiot :
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A-
(4) A is true but R is false.
is the
[ Contd... 111 Large, colourful, fragrant flowers with nectar
are seen in:
(1) wind pollinated plants
(2° insect pollinated plants
(3) bird pollinated plants
(4) bat pollinated plants
112 Given below are two statements : One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R :
Assertion A : The first stage of ‘gametophyte
in the life cycle of moss is protonema stage.
Reason R : Protonema develops directly
from spores produced in capsule.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) A is not correct but R is correct.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A.
(4) Ais correct but R is not correct.
113 Which of the following stages of meiosis
involves division of centromere?
(1) Telophase_ (2) Metaphase I
(3) Metaphase IT (4) Anaphase II
In angiosperm, the haploid, diploid and
triploid structures of a fertilized embryo sac
sequentially are :
(1) Synergids, antipodals and Polar nuclei
(2) Synergids, Primary endosperm nucleus
and zygote
Antipodals, synergids, and primary
endosperm nucleus
Synergids. Zygote and Primary
endosperm nucleus
m4
@)
(*
4115 Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
(1) Certain important expressed genes,
(2) Alll genes that are expressed as RNA.
(3) All genes that are expressed as proteins,
(4) All genes whether expressed or
unexpressed.
:3_English |
6
7
8
9
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Endarch and exarch are the
terms often used for describing the position
of secondary xylem in the plant body.
Statement IT: Exarch condition is the most
common feature of the root system.
In the light of the above statements, choos
the correct answer from the options give
below :
(1) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement IT
are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement IT
are false
(4) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is false.
What is the function of tassels in the com
cob? -
(1) To protect seeds
(2) To attract insects %
(3) To trap pollen grains
(4) To disperse pollen grains
The process of appearance of recombination
nodules occurs at which sub stage of
prophase I in meiosis?
(1) Diakinesis (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to
(1) more than two genes affecting a single
character,
Presence of several alleles of a single
gene controlling a single crossover.
Presence of two alleles, each of the two
genes controlling a single trait,
a single gene affecting multiple
Phenotypic expression.
Q)
@)
4)
[ Contd... 120 Wentify the eorreet statements :
” Detrivores perform fragmentation.
B.
The humus is further degraded by some
microbes during mineralization.
C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go
down into the soil and get precipitated
by a process called leaching.
D. The detritus food chain begins with
living organisms.
£. Earthworms break down detritus into
smaller particles by a process called
catabolism.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) D.E,Aonly @) A, B,C only
() B.C, Donly (4. C, D, E only
121 Cellulose does not form blue colour with
Todine because
(1) Itbreakes down when iodine reacts with
it
(2) Itis a disaccharide.
() Ibis a helical molecule.
(4) Itdoes not contain complex helices and
hence cannot hold iodine molecules.
122 In the equation
GPP is Gross Primary Productivity
NPP is Net Primary Productivity
R here is
(1) Reproductive allocation
(2) Photosynthetically active radiation
(3) Respiratory quotient
(4) Respiratory loss
123 How many ATP and NADPH) are required
for the synthesis of one molecule of Glucose
during Calvin cycle?
(1) 18 ATP and 16 NADPH)
(2) 12 ATP and 12 NADPH
@ 18 ATP and 12 NADPH
(4) 12 ATP and 16 NADPH,
G3_English |
124
125
126
127
123
8
19
In gene gun method used to introduce alien
DNA into host cells, microparticles of
metal are used.
@ Silver
(2) Copper *
(3) Zine
(4) Tungsten or gold
‘Among ‘The Evil Quartet’, which one is
considered the most important cause driving
extinction of species?
(1) Co-extinctions
(2) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(3) Over exploitation for economic gain
(4) Alien species invasions
Given below are two statements : One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R :
‘Assertion A: Late wood has fewer xylary
elements with narrow vessels.
Reason R : Cambium is less active in
winters. ~
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R'is NOT
the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.
Unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic
material was first proposed by
(1) Wilkins and Franklin
(2) Frederick Griffith
() Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
(4) Avery, Macleoid and McCarthy
Frequency of recombination between gene
pairs on same chromosome as a measure of
the distance between genes to map their
position on chromosome, was used for the
first time by
(1) Henking
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(3) Sutton and Boveri
(4) Alfred Sturtevant
[ Contd... ion centre in PS "
maxima at nite in PS TL has an absorption
(1) 780 am
G) 700 nm
© 680 am
(4) 660 nm
130 Ge Fabaceae differs fiom Solanaceae and
Liliaceae. With respect to the stamei: k
out the characteristics specific to family
Fabaceae but not found in Solanaceae or
Liliaceae.
(1) Epiphyllous and Dithecous anthers
(2) Diadelphous and Dithecous anthers
(3) Polyadelphous and epipetalous stamens
(4) Monoadelphous and Monothecous
anthers
In tissue culture experiments, leaf mesophyll
cells are put in a culture medium. to form
callus. This phenomenon may be called as :
(1) Senescence
(2) Differentiation
(3) Dedifferentiation
(4): Development
131
Which hormone promotes internode/petiole
elongation in deep water rice?
() 2,4-D (2) GA;
(3 Kinetin (4) Ethylene
132
During the purification process for
recombinant DNA technology, addition of
chilled ethanol precipitates out
(a) Polysaccharides (2) RNA
(3) DNA (4) Histones
133
Identify the pair of heterosporous
pteridophytes among the following :
(1) Equisetum and Salvinia
(2) Lycopodium and Selaginella
(3) Selaginella and Salvinia
(4) Psilotum and Salvinia
134
ntation is observed in
) China rose, Petunia and Lemon
(2) Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose
Beans and Lupin
@) China r
(4) Tomato, Dianthus and Pea
G3_English | x»
Hotuny 1 Seddon (Qe Ne:
i
136 Given below are two statements | One
labelled as Axwertion A and the etter iy
labelled as Reason R
fined as modified
Assertion A : A flower is de!
shoot wherein the shoot apie! meriate
changes to floral meristem.
Reason R ; Internode of the shoot gels
condensed to produce different Moral
appendages laterally at successive nodes
instead of leaves.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true ant
correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is
the correct explanation of A.
(4) Ais true but R is false.
137 How many different proteins does the
ribosome consist of?
a) 20” @ sv
G) 60 (4 40
id R is the
NOT
138 Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic
bacteria by inhibiting the activity of
(1) Dinitrogenase
(2) Succinie dehydrogenase
@) Amylase
(4) Lipase
139 Match List I with List If :
List I List IT
A. Oxidative I. Citrate A
decarboxylation synthase
B, Glycolysis I. Pyruvate
dehydrogenase
C. Oxidative Ml,
system,
D. IV. EMP pathway
wer from the options
Choose the corree
given below
CD A-t, B-LV, C-IL, D-L
2) A-Ill, B-IV, C-1L, D-L
Q) A BAY, Cl Dell
(4) AGI, Bel, C-I, D-IV
[ Contd... 140. Given below
are two statements :
Statement I : Gause’s ‘Competitive
Exclusion Principle” states that two closely
related species competing for the same
resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and
competitively inferior one will be eliminated
eventually.
Statement II : In general, carnivores are
more adversely affected by competition than
herbivores.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is true. ~
(2) Both Statement I and Statement I
are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement IT
are false.
(4) Statement I is correct but
Statement II is false.
141 Which of the following combinations is
required for chemiosmosis?
(1) proton pump, electron gradient,
NADP synthase
(2) membrane, proton pump,
proton gradient, ATP synthase
(3) membrane, proton pump,
proton gradient, NADP synthase
(4) proton pump, electron gradient,
ATP synthase
142 Given below are two statements : One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
labelled as Reason R :
‘Assertion A: In gymnosperms the
pollen grains are released from the
microsporangium and carried by air currents.
Reason R : Air currents carry the pollen
grains to the mouth of the archegonia where
the male gametes are discharged and pollen
tube is not formed.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below :
(1) A is false but R is true,
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A.
(@ Ais true but R is false.
G3_English |
2
143
144
145
Which one of the following statements is
NOT correct?
(1) The amount of some toxic substances
of industrial waste water increases in
the organisms at successive trophic
levels.
The micro-organisms involved in
biodegradation of organic matter in a
sewage polluted water body consume a
lot of oxygen causing the death of
aquatic organisms.
Algal blooms caused by excess of
organic matter in water improve water
quality and promote fisheries,
Water hyacinth grows abundantly in
eutrophic water bodies and leads to an
imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics
of the water body.
Q)
@)
@)
Which of the following statements are
correct about Klinefelter’s Syndrome?
‘A. This disorder was first described by
Langdon Down (1866).
B, Such an individual has overall
masculine development. However, the
feminine development is also expressed.
C. The affected individual is short statured.
D. Physical, psychomotor and mental
development is retarded.
E. Such individuals are sterile.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) A and E only (2) A and B only
(3) C and D only (4) B and E only
Identify the-correct statements =
‘A. Lenticels are the lens-shaped openings
permitting the exchange of gases.
Bark formed early in the season is called
hard bark.
Bark is a technical term that refers to
all tissues exterior to vascular cambium.
Bark refers to periderm and secondary
phloem.
E, Phellogen is single-layered in thickness.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) B and C only
(2) B, C and E only
(3° A and D only
(4) A,B and D only
B.
c
D.
{ Contd... 146 Match List 1 with List 11:
List 1 List 11
A. M Phase 1. Proteins are
synthesized
B. G)Phase II. Inactive phase
Quiescent ITI. Interval between
stage mitosis and
initiation of DNA
replication
D. G,Phase IV. Equational
division
Choose’the correct answer from the options
given below :
(Q) All, BAV, C4, Da
2) All, BA, C-IV, D4
3) AAV, BAl, C-l, D-II
(AAV, B+, C-H, D-II
147 Match List I with List 1 :
List I List
(Interaction) (Species A and B)
A. Mutualism I +(A), O@)
B, Commensalism Il. ~(A), O(B)
C. Amensalism III. +(A),-(B)
D. Parasitism TV. +(A).+(B)
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
(1) AA, B-l, C-IV, D-IL
(2) AAV, BAL, C-1, D-Ill
G) ATV, B+, Cl, D-Ill
(4) AAV, BAIL, C-, Dl
148 Match List I with List Hi
ist I List rn
A. Cohesion 1. More attraction
Tiquid phas oe
B. Adhesion 11. Mutual attr
among water
molecules
C. Surface lll. Water loss 1?
tension liquid pore :
D. Guttation IV. Attractio®
polar surfaces
Choose the correet answer from the OP!
given below :
149
150
G3_English ]
22
(Ad, B-l, C-IV, D-lll
Q) Ad, BAY, C-1, D-II
G) AAV, B-ll, C-l, D-L
(4) All, BA, C-IV, D-lT
Main steps in the formation of Recombinant
DNA are given below. Arrange these step:
in a correct sequence, ‘
‘A. Insertion of recombinant DNA i
host cell.
Cutting of DNA at specific location by
into the
B.
restriction enzyme.
C. Isolation of desired DNA fragment.
D. Amplification of gene of interest using
PCR. |
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below :
0 BDAC (2) B,C, D,A
G) C.A,B,D (4) C,B,D,A
Match List I with List I :
List I List I
A, Iron 1. Synthesis of auxin
B. Zinc I. Component of
i nitrate reductase
. Boron UL. Activator of catalase
D. Molybdenum IV. Cell elongation and
ciec differentiation
e the correct ver fi i
Coase the correct answer from the options
() Ad, BAY, Cl, D-nt
2) AUlIL, B-ll, Cl, D-Iy
@Q) A-ll, B-l, C-IV, DA
@ AAI, B-lyC-IV, Del
[ Conta..: atch List F with List 1
. rte List IT
(Cells) (Secretion)
‘A. Peptic cells 1. Mucus
B. Goblet cells Il. Bile juice
oxyntic cells III, Proenzyme pepsinogen
D. Hepatic cells IV. HCLand intrinsic factor
for absorption of
vitamin By
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) Adi. BEV, C-l, D-IL
B-Ill, C-II, D-I
Q@) Al
GB) ACL, B-I, C-IIl, D-IV
(4 All, BA, C-IV, DAI
182 Which one of the following common
sexually transmitted diseases is completely
Gurable when detected carly and treated
properly?
(1) HIV Infection (2) Genital herpes
(3) Gonorthoea (4) Hepatitis-B
183 Select the correct group/set of Australian
Marsupials exhibiting adaptive radiation.
(1) Lemur, Anteater, Wolf
(2) Tasmanian wolf, Bobcat,
Marsupial mole
(3) Numbat, Spotted cuscus,
Flying phalanger
Mole, Flying squirrel,
Tasmanian tiger cat
a)
154 Match List 1 with List I.
List List I
A.P-wave I. Beginning of systole
B. Q-wave I. Repolarisation of
ventricles
C. QRScomplex II1. Depolarisation of atria
D. T-wave IV. Depolarisation of
ventricles
Choose the correet answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-l. B-Il, C-Ill, D-IV
Q) A-lll, B-l, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-IIl, C-I, D-I
(4) A-ll, B-IV, C-I, D-Ill
English | -
155
156
157
Match List I with Lint 1
List I List
‘A. Ringworm 1. Haemophilus influenciw
B Filariasis J. Trichophyton
B Malaria TH. Wuchereria bancrofti
D. Pneumonia IV. Plasmodium viveor
‘Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
‘A-Ill, B-ll, C-IV, D-l
) All, Belll, C-AV, DA
‘Acll, B-Ul, C-I, D-IV
@)
(4) All, Bell, C1, DIV
YD
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct
from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra
as the ejaculatory duct.
Statement II: The cavity of the cervix is
called cervical canal which along with vagina
forms birth canal.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I incorrect but Statement IT
is true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement I
are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement 11
are false.
(4) Statement I is correct but
Statement I is false.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: RNA mutates at a faster rate.
Statement II: Viruses having RNA genome
and shorter life span mutate and evolve
faster.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I false but Statement I
is true,
(2) Both Statement I and Statement IT
are true.
Both Statement I and Statement IT
are false.
Statement I is true but
is false.
G)
@) Statemént Ul
[ Contd... 1S8
159
160
161
G3_English |
Raaial syn
phylum.
(1 Echinodermata (2) ‘Ctenophora
(3) Hemichordata (® Coelenterata
metry is NOT fourd in adults of
Given below
as Assertion
Reason R.
Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types:
Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their
relative position in cortex and medulla,
Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have
short loop of Henle whereas, cortical
nephrons have longer loop of Henle.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A is false but R is true.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.
are statements: one is labelled
A and the other is labelled as
Vital capacity of lung is
(1) IRV + ERV + TV
(2) IRV + ERV
(3) IRV + ERV + TV +RV
(4) IRV + ERV + TV - RV
Which of the following are NOT considered
as the part of endomembrane system?
A. Mitochondria B. Endoplasmic
Reticulum,
C. Chloroplasts D. Golgi complex
E. Peroxisomes
Choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(1) A.D and E only
(2) Band D only
(3) A, C and E only
(4) A and D only
24
162
163
164
ei
Mate List 1 with List
bet bist Metosidase
Bef, Transasevlese
. Gene + = -
©. Gene * I. Perm protein
D. Gene *z: Iv. ee the options
Choose the correct answer [F0!
given below:
() Adil, B+. C-1V. D-ll
Q) A, Ba. CAV. D-lil
G) AML Ban, CAV. D-
(4) A-MI, BAY, C-1, D-IL
Match List t with List
List 1 List Il
1. Effect on
7 cardiovascular system
B. Marijuana If, Slow down body function
C. Cocaine If. Painkiller
D. Morphine IV. Interfere with transport of
dopamine :
Choose the correet answer from the option:
given below
(1) Ad, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IE, BAL, C-IV, D-II
G) A-l, B-II, C-II, D-IV
@ AA. BAIL, C-Il, D-L
Match List I with List I.
List I tt
(Type of Joint) (Found between)
A. Cartilaginous 1. Between flat
Joint skull bones
B. Ball and I. Between adjacent
Socket Joint « vertebrae in
vertebral column
C. Fibrous Joint Il, Between carpal
and metacarpal of
thumb
D. Saddle Joint IV. Between
Humerus and
Pectoral girdle
Choose the correct answer i
Chose te ‘et from the options
(1) A-H, B-IV, CAL, D-1
(2) Adil, B-L Cal, Day
G) AAL BAY, Cr Day
@ At, BAY, Can, Day
[ Conta... J) List 1 with List 11.
es eat List It
A. CCK 1. Kidney
B. GIP H. Heart
c. ANF I. Gastric gland
p. ADH IV. Pancreas
Choose the correet answer from the options
given below
() AV, Bell, C-IIl, D-T
Q) ATV. BALL Cl, D-l
(@) Adl, B-ll, C-IV, D-l
(4) Adi, B-V, C-1, D-IL
Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality
(2) Eutrophication refers to increase in
domestic sewage and waste water in
lakes.
(3) Biomagnification refers to increase in
concentration of the toxicant at
successive trophic levels!
(4) Presence of large amount ‘of nutrients
in water restricts ‘Algal Bloom’
167 Match List I with List II.
List I List II
(Interacting (Name of
species) Interaetion)
A. ALeopardanda 1. Competition
Lion in a forest/
grassland
B. ACuckoolaying II Brood
egg ina Crows nest parasitism
C. Fungi androotofa Ill. Mutualism
higher plant in
Mycorrtizae
D. Acattleegretand IV. Commensalism
a Cattle ina field
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) A-Il, B-Ifl, C-1, D-IV.
(2) A-l, B-ll, C-III, D-IV
G3) Al, BAL, C-IV, D-IL
(® AdIll, BAV, C-l, D-IL
G3_English |
168
169
170
25
In which blood corpuscles, the HIV
undergoes replication and produces progeny
viruse
(1) Eosinophils (2) Ty cells
(3) B-lymphocytes (4° Basophils
Match List I with List 11 with respect to
human eye.
List I List IT
A. Fovea —L._ Visible coloured portion
of eye that regulates,
diameter of pupil.
B. Iris I. External layer of eye
formed of dense
connective tissue.
Point of greatest visual
acuity or resolution.
Point where optic nerve
leaves the eyeball and
photoreceptor cells
are absent.
Choose the correet answer from the options
given below:
(1) All, B-l, C-I, D-Iv
(2) ADIL, B-l, C-IV, D-IL
@) AAV, BAL, C-I, D-l
(4) A-l, BAV, C-IIl, D-IL
C. Blind spot TIL
D. Sclera TV.
Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In prokaryotes, the positively
charged DNA is held with some negatively
charged proteins in a region called nucleoid.
Statement HI: In eukaryotes, the negatively
charged DNA is wrapped around the
positively charged histone octamer to form
nucleosome.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement J incorrect but Statement IT
is true. '
Both Statement I and Statement IT
are true.
Both Statement I and Statement If
are false.
Statement I is correct but
Statement II is false.
Q)
QB)
@)
{ Contd... 171 Given below are two statements:
Statement I;
irregular tissue.
igaments are dense
Statement I: Cartilage is dense regular
tissue.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correet answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement I is false but Statement IT
is true,
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II
are true.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement I
are false.
‘Statement I is true but Statement I
is false.
@
172 Which one of the following symbols
represents mating between relatives in
human pedigree analysis?
«(OOo 0—0
-
Which one of the following techniques does
not serve the purpose of early diagnosis of
a disease for its early treatment?
GB (4)
=O
173
(1) Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay
(ELISA) technique
(2) Recombinant DNA Technology
(3) Serum and Urine analysis
(4) Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
technique
G3_English | -
174 Match List 1 with List 1.
List 1 List Mt
A. Taenia 1. Nephridit
B. Paramoectum {, Contractile vacuole
C. Periplaneta {il Flame ©
D. Pheretima _ IV. Urecose Bar
Choose the correct answer from
cay, DAM
(2) A-l, Bell, C-Ill, DIV
(3) A-L, B-IL, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-Iil, B-ll, C-IV. Dl
ents: one i
175 Given below are two statem!
labelled as Assertion A and the other is
on R.
determination is one of the strategies
Reproductive and Child Health Car
Programme.
Reason R: Ban on amniocentesis checks
increasing menace of female foeticide.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A is false but R is true. .
(2) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is NOT
the correct explanation of A.
(4) A is true but R is false.
176 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is
most widely used in thermal power plant. |
Statement II: Electrostatic precipitator in
thermal power plant removes ionising
radiations
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from th
options given below:
(1) Statement I incorrect but Statement ID
is correct,
(2) Both Statement I and Statement I
are correct.
(3) Both Statement 1 and
are incorrect, Statement II
(4) Statement I is correct but
Statement Il is incorrect,
[ Contd... prevented BY:
Pylonic sphincter
Sphincter of Oddi
3) Teo ~ cazeal valve
| Gastro - oesophageal sohincter
Match List I with List .
List I List I
a. Vasectomy Oral method
B. Coins IL Barrier method
interruptus
C. Cervical caps TL S
D. Saheli V
Choose the eorreet answer from
given below:
1) Adv, BH. C-L DAM
2 2) A-Il. B-L. C-IV, D-I
Adi, B-IV, C-. DI
Bull, C-, D-AV
178
surgical method
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