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Jee 20242
Jee 20242
Jee 20242
Note: For the benefit of the students, specially the aspiring ones, the question of JEE(advanced),
2024 are also given in this booklet. Keeping the interest of students studying in class XI,
the questions based on topics from class XI have been marked with ‘*’, which can be
attempted as a test. For this test the time allocated in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
are 30 minutes, 20 minutes and 25 minutes respectively.
FIITJEE
SOLUTIONS TO JEE (ADVANCED) – 2024
(PAPER-1)
Mathematics
SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 12)
This section contains FOUR (04) questions.
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is the correct answer.
For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct answer.
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +3 If ONLY the correct option is chosen;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : –1 In all other cases.
Q.1 Let f(x) be a continuously differentiable function on the interval (0, ) such that f(1) = 2 and
t10 f x x10 f t
lim 1 for each x > 0. Then, for all x > 0, f(x) is equal to
t x t9 x9
31 9 10 9 31
(A) x (B) x10
11x 11 11x 11
9 31 10 13 9
(C) x (D) x10
11x 11 11x 11
Ans. B
f x t10 x10 f t
Sol. lim 1 (Using L.H. Rule)
t x t9 x9
f x 10t 9 x10 f t
lim 1
t x 9t 8
f x 10x 9 x10 f x
1
9x8
10 9
x2 f(x) – 10x f(x) = –9 f x f x 2
x x
10
x
dx 1
Integrating factor e
x10
f x 9 1 f x 9
10
2
10
dx 10
c
x x x x 11x11
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-2
9 13
f(1) = 2 2 c c
11 11
9 13 10
f x x
11x 11
Q.2 A student appears for a quiz consisting of only true-false type questions and answers all the
questions. The student knows the answers of some questions and guesses the answers for the
remaining questions. Whenever the student knows the answer of a question, he gives the correct
answer. Assume that the probability of the student giving the correct answer for a question, given
1
that he has guess it, is . Also assume that the probability of the answer for a question being
2
1
guessed, given that the student's answer is correct, is . Then the probability that the student
6
knows the answer of a randomly chosen question is
1 1
(A) (B)
12 7
5 5
(C) (D)
7 12
Ans. C
5
*Q.3 Let x be such that cotx = . Then
2 11
11x 11x
sin sin 6x cos6x cos sin6x cos 6x is equal to
2 2
11 1 11 1
(A) (B)
2 3 2 3
11 1 11 1
(C) (D)
3 2 3 2
Ans. B
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-3
5 5
Sol. cot x , x , cos x
11 2 6
x 11 x 1
sin and cos
2 2 3 2 2 3
11x 11x
Now, sin sin 6x cos6x cos sin6x cos 6x
2 2
x x 11 1
= cos sin =
2 2 2 3
x2 y2 p2 q2
*Q.4 Consider the ellipse 1 . Let S(p, q) be a point in the first quadrant such that 1.
9 4 9 4
Two tangents are drawn from S to the ellipse, of which one meets the ellipse at one end point of
the minor axis and the other meets the ellipse at a point T in the fourth quadrant. Let R be the
vertex of the ellipse with positive x-coordinate and O be the centre of the ellipse. If the area of the
3
triangle ORT is , then which of the following options is correct ?
2
(A) q 2, p 3 3 (B) q 2, p 4 3
(C) q 1, p 5 3 (D) q 1, p 6 3
Ans. A
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-4
*Q.5 n
n
Let S a b 2 : a,b Z,T1 1 2 : n Z , and T2 1 2 : n N . Then which of the
following statements is(are) TRUE ?
(A) Z T1 T2 S
1
(B) T1 0, , where denotes the empty set
2024
(C) T2 2024,
(D) For any given a, b Z, cos a b 2 isin a b 2 Z if and only if b = 0, where
i 1
Ans.. A, C, D
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-5
Ans.. B, C, D
Q.7 Let R3 denote the three dimensional space. Take two points P = (1, 2, 3) and Q = (4, 2, 7). Let
dist(X, Y) denote the distance between two points X and Y in R3. Let
S = {X R3 : (dist(X, P))2 (dist(X, Q))2 = 50} and
T = {Y R3 : (dist(Y, Q))2 (dist(Y, P))2 = 50}.
Then which of the following statements is(are) TRUE ?
(A) There is a triangle whose area is 1 and all of whose vertices are from S.
(B) There are two distinct points L and M in T such that each point on the line segments LM is
also in T.
(C) There are infinitely many rectangles of perimeter 48, two of whose vertices are from S and
the other two vertices are from T.
(D) There is a square of perimeter 48, two of whose vertices are from S and the other two
vertices are from T.
Ans. A, B, C, D
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-6
Sol. Here, locus of S 6x + 8z = 105 i.e. a plane and locus of T 6x + 8z = 5 i.e. a plane.
Also, distance between these two planes = 10 units.
1
*Q.8 Let a = 3 2 and b = 1/6
. If x, y R are such that
5 6
3x+ 2y = loga(18)5/4 and 2x y logb 1080 ,
then 4x + 5y is equal to _____ .
Ans. 8
1
Sol. a 3 2, b 1/6
5 6
5
3x + 2y = log 18
185/ 4
2
2x y log51/ 6 6 1080 3
6x + 4y = 5 (1)
2x y = 3 (2)
Now, subtract (2) from (1)
4x + 5y = 8
*Q.9 Let f(x) = x 4 + ax3 + bx2 + c be a polynomial with real coefficients such that f(1) = 9. Suppose
that i 3 is a root of the equation 4x 3 + 3ax2 + 2bx = 0, where i 1 . If 1, 2, 3, and 4 are all
2 2 2 2
the roots of the equation f x 0, then 1 2 3 4 is equal to _______ .
Ans. 20
2 2
Sol. 4x + 3ax + 2b = 4(x + 3)
a=0;b=6
4 2
f(x) = x + 6x + c
f(1) = 7 + c = 9 c = 16
f(x) = x4 + 6x2 16 = (x2 + 8) (x2 2)
x = 2 2i, 2
2 2 2 2
1 2 3 4 = 20.
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-7
0 1 c
Q.10 Let S A 1 a d : a,b,c,d,e 0,1 and A 1,1 , where |A| denotes the determinant of A.
1 b e
Then the number of elements in S is _______ .
Ans.. 16
*Q.11 A group of 9 students s1, s2, …… s9 is to be divided to form three teams X, Y and Z of sizes 2, 3
and 4 respectively. Suppose that s1 cannot be selected for the team X, and s2 cannot be selected
for team Y. Then the number of ways to form such teams, is ______ .
Ans. 665
Ans. 5
Sol. OP OQ OR 0
1
1 1
1
1 1 0 + = –1
1
1 1
2
Also, 3 + 3 – 2 + l = 0
l=5
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-8
Q.13 Let X be a random variable, and let P(X = x) denote the probability that X takes the values x.
Suppose that the points (x, P(X = x)), x = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, lie on a fixed straight line in the xy-plane,
5
and P(X = x) = 0 for all x R {0, 1, 2, 3, 4}. If the mean of X is , and the variance of X is ,
2
then the value of 24 is _______ .
Ans. 42
Sol. Let P xi mxi c, i 0, 1, 2, 3, 4
4
1
P xi = 1 2m c 5
i0
4
5 1 1 1
xiP xi 2 3m c
4
m
20
,c
10
i0
4 2
4 25 7
xi2P xi x iP x i 8 24 = 42
i0 i0 4 4
Q.14 Let and be the distinct roots of the equation x 2 + x 1 = 0. Consider the set T = {1, , }. For
a 3 3 matrix M = (aij)33 , define Ri = ai1 + ai2 + ai3 and Cj = a1j + a2j + a3j for i = 1, 2, 3 and
j = 1, 2, 3.
List – I List – II
(P) The number of matrices M = (aij)33 with all entries in T (1) 1
such that Ri = Cj = 0 for all i, j, is
(Q) The number of symmetric matrices M = (aij)33 with all (2) 12
entries in T such that Cj = 0 for all j, is
(R) Let M = (aij)33 be a skew symmetric matrix such that (3) infinite
aij T for i > j. Then the number of elements in the
x x a12
set y : x,y,z R,M y 0 is
z z a
23
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Ans. C
Sol. + = 1
(P) Only possible when each row and each column of M is made of 1, , . Number of ways for first
row = 3 2 1 = 6.
Number of ways for second row = 2 1 1 = 2
Number of ways for third row = 1 1 1 = 1
Number of such matrices = 6 2 1 = 12
(Q) Each column should be made of 1, , .
Since matrix is symmetric, after making column 1, other entries would be fixed by default.
Number of ways = 6
(R) Let a21 = a, a31 = b, a32 = c, where {a, b, c} T
0 a b
M = a 0 c
b c 0
Then ay bz = a ay + bz = a
ax cz = 0 ax = cz and bx + cy = c
If a = b = c, then y + z = 1 x = z, x + y = 1
This has infinite solutions.
(S) Each row is made of {1, , }
Also, 1 + + = 0
C1 C1 + C2 + C3 makes every element of column 1 as '0'. Hence determinant is 0.
*Q.15 Let the straight line y = 2x touch a circle with centre (0, ), > 0, and radius r at a point A1. Let B1
be the point on the circle such the line segment A1B1 is a diameter of the circle. Let
r 5 5 .
List – I List – II
(P) equals (1) (2, 4)
(Q) r equals (2) 5
Ans. C
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-10
20
Sol. OA1 r
5
= r 5 given + r = 5 + 5
r 1 5 5 1 5
r 5 , hence = 5
Now, A1B1 = 2r = 2 5
A1(2, 4) and B1(2, 6) from elimination.
x 11 y 21 z 29 x 16 y 11 z 4
Q.16 Let R be such that the lines L1 : and L 2 :
1 2 3 3 2
intersect. Let R1 be the point of intersection of L1 and L2. Let O = (0, 0, 0), and n̂ denote a unit
normal vector to the plane containing both the lines L1 and L2.
List – I List – II
(P) equals (1) ˆi ˆj kˆ
(5) 2
3
Ans. C
x 11 y 21 z 29
Sol. =
1 2 3
x 16 y 11 z 4
3 2 4
11 = 3 16 3 = 5
2 21 = 2 11 = 5
= 10, = 5
So, = 1
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-11
ˆi ˆj k
n̂ 1 2 3 4iˆ 8 ˆj 4kˆ
3 2 1
1 2 ˆ 1 ˆ
n̂ i j k
6 6 6
R1(1, 1, 1)
OR ˆi ˆj kˆ
2
OR nˆ
3
List – I List – II
(P) If a = 0, b = 1, c = 0 and d = 0, then (1) h is one-one.
(Q) If a = 1, b = 0, c = 0 and d = 0, then (2) h is onto.
(R) If a = 0, b = 0, c = 1 and d = 0, then (3) h is differentiable on R.
(S) If a = 0, b = 0, c = 0 and d = 1, then (4) the range of h is [0, 1].
(5) the range of h is {0, 1}.
Ans. C
Sol. We have
1 1
g x g 2 x 0 ; x R 0,
2
g x g 1 x 1; 1
x 0,
2 2
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-12
af x d c g x cx ; x0
1
h x af x b d c g x cx ; x 0,
2
af x d c g x cx 1
; x
2
0 ; x 0
1
for a = c = d = 0 and b = 1 ; h(x) = 1 ; x 0,
2
1
0 ; x
2
h(x) has range {0, 1}
for a = 1, b = c = d = 0 h(x) = f(x) x R
h(x) is differentiable.
for c = 1, a = b = d = 0 h = x g(x) ; x R
x ; x0
1
h(x) = 3x 1 ; x 0,
2
1
x ; x
2
h(x) is onto
for d = 1 ; a = b = c = 0 h(x) = g(x) x R
h(x) has range [0, 1]
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-13
Physics
Q.1 A dimensionless quantity is constructed in terms of electronic charge e, permittivity of free space
0, Planck’s constant h, and speed of light c. If the dimensionless quantity is written as e 0h c
and n is a non-zero integer, then (, , , ) is given by
(A) (2n, – n, – n, – n) (B) (n, – n, – 2n, – n)
(C) (n, – n, – n, – 2n) (D) (2n, – n, – 2n, – 2n)
Ans. A
Sol. e 0h c k
e h c n0
A T ML2 T 1 LT 1 A 2n T 4nMnL3n
So, = 2n, = n
Q.2 An infinitely long wire, located on the z-axis, carries a current I along the +z-direction and
produces the magnetic field B. The magnitude of the line integral B.dl along a straight line from
the point 3a,a,0 to (a, a, 0) is given by
[0 is the magnetic permeability of free space.]
(A) 70I / 24 (B) 7 0I / 12
(C) 0I / 8 (D) 0I / 6
Ans. A
f
70 I /3 /4
So, B d
i
24
z O x
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-14
Q.3 Two beads, each with charge q and mass m, are on a horizontal, frictionless, non-conducting,
circular hoop of radius R. One of the beads is glued to the hoop at some point, while the other
one performs small oscillations about its equilibrium position along the hoop. The square of the
angular frequency of the small oscillations is given by
[0 is the permittivity of free space.]
(A) q2 / 40R3m
(B) q2 / 320R3 m
(C) q2 / 8 0R3 m (D) q2 / 160R3 m
Ans. B
/2
kq2 sin
Sol. So, at = tangential acceleration of bead = 2
kq2
q
4mR2 cos2
2 4R2 cos2
2
kq2 q2 x
So, a t
4mR2 2 320R3m /2
2
q
So, 2
320 mR3
q
*Q.4 A block of mass 5 kg moves along the x-direction subject to the force F = (–20x + 10) N, with the
value of x in metre. At time t = 0 s, it is at rest at position x = 1 m. The position and momentum of
the block at t = (/4) s are
(A) – 0.5 m, 5 kg m/s (B) 0.5 m, 0 kg m/s
(C) 0.5 m, –5 kg m/s (D) – 1 m, 5 kg m/s
Ans. C
20x 10 1 t=0
Sol. a 4 x
5 2 x=0 x = 1/2 x = 1 x
1 1
So, x cos(2t) m
2 2
At t = sec
4
x = 0.5 m
1
v 2 1m/s
2
So, momentum P = 5 kg-m/s
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-15
Q.5 A particle of mass m is moving in a circular orbit under the influence of the central force
F(r) = – kr, corresponding to the potential energy V(r) = kr2/2, where k is a positive force constant
and r is the radial distance from the origin. According to the Bohr’s quantization rule, the angular
momentum of the particle is given by L n , where h / 2 , h is the Planck’s constant, and n
a positive integer. If v and E are the speed and total energy of the particle, respectively, then
which of the following expression(s) is(are) correct?
1 k
(A) r 2 n (B) v 2 n
mk m3
L k n k
(C) (D) E
2 m 2 m
mr
Ans. A, B, C
mv 2
Sol. kr
r
k
v r and L = n mvr
m
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-16
n2 2 n mvr
So, r 2 2 2
n 2 2
n
m v m v m2 v 2
r 1 m
So, r 2 n n v
mv mv k
1
So, r 2 n Option (A)
mk
k 2 k 1 k
v2 r n n Option(B)
m m mk m3
L v k
2
Option(C)
mr r m
kr 2 kr 2
E=U+K= kr 2
2 2
1 k
E kn n
mk m
*Q.6 Two uniform strings of mass per unit length and 4, and length L and 2L, respectively, are
joined at point O, and tied at two fixed ends P and Q, as shown in the figure. The strings are
1 T
under a uniform tension T. If we define the frequency 0 , which of the following
2L
statement(s) is(are) correct?
(A) With a node at O, the minimum frequency of vibration of the composite string is 0.
(B) With an antinode at O, the minimum frequency of vibration of the composite string is 20.
(C) When the composite string vibrates at the minimum frequency with a node at O, it has 6
nodes, including the end nodes.
(D) No vibrational mode with an antinode at O is possible for the composite string.
Ans. A, C, D
1
Sol. Lm and 2L n 2
2 2
1 m v1 m
So, 2
2 n v2 n
m 1
So, 1 = 2L
n 4
1 T
0
2L
So, there are total 6 nodes
So, L (2m 1) 1
4
2
2L (2n 1)
4
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-17
2m 1 1
So,
2n 1 4
So, it is not possible
Q.7 A glass beaker has a solid, plano-convex base of refractive index 1.60, as shown in the figure.
The radius of curvature of the convex surface (SPU) is 9 cm, while the planar surface (STU) acts
as a mirror. This beaker is filled with a liquid of refractive index n up to the level QPR. If the
image of a point object O at a height of h (OT in the figure) is formed onto itself, then, which of the
following option(s) is(are) correct?
Ans. A, B
1 1 1
Sol. (n 1)
f R
1 R 2
1 1 1
(1.6 1)
f 9
f1 15 cm
0.6
1 1 1
(n 1)
f2 9
9
f2
(n 1)
P = 2P1 + 2P2
1 2 2(n 1)
feq 15 9
1 18 2(n 1) 15
feq 15 9
15 9
feq
18 2(n 1) 15
2 15 9
Image V = R = 2f e =
18 2(n 1) 15
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-18
*Q.8 The specific heat capacity of a substance is temperature dependent and is given by the formula C
= kT, where k is a constant of suitable dimensions in SI units, and T is the absolute temperature.
If the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of the substance from –73°C to 27°C is nk,
the value of n is _____.
[Given: 0 K = –273°C]
Ans. 25000
Sol. dQ = mSdT
dQ 1.KTdT
300
Q K TdT
200
K 300
Q T 2
2 200
K
Q 9 4 104
2
Q 25000 K
n = 25000
*Q.9 A disc of mass M and radius R is free to rotate about its vertical axis as shown in the figure. A
battery operated motor of negligible mass is fixed to this disc at a point on its circumference.
Another disc of the same mass M and radius R/2 is fixed to the motor’s thin shaft. Initially, both
the discs are at rest. The motor is switched on so that the smaller disc rotates at a uniform
angular speed . If the angular speed at which the large disc rotates is /n, then the value of n
is_____.
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-19
Ans. 12
Q.10 A point source S emits unpolarized light uniformly in all directions. At two points A and B, the ratio
r = IA/IB of the intensities of light is 2. If a set of two polaroids having 45° angle between their
pass-axes is placed just before point B, then the new value of r will be _____.
Ans. 8
Sol. I 1/r2
2
IA rB
IA/IB= = 2
IB n
IB
IB = cos 450
2
IB = IB/4
IB
IB =
4
IA IA
=8
IB IB
4
*Q.11 A source (S) of sound has frequency 240 Hz. When the observer (O) and the source move
towards each other at a speed v with respect to the ground (as shown in Case 1 in the figure), the
observer measures the frequency of the sound to be 288 Hz. However, when the observer and
the source move away from each other at the same speed v with respect to the ground (as shown
in Case 2 in the figure), the observer measures the frequency of sound to be n Hz. The value of n
is _____.
Ans. 200
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-20
Sol. f 0 = 240 Hz
v u
f1 f0 u u
v u S D
v u vu 6
288 240
v u v u 5
v = 11 u …………. (i)
v u u u
f2 f0 S D
v u
5
f2 240 200Hz.
6
*Q.12 Two large, identical water tanks, 1 and 2, kept on the top of a building of height H, are filled with
water up to height h in each tank. Both the tanks contain an identical hole of small radius on their
sides, close to their bottom. A pipe of the same internal radius as that of the hole is connected to
tank 2, and the pipe ends at the ground level. When the water flows from the tanks 1 and 2
16
through the holes, the times taken to empty the tanks are t1 and t2, respectively. If H h,
9
then the ratio t1/t2 is________.
Ans. 3
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*Q.13 A thin uniform rod of length L and certain mass is kept on a frictionless horizontal table with a
massless string of length L fixed to one end (top view is shown in the figure). The other end of the
string is pivoted to a point O. If a horizontal impulse P is imparted to the rod at a distance x = L/n
from the mid-point of the rod (see figure), then the rod and string revolve together around the
point O, with the rod remaining aligned with the string. In such a case, the value of n is _____.
Ans. 18
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*Q.14 One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes the cyclic process J K L M J, as shown
in the P-T diagram.
Match the quantities mentioned in List-I with their values in List-II and choose the correct option.
[R is the gas constant.]
List-I List-II
(P) Work done in the complete cyclic process (1) RT0 4RT0 ln 2
(Q) Change in the internal energy of the gas in (2) 0
the process JK
(R) Heat given to the gas in the process KL (3) 3RT0
(S) Change in the internal energy of the gas in (4) 2RT0 ln2
the process MJ
(5) 3RT0 ln 2
(A) P 1; Q 3; R 5; S 4 (B) P 4; Q 3; R 5; S 2
(C) P 4; Q 1; R 2; S 2 (D) P 2; Q 5; R 3; S 4
Ans. B
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P 2P
MJ W MJ = nRTn i RT0 n 0 RT0 n2
Pf P0
Total work done
W = 2RT0n2
3
(Q) UJK nCV T 1 R(3T0 T0 ) 3RT0
2
(R) QKL = W KL + UKL= W KL + 0 = 3RT0n2
(S) UMJ = nCVT = 0
Q.15 Four identical thin, square metal sheets, S1, S2, S3 and S4, each of side a are kept parallel to each
other with equal distance d (<< a) between them, as shown in the figure. Let C0 = 0a2/d, where 0
is the permittivity of free space.
Match the quantities mentioned in List-I with their values in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) The capacitance between S1 and S4, with S2 (1) 3C0
and S3 not connected, is
(Q) The capacitance between S1 and S4, with S2 (2) C0/2
shorted to S3, is
(R) The capacitance between S1 and S3, with S2 (3) C0/3
shorted to S4, is
(S) The capacitance between S1 and S2, with S3 (4) 2C0/3
shorted to S1, and S2 shorted to S4, is
(5) 2C0
(A) P 3; Q 2; R 4; S 5 (B) P 2; Q 3; R 2; S 1
(C) P 3; Q 2; R 4; S 1 (D) P 3; Q 2; R 2; S 5
Ans. C
Sol. (P)
S1 S4 C0
C0 C0 C0 CS1S4
3
(Q)
S1 S4 C0
C0 C0 CS1S4
2
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(R)
S1 S3
C0 C0
2
CS1S3 C0
3
C0
(S) S1 S2
S1 S2
C0
S3 S2 CS1S2 3C0
C0
S3 S4
C0
Q.16 A light ray is incident on the surface of a sphere of refractive index n at an angle of incidence 0.
The ray partially refracts into the sphere with angle of refraction 0 and then partly reflects from
the back surface. The reflected ray then emerges out of the sphere after a partial refraction. The
total angle of deviation of the emergent ray with respect to the incident ray is . Match the
quantities mentioned in List-I with their values in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
0
(P) If n = 2 and = 180°, then all the possible (1) 30° and 0
values of 0 will be
0
(Q) If n 3 and = 180°, then all the possible (2) 60° and 0
values of 0 will be
0
(R) If n 3 and = 180°, then all the possible (3) 45° and 0
values of 0 will be
(S) If n 2 and 0 = 45°, then all the possible (4) 150°
values of will be
(5) 0°
(A) P 5; Q 2; R 1; S 4 (B) P 5; Q 1; R 2; S 4
(C) P 3; Q 2; R 1; S 4 (D) P 3; Q 1; R 2; S 5
Ans. A
Sol. (P) sin 0 = 2 sin 0 …(i)
0 0 + 0 0 + 180 20 = …(ii)
When, = 180
20 40 = 0
0
0 = 20 0
sin 20 = 2 sin 0 0
2 sin0 cos 0 = 2 sin0 0
cos 0 = 1 0
0 = 0, hence 0 = 0
(Q) sin0 = 3 sin0
0
3
cos 0
2
0 = 30
0 = 60
Hence, possible value of 0 is zero and 60
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Q.17 The circuit shown in the figure contains an inductor L, a capacitor C0, a resistor R0 and an ideal
battery. The circuit also contains two keys K1 and K2. Initially, both the keys are open and there is
no charge on the capacitor. At an instant, key K1 is closed and immediately after this the current
in R0 is found to be I1. After a long time, the current attains a steady state value I2. Thereafter, K2
is closed and simultaneously K1 is opened and the voltage across C0 oscillates with amplitude V0
and angular frequency 0
Match the quantities mentioned in List-I with their values in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) The value of I1 in Ampere is (1) 0
(Q) The value of I2in Ampere is (2) 2
(R) The value of 0 in kilo-radians/s (3) 4
(S) The value of V0 in Volt is (4) 20
(5) 200
(A) P 1; Q 3; R 2; S 5 (B) P 1; Q 2; R 3; S 5
(C) P 1; Q 3; R 2 S 4 (D) P 2 Q 5 R 3 S 4
Ans. A
Sol. (P) At t = 0, I1 = 0
20 L = 25 mH
(Q) At t , I2 = 4 amp
5 R0 = 5 k1
1 1
(R) 0 20V
LC 25 103 10 10 6 I1
1
4
2 103 2 kilo-rad/sec
5 10
1 2 1
(S) LI2 CV02
2 2
L 25 10 3
V0 I2 4 5 10 4
C 10 106
V0 = 200 volts
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Chemistry
*Q.1 A closed vessel contains 10 g of an ideal gas X at 300 K, which exerts 2 atm pressure. At the
same temperature, 80 g of another ideal gas Y is added to it and the pressure becomes 6 atm.
The ratio of root mean square velocities of X and Y at 300 K is
(A) 2 2 : 3 (B) 2 2 : 1
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1
Ans. (D)
10
Sol. 2 V R T ... 1
Mx
80
4 V R T ... 2
My
80 Mx
2
My 10
Mx 1
My 4
Vrms x 4 2
Vrms y 1 1
Q.2 At room temperature, disproportionation of an aqueous solution of in situ generated nitrous acid
(HNO2) gives the species
+ +
(A) H3O , NO3 and NO (B) H3O , NO3 and NO2
+ +
(C) H3O , NO and NO2 (D) H3O , NO3 and N2O
Ans. (A)
Sol. 3HNO2 2NO HNO3 H2 O
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Q.3 Aspartame, an artificial sweetener, is a dipeptide aspartyl phenylalanine methyl ester. The
structure of aspartame is
Structure of phenylalanine and aspartic acid are given below.
O
Ph
HO
OH
H2N OH
H2N
O
O
Phenylalanine Aspartic acid
(A) HO O Ph (B) O
O
OMe HO H O
H2N N
N
H O H2N OMe
O
Ph
(C) Ph (D) O
H O
N MeO H O
H2N OMe
N
O OH H2N OH
O
O Ph
Ans. (B)
Sol. The structure of ASPARTAME (an artificial structure) is:
O O O
HO C CH2 CH C NH CH C OCH3
NH2 CH2
Q.4 Among the following options, select the option in which each complex in Set-I shows geometrical
isomerism and the two complexes in Set-II are ionization isomers of each other.
[en = H2NCH2CH2NH2]
(A) Set – I: [Ni(CO)4] and [PdCl2(PPh3)2]
Set – II: [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Cl
(B) Set – I: [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2] and [PdCl2(PPh3)2]
Set – II: [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6] and [Cr(NH3)6[Co(CN)6]
(C) Set – I: [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] and [Co(en)2Cl2]
Set – II: [Co(NH3)5Cl]SO4 and [Co(NH3)5(SO4)]Cl
(D) Set – I: [Cr(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 and [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]
Set – II: [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)5Cl]Cl2.H2O
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Ans. (C)
Sol. Set – I
Co NH3 3 NO 2 3
H3N H3N
H3N NO 2 H3N NO 2
Co Co
H3N NO 2 O 2N NO 2
NO 2 NH3
(fac) (mer)
(pair of geometrical isomers)
Co en 2 Cl2
Cl NH2
NH2 NH2 Cl
NH2
Co Co
NH2 NH2 Cl
NH2
NH2
Cl
(Trans) (cis)
(geometrical isomers)
Co NH3 5 Cl SO 4 and Co NH3 5 SO4 Cl are ionization isomers.
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*Q5. Among the following, the correct statement(s) for electrons in an atom is(are)
(A) Uncertainty principle rules out the existence of definite paths for electrons.
(B) The energy of an electrons in 2s orbital of an atom is lower than the energy of an electron
that is infinitely far away from the nucleus.
(C) According to Bohr’s model, the most negative energy value for an electron is given by n = 1,
which corresponds to the most stable orbit.
(D) According to Bohr’s model, the magnitude of velocity of electrons increases with increase in
values of n.
Ans. (A, B, C)
Sol. (A) uncertainty principle rules – out the existence of definite paths for an electron due to wave
nature of electron.
Z2
(B) Energy 2
n
So, E2s E
13.6 Z 2
(C) E
n2
If n = 1
2
E = (13.6 Z ) eV is most negative value and therefore most stable.
Z
(D) V = 2.186 106
n
So, (D) is wrong.
Q.6 Reaction of iso-propylbenzene with O2 followed by the treatment with H3O+ forms phenol and a by
product P. Reaction of P with 3 equivalents of Cl2 gives compound Q. Treatement of Q with
Ca(OH)2 produces compound R and calcium salt S.
The correct statement(s) regarding P, Q, R and S is(are)
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H3C CH3
(B) Reaction of R with O2 in the presence of light gives phosgene gas
(C) Q reacts with aqueous NaOH to produce Cl3CCH2OH and Cl3CCOONa
(D) S on heating gives P
Ans. (A, B, D)
Sol. CH3 CH3
H3C CH H3C C O OH OH
H3C
O2
H3 O C O
H3C
(Cumene hydroperoxide) (P)
O O Cl O
Cl2 3 eqv. 2
Ca OH
H3C C CH3 H3C C C Cl
H3C C O 2Ca CHCl 3
(Q) Cl (R)
(S)
(A) H3C H3C
OH
C O i KOH
CHCl3
ii H
Cl
C
H3C H3C
Cl Cl
(Chlorotone)
(B) 1
CHCl3 O2 air
COCl2 HCl
2 phosgene
(C) O Cl O
NaOH
H3C C C Cl H3C C ONa CHCl 3
Cl
So, (C) is wrong.
(D) O
H3C C O O
Ca H C
C CH3 CaCO 3
3
H3C C O (P)
O (S)
*Q7. The option(s) in which at least three molecules follow Octet Rule is(are)
(A) CO2, C2H4, NO and HCl (B) NO2, O3, HCl and H2SO4
(C) BCl3, NO, NO2 and H2SO4 (D) CO2, BCl3, O3 and C2H4
Ans. (A, D)
Sol. O Cl
H H CH2
O C O; C C ; N O;H Cl ; N O B
; ; HO S O H;
H H O O Cl Cl
CH4
O
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*Q8. Consider the following volume – temperature (V – T) diagram for the expansion of
5 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas.
Y Z
20
V(L)
10 X
T
335 415
T(K)
Consider only P – V work is involved, the total change in enthalpy (in Joule) for the transformation
of state in the sequence X Y Z is __________.
[Use the given data: Molar heat capacity of the gas for the given temperature range,
Cv, m = 12 J K1 mol1 and gas constant, R = 8.3 J K1 mol1]
Ans. (8120)
Sol. Since X Y is an isothermal process (dT = 0).
So, Hx y nCpm dT 6
Y Z is isochoric.
Uy z nCvm dT 5 12 415 335
Uyz = 4800 J
Hy z = Uyz + (PV)
= Uyz + nRT = 4800 + 5 8.3 80 = 8120 J
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Ans. (3)
Sol. Net reaction:
2H2 g 2NO g
N2 g 2H2O g
(i)
K1
2NO g
N2 O2 g fast
K 1
k1 N2O 2
... 1
k 1 NO 2
k2
(ii) N2 O2 g H2 g N2 O g H2 O g slow reaction
r k 2 N2O 2 H2
k1 2
k2 NO H2
k 1
k 2k 1 2
r NO H2
k 1
So, order of reaction = 3.
Q.10 Complete reaction of acetaldehyde with excess formaldehyde, upon heating with
conc. NaOH solution, gives P and Q. Compound P does not give Tollen’s test, whereas Q on
acidification gives positive Tollen’s test. Treatment of P with excess cyclohexanone in the
presence of catalytic amount of p-tolunesulfonic acid (PTSA) gives product R.
Sum of the number of methylene groups (CH2) and oxygen atoms in R is _________.
Ans. (18)
Sol. OH OH O
O
O
Conc. H C O
NaOH
H3C C H Excess H H
HO OH Q
P
O
H3 O
, PTSA
HCOOH
Excess
give Tollen's test
O O
O O
R
The number of CH2 group in R = 14
The number of O atom in R = 4
Total = 18
3 4
Q.11 Among V(CO)6, Cr(CO)5, Mn(CO)5, Fe(CO)5, [Co(CO)3] , [Cr(CO)4] and Ir(CO)3, the total
number of species isoelectronic with Ni(CO)4 is _______________.
[Given, atomic number: V = 23, Cr = 24, Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27, Ni = 28, Cu = 29,
Ir = 77]
Ans. (1)
Sol. Ni CO 4 84
V CO 6 107
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Cr CO 5 94
Mn CO 5 95
Fe CO 5 96
3
Co CO 3 72
4
Cr CO 4 84 Isoelectronic with Ni CO 4
Ir CO 3 119
Ans. (909)
Sol. H C C (CH2)15 COOEt
i Hg2 , H3O
O C (CH2)15 COOEt
CH3
Zn Hg / HCl
H3 O ,
R
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Mole of R = 1.5
Wt. of R = 1.5 × 606
Wt. of R = 909
Q. 13 Among the following complexes, the total number of diamagnetic species is _______.
[Mn(NH3)6]3+, [MnCl6]3, [FeF6]3, [CoF6]3, [Fe(NH3)6]3+ and [Co(en)3]3+
[Given, atomic number: Mn = 25, Fe = 26, Co = 27; en = H2NCH2CH2NH2]
Ans. (1)
3
Sol. 1. Mn NH3 6 , n 2, Paramagnetic
3
2. MnCl6 , n 4, Paramagnetic
3
3. FeF6 , n 5, Paramagnetic
3
4. CoF6 , n 4, Paramagnetic
3
5. Fe NH3 6 , n 1, Paramagnetic
3
6. Co en 3 , n 0, Diamagnetic
Q.14 In a conductometric titration, small volume of titrant of higher concentration is added stepwise to a
larger volume of titrate of much lower concentration, and the conductance is measured after each
addition.
The limiting ionic conductivity 0 values (in mS m2 mol1) for different ions in aqueous solutions
are given below:
Ions Ag+ K+ Na+ H+ NO3 Cl SO42 OH CH3COO
0 6.2 7.4 5.0 35.0 7.2 7.6 16.0 19.9 4.1
For different combinations of titrates and titrants given in List-I, the graphs of ‘conductance’
versus ‘volume of titrant’ are given in List-II.
Match each entry List-I with the appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) Titrate: KCl (1)
Titrant: AgNO3
Conductance
Volume of titrant
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Conductance
Volume of titrant
Conductance
Volume of titrant
Conductance
Volume of titrant
(5)
Conductance
Volume of titrant
Ans. (C)
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Conductance
Volume of titrant
Volume of titrant
(R) (2)
Conductance
Volume of titrant
(S) (5)
Conductance
Volume of titrant
*Q.15 Based on VSEPR model, match the xenon compounds given in List-I with the corresponding
geometries and the number of lone pairs on xenon given in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) XeF2 (1) Trigonal bipyramidal and two lone pair of
electrons
(Q) XeF4 (2) Tetrahedral and one lone pair of electrons
(R) XeO3 (3) Octahedral and two lone pair of electrons
(S) XeO3F2 (4) Trigonal bipyramidal and no lone pair of
electrons
(5) Trigonal bipyramidal and three lone pair of
electrons
(A) (P) (5), (Q) (2), (R) (3), (S) (1)
(B) (P) (5), (Q) (3), (R) (2), (S) (4)
(C) (P) (4), (Q) (3), (R) (2), (S) (1)
(D) (P) (4), (Q) (2), (R) (5), (S) (3)
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-37
Ans. (B)
Sol. F
XeF 2
Xe
XeF 4 F
F
Xe
F F
XeO 3
Xe
O O
O
XeO 3F 2 F
O
O Xe
O
F
Q.16 List-I contains various reaction sequence and List-II contains the possible products. Match each
entry in List-I with the appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) i O3 , Zn (1) HO
ii aq. NaOH,
iii ethylene glycol, PTSA
CH3
iv a BH3 , b H2 O2 , NaOH
v H3 O
vi NaBH4
OH
(Q) CH3 i O3 , Zn
(2) OH
ii aq. NaOH,
iii ethylene glycol, PTSA
iv a BH3 , b H2 O2 , NaOH
v H3 O CH3
vi NaBH4
HO
(R) O (3) OH
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(S) O (4) HO
CH3
CH3 i ethylene glycol, PTSA
ii a BH3 , b H2 O2 , NaOH OH
iii H3 O
iv NaBH4
(5) H3C
OH
OH
(A) (P) (3), (Q) (5), (R) (4), (S) (1)
(B) (P) (3), (Q) (2), (R) (4), (S) (1)
(C) (P) (3), (Q) (5), (R) (1), (S) (4)
(D) (P) (5), (Q) (2), (R) (4), (S) (1)
Ans. (A)
Sol. (P) O O O
O C H
i ii iii iv
O
O
O OH
v
CH2OH CHO
vi
3 OH OH
(Q) O O
CH3
i ii iii
O O
O
iv
OH O O
vi v
O
5 OH OH OH
(R) O O OH
O O O O
i ii iii iv
OH OH OH
4
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(S) OH
O O
O O O O
i ii
iii
iv
OH OH 1 OH
Q.17 List-I contains various reaction sequence and List-II contains different phenolic compounds.
Match each entry in List-I with the appropriate entry in List-II and choose the correct option.
List-I List-II
(P) SO 3H (1) OH
i molten NaOH, H O
ii Conc. HNO3
3
O 2N NO 2
(Q) NO 2 (2) OH
NO 2
(R) OH (3) OH
O 2N NO 2
i conc. H2 SO 4
ii conc. HNO3
iii H3 O ,
OH
NO 2
(S) Me (4) OH
i a KMnO4 /KOH, , b H3 O NO 2
ii conc. HNO3 /conc. H2 SO4 ,
iii a SOCl2 , b NH3
iv Br2 , NaOH
v NaNO2 /HCl, 0 50 C
vi H2 O OH
(5) OH
O 2N NO 2
OH
NO 2
(A) (P) (2), (Q) (3), (R) (4), (S) (5)
(B) (P) (2), (Q) (3), (R) (5), (S) (1)
(C) (P) (3), (Q) (5), (R) (4), (S) (1)
(D) (P) (3), (Q) (2), (R) (5), (S) (4)
Ans. (C)
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JEE(ADVANCED)-2024-Paper-1-MPC-40
Sol. (P) SO 3H OH OH
O 2N NO 2
NaOH, H3 O
NO 2
(Q) NO 2 NO 2 NH2 N2 Cl
OH OH
O 2N NO 2
OH OH
NO 2
(S)
(R) OH OH OH OH
HO 3S HO 3S NO 2 NO 2
OH OH OH OH
4
SO 3H SO 3H
(S) Me COOH COOH CONH2
O 2N NO 2 O 2N NO 2
OH N2 Cl NH2
O 2N NO 2 O 2N NO 2 O 2N NO 2
1
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