_ Assessment Theory Examination, June -2023 pes. (1A GENERAL SURGEY Total Duration : Section AYB+C = 2 Hours.30 Minutes , Marks :50 + ‘bate ~ 16/06/2023, Time 9 AM to 11.30 “Section : ‘A’ (10 Marks) 1) Which of the following is true to prevent surgical site infection? ‘A. Preoperative hair clipping should be done just prior to surgical procedure B, Skin is prepared by 20% povidone iodine C. Blood sugar level should be maintained within 200me/di D. Positive pressure ventilation at temperature of 25 °C is ideal 2) Favourable conditions for development of tetanus include following except ‘ALinjury 8.Foreign body C. Devitalised tissues D Aerobic conditions 3) Which ofthe folowing is not a component of innate immunity? ‘A. Phagocytic neutrophils B. Natural Killer cells. C. Complements D. Mast cells 4) Tacrolimus is a A. Calcineurin inhibitor B. Steroids C. Antiproliferative agents P. Antibacterial agent 5) Which ofthe following is a recommended method for sterilizing surgical instruments? 2) Wiping with alcohol _b) Cleaning with soap and water c)Autoclaving 4) Soaking in disinfectant solution 6) Which of the following best describes the process of 'Disinfection'? _ a) The elimination of all forms of microorganisms and bacterial spores b) The elimination of all forms of bacterial spores «c) The reduction or elimination of microorganisms and bacterial spores 4d) The reduction or elimination of many microorganisms and some bacterial spores 7) Following facts are true in wound healing except: ‘A. Vitamin Cis necessary for synthesis of collagen B. Diabetic patients have decreased phagocyticactivity, C Once healing is established, corticosteroids can begiven D.Poor wound healing in jaundiced patients is due to poor functioning of macrophages 8) Which hormone level does not rise during injury't AACTH 8. Adrenaline C. Glucagon D Thyroxine Scanned with CamScanner‘Scanned with CamScannerMBBS Phase -III (IA - 5] GENERAL SURGEY ‘Marks : 100 Total Duration : Section AsB+C = 3 Hours. Date~ 18/09/2023, Time 10 am to 1.00 pm Section : Q1mcq- (20 Marks ) Whitaker testis useful in which of the following? a) To detect retrocaval ureter) Duplication of ureter €) ADPKD 4) Congenital megaureter 2) Silodosin is a common drug used for BPH, what is mechanism of action ot Silodosin? 3) Alpha adrenergic antagonist b) Beta adrenergic antagonist C)Anticholinergic 3) Absence of fructose in semen is due to, #) Obstruction to epididymis b) Beta adrenergic antagonist ©)Sertolicell only syndrome _¢) Testicular atrophy 4) The most important prognostic factor in carcinoma penis is ? 2) Age of patient b) Nodal metastasis to pelvic group of lymph nodes C) Nodal metastasis to inguinal group of lymph nodes d) Tumor grade 5) _A65 yrs old male presented with lower urinary tract symptoms due to BPH. Which is the true statement on BPH? b) Hyperplasia of epithelial and stromal cells d) PDE-5 inhibitor 2) Hypertrophy of epithelial and stromal cells, © Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of epithelial and stromal cells d) Any of the above 6) The most common cause of vesico-vaginal fistula in developing countries is @) Radiation b) Pelvic surgery c) Obstetric caused) Penetrating injury 7) Ascent of horseshoe kidney is limited by which vessel? a) Superior mesenteric artery __ b) Superior mesenteric vein ¢) inferior mesenteric artery d) Inferior mesenteric vein 8) Which of the following is not classical feature of storage type LUTS? a) Frequency b) Urge incontinence c) Hesitancy d) Nocturia Which of the following is the most commonly used laser for treatment of superficial bladder cancer? a) Diode b)CO C)}Ho:YAG d) Nd:YAG 10) Classical symptoms of RCC are all except 2) Abdominal pain b) Pain c) Hematuria d) Fever 11) Which is the ideal method of collecting a urine sample? ) Specimen after early morning first voided sample b) Midday urine sample ©) Midstream urine sample any! ) Early morning midstream urine sample 9) Scanned with CamScanner4) Catheterization can be red in pave igre is there tno blood at he meat 16) Hypospadisas corrective surgery ideally to be done before the 6: 2) Gmonths b) 18 months c) 3 yrs A) Sys i 17) tenth ncorectvmatche pare prs ofuetvaamectansm FIN 28), Prostatic urethra TURP b) Bulbar uethra- low to perineum fallastde HANTS €) Membranous urethra: RTA with pelvic fracture d) Sub meatal urethra: Exterra) TAN 18) Nephrectomy i the definitive treatment option for whch af these conditions of KianeY a) Genitourinary T8 b) Grade 1 Renal trauma - €) Xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis d) Emphysematous pyelonephritis 49) In males retrograde ejaculation is prevented by internal sphincter, which is innervated PY 4a) Adrenergic nerves b) Parasympathetic nerves c) Cholinergic nerves d) None of the above 20) Stephen-fowler's operation is done for 4) Inguinal hernia b) Ca-penis c) Varicocele d) Undescended testis eof (Section-B) Q2) Long answer questions (Any 2) (2x15=30) a) What are different causes of Scrotal swelling ? Add A Note on seminoma of testis? b) Discuss various causes of haematuria and their relevant investigations.? Q3) Short Answer question (any 3) a) IVP Pave prtee b) Discuses ethical & legal issues in renal transplant. ©) PSA d) Wilme’s tumour (Section-C) Q4) Short Answer question (any 4) (ax5=20) a) Colles Fracture Scanned with CamScannerMBBS PRELIMS GENERAL SURGEY PAPER: Total Duration : Section AtB4C = 3 Hours Marks : 100 Date— 24/11/2023 ‘Time 10 am to 1pm tion Q1) MCQ- Multiple choice questions (20 X 1=20 Marks) 1) The drug of choice for the treatment of amoebic Liver abscess is ) penicillin b) gentamicin c)metronidazole 4) co-trimoxazole 2) Which of the following is true criteria for secondaries in liver a) single lobe enlargement —B)rounded border _c) soft in consistency _d) nodular liver 3) Duodenal ulcer commonly occurs in which part of duodenum ) first part b) second part c)third part d) fourth 4) Red currant jelly stools are characteristic of: Worms b)Bands ——¢) intussusceptisn__d). Adhesion th of the following is the most important aetiological factor for carcinoma of breast 8) oral contraceptive pills ’) childhood irradiation for Hodgkin's lymphoma ©) duct ectasia 4) racial factors 6) Following is not a feature of primary hy perparathyroidism a) hypercalcaemia ') most common manifestation of MEN type-I ¢) Band keratopathy in comea 4) dystrophic calcification 7) Following are not the common sign of Graves’ disease a) proptosis _) pretibial myxoedema )proximal myopathy 4) cardiac failure 8) Parotid duct opens opposite a) upper canine tooth b) lower canine too’ 8) Following are derived from second branchial arch except a) stemomastoid muscle b) branchial cysts c) facial muscles) anterior belly of a digastric muscle 10) Content of Sebaceous cyst includes a) desquamated epithelial debris b) keratin ) sebum pus 41) Intussusception is caused by a) sub serosal lipoma b) submucosal lipoma _c) retroperitoneal lipoma _d) intraperitoneal lipoma Which one of the following is not having capsule a) hamartoma ) Schwanoma c)fibroadenoma ) branchial cyst 13) post mastectomy lymphoedema is called as ‘Stuart treves syndrome b) Bioom’s syndrome 14) Second major intra cellular cation is ij 7 ~a)sodium b) potassium c) calcium d) magnesium 45) In chronic hyponatraemia, the sodium concentration should be increased at « rate, notexceeding 5) th ¢) upper second molartooth d) lower second molar tooth ©) Fanconi syndrome — d) sturge-weber syndrome. Scanned with CamScannerSection -B Q2) Long Answer questions, (Any 2 out of 3) (2310520) 8) 65 Yrs old female , known case of diabetes had accidental flame burn. what i classification of burn & Discuss Management of 40% burn i b) Write Classification of shock Discuss pathophysiology, investigations and treatment of septic shock. ) 35 yrs female is having swelling in midline of anterior part of neck. discuss differential diagnosis, write management of toxic goitre Q3) Short Atiswer Questions (any 4 out of 5). (4x5=20) a) Fibroadenoma b) Marjolins ulcer c) Complications of blood transfusion 4d) Hyponatremia e) lipoma SECTION. Q4) Long Answer Questions (any? out of 3). (2x 10=20) ) 50 yrs old Weight lifter has swelling in inguinal region. discuss differentials diagnosis of inguinal swelling and write management of inguinal hernia . b) 7Oyrs old male known case of diabetes presented with lump in right illiac fossa. write differential diagnosis of it and discuss management of appendicular lump. ©) 30yrs old alcoholic male having hematemesis and jaundice, discuss causes of hematemesis.write management of bleeding peptic ulcer . (4x5=29) Scanned with CamScanner‘MBBS Phase PRELIMS GENERAL SURGEY PAPER “II Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 3 Hours. Marks : 100 Date~ 29/11/2023 ‘Time 10am to 1pm Section -A Brace (2001-20 Marks) |. The tensile strength of a wound alter injury ean reaches upto 80% till which week 4) Bth week b) 10th week c). 12th week d) lth week —¢) 16th week 2. Most common presenting symptom of varicose veins is? 8) Aching legs after prolonged standing B), Itching C.) headache D)) swelling) bleeding 3. True about wound healing: Ee 2) feted wound ea by primary intercon ). No Deep dermal wound heal by scar formation ©). Wound contraction is found in healing by secondary intention 4). More intense inflammatory response in primary intention 4, True about chronic wound: 4). Not Found in DM. ), Always require surgical treatment g). May not be associated with vascular compromise 4d), Monofilament sutures prevent infection 5. Cell not involved in healing of clean wound: a.) Macrophages ). Platelet ¢}. Fibroblasts __d). Polymorphonuclear leukocytes ‘6. Management of an open wound seen 12 hours after the injury: a). Suturing b,) Debridement and suture ©). Secondary suturing). Heal by granulation 7. The most common location of thyroglossal Cyst is: a) Subhyoid —_b) Over the thyroid cartilage) Suprahyoid ) Sublingual £8. The treatment of choice for 35 yrs old Pregnant female with thyrotoxicosis is. 4), Radioactive iodine '), Anti-thyroid drugs ¢). Surgery @). Chemotherapy 5 ALodide alone is not used in the Pre-Operative Preparations of « thyrotoxicosis patient Because: a). It worsens thyrotoxicosis ») It increases vascularity of goiter ©), Rapid control of thyrotoxicosis is not possible 4). None of the above 10, The thyroid cancer that is associated with Multiple endocrine neoplasia is: 4), Follicular Cab). PapillaryCa_c) Medullary Cad), Anaplastic Ca .orts and superior mesenteric artery are related to which part of Duodenum? a) Mpart 6). 2nd part ©) 3rd part 4) They are not in relation with duodenum 12, Dumping Syndrome is a common complication that occurs after: a) Gastectomy b) Vagotomy with drainage ¢) Parietal vagotomy _d) All of above 13, Triad of Blumer-shelf, sister marry Joseph's node and. kruenburg tumor isa transperitoneal manifestation of which tumor 4), Pacreatic cancer). Ovarian tumor), Carcinoid tumor) Gastric tumor 14) A 40 years old man working as a bus conductor complains of pain and itching in the lower extremities, especially in the call towards the end of the kle sv cers over the feet, What is the most likely diagnosis? 2 a) DVT Scanned with CamScannera Cl = 19. The terms orthopaedics was coined vas coined by 9) Nicholas Andi? b) Hugh thomas), Thomas Bryant. 4) Sit Robert Jones: 20 ‘Treatment of CTEY should begin, fler 2years 2) Soon After Byrth, —b), After discharge from Hospital ¢). After month. 4) .ARer 29 Section -B 10-20 Q2y Long Answer questions. (Any? out of 3) ee ‘of micturation and ‘A.65 year old male patient, known case of diabetes and hypertension presented with weak Lr pi fai incomplete voiding, what are your differential diagnosis and discuss the invé8tigations to confirm Yo Discuss etiopathogenesis and treatment of Benign prostatic hyperplasia? atic Discuss surgical anatomy of Diaphragm. Write clinical features, investigations and management of Diaphragmatic hernia? of ulcer on penis since 3-4 months and swelling in groin. There is @ foul ee iscuss the differentidl diagnosis, and smelling ulcer of 2em with discharge and ulcer edge is everted and indurated, Di management of this patient? ‘Short Answer Questions ( any 4 out of 5). (4x5=20) AG, Discuss Flaps in surgical reconstruction? “ i, Write a note on Sentinal node biopsy? ~ 2 Day care surgery - Flail chest °) mas Short Answer Questions ( any 4 out of 5). (4x5=20) ‘Discuss Pre malignent lesions of oral cavity ~ : 'b) Labour Analgesia “ sole of PET scan in surgery ~ ihalational Anaesthesia Agents ~ ‘intravenous pyelography (IVP ) (1x10=10) SECTION C 5) Long Answer questions (any 104 2 ond) ian] erus and management of grade 3 supracondylar fracture ‘management of osteosarcoma of distal (2x5=10) Scanned with CamScannerTotal No. of Pages :2 AAB0100027244206 Third (I!) M.B.B.S. (2019) Examination, Winter - 2023 (Phase - II!) GENERAL SURGERY -! Total Duration : SectionA+B+C = 3 Hours Section B & C Marks : 80 Instructions: 1) Use black ball point pen only. 2) Donotwnite anything on the blank portion of the question paper. Ifwritten anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means. 3) Alllquestions are compulsory. 4) The number to the right indicates full marks. 5) Draw diagrams wherever necessary. 6) Distribution of syllabus in Question Paper is only meant to cover entire syllabus within the stipulated frame. The Question paper pattern is a mere guideline. Questions can be asked from any paper's syllabus into any question paper. Students cannot claim that the Question is out of syllabus. As it is only for the placement sake, the distribution has been done. 7) Use a common answer book for section B & C. Section - B 2. Long Answer Questions (Any two out of three) : [2 x 10 = 20] a) Classify haemorrhagic shock. Describe the pathophysiological changes, clinical features and management of class 4 haemorthagic shock in a patient of vehicular trauma. [2424244] b) Classify goitre. Describe natural history of simple goitre. Describe investigations & treatment of solitary thyroid nodule, [2+2+3+3] c) Describe aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical presentation, treatment and complications of anal fissure. (2+24243+1] Short Answer Questions (Any four out of five) : [4x 5=20] a) 0 e thron as ‘ ‘ Yon stot Cher e with 40% TBSA flame with right iliac Scanned with CamScannerAAB0100027244206 Section - C Long Answer Questions ( Any two out of three) : a) Describe actiology, clinical features, investigations, treatment and complications of obstructive Jaundice. [2+2+2+2+2] [2 x 10 = 20] b) Describe aetiology, pathophysiology, clinical features, management and complications of Meckel’s diverticulitis. [2+2+242+2] ©) _ Describe aetiology, clinical presentation, management and complications ina 18 years male with right sided indirect inguinal hernia. [2+2+4+2] Short Answer Questions (Any four out of five) : [4x 5= 20] a) Surgical site infections b), Workup & treatment of chronic submandibular sialadenitis due to stone ©) Describe differential diagnosis of a 16 years git! with painless lump in right breast d) Advantages and disadvantages of minimal invasive surgeries (MIS) Ee Clinical stages of rejection in transplantation Scanned with CamScanner> “| GENFRAL MEDICINE Prelims " e [Total No. of Pages : 2 AABO1 00027244207 ie Third (Il) M.B.B.S. (2019) Examination, Winter - 2023 (Phase - Il!) t GENERAL SURGERY -!! e L Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 3 Hours Section B & C Marks : SECTION -B &C 2. Instructions: 1) Use black ball point pen only. m 2) Donotwrite anything on the blank portion of the question yest 3. Ifwritten anything, such type of act will be ‘considered as an attemp! to resort to unfair means. i 3) Allquestions are compulsory. 1 4) The number to the right indicates full. marks. 5) Draw diagrams wherever necessary. 5. 6) _ Distribution of syllabus in Question Paper is only meant to cover the entire syllabus within the stipulated frame. The Question paper pattem is a mere guideline. Questions can be asked from any paper's syllabus into any question paper. Students cannot claim 5. that the Question is out of syllabus. As itis only for the placement sake, the distribution has been done. 7. 7) Use a common answer book for section B & C. 8B SECTION - “B” (General Surgery) [2 x 10 = 20) 2. Long Answer Questions (Any two out of three) : nical features, a) Enumerate various causes of haematuria. Describe cli i investigations and treatment of renal cell carcinoma, [2#24+3+3] r b) Enumerate aetiological factors of carcinoma penis. Describe pathophysiology & management of carcinoma penis. [24345] c) Discuss differential diagnosis of scrotal swelling in a 30 years male. t Describe management of primary vaginal hydrocele. [545] 3. Short Answer Questions (Any four out of five) = [4x5=20] .a) _ Indications, precautions & co ications of intravenous urography [IVU] didymo-orchitis ty in micturition and increased sw will you investigate the Scanned with CamScannerAAB0100027244207 [4x 5=20] 4. Short Answer Questions (Any four out of five) a) Describe preoperative evaluation ofa 45 years male patient for procedure under general anaesthesia. b) Enumerate conditions causing difficult airway. Describe assessment of difficult airway. c) Enumerate indications of mammography. Describe assessment of breast lump by mammography. d) Describe role of imaging in the assessment of urethral stricture. e) Management of acute ureteric colic. SECTION - “C* (Orthopaedics) 5. Long Answer Questions (Any one out of two) : [1 x 10 = 10} a) Define Osteoporosis. Enumerate the causes / risk factors of Osteoporosis. Outline the investigations and management for osteoporosis. b) Describe the pathogenesis, clinical features and outline the treatment of Acute osteomyelitis. 6. Short Answer Questions (Any two out of three) : [2x 5= 10) a) Displacements in Colle’s fracture b) Osteochondroma —_ Scanned with CamScannerICINE Prelims PAPER - TOTAL MARKS ~100 mm Sons ames Beare eprom ems ees SECTION - A MCQ's (20 Marks) (20x1 =20) 41, Multiple choice Questions (Total 20 MCQ of one mark each) 1. Sugar cane fibers will result in a. Byssinosis b.Framer is lung c. Bagassosis d. Silicosis 2. Theophylline causes diuresis because of a.PDE4 inhibition —_b. Adenosine Al# c. B2#t d. PDE # 3, Hypertension with peripheral edema and CKD a. Aliskerin b: Chorthalidone c. Prazosin d. Bit 4, Which value most Affected in Rheumatic fever : a. Pulmonary value —_b: Mitral value c. Tricuspid value d. Aortic value 5. Atkin's diet is a. Protein Restricted Diet b: Carbohydrate restricted Diet c. Fat restricted Diet d. Mineral restricted Diet 6. Which one is malnutrition a. Well built person b. Obesity c. Athlete body d. None 7. Consumption of large amount raw eggs causes a. Biotin deficiency b. B12 c. Folic acid d. Niacin 8. Hypercalamia is caused by all except : a. Multiple myeloma b. Malignancy c. Hyperparathyroidism d. Acute pancreatitis, 9. Prazocin drug of DOC a. Snake bite b: Scorpion bite _c. Rat bite d. OP poisoning 10. Normal plasma osmolarity is a. 250 - 270 mosm/c b. 270- 290 mosm/c c. 290 - 310 mosm/c d, 310 - 330 mosm/c 11. Complication of CRF except a.Osteodystrophy _b. pericarditis c. Macrocytic anemia d. Peripheral neuropathy 12. Radical cure of malaria a. Prima quine b. 13, Hepeszoster caused b\ a. CMV is c¢. Quinine d. Halofantrine ¢.Paramyxo virus d. None Scanned with CamScanner18. Which one is not Anti hyper thermic a. Nicorandic b.Nor Adrenaline —_c. Amantadine d. None 19. Pellagra caused by . a.VitAdeficiency _b. Vit A toxicity c. Niacin toxicity: Niacin deficiency 20. Loading dose given in acute Ml a. Ecosporin b. Bi c. ACE # d. ARNI Section B (40 Marks) 2. Short Answer Question ( Any 5 out of 6) (5x4=20) a) Bone marrow examination b) Scorpion bite and its management c) Define PUO and prevention of Hepatitis B ¢) Causes and investigations dilated cardio myopathy e) Traveller's diarrhoea f) The role of physiciar. in community 2, Long answer questions ( Any 2 out of 3) (2x10 = 20) a) Define criteria, diagnosis and management in Metabolic X syndrome b) Write etiopathogensis, investigation and management in HIN1 \.9\ in ¢) 1. Defirre HAPE ( High Altitude pulmonary edema 2.Difterence between ineat -troie and Heat syncope cope oe te va 3. Vitamin A toxicity ;~ «> , ie Section ¢ (40 Marks) |. Short Answer Question ( Any 5 out of 6) (5x4=20) a) What is flail chest, Diagnosis and treatment S b) Cryptogenic pneumonia and its management c) How to evaluate drug resistance inHIV = d) Management of OPP Scanned with CamScannerGENE ICINE Prelims PAPER - Il TOTAL MARKS =100 oe bates 2/as3 does teste eee ene earner a Berea SECTION - A MCQ's (20 Marks) 1. Multiple choice Questions (Total 20 MCQ of one mark each) 1)Which of the following is NOT sign of upper motor neuron disease? A)Wasting _B)Loss of dexterity C)Emotional Lability D)Hyperreflexia 2) 34 year old patient presented with recurrent episodes of headache localized to right forehead, The pain was stabbing type and very severe . Patient had about 12-15 episodes of pain everyday with each episode lasting for an hour. Which of the following is used for the treatment? ‘A)100% 02 , 6-8 L/min for 20 mins 'B)100% 02 , 12-15 L/min for 15 mins. ©) Naproxen D)Indomethacin 3)A 46 year old male presents with epigastric pain that worsened today. He has had mild discomfort for the last month in the same area worsened with eating. He drinks 6 beers a day . His wbc count is 16000/ cu.mm, HR - 110/min ,BP-140/80 mm Hg, RR-20/min. An abdominal x ray shows free air bilateral diaphragm, what is most likely diagnosis? A)Diverticulitis _8)Peptic ulcer 4)All of the following statements are true for grade Il hepatic encephalopathy by west haven criteria (20x 10) Appendicitis D)Small bowel obstruction except A)Moderate confusion B)Lethargy/apathy Agitation _.D)Absent Asterixis (@)A75 year old female presents to the hospital on supplemental oxygen with the following ABG results , what could be the diagnosis? pH : 7.24 Paco2 : 70 mm hg. Pa02: 63 mm hg A)Acute metabolic acidosis B)Acute metabolic alkalosis )Acute respiratory acidosis D)Acute respiratory alkalosis 6)Which of the following parameters is not consistent with pre-renal AKI? A)Urine osmolality > 500 mosm/kg, B)Urine sodium > 20 meq/ L C) Plasma BUN/creat ratio > 20 D) feNa% <4 7) A57 year old male patient underwent screening for DM. According to American diabetes Association which of the following is NOT a criteria for diagnosis DM? AJHBalc > 7.5% B)F BSL > 126 mg/dl i C)2 hr plasma glucose > 200 mg/dl D)Symptoms of diabetes andR BSL > 200 mg/dl _ 8)Which of the following drugs used for treatment of diabetes belongs to DPP 4 inhibitor group? A)Pioglitazone _)Liraglutide C)sitagliptin D)Nateglinide (hich of the following is not a aie feature of hypothyroidism? C)constipation Diastolic Hypertension ion of involvement of joints. C)Gout / pesudogout Djosteoarthritis munity aquired pnemonia in people xiella burnetii D)H.capsulatum )Adenovirus Scanned with CamScannere Ot the pathognomic finding in milliary tuberculosis? Bone marrow caseating granulomas B)choroid tubercules ; SIMiliary mottling on Chest xray D]Histological finding in liver biopsy (GS)which ofthe following lesions is pathagnomic for leprosy? sJarushfeld spots Bris pearls C)ulsch nodules _P)koeppe nodules 16Which of the following skin mani * festations are specifically causef secondary to renal diseases? A)Acquired perforating dermatosis B)calciphylaxis ‘Arteriovenous shunt d titi ic calcification & shunt dermatitis _DjMetastatic calcifica ! : ¢ hwnch of the following is the most appropriate treatment fot anemia in patients with chronic kidney isease AllV iron sucrose _B)Dabepoetin )Blood transfusion D)Oral iron supplements 18) Which of the following is a true risk factor for increased risk of occurance of peptic ulcer disease? A)Alcohol B)smoking, C)caffeine DIAll of the above 19)The first physiological response to decreasing plasma glucose level in defense against hypoglecemia is )Rise in epinephrine B)Rise in glucagon _C)Fall in insulin levels D)Rise in cortisol levels 20)TyBe of respiratory failure occurring in perioperative period is A)Type 1. B)Type 2 C)Type 3 D)Type 4 Section B (40 Marks) 2 Short Answer Question ( Any 5 out of 6) (5x4=20) A)Classify movement disorders. Write clinical features and treatment of Parkinson's disease. ~ BjDermatological manifestations of systemic diseases. - ‘C)Write the diagnostic criteria for depression and treatment for the same. 2)Clinical features and treatment of hyperthyroidism. Write a note on thyroid storm. ~ )Causes of liver cirrhosis, Hepatic encephalopathy grading, precipitating factors and treatment. ~ Define MOR TB. Diagnostic tests for TB including for Latent TB. Treatment of MDR TB. “ 3. Long answer questions ( Any 2 out of 3) (2x10 = 20) ‘AiCauses , pathophysiology and treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis. - B)Define Nephrotic Syndrome. Explain its etiopathogenesis, cli treatment. al features, investigations and C)Define stroke. How will you approach a patient with hemiplegia. - Section c (40 Marks) ‘Short Answer Question ( Any 5 out of 6) (5x4=20) Non alcoholic steatohepatitis ~ - BiWrite a note on Doctor patient relationship - LjPsoriasis - Clinical features, etiopathogenesis and treatment - i. i (2x10 = 20) Scanned with CamScanner[Total No. of Pages : 3 AAB0100027244203 Third (Il) M.B.B.S. (2019) Examination, Winter - 2023 (Phase - III) GENERAL MEDICINE -1 Total Duration : SectionA+B+C = 3 Hours Section B & C Marks : 80 SECTION - B & SECTION -C Instructions: 1) Use black ball point pen only. 2) — Donot write anything on the blank portion of the question paper. fwritten anything, such type of act will be considered as an attempt to resort to unfair means. 3) _ Alllquestions are compulsory. 4) The numberto the right indicates full marks. 5) Draw diagrams wherever necessary. 6) _ Distribution of syllabus in Question Paper is only meant to cover the entire syllabus within the stipulated frame. The Question paper pattern is a mere guideline. Questions can be asked from any paper's syllabus info any question paper. Students cannot claim that the Question is out of syllabus. As its only for the placement sake, the distribution has been done. 7) Use a common answer book for section B & C. ION - “B” 2) Short Answer Questions (Any five out of six) : [5 x 4= 20] a) A 66-year-old lady was diagnosed to be suffering from urosepsis with blood and urine culture growing pseudomonas. Enumerate your antibiotic choice in sucha case. Write a comprehensive prescription for this patient. [2+2] a 64-year-old pile was diagnosed as a case of Community Acquired Ki ily enumerate the different scoring systems to o mention the clinical relevance of [2+2] haMCV of 60.4fL. Outline the (4 acation was bitten by a cted in this case and how {2+2] P10 Scanned with CamScanneral 9 3) Long Answer Questions a) b) AABO1 00027244203 orn out of. consanguineous marriage presents with n. He had history of recurrent episodes of left ed to meals, bony pains and jaundice. What could you evaluate the js in this case? How w u Enumerate the treatment of his acute [14142] chest pain. Amerchant navy ship sailor was diagnosed with Scurvy. Enumerate the clinical manifestations you expect in this individual and outline the management in such a case. [242] ‘A 18 year old male b acute onset chest pail hypochondriae pain unrelat is the most probable diagnos! patient to confirm your diagnosis (Any two out of three) : [2 x 10 = 20] ‘27-year-old male TV drug abuser and history of multiple sexual partners presents with weight loss of 6 Kg in last 2 months. What is your likely diagnosis? What opportunistic this condition? Enumerate the clinical features, nt of any one of these opportunistic infection. [143+242+2] 1 arave party was mad as hatter, dry as a bone, identify the type of toxidrome the individual is ‘drome and classify the type of toxidromes. infections can occur in investigations and treatme! ‘A 18 yearold individual afte red asabeet, blind as a bat. I suffering from. Define toxi Briefly outline the management in this individual, (2+1+4+3] ‘A 54-year-old male presents with heaviness in the head, tongue and arm with breathlessness since 3 hours. On ‘examination his blood pressure was, 190/120mm Hg. Whats the acute management and long term treatment i mention what lifestyle modification you [34344] Scanned with CamScannerc) 4) °) AAB0100027244203 An individual was diagnosed as case of Metabolic syndrome. Enumerate the dietary advice for such a case, al A 52-year-old male had acute Myocardial infarction (MI) post LAD and LCx obstruction. What are the acute and long term complications post- acute MI in this patient? [242] A 60-year-old female was found to have 20% EF on 2D Echocardiography. Outline the medical management of such patient of heart failure with decreased ejection fraction. (4) A 28-year-old male has increased frequency of defaecation (6-8 episodes per day) with weight loss of 4-Skg in 6 months. Enumerate the differential diagnoses and the algorithm for evaluation of such a case. [2+2] Long Answer Questions (Any two out of three) : [2 * 10 = 20) a) b) A 22-year-old female presents with history of palpitations since 2 months. Enumerate all the causes of palpitations in a young female. Later during routine evaluation, she was found to have occasional episodes of irregularly irregular pulse. How would you investigate this patient with this new clinical finding? Also briefly outline the management of atrial fibrillation. [3+3+4]- A 28-year-old male presents with right hypochondriac pain with vomiting, He has history of passing blood and mucus in stools 15 days back for which he took 2 days’ treatment from a local doctor. On examination he has tender hepatomegaly. What is the differential diagnoses in this patient? How would you evaluate this patient further? Describe the management in such a case. Also enumerate two complications of this condition. [1+4+4+1] A 55-year-old male, weighing 72kg, a known hypertensive and diabetic e, Write a nursing instruction/ nt incl doses of various Prepare a checklist of u will double check before B+443] Scanned with CamScanner[Total No. of Pages : 3 AAB0100027244204 Third (Il) M.B.B.S. (2019) Examination, Winter - 2023 (Phase-lll) GENERAL MEDICINE - II Total Duration : Section A+ B + C = 3 Hours Section B & C Marks : 80 SECTION - B & SECTION -C Instructions: 1) Use black ball point pen only. 2) Donotwrite anything on the blank portion of the question paper. If written anything, such type of act will be considered as an attémpt to resort to unfair means. 3) _Allquestions are compulsory. 4) The numberto the right indicates full marks. 5) _ Draw diagrams wherever necessary. 6) _ Distribution of syllabus in Question Paper is only meant to cover entire syllabus within the stipulated frame. The Question paper pattern is a mere guideline. Questions can be asked from any paper's syllabus into any question paper. Students cannot claim that the Question is out of syllabus. As it is only for the placement sake, the distribution has been done. 7) Use a common answer book for section B & C. 1% IN - B 2. Short Answer Questions (Any five Out of Six) : [5 x 4 = 20] a) Your grandfather who is 80-year-old is forgetting many things of daily routine activities. How will you evaluate him and what lifestyle modifications will you implement in his habits of daily living? [2+2] b) Enumerate biologicals used in Rheumatology practise. Briefly outline the mechanism of sana complications of Rituximab. [2+1+1]* escription for a 72 year old male, a therapy admitted to the ICU with a Scanned with CamScanner3. 4. * AAB0100027244204 Long Answer Questions (Any two out of three) _ _ 2 * 10=29) a) A56-year-old male patient presents with hematemesis since 4 hours ang melena since 2 days. He consumes alcohol daily for last 25 years, On examination he has icterus and abdomen is distended. What are the causes ‘of hematemesis in this case and how will you treat this case? Enumerate the other complications you can expect in this case. °°? [2+4+4) b) A 45-year-old male had developed acute onset left sided hemiparesis, Draw the blood (arterial and venous) supply of brain with proper labelling. s Enumerate the risk factors for development of ischemic stroke in this patient. Discuss in brief the management of this patient. ~~ [3+3+4] c) A 20-year-old lady was referred for evaluation of persistent haematuria and proteinuria. She had a history of fever and sore throat lasting 1 week that occurred 6 months earlier and were associated with abdominal pain and dark urine. She did not receive any antimicrobial agents. Significant findings on physical examination at that time included a BP of 140/90 mmbhg and pedal edema extending upto the knees. i) Enumerate the differential diagnosis in this case. ii) Discuss in brief the any 2 histopathological variants of acute glomerulonephritis. iii) Discuss the management of acute post infectious glomerulonephritis. [3+4+3] Th -C Short answer questions (Any five out of six) [5 x 4= 20] a) A child develops itchy rashes in the intertriginous regions. What is the most probable diagnosis and how would you manage such a case (write @ prescription for the same). [143] b) Kindly provide | s and key issues you will cover while ouse in a sero-discordant couple. [2+2] i Sputum positive pulmonary nig dosages and the frequency [242] it therapy (RRT). Write j [2+2] Scanned with CamScanner‘Scanned with CamScannerRojarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical Colvae, Ra Mant Second M.B.B.S. Phase Il Examination - 2023 (Adm een Ba ® a" [Ps =. <_ Subject : Obst. & Gynaecolo} Total Marks : 10 Time : 12.00 P.M. To 12.30 P.M Date : 23/06/2023 7 Duration : 1/2 Hours Instructions - 1) Full (dark) the appropriate empty circle below the number once only 2) Use blue / black bal point pen only 4) States rot be shad Tar ite nk on the cross once marked il not be allotted mark ihe / she overwrites strikes or put attempt to > 8) Dopat i gona ae tar air on WP A as an attempt "resort o unfair means. SECTION - "A" 4) Trophoblast is formed by 8) Chorion ) Aminion ©) Yolk sac ) None of the above 2) Umbilical cord has a) Zarteries and2Veins by arteries 1 Vein ¢) 1 artery 2 Veins d) ‘artery 1 Vein 3) At term weight of placenta around 2) 500 gm b) 1000 gm ©) 1500 gm 6) 2000 gms ) vagina ©) Uterus 4) Ovary 5) The shortest diameter of fetal head 2) Biparietal diameter b) Sub Occipito frontal diameter c) Occipito frontal diameter 4) Bltemperal diameter 6) True labour pains include all except 2) Painful uterine contractions b) cervical dilatation 2) short vagina d) Formation of bag of water 7) All are signs of placental separation except 2) Apparent lengthening of cord b) Gushing of blood per vagina 6) Suprapubic bulge P 9) Increased BP / ¢) Pulmonary embolism — d) Amniotic fluid embolism Scanned with CamScannerRajarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur. Second MB aes tinavion. 2023 (Adm. Regular Batch - Aug. 2018) Subject : Obst. & Gynaecol logy (PAPER - ) Dine 22.30 PM. To 2.30 PM Total Marks : 40 pad ees - : Duration = Hours point pen ony. 2} Do'ot wie eying on be blak portion fe question paar tt wrtten anything, such type of wc willbe considered as an attempt to fee tuna MeN 3) Allquestions are comp 3 Tenino oe inate trans 8} Bovasear nas Genton Papas ny meant coe ane alas win he splted fare cee aoT ay Cann road ny pean ay inn pow Se » Goat samt uence the dstrbution has been done. 7) Use's comenon answer book forall SECTION -""A" SAQ (25 Marks) Q. 1) Short answer question (Any 5 out of 6) (6x5=25) + A) Blood supply of pelvic organs (uterus with cervix, ovaries and tubes) 2) Physiology of menstruation. 3) Development of placenta 9. Diagnosis of pregnancy. )) “Define maternal mortality rate. a) Causes of ‘maternal mortality. b) Prevention of ‘maternal mortality. 6) Vaccination in pregnancy. SECTION -"B" LAQ (15 Marks) Q. 2) Long answer Sel (Any one) (15) Scanned with CamScannerRajarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur. Second M.B.B.s, =n Examination -2023 (Adm. Regular Batch - Aug 2019) Subject : Obst. & Gynaecolo; PAPER 1). Ful dark) the appropriate empty ce below the number once only 2) Use bive / black ball point pen only. 4) Stata pb soted mak shes or pu ite nko he ross onca mares. ‘wl not be alloted mark ihe / she overwtes strkes or 3) De'sararte rathing onthe Blank porion ef te question paper Hf witten anything, such type of act wil be considered as an aHempt 12 resort o unfair means. SECTION - "A" 4) After delivery, uterus becomes pelvic organ at 2) 10weeks —b) 12 weeks ©) 6 weeks 6) 14. weeks 2) Following drug can be use, as galactogauge 8) Cabergoline ) Domperidone ©) Ondensetron 6) Doxylamine 3) Allare causes of RPL except : 2) Thyroid disorders _—_b) Cervical incompetence ©) APLA Syndrome) UTI 4) Choose correct option '#) In DCDA twin, twin peak sign is positive ~ ©) TTTS's syndrome is @ complication of DCDA pregnancy d)_ Quintero staging is for DCDA pregnancy b) LAMBADA Sign can be diagnosed as early as 20 weeks 8) ongest diameter of fetal skull is 2) Biparietal ») Bitermporal ©) Cccipito temporal) Submentovertical 6) Allof the following are included in 1st stage of labour except a) Effiacement of cervix b) Dilatation of cervix ¢) Crowning of fetal head —_d) Descent of head 7) Most common Immunoglobin secreted in Colostrum °°) IgE d) IgD Scanned with CamScannerr a Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur. :B.B.S. Phase Il Examination -2023 _ (Adm. Regular Batch - Aug. 2019) Subject : Obst, & Gynaecology (PAPER = Il) Time : 3.00 P.M. To 00 P.M. To 5.30 P.M. Total Marks : 40 Date : 23/06/2023, Duration: — Hours q ae —— Use blue back ball point pen only. 2 eae as anthng on the bank porto of te question pape. inwitten anything, such ype of act wil be considered as an atte to 3) Al questions are compulsory 4) The number tothe right indicate full marks. 9) Draw dagrama necessary, ‘of syllabus in Question Paper ie only meant to cover entire syllabus within the stipulated frame. Te Gusten Paper aterm tavern Cosson cao mk a ny papers eyo oan mon Pow Set cannot cai thatthe Question out of sylabus. Asks only forthe placement ake, the distbuon has been done 7) Use. common snawer book for at section. SECTION -"A" SAQ (25 Marks) QA) Short answer question (Any 5 out of 6) J) a) Define 3rd stage of labour. b) Management of 3rd stage of labour. ¢) Enumerate complications of 3rd stage of labour. (5x5=25) 2) Physiology of Lactation. 3) a) Define ectopic pregnancy. _b) Mention various types of ectopic pregnancy. ¢) Medical Management of tubal ectopic pregnancy. 4) a) Define Hyperemesis Gravidarum. +) Management of Hyperemesis gravidarum. xy a) Write types of twin pregnancy. b) Complications of twin pregnancy. 6) a) (15) Scanned with CamScannerRaiarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur. 1A-5 Examination - 2023 (Adm. Regular Batch - Aug. 2019) Subject : Obst. & Gynaecology Time : 10.00 A.M. To 10.30 A.M. Total Marks : 20 Date : 13/09/2023 Duration : 2 Hour Instructions :~ 4) Ful (ark the appropriate empty circle below the number once only 2) Use bue black ball point pen only. Each questions cartes ane mark Students wil not be acted mark he/she overwitesstkes or put white ink on the cross once marked. 9) Do notte anthig onthe blank orton ofthe question paper. writen anything, such typeof acl wl be considered as anatemotto resort o unfair means. SECTION -"A" 1) Main estrogenic hormone in postmenopausal female is a) Estradiol ) Estrone ©) Estriol 4) Estetro 2) All of the following are related to hormonal changes in postmenopausal females except : a) Hot flushes ) Weight gain ©) Osteoporosis 4) Coronary heart disease 3) Best treatment for hot flushes : a) Ocp ) Estrogen ©) Clonidine 4) Vitamin € 4) Sperms attain maturity in : a) Vas deferens ) Ejaculatory duct <) Epididymis 4) Seminal vesicle 5) The cells which lie outside biood testis barrier : a) Sertoli cells b) Spermatocyte ©) Spermatid 4d) Leydig cells 8) The major contribution to the human seminal fluid is from : a) Testis. b) Seminal vesicies. _c) Prostate 4) Bulbourethral and urethral glands 7), Mis-accepted theory for endometriosis is : 2) Implantation theory) Coelomic metaplasia ¢) Metastatic theory _d)Histogenesis theory 8) Gold standard for diagnosing adenomyosis : a) MRI b) USG ©) Histopathology _) Saline infusion sonography 9) The organ NOT involved by endometriosis : a) Liver ) Lymph nodes ) Brain 4) Spleen 10) The following are the primary sites of acute gonococcal infection except: 2) Urethra ) Bartholin's gland _c) Skene's gland ¢) Exocervix 11) ‘Mic organism causing PID in postmenopausal females * a) Chlamydia b) E/ coli ©) Klebstella 4) Staphylococcus 12) Mic cause of B/L cornual block seen on HSG : a) 18 b) Endometriosis 4) Physiological spasm d) PID 13) HSG findings in tubercular salpingitis are all except : a) Tobacco pouch appearance :b) Powder bur appearance b) Lead pipe appearance 4) Golf stick appearance 14) Primary amenorrhoea is most commonly associated with Developmental defect of the genital tract ) Tuberculosis 3 Endocrine disorders, .) Chromosomal abnormality 15) Abnormal uterine bleeding is / are : ) Cycle duration is more than 35 days or less than 21 days 6) all Scanned with CamScannerRajarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur. !A-5 Examination - 2023 (Adm. Regular Batch - Aug. 2019) Subject : Obst. & Gynaecology Time : 10.30 A.M. To 01.00 P.M. Total Marks : 80 Date: 13/09/2023 Duration : 2.5 Hours I s J 2 : eas 7 ete at gy 2 ‘sovemmartecs thing onthe Blank potion ofthe question paper. written anything, such ype of act wl be considered as an stam to 3 AN re computor 2 Renan rah cal va 8) Draw diagrams wherever nocoss 5 Det rans nt ayant cot nt syne wn eso ae The Question sm sa mee qudeine, Quesone can be asked fo any pape’ slabs ro any question paper. Stidets anva cant uesion mot fava Rot so ore pacer snk, daebon fa 7) Use a common answer book for al section, SECTION -"B" LAQ (45 Marks) Q. 1) Long answer question (Any 3 out of 4) 1) Define Infertility, Enumerate causes of primary infertility and discuss the management. (3x 15)=45 2) What is AUB ? Discuss causes and management in a 35 yrs, old lady. 3) Define PID, Discuss etiology and pathology and management of acute PID. 4) Discuss the incidence, mode of spread, pathology and so management of genital tuberculosis. ; aa SECTION -"C" SAQ (35 Marks) es Q.2) Short answer question (Any 6 out of 7) (6x 5+5 aetcom) =35 1) PCOD > 2) Me ree 7 3) es of post me s Bleeding and management Scanned with CamScannerRajarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur. Preliminary Examination - Paper ll-2023 (Adm. Regular Batch - ‘Aug. 2019) Subject : Obst. & Gynaecology 0.00 A.M. To 1030 AM. Date 30/31/2023 Instructions: 1) lar) tw appt ary elbow rr orca 2 Un Bin beatin paren oom abe 4) Stuoonts wil not be aoted mark i he/she overwn 5) Dorot wet anyting resorc unfair meara Total Marks :20 ts thes oF put white ik onthe cross once marked }on he Blank prion of he queston pape. writn anything. sich pe of act wl be consisored as an attempt © SECTION - "A" 1) formation of a follicle is completed by : 8) 6 wooks 1) 9 weeks ©) 14 wooks, 4) 24 wooks 2) The uterine blood flow at term ) S0mUmin ) 100-150 mUmin_¢) 350-375 mLUmin (500-750 mui 3) Golden colour amniotic fluid is seen in 4 Rhincompatibity ——_b) Fetal death ©) UG 9) Feta distress 4) Median umbilical igament is a remnant o a) Umbilical anery ') Umbilical vein ) Gubermacuium 9g) Uractus '5) Hormone responsible for fetal growth : {) Growth hormone ») Insulin ©) Parathyroid hormone d) Thyroxine 5) The clotting factor which is not increased in pregnancy 2) Factor2 ) Factor: ©) Factor 10 4) Factor 1 7) Aprosthetic valve patient switches to heparin at what time during pregnancy : 2) 28 wooks b) 32 weeks 9) 36 woaks 9) Postpamum 8) Best marker of gestational age in 2nd trimester is : ®@) Biparietal diameter —_b) Head crcuerence ¢) CAL. 9) Femur length 9) AP diameter is maximum in which type of pelvis ? ) Platypelloid ) Android @ Aninropoid pelvis) Patypaloid polis 410) Ritgen maneuver is done in : : €) Shoulder dystocia ) For delivery of headin breech presentation ©) For delivery of legs in breech 49) For delivery of head in normal abour 11) Carbetocin dose for PPH is : 2) 100 microgram IVb) SO microgram!V ¢) 150 microgram IV): 250 microgram 12) All are seen with scar dehiscence, except 2) Maternal bradycardia) Fetal bradycardia _c) Vaginal bleeding 6) Hematuria as a Feet eee 4) Retraction ring 4) Cervical dystocia abortion is: i Fhesus isoimmunization q) Cervical incompetence 1) 16-18 weeks 1) Chromosomal anomaly 4) Oxytocin Scanned with CamScannerRajarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur. Preliminary Examination - Paper |-2023 (Adm. Regular Batch - Aug. 2019) Subject : Obst. & Gynaecoloy Time : 10.30 A.M. To 1.00 P.M. Total Marks : 80 Date : 30/11/2023 Duration : 2 1/2 Hours Instructions 1) Us Bac a pont pen ony. 2) Dorotwrte anyting on he blank orton ol the quaston pape. M writen antting, such ype of act wil be considered as an atop © 6) Distribution o sylabus in Question Paper is only meant to cover tab tn stat tae ae iso to cover entre syllabus win the stipuatod fame, ‘Toe Question Paper patter is a mere gudetine. Questions can be asked ffm ary pape’ sylabus ito any question paper. Students 17» Sanat dam Pale Gueaion cut of sass. A's oy rh placement sak, he dtovton has een core SECTION -"B" LAQ (45 Marks) Q. 1) Long answer question. (Any 3 out of 4) (3x 15 =45) 1) Describe clinical features of Hydatidiform mole. Investigations, management & follow up of Hydatidiform mole 2) Discuss the diagnosis & Ante natal complications of multiple pregnancy. 3) Discuss classification of Gestational Hypertension. Discuss complications & management of Eclampsia. 4) Define Antepartum hemorrhage. Causes of APH. Discuss clinical features, diagnosis, complications & management of placenta previa. SECTION -"C" SAQ (16 Marks) Q. 2) Short answer question (Any 6 out of 7) (6x5 =30) _A) Partograph_ b) Hematological changes during pregnancy. ©) Chorionic villus sampling @) Hyperemesis Gravidarum \g) Parenteral Iron Theropy * p NST . oes Scanned with CamScannerRajarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur. Preliminary Examination - Paper |- 2023 (Adm. Regular Batch - Aug. 2019) Subject : Obst. & Gynaecolo; Time : 10.00 A.M. To 10.30 AM: Total Marks :20 Date : 02/12/2023 Duration : 1/2 Hour Instructions 1} Full (dar) the appropriate empty circle below the number once only 2) Use bue / black bal pont poo 3) Eachuestorscamms end mart” 2}. Stusents a note sited mark the / she overwites srkae o put white ik onthe cross once marked, 5) De'not wns anyting n the blank portion ofthe question paper I wren anthing sch Wp ot act wl be considered as an attempt 0 SECTION - "A" 1). Cervix Corpus ratio before puberty is: a) 12 bat 13 on 2) All of the following are branches of uterine artery except : 4) Spiral artery b) Radial artery ) Sampson artery 1) Obturator artery 3) Nerve supply of perineum is ) Pudendal nerve) Inferior rectal nerve c) Pelvic splanchnic nerve d) Hypogastric plexus 4) Luteal phase detect is due to 8) Uterine scaring b) Chromosomal abnormality c) Abnormal release of GnRH d) Absence of oocytes in overy 5) The side ettect of clomiphene because of which its use should be immediately stopped. ) Hotflashes 'b) Mutple pregnancy) Terato geneity 4) Visual symptoms. 6) Fetal ovary can produce estrogen by = a) 6 weeks b) 8 weeks ©) 10 weeks d) 12 weeks: 7) Allof the following are related to hormonal changes in postmenopausal females except : a) Hot flushes ') Weight gain (©) Osteoporosis 4) Coronary heart disease 8) BMI of an overweight female is a) 19:24 ) 25:29 ©) 3034 9) Less than 19 9) Most common cause of hirsutism in @ teenage git! :- 4) Ovarian disease — b) Pheachromocytoma c)_Obesity 4) Adrenogenital syndrome 10) Diethyistilbestrol cayses the following detects except : a) Renal anomalies — b) Perifimbrial cysts ©) T shaped uterus 4) Vaginal adenosis 11) Gartners duct is present in - a) Cervix b) Vulva ©) Vagina 9) Labia Minora 12) In testicular feminisation syndrome ‘) Buccal smear is chromatin positive b) Normal breast size is observed (©) Menstruation is scanty and infrequent 6) Streak gonads seen 13) Fou! smelling fishy odour is seen on : a) Trichomonas b) Gardnerelia ©) Chiamycia 9) Candidiasis, 14) Birth trauma is a risk factor for : 1a) Endometriosis _b) Prolapse 0) Abortion 15) Ovulation can be diagnosed by all Scanned with CamScanneral jarshi Chatrapati Shahu Maharaj Govt. Medical College, Kolhapur Preliminary Examination - Paper !!-2023 (Adm. Regular Batch - At Subject : Obst. & Gynaecology Total Marks : 80 ‘Time : 10.30 A.M. To 1,00 P.M. Duration : 2172 Hours 019) ar orion ‘of the question paper. written anything, such type of act willbe considered as an attempt 10 3) All questions ae compulsory 4} The number tof gh 5) Draw dagrams wore 6) Dasaton of spats mn Question Papers only meart 10 cover eve syabus wn the slated frame “The Qvestion Paper patern sa more guideine, Questions can be asked from any papor's sylabus ito ary question paper. Studerts Cannot can that re Question i out of sylabus. AS son for Yo placement sake, he stout has boon Gone 7) Use'a common answer book lor al section. SECTION -"B" LAQ (45 Marks) Q. 1) Long answer question. (Any 3 out of 4) (3x15 =45) 1) Define menopause. Describe menopausal symptoms. Diagnosis & ah ra management. Discuss in detail Basic of Hormone Replacement won) Therapy in management of menopause. Sean 2) Enumerate the causes of mass per abdominal in 35 yrs old women. wie Discuss the investigations & management of fibroid uterus. ie 3) Define pelvic inflammatory disease. Discuss in detail clinical diagnostic run criteria of PID. Differential Diagnosis, complication & management of yas acute PID 4) Define Urodynamic of stress incontinence. How would you evaluate & treat a patient with genuine stress urinary incontinence. SECTION -"C" SAQ (16 Marks) Q. 1) Short answer question (Any 6 out of 7) (6x 5=30) a) PAP Smear b) Dermoid cyst c) Role of laproscopy in gynaecology d) Ce Scanned with CamScannerean Pages :2 AAB0100027244201 Third({l) M.B.B.s, (2019) Examination, Winter - 2023 (Phase - Il]) OBSTETRICS & GYNAECOLOGY -1 Total Duration : Section A+B+C = 3 Hours Section B & C Marks : 80 t c Instructions: 1) Use black ball point pen only. 2) Do not write anything on the blank portion of the question paper. Ifwritten anything, such type of act willbe considered as an attempt “ to resort to unfair means. 3) Allquestions are compulsory. 4) The numberto the right indicates full marks. 5) Draw diagrams wherever necessary. 6) Distribution of syllabus in Question Paper is only meant to cover the entire syllabus within the stipulated frame. The Question paper pattern is a mere guideline. Questions can be asked from any Paper's syllabus into any question paper. Students cannot claim that the Question is out of syllabus. As itis only for the placement sake, the distribution has been done. 7) Use a common answer book for section B & C. SECTION - “B” 2. Long answer questions (Any three out of four) : [3 x 15 = 45] a) Define ectopic pregnancy. Enumerate various etiological risk factors of ectopic pregnancy. Describe the conservative management of unruptured 3 tubal ectopic pregnancy. (3+6+6) 23 ,b) Define antepartum haemorrhage. Enumerate various causes of abruption placentae. How will you manage primigravida with 37 weeks of gestation \* with abruption placentae? (2+3+10) tse Define puel sepsis. Enumerate the risk factors for puerperal sepsis. h n with high grade fever and (2+5+8) c) lications of anaemia in Scanned with CamScannerF 4aB0100027244201 “Cc” 6 x 5 = 30] 3. Short answer questions (Any six out of seven) + I Stage of Labour (AMTSL). ® a) Components of Active Management of Third stol in Obstetrics. b) Indications and contraindications of Misopto* + &) Aims and objectives of antenatal care * 4) _ External cephalic version - Indications, procedure and complications = €) Maternal and fetal complications of pre-eclampsia. =f) Ventouse delivery — indications, pre-requisites and complications. » 8) Methods of induction of labour and their vomplications. 4. Short Answer Question : 2. Nutritional counselling of pregnant woman. HS Scanned with CamScannerRCSM & GMC KOLHAPUR MBBS PHASE III (PART II)PRELIMINARY THEORY EXAMINATION PAEDIATRICS PAPER TOTAL MARKS: SECTION A+B+C= 100 MARKS DATE:25.11.2023 » TOTAL DURATION: 3 HOURS GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS. 1, Total of 3 sections. Section A, B, C. 2. Single answer should be selected for MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS. 3. Student will not be allowed marks if he/she overwrites/strikes on more than one option. 4. Use blue/black ball pen only. Draw diagrams wherever necessary. 5. Mark the question number correctly SECTION A- MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 20*1=20MARKS 1, Visual acuity reaches adult acuity by the age___ years a7 9 b. 5 A3 2. The commonest cause of enuresis in children is a. Urinary tract infection Psychological stress b. Spina bifida 4. Diabetes mellitus 3. Vitamin K deficiency occurs in the following except a. Biliary obstruction ‘b. Artificial milk feeds c. Oral antibiotic therapy . d. Malabsorption |. The normal calorie requirement for a 5 year child is a. 800 calories b. 1000 calories ec. 1500 calories d. 2000 calo crying followed by Scanned with CamScannerad jency signs. What is the 4. A2year child is weighing 4.6kg and has vitamin A deficiency sign grade malnutrition in this child? a. First degree b. Second degree ©. Third degree 4d. Fourth degree One year old male child presented with poor urinary stream. The investigation of choice for evaluation is a, Voiding cystourethrography b. USG bladder ©. CT abdomen and pelvis d. Uroflometry 2 Danger in epiglottitis is a. Defect in drinking b. Defect in speech ¢. Respiratory obstruction .d. Aspiration 10. At shakir's tape the red zone indicates_cm a 14.5 e115 b.13.5 d. less than 12.5 11, Calorie and protein content of 100 grams Soyabean is, : a, 200Keal, 10 gms b, 130 Keal, 20 gms ©. 200Keal, 43 gms 4, 500 Keal, 25 gms 18 months old child has not been vaccinated after birth. Which of the vaccines you cant a, Pentavalent b. OPV Scanned with CamScanner©. TAPVC if 4. D-TGA 16. Respiratory rate of a3 ild wi sexi aaa ofa 3 year old child with Pneumonia is more than T r A b. 20 d Bs y 17. Which malarial Parasite wil a. Falcifarum b. Vivax c. Ovale d. Malariae 18. A.1 year old child will be a. Toilet trained b. Walk with support ¢. Draws a cross d. Sings a song | cause fever every 24 hours? 19. Pentavalent vaccine doesn’t contain 2 a, DPT b. HepB c. HiB d. IPV 20. A 2-year-oldmarasmic child will be a. Alert, no appetite . b. Apathic, voracious appetite «. Alert, Good Scanned with CamScannera - SECTION B (45 MARKS) LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (ANY 2 OUT OF 3) 1A 18 months old boy brought by mother to a PHC with complaints of hurried breathing and cough since 2 days. He has history of fever si ae, 8 His respiratory rate is estiRetaiie fever since yesterday, child is irritable and refuses feed. 15marks *2 =1S MARKS. a. Assess and classify pneumonia according to IMNCI. (4 marks) b. Describe counseling points and warning signs to mother, (4 marks) i & When will you refer the child to higher Centre? What ieatment would you give before "e. G+ 4 marks) 2. A 3-year toddler brought by parents to your OPD with complaints of irritability, reduced appetite and easy fatigability. Child plays in mud. On examination pallor is present. a. How will you investigate for the condition? GB marks) b. Describe findings on peripheral smear. (3 marks) c. Write a note on dietary advice and treatment. (4 marks) d. Classify hemolytic anemia. (S marks) 3)A 33 weeks preterm newborn was born by Preterm vaginal delivery. a. What are the risk factors for preterm newborn? GB marks) b, Define Respiratory distress syndrome. (2 marks) ¢. Elaborate the pathogenesis, radiological findings and management. (3+2+5 marks) SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (ALL 3 ARE COMPULSORY) —_-3*5=15 MARKS 1. Write algorithm for resuscitation of normal term newborn. 2. Write a note on oral and injectable polio vaccine. 3. What is the role of Indian medical graduate? SECTION C (35 MARKS) LONG ANSWER QUESTION 1*15=15 MARKS 1. You receive a 5-year-old child in casualty with history of fever for 3 days, irritability, ' vomiting, drowsiness and convulsions since yesterday. (5 marks) (3 marks) (4 +3 masks) 4*5=29 MARKS nes maculopapular rasites ait over body. He is n dermatological findings in a neonate. sold child. Short note on MR Seth gue Scanned with CamScanner£2 AABO1UUUe: =~ ~~ M.B.B.S. (2019) Examination, Winter - 2023 (Phase ~ ml) PAEDIATRICS Total Duration : Section AtB+C = 3 Hours Section B&C Marks ° 80 Instructions: 1) Use black ball point pen only. De not wnte anything on the blank portion of the question paper If written anything, i eof act willbe considered as an atomPt to resort to unfair means. 3) Allquestions are compulsory. 4) The numberto the right indicates full marks. 5) Draw diagrams wherever necessaly. meant to cover in Question Paper is only the entire syllabus within the stipulated frame. The tion paper ‘can be asked from any pattem is a mere guideline. Question’ 7's syllabus into any question paper ‘Students cannot claim pePihe Question is out of syllabus. As itis only for the placement ‘sake, the distribution has been done. 6) Distribution of syllabus 7) Use acommon answer book for all sections. JON - “B” 2, Long answer questions (Any two out of three) : [2 x 15 = 30] a) What are the common causes of cyanosis in an infant. Describe clinical = 12 += features, investigations and complications of Tetralogy of Fallot and [443+3+5] discuss management of cyanotic spell in a ly old infant. b) A5 years old child presented with fever of 7 days duration and hepaiosplenomegaly. Enumerate the differential diagnosis. Discuss the investigations and ‘of malaria along with its complications. [4+3+5+3] to feed and excessive crying ibe the clinical features, 2ta+1+~ i [5+3+2+5] % BB x5=15] J - Scanned with CamScanneroo AAB0100027244205 Et 4. Long Answer Questions : [i x 15 = 15] 01 year old child weighing 10 kg is brought with fever & recurrent seizures of 2 01 day duration, Enumerate the likely causes. Describe the investigations, complications and management of status epilepticus. [4434345] Brarass 5. Short Answer Questions (Any four out of five) : [4 x 5= 20) a) Multisystem Inflammatory Syndrome in Children (MISC). > b) Revised Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever. s ©) Management of acute diarrhea severe dehydration as per IMNCI in a 2 year old child. 2 d) Haemorrhagic disease of the new-born (HDN). ee) Approach to haematuria in children. VVVV Scanned with CamScanner