V&R Test 2 A

VAJIRAM & RAVI
Institute for IAS Examination
PRELIMS CAMP 2024
Test - 02
Indian Polity
(Objective)
Explanation
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Answer Key – Prelims CAMP PT-2-Indian Polity (08-12-2023)
1. (B) 11. (D) 21. (A) 31. (A) 41. (C)
2. (B) 12. (A) 22. (B) 32. (D) 42. (D)
3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (A) 33. (B) 43. (C)
4. (C) 14. (B) 24. (C) 34. (D) 44. (C)
5. (B) 15. (A) 25. (C) 35. (D) 45. (D)
6. (C) 16. (C) 26. (A) 36. (C) 46. (B)
7. (B) 17. (A) 27. (D) 37. (B) 47. (B)
8. (C) 18. (A) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (B)
9. (D) 19. (C) 29. (D) 39. (D) 49. (C)
10. (A) 20. (B) 30. (D) 40. (A) 50. (B)
Q1.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● In response to the Simon Commission, the Congress passed a resolution to set up a Nehru committee,
under the Chairmanship of Motilal Nehru, for the purpose of the drafting of “a Swaraj Constitution for
India”. The Nehru Report of 1928 underlined the need for securing Fundamental Rights that had been
denied to them by the colonial government. It demanded that the Fundamental Rights for the people
of India wouldn't be subjected to forfeiture. It also proposed for the Joint Electorates with reservation
of seats for minorities in the legislatures. However, these were restricted to only those constituencies
where Muslims were in a minority. Also, there was no mention of separate electorates for Muslims.
So, statement 1 is correct.
● The Sapru Committee, with Tej Bahadur Sapru as its chairman, was assigned the task of doing
spadework for making a constitution for future India. The Committee consisted of thirty members. The
report was published in 1945. The Sapru Committee is distinguished for making two suggestions about
rights. One, it made a distinction between justiciable rights and non-justiciable rights. Two, it
suggested that rights of the minorities must be protected. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The Constituent Assembly had constituted various committees to give suggestions for inclusion in the
constitution. One such committee was to give suggestions about Fundamental Rights, Minority Rights
and Tribal and Excluded Areas. It was headed by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. This Committee was divided
into sub-committees. One such sub-committee was also on Fundamental Rights. The Fundamental
Right sub-committee or the Rights sub-committee was headed by J.B. Kripalani. This committee had
representation of diverse sections of society, including women – Amrit Kaur and Hansa Mehta. An
important decision that the Rights sub-committee took was to include the Fundamental Rights as
justiciable rights. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Subject: Polity | Fundamental
Tags: Factual, Conceptual
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Q2.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Following are the features of the Fundamental Rights as given in the Constitution of India:
● They are not absolute but qualified. The State can impose reasonable restrictions on them. However,
whether such restrictions are reasonable or not is to be decided by the courts. Thus, they strike a
balance between the rights of the individual and those of the society as a whole, between individual
liberty and social control. So, statement 1 is correct.
● All of them are available against the arbitrary action of the State. However, some of them are also
available against the actions of private individuals. So, statement 2 is correct.
● They can be suspended during the operation of a National Emergency except the rights guaranteed
by Articles 20 and 21. Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can be suspended only when
emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression (i.e., external emergency) and not
on the ground of armed rebellion (i.e., internal emergency). So, statement 3 is not correct.
Subject: Polity | Fundamental Rights
Tags: Factual
Q3.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The term ‘State’ has been used in different provisions concerning fundamental rights. Hence, Article
12 has defined the term for the purposes of Part III. According to it, the State includes the following:
○ Government and Parliament of India, that is, executive and legislative organs of the Union
government.
○ Government and legislature of states, that is, executive and legislative organs of state
government.
○ All local authorities, that is, municipalities, panchayats, district boards, improvement trusts, etc.
So, point 1 is correct.
○ All other authorities, that is, statutory or non-statutory authorities like Life Insurance
Corporation (LIC), Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), Steel Authority of India (SAIL), etc.
So, points 2 and 4 are correct.
● Thus, the State has been defined in a wider sense so as to include all its agencies. It is the actions of
these agencies that can be challenged in the courts as violating the Fundamental Rights. According to
the Supreme Court, even a private body or an agency working as an instrument of the State falls
within the meaning of the ‘State’ under Article 12. So, point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Tags: Factual, Analytical
Q4.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Article 15 provides that no citizen shall be subjected to any disability, liability, restriction or condition
on grounds only of race, religion, caste, sex or place of birth about access to the public places or
properties maintained wholly or partially by State fund or dedicated to the use of the general public.
This provision prohibits discrimination both by the State and Private individuals. So, statement 1 is
correct.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● Article 16 provides that no citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or
office under the State on grounds of only race, religion, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or
residence. However, the Parliament (Not the States) can prescribe residence as a condition for
certain employment or appointment in a state or union territory. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Article 15 provides two exceptions to the general rules of non-discrimination:
○ The State is permitted to make any special provision for women and children. So, statement 3
is correct.
○ The state is permitted to make any special provision for the advancement of any socially and
educationally backward classes of citizens or the Scheduled castes and Scheduled tribes.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Uttar Pradesh government launched the ‘Every Right for Every Child’ campaign, centred around
‘equality and inclusion.
Q5.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Constitution of India guarantees the fundamental right to freedom (Articles 19–22), providing all citizens
with the liberty to reside and work freely anywhere within the country. Additionally, it safeguards individuals
from arbitrary actions by the state, ensuring the protection of their rights.
● Right to Freedom provides for:
○ Protection of six rights regarding freedom of:
■ speech and expression
■ Assembly
■ Association
■ Movement
■ Residence
■ Profession (Article 19).
○ Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20). So, point 2 is correct.
○ Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21).
○ Right to elementary education (Article 21A). So, point 3 is correct.
○ Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22). So, point 5 is correct.
○ Prohibition of discrimination on the grounds of religion comes under the Right to freedom of
religion (Article 25–28). So, point 1 is not correct.
○ Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour comes under the Right against
exploitation (Articles 23–24). So, point 4 is not correct.
So, only three of the above rights come under the ‘’Right to Freedom’’ given in Part III of the Constitution.
Relevance: The Manipur High Court recently held that casting of votes is a part of the voter’s right to freedom
of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
Q6.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Supreme Court has held that the right to travel abroad is an inseparable part of the fundamental
right to dignity and personal liberty (Article 21).
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● Article 19 of the Indian Constitution grants the right to move freely within the borders of India, while
the right to travel abroad is derived from Article 21, which safeguards the right to life and personal
liberty. Article 21 states that no person can be deprived of their life or personal liberty except through
a legally established procedure.
● In the Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India verdict, the Supreme Court articulated that the term
"personal liberty" in Article 21 encompasses a broad spectrum of rights. This includes various facets of
an individual's freedom, some of which have been elevated to the status of distinct fundamental rights
and afforded additional protection under Article 19.
Relevance: The Delhi High Court has observed that Article 21 includes the right to exercise personal choice.
Tags: Factual
Q7.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Fundamental Rights available only to the Citizens and not to foreigners:
● Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15). So,
point 2 is correct.
● Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).
● Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: (i) speech and expression, (ii) assembly, (iii) association,
(iv) movement, (v) residence and (vi) profession (Article 19). So, point 4 is correct.
● Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30).
Following rights are available to both citizens and foreigners:
● Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14). So, point 1 is incorrect.
● Protection in respect of conviction for offences (Article 20)
● Protection of life and personal liberty (Article 21). So, point 3 is incorrect.
● Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases (Article 22)
Q8.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Supreme Court and the High Courts, under Articles 32 and 226, can issue orders and give directives to the
government for the enforcement of rights. The courts can issue various special orders known as writs.
● Habeas Corpus: It is a Latin term which means ‘to have the body of’. It is an order issued by the court
to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it. The writ of
habeas corpus can be issued against both public authorities as well as private individuals. The writ,
on the other hand, is not issued where (a) detention is lawful, (b) the proceeding is for contempt of a
legislature or a court, (c) detention is by a competent court, and (d) detention is outside the jurisdiction
of the court. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Prohibition: This writ is issued by a higher court (the Supreme Court or High Court) when a lower
court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction. The writ of prohibition can be issued only
against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities,
legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies. So, statement 2 is correct.
Relevance: The Allahabad High Court has observed that a Writ of Habeas Corpus cannot be issued in respect
of any and every missing person.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Tags: Factual
Q9.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Article 13 explicitly states that any laws contradicting or undermining fundamental rights will be
deemed void. This provision essentially establishes the concept of judicial review, empowering the
Supreme Court (Article 32) and high courts (Article 226) to declare a law unconstitutional and invalid
if it violates any Fundamental Rights.
● The term ‘law’ in Article 13 has been given a wide connotation to include the following:
○ Permanent laws enacted by the Parliament or the State Legislatures. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the President or the State Governors. So, point 4 is
correct.
○ Statutory instruments like delegated legislation (executive legislation) like order, bye-law, rule,
regulation or notification. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Non-legislative sources of law, that is custom or usage having the force of law. So, point 3 is
correct.
So, all four of the above are included in the term ‘law’ in Article 13 of the Constitution of India.
Tags: Factual
Q10.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● House arrest, also known as home confinement or home detention, is the act of confining a person to
specified premises that are not a regular jail. These premises can be the person’s own home or
someone else’s, subject to approval by the authorities.
● House arrest is allowed under specific conditions that are peculiar to each prisoner. They almost
always include restrictions on travel and meeting people and may include electronic surveillance of
the prisoner through a wearable tracking device. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 does not
mention house arrest. So, statement 1 is correct.
● House arrest has been used as a means of preventive detention under Section 5 of the National
Security Act, 1980. Section 5 of the National Security Act, 1980, empowers the state to detain an
individual “in such place and under such conditions…as the appropriate Government may, by general
or special order, specify”. The detained person may be “removed from one place of detention to
another place of detention, whether within the same State or in another State, by order of the
appropriate Government”.
● Section 62 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 confers voting rights on the electors
subjected to preventive detention. As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors
under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post. So, statement 2 is incorrect.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Kerala High Court reminded that the power to detain individuals ought not to be used as a
punitive measure, but to secure public order.
Tags: Factual
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Q11.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Constitutional provisions for the ‘Protection of Life and Personal Liberty’ are provided under Article
21 of the Constitution. It declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except
according to the procedure established by law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
● Some of the important Fundamental Rights which are declared as Right to Life and Personal Liberty
by the Supreme Court in subsequent cases:
○ Right to free education up to 14 years of age. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Right to die with dignity: In 2018, the Supreme Court in a judgement allowed passive
euthanasia in the country. It declared the right to die with dignity as a Fundamental Right.
Passive euthanasia, defined by the Supreme Court in Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug vs Union of
India (2011) case, entails withholding of medical treatment for continuance of life, e.g.
withholding of antibiotics where without giving it a patient is likely to die. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Right against bonded labour. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Right to a decent environment including pollution-free water and air
○ and protection against hazardous industries. So, point 5 is correct.
So, all of the above are safeguarded by the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the
Constitution of India.
Q12.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Article 22(2) of the Constitution of India provides that any person arrested and detained in custody
must be produced before the nearest judicial magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest and no person
can be detained beyond the period of 24 hours without the authority of the magistrate. The
magistrate, who is not part of the police, will decide whether the arrest is justified or not. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● No citizen can be denied his or her life except by procedure as laid down under the law. Similarly, no
one can be denied his/her liberty. That means no one can be arrested without being told the grounds
for such an arrest. If arrested, the person has the right to defend himself with a lawyer of his choice.
● The Constitution has divided the legislative power with regard to preventive detention between the
Parliament and the state legislatures. The Parliament has exclusive authority to make a law of
preventive detention for reasons connected with defence, foreign affairs and the security of India.
Both the Parliament as well as the State Legislatures can concurrently make a law of preventive
detention for reasons connected with the security of a state, the maintenance of public order and the
maintenance of supplies and services essential to the community. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Q13.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● In India, Freedom of religion includes the freedom to profess. This means a declaration of one’s
religious beliefs and faith openly and freely.
● The government can impose restrictions on the practice of freedom of religion to protect public
order, morality and health. This means that the freedom of religion is not an unlimited right.
● The Constitution has guaranteed the right to propagate one’s religion. This includes persuading
people to convert from one religion to another. However, this does not allow forcible conversions. It
only gives us the right to spread information about our religion and thus attract others to it.
● The government can interfere in religious matters to root out certain social evils. For example, in the
past, the government has taken steps to ban practices like sati, bigamy or human sacrifice. Such
restrictions cannot be opposed in the name of interference with the right to freedom of religion.
Therefore, option (d) is the answer.
Tags: Conceptual, Analytical
Q14.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The concept of martial law has been borrowed in India from the English common law. However, the
expression ‘martial law’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution. The Supreme Court held
that the declaration of martial law does not ipso facto result in the suspension of the writ of habeas
corpus. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● Article 34 of the Constitution of India provides power to the Parliament to put restrictions on
Fundamental Rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India. It also
empowers the Parliament to indemnify any Government servant or any other person for any act done
by her/him in connection with the maintenance or restoration of order in any area where martial
law was in force. The Parliament can also validate any sentence passed, punishment inflicted,
forfeiture ordered or other act done under martial law in such an area. The Act of indemnity made by
the Parliament cannot be challenged in any court on the ground of contravention of any of the
Fundamental Rights. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Tags: Factual
Q15.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Article 21A of the Constitution states that the state shall provide free and compulsory education to
all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine.
Thus, Raghu’s right to schooling is violated in the above situation. So, point 2 is correct.
● Article 23 provides that traffic in human beings and begar and other similar forms of forced labour are
prohibited and any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable by the law. Thus,
Raghu’s rights under Article 23 are also violated in the above situation. So, point 3 is correct.
● Article 15 provides that the State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion,
race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.
● Article 27 gives freedom to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion. These two
Articles have no bearing on the above situation. So, points 1 and 4 are not correct.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Tags: Analytical
Q16.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A Welfare State is a concept of Government in which the State or a well-established network of social
institutions plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well-being
of citizens.
● The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the Indian Constitution aim at establishing India
as a Welfare State.
● In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) (popularly known as the Fundamental Rights Case) the
Supreme Court declared “the Mandate to build a Welfare State’’ as the Basic Structure of the
Constitution.
Subject: Polity | Directive Principles of State Policy
Q17.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● In the Shankari Prasad case (1951), the constitutional validity of the First Amendment Act (1951),
which curtailed the right to property, was challenged. The Supreme Court ruled that the power of the
Parliament can abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights by enacting a Constitutional
Amendment Act and such a law will not be void under Article 13. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● In the Golak Nath case (1967), the Supreme Court reversed its earlier stand. The Supreme Court
ruled that the Fundamental Rights are given a ‘transcendental and immutable’ position and hence,
the Parliament cannot abridge or take away any of these rights. So, statement 2 is correct.
● In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court overruled its judgment in the Golak
Nath case (1967). It stated that Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the
Fundamental Rights. At the same time, it laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ of the
Constitution. It ruled that the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it
to alter the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This means that the Parliament cannot abridge or
take away aFundamental Right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.So,
statement 3 is correct.
Subject: Polity | Doctrine of Basic Structure
Tags: Factual
Q18.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles
36 to 51. The framers of the Constitution borrowed this idea from the Irish Constitution of 1937, which
had copied it from the Spanish Constitution. The features of Directive Principles of State Policy are:
● The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind
(obligation or duty) while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional
instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● The Directive Principles constitute a very comprehensive economic, social and political programme
for a modern democratic State. They aim at realising the high ideals of justice, liberty, equality and
fraternity as outlined in the Preamble to the Constitution. They embody the concept of a ‘welfare
state’ and not that of a ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
● Directive Principles of State Policy are not legally enforceable, meaning that they cannot be used to
challenge government policies or to seek relief in the courts. However, they are considered to be
fundamental in the governance of the country and are to be applied in making laws. The Directive
Principles, though non-justiciable in nature, help the courts in examining and determining the
constitutional validity of a law.
● The Directive Principles resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of
India Act of 1935.
Tags: Analytical, Conceptual
Q19.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Articles 16 (4) and 16 (4-A) of the Indian Constitution empower the State to make reservations in
matters of appointment and promotion in favour of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes only
“if in the opinion of the State they are not adequately represented in the services of the State”.
● The Supreme Court had recently ruled that, under Articles 16 (4) and 16 (4-A) of the Constitution,
reservation in the matter of promotions in government employment is not a fundamental right, and
a state cannot be compelled to offer the quota if it chooses not to. So, statement 1 is correct.
● State Government cannot be directed to provide reservations for appointments in public posts.
Similarly, the State is not bound to make reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in
matters of promotions. In this regard, the writ of mandamus cannot be issued by the court directing
State Governments to provide reservations. So, statement 2 is correct.
Tags: Conceptual, Factual
Q20.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Article 50 of the Constitution of India (Directive Principle of State Policy) provides that the State shall
take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. So,
● The Criminal Procedure Code (1973) separated the judiciary from the executive in the public services
of the state. Before this separation, the district authorities like the Collector, the Sub-Divisional Officer,
the Tehsildar and so on used to exercise judicial powers along with the traditional executive powers.
After the separation, the judicial powers were taken away from these executive authorities and vested
in the hands of District Judicial Magistrates who work under the direct control of the State High Court.
Tags: Factual
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Q21.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution of India from
Articles 36 to 51. The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ denotes the ideals that the State
should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws. These are the constitutional
instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and administrative matters.
● Article 51 in the Constitution of India provides for the promotion of international peace and security
and for maintaining just and honourable relations between nations; to foster respect for international
law and treaty obligations, and to encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration
(Article 51).
Tags: Factual
Q22.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Part III of the Indian Constitution is related to Fundamental Rights and Part IV of the Indian
Constitution is related to Directive Principles of State Policy.
● Article 21A (Fundamental Right) declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education
to all children of the age of six to fourteen years. Article 45 (Directive Principles of State Policy)
provides that the state shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children
until they complete the age of six years. So, point 1 is correct.
● The Constitution of India under Part III guarantees Fundamental Rights to Life and Liberty which are
essential for the development of every individual. The right to Environment is also a right without
which the development of an individual and realisation of his or her full potential shall not be possible.
Therefore, under Article 21, the Right to life includes environmental protection. Article 48 A
(Directive Principles of State Policy) says that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the
environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife life. So, point 2 is correct.
● Provision to secure for all citizens a uniform civil code throughout the country is provided under Article
44 (Directive Principles of State Policy). However, there is no related provision under Fundamental
Rights. So, point 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above has a bearing upon both Part III and Part IV of the Indian Constitution.
Relevance: Recently, Prime Minister of India emphasised the crucial need for the implementation of a Uniform
Civil Code (UCC) in India.
Tags: Factual
Q23.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution are inspired by the Constitution of erstwhile Union
of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR). So, statement 1 is not correct.
● They were incorporated into the Indian Constitution based on the recommendations of the Swaran
Singh Committee.
● The original Constitution did not have provisions for Fundamental Duties. Ten Fundamental Duties
were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), by inserting Part IV-A and Article 51A
into the Constitution. So, statement 2 is not correct.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● Indian Constitution does not make the enjoyment of Fundamental Rights dependent or conditional
upon fulfilment of Fundamental Duties. In this sense, the inclusion of Fundamental Duties has not
changed the status of our Fundamental Rights. So, statement 3 is correct.
Relevance: In a plea seeking enforcement of Fundamental Duties, the Supreme Court expressed displeasure
that the State Governments are not filing their counter affidavits within the time period stipulated by it.
Subject: Polity | Fundamental Duties
Q24.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Fundamental Duties for the citizens of India were recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee. As
a result of it, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added Article 51A, in Part IVA of the Constitution
which deals with Fundamental Duties. These duties are not enforceable by law. However, a court may
take them into account while adjudicating on a matter. Various Fundamental Duties are:
○ To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the
National Anthem
○ To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom. So, point
1 is correct.
○ To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
○ To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so. So, point 4 is
correct.
○ To promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India
transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities and to renounce practices
derogatory to the dignity of women. So, point 2 is correct.
○ To value and preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
○ To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and
to have compassion for living creatures
○ To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
○ To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
○ To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation
constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement’
○ To provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen
years (added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002)
The Swaran Singh Committee also suggested the duty to pay taxes as one of the fundamental duties,
however, it was not accepted in the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. So, point 3 is not correct.
So, only three of the above are Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution of India.
Therefore, option (c) is the answer.
Tags: Factual
Q25.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Three specific clauses in the Constitution of India were introduced by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act
of 2002 to encourage the realisation of free and compulsory education for children aged six to fourteen years
as a basic right. They are as follows:
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● Fundamental Rights (Part III): Article 21A - The State shall provide free and compulsory education to
all children of the age of six to fourteen years in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. So,
point 1 is correct.
● Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV): Article 45 - The State shall endeavour to provide early
childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years. So, point 2 is
correct.
● Fundamental Duties (Part IVA): Article 51A - A parent or guardian shall provide opportunities for
education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years. So,
point 3 is correct.
● The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 did not make any change in the Preamble. So, point
4 is not correct.
So, only three of the above provisions of the Indian Constitution were changed by the 86th Constitutional
Amendment Act of 2002.
Q26.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Fundamental Duties are dealt under Article 51A under Part-IVA of the Indian Constitution. They
are inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile Union of Soviet Socialist Republics (USSR).
● They were not present in the original Constitution and were added by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act of 1976.
● They are non-enforceable and non-justiciable in nature. The Constitution does not provide for their
direct enforcement by the courts. Moreover, there is no legal sanction against their violation.
● It helps the Court in determining the constitutionality of the law. For instance, any law passed by the
legislatures, when taken to Court for constitutional validity of the law, if it is giving force to any
Fundamental Duty, then such law would be taken as reasonable.
Tags: Analytical, Factual
Q27.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Article 20 grants protection against arbitrary and excessive punishment to an accused person, whether
citizen or foreigner or legal person like a company or a corporation. It contains three provisions in that
direction:
○ No ex-post-facto law: No person shall be (i) convicted of any offence except for violation of a
law in force at the time of the commission of the act, nor (ii) subjected to a penalty greater than
that prescribed by the law in force at the time of the commission of the act.
○ No double jeopardy: No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more
than once.
○ No self-incrimination: No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness
against himself. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence.
However, it does not extend to (i) compulsory production of material objects, (ii) compulsion to give
thumb impression, specimen signature, blood specimens, and (iii) compulsory exhibition of the body.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Further, it extends only to criminal proceedings and not to civil proceedings or proceedings which
are not of criminal nature. So, statement 1 is not correct.
So, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Q28.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct
language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. Article 29 grants
protection to both religious minorities as well as linguistic minorities. However, the Supreme Court
held that the scope of this article is not necessarily restricted to minorities only, as it is commonly
assumed to be. This is because of the use of the words ‘section of citizens’ in the Article that includes
minorities as well as the majority. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The term ‘minority’ has not been defined anywhere in the Constitution.
● Article 30 states that all minorities shall have the right to establish and administer educational
institutions of their choice. The protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities (religious or
linguistic) and does not extend to any section of citizens (as under Article 29). So, statement 2 is
correct.
Tags: Conceptual
Q29.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● In 1978, the 44th Amendment to the Constitution removed the Right to Property from the list of
Fundamental Rights and converted it into a simple legal right under Article 300A. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
● Though the Fundamental Right to Property under Part III has been abolished, Part III still carries two
provisions that provide for the guaranteed right to compensation in case of acquisition or requisition
of private property by the state. These two cases where compensation has to be paid are:
○ When the State acquires the property of a minority educational institution (Article 30). This
provision was added by the 44th Amendment Act (1978).
○ When the State acquires the land held by a person under his cultivation and the land is within
the statutory ceiling limits (Article 31 A). This provision was added by the 17th Amendment Act
(1964). So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Since 1950, the Government has made many laws that limit the Right to Property. The Right to
Property was at the centre of the long debate over the relationship between Rights and Directive
Principles. Finally, in 1973, the Supreme Court gave a decision that the Right to Property was not part
of the basic structure of the Constitution and therefore, Parliament had the power to abridge this
right by an amendment. The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, did not declare that the Right
to Property is part of the Basic Structure. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, none of the above statements are correct.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Q30.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Since 1950, the successive governments at the Centre and in the States have made several laws and
formulated various programmes for implementing the Directive Principles. These are mentioned
below:
○ The Minimum Wages Act (1948), the Payment of Wages Act (1936), the Payment of Bonus Act (1965),
the Contract Labour Regulation and Abolition Act (1970), the Child Labour Prohibition and Regulation
Act (1986) and so on have been enacted to protect the interests of the labour sections. So, point 1 is
correct.
○ The Maternity Benefit Act (1961) and the Equal Remuneration Act (1976) have been made to protect
the interests of women workers. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Various measures have been taken to utilise the financial resources for promoting the common good.
These include nationalisation of life insurance (1956), the nationalisation of fourteen leading
commercial banks (1969), nationalisation of general insurance (1971), abolition of Privy Purses (1971)
and so on. So, point 3 is correct.
○ The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and the Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980, have been enacted to
safeguard the wildlife and the forests respectively. Further, the Water and Air Acts have provided for
the establishment of the Central and State Pollution Control Boards, which are engaged in the
protection and improvement of the environment. So, point 4 is correct.
Relevance: The Himachal Pradesh High Court has reiterated that every woman, irrespective of her employment
status, is entitled to maternity leave.
Q31.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Kesavananda Bharati (1973) ruling has set specific limits to Parliament’s power to amend the
Constitution. It said that no amendment can violate the basic structure of the Constitution. It allowed
Parliament to amend any and all parts of the Constitution but within this limitation. It placed the
Judiciary as the final authority in deciding if an amendment violates basic structure and what
constitutes the basic structure. So, statement 1 is correct.
● In the year 2000 a commission to review the working of the Constitution was appointed by the
Government of India under the chairmanship of a retired Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, Justice
Venkatachaliah. The commission stuck to the theory of basic structure and did not suggest any
measures that would endanger the basic structure of the Constitution. This highlighted the
significance of the basic structure doctrine in our constitutional practice. So, statement 2 is not
correct.
Tags: Factual
Q32.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Article 39 directs the State to secure:
(a) the right to adequate means of livelihood for all citizens
(b) the equitable distribution of material resources of the community for the common good
VAJIRAM & RAVI
(c) prevention of concentration of wealth and means of production
(d) equal pay for equal work for men and women
(e) preservation of the health and strength of workers and children against forcible abuse
(f) opportunities for healthy development of children
● Article 31-C, inserted by the 25th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971, provides that no law that
seeks to implement the socialistic directive principles specified in Article 39(b) or (c) shall be void on
the ground of contravention of the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14 (equality before law
and equal protection of laws) or Article 19 (protection of six rights in respect of speech, assembly,
movement, etc.). Article 31 C only covers laws that seeks to implement the directives mentioned under
Article 39 (b) and (c), and not any other laws. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.
○ Article 38 directs the State to promote the welfare of the people by securing a social order
permeated by justice–social, economic and political - and to minimise inequalities in income,
status, facilities and opportunities.
So, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Q33.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Amendability of Fundamental Rights was one of the major questions involved in multiple Landmark
judgements of the Supreme Court. Finally, in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court
laid down the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution.
● It ruled that the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the
‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. This means that the Parliament cannot abridge or take away a
Fundamental Right that forms a part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
● Welfare state, effective access to justice and freedom and dignity of the individual are part of the
basic structure. So, points 2 and 4 are correct.
● Limited (and not unlimited) power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution is a part of basic
structure. So, point 1 is not correct.
● Election of the President is not a part of basic structure. So, point 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above are part of the ‘basic structure’ of the Indian Constitution.
Relevance: Former Chief Justice of India (CJI) Ranjan Gogoi, a nominated member in Rajya Sabha, said that the
basic structure of the Constitution has a “debatable jurisprudential basis”.
Q34.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Supreme Court of India laid down a doctrine of ‘Basic Structure’ in the landmark judgement in
Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala case (1973). It is a judicially innovated doctrine; it is not a
Constitutional provision. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● At present, the Parliament under Article 368 can amend any part of the Constitution including the
Fundamental Rights but without affecting the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● The Constitution of India confers the power of judicial review on both the Supreme Court and the High
Courts (Under Articles 32 and 226). The Constitutional validity of a legislative enactment by Parliament
under Article 368 or executive order of both the Central and State Governments can be challenged in
the Supreme Court or in the High Courts. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Q35.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Freedom of Association (Article 19)
● All citizens have the right to form associations or unions or cooperative societies. It includes the right
to form political parties, companies, partnership firms, societies, clubs, organisations, trade unions or
anybody of persons. It not only includes the right to start an association or union but also to continue
with the association or union as such. Further, it covers the negative right of not to form or join an
association or union.
● Reasonable restrictions can be imposed on the exercise of this right by the State on the grounds of
sovereignty and integrity of India, public order and morality. Subject to these restrictions, the citizens
have complete liberty to form associations or unions for pursuing lawful objectives and purposes.
However, the right to obtain recognition of the association is not a fundamental right. So, statement
1 is not correct.
● The Supreme Court held that the trade unions have no guaranteed right to effective bargaining or
right to strike or right to declare a lockout. The right to strike can be controlled by an appropriate
industrial law. So, statement 2 is not correct.
Tags: Factual
Q36.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The basic structure doctrine is a concept in Indian Constitutional law which holds that certain fundamental
features of the Constitution are beyond the power of the Parliament to amend. These features, considered
essential to the basic structure of the Constitution, cannot be altered or destroyed through an amendment to
the Constitution.
● Waman Rao v. Union of India is a case of 1981 in which the Supreme Court examined the validity of
Article 31A and Article 31B of the Constitution of India with respect to the doctrine of basic structure
introduced under the Kesavananda Bharati case. In the Waman Rao case (1981), the Supreme Court
adhered to the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ and further clarified that it would apply to
Constitutional Amendments enacted after April 24, 1973 (i.e., the date of the judgement in the
Kesavananda Bharati case). So, point 1 is correct.
● I R Coelho Case, 2007 determined the importance of judicial review and the powers of the judiciary in
this aspect. The case is also referred to as the 9th Schedule Case and involved an exhaustive discussion
on Article 31-B of the Indian Constitution. This case removed the shield that the legislature took to
shield the laws violative of the Fundamental Rights, from judicial review (element of Basic Structure).
The judgement used Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973) as precedent. The supremacy of the
judiciary as the final interpreter of law was finally restored. So, point 2 is correct.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● Justice K. S. Puttaswamy, 2017 was a landmark case on privacy and dealt with the constitutional
validity of the Aadhaar scheme. The Supreme Court held that privacy is a Fundamental Right under
the Constitution and that the Aadhaar scheme should be tested against the standard of
proportionality. The case also discussed the balancing of individual rights and the state's interest in
implementing policies and touched upon the basic structure doctrine. In the case, the Court relied on
the basic structure doctrine in his concurring judgement to hold that the Constitution is a living
document. So, point 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above cases of the Supreme Court of India are related to the doctrine of Basic Structure.
Tags: Factual
Q37.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The jurisdiction to issue a writ of certiorari is a supervisory one and in exercising it, the Supreme Court
is not entitled to act as a Court of Appeal. That necessarily means that the findings of fact arrived at
by the inferior Court or tribunal are binding. An error of law apparent on the face of the record could
be corrected by a writ of certiorari, but not an error of fact; however grave it may appear to be. So,
● A writ of certiorari can be issued against an inferior Court or against a person or persons who are
required by law to act judicially or quasi-judicially. Certiorari is said to be a corrective remedy. The
very end of this writ is to correct the error apparent on the face of proceedings and to correct the
jurisdictional excesses. It also corrects the procedural omissions made by inferior courts or tribunals.
If any inferior court or tribunal has passed an order in violation of rules of natural justice, or in want
of jurisdiction, or there is an error apparent on the face of the proceeding, the proper remedy is
through the writ of certiorari. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ The Madras High Court in 1929 and again in 1940 in Chettiar v. Secretary to the Government of
Madras held that a writ of certiorari would not lie against Madras Government.
○ The Assam High Court has held that the writ of certiorari will be issued to an authority or body
of persons who are under a duty to act judicially. It will not be available against the
administrative order or against orders of non-statutory bodies.
○ Hence Certiorari will not be available against Central and Local Governments.
● The writ of certiorari can be issued on the following grounds:
○ Want of jurisdiction, which includes the following:
■ Excess of jurisdiction
■ Abuse of jurisdiction
■ Absence of jurisdiction
○ Violation of Natural justice
○ Fraud
○ Error on the face of records. So, statement 3 is correct.
Relevance: Recently, the Supreme Court summarised the cardinal principles governing the extraordinary
jurisdiction under Article 226, particularly concerning the writ of certiorari.
Tags: Conceptual, Analytical
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Q38.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● In the Golak Nath case, the Supreme Court, in a majority decision, held that the Indian Parliament did
not have the power to amend any part of the Constitution that affected the Fundamental Rights of the
citizens. It was based on the interpretation of Article 13(2) of the Indian Constitution, which states that
any law that is inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights shall be void. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● The Minerva Mills case is an important decision that reinforces the principle of constitutionalism and
the separation of powers and underscores the importance of the Doctrine of Basic Structure in limiting
the power of the legislature. The Supreme Court upheld the power of judicial review of Constitutional
Amendments. So, statement 2 is correct.
● In the Indra Sawhney judgement, also known as the Mandal Commission case, the Supreme Court held
that the total reservation should not exceed 50% barring certain extraordinary situations. The Court
also held that the creamy layer among the SEBCs should be excluded from the reservation benefits.
So, statement 3 is incorrect.
Q39.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Apart from the Directives included in Part IV, there are some other Directives contained in other Parts
of the Constitution. These Directives are also non-justiciable in nature. They are:
○ Claims of SCs and STs to Services: The claims of the members of the Scheduled Castes and the
Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of
efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection
with the affairs of the Union or a State (Article 335 in Part XVI). So, statement 1 is correct.
○ Instruction in mother tongue: It shall be the endeavour of every state and every local authority
within the state to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the
primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups (Article 350-A in
Part XVII). So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Development of the Hindi Language: It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of
the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the
elements of the composite culture of India (Article 351 in Part XVII). So, statement 3 is correct.
Tags: Factual
Q40.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Supreme Court (under Article 32) and the high courts (under Article 226) can issue the writs of
habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and quo-warranto.
● Only the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution can be enforced under Article 32 and
not any other right like non-fundamental constitutional rights, statutory rights, customary rights and
so on. The violation of a fundamental right is the sine qua non for the exercise of the right conferred
by Article 32. In other words, the Supreme Court, under Article 32, cannot determine a question that
VAJIRAM & RAVI
does not involve Fundamental Rights. Article 32 cannot be invoked simply to determine the
constitutionality of an executive order or a legislation unless it directly infringes any of the
fundamental rights. So, statement 2 is correct.
● On the other hand, a High Court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
but also for any other purpose. The expression ‘for any other purpose’ refers to the enforcement of
an ordinary legal right. Thus, the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court, in this respect, is narrower
than that of high court. So, statement 1 is correct.
So, both the Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
statement I.
Knowledge Box
Other differences between the writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and a High Court:
● The Supreme Court can issue writs against a person or government throughout the territory of
India whereas a High Court can issue writs against a person residing or against a government or
authority located within its territorial jurisdiction only or outside its territorial jurisdiction only if
the cause of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction. Thus, the territorial jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a high court.
● A remedy under Article 32 is in itself a Fundamental Right and hence, the Supreme Court may not
refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. On the other hand, a remedy under Article 226 is
discretionary and hence, a high court may refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction. The Supreme Court
is thus constituted as a defender and guarantor of the fundamental rights.
Q41.
Answer: C
Explanation:
● The National Commission for Backward Classes is a constitutional body under the jurisdiction of the
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment: This statement is correct. The National Commission for
Backward Classes (NCBC) is indeed a constitutional body, and it operates under the Ministry of Social
Justice and Empowerment, Government of India.
● The concept of the “creamy layer” was introduced in the case of Indra Sawhney & Others v. Union of
India: This statement is correct. The concept of the "creamy layer" was introduced by the Supreme
Court of India in the case of Indra Sawhney & Others v. Union of India (1992). It refers to the exclusion
of certain privileged sections from the benefits of reservation.
● The 105th Constitutional Amendment Act added Article 342A (3), giving state governments the power
to identify and notify Other Backward Classes (OBCs) on the state list: This statement is correct. The
105th Constitutional Amendment Act did introduce Article 342A (3), empowering state governments
to identify and notify Other Backward Classes (OBCs) on the state list.
● Therefore, all statements are correct.
Q42.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Limited government is the principle that no government power can be exercised without restriction.
Limited government is a principled form of rule in which all government officials have some form of
explicit constraint on their power. The limitation of government powers is generally articulated in a
document called a constitution.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● In a parliamentary government system, the executive branch, headed by the Prime Minister, is drawn
from the legislative branch, ensuring a close interconnection between the executive and legislative
functions.
● In a system with strong judicial independence, judges are shielded from undue influence or
interference, allowing them to make decisions based on the law and legal principles rather than
external pressures. Judicial independence is vital for upholding the rule of law, as it safeguards the
judiciary's ability to interpret and apply laws without bias, promoting public trust in the legal system.
● Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q43.
Answer: C
Explanation:
● The principle of separation of powers deals with the interrelation between the three major organs of
the government, namely legislature, executive and judiciary. This doctrine tries to bring exclusiveness
in the functioning of the three organs and hence a strict demarcation of powers is the aim sought to
be achieved by this principle.
● The IR Coelho case stands as a landmark in affirming the principle that no branch of government is
immune to judicial review, especially when the constitutional fabric, including the separation of
powers and the basic structure, is at stake.
● I R Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007): It was held that every law must be tested under Article 14,
19 and 21 if it came into force after 24th April 1973.
○ In addition, the court upheld its previous rulings and declared that any act can be challenged
and is open to scrutiny by the judiciary if it is not in consonance with the basic structure of the
constitution.
○ In addition, it was held that if the constitutional validity of any law under the ninth schedule
has been upheld before, in future it cannot be challenged again.
● Therefore, option C is the correct answer.
Q44.
Answer: C
Explanation:
● On 28th June, 2021, the Supreme Court passed a judgement upholding the right to reservation in
promotions in State of Kerala v. Leesamma Joseph. The two-judge Bench comprising Justice Sanjay
Kishan Kaul and Justice Subhash Reddy interpreted the provisions of the 1995 and 2016 laws pertaining
to rights of persons with disabilities.
● The Court noted that by virtue of its purpose, Article 16 and The Persons with Disabilities (Equal
Opportunities, Protection of Rights and Full Participation) Act, 1995 (the 1995 Act) allow for the
reasonable accommodations to be made for persons with disabilities. This included reservations at the
stage of promotions.
Q45.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Minorities’ right to establish and administer educational institution was provided in the original
constitution of India
● Right to Education under Article 21A: It describes modalities of the importance of free and compulsory
education for children aged between 6-14 years in India under Article 21 (A) of the Constitution of
India (86th Amendment).
○ The Act mandates 25% reservation for disadvantaged sections of the society where
disadvantaged groups include:
VAJIRAM & RAVI
■ SCs and STs
■ Socially Backward Class
■ Differently abled
● Article 29 and 30 of Indian Constitution contain provisions securing rights of minorities and minority-
run institutions.
○ Minority institutions have the fundamental right under Article 30 of the Constitution to establish
and administer their educational institutions according to their choice. In this context, RTE was
amended to add in Sections 1(4) and 1(5) of the Act.
○ Section 1(5) of the RTE Act states, “Nothing contained in this Act shall apply to madrasas, Vedic
pathshalas and educational institutions primarily imparting religious instruction.
○ Section 1(4) of the RTE states that “Subject to the provisions of Articles 29 and 30 of the
Constitution, the provisions of this Act shall apply to conferment of rights on children to free
and compulsory education.
● The Tapas Majumdar Committee was established in 1999 to insert Article 21A into the constitution.
● Therefore, option (d) is correct.
Q46.
Answer: a
Explanation
● Part IXB, introduced into the Constitution through the 97th Amendment, 2011. It added a new
Article 43B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of
cooperative societies”. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
● The inclusion of the term "cooperatives" occurred subsequent to "unions and associations" in
Article 19(1)(c) within Part III of the Constitution. This inclusion grants citizens the fundamental
right to establish cooperatives. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
● Part IXB, introduced into the Constitution through the 97th Amendment, dictated the terms for
running co-operative societies. The provisions in the Amendment, passed by Parliament without
getting them ratified by State legislatures as required by the Constitution. Hence, Statement 3 is
incorrect.
Q47.
Answer: b
Explanation
● It defines both of them as follows:
○ "person with benchmark disability" means a person with not less than forty per cent. of a
specified disability where, specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and
includes a person with disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable
terms, as certified by the certifying authority;
○ "person with disability" means a person with long term physical, mental, intellectual or sensory
impairment which, in interaction with barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in
society equally with others. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct
● Section 32 of the law mandates that all government and government-aided higher education
institutions must reserve at least five percent of seats for individuals with benchmark disabilities.
Additionally, those with benchmark disabilities are eligible for a five-year upper age relaxation for
admission to higher education institutions. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.
● The Ministry of social Justice and empowerment have identified the jobs/ posts suitable to be held
with Disabilities and the physical requirement for all such jobs/posts. Therefore, Statement 3 is
incorrect.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
Q48.
Answer: b
Explanation
● Our Constitution clearly envisaged that the privileges of Parliament and of State legislatures would be
defined by law and until so defined would be what they were in the case of the House of Commons at
the commencement of the Constitution. But neither Parliament nor the State legislatures have defined
them till today. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.
● Article 121 of the Constitution prohibits any discussion in Parliament regarding the “conduct of any
Judge of the Supreme Court or of a High Court in the discharge of his duties except upon a motion for
presenting an address to the President praying for the removal of the Judge...”. Therefore, Statement
2 is correct.
● Debate and discussion are one of the most important essentials of a parliamentary democracy. Only
free debate could lead to the scope for expressing dissent. Anti- Defection law curtails this by
mandating that once the political party has mandated a parliamentarian to vote in a specific manner,
the political party member cannot vote in a conflicting manner.
Q49.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Preventive detention, also known as administrative detention, is the act of taking someone into
custody because they are believed to be a threat to law and order. The primary goal of preventive
detention is to prevent someone from committing a future offense, not to punish them for a past
offense.
● In the case of Banka Sneha Sheela v. State of Telangana, the Supreme Court of India ruled that a
person's apprehension of breaking the law can be a reason to challenge a court's bail order. The court
also ruled that a possible fear of breaking the law and order cannot be a reason to detain someone
under Preventive Detention Laws.
● The Court explained, “When a person is preventively detained, it is Article 21 and 22 that are
attracted and not Article 19. Further, preventive detention must fall within the four corners of Article
21 read with Article 22 and the statute in question. To therefore argue that a liberal meaning must be
given to the expression ‘public order’ in the context of a preventive detention statute is wholly
inapposite and incorrect. On the contrary, considering that preventive detention is a necessary evil
only to prevent public disorder, the Court must ensure that the facts brought before it directly and
inevitably leads to a harm, danger or alarm or feeling of insecurity among the general public or any
section thereof at large.”
● Hence, option (c) is correct.
Q50.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Right to Privacy: In Puttaswamy v. Union of India case, 2017, the Right to Privacy was declared a
fundamental right by the Supreme Court.
● Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article
21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.
● Right to be Forgotten: It is the right to have publicly available personal information removed from
the internet, search, databases, websites or any other public platforms, once the personal
information in question is no longer necessary, or relevant. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
● The RTBF gained importance after the 2014 decision of the Court of Justice of the European Union
(“CJEU”) in the Google Spain case.
VAJIRAM & RAVI
● In the Indian context, the Supreme Court in Puttaswamy v. Union of India, 2017 noted that the RTBF
was a part of the broader right of privacy. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
● Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

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VAJIRAM & RAVI

Institute for IAS Examination

PRELIMS CAMP 2024

1. (B) 11. (D) 21. (A) 31. (A) 41. (C)

2. (B) 12. (A) 22. (B) 32. (D) 42. (D)

3. (D) 13. (D) 23. (A) 33. (B) 43. (C)

4. (C) 14. (B) 24. (C) 34. (D) 44. (C)

5. (B) 15. (A) 25. (C) 35. (D) 45. (D)

6. (C) 16. (C) 26. (A) 36. (C) 46. (B)

7. (B) 17. (A) 27. (D) 37. (B) 47. (B)

8. (C) 18. (A) 28. (C) 38. (B) 48. (B)

9. (D) 19. (C) 29. (D) 39. (D) 49. (C)

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