07/06/2023 Code-A

CF+OYMR(P1)

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A) Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance
Chemistry : Solutions
Botany : Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants
Zoology : Human Reproduction

General Instructions :

1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from
Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15.
2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score.
Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks.
3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle.
5. Dark only one circle for each entry.
6. Dark the circle in the space provided only.
7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the
Answer sheet.

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1. If a negative charge is shifted from a low 3. In given circuit diagram, the effective
potential region to a high potential region, capacitance between A and B will be
then electric potential energy
(1) Decreases
(2) Increases
(3) Remains the same
(4) May increase or decrease

2. A capacitor is charge by power source and

then source is removed a dielectric of
dielectric constant (K > 1) introduce between
plates, then charge on capacitor will be?
(1) Increases
(2) Decreases (1) 2 μF
(3) Remain same (2) 3 μF
(4) Information insufficient (3) 4 μF
(4) 1.5 μF

1
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

4. Three charges –Q, Q and –2Q are placed 7. In which of the following state the potential
along a line as shown in the figure. The energy of an electric dipole is maximum?
potential energy of the system is (1)

(2)
(1) −Q
2

π ε0 r

(2) Q
2

4πε0 r

(3) −Q
2

4πε0 r
(3)
(4) Q
2

2πε0 r

5. Two point charge q1 = 2 μC and q2 = –1 μC

are kept at point x = 0 and x = 6 m
respectively. Electric potential will be zero at
the points (4)
(1) x = 1 m and x = 3 m
(2) x = 2 m and x = 9 m
(3) x = 4 m and x = 12 m
(4) x = 5 m and x = 10 m
8. Find the charge stored on 1 μF capacitor in
the circuit shown.
6. A : Potential difference between two points
do not depend on the choice of zero
potential.
R : Potential at a point does not depend on
the choice of zero potential.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (1) 15 μC
explanation of the assertion (2) 45 μC
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) 30 μC
is false
(4) 60 μC
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
9. Electric potential is given by V = x2 y + 3yz +
5zxy. Find out electric field E at point (1, 1,
1).
(1) E⃗ = −7^ ^
i − 9 j − 8k
^

(2) ⃗ ^ ^ ^
E = −2 i − 3 j − 5k

(3) ⃗ ^ ^ ^
E = −7 i + 9 j + k

(4) ⃗ ^ ^ ^
E = +7 i + 9 j + k

10. Positive and negative point charges of equal

a
magnitude are kept at (0, 0, 2 ) and (0,0,
−a

2
) respectively. The work done by the
electric field is when another positive point
charge moved from (–a, 0, 0) to (0, a, 0)
(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) Depends on the path connecting initial
and final position

2
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

11. The distance between two point charges is 16. A proton is placed in an electric field at a
1
made 4 of its initial value. The new potential point having electric potential as 100 V. The
electric potential energy of particle is
energy between them will become
(1) 200 eV
(1) 4 times
(2) 50 eV
(2) 16 times
(3) 150 eV
(3) 1 times
4 (4) 100 eV
(4) 1
times
16

17. The metal sphere of radius R = 3 m carries a

charge due to which potential at its surface
12. Find the magnitude of electric field for the is 3 V. Then charge on the sphere is
equipotential surfaces shown.
(1) 1 nC
(2) 3 nC
(3) 9 nC
(4) 9 × 10–9 nC

18. A uniform electric field of strength 60 V/m

exists in X-Y plane making an angle 120°
with positive x-axis. The potential difference
(1) 25 V/m between points P(–2, 3) and Q(4,1) is given
by
(2) 50 V/m –
–
(1) 60(3 + √3)V
(3) 25√2V/m –
(2) 30(3 + √3)∨
–
(4) 50√2V/m –
(3) −30(3 + √3)∨
–
(4) −60(3 + √3)V
13. Find the value of energy stored in a
capacitor which is connected to 20 V battery
and whose capacitance is 20 μF. 19. A charged ring of radius R, having charge
(1) 8000 μJ density λ. The electric potential at a point at
(2) 1000 μJ distance R away from centre on the axis of
the ring is
(3) 2000 μJ
(1) λ
(4) 4000 μJ 8ε0

(2) λ

√2ε0
14. A : Capacitance of earth is infinite.
R : Capacitance of a material decreases as (3) λ

4ε0
charge on the capacitor increases.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (4) λ

2√2ε0
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but 20. An electron is accelerated from rest through
the reason is not the correct a potential difference of 200 V. Its final
explanation of the assertion kinetic energy is
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (1) 100 eV
is false (2) 200 eV
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) 50 eV
statements (4) 400 eV

15. A capacitor of capacitance 1 μF is charged 21. The equipotential surface for the infinite
to 30 V and then battery is disconnected. If it uniform line charge distribution will be
is connected across a 2 μF capacitor, the
(1) Spherical
energy lost by the system is
(2) Cylindrical
(1) 300 μJ
(3) Parabolic
(2) 450 μJ
(4) Circular
(3) 100 μJ
(4) 150 μJ

3
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

22. The capacitance of a capacitor depends on 27. In the network shown in the figure, the
(1) Charge given to capacitor equivalent capacitance between points A
(2) Potential difference between the plates and B is
of capacitor
(3) Both charge given and potential
difference
(4) None of the above

23. If electric field in a given region is zero, then

in that region potential V
(1) Is always zero
(1) 4C
(2) Is uniform
(2) 3
C
(3) Must vary linearly with distance 4

(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) 4

C
3

(4) C

24. Three capacitors of capacitances 3 μF each 3

are available. The minimum and maximum

capacitances, which may be obtained are 28. Energy 2 eV in joule is equal to
(1) 3 μF, 9 μF (1) 8.2 × 10–19 J
(2) 1 μF, 9 μF (2) 3.2 × 10–19 J
(3) 2 μF, 6 μF
(3) 1.6 × 10–19 J
(4) 1 μF, 6 μF
(4) 4.8 × 1019 J

25. Two concentric conducting spheres of radii

R and r (R < r) have similar charges with 29. Eight identical charged drops combine to
equal surface charge density σ. The electric form a bigger drop. The ratio of the
potential at their common centre is capacitance of bigger drop to that of smaller
(1)
σ
drop will be
ε0 (R+r)
(1) 2 : 1
(2) σ(R+r)

ε0
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2
σ( R +r )
2 (3) 6 : 1
ε0 (4) 8 : 1
σ
(4) 2 2
ε0 ( R +r )
30. A conductor with a positive charge
(1) Is always at +ve potential
26. If the volume between the plates of a parallel (2) Is always at zero potential
plate capacitor is 36 × 10–6 m3 and the (3) Is always at negative potential
energy density between its plates is 0.5
(4) May be at +ve, zero or –ve potential
J/cm3 then the energy stored in the capacitor
is
(1) 18 J 31. A battery does total 100 J of work during
(2) 18 × 10–6 J charging a capacitor. Then final energy
stored in the capacitor is
(3) 18 × 10–3 J (1) 100 J
(4) 10μJ (2) 200 J
(3) 50 J
(4) 150 J

4
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

32. Which of the following statement is false for 34. The effective capacitance between points A
a perfect conductor in electrostatic and B of figure shown is
condition?
(1) The surface of the conductor is an
equipotential surface.
(2) The electric field lines just outside the
surface of a conductor is perpendicular
to the surface.
(3) The electric field is continuous across (1) 6 μF
the surface of conductor.
(2) 12 μF
(4) The electric field is discontinuous
(3) 18 μF
across the surface of conductor.
(4) 24 μF

33. Six charges are placed at the corners of a

regular hexagon as shown in figure. Then 35. The equivalent capacitance of the
combination shown in the figure is

(1) Net electric field and electric potential (1) 3C

both will be zero at the centre of 2

hexagon (2) 3C
(2) Electric field will be zero, but electric (3) 2C
potential will not be zero at the centre (4) C
of hexagon 2

(3) Electric potential will be zero, but

electric field will not be zero at the
centre of hexagon
(4) Electric field and electric potential both
will be non-zero at the centre of
hexagon

SECTION-B

36. Electric potential at the centre of uniformly 37. In the figure three points A, B and C are
charged spherical shell, having charge q located in a region of electric field, then
and radius R is
(1) q

2
4πε0 R

(2) q

4πε0 R

(3) q

2
8πε0 R

(4) q
(1) VA = VB = VC
8πε0 R
(2) VA > VB > VC
(3) VB > VC > VA
(4) VA > VC > VB

5
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

38. A proton, a deuteron and an alpha particle 42. The diagrams below show equipotential
are accelerated through potentials of V, 2V surfaces.
and 4V respectively. The velocity will be in
ratio
(1) 1 : 1 : 1
– –
(2) √2 : √2 : 1
–
(3) √2 : 1 : 1
–
(4) 1 : √2 : 1

39. Three capacitors are connected as shown in

the figure. The potential at point O is equal to

(1) 1.4 volt

(2) 4.7 volt
(3) Zero
(4) 1.8 volt

40. In the given arrangement, the charge on the

3μF capacitor is

A positive charge Q is moved from A to B in

each case. The amounts of work done in
four cases are W1 , W2 , W3 and W4
respectively, then
(1) W1 is minimum
(1) 10 μC (2) W2 is maximum
(2) 20 μC (3) W3 is maximum
(3) 30 μC (4) W1 =W2 =W3 =W4
(4) 25 μC

41.

Find out equivalent capacitance between A

and B.
(1) 3e A 0

(2) 2 ε0 A

3 d

(3) ε0 A

3d

(4) 3 ε0 A

2 d

6
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

43. A parallel–plate capacitor of area A, plate 47. Choose the correct graph of potential versus
separation d and capacitance C is filled with position due to negative point charge (–q).
four dielectric materials having dielectric (1)
constants k1 , k2 , k3 and k4 as shown in
the figure below. If a single dielectric
material is to be used to have the same
capacitance C in this capacitor, then its
dielectric constant K is given by

(2)

(1) k = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4

(2) k =
2
( k1 + k2 + k3 ) + 2k4
3

(3) 2
=
3
+
1

k k1 +k2 +k3 k4

(4) 1
=
1
+
1
+
1
+
3

k k1 k2 k3 2k4
(3)

44. The graph between capacitance and

distance between plates of a capacitor is
(1) Parabola
(2) Hyperbola
(3) Ellipse
(4) Straight-line

45. Order of magnitude of charge of electron (in (4)

C) is
(1) –12
(2) –19
(3) 21
(4) –21

46. Electric field between the plates of an

isolated capacitor is independent of
(1) Distance between the plates
48. Which of the following is not a dielectric
(2) Area of the plates
constant of any insulator?
(3) Charge on the plates (1) 4
(4) Medium between the plates (2) 3
(3) 2
(4) Infinite

7
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

49. If the distance between parallel plates of

capacitor is halved, then the force between
plates is
(1) Halved
(2) Doubled
(3) Quadrupled
(4) Remain same

50. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor as

shown in figure is

(1) ε0 A

2d

(2) ε0 A

(3) ε0 Ad

(4) ε0 A

3d

8
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

51. A solution containing 2 g per 100 mL of urea 56. Assertion : When 10 ml of benzene is mixed
(molecular mass = 60 g mol–1 ) is isotonic with 20 ml of toluene then net volume of
with a 5% (w/v) solution of a non-volatile solution is 30 ml.
solute. The molecular mass of this non- Reason : Benzene and toluene on mixing
volatile solute is form ideal solution.
(1) 175 g mol–1 (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
(2) 200 g mol–1 the assertion
(3) 350 g mol–1 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(4) 150 g mol–1 explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
52. Incorrect thermodynamic relation for ideal is false
solution is (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) Δmix G < 0 statements
(2) Δmix S < 0
(3) Δmix H = 0 57. At 2 atm pressure, mole of O2 (g) dissolved in
10 moles water at 293 K is (Henry’s constant
(4) Δmix V = 0
for O2 (g) in water is 0.3 × 105 atm)
(1) 6.67 × 10–3
53. 36% (
w
) solution of glucose is
v
(2) 6.67 × 10–5
(1) 1.25 M
(3) 6.67 × 10–4
(2) 2.0 M
(3) 2.25 M (4) 6.67 × 10–6
(4) 3.0 M
58. Minimum boiling azeotrope
54. Which among the following aqueous (1) Shows positive deviation from Raoult’s
solution has minimum freezing point? law
(1) 0.1 m CaCl2 (2) Shows negative deviation from
Raoult’s law
(2) 0.1 m Urea
(3) Follows Raoult’s law
(3) 0.1 m NaCl
(4) Has unequal composition in liquid and
(4) 0.1 m Glucose
vapour states

55. At a given temperature, total vapour 59. Molal elevation constant depends on
pressure of a mixture of volatile components
A and B is given by (1) Molar mass of solvent
P = 120 – 75XB. (2) Boiling point of pure solvent
Hence, vapour pressure of pure A and B (3) Enthalpy of vaporisation of solvent
respectively are (4) All of these
(1) 120, 75
(2) 120, 195 60. The solution showing positive deviation from
(3) 120, 45 ideal behaviour is
(4) 75, 45 (1) CH3 COCH3 + CS2
(2) HCl + H2 O
(3) HNO3 + H2 O
(4) CH3 COCH3 + C6 H5 NH2

9
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

61. At 25°C, the highest value of molal 66. A : Osmotic pressure is proportional to the
depression constant is for which solution? molality of the solution.
(1) 0.1 M of glucose R : Osmotic pressure is independent of
temperature.
(2) 0.2 M of NaCl
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(3) 0.3 M of CaCl2 the reason is the correct explanation of
(4) All the above have same values the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
62. A : 68% nitric acid and 32% water by mass the reason is not the correct
forms minimum boiling azeotrope. explanation of the assertion
R : Decreasing escaping tendency of (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
molecules for each component in mixture is false
decreases the vapour pressure as well as (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
boiling point of mixture. statements
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion 67. The concentration term which does not
depend on temperature is/are
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(1) Molarity
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion (2) Weight volume percent
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) Normality
is false (4) Mole fraction
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
68. Which of the following gas is most soluble in
water at 298 K?
63. The van’t Hoff factor (i) for infinitely dilute (1) Carbon dioxide
aqueous solution of Al2 (SO4 )3 is (2) Formaldehyde
(1) 2 (3) Vinyl chloride
(2) 3 (4) Methane
(3) 4
(4) 5 69. Two liquids A and B have PoA and PoB in
the ratio of 1 : 4 and the ratio of the number
64. If the molality of NaOH in D2 O is 2 m, then of moles of A and B in liquid phase are 1 : 5.
mole fractions of D2 O will be Then the mole fraction of B in vapour phase
(1) 1 in equilibrium with the solution is equal to
26
(1) 20
(2) 1 21

52
(2) 18

(3) 49 19

50 (3) 19

(4) 25 21

26 (4) 18

21

65. Which condition is not satisfied for negative

deviation of a binary solution? 70. If vapour pressure of two liquids A and B are
(1) (ΔG)sol < 0 100 torr and 140 torr, respectively then total
vapour pressure of the solution obtained by
(2) (ΔH)sol > 0 mixing 4 moles of A and 6 moles of B would
(3) (ΔS)sol > 0 be
(1) 110 torr
(4) (ΔV)sol < 0
(2) 115 torr
(3) 124 torr
(4) 120 torr

71. How much NaCl is to be dissolved in 60 g

water to form a solution of 20% by mass?
(1) 12 g
(2) 1.2 g
(3) 15 g
(4) 1.5 g

10
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

72. The vapour pressure of two liquids A and B 78. If the molality of methanol in the aqueous
are 90 mm of Hg and 120 mm of Hg solution is 10 then the mole fraction of
respectively. The ratio of mole fractions of A methanol in the solution will be
and B in vapour phase over the liquids if (1) 0.22
they are mixed in molar ratio of 2 : 1.
(2) 0.15
(1) 1 : 3
(3) 0.35
(2) 3 : 2
(4) 0.10
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 2 : 1
79. Which statement is true for solution of 0.020
M H2 SO4
73. An aqueous solution of acetone contain (1) 2 litre of the solution contains 0.020
29% acetone by weight. Mole percentage of 2−
mole of SO4
acetone in this solution is
(1) 9.09% (2) 2 litre of the solution contains 0.080
(2) 5.55% mole of H3 O+
(3) 4.04% (3) 1 litre of the solution contains 0.020
mole H3 O+ ion
(4) 11.25%
(4) 1 litre of solution contains 0.2
mole H2 SO4
74. Molality of aqueous solution of urea is 3. The
mass percentage of urea in the solution is
(1) 10.5% 80. The osmotic pressure of a solution at 27°C is
9 atm. If the temperature is increased to
(2) 25.25%
227°C, keeping the other conditions similar,
(3) 12.25% the osmotic pressure becomes
(4) 15.25% (1) 5 atm
(2) 15 atm
75. The elevation of boiling point of 0.1 molal aq (3) 9 atm
CaCl2 solution is (4) 12 atm
(1) Kb
(2) 2 Kb 81. Which of the following is not a colligative
(3) 0.3 Kb property
(1) Boiling point
(4) 10 Kb
(2) Elevation in boiling point
(3) Osmotic pressure
76. Which of the following is not an application
(4) Lowering of vapour pressure
of Henry's law?
(1) Solubility of CO2 in soft drinks
(2) Tanks used by scuba divers are filled 82. When mercuric iodide is added to the
with diluted air aqueous solution of potassium iodide, the
(1) Freezing point is raised
(3) Symptoms of anoxia at high altitude
(2) Freezing point does not change
(4) Cooking in a pressure cooker
(3) Freezing point is lowered
(4) Boiling point does not change
77. A : 1.5% (w/v) glucose is isotonic with 1.5%
(w/v) of urea solution at room temperature.
R : Solutions having similar % (w/v) are said 83. When red blood cells are placed in distilled
to be isotonic solutions. water, they,
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (1) Shrink
the reason is the correct explanation of (2) Swell and burst
the assertion
(3) Neither shrink nor swell
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct (4) First swell and then shrink
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

11
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

84. An aqueous solution freezes at –0.186°C (Kf

= 1.86 K kg mol–1 ), (Kb = 0.512 K kg mol–1 ).
The elevation in boiling point of the solution
is
(1) 0.186
(2) 0.512
(3) 1.86
(4) 0.0512

85. Pressure exerted by vapours above the

surface of liquid in liquid gas equilibrium
depends on
(1) Temperature
(2) Surface area
(3) Nature of liquid
(4) Both (1) and (3)

SECTION-B

86. Correct order of freezing point of aqueous 88. Select the incorrect statement in the
solutions is (Assume complete dissociation following
of electrolytes) (1) Henry’s law constant (KH) is a function
(1) 0.5 m urea > 0.3 m NaCl > 0.3 m of the nature of the gas
Na2 SO4
(2) A solution of 0.9% (mass/volume) NaCl
(2) 0.5 m urea > 0.3 m Na2 SO4 > 0.3 m is isotonic with the fluid inside the
NaCl blood cell
(3) 0.3 m Na2 SO4 > 0.5 m urea > 0.3 m (3) In an azeotropic solution, liquid and
NaCl vapour phase compositions are equal
(4) 0.3 m Na2 SO4 > 0.3 m NaCl > 0.5 m (4) Maximum van’t Hoff factor of Hg2 I2 is
Urea 2.5

87. 89. At 100°C the vapour pressure of a solution

of 6.5 g of a solute in 100 g water is 732 mm.
If Kb = 0.52, the boiling point of this solution
will be nearly
(1) 100°C
(2) 102°C
(3) 103°C
(4) 101°C

In the above graph which point indicates 90. A 0.0020 m aqueous solution of an ionic
freezing point of H2 O. compound Co(NH3 )5 (NO2 ) Cl freezes at –
(1) Point A 0.00732°C. Number of moles of ions which 1
(2) Point B mol of ionic compound produces on being
(3) Point C dissolved in water will be (kf = – 1.86°C/m)
(4) Point E (1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

91. 96. Pure benzene freezes at 5.3°C. A solution of

0.223 g of phenylacetic acid
(C6 H5 CH2 COOH) in 4.4 g of benzene (Kf =
5.12 K kg mol–1 ) freezes at 4.3°C. From the
observation, one can conclude that
(1) Phenylacetic acid exists as monomor in
benzene
(2) Phenylacetic acid undergoes partial
ionisation in benzene
(3) Phenylacetic acid undergoes complete
ionisation in benzene
(4) Phenylacetic acid undergoes
dimerisation in benzene
From the above graph, the total pressure at
point U is given as 97. On the basis of the given figure for binary
(1) UV + VW + WX solution of A and B, the mole fraction of
component A in solution phase at point P is
(2) VX + WX
(3) UV + VW
(4) UV + WX

92. Pressure exerted by vapours above the

surface of liquid in liquid gas equilibrium
depends on
(1) Temperature
(2) Surface area
(3) Nature of liquid
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(1) 1

93. A sample of tap water weighing 200 g, on 5

analysis was found to contain 0.1 g of lead. (2) 1

4
The concentration of lead in ppm is
(3) 1

(1) 500 ppm 3

(2) 250 ppm (4) 1

2
(3) 200 ppm
(4) 100 ppm
98. Boiling point of 0.1m urea(aq) solution is
(Kb (H2 O) = 0.52 K molal–1 )
94. Isotonic solutions are those which have
(1) 100°C
(1) Same vapour pressure
(2) 101°C
(2) Same boiling point
(3) 100.052°C
(3) Same freezing point
(4) 101.052°C
(4) Same osmotic pressure

99. For removing salts from sea water, the

95. Select the non-homogeneous mixture out of process used is
the following.
(1) Osmosis
(1) Salt + water
(2) Reverse osmosis
(2) Sand + water
(3) Diffusion
(3) C2 H5 OH + water
(4) Effusion
(4) Toluene + benzene

100. If mole fraction of a gas in water is 0.001 at

STP then Henry's law constant of gas is
nearly
(1) 102 bar
(2) 103 bar
(3) 104 bar
(4) 105 bar

13
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

BOTANY

SECTION-A

101. Mark the odd one w.r.t. characteristics of 107. During double fertilisation
wind pollinated flowers (1) Two male gametes fuse with one egg
(1) Flowers packed into an inflorescence cell
(2) Large feathery stigma (2) Two polar nuclei fuse with two male
(3) Well exposed stamens gametes
(4) Pollen grains surrounded by (3) One male gamete fuses with both egg
mucilaginous covering nucleus and polar nucleus
(4) One male gamete fuses with secondary
nucleus and other with egg nucleus
102. Primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) is the
result of
(1) Apomixis 108. Which of the following structures is present
at opposite side of micropyle and represents
(2) Triple fusion
the base of ovule?
(3) Polyembryony
(1) Funicle
(4) Syngamy
(2) Hilum
(3) Integuments
103. Which of the following sequence is correct (4) Chalaza
for the development of embryo sac?
(1) Megaspore (2n) → Megaspore mother
cell (n) → Embryo sac (n) 109. Remnant of nucellus is present in the seeds
of
(2) Megaspore mother cell (n) →
Megaspore (n) → Embryo sac (n) (1) Beet
(3) Nucellus (2n) → Megaspore mother (2) Wheat
cell (n) → Megaspore (n) → Embryo (3) Rice
sac (n) (4) Maize
(4) Nucellus (2n) → Megaspore mother
cell (2n) → Megaspore (n) → Embryo
sac (n) 110. Most of the fruits are
(1) False fruit
(2) True fruit
104. Which layer of anther wall is innermost and
nourishes the developing pollen grains? (3) Parthenocarpic fruit
(1) Epidermis (4) Developed from floral parts other than
ovary
(2) Middle layers
(3) Tapetum
(4) Endothecium

105. Multicarpellary and apocarpous gynoecium

is found in
(1) Papaver
(2) Chilli
(3) Michelia
(4) Datura

106. Sporopollenin is present in

(1) Exine
(2) Intine
(3) Endothecium
(4) Filiform apparatus

14
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

111. The following diagram represents L.S. of an 115. An aquatic plant which is insect pollinated is
embryo of grass (1) Zostera
(2) Water lily
(3) Vallisneria
(4) Hydrilla

116. Pollen grains of rice and wheat

(1) Can survive for months
(2) Lose viability within 30 minutes of their
release
(3) Lack exine and intine
(4) Can remain viable for several weeks
after shedding from the anther

117. An angiospermic plant has 12 chromosomes

in its nucellus cell. What will be the number
of chromosomes in its endosperm cell, leaf
cell, synergid and anther cell respectively?
(1) 36, 18, 9 and 18
The labelled part A is (2) 18, 12, 6 and 6
(1) Coleoptile (3) 18, 12, 6 and 12
(2) Scutellum (4) 36, 18, 9 and 9
(3) Epiblast
(4) Radicle 118. The structures formed at the end of
microsporogenesis in flowering plants, is/are
112. In angiosperms, how many nuclei take part (1) Four haploid megaspores in a linear
in double fertilization? tetrad
(1) 3 (2) One functional megaspore
(2) 5 (3) Haploid microspore tetrad
(3) 6 (4) Binucleate tapetal cells
(4) 2
119. Outbreeding devices promote
113. Which is not an outbreeding device? (1) Self pollination
(1) Dichogamy (2) Inbreeding depression
(2) Self incompatibility (3) Xenogamy
(3) Dioecious condition (4) Loss of genetic variation
(4) Homogamy
120. The most common type of ovule in
angiosperms is
114. Consider the following assertion and reason
and choose the correct option. (1) Orthotropous
Assertion : In papaya, both autogamy and (2) Anatropous
geitonogamy are absent. (3) Campylotropous
Reason : Papaya is a dioecious plant.
(4) Circinotropous
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true
and the reason is the correct
explanation of the assertion 121. Select the wrong statement regarding pollen
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but grains.
the reason is not the correct (1) Viability period of pollen grains in
explanation of the assertion leguminous plants are several years.
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (2) Amaranthus and Chenopodium cause
is false pollen allergy.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) Intine of pollen grains is made up of
statements cellulose and pectin.
(4) Especially anemophilous plants cause
severe pollen allergies.

15
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

122. In an angiospermic ovule, central cell of the 129. Apomixis is a mechanism in which
embryo sac, prior to the entry of pollen tube, (1) Nucellus or integuments never
contains participate in embryo formation
(1) A single haploid nucleus (2) Seeds are produced without
(2) One diploid and one haploid nuclei fertilization
(3) Two haploid polar nuclei (3) A diploid egg is fertilized by a male
(4) One haploid secondary nuclei gamete
(4) Embryo always develops from haploid
cells
123. Cells of which part of ovule have abundant
reserve food materials and are enclosed
within the integuments? 130. Match the following columns and select the
(1) Micropyle correct option.
(2) Chalaza Column I Column II
(3) Nucellus a. Epiblast (i) Encloses
embryonal
(4) Funicle root cap in
monocots
124. Select the incorrect statement about stamen b. Coleorhiza (ii) A single
in flowering plants. cotyledon in
(1) The proximal end of the filament is monocots
attached to the thalamus or the petal of c. Scutellum (iii) Encloses
the flower leaf
(2) The number and length of stamens are primordia in
variable in flowers of different species monocot
embryo
(3) The anther is tetragonal and has four
microsporangia in each lobe d. Coleoptile (iv) Remains of
second
(4) The microsporangia contain pollen cotyledon in
grains some
grasses
125. Which among the following play important (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
role in guiding the pollen tube into the (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
embryo sac?
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(1) Synergids
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(2) Antipodals
(3) Central cell
131. The seed of which plant germinated and
(4) Egg cell
flowered after 10,000 years of dormancy?
(1) Orobanche
126. Which of the following types of pollination is (2) Strobilanthus kunthiana
functionally cross pollination and genetically
similar to self pollination? (3) Lupinus arcticus
(1) Xenogamy (4) Phoenix dactylifera
(2) Autogamy
(3) Geitonogamy 132. The ovary of all the following plants have
many ovules, except
(4) Cleistogamy
(1) Wheat
(2) Papaya
127. The developing pollen grains are nourished
by (3) Water melon
(1) All the wall layers of anther (4) Orchid
(2) Outer three wall layers of anther
(3) Innermost wall layer of anther
(4) Inner two wall layers of anther

128. In flowering plants, the stalk of the ovule by

which it remains attached to placenta is
called
(1) Hilum
(2) Funicle
(3) Style
(4) Filament

16
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

133. Which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) Synergids are characterised by the
presence of filiform apparatus towards
the chalazal end
(2) Egg cell is the largest cell of the
embryo sac
(3) Egg and synergids are connected via
plasmodesmata
(4) Polar nuclei present in embryo sac fuse
just after fertilisation to form secondary
nucleus
135. Read the given statements and choose the
correct option.
A. In apple, fruit develops from floral parts
other than ovary.
B. Dehydration and dormancy are the
features of seeds that form basis of
agriculture.
(1) Only A is incorrect
(2) Only B is incorrect
(3) Both A and B are incorrect
(4) Both A and B are correct

134. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis is

referred to
(1) Formation of pollen mother cell from
microspore
(2) Formation of male gametes in the
pollen grain
(3) Germination of pollen grain on the
stigma
(4) Formation of microspores by meiotic
division in pollen mother cell

SECTION-B

136. Female flowers of Vallisneria do not have 140. Site of syngamy and triple fusion in the
(1) Sticky stigma flowering plant is
(2) Unwettable stigma (1) Chalaza
(3) Nectaries (2) Anther
(4) Very long pedicel (3) Endosperm
(4) Embryo sac
137. Shedding of pollen grains in 60% of
angiosperms occurs at A celled stage. 141. After entering the embryo sac, the pollen
¯¯¯¯¯¯ tube releases two male gametes into
Select the correct option for ‘A’.
(1) The cytoplasm of the central cell
(1) One
(2) The filiform apparatus
(2) Two
(3) The cytoplasm of the egg cell
(3) Three
(4) The cytoplasm of the helper cell
(4) Four

142. A dissected flower of Hibiscus shows

138. Choose the odd one w.r.t. structure of a dicot
embryo (1) Five carpels with syncarpous condition
(1) Epicotyl (2) Two carpels with apocarpous condition
(2) Plumule (3) Multicarpellary, apocarpous pistil
(3) Hypocotyl (4) Marginal placentation in gynoecium
(4) Epiblast
143. Which of the following layer of anther wall
usually have cells with dense cytoplasm and
139. The fruit of apple is a
more than one nucleus?
(1) True fruit but does not have seeds
(1) Middle layers
(2) False fruit and has seeds
(2) Tapetum
(3) True fruit and has seeds
(3) Endothecium
(4) Parthenocarpic fruit but has seeds
(4) Epidermis

17
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

144. Synergids in embryo sac of angiosperms are 148. The ploidy of the cells of the nucellus and
the functional megaspore of anatropous
(1) Dead cells ovule are respectively
(2) The part of egg apparatus (1) Haploid and diploid
(3) Found towards the chalazal end (2) Diploid and triploid
(4) Formed after double fertilization (3) Diploid and haploid
(4) Triploid and haploid
145. Select the odd one for albuminous seeds.
(1) Castor 149. Both wind and water pollinated flowers
a. Are not very colourful
(2) Coconut
b. Do not produce nectar
(3) Groundnut c. Have feathery stigma
(4) Maize d. Exhibit enormous production of pollen
grains
The correct ones are
146. For artificial hybridisation, emasculation is
(1) Only a and b
done if
(2) Only c and d
(1) Female parent bears bisexual flowers
(2) Parent plants are dioecious (3) Only a, b and d

(3) Male parent bears unisexual flowers (4) All a, b, c and d

(4) Female parent flowers have all the
sterile stamens 150. Which of the following structures is present
at opposite side of micropyle and represents
the base of ovule?
147. Number of antipodal cells in most of the
(1) Funicle
flowering plants is
(2) Hilum
(1) Five
(3) Integuments
(2) Two
(3) Three (4) Chalaza
(4) Four

18
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

151. How many spermatids are formed from 250 156. How many cells are diploid in nature from
secondary spermatocytes? given box?
(1) 250 Spermatid, Primary oocyte, Ovum, Primary
(2) 500 spermatocyte, Secondary spermatocyte
(3) 750 (1) 5
(4) 1000 (2) 2
(3) 4
152. If fertilization does not occur then corpus (4) 3
luteum starts to degenerate and causes
disintegration of the endometrium which
leads to 157. A structure formed only during pregnancy in
(1) Ovulation a female and having endocrine function is
(2) Menstruation (1) Ovary
(3) Implantation (2) Placenta

(4) Gametogenesis (3) Fallopian tube

(4) Pituitary gland

153. In humans, testes are situated outside the

abdominal cavity within scrotum. What is the 158. Choose the odd one w.r.t. cells present in
main purpose served by scrotum? seminiferous tubules of testes.
(1) Scrotum maintains temperature (1) Granulosa cells
necessary for development of (2) Sertoli cells
secondary sexual characters (3) Primary spermatocytes
(2) Scrotum maintains temperature lower (4) Gamete mother cells
than normal body temperature
necessary for spermatogenesis
(3) Scrotum maintains temperature greater 159. The hormones produced by placenta
than normal body temperature include all except
necessary for spermatogenesis (1) Human chorionic gonadotrophin
(4) Scrotum does not help in (2) Human placental lactogen
spermatogenesis (3) Gonadotrophin releasing hormone
(4) Estrogens and progestogens
154. The secretion of bulbourethral glands help
in the lubrication of
160. Select the correct pathway of sperms
(1) Epididymis transport.
(2) Penis (1) Rete testis → Vas deferens →
(3) Ureters Epididymis → Ejaculatory duct
(4) Cervix (2) Rete testis → Vasa efferentia →
Epididymis → Vas deferens
155. Which polar body is released when sperm (3) Vasa efferentia → Rete testis →
enters into cytoplasm of ovum during Epididymis → Ejaculatory duct
fertilization? (4) Epididymis → Vas deferens → Vasa
(1) First efferentia → Ejaculatory duct
(2) Second
(3) Third 161. Genetic constitution of (22 + Y) is found in
(4) Fourth (1) Primary spermatocyte
(2) Spermatozoa
(3) Spermatogonium
(4) Male germ cell

19
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

162. The presence of which hormone in urine is 169. Nutrition providing cells lining the
an indicator of pregnancy in a female? seminiferous tubules along with germinal
(1) FSH cells in testes are
(2) LH (1) Interstitial cells of Leydig
(3) hCG (2) Sertoli cells
(4) Progesterone (3) Granulosa cells
(4) Phagocytes
163. Choose the incorrect statement.
(1) Colostrum contains several antibodies 170. A temporary endocrine gland formed after
essential to provide resistance for the ovulation in human female is
new-born babies (1) Thymus gland
(2) The signals for parturition originate (2) Corpus albicans
from the fully developed foetus and the (3) Corpus luteum
placenta
(4) Corpus callosum
(3) Mammary glands differentiate during
pregnancy and secrete milk towards
end of pregnancy 171. Choose the odd one w.r.t. male accessory
(4) Secondary oocyte is a diploid cell sex glands.
formed as a result of meiosis-II. (1) Seminal vesicles and Cowper’s glands
(2) Prostate gland and seminal vesicles
164. Select the incorrectly matched pair. (3) Bulbourethral glands and prostate
(1) Length of fallopian tube – 10-12 cm gland

(2) Seminal fluid – Contains fructose (4) Testis and gubernaculum

(3) Interstitial cells – Endocrine cells of
testis 172. Secretion of male accessory glands
(4) Prostate gland – One pair constitute the seminal plasma which is rich
in
(1) Fructose, potassium and protein
165. Sudden decline in the level of which
(2) Sucrose, calcium and no enzymes
hormone leads to menstruation.
(1) Estrogen (3) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
(4) Glucose, potassium and numerous
(2) Progesterone
enzymes
(3) Oxytocin
(4) Relaxin
173. Birth canal is formed by
(1) Cervical canal and vagina
166. The rupture of the Graafian follicle under the
(2) Cervical canal and urethra
influence of LH leads to the formation of
yellowish body corpus luteum which (3) Uterus and fallopian tubes
secretes (4) Vagina and fallopian tubes
(1) Progesterone and estrogen
(2) hCG and cortisol 174. Another name for female reproductive organ
(3) Estrogen and FSH ‘womb’ is
(4) hCG and FSH (1) Fallopian tube
(2) Uterus
167. How many highly coiled, sperm producing (3) Ovary
tubules are found in the human male (4) Cervix
reproductive system?
(1) 250 - 500
(2) 500 - 1500
(3) 250 - 750
(4) 500 - 2000

168. Which of the following statement is incorrect

regarding penis?
(1) The enlarged tip is called glans penis
(2) The loose skin fold covering the tip is
called foreskin
(3) It is a part of male external genitalia
(4) It plays no role in insemination

20
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

175. Assertion : Lack of menstrual cycle in a 180. Graafian follicle contains

fertile female is an indication of pregnancy. (1) Many oocytes
Reason : Amenorrhea observed is due to
(2) Many sperms
negative feedback exerted by high
concentration of progesterone and estrogen (3) A single oocyte
secreted from persistent corpus luteum. (4) Site for egg fertilization
In the light of above statements, select the
correct option.
181. Which of the following undergo mitosis
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
during gametogenesis?
the Reason is the correct explanation
of the assertion (1) Spermatogonium
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (2) Spermatozoa
the Reason is not the correct (3) Sertoli cells
explanation of the assertion (4) Primary spermatocytes
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 182. Milk ejection hormone in a lactating mother
is
176. Assertion : All copulations will not lead to (1) Prolactin
fertilization and pregnancy in humans. (2) Oxytocin
Reason : Fertilization can only occur if male
(3) Progesterone
and female gametes are transported
simultaneously to ampulla region of (4) Estrogen
fallopian tube.
In the light of above statements, select the 183. For normal fertility in a human, at least 60
correct option.
percent sperms must have (A) and atleast
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
the reason is the correct explanation of 40 percent of them must show (B) . Fill the
the assertion ¯¯¯¯¯¯¯
spaces A and B with correct option.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) A – Spherical shape and size
the reason is not the correct B – Minimal motility
explanation of the assertion
(2) A – Normal shape and size
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason B – Vigorous motility
is false
(3) A – Abnormal shape and large size
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false B – Slow motility
statements
(4) A – Irregular shape and size
B – No motility
177. During parturition
(1) Oxytocin promotes relaxation of pubic 184. Transformation of spermatid into sperm is
symphysis best called
(2) Cervical mucus plug is further (1) Spermiation
strengthened by estrogen and
(2) Spermiogenesis
progesterone
(3) Spermatogenesis
(3) There is an increase in estrogen to
progesterone ratio (4) Spermatocytogenesis
(4) Prostaglandins are secreted from
corpus luteum 185. By the end of _____, the body is covered
with fine hair, eye-lids separate and
eyelashes are formed.
178. Lactation process includes
Choose the option that fills the blank
(1) Synthesis of milk only correctly.
(2) Synthesis and secretion of milk only (1) First trimester
(3) Structural development of mammary (2) Second trimester
lobules by prolactin
(3) One month
(4) Synthesis, secretion and ejection of
(4) Two months
milk

179. Zona pellucida

(1) Serves as source of nutrients for
embryo
(2) Aids in penetrating endometrium
(3) Is secreted by secondary oocyte
(4) Is a cellular layer

21
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

SECTION-B

186. Choose the odd one w.r.t. paired accessory 193. Embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is called
glands. (1) Blastula
(1) Bulbourethral glands (2) Morula
(2) Seminal vesicles (3) Gastrula
(3) Bartholin’s glands (4) Blastocyst
(4) Prostate glands
194. Formation of ovum ceases in women around
187. Implantation of embryo usually occurs at the age of fifty years, this is termed as
(1) Morula stage (1) Menarche
(2) Gastrula stage (2) Secretory phase
(3) Blastocyst stage (3) Menopause
(4) Zygote stage (4) Menses

188. Among the following, the first and last step in 195. Structure in human males, common to
human embryonic development, excretory and reproductive system is
respectively are (1) Vas deferens
(1) Syngamy, implantation (2) Ejaculatory duct
(2) Cell differentiation, cleavage (3) Urethra
(3) Cleavage, organogenesis (4) Ureters
(4) Gamete transfer, syngamy
196. Identify structure marked X in the figure
189. The secretion of gonadotropins increases given below.
gradually during which phase of menstrual
cycle?
(1) Menstrual phase
(2) Follicular phase
(3) Luteal phase
(4) Ovulatory phase

190. Structure characterised by presence of fluid

filled cavity called ‘antrum’ and secondary
oocyte is
(1) Primary oocyte (1) Mitochondria
(2) Secondary follicle (2) Acrosome
(3) Tertiary follicle (3) Neck
(4) Primary follicle (4) Middle piece

191. The process of insemination denotes 197. Select the cell with 46 chromosomes.
(1) Attachment of blastocyst to uterine wall (1) Primary spermatocyte
(2) Fusion of male and female gamete (2) Spermatid
(3) Transfer of sperms into the female (3) Spermatozoa
genital tract
(4) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) Delivery of the baby

198. In human female, primary sex organ is

192. The milk produced during the initial few days
(1) Ovary
of lactation is called
(1) Serum (2) Fallopian tube
(2) Colostrum (3) Uterus
(3) Callosum (4) Vagina
(4) Sebum

22
Term Exam for NEET-2024 (Test-2A)

199. Acrosome of sperm is derived from

(1) Golgi body
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Centriole

200. In the 35 day human ovarian cycle, the

duration of luteal phase is approximately
(1) 14 days
(2) 5 days
(3) 21 days
(4) 30 days

23