TEST BOOKLET

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

Thematic Test Series for csp22
TEST - TTS-X
Time Allowed: 2 Hour Maximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD

CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or
MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST
BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.

Test - X
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. A items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet, you
have to ll in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed lling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A

CANDIDATE IN THEOBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

* All contents of this question paper are created and curated at IASExamCongress (IASEC).

* If issues and for corrections: reach us at careiasec@gmail.com.

* To unlock all papers of TTS: click me

l
fi
fi
 IAS Exam Congress
Q1. Which of the following is not correct
in context of investment of profits in a
firm?
(a) Investment of profits may tend to
create more capital goods than wage
goods.
(b) Investment of profits is expenditure of
monetary capital.
(c) Investment of profits will invariably
redistribute the capital in a society.
(d) Investment of profits will duplicate the
monetary capital.
Q2. Which one among the following
statements is correct?
(a) Prokaryotic cells possess nucleus.
(b) Cell membrane is present both in
plant and animal cells.
(c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are not
found in eukaryotic cells.
(d) Ribosomes are present in eukaryotic
cells only.
Q3. Which of the following characteristics
describes the nature of religion according
to the Rig Veda?
1. Rig Vedic religion can be described as
naturalistic polytheism.
2. There are striking similarities between
the Rig Vedic religion and the ideas in
the Iranian Avesta.
3. Vedic sacrifices were conducted in the
house of the priest who was called
yajamana.
4. Vedic sacrifices were of two kinds
those conducted by the householder
those that required ritual specialists.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Agenda’22 IASEC
Q4. Which of the following statement(s)
about caste movements in early 20th
century is/are false?
1. Kerala's first modern novel Indulekha
attacked the social dominance of
Nambudiri Brahmans in Kerala.
2. CV. Raman Pillai's novel Marthanda
Varma was written against the
exploitation of peasants by the Nair
landlords.
3. Shri Narayana Guru was one of the
founders of the Sree Narayana
Dharma Paripalana Yogam that was
engaged in the upliftment of the
Ezhavas in Kerala.
4. Dr. Palpu, the first Ezhava graduate,
was one of the founders of the Sree
Narayana Dharma Paripalana Yogam
that was engaged in the upliftment of
the Ezhavas in Kerala.
TTS-X
5. From 1890, Rettamalai Srinivasan
collected historical records and
evidence to remove the stigma
attached to the Tamil caste Paraiyar.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 and 5 only
Q5. In which of the following cases did
the Supreme Court of India rule that
Constitutional Amendments were also
laws under Article 13 of the Constitution
of India, which could be declared void for
being inconsistent with Fundamental
Rights ?
(a) Keshavanand Bharati Case
(b) Golaknath Case
(c) Minerva Mills Case
(d) Maneka Gandhi Case
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q6. Which of the following statement(s)
is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule
Constitution of India?
1. 9th schedule along with Article 31B
was added in 1951 through the first
amendment in Indian Constitution.
2. It includes those laws which are
beyond the purview of judicial review.
3. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are
primarily those which pertain to the
matters of national security.
4. Currently, ninth schedule has total of
220 central and state laws with in its
ambit.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Q9. Which of the following statements
about Mahatma Gandhi’s South African
experiences (1893 – 1914) is/are true?
1. Muslim merchants were actively
involved in Gandhian political
movements in South Africa.
2. In 1906, Gandhi led a campaign in
Cape Town against the ordinance on
compulsory registration and passes
for Indians.
3. Gandhi began his political career with
struggles against the imposition of
excessive taxes on Indians in Cape
Town.
4. Lord Hardinge, the viceroy of India,
courageously denounced the high-
handed policies of the South African
Government.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:

TTS-X
Q7. “If I was asked to name any particular (a) 1 and 2 only
Article in the Constitution as the most (b) 3 only
important, it is this Article, without which (c) 1, 2 and 3
the Constitution would be a nullity- I (d) 1 and 4 only
would not refer to any other Article except
this one. I am glad that the house had
realised its importance”. Q10. A Parliamentry Democracy is one
Which out of the following articles is where
being referred to in the above passage 1. a balance of popular participation and
sourced from speech of Dr. B. R. elite rule takes place.
Ambedkar?
2. the government is responsible not to
(a) Article 14
the public but to the elected
(b) Article 21
representatives.
(c) Article 32
3. the parliamentarians are delegated
(d) Article 148 the responsibility of thinking and
acting on behalf of their constituents.
Q8. Which among the following is not a Select the correct answer using the code
characteristic feature of the ‘democratic
given below:
socialism’?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) Collective decision making
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Social ownership of the economy
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Increased social spending
(d) 1 only
(d) Abolition of all private means of
production

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q11. When martial law is imposed,
Parliament cannot make law in respect of
which one of the following matters?
(a) Indemnify any person in respect of
any act done by him in connection
with the maintenance of order in the
area where martial law was in force
(b) Parliament can by law validate any
sentence passed when martial law
was in force in the area
(c) A law of Parliament can validate
forfeiture ordered when martial law
was in force in the area
(d) Any act done under martial law can
be validated by Parliament by law
Q12. Which among the following features
of a federal system is not found in the
Indian Political System?
(a) Dual citizenship
(b) Distribution of powers between the
Federal and the State Governments
(c) Supremacy of the Constitution
(d) Authority of the Courts to interpret
the Constitution.
Q13. Which of the following options
correctly list the commodities that were
high in demand in Europe that led to a
fierce competition between the European
Companies?
(a) Cardamom, indigo and cloves
(b) Pepper, salt and silkpatre
(c) Pepper, cinnamon and silk
(d) Salt, sweet oil and opium
Q14. The interest of British Government
of India in Afghanistan in the nineteenth
century came about in order to
(a) make use of the natural resources of
Afghanistan.
(b) ensure that Russian empire did not
have an influence over Afghanistan.
(c) increase the reach of the British
Empire.
(d) establish a monopoly over markets of
Afghanistan.
Agenda’22 IASEC
Q15. Which of the following statements is
not correct?
(a) State of Arcot and Mysore both
emerged at the same time.
(b) Arcot became the site of a protracted
struggle between the English and
Dutch East India Companies from the
1740s.
(c) In 1640s, the East India Company
constructed citadel known as the Fort
St George in Madras, making it the
first trading settlement city in India to
be fortified.
(d) The Fort St George was subject to
attack from the ruler of Mysore, Hyder
Ali, on five occasions in the later 18th
century.
Q16. Which of the following is/are not
the characteristic(s) of the First Past The
Post System (FPTP)?
TTS-X
1. It is a majoritarian system where
minorities are likely to remain
unrepresented.
2. A candidate may win an election even
if he/she gets less than the majority of
the votes cast.
3. It generates proportionality between
the votes cast and the seats won.
4. It always leads to a two party system
and a stable and accountable
government.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 4 only
Q17. When two goods are completely
interchangeable, they are
(a) Perfect substitutes
(b) Perfect complements
(c) Giffen goods
(d) Veblen goods
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. Penicillin inhibits the synthesis of
bacterial cell wall.
2. Viral vector based vaccines contain
small protein fragments of a virus for
the immune system to recognise as
foreign agent.
3. mRNA vaccine instructs the body of
user to create the spike protein unlike
protein based vaccine which already
have synthetic proteins prepared in
laboratory.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q19. Contribution of the manufacturing
sector to environmental degradation
Q21. Private investment in the Indian
agriculture is mostly on labour-saving
mechanization. This could be a response
to
(a) rising productivity of agricultural
sector
(b) rising inequality in agriculture
(c) rising wages and tighter labour
market
(d) debt write-off by the Government
Q22. Consider the following statements:
1. A higher tax to GDP ratio for a nation
indicates that in the long run nation
stands to reduce poverty.
2. At present, India’s debt to GDP ratio is
less than 60%.
3. In Central Government’s liabilities,
the contribution of National Small

TTS-X
primarily occurs during Savings Fund is more than the total
1. procurement and use of natural external Debt.
resources Which of the statements given above is/
2. industrial processes and activities are correct?
3. product use and disposal (a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 and 3 only
given below: (c) 3 only
(a) 1 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only Q23. Consider the following,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 “The region/park comprises of Mangrove
Forests, meandering rivers, innumerable
Q20. Constitution of India guarantees crisscrossed tidal inundated creeks that
freedom of thought and expression to all provide the last refuge to already
its citizens subject to endangered salt water crocodile which is
1. implementation of Directive Principles the flagship species of the park.”
2. Fundamental Duties Which of the following region/national
3. Right to Equality park is being referred to in the above
Select the correct answer using the code description?
given below. (a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Sunderbans Region
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Keibul Lamjao National park
(c) 1 only (d) Pichavaram Mangrove Forest
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q24. Which out of the following rights/
freedoms of an individual lies at the core
of democratic system of government?
(a) Independent judiciary
(b) Freedom of speech and expression
(c) Right to vote
(d) Freedom of religion
Q25. Consider the following statements:
1. The freedom of the press embodies the
right of the people to free speech and
expression.
2. Right to fly the national flag is part of
Freedom of speech and expression but
it should not be done for commercial
purposes.
3. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment
act imposed some restrictions on the
fundamental rights of the citizens with
a view to protect the sovereignty and
integrity of India.
4. In India, Supreme Court has declared
Right to shelter and services as the
basic human rights but not the
fundamental rights.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q26. Indian concept of social justice
enshrines the abolition of untouchability,
in this context, which of the following
provisions of the Constitution of India
have/has bearing on the “abolition of
untouchability”?
1. Fundamental Duties
2. Preamble
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Agenda’22
Q27. Consider the following statements:
1. All the Fundamental Rights in part III
of the constitution.
2. Limited power of parliament to amend
the constitution.
3. Secularism in Preamble
4. Free and fair elections.
5. Welfare state
Which of the above-given statements are
components of basic structure doctrine in
the constitution?
(a) 1, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
(c) 2, 4, and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4, and 5
Q28. Which of the following is the best
description of the term ‘Black Hole’?
(a) A physical singularity in the space
time where a mass of infinite density
TTS-X
is present
(b) The region at the center of a galaxy
that emits extremely powerful jets of
radiation
(c) An enormous cloud of dust and gas
occupying the space between stars
and acting as a nursery for new stars
(d) A highly dense region in the space and
time where effects of light can’t be
observed by outside world
Q29. Consider the following statements:
1. Indian Grey Wolf inhabits the dry
grassland regions of Deccan Plateau.
2. Himalayan Brown Bear are mostly
found in the higher reaches of Eastern
Himalayan ranges.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q30. ‘Great Reset Initiative’, sometimes Q34. The proposals of Cabinet Mission
seen in news in context of did NOT include:
(a) Climate Equity 1. A three-tier structure for the Union of
(b) Gender equality India, with both the Provinces and the
(c) Reforming capitalism Princely States
(d) UN reforms 2. Formation of a Constituent Assembly.
3. Creation of a sovereign Pakistan with
six Muslim-majority provinces.
Q31. Places “Etikoppaka, Channapatna,
Select the correct answer using the code
Nirmal” recently in news, are known for
given below:
(a) Unique Bronze vessels making
techniques (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) Architecture marvels of Bahmani (b) 2 only
sultanates (c) 1 and 2 only
(c) Different Geographical Indication (GI) (d) 3 only
tagged toys
(d) River-based civilization dating back to Q35. The Triangular Trade in the 19th
the Indus Valley Civilisation period Century was started by East India
company to
(a) Commercialise India’s Agriculture
Q32. Consider the following statements in (b) Improve the returns on trade revenue
context of E3 certification programme: (c) To manipulate Balance of trade in

TTS-X
1. It is a programme for Brick Company’s favour
manufacturing Sector. (d) To restore India’s reputation as top
2. It will lead to cost savings to builders opium exporter
and energy savings to occupiers of
buildings. Q36. In context of religious literature of
3. The E3 Certificate will be awarded to India, a group of people identified as
those enterprises whose specific sapindas were part of discussions in
energy consumption will be 10% lower (a) Jaina agamas
than the national baseline. (b) Buddhist Jatakas
Which of the statements given is/are (c) Dharma shastras
correct? (d) Vedic Brahamanas
(a) 3 only
Q37. Consider the following statements
(b) 2 and 3 only
about Harappan cities:
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. Roads were not always absolutely
(d) 2 only
straight and did not always cross one
another at right angles.
2. A striking feature is the uniformity in
Q33. Which of the following is believed to the average size of the bricks for
be a compilation of the psalms sung by
houses and for city walls.
the women?
Which of the statements given above is/
(a) Sumangalavilasini
are correct?
(b) Therigatha
(a) 1 only
(c) Stridharmapaddhati
(b) 2 only
(d) Ritusamhara
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q38. Which of the following statements Q42. In context of different types of
about the philosopher Shankara is/are LEDs, presently in use, consider the
true? following statements:
1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta 1. OLEDs gives better image quality and
called Advaita. have faster response times.
2. He elaborated on the philosophy of 2. OLED-panels emit their own light,
Gaudapada. whereas cells in a LCD-LED display
3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that require an external light source.
the Upanishads and Brahmasutras 3. Micro-LEDs are improved version of
contain unified and systematic OLED display that reduces the cost of
philosophy. production.
4. Shankara founded Amanaya Mathas. 4. QLEDs completely mitigates the
Select the correct answer using the code blooming effect seen in normal LED
given below. display.
(a) 1 and 2 only Which of the statements given above is/
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct?
(c) 3 and 4 (a) 1 only
(d) 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Q39. Recently launched, Project RE-HAB (d) 1 and 2 only

TTS-X
is aimed at
(a) Production of quality honey products. Q43. Which of the following best
(b) Improving the availability of mental describes the term “Bio Capacity”?
support system to young students. (a) It is used to describe the increase in
(c) Minimise the Human and Elephants concentration of a substance in an
conflicts organism over time
(d) Upgrading intelligence capabilities to (b) It is an ability of ecosystems to
tackle rising substance abuse produce useful biological materials
and to absorb waste materials
Q40. Which of the following ministry generated by humans
releases Consumer Price Index for (c) It refers to the accumulation of a
Industrial Workers (CPI-IW)? chemical in tissues of a fish or other
(a) Ministry of Finance organism to levels greater than that in
(b) Ministry of Statistics and Programme the surrounding
Implementation (d) It is the withholding capacity of a
(c) Ministry of Labour& Employment living organism to an externally
(d) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium applied electric current
Enterprises
Q44. Which one of the following
Q41. Which of the following is not a true characteristics is common among parrot,
bird? platypus and kangaroo?
(a) Bats (a) Oviparity
(b) Ostrich (b) Toothless jaws
(c) Peacock (c) Homothermy
(d) Emu (d) Functional post anal tail

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q45. Which of the following statements
is/are correct?
1. Some species of turtles have shown
temperature dependence of gender of
the turtle hatchlings.
2. Some species of birds require olfactory
clues to navigate from one place to
another.
3. Some species of snakes can find out a
hidden animal by the heat radiated by
that animal.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q46. Which of the following is not correct
in context of Gene Editing?
(a) Genome editing can be used to
introduce targeted mutations.
(b) Using CRISPR Cas eukaryotic genome
can be cut at any desired position.
(c) Present level of research has not been
able to edit mitochondrial DNAs.
(d) Gene editing can be used to alter
genes in human embryos to give
immunity against diseases like HIV.
Q47. Magnetic levitation technology is
best used in
(a) MRI and X-rays
(b) Identifying potential Gold mines
(c) Transportation
(d) Study Solar corona
Q48. Term ‘perovskite’, is often seen in
news, in context of
(a) Solar cells
(b) Hydrogen fuel cells
(c) Gases on Planet Mars
(d) Ancient fossils
Agenda’22 IASEC
Q49. Consider the following statements:
1. The Aedes aegypti mosquitoes have
been linked with the Zika, dengue and
chikungunya.
2. Scientists from Delhi University have
successfully extracted and altered a
gene OX513A that can be used to
biological control population of Aedes
Aegypti.
3. The offspring of these genetically
modified mosquitoes, which are
always females, will never survive to
reach maturity.
4. Only female mosquitoes bite as they
need a blood meal to produce eggs.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
TTS-X
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q50. Which among the following will
produce gravitational waves that can be
observed and recorded?
1. An asteroid approaching Earth
2. Fast spinning lumpy neutron star
3. Binary Black hole system
4. Collision of a neutron star and a black
hole
Select the correct answer using the code
given below
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q51. “Iron Dome aerial defence system”,
often seen in news, is developed by
(a) United States of America
(b) Russia
(c) Israel
(d) South Korea
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q52. Bioremediation is an emerging
method in fight against pollution. Which
of the is/are the present day limitations
or disadvantages of bioremediation?
1. The existing environmental gradients
in a wetlands affects the efficiency of
such methods.
2. Biopile method has been linked with
contamination of groundwater.
3. Bioremediation can’t be used to clean
systems affected by the heavy metal
pollutants.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Q53. With respect to the ‘Two Degree
Initiative’ (2DI), consider the following
statements:
1. It is an intergovernmental coalition of
like minded countries that aims to
transform the global food system for a
climate-smart future.
2. 2DI’s ambition is to reach 20 billion
farmers through 10 participating
Regional Challenges that include
projects in low- and middle-income
countries.
3. It is supported by UN-FAO, World
Bank and Government of Germany.
Which of the statements given above is/
are not correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Agenda’22 IASEC
Q54. Most of the desert plants bloom
during night time because
(a) the desert insects eat away flower
during day time.
(b) their blooming is controlled by low
temperature.
(c) the desert insects are active during
night time.
(d) they are sensitive to the phase of
moon
Q55. Consider the following statements:
1. Green Growth Knowledge Partnership
(GGKP) is a global community of
different stakeholders which aims to
generate and share knowledge on the
transition to an all inclusive green
economy.
2. Global Green Growth Institute (GGGI)
TTS-X
is a treaty-based international, inter-
governmental organisation dedicated
to supporting and promoting strong,
inclusive and sustainable economic
growth in developing countries and
emerging economies.
3. Both GGKP and GGGI were created at
the Rio+20.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q56. The 'eye' of the cyclone has :
(a) abnormally high temperature and
lowest pressure
(b) abnormally low temperature and
pressure
(c) clear sky and lowest temperature
(d) dense cloud cover and low pressure
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q57. Consider the following statements : Q60. Which of the following is not a
1. Most of the coal and the ferrous group 'Public Good'?
of minerals in India occur in the (a) Electricity
peninsula, south of the Vindhyas (b) National Defence
2. The peninsular India once formed part (c) Light House
of the super-continent which included (d) Public Parks
Australia, Antarctica, Africa and
South America. Q61. Which one of the following is not
Which of the statements given above is/ among the aims of the Second Five Year
Plan (1956-57 to 1960-61) ?
are correct?
(a) Rapid industrialization with particular
(a) 1 only
emphasis on the development of basic
(b) 2 only and heavy industries
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) Large expansion of employment
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 opportunities
(c) Achieve self-sufficiency in food grains
Q58. Which one of the following nations and increase agricultural production
has faced severe economic crisis recently to meet the requirements of industry
resulting in temporary default in and exports
repayment of IMF loan and seeking (d) Reduction of inequalities in income
and wealth and a more even
bailout?
distribution of economic power

TTS-X
(a) Pakistan
(b) Greece Q62. The immediate objective/objectives
(c) Sri Lanka of the National Population Policy 2000
(d) Belgium was/were
1. to meet the needs of health
Q59. Which of the following statement(s) infrastructure and to provide basic
are true with respect to the concept of reproductive health care.
"EFFICIENCY' as used in mainstream 2. to lower the total fertility rate to the
economics? replacement level.
1. Efficiency occurs when no possible 3. to achieve universal immunisation of
children.
reorganisation of production can
Select the correct answer using the code
make anyone better of f without
given below:
making someone else worse off.
(a) 1 only
2. An economy is most efficient if it is
(b) 3 only
inside the Production Possibility
(c) 2 and 3 only
Frontier (PPF).
(d) 1 and 2 only
3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is
on its Production Possibility Frontier Q63. Which of the following is the most
(PPF).
progressive mode/method of raising
Select the correct answer using the code
public finances?
given below :
(a) Disinvestment
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Income Tax
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Wealth Tax
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Cess and Surcharges

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q64. Which of the following is/are Q67. Which of the following statements is
example(s) of Near Money' ? incorrect with reference to the PM-
1. Treasury Bill AASHA Scheme?
2. Credit Card (a) This Scheme provides price support
for pulses, oilseeds and copra.
3. Savings accounts and small time (b) Under this Scheme, there is no
deposits quantitative limit on physical
4. Retail money market mutual funds procurement of the commodities.
Select the correct answer using the code (c) It provides for compensation to the
given below: farmers on selling the commodities
(a) 1 only below the MSP.
(b) 2 only (d) The PM-AASHA Scheme provides
flexibility to the states to rope in the
(c) 1, 2 and 3
private sector for undertaking
(d) 1, 3 and 4 procurement.

Q65. Which of the following function/
functions is/are performed by Reserve
Bank of India under its mandate as
‘Banker to Government’?
1. Management of Public Debt of central
government.
2. Managing accounts of all States
Q68. Consider the following statements:
1. Both Scheduled and Non-Scheduled
banks are required to comply with the
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and the
statutory liquidity ratio (SLR) norms.
2. During normal times, Non- Scheduled
banks cannot borrow loans from the

TTS-X
3. Management of cash deposits of RBI.
Central Government 3. All the Payments Banks and Small
4. Setting up fiscal deficit targets Finance Banks are categorized as
5. Declaring the monetary policy interest Non- Scheduled banks.
rates. Which of the statements given above is/
Select the correct answer using the code are correct?
given below: (a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 only (c) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 5
Q69. Which of the following Central taxes
Q66. Consider the following: form part of the Central Divisible Pool of
1. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana taxes for the Finance Commission?
2. Indira Awas Yojana 1. Corporate Tax
3. MG-NREGA 2. Income Tax
Which of the above schemes/programmes 3. Integrated GST
have contributed to development of rural 4. Surcharge/Cess collected by Centre
infrastructure? Select the correct answer using the code
(a) 1, 2 given below:
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q70. Which among the following Q74. In a society, high levels of inequality
countries has recently established the of opportunity
Wealth Redistribution Council? 1. Improve skill accumulation
(a) China 2. Discourage social mobility
(b) Japan 3. Depress economic growth
(c) Bhutan Select the correct answer using the code
(d) UK given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
Q71. With respect to present status of
(b) 3 only
India's Agricultural Exports, consider the
(c) 2 and 3 only
following statements:
1. India is overall the net exporter of (d) 1, 2 and 3
Agricultural commodities.
2. India is among the top 5 countries in Q75. In context of governance, consider
export of Agricultural commodities. the following:
3. Spices account for largest share of 1. Encouraging the Foreign Direct
agricultural exports. Investment inflows.
Which of the statements given above is/ 2. Privatization of higher educational
are correct? Institutions.
(a) 1 only 3. Down – sizing of bureaucracy.
(b) 1 and 2 only 4. Selling/offloading the shares of Public

TTS-X
(c) 2 and 3 only Sector Undertakings.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the above can be used as
measures to control the fiscal deficit in
Q72. The World Health Organization’s India?
REPLACE programme is related to which
(a) 1, 2 and 3
of the following?
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(a) Eliminating industrially-produced
(c) 1, 2 and 4
trans fats.
(b) Reducing all trans-fats in all foods to (d) 3 and 4 only
less than 2%.
(c) Reducing the intake of junk food. Q76. Consider the following components
(d) Replacing the ground water with of Consumers Price Index (CPI):
potable tap water for drinking 1. Pulses and products
purpose. 2. Clothing
3. Fuel and Light
Q73. Higher parking of funds by the 4. Vegetables
banks with the Reserve Bank of India Arrange the components given above in
under the Reverse Repo is likely to increasing order of their weight in CPI.
(a) increase both the Reserve Money and Select the correct answer using the code
the Broad Money. given below:
(b) increase the Broad Money, but reduce (a) 3 - 4 - 1 - 2
the Reserve Money. (b) 3 - 4 - 2 - 1
(c) increase the Reserve Money, but (c) 2 - 3 - 1 - 4
reduce the Broad Money. (d) 4 - 1 - 3 - 2
(d) decrease both the Reserve Money and
the Broad Money.

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q77. Which one of the following is Q81. Consider the following statements :
common element between Kailasanatha 1. Abhinavagupta wrote comprehensive
Temple at Ellora and the Shore Temple at treatise called the Tantraloka which
Mamallapuram? systematically presents the teachings
(a) Both are examples of Nagara of the Kula and Trika systems
architecture 2. The Samaraichchakaha by Haribhadra
(b) Both are carved out from solid rocks Suri written in Gujarat around the
(c) Both are Gupta period Temples eighth century is technically not a
(d) Both were built under the patronage tantric work but is saturated with
tantric ideas and practices.
of Pallava Kings
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
Q78. Which of the following is/are not
(a) 1 only
depicted in the Rajput paintings ?
(b) 2 only
1. The stories of Krishna
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Ragas and Raginis
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. The deeds of Hamza
4. The deeds of Babur
Q82. Who among the following
Select the correct answer using the code
chroniclers wrote about Raziyya and
given below :
recognised that she was more able and
(a) 1, 2 and 3

TTS-X
qualified than all her brothers?
(b) 2, 3 and (a) Zia-ud-din Barani
(c) 3 and 4 only (b) Amir Khusrau
(d) 4 only (c) Minhaj-i-Siraj
(d) Ibn Battuta
Q79. Which one among the following
statements about the coins of the Gupta Q83. Consider the following statements:
rulers is correct? 1. The inscriptions on the pillar at
(a) The obverse and reverse, both, had Rummindei give vivid details of
only the king's portrait and date Ashoka's Dhamma.
(b) The obverse and reverse, both, had 2. The Nigalisagar inscription records
only an image of a deity and date the fact of Ashoka having visited the
(c) The obverse generally had king's Konagamana stupa.
portrait and reverse always had a date Which of the statements given above is/
(d) None of these are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
Q80. The agrahara in early India was:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(a) the name of a village or land granted
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
to Brahmins
(b) the garland of flowers of Agar
Q84. Tulsidas wrote Ramacharitamanas
(c) the grant of land to officers and
during the reign of:
soldiers
(a) Jahangir
(d) land or village settled by Vaishya (b) Rama Raha
farmers (c) Akbar
(d) Sikandar Lodhi

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q85. Which of the following statements Q89. Which of the following statements
is/are true? with regard to citizenship provisions of
1. Faxian's Gaoseng Farian Zhuan was the Constitution of India is/are correct?
the earliest first-hand Chinese 1. No person shall be a citizen of India
account of the Buddhist sites and
by virtue of Article 5, or be deemed to
practices in India.
2. Faxian was only 25 years old at the be a citizen of India by virtue of Article
time of writing the text. 6 or Article 8, if he/she has
3. Faxian's main aim in coming to India voluntarily acquired the citizenship of
was to obtain and take back texts any foreign State.
containing monastic rules. 2. The Parliament has power to make
Select the correct answer using the code any provision with. respect to the
given below : acquisition and termination of
(a) 1, 2 and 3
citizenship and all other matters
(b) 2 only
relating to citizenship
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
Q86. Which one of the following pairs is (a) 1 only
not properly matched? (b) 2 only
(a) Burzahom Culture-Jhelum Valley (c) Both 1 and 2
(b) Ganeshwar Culture-N. E. Rajasthan (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) Jorwe Culture-Maharashtra
(d) Ahar Culture-Madhya Pradesh

TTS-X
Q90. Which of the following statements is
Q87. Who were Jangamas? incorrect about later Vedic and post-
(a) Followers of Kashmiri Saivism Vedic periods?
(b) Priests of Virasaivism (a) The evidence of asramas or stages of
(c) The female members of Kapalika sect life comes from later Vedic texts.
(d) The dancing girls attached to Siva (b) The concept of the asramas was firmly
temples established during the age of the
Dharmasutras.
Q88. Which one of the following (c) The concept of four stages of life is
statements with regard to India's applicable to all the four varnas.
economy between 1814 to 1860 is not (d) The whole life of an individual was
correct? divided into a series of samskaras or
(a) Between 1814 and 1850, four sacraments.
commodities dominated India's
exports--raw silk, opium, cotton and Q91. Which of the following has/have
indigo. recognized Principle of Inter-generational
(b) Between 1814 and 1860, five Equity?
commodities dominated India's 1. The Stockholm Declaration, 1972
exports-raw silk, opium, cotton, indigo 2. Sustainable Development Framework
and jute. 3. The Paris Agreement Preamble
(c) I n d i g o a n d r a w s i l k ' r e q u i r e d Select the correct answer using the code
processing techniques. given below:
(d) Indigo and raw silk were financed by (a) 1 only
foreign capital. (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Agenda’22 IASEC
IASEC
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q92. Which of the following statements
about the activities of the British on the
west coast are true?
1. Till 1687, all the English factories on
the west coast were under the control
of the president and council of their
factory at Surat.
2. In 1670, the Company purchased
Bombay from Charles Il for a nominal
amount of a hundred pounds only.
3. In 1687, Bombay replaced Surat as
the head-quarters of the Company on
the west coast.
4. In 1688, the English under Sir John
Child captured many Mughal ships off
the west coast and disrupted the
traffic of haj pilgrims.
Choose the answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 2, 3, 4
(d) 1, 2, 4
Q93. Consider the following statements:
1. Fundamental rights under Articles 20
and 21 cannot be suspended even
during a national emergency.
2. The President can declare a national
emergency only on the written
recommendation of Council of
Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q94. Consider the following statements:
1. Teak and Sal are widespread in the
dry deciduous forests.
2. Tropical evergreen forests are found
on windward side of Western Ghats.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Agenda’22 IASEC
Q95. Consider the following statements:
1. The Dzukou Valley is located at the
border of Nagaland and Manipur.
2. The Western Hoolock Gibbons are
found in the forest of the Dzukou
Valley.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q96. Consider the following statements
about gas pricing in India:
1. Domestically produced gas prices are
determined by the market mechanism
IASEC
in India only.
2. The Hydrocarbon Exploration and
Licensing Policy gives marketing and
pricing freedom for crude oil and
TTS-X
natural gas produced.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q97. In liberal democracies like India and
the United States, which of the following
can be said to be the most important
feature without which overall growth and
development of an individual is nearly
impossible?
(a) Fraternity
(b) Justice
(c) Freedom
(d) Equality
Q98. Which among the following
international agencies publishes "Energy
Transition Index"?
(a) The World Bank
(b) The World Economic Forum
(c) The International Energy Agency
(d) The International Monetary Fund
TTS-22, Test - X
 IAS Exam Congress
Q99. Consider the following statements:
1. A drug-coated nanoparticle can
reduce plaque buildup in arteries.
2. Using nanopore sequencing, a single
molecule of DNA or RNA can be
sequenced without the need for PCR
amplification or chemical labelling of
the sample.
3. Nanomicelles have high utility in
delivering drug molecules.
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q100. Consider the following statements

about coal gasification:
1. A m m o n i a p r o d u c e d f r o m c o a l
gasification process has lower carbon

TTS-X
footprints than Ammonia produced
from Natural gas.
2. Underground coal gasification (UCG)
converts coal in-situ into syngas
IASEC
through the same chemical reactions
that occur in surface gasifiers.
3. UCG could increase the coal resources
available for utilisation enormously.
4. Coal-bioenergy gasification can be
used as a net carbon-negative source
for power generation.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? This test paper was created and
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only curated by Kaptaan Jack Sparrow for
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only @iasexamcongress.
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

…Concluded…

x—x

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

TTS-X
IASEC

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X

 IAS Exam Congress

IASEC

TTS-X

Agenda’22 IASEC TTS-22, Test - X