NEET Pattern - 2019: Part-B: BDS-2-MDS App

NEET Pattern – 2019 : Part-B
BDS-2-MDS App : LEARN – ACHIEVE - EXCEL
ORAL PATHOLOGY AND MEDICINE
1. Most common oral infection in HIV
a. Candidiasis
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
d. Tuberculosis
2.Lowest conc. of HIV is found in
a. Semen
b. Saliva
c. Blood
d. CSF
3.Greenspan lesion is
a. Lichen planus
b. Hairy leukoplakia
c. Erthroplakia
d. Pemphigus
4. All of the following are strongly associated with AIDS except
a. ANUG
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Candidiasis
d. Oral hairy leukoplakia
5. Leontiasis ossea is characteristic of
a. Florid osseous dysplasia
b. Paget’s disease
c. Brown tumor
d. Hyperparathyroidism
Dr Lall’s BDS-2-MDS App : Best for NEET-MDS / INICET / BDS Univ Exams / Govt Jobs / Army Dental Corps
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6. Which of the following is not a feature of hyperparathyroidism
a. Osteitis fibrosa cystic
b. Brown tumor
c. Paget’s diseases
d. Osteopetrosis
7. Ossifying fibroma true is all except
a. Chinese letter appearance
b. Lesion of woven metaplastic bone
c. Abnormal bone of the lesion does not blend with the adjacent
normal bone
d. Abnormal bone of the lesion blends with the adjacent normal bone
8. CBFA- lgene anomaly is seen in
a. Cleidocranial dysostosis
b. Achodrogenesis
c. Chondrodysplasia
d. Marfan syndrome
9. Cherry red macules on skin with crushed spider appearance are characteristic of
a. Hereditary haemorrhagic telengectasia
b. Erythema multiforms
c. DIC
d. Purpura
10. Appearance of red macules with herald sign appearing 7-10 days back 3-4 cm in diameter shiny ovoid with skin
limps with silvery sheen is a characteristic of
a. Pachyonchyia congenital
b. Psoriasis
c. Pityriasis rosea
d. Erythema multiform
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11. Most aggressive form high malignant potential of basal) cell carcinoma is
a. Micronodular
b. Mocronodular
c. Morpheaform
d. Pigmented
12. A 40 year old lady reported with history of pain in right cheek since the last 2 months the pain is sharp
lancinating and sudden in triggered by chewing food she is normal in between the attacks what is the diagnosis?
a. Glossopalatine neuralgia
b. Trigeminal neuralgia
c. Sphenopalatine neuralgia
d. Causalgia
13. Alarm clock headache is
a. Glossopharyngeal neuralgia
d. Meniere’s diseases
14. Heart shaped radiolucency along the incisive canal is most probably
a. Median anterior maxillary cyst
b. Median mandibular cyst
c. Globulomaxillary cyst
d. Nasomaxillary cyst
15. Hypoplasia of parotid is seen in
a. Crouzon syndrome
b. Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome
c. Sjogren’s syndrome
d. Hemi facial microsomia

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16. Identify the pathology in the picture
a. Squamous cell carcinoma
b. Fibroma
c. Pailloma
d. Epulis fissuratum
17. Most common intraoral infection in diabetic patient
a. Candidiasis
b. Streptococci
c. Staphylococci
d. Aspergillus
18. Best drug for oral candidiasis
a. Amphotericin B
b. Flucytosine
c. Fluconazole
d. Griseofulvin
19. Which of the following has the highest premalignant potential
a. Dentigerous cyst
b. Odontogenic keratocyst
c. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
d. Radicular cyst
20. Cyst which is attached to the apical foramen of tooth
a. True cyst
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b. Pocket cyst
c. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
d. Lateral periodontal cyst
21. Which of the following is not a true cyst
a. Traumatic cyst
b. Globulomaxillary cyst
c. Dentigerous cyst
d. Radicular cyst
22. Fothergill diseases is
a. Glossopalatine neuralgia
d. Giant cell anteritis
23. Which of these is used as a marker of proliferation (dysplastic proliferation) in a premalignant lesion
a. Cytokeratin 8
b. Cytokeratin 19
c. PCNA
d. DNA ploidy
24. Which of these is a type of scleroderma
A. Pierre Robin syndrome
B. Gardener’s syndrome
C. Parry Romberg syndrome
D. Merkelsson Rosenthal syndrome
25. Granular cell ameloblastoma is characterized by granules which are composed of
a. Azurophilic substance
b. Zymogen
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c. Mitochondria
d. Lysosomes
26. Most premalignant lesion amongst the following is
a. Leukoplakia
b. Erythroplakia
c. Lichen planus
d. Submucous fibrosis
27. Which index correlates the maturational status of a tooth to its developmental stage
a. Demerijian index
b. Schour and massler
c. Gustaffson
d. Root transparency
ORAL RADIOLOGY
1. In cone beam CT scan what is the artefact seen where the size of the object being imaged is smaller than the voxel
size
a. Bean hardening
b. Streaking
c. Partial volume averaging
d. Distortion
2. Diagnostic modality for assessing pathology major salivary gland
a. Punch biopsy
b. Incisional biopsy
c. Excisional biopsy
d. FNAC
3. Discomfort pain and swelling on salivary gland stimulation is indicative of
a. Sjogren’s syndrome
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b. Salivary duct calculus
c. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
d. Mickulicz diseases
4. Which of the following is not a fibrotic effect of radiation
a. Dysphagia
b. Xerostomia
c. Trismus
d. Velopharyngeal incompetence
5. Floating teeth are seen in which of the following conditions
a. Cleidocranial dysplasia
b. Histiocytosis X
c. Ehler danlos syndrome
d. Osteoporosis
6. Reaction to cosmetic fillers most commonly seen in the cavity is
a. Nodule formation
b. Tumor like growth
c. Burtonian line
d. Ulceration
7. Which are generation sialagogue has additional M3 action
a. Hyoscine
b. Cinnarizine
c. Promethazine
d. Civelimine
8. When the X-ray tube is shifted to the right the object shift to the left as compared to the adjacent teeth the object
is positioned
a.Labial to the teeth

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b. Lingual to the teeth
c. In line with the teeth
d. It has no relation to the teeth
9. Sharpness of image is increased by
a. Small focal spot
b. Eggshell effect
c. Increased object to receptor distance
d. Low milliamperage
DENTAL MATERIALS
1. Modulus of elasticity/tensile strength of brittle materials is measured by
a. Diametral compression test
b. Cold bend test
c. 3-point bend test
d. Charpy test
2. The ratio of transverse contraction strain to longitudinal extension strain in the direction of stretching force is
known as
a. Poisson’s ratio
b. Compressive stress
c. Tensile stress
d. Shear stress
3. Clinical appearance of GIC is dictated by
a. Viscosity of liquid
b. Acid content liquid
c. Chemical composition of cement
d. Particle size of powder

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4. Type I GIC is
a. Luting
b. Lining
c. Restorative
d. Resin modified
5. Copper content of single composition alloys
a. 9-20%
b. 13-30%
c. 0-6%
d. 30-40%
5. Fluoride flux used in soldering works by
a. Preventing flow of solder to other areas
b. Prevents formation of chromium oxide or dissolves already formed chromium oxide
c. Weakens the solder joint
d. Forms a protective film during soldering
6. Hysteresis the phenomenon of sol-gel conversion of a reversible hydrocolloid is dependent upon
a. Chemical reaction of constituents
b. Water content
c. Addition of modifiers
d. Temperature
7. Metal oxides are added to powder of porcelain for
a. Give colour increase strength
b. Give colour decrease strength
c. Decrease strength act as a refractory skeleton
d. Increased strength act as a refractory selection
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8. Strength of gypsum is measured is
a. Tensile strength
b. Wet strength
c. Green strength
d. Compressive strength
9. What is the effect of addition of as acceleratory or a retarder to a gypsum cast
a. The compressive strength increase
b. The compressive strength decreased
c. The compressive strength may increase or decrease depending upon the amount of the accelerator retarder
added
d. No relation to compressive strength
10. For obtaining harder dies to be used for making wax patterns all of the following can be done except:
a. Use an epoxy resin based die
b. Addition of die hardener to gypsum
c. Silver plating of die
d. Gold plating of die
11. When a gypsum investment is heated above 700DEGREE C happens to the investment
a. CaSO4 degrades not good for gold
b. CaCO 3 not good for gold
c. NaSO4 degrades not good for gold
d. Nothing happens to the investment
12. Nodule on the intaglio surface of a casting can be prevented by
a. Use of a vibration during investing of the wax pattern
b. Use of a die spacer
c. Wet the wax with water before investing
d. Spraying a surfactant on the wax pattern before investing
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13. Coefficient of thermal expansion of inlay wax is
a. 14-50X 10
b. 250-350 X 10-6
c. 140-350 X 10
d. 150-200 X 10
ORTHODONTICS
1. Pericision is used for retention of corrected
a. Impaction
b. Intrusion
c. Rotation
d. Extrusion
2. Couple in orthododntics means
a. 2 force equal and opposite in direction acting on the same object
b. 2 unequal force acting on the same object opposite in direction
c. Single force acting on the same object
d. Single force acting on 2 objects at the same time
3. Identify the equipment
a. Spot welder
b. Hydrosolder
c. Soldering torch
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d. Glass bead steriliser
4. Identify the appliance
a. Tongue spike
b. Tongue crib
c. Tongue spur
d. Lip bumper
5. Inability in produce bilabial sounds properly like – b and p along with lisp like sounds is seen in which malocclusion
a. Class I type 3
b. Class II division I with incomplete lip
c. Class I type 4
d. Class III with composited lips
6. Branch of orthodontics concerned with management not teeth in mixed dentition period is called
a. Preventive orthodontics
b. Interceptive orthodontics
c. Corrective orthodontics
d. Surgical orthodontics
7. What is seen when a wire is bent below its elastic limit and is released
a. Spring back
b. Yield strength
c. Increases in stiffness
d. Decreases in stiffness
8. In mandibular rotation what is the contribution of total matrix and intra matric rotation
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a. (3%) intramatrix 100% matrix
b. 100% intramatrix 0% matrix
c. 25% matrix 75% intramatrix
d. 50% intramatrix 50% matrix
9. Components of IOTN include
a. Dental and soft tissue
b. Dental and esthetics
c. Soft tissue and hard tissue
d. Esthetic and hard tissue
10. Secondary or intermediate alveolar bone grafting for a cleft palate patient is done
a. Before maxillary lateral incisor eruption
b. After canine eruption
c. Before canine eruption
d. After first molar eruption
11. Secondary alveolar bone grafting for a cleft palatal patient is done at
a. 5-6 year
b. 6-15year
c. 21-25 year
d. 25-30 year
12. Force applied by jack screw during RME is
a. 2-5 pounds
b.10-20 pounds
c. 25-30 pounds
d. 5-10 pounds
13. Reproximation procedure is orthodontics denotes
a. Method of gaining space

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b. Method of losing space
c. Space maintenance
d. Retraction of incisors
14. Safety value mechanism for pubertal growth spurt is
a. Intercanine width in mandible in both males and females
b. Intercanine width in maxilla in males only
c. Intercanine width in maxilla in female only
d. Intercanine width in maxilla in both males and females
15. Incisal liability in the maxillary and mandibular arch is
a. 5 mm maxilla 7 mm mandible
b. 6 mm maxilla 4 mm mandible
c. 7 mm maxilla 5 mm mandible
d. 4 mm maxilla 6 mm mandible
16. Stationary anchorage in orthodontics means
a. The abutment tooth is free to tilt
b. Abutment is not free to tilt
c. Use of opposite arch for anchorage
d. Equal and opposite movement in anchor unit
17. Wilckodontics in orthodontics refers to
a. Technique for orthopaedic correction of jaw discrepancies
b. Accelerated orthodontics treatment
c. Retention of orthododntics treatment retention of orthodontically moved teeth
d. Extraction of 1st molars for retraction of anterior teeth
18. Angle of insertion of mini important.
a. 15-20
b. 60-70
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c. 30-40
d. 45-60
19.Which is not true regarding pre-surgical nasoalveolar moulding?
a. Allows for better lip form and nose form to be achieved by primary surgery
b. Allows increase in time before intervention is required
c. Allows columella lengthening along with alignment of lip and nose segments
d. Reduces severity of initial defect prior to surgery
PROSTHODONTICS
1. Minimum bone width required for a 4 mm implant placement
a. 6 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 3 mm
d. 9 mm
2. Principal problem faced when a mandibular complete denture natural dentition
a. Fracture of denture
b. Abrasion of natural teeth
c. Abrasion of artificial teeth
d. Difficulty in achieving balanced occlusion
3. F and V are what type of sound
a. Linguodental
b. Labiodental
c. Palatal
d. Velar
4. Not a sibilant sound
a. Ch
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b. J
c. Sh
d. N
5. Finish line used on this buccal supragingival margin for a porcelain fused top metal (PFM) crown on a maxillary
first molar
a. Sleeping shoulder
b. Shoulder
c. Shoulder with bevel
d. Deep chamfer
6. RPI clasp in a distal extension cast partial dentistry
a. Used for buccally placed third molar
b. Provides push type retention
c. Provides pull type retention
d. Is contraindicated
7. RPI clasp in a distal extrusion cast partial denture
a. 90 degree
b. 180 degree
c. 270 degree
d. 360 degree
8. For proper clasp action the minimum amount of tooth encirclement should be
a. Trimming of the denture framework during trial
b. Adapting of relief wax along the alveolar ridge during framework fabrication
c. Placement and carving of the wax pattern during casting
d. Minor connector arising from the framework
9. The angulation of occlusal rest seat to the minor connector from which it origination is
a. 90 degree
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b. >90 degree
c. <90degree
d. <45 degree
10. Butt joint means
a. 90 degree angle
b. >90 degree angle
c. <90 degree angle
d. <45 degree angle
11. Shape of cingulum rest in a cast partial denture
a. Round
b. Spoon shaped
c. Ovoid
d. Inverted V shape
12. Kennedy class IV situation is defined as
a. Single edentulous space anterior to remaining natural teeth but not
crossing the midline
b. Single bilateral edentulous space anterior to remaining natural teeth
crossing the midline
c. Twin edentulous space one posterior in remaining natural teeth and
other in between the remaining natural teeth
d. Single unilateral edentulous space posterior to remaining natural
teeth
13. To record the maximum depression of soft palate it should be
recorded with head at what angle to the floor
a. Parallel to the floor
b. 30 degree
c. 60 degree
d. 90 degree
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14. In centric occlusion the cusp tip of maxillary canine occludes with
a. The incisal embrasure of canine premolar
b. Facial embrasure of canine premolar
c. Distal marginal ridge of canine
d. Mesial marginal ridge of first premolar
15. All are indication of porcelain veneer except
a. Hypoplastic teeth
b. Discoloured teeth
c. Closure of midline diastema
d. Teeth shortened due to bruxism
16. Velopharyngeal incompetence is treated by
a. Pharyngeal bulb prosthesis
b. Palatal left prosthesis
c. Obturator prosthesis
d. Speech bulb
PUBLIC HEALTH DENTISTRY
1.Developing an answer or a solution to an already known problem or a question which can be quantified and
analysed is known as
a. Hypothesis formulation
b. Data collection
c. Analysis and interpretation
d. Statistical analysis
2.Meta-analysis is help in dentistry to
a. Decreases publication bias

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b. Provides quantitative summary measure from many studies
c. Guide statistical testing for clinical procedure
d. Define who is at risk of diseases
3. First and foremost step in biomedical waste disposal
a. Decontamination
b. Segregation
c. Incineration
d. Proper disposal
4. A dental health survey in a community helps to establish what type of needs of the population
a. Felt needs
b. Expressed needs
c. Perceived needs
d. Normative needs
5. Comparing measure of 3 different group or distance is best done by using
a. One way anova
b. I test
c. Chi square test
d. Kruskal Wallis
6. Storbe guideline are applied to (Check option )
a. Non concurrent studies
b. Cross over studies
c. Randomized trials
d. Observational studies
7. Theme given by WHO for the year 2018 is
a. Depression Let talk
b. Beat diabetes
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c. From farm to palate make it safe
d. Health for all everyone everywhere
8. Screening of oral cancer comes under which level prevention
a. Primary
b. Primordial
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
9. Caries an answer or a solution to an already known problem or a question which can be quantified and analysed is
kown as
a. Titanium
b. Fluoride
c. Selenium
d. Iron
10.A dentistry assign a specific task to be done on a patient to a junior doctor the dentist remain in the set up while
the task is carried out does not continuously watch as the task is being carried out what is this called ?
a. Direct supervision
b. Indirect supervision
c. Personal supervision
d. General supervision
11. Application of fluoride varnish after luting a crown has while of the following beneficial action
a. Removes fluoride from enamel
b. Reduces the peripheral seal
c. Provides desensitizing acting
d. Allows dissolution of marginal cement
12. Reverse smoking is prominent in which part of india
a. River bed of assam
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b. Tribal areas of Maharashtra
c. Costal areas of Andhra Pradesh
d. Deserts of rajasthan
13. An active carious can be stopped from progression by application of which of the following
a. NaF
b. APF
c. SaF
d. Silver diamine fluoride
14. A person who assists the dentist in the clinic but is not allowed to treat patient independently is known as
a. Extended dental auxiliary
b. Dental hygienist
c. Dental assistant
d. Dental therapist
15. Fourth generation pit and fissure sealants are
a. Fluoride releasing
b. UV light viscosity sealants
c. Coloured sealants
d. Chemical binding
16. Sequence of contents in scientific report of oral health survey
a. Introduction materials and methods result discussion
b. Introduction Aim materials and methods result
c. Aim materials and methods result conclusion
d. Review of literature aim methods and materials results
17. Role of humectants in toothpaste
a. Retain moisture
b. Abrasive
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c. Taste
d. Anti-bacteria
PERIODONTOLOGY
1. Sulcular epithelium is
a. Highly permeable
b. Semi permeable
c. Non-permeable
d. All options are wrong
2. Which salivary component acts against lipoplysaccharides (LPS) of bacteria
a. Lysozyme
b. Lactoferrin
c. Myeloperoxidase
d. Histatin
3. Which of the following is a secondary colonizer
a. Streptococcus
b. Staphylococcus
c. Campylobacter
d. Actinomyces
4. Which of the following is available in the form of encapsulated microsphere
a. Tetracycline
b. Metronidazole
c. Minocycline
d. Doxycyclin
5. Antibiotic active against all strains of A acetemcomitans
a. Metronidazole
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b. Ciprofloxacin
c. Azithromycin
d. Tetracycline
6. Which chisel is used in a pulling action (pull stroke)
a. Sugarmann file
b. Goldman-fox
c. Rhodes chisel
d. Gracey
7. Most common location of 3 wall defects is
a. Mesial surface of the upper premolar
b. Mesial surface of the upper and lower molars
c. Distal surface of maxillary molar
d. Mesial surface of lower premolar
8. Bacteria in a biofilm communicate with each other this phenomenon is called
a. Quorum sensing
b. Coaggregation
c. Corncob formation
d. Transformation
9. Trap door technique is used for harvesting what type of graft
a. Free gingival graft
b. Connective tissue graft
c. Accordion Technique
d. Lateral pedicle graft
10. Witch chin is due to
a. Mandibular prognathism
b. Autogenous block graft of mandibular symphysis

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c. Proclination of mandibular anterior teeth
d. Horizontal augmentation of ridge in mandibular anterior region
11. Example of soft tissue laser
a. Diode
b. Er YsGG
c. Er Cr YsGG
d. Nd Yag
12. Principle of diathermy used for resection of small nodular lesion is
a. Electrosection
b. Electrocoagulation
c. Electrodessication
d. Electrofulguration
13. Pain which goes through direct channels from skin receptor top pain centers in brain is component of:
a. Peripheral pattern theory
b. Central summation
c. Specific theory
d. Pattern theory
ORAL SURGERY
1.Le Clerc procedure is used for management of
a. TMJ ankylosis
b. TMJ arthritis
c. TMJ dislocation
d. TMJ arthroplasty
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2.Change of oroantral communication is maxillary during extraction of
a. Maxillary 2nd premolar
b. Mandibular 1st molar
c. Maxillary 1st molar
d. maxillary premolar
3.Difficulty score for a mesioangular class II position C mandibular third molar is
a. 6
b. 7
c. 9
d. 8
4.A patient with orthopedic hip implant is to undergo dental extraction. Which antibiotic prophylaxis should be given
a. Amoxicillin 3 times a day for 3 days before procedure
b. Amoxicillin 3 times a day for 1 days before procedure
c. Amoxicillin IV 1 hour before procedure
d. Antibiotic prophylaxis is not required
5. Type of intubation used in cleft palate patient is
a. Fibre optic
b. Orotracheal
c. Submental
d. Laryngeal mask airway
6. Trap door anomaly is seen in fracture of
a. Orbital floor
b. Nasal
c. Maxilla
d. Zygomatic arch
7. Lateral trephination technique given by Henry Bowdler is used for extraction

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a. Partially formed maxillary third molar
b. Partially formed mandibular third molar
c. Partially formed maxillary canine
d. Partially formed mandibular canine 1
8. Guerin sign is seen in
a. Lefort 1 fracture
b. Lefort 2 fracture
c. Lefort 3 fracture
d. Mandibular fracture
9. Retractor with a notch in frontal giving it a bifid or a V shaped appearance of the working end
a. Obwegesser Ramus retractor
b. Seldin retractor
c. Langenback retractor
d. Minnesota retractor
10 .True regarding piezo surgery
a. Decreased morbidity
b. Less time required for cutting
c. Slow healing
d. Non selective cutting
11. A hepatitis B immunized doctor gets a transcutaneous exposure (needle stick injury) from a known hepatitis B
carrier patient what should be done
a. Hepatitis B vaccine lamivudine
b. Interferon hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin vaccine
d. Hepatitis B vaccine only
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ENDODONTICS AND CONSERVATIVE
1. Pain from a tooth is characterized by
a. Dull pain conducted by myelinated A delta fibres
b. Dull pain conducted by myelinated A delta fibres
c. Sharp pain conducted by unmyelinated A delta fibres
d. Dull pain conducted by unmyelinated A delta fibres
2. Which modality is unused to measure the rate of blood flow in pulp
a. Laser Doppler flowmetry
b. Cold test
c. Heat test
d. Electric pulp test
3. Microabrasion using modified Croll technique utilizes
a. 37% phosphoric acid
b. 10% HCI
c. 18% citric acid
d. 5% HF
4. A dentin bonding agent has two ends: hydrophilic and hydrophibic
the hydrophobic end binds to
a. Collagen in dentin
b. Composite resin
c. Smear layer
d. Enamel
5. Electric pulp testing can give a false positive reaction in which of the
following
a. Anxious patient
b. Calcified root canals
c. Patient on NSAIDs
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d. Traumatic injury to teeth
6. Wedge wedge technique is indicated in cases of
a. Gingival recession
b. Concavity on the proximal root surface
c. Depression of interdental papilla
d. Loose contacts
7. While making an access opening for root canal treatment of
maxillary first premolar chances of perforation are high if the operator
is not aware to
a. Concavity at CEJ on distal root surface
b. Proximity of furcation to floor of pulp Chamber between the buccal
and lingual root
c. Rudimentary palatal cusps
d. Concavity at CEJ on mesial root surface
8. Which of the following is not a type of chisel
a. Angle former
b. GMT
c. Enamel hatchet
d. Welstadt chisel
9. In the first sitting of root canal treatment ,in which case should
occlusal reduction be done to prevent post appointment pain
a. Vital pulp ,normal periapex
b. Irreversible pulpitis,normal periapex
c. Necrotic pulp , normal periapex
d. Necrotic pulp ,tooth tender to percussion
10. Phoenix abscess is

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a. Chronic exacerbation of acute periapical
b. Acute exacerbation of chronic periapical abscess
c. Acute periapical abscess
d. Chronic periapical abscess
11. A patient report with acute apical abscess drainage is established
through emergency root canal access should the access opening be kept
open till the next appointment
a. Yes if swelling is present
b. Yes only in weeping canal
c. It should nerve be kept open
d. After immediate drainage patient should be made to sit for some time canal should be closed when it can be
dried
PEDODONTICS
1.Maximum increase in the number of s mutans occurs
a. After shedding of primary molars
b. During transition from primary to permanent dentition
c. Inpredentate period
d. After eruption of first primary tooth
2. Sequence of primary teeth affected in children with high caries susceptibility
a. Maxillary CI maxillary L1 mandibular 1st molar maxillary 1st molar maxillary canine maxillary 2nd molar
b. Mandibular n1st molar maxillary C1 maxillary L1 maxillary C1 maxillary canine maxillary 1st molar maxillary canine
maxillary 2nd molar
c. Maxillary C1 maxillary L1 maxillary 1st molar maxillary canine mandibular 1st molar maxillary 2nd molar
d. Mandibular 1st molar maxillary 1st molar maxillary CL maxillary Maxillary 2nd molar maxillary canine
3. While placing stainless steel crowns on primary first and second molar what sequence should be followed
a. Place crown first on primary 1st molar then on primary 2nd molar
7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286
b. Place crown first on primary 2nd molar then on primary 1st molar
c. Place crown on both the teeth simultaneously
d. Both teeth should never be crowned simultaneously
4. Objective fear in a child derived from
a. Imagination
b. Parents
c. Observing peers
d. Past experience
5. In a distal shoe space maintainer what depth should the guiding plate go below MMR of unerupted first molar
a. 0.5 mm
b. 1 mm
c. 2 mm
d. 2.5 mm
6. Which materials is not used for pulpotomy?
a. Laser
b. MTA
c. Ferric sulphate
d. Maisto paste
7. Self inflicted injury (Bite) is seen in
a. Turners syndrome
b. Down syndrome
c. Lesch Nyhan syndrome
d. Hurler syndrome
8. Heimlich maneuver in a child is done for removing
a. Foreign body obstructive due to swallowing
b. Mandibular body fracture reduction

7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286
c. Foreign body obstructive due to inhalation
d. Maxillary fracture reduction
>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286
7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286
7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286
7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286
7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286
7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286
7428117771 / 7428117772 / 9599005745 / 9350256286

NEET Pattern - 2019: Part-B: BDS-2-MDS App

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NEET Pattern - 2019: Part-B: BDS-2-MDS App

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NEET Pattern – 2019 : Part-B

BDS-2-MDS App : LEARN – ACHIEVE - EXCEL

ORAL PATHOLOGY AND MEDICINE

1. Most common oral infection in HIV

2.Lowest conc. of HIV is found in

4. All of the following are strongly associated with AIDS except

d. Oral hairy leukoplakia

5. Leontiasis ossea is characteristic of

a. Florid osseous dysplasia

6. Which of the following is not a feature of hyperparathyroidism

a. Osteitis fibrosa cystic

7. Ossifying fibroma true is all except

a. Chinese letter appearance

b. Lesion of woven metaplastic bone

8. CBFA- lgene anomaly is seen in

a. Hereditary haemorrhagic telengectasia

13. Alarm clock headache is

a. Median anterior maxillary cyst

b. Median mandibular cyst

15. Hypoplasia of parotid is seen in

b. Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome

d. Hemi facial microsomia

16. Identify the pathology in the picture

a. Squamous cell carcinoma

17. Most common intraoral infection in diabetic patient

18. Best drug for oral candidiasis

19. Which of the following has the highest premalignant potential

c. Calcifying odontogenic cyst

20. Cyst which is attached to the apical foramen of tooth

c. Calcifying odontogenic cyst

d. Lateral periodontal cyst

21. Which of the following is not a true cyst

22. Fothergill diseases is

d. Giant cell anteritis

24. Which of these is a type of scleroderma

A. Pierre Robin syndrome

C. Parry Romberg syndrome

D. Merkelsson Rosenthal syndrome

25. Granular cell ameloblastoma is characterized by granules which are composed of

26. Most premalignant lesion amongst the following is

b. Schour and massler

c. Partial volume averaging

2. Diagnostic modality for assessing pathology major salivary gland

3. Discomfort pain and swelling on salivary gland stimulation is indicative of

b. Salivary duct calculus

4. Which of the following is not a fibrotic effect of radiation

5. Floating teeth are seen in which of the following conditions

c. Ehler danlos syndrome

6. Reaction to cosmetic fillers most commonly seen in the cavity is

b. Tumor like growth

7. Which are generation sialagogue has additional M3 action

a.Labial to the teeth

b. Lingual to the teeth

c. In line with the teeth

d. It has no relation to the teeth

9. Sharpness of image is increased by

a. Small focal spot

c. Increased object to receptor distance

1. Modulus of elasticity/tensile strength of brittle materials is measured by

a. Diametral compression test

b. Cold bend test

c. 3-point bend test

3. Clinical appearance of GIC is dictated by