Stomach

1. The radiologist wants to visualize the contour of the pylorus and duodenal
bulb, plus air in the fundus. Which view will best view these anatomies?
a. RAO
b. RPO
c. LAO
d. LPO
2. How is the patient positioned?

a. RAO
b. RPO
c. LAO
d. LPO
3. In the image in question #2, the patient had taken in barium and gas granules.
Is this single or double contrast study?
a. Single Contrast (barium only)
b. Single Contrast (air & barium)
c. Double contrast (barium only)
d. Double contrast (air & barium)
4. What is true about the following statements about double contrast studies of
the lower gastrointestinal system for the oblique views?
a. Hypersthenic patients need decreased obliquity
b. Sthenic patients need decreased obliquity
c. Asthenic patients need decreased obliquity
d. Sthenic patients need to be positioned 40 degrees
5. For single contrast studies, what’s the appropriate barium portion?
a. 10-20% W/V
b. 20-25% W/V
c. 50-70% W/V
d. 30-50% W/V
6. How is the patient positioned in the image below?
 a. RAO
b. LAO
c. Lateral
d. PA
7. After receiving the views for a GI study, the technologist decides to annotate
the images. However she cannot distinguish which image is the RAO or PA
view. What can the technologist use to distinguish a RAO image from a PA
image?
a. RAO has a more sufficient curvature degree of the greater & lesser
curvature vs. PA view
b. RAO has zygapophyseal joints are located posterior to vertebral bodies
c. AP has a more sufficient curvature degree of the greater & lesser
curvature vs. PA
d. RAO has barium in the body & pylorus, whereas the PA view does not
8. How is the patient positioned in this view?
a. PA
b. RAO
c. Right Lateral
d. Left Lateral
9. The radiologist wants to clearly visualize the retrogastric space on a GI study.
What would be the best view to show the retrogastric space?
a. PA
b. RAO
c. Right Lateral
d. Left Lateral
10. The technologist sees the body habitus of a patient. The patient is big, obese
and not skinny. For the GI series for the stomach, where should the
technologist center on the patient?
a. 3-4” superior to lower rib margins
b. Level at or 1” inferior to lower rib margins
c. 1-2” superior to lower rib margins
d. 2” below iliac crest
11. The technologist sees the body habitus of a patient. The patient is small and
really lean. For the GI series for the stomach, where should the technologist
center on the patient?
a. 3-4” superior to lower rib margins
b. Level at or 1” inferior to lower rib margins
c. 1-2” superior to lower rib margins
d. 2” below iliac crest
12. The technologist sees the body habitus of a patient. The patient is average
size. For the GI series for the stomach, where should the technologist center
on the patient?
a. 3-4” superior to lower rib margins
b. Level at or 1” inferior to lower rib margins
c. 1-2” superior to lower rib margins
d. 2” below iliac crest
13. Where exactly is L1 on a sthenic patient?
a. 1-2” above lower rib margins
b. 1-2” below lower rib margins
c. 1-2” above iliac crest
d. 1-2” below iliac crest
14. Where should you center for Lower GI study?
a. T12
b. L1
c. L2
d. L3
15. Which one is true about the following statements below about lower GI
studies?
a. L1 is at the level of pylorus & duodenal bulb
b. L1 is 1-2” below lower rib margins on sthenic patient
c. L2 is the centered anatomical landmark
d. L1 is 1-2” above lower rib margins on asthenic patients
 Abdomen
1. The technologist took an AP supine abdominal x-ray of a patient, but it
appeared with decreased brightness compared to the “normal” abdomen x-
ray. There was a grid and the technologist used the correct technical factors.
What would most likely have caused this decrease in brightness?
a. Ascites
b. Bowel obstruction
c. Soft tissue masses
d. Excessive bowel gas
2. The technologist took an AP supine abdominal x-ray of a patient, but it
appeared underexposed compared to the “normal” abdomen x-ray. There was
a grid and the technologist used the correct technical factors. What would
least likely have caused this decrease in brightness?
a. Ascites
b. Bowel obstruction
c. Soft tissue masses
d. Excessive bowel gas
3. The technologist decides to change the technical factors after viewing the
patient’s history of excessive bowel gas in his digestive system. What
technical factors did he change?
a. 30-50% mAs increase or 5-8% kVp increase
b. 30-50% mAs decrease or 5-8% kVp decrease
c. 30-50% mAs increase or 5-8% kVp decrease
d. 30-50% mAs decrease or 5-8% kVp decrease
4. What improvements are necessary for the next abdominal supine x-ray?

a. Rotation to left, expiration required

b. Rotation to right, inspiration required
c. Rotation to left, good inspiration
d. Rotation to right, expiration required
5. The technologist is having difficulty whether or not to repeat this image. What
should the technologist do for this AP abdomen supine exam?

a. Repeat with better visualization of T11

b. Take a bladder shot, but to prevent this from happening again, the
technologist should’ve centered higher
c. No repeat, dismiss the patient
d. Repeat with symphysis pubis visualized
6. The technologist is having difficulting finding the left and right kidney. What
information can the technologist use to locate these kidneys?
a. Kidney anatomical landmarks are T12-L3
b. Right kidney more superior than the left kidney
c. Right kidney is larger than the left kidney
d. Kidney anatomical landmarks are L1
7. The technologist is having difficulty in whether or not in doing a repeat for this
erect AP abdomen x-ray exam. What should the technologist do?

a. Repeat is not necessary

b. Repeat with a higher centering point
c. Increase collimation crosswise
d. Decrease collimation crosswise
8. The technologist is having difficulty in whether or not in doing a repeat for this
erect AP abdomen x-ray exam. What should the technologist do?

a. Repeat with better expiration

b. Repeat with better inspiration
c. Repeat with a lower centering point
d. Repeat with a higher centering point
9. On an erect AP abdomen x-ray what would indicated good breathing
instructions were given to a healthy patient.
a. Diaphragm is at T11 level
b. Diaphragm is at T9 level or above
c. Kidneys are at T12-L3 level
d. Kidneys are at L1 level
10. Which would show air/fluid levels in an abdomen on an ICU patient who must
remain supine?
a. Right lateral decubitus
b. Left lateral decubitus
c. Trendelenburg position
d. Dorsal decubitus
11. The doctor requested for an abdomen decubitus view on a baby. What is the
best view for the baby?
a. Right lateral decubitus
b. Left lateral decubitus
c. Trendelenburg position
d. Dorsal decubitus
12. Where should the centering point be on a left lateral decubitus?
a. 2” above iliac crest
b. 2” below iliac crest
c. Iliac crest level, L3
d. 1-2” above lower rib margins, L1
13. Where is the stomach located in a left lateral decubitus?
a. Inferior region of x-ray
b. Superior region of x-ray
 c. Above liver
d. Lateral region of spleen
14. How should the technologist improve this image on a left lateral AP
decubitus?

a. Bring patient’s left side closer to the IR, center higher

b. Bring patient’s right side closer to the IR, center higher
c. Bring patient’s left side closer to the IR, center lower
d. Bring patient’s right side closer to the IR, center lower
15. How should the technologist improve this image on a neonatal left lateral AP
decubitus?

a. Bring patient’s left side closer to the IR

b. Bring patient’s right side closer to the IR
c. Bring patient’s left side closer to the IR
d. Bring patient’s right side closer to the IR
16. The central ray is centered to the level of the ___ for a supine AP projection of
the abdomen
a. 2” above iliac crest
b. 1” above iliac crest
c. Iliac crest
d. Lower rib costal margins
17. Exposure for an AP projection of the abdomen should be taken on ________
a. Slowly breathing
 b. Inspiration
c. Expiration
d. Regular breathing
18. Which type of body habitus may require two crosswise images to be taken if
the entire abdomen is to be included?
a. Hypersthenic
b. Hyposthenic
c. Asthenic
d. Male patient
19. Which of the following generates the largest gonadal dose?
a. Female AP abdomen
b. Male lateral decubitus abdomen
c. Female PA abdomen
d. Male erect AP abdomen
20. Why may the PA projection of a KUB generally be less desirable than the AP
projection?
a. PA has more dose
b. PA causes larger OID of the kidneys
c. PA causes larger OID of the uterus
d. PA has more dose to the adrenal glands
21. Which decubitus position of the abdomen best demonstrates intraperitoneal
air in the abdomen?
a. Left lateral
b. Right lateral
c. Dorsal decubitus
d. None of the above
22. Which decubitus position best demonstrates possible aneurysms,
calcifications of the aorta, or umbilical hernias?
a. Left lateral decubitus
b. Right lateral decubitus
c. Dorsal decubitus
d. None of the above
23. Which position best demonstrates a possible aortic aneurysm in the
prevertebral region of the abdomen?
a. PA chest
b. AP erect
c. Lateral erect
d. AP supine
24. Which positioning routine should be used for an acute abdomen series if the
patient is too ill to stand?
a. AP supine
b. AP supine and Left lateral decub
c. AP supine and right lateral decub
d. Left lateral decub
25. Which position of the 3 way abdominal series best demonstrates free air
under the diaphragm?
a. PA chest
b. AP erect
c. AP supine
d. All of the above
26. To ensure that the diaphragm is included on an erect abdomen projection, the
central ray should be at the level of _____, which places the top of the 14 by
17” cassette at the level of the _____
a. Iliac crest, shoulders
b. Iliac crest, axilla
c. 2” above iliac crest, axilla
d. 2” above iliac crest, shoulders
27. When using AEC systems, which ionization chambers should be activated for
an average to large size patient when performing an AP projection of the
abdomen?
a. Center chamber
b. Left and right chamber
c. Right chamber and center chamber
d. Left chamber and center chamber
28. A KUB radiograph reveals that the symphysis pubis was cut off along the
bottom of the image. Is this an acceptable radiograph? If it is not, how can this
problem be prevented during the repeat exposure?
a. Yes, the symphysis pubis is not required for a KUB projection
b. Yes, but it would be better if the symphysis pubis was visible
c. No, bring the CR lower so it’s at iliac crest level
d. No, bring the CR lower so it’s 1-2” above iliac crest level
29. A radiograph of an AP projection of an average size adult abdomen was
produced using the following exposure factors: 90kV, 400mA, 1/10 second,
grid, and 40” SID. The overall density of the radiograph was acceptable, but
the soft tissue structures, such as the psoas muscles and kidneys weren’t
visible. What should the technologist do?
a. Increase mA to 500mA
b. Decrease mA to 300mA
c. Decrease exposure time to 0.5/10 seconds
d. Decrease kV to 80kV
30. A radiograph of an AP abdomen reveals that the left iliac wing is more narrow
than the right. What is the error?
a. Patient was in LPO position
b. Patient was in RPO position
c. Patient was not straight on the table
d. Patient was in LAO position
31. A patient with a possible dynamic ileus enters the emergency room. The
patient is able to stand. The physician has ordered an acute abdominal series.
What specific positioning routine should be used?
a. PA chest, Erect AP, AP supine
b. PA chest, erect PA, AP supine
c. AP chest, erect AP, PA supine
d. AP supine and LLD
32. A patient with a possible perforated duodenal ulcer enters the emergency
room. The ER physician is concerned about the presence of free air in the
abdomen. The patient is in severe pain and cannot stand. What positioning
routine should be used to diagnose this condition?
a. PA chest, AP supine, AP erect
b. LLD, AP supine
c. LLD, PA supine
d. LLD, PA chest
33. The ER physician suspects a patient has a kidney stone. The patient is sent
to the radiology department to confirm the diagnosis. What specific positioning
routine would be used to rule out the presence of a kidney stone?
a. Acute abdominal series
b. KUB and lateral abdomen
c. KUB only
d. AP supine, PA chest
34. A patient in intensive care may have developed intra abdominal bleeding. The
patient is in critical condition and cannot go to the radiology department. The
physician has ordered a portable study of the abdomen. Which specific
position or projection can be used to determine the extent of the bleeding?
a. AP supine
b. PA supine
c. RLD
d. LLD
35. The KUB radiograph reveals that the gonadal shielding is superior to the
upper margin of the symphysis pubis. The female patient has a history of
kidney stones. What is the next step the technologist should take?
a. Accept the radiograph because the kidneys were not obscured by the
shielding.
b. Repeat the exposure without using gonadal shielding
c. Repeat the exposure only if the patient complains of pain in the lower
abdomen
d. Repeat the exposure with gonadal shielding, but position it below the
symphysis pubis
36. A hypersthenic patient comes to the radiology department for a KUB. The
radiograph reveals that the symphysis pubis is included on the image, but the
upper abdomen, including the kidneys, is cut off. What is the next step the
technologist should take?
 a. Accept the radiograph
b. Repeat the exposure, but expose it during inspiration to force the
kidneys lower into the abdomen
c. Ask the radiologist whether the upper abdomen really needs to be
seen. Repeat only if requested
d. Repeat the exposure. Use 2 14 by 17” cassettes crosswise to include
the entire abdomen
37. A patient comes from the ER with a large distended abdomen caused by an
ileus. The physician suspects that the distention is caused by a large amount
of bowel gas that is trapped in the small intestine. The standard technique for
a KUB on an adult is 76kV, 30mAs. Should the technologist change any of
these exposure factors?
a. No. Use the standard exposure settings
b. Yes. Decrease the mAs
c. Yes. Increase the mAs
d. Yes. Increase the kV
38. A child goes to radiology for an abdomen study. It is possible he swallowed a
coin. The ER physician believes it may be in the upper GI tract. Which of the
following routines would best identify the location of the coin?
a. KUB, LLD
b. Acute abdominal series
c. KUB and lateral abdomen
d. Supine and erect KUB
39. For a foreign body study there needs to be ______ in order to pinpoint the
location of the foreign body
a. One projection
b. One erect and one erect projection
c. 2 projections that are 90 degrees opposite to each other
d. 1 erect and 1 lateral
40. Which one of the following factors best control the involuntary motion of a
young, pediatric patient during abdominal radiography?
a. Short exposure time
b. High kV
c. Clear, concise breathing instructions
d. Use of compression band across the abdomen
41. A chronic disease involving inflammation of the large intestine is:
a. Ascites
b. Volvulus
c. Crohn’s disease
d. Ulcerative colitis
42. Free air in the intra abdominal cavity rises to the level of the ___ in a patient
who is in the erect position
a. Greater omentum
b. Diaphragm
 c. Intraperitoneal cavity
d. Liver
43. Which one of the following conditions is demonstrated radiographically as
general abdominal haziness?
a. Pneumoperitoneum
b. Ascites
c. Ileus
d. Volvulus
44. Which one of the following sets of exposure factors would be the best for
abdominal radiography?
a. 110kV, 400mA, 1/20 sec, grid, 40” SID
b. 78kV, 600mA, 1/30 sec, grid, 40” SID
c. 78kV, 200mA, 1/10 sec, grid, 40” SID
d. 65kV, 600mA, 1/15 sec, grid, 40” SID
45. A KUB radiograph on a large hypersthenic patient reveals that the entire
abdomen is not included on the 35 by 43cm IR. What can be done to correct
this on the repeat radiograph?
a. Use 2 cassettes placed lengthwise
b. Use 2 cassettes placed crosswise
c. Expose during deep inspiration
d. Perform KUB with patient in the erect position
46. What is the minimum amount of time a patient should be upright before taking
a projection to demonstrate intra-abdominal free air?
a. 20mins
b. 30min
c. 2mins
d. 5mins
47. If the PA chest projection is not performed for the acute abdomen series,
centering for the erect abdomen projection must include the:
a. Inferior liver margin
b. Diaphragm
c. Entire kidneys
d. Bladder
48. Which specific decubitus position of the abdomen should be used in an acute
abdomen series of the patient cannot stand?
a. LLD
b. Dorsal decub
c. RLD
d. Ventral decub
49. A patient with a possible ileus enters the emergency room. The physician
orders an acute abdominal series. The patient can stand. Which specific
position best demonstrates air/fluid levels in the abdomen?
a. AP supine abdomen
b. RLD
 c. Dorsal decub
d. AP erect abdomen
50. A patient with a possible perforated bowel caused by trauma enters the ER.
The patient is unable to stand. Which projection would best demonstrate any
possible free air within the abdomen?
a. Dorsal decubitus
b. LLD
c. AP supine abdomen
d. RLD
51. A patient with a clinical history of a possible umbilical hernia comes to the
radiology department. The KUB is inconclusive. Which additional projection
can be taken to help confirm the diagnosis?
a. AP erect abdomen
b. LLD
c. Dorsal decub
d. Ventral decub
52. A patient comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of
pneumoperitoneum. The patient is able to stand. Which one of the following
projections will best demonstrate this condition?
a. AP supine abdomen
b. AP erect abdomen
c. Dorsal decubitus
d. LLD
53. A patient comes to the radiology department with a clinical history of ascites.
The patient is unable to stand or sit erect. Which one of the following
projections will best demonstrate this condition?
a. AP supine abdomen
b. LLD
c. Dorsal decub
d. AP supine chest
54. Which one of the following is true about the mesentery?
a. Double fold of peritoneum that extends from the stomach
b. Extends from lesser curvature of stomach to liver
c. Connects from transverse colon to the greater curvature of stomach
d. Double fold of peritoneum that stabilizes and supports the SI, and
connects the SI to the posterior abdominal wall
55. Which one of the following is true about the greater omentum?
a. Double fold of peritoneum that extends from the stomach
b. Extends from lesser curvature of stomach to liver
c. Connects from transverse colon to the greater curvature of stomach
d. Double fold of peritoneum that stabilizes and supports the SI, and
connects the SI to the posterior abdominal wall
56. Which one of the following is true about the lesser omentum?
a. Double fold of peritoneum that extends from the stomach
 b. Extends from lesser curvature of stomach to liver
c. Connects from transverse colon to the greater curvature of stomach
d. Double fold of peritoneum that stabilizes and supports the SI, and
connects the SI to the posterior abdominal wall
57. Which one of the following is false about the omentum?
a. Double fold of peritoneum that extends from the stomach
b. Extends from lesser curvature of stomach to liver
c. Connects from transverse colon to the greater curvature of stomach
d. Double fold of peritoneum that stabilizes and supports the SI, and
connects the SI to the posterior abdominal wall
58. Which one of the following is true about topographic landmarks?
a. Xiphoid process (T9-10), inferior rib margin (L2-3), iliac crest (L4-5)
b. Xiphoid process (T5-6), inferior rib margin (L1-2), iliac crest (L4-5)
c. Xiphoid process (T7-8), inferior rib margin (L2-3), iliac crest (L4-5)
d. Xiphoid process (T9-10), inferior rib margin (T12-L1), iliac crest (L4-5)
59. Which one of the following is true about regional enteritis?
a. Aka. Crohn’s disease & ulcerative colitis
b. Commonly in terminal duodenum, cecum, ascending colon
c. String-pipe like and cobblestone radiographic appearances, unknown
cause
d. Weight gain
60. The radiologist is diagnosing Patient A after reviewing their x-ray images.
What’s the diagnosis?

a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Crohn’s disease
c. Bowel obstruction
d. Excessive air in bowels
61. Patient B has been losing weight fast and has signs of clubbing around her
fingers along with distorted angle of her nail beds. What is she most likely
experiencing?
a. Regional enteritis
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Bowel obstruction
d. Excessive air in bowels
62. Patient C has a family history of inflammatory disease of the bowel. Her sister,
mother, and both grandparents have this disease. Patient C’s been
experiencing abdomen pain, weight loss, bloody diarrhea that’s been
progressing over time. What’s most likely the disease?
a. Varicose veins
b. Crohn’s disease
c. Ulcerative colitis
d. Bowel obstruction
63. The kind of radiographic appearances does ulcerative colitis have?
a. Loss of haustral markings, Cobblestone
b. String appearance, cobblestone
c. Fine granular appearance, pipestem sign
d. Loss of mucosal pattern, cobblestone
64. What’s true about the following statements about ulcerative colitis?
a. Found in terminal ileum, cecum, ascending colon
b. Rectum is spared
c. Dietary changes required, mucosa/submucosa, recto-sigmoid affected
d. Toxic megalon, arises in right colon
65. The radiologist obtains two views of the patient’s lower GI system. What is
the diagnosis?

a. Metastasis
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Regional enteritis
d. Bowel obstruction
66. What is the patient experiencing in the image below?

a. Bowel obstruction
 b. Volvulus
c. Intussusception
d. Diverticulum
67. What’s false about Meckel’s Diverticulum?
a. Common in appendix, ileum
b. Ulcers, perforation, hemorrhage, strangulation, multiple outpouchings
c. Due to failure of the vitelline duct to close during embryonic
development
d. 2-3” in length (glove finger size)
68. Which pathology best matches with this characteristic? “Peristalsis forces a
proximal segment of bowel to move distally. Segment of bowel telescopes into
the segment distal to it”.
a. Diverticulum
b. Volvulus
c. Intussusception
d. Crohn’s disease
69. What is the patient experiencing in the image below?

a. Diverticulum
b. Diverticulitis
c. Intussusception
d. Volvulus
70. Match this characteristic that best describes one of the following pathologies.
“Inflammatory state of diverticulum”.
a. Diverticulitis
b. Diverticulum
c. Diverticulosis
d. Outpouching
71. Match this characteristic that best describes one of the following pathologies.
“Numerous outpouchings”.
a. Diverticulitis
b. Diverticulum
c. Diverticulosis
d. Polyps
72. Which one of the following would best describe the condition of the patient
below (white arrow)?

a. Peptic Ulcer
b. Stomach cancer
c. Diverticulitis
d. Diverticulum
73. What would the doctor prescribe the patient who has an ulcer?
a. Xanax
b. Aspirin/Motrin
c. Zantac
d. Both b) and c)
74. Patient D has been experiencing excessive gastric acid in her stomach.
Which one of the following pathologies would she experience?
a. Peptic ulcer
b. Stomach cancer
c. Intussusception
d. Tracheoesophageal fistula
75. Duodenal ulcers majorly occur from the result of _?
a. Peptic ulcer
b. Stomach cancer
c. Intussusception
d. Diverticulosis
76. What is the patient experiencing in the images below (black arrows)?
 a. Peptic ulcer
b. Stomach cancer
c. Intussusception
d. Diverticulosis
77. What’s false about the following statements about Gastric carcinoma?
a. Narrowing and fixation of stomach
b. Large irregular polypoid mass
c. Commonly found in Distal stomach
d. Fundus heavily involved
78. What is this patient experiencing in the image below?

a. Ulcer
b. Polypoid mass
c. Indication of malignancy
d. All of the above
79. Match this characteristic with one of the following pathologies. “Congenital
lack of continuity of esophagus, failure of esophageal lumen to develop from
the trachea”.
a. Tracheoesophageal fistula
b. Diverticulitis
c. Esophageal cancer
d. Ulcer
80. Why is the patient suctioned & positioned in trendelenburg during the upper
GI contrast study?
a. Avoid aspiration
b. Comfortable for the patient
c. Better positioning for the doctor
d. To avoid complications, i.e. hitting artery
81. What’s going on in the image below?

a. Patient has tracheoesophageal fistula, water soluble contrast

b. Contrast in the trachea, water soluble contrast
c. Contrast in the heart, barium used
d. Catheter inserted in the trachea, barium used
82. Why is an oral contrast done for a T/E fistula?
a. Check site of perforation
b. Check extent of fistula
c. Check trachea
d. A & B
83. This patient had their barium study taken. What’s going on with the patient?
 a. Obstruction
b. Ulcerative colitis
c. Crohn's disease
d. Situs inversus
84. When a technologist says “there’s free air”. What is this referring to?
a. Gas under the left hemidiaphragm
b. Air in the stomach
c. Air under the right hemidiaphragm
d. Air outside the peritoneal cavity
85. What is the patient experiencing in the image below?

a. Air outside the peritoneal cavity

b. Patient is hungry
c. Pneumonia
d. Free air under the right hemidiaphragm
86. What is another name for free air?
a. Pneumoperitoneum
b. Pneumothorax
 c. Hemithorax
d. Atelectasis
87. “Blockage of the cystic duct restricting the flow of bile from the gallbladder into
the common bile duct, where the bile begins to irritate the inner lining of the
gallbladder”. Match this statement with one of the following pathologies.
a. Cholecystitis
b. Cholelithiasis
c. Choleiths
d. Cholecystectomy
88. What is the best imaging modality for cholecystitis?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. U/S
d. Fluoroscopy
89. “Abnormal calcifications or stones in the gallbladder due to increased levels of
calcium, bilirubin, or cholesterol. Female and obese patients are at higher risk
for this disease”. Match this statement with one of the following pathologies.
a. Cholecystitis
b. Cholelithiasis
c. Cholecystectomy
d. Biliary stenosis
90. Which one of the following is false about Cirrhosis?
a. Obstructed portal veins
b. Jaundice
c. Transplant, Damage is reversible
d. Chronic destruction of cells
91. What other pathology may be associated with Cirrhosis?
a. Ascites
b. Free air
c. Achalasia
d. Dysphagia
92. What’s going on in the image below (white arrows)?

a. Cirrhosis
b. Spleen enlargement
 c. Cholecystitis
d. Tracheoesophageal fistula
93. What’s going on in the image below?

a. Non cancerous mass, hemangioma

b. Cancerous mass, hemangioma
c. Non cancerous mass, cirrhosis
d. Cancerous mass, cirrhosis
94. Match this pathology, hemangioma, with one of the following statements
below.
a. Benign mass, tangled up blood vessels, Females during pregnancy or
hormone replacement therapy is at a higher risk, pain in right upper
quadrant
b. Cancerous mass, tangled up blood vessels, Females during pregnancy
or hormone replacement therapy is at a higher risk, pain in right upper
quadrant
c. Cancerous mass, tangled up blood vessels, males are at a higher risk,
pain in right upper quadrant
d. Benign mass, tangled up blood vessels, Females during pregnancy or
hormone replacement therapy is at a higher risk, pain in left upper
quadrant
95. What is label B pointing to?
 a. Portal vein
b. IVC
c. Descending aorta
d. Ascending aorta
96. From the image in question #51, what is label A pointing to?
a. Portal vein
b. IVC
c. Cystic duct
d. Common bile duct
97. From the image in question #51, what is label C pointing to?
a. Spleen
b. Stomach
c. Pancreas
d. Hepatic flexure
98. From the image in question #51, what is label D pointing to?
a. Spleen
b. Stomach
c. Psoas muscle
d. Kidney
99. The technologist reviews the patient’s history who comes into to do a CT and
finds out the patient has hepatitis A or E. What PPE should the technologist
follow?
a. Contact precautions
b. Droplet precautions
c. Airborne precautions
d. None of the above
100. What about for hepatitis B,C,D, and G
a. Contact & Droplet precautions
b. Droplet precautions
c. Airborne precautions
 d. None of the above
101. The technologist reviews the patient’s history of sickle cell anemia
before her CT contrast kidney exam. What should the technologist do?
a. Don’t worry, the contrast won’t affect the patient
b. Cancel the exam since the contrast’s high osmolality will induce
osmotic shrinkage of the cell
c. Talk with the radiologist about the patient’s history since sickle cell
anemia is a contraindication
d. Don’t worry, sickle cell anemia is not a contraindication since it has a
balancing effect of osmolality
102. What would be the modality of choice for achalasia?
a. CT
b. MRI
c. Esophagogram with fluoro
d. Soft tissue neck
103. What is the patient experiencing in the image below?

a. Dysphagia
b. Pyloric stenosis
c. Achalasia
d. Esophageal varices

Urinary System
1. Why was the term IVP changed to IVU?
a. IVP is a term to describe the whole urinary system
b. IVP is term to describe just the kidney and renal pelvis
c. IVP is a term to describe just the ureters
d. IVP is a term to describe the bladder
2. IVU looks at the whole urinary system, but which areas of the kidney are
visualized?
a. Parenchyma
b. Calyces
c. Renal pelvis
d. All of the above
3. Which one of the following is a common pathologic indication for an IVU?
a. Sickle cell anemia
 b. Multiple myeloma
c. Hematuria
d. Anuria
4. What is a rare tumour of the kidney?
a. Pheochromocytoma
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Melanoma
d. Renal cell carcinoma
5. What’s the term for the act of voiding?
a. Urinary incontinence
b. Oliguria
c. Micturition
d. Retention
6. What’s the term for the inability to void?
a. Urinary incontinence
b. Oliguria
c. Micturition
d. Retention
7. What's the term for constant or frequent involuntary passage of urine?
a. Urinary incontinence
b. Oliguria
c. Micturition
d. Retention
8. What’s an indication for acute renal failure?
a. Presence of uremia
b. Oliguria
c. Anuria
d. All of the above
9. What’s the term for complete cessation of urinary secretion?
a. Anuria
b. Oliguria
c. Uremia
d. Micturition
10. Which one of the following describes rapid excretion of contrast media and
increased blood pressure to the kidneys due to atherosclerosis?
a. Renal hypertension
b. Cystitis
c. Chronic bright disease
d. Renal cell carcinoma
11. Which one of the following describes bilateral small kidneys with blunted
calyces?
a. Renal hypertension
b. Cystitis
c. Chronic bright disease
 d. Renal cell carcinoma
12. What is the term for subcutaneous swelling due to allergic reaction to food or
drugs?
a. Intravasation
b. Urticaria
c. Angioedema
d. Pulmonary edema
13. Contraction of the muscles within the walls of the bronchi and bronchioles,
producing a restriction of air passing through them, is called ____.
a. Bronchospasm
b. Extravasation
c. Laryngeal swelling
d. Pneumonia
14. What is the trademark name for a diuretic drug?
a. Valium
b. Metformin
c. Lasix
d. Prednisone
15. An eruption of hives often due to hypersensitivity to food or drugs is called
____.
a. Uremia
b. Urticaria
c. Anemia
d. Cholinergic drug
16. What’s the sole purpose for ureteric compression?
a. Enhance contrast filling
b. Hold voiding
c. Prevent urinary incontinence
d. Anchor the bladder and kidneys in place
17. What term describes a TRUE functional exam for the urinary system?
a. Retrograde urogram
b. Retrograde urethrogram
c. IVP or IVU
d. None of the above
18. The brodney clamp is used for ____ patient for _____ cystourethrography
a. Female, intravenous
b. Male, intravenous
c. Female, retrograde
d. Male, retrograde
19. Which modality is not used for renal calculi?
a. MRI
b. CT
c. U/S
d. Nucmed
20. When should pediatric patients be scheduled for their urinary studies?
a. Early morning
b. Lunch time
c. Dinner time
d. Any time
21. Why do pediatric patients have a specific window to do their urinary study?
a. Minimize risk for allergic reactions
b. Minimize risk for dehydration
c. Better window enhancement
d. Better comfort for patient
22. True or false: Nucmed can be used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux.
a. True
b. False
23. Who should the technologist contact if he or she has difficulty placing the
needle into the vein of a pediatric patient during IVU?
a. Nurse
b. Another technologist
c. Phlebotomist or physician
d. Radiologist
24. True or false: the patient does not require extensive bowel preparation before
a CT scan for renal calculi
a. True
b. False
25. Which modality is used to detect subtle tissue changes following a renal
transplant?
a. MRI
b. CT
c. IVU
d. Nucmed
26. What’s the purpose for a scout on an IVU patient?
a. Verification of patient prep and exposure factors
b. Positioning check
c. Check for calculi
d. All of the above
27. What AEC cells are selected for an IVU procedure?
a. All chambers
b. Right and center
c. Left and center
d. Right and left chambers
28. What radiation protection is given for IVU patients?
a. Gonadal shield for female
b. Gonadal shield for males
c. Gonadal for both
d. No shield
29. What’s zonography?
a. Tomograms for IVU taken at an angle of 10 degrees or less
b. Tomograms for CT taken at an angle of 10 degrees or less
c. Tomograms for IVU taken at an angle of 10 degrees or more
d. Tomograms for CT taken at an angle of 10 degrees or more
30. How many tomograms should the technologist take?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 10
31. Where is the CR for a nephrotomogram?
a. Xiphoid process
b. Midway between xiphoid process and iliac crest
c. Iliac crest
d. Axillary costal margin
32. What position will place the left kidney parallel to the IR?
a. RPO, 30 Degree
b. LPO, 30 degree
c. AP
d. RPO, 20 degree
33. What can help with the visualization of nephroptosis?
a. PA
b. AP
c. Lateral
d. Erect
34. Where should the paddle be placed for the ureteric compression phase of an
IVU?
a. Lower rib costal level
b. 1”above iliac crest
c. Lateral to spine, medial to asis, over pelvic brim
d. Lateral to button
35. What does the compression plates hover over?
a. Renal pelvis
b. Ureters
c. Bladder
d. Kidneys
36. What anatomy is examined specifically during a retrograde urethrogram?
a. Ureters
b. Renal pelvis, calyces
c. Entire urinary system
d. Bladder
37. Describe what is examined in a retrograde pyelogram?
a. Functional study of renal pelvis and calyces
b. Functional study of ureters
 c. Non functional study of renal pelvis and calyces
d. Non functional study of ureters
38. What CR angle is used for the AP projection for a cystogram?
a. 20-25 caudad
b. 5-10 cephalad
c. 10-15 caudad
d. 30-40 caudad
39. For a male voiding cystourethrogram, what is the best position to view the
posterolateral region of the bladder and UV junction?
a. RPO 20 degrees
b. LPO 20 degree
c. RPO 30 degrees
d. RPO 45 degrees
40. For a male voiding cystourethrogram, what is the purpose of an AP view?
a. To view the posterolateral regions of the bladder
b. To view the posterolateral regions of the UV junction
c. To view only the bladder
d. To view the bladder and ureters for urinary reflux
41. Which view is overall best and recommended for a male patient during a
voiding cystourethrogram?
a. Erect
b. RPO 30 degrees
c. RPO 45 degrees
d. AP
42. Which view helps position the urethra over soft tissue during a voiding
cystourethrogram?
a. Erect
b. RPO 30 degrees
c. RPO 45 degrees
d. AP
43. What is best demonstrated on a 30 degree RPO position?
a. UV junction
b. UV junction and posterolateral regions of the bladder
c. Vesicoureteral reflux and urethra over soft tissue
d. Urinary reflux
44. What is best demonstrated on a 45 degree RPO position?
a. UV junction
b. UV junction and posterolateral regions of the bladder
c. Vesicoureteral reflux and urethra over soft tissue
d. Urinary reflux
45. A patient is scheduled for a IVU, the technologist discovers that the BUN of
the patient is 15mg/100ml with a creatinine level of 1.3mg/dl. Can this patient
safely undergo an IVU?
a. No it’s under the normal BUN level and over the normal creatinine level
 b. No, the creatine level is not within normal limits
c. Yes, the patient can go ahead with the procedure
d. Yes, inform the radiologist of the report and go ahead with the
procedure
46. During an IVU, the patient complains of a metallic taste and has a sudden
urge to urinate. What action should the technologist take?
a. Stop the procedure
b. Call for code blue
c. Call for medical assistance
d. These are just side effects, calm down and reassure the patient
47. A patient comes to the radiology department for an IVU. As the patient’s
clinical history is being reviewed, it’s discovered he’s diabetic. What additional
questions should be asked during the interview before the procedure?
a. Ask about his water intake prior to the procedure
b. Ask about his BUN and creatinine levels
c. Ask about his metformin usage
d. Ask about his atropine usage
48. What other modalities can be performed if a patient reports having a severe
reaction to contrast media in the past. The doctor ordered a retrograde
cystogram due to his history of bladder calculi.
a. U/S, CT
b. U/S only
c. U/S, MRI, CT, Nucmed
d. U/S, CT, Nucmed
49. What is the preferred imaging modality if iodinated contrast is contraindicated
and the patient has calculi in the kidney?
a. CT and possibly Nucmed
b. CT, U/S
c. Nucmed
d. MRI
50. A patient comes to the radiology department for an IVU. The patient history
indicates that he may have enlarged prostate gland. Which projection will best
demonstrate this condition?
a. AP
b. RPO 30 degrees
c. Erect
d. PA
51. The AP scout reveals an abnormal density near the lumbar spine that the
radiologist suspects is an abdominal aortic aneurysm. What should the
technologist do about the ureteric compression phase of the study that’s part
of the protocol?
a. Continue b/c there’s no contradiction
b. Use slight pressure
 c. Don’t use the compression, instead use a 15 degree trendelenburg
method
d. Use the compression while use a 15 degree trendelenburg method
52. A patient has renal hypertension and an IVU booked. What must the
technologist do to modify the IVU imaging sequence to accommodate this
patient’s condition?
a. Give lasix
b. Provide prednisone
c. Capture x-rays at 1,2,3 minute intervals
d. Capture x-rays at 1, 5, 10min intervals
53. During a cystogram, the floor of the bladder appears to be superimposed over
the symphysis pubis. What can the technologist do to correct this problem
during the repeat exposure?
a. Use 10-15 degree caudal CR angle
b. Use 15-20 degree cephalad CR angle
c. Use an RPO 45 degree orientation
d. Use an LPO 30 degree orientation
54. During the use of a compression device, the majority of the contrast media left
the collecting system of the kidneys. The paddles were placed near the
umbilicus and were double checked that they were inflated. What should the
technologist do to ensure better retention of contrast media in the collecting
system during the compression phase of an IVU?
a. Place paddles near the iliac crest
b. Place paddles near iliac crest and lateral to the spine
c. Place the paddles 1” inferior to iliac crest
d. Place paddles over the pelvic brim, lateral to the spine, and medially to
ASIS
55. A 45 RPO radiograph taken during an IVU reveals that the kidney is
foreshortened. Which kidney was the technologist looking at and what
modification is needed to improve this image?
a. Left kidney, increase rotation
b. Left kidney, decrease rotation
c. Right kidney, increase rotation
d. Right kidney, decrease rotation
56. There is minimal contrast within the renal parenchyma and the calyces are
beginning to fill with contrast media, but the technologist was trying to achieve
an x-ray during the nephrogram stage. What mistake did the technologist
make?
a. Most likely x-rayed too early
b. Most likely waited too long (long delay)
c. Didn’t inject enough contrast
d. The flow rate was too high
57. The scout of an abdomen reveals that the symphysis pubis was cut off
slightly. The patient is too large to include the entire abdomen. What should
the technologist do in this situation?
a. Use a CR caudal angle of 10-15 degrees
b. Use a CR caudal angle of 15-20 degrees
c. Take a bladder shot
d. Do a repeat but using 2 crosswise CR plates
58. Describe how the kidneys are oriented in the retroperitoneum
a. Upper pole is more medial and posterior than the lower pole
b. Upper pole region is more medial and anterior than the lower pole
c. Upper pole region is more lateral and posterior than the lower pole
d. Upper poleregion is more lateral and anterior than the lower pole
59. What’s the reasoning for the kidneys to be oriented in a specific manner?
a. Genetic, depends on the patient
b. Embryonic tissue cause kidneys to be spread laterally
c. Psoas muscle cause kidneys to form a slight vertical angle
d. Psoas muscle cause kidneys to form a large vertical angle
60. What angle do the psoas and kidneys form with the longitudinal plane?
a. 20, 20 degrees
b. 30, 30 degrees
c. 20, 30 degrees
d. 30, 20 degrees
61. What are indications for chronic renal failure?
a. Decrease in BUN and increase in erythropoietin
b. increase in BUN and increase in erythropoietin
c. Decrease in BUN and decrease in erythropoietin
d. increase in BUN and decrease in erythropoietin
62. What GFR is indicative of chronic renal failure?
a. 50% of normal GFR
b. 40% of normal GFR
c. 20% of normal GFR
d. 5% of normal GFR
63. What GFR is indicative of the end-stage of chronic renal failure?
a. 50% of normal GFR
b. 40% of normal GFR
c. 20% of normal GFR
d. 5% of normal GFR
64. A patient has an output of 350cc of urine daily, and her kidney has been in
nephrogram stage for 20mins. What’s this indicative of?
a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Acute renal failure
c. Chronic renal failure
d. End stage of renal failure
65. If a patient has been in nephrogram stage for more than 1 min, what would
the kidney look like?
a. Calyces enhanced with contrast
b. Renal pelvis enhanced with contrast
c. No calyceal filling
d. Enlarged renal pelvis
66. What are “finger-like” projections indicative of?
a. Wilm’s tumour
b. Bladder carcinoma
c. Cystitis
d. Ectopic kidney
67. What is a common tumour that happens in pediatric patients that pushes
kidneys anteriorly caused by embryonic renal tissue?
a. Wilm’s tumour or nephroblastoma
b. Nephroblastoma or renal cell carcinoma
c. Hypernephroma or renal cell carcinoma
d. Renal adenocarcinoma or wilm’s tumour
68. What’s indicative of “swiss cheese” kidneys that are associated with liver
cysts
a. Simple renal cysts
b. Polycystic kidney
c. Nephroblastoma
d. Hypernephroma
69. With a kidney with “beak” sign, how would the U/S and CT turn out?
a. Hyperechoic (U/S), uniform attenuation (CT)
b. Hypoechoic, uniform attenuation
c. Blurry, non uniform attenuation
d. Hazy, non uniform attenuation
70. How would a simple renal cyst turn out on an U/S and CT?
a. Hyperechoic (U/S), uniform attenuation (CT)
b. Hypoechoic, uniform attenuation
c. Blurry, non uniform attenuation
d. Hazy, non uniform attenuation
71. What are “grape” kidneys indicative of with radiolucent legions in the kidney?
a. Polycystic kidney and polycystic liver
b. Renal cell carcinoma and polycystic liver
c. Polycystic kidney and nephroblastoma
d. Wilm’s tumour and polycystic liver
72. What does the patient most likely have if the kidney is in consistent
nephrogram stage?
a. Hydronephrosis, acute renal failure
b. Acute renal failure
c. Hydronephrosis
d. Cystitis
73. Which one of the following is false about hydronephrosis?
a. Can lead to renal failure
b. Renal parenchymal destruction
c. If it’s bilateral, the obstruction can be below the level of ureters
d. Passes the nephrogram stage within 1 minute
74. What increases the likely chance of renal calculi?
a. Abnormal Ca 2+ levels, Hyperthyroidism and gout patients
b. Gout patients, cystitis patients, bone metastasis, myeloma
c. Abnormal Ca 2+ levels, gout patients, hyperthyroidism patients, bone
metastasis, myeloma
d. Cystitis patients, abnormal Ca 2+ patients, bone metastasis, myeloma
75. What would most likely cause implications and symptoms?
a. 2 ureters connecting to the bladder (complete duplication)
b. 2 ureters connecting the renal pelvis (incomplete duplication)
c. 2 ureters connecting to the bladder (incomplete duplication)
d. 2 ureters connecting the renal pelvis (complete duplication)
76. What position would be best to demonstrate BPH?
a. 30 degrees RPO
b. 45 degree RPO
c. Lateral
d. Erect
77. What does the compression device for IVU help demonstrate?
a. Stones
b. Asymmetrical renal function
c. Abdominal masses
d. Aortic aneurysms
78. What preparation is required for intravenous urograms?
a. 8hrs NPO
b. 12 hrs NPO
c. 8hrs NPO, bowel cleansing laxative, voiding of urine
d. 12hrs NPO, voiding of urine
79. What type of exam is required for renal hypertensive patients?
a. 1, 5, 15, 20mins urogram
b. 1, 2, 3 urogram
c. Longer time intervals during urogram
d. Retrograde urogram
80. At what mark should ureteric compressions should be applied and released?
a. Applied for 5mins, released 20mins later
b. Applied for 2-3mins, released 20mins later
c. Applied for 5mins, released 15mins later
d. Applied for 2-3mins, released 10mins later
81. What are the contraindications for IVU?
a. Pheochromocytoma, nephroblastoma, hypertension (increase BP)
b. Pheochromocytoma, nephroblastoma
 c. Multiple myeloma, pheochromocytoma, sickle cell anemia
d. Sickle cell anemia, hypertension
82. A patient is male, has reduced excretion of contrast, renal colic, hematuria,
large irregular mass with necrosis and hemorrhage within the parenchyma.
What pathology does this patient most likely have?
a. Sickle cell anemia
b. nephroblastoma
c. Simple renal cyst
d. Hypernephroma
83. A patient has small kidneys with blunt/round calyces with increased BUN and
creatinine level. What would be the best choice of modality to detect
functional changes?
a. U/S
b. CT
c. NucMed
d. MRI
84. What would the patient most likely have if the kidneys appear small with
blunt/round calyces?
a. Acute glomerulonephritis or Crohn's Bright disease
b. Chronic glomerulonephritis or crohn's bright disease
c. Inflammation of the capillary loops of the glomeruli
d. B and C
85. A patient has indications of vesicoureteral reflux and frequent urination, what
does the patient most likely have? What position would be best for the
visualization of the pathology?
a. Hydronephrosis, AP
b. Hypernephroma, PA
c. Benign prostatic hyperplasia, Erect
d. Renal calculi, AP caudal angle
86. What is the bladder capacity?
a. 100cc
b. 200cc
c. 350-400cc
d. 350-500cc
87. Why are pregnant patients more likely to urinate?
a. Fetus adding anterior pressure to the bladder
b. Fetus adding downward pressure to the bladder
c. Changing hormones cause frequent micturition
d. Fetus adding posterior pressure to the bladder
88. ____ supply blood to the glomeruli and ____ take blood away to the ____.
a. Afferent arterioles, efferent arterioles, bowman’s capsule
b. Efferent, afferent arterioles, proximal convoluted tubule
c. Proximal convoluted tubules, descending tubule, minor calyx
d. Descending limb, ascending limb, minor calyx
89. List how filtrate travels through the collecting ducts in order
a. Bowman’s capsule, glomeruli, proximal convoluted tubule, descending
tubule, ascending tubule, distal convoluted tubule, minor calyx
b. Glomeruli, bowman’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, descending
tubule, ascending tubule, distal convoluted tubule, minor calyx
c. Glomeruli, bowman’s capsule, descending tubule, proximal convoluted
tubule, distal convoluted tubule, descending tubule, minor calyx
d. Bowman’s capsule, glomeruli, descending tubule, proximal convoluted
tubule, distal convoluted tubule, descending tubule, minor calyx
90. Where are 99% of filtrate reabsorbed into the kidney’s venous system?
a. Glomeruli
b. Loop henle
c. Between glomeruli and distal convoluted tubule
d. Between bowman’s capsule and minor calyx
91. At what point is filtrate changed the name to urine?
a. When it reaches the distal convoluted tubule
b. When it reaches the minor calyx
c. When it reaches the major calyx
d. When it reaches the renal pelvis
92. When a kidney drops ___, it is called nephroptosis
a. >1”
b. >1.5”
c. >2”
d. >2.5”
93. When standing up, the kidneys drop ____
a. 1”
b. 1.5”
c. 2”
d. 2.5”