Arihant Biology 34 Years NEET PYQ 1988-2021

34
YEARS’ (1988-2021)
Chapterwise Topicwise
NEET
Solved Papers
BIOLOGY
Complete Collection of all Questions
asked in last 34 years’ in NEET & CBSE AIPMT
Arihant Prakashan (Series), Meerut

Arihant Prakashan
(Series), Meerut
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PREFACE
Whenever a student decides to prepare for any examination his/her first

and foremost curiosity is to know about the type of questions that are
expected in the exam. This becomes more important in the context of
competitive entrance examinations where there is neck-to-neck
competition.
We feel great pleasure in presenting before you this book containing

Error Free Chapterwise Topicwise Solutions of CBSE AIPMT/NEET
Biology Questions from the years 1988 to 2021.
It has been our efforts to provide correct solutions to the best of our
knowledge and opinion. Detailed explanatory discussions follow the
answers. Discussions are not just sketchy–rather, have been drafted in a
manner that the students will surely be able to answer some other
related questions too ! Going through this book, the students would be
able to have the complete idea of the questions being asked in the test.
We hope this chapterwise solved papers would be highly beneficial to

the students. We would be grateful if any discrepancies or mistakes in
the questions or answers are brought to our notice so that these could
be rectified in subsequent editions.
Publisher
CONTENTS
1. The Living World 1-3
2. Biological Classification 4-17
3. Plant Kingdom 18-30
4. Animal Kingdom 31-48
5. Morphology of Flowering Plants 49-59
6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants 60-70
7. Structural Organisation in Animals 71-77
8. Cell : The Unit of Life 78-93
9. Biomolecules 94-106
10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division 107-115
11. Transport in Plants 116-121
12. Mineral Nutrition 122-126
13. Photosynthesis 127-135
14. Respiration in Plants 136-141
15. Plant Growth and Development 142-150
16. Digestion and Absorption 151-159
17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 160-166
18. Body Fluids and Circulation 167-175
19. Excretory Products and Their Elimination 176-183
20. Locomotion and Movement 184-189
21. Neural Control and Coordination 190-198
22. Chemical Coordination and Integration 199-207
23. Reproduction in Organisms 208-211

24. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 212-222
25. Human Reproduction 223-233
26. Reproductive Health 234-239
27. Principles of Inheritance and Variation 240-262
28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 263-279
29. Evolution 280-295
30. Human Health and Diseases 296-308
31. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 309-316
32. Microbes in Human Welfare 317-323
33. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 324-332
34. Biotechnology and its Applications 333-337
35. Organisms and Population 338-348
36. Ecosystem 349-357
37. Biodiversity and Its Conservation 358-365
38. Environmental Issues 366-376

SYLLABUS
CLASS 11th
UNIT I Diversity in Living World
What is living? ; Biodiversity, Need for classification, Three domains of life, Taxonomy and Systematics, Concept of species and
taxonomical hierarchy, Binomial nomenclature, Tools for study of Taxonomy – Museums, Zoos, Herbaria, Botanical gardens. Five
kingdom classification, salient features and classification of Monera, Protista and Fungi into major groups, Lichens, Viruses and
Viroids. Salient features and classification of plants into major groups-Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and
Angiosperms (three to five salient and distinguishing features and at least two examples of each category), Angiosperms-
classification up to class, characteristic features and examples). Salient features and classification of animals-nonchordate upto
phyla level and chordate up to classes level (three to five salient features and at least two examples).
UNIT II Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

Morphology and modifications, Tissues, Anatomy and functions of different parts of flowering plants, Root, stem, leaf,
inflorescence- cymose and recemose, flower, fruit and seed (To be dealt along with the relevant practical of the Practical
Syllabus). Animal tissues, Morphology, anatomy and functions of different systems (digestive, circulatory, respiratory, nervous
and reproductive) of an insect (cockroach). (Brief account only)
UNIT III Cell Structure and Function

Cell theory and cell as the basic unit of life Structure of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cell, Plant cell and animal cell, Cell envelope,
cell membrane, cell wall, Cell organelles-structure and function, Endomembrane system-endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bodies,
lysosomes, vacuoles, mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids, micro bodies, Cytoskeleton, cilia, flagella, centrioles (ultra structure and
function), Nucleus-nuclear membrane, chromatin, nucleolus. Chemical constituents of living cells Biomolecules-structure and
function of proteins, carbodydrates, lipids, nucleic acids, Enzymes-types, properties, enzyme action. B Cell division Cell cycle,
mitosis, meiosis and their significance.
UNIT IV Plant Physiology

Transport in plants Movement of water, gases and nutrients, Cell to cell transport-Diffusion, facilitated diffusion, active transport,
Plant– water relations – Imbibition, water potential, osmosis, plasmolysis, Long distance transport of water – Absorption,
apoplast, symplast, transpiration pull, root pressure and guttation, Transpiration-Opening and closing of stomata, Uptake and
translocation of mineral nutrients-Transport of food, phloem transport, Mass flow hypothesis, Diffusion of gases (brief mention).
Mineral nutrition Essential minerals, macro and micronutrients and their role, Deficiency symptoms, Mineral toxicity, Elementary
idea of Hydroponics as a method to study mineral nutrition, Nitrogen metabolism Nitrogen cycle, biological nitrogen fixation.
Photosynthesis Photosynthes is as a means of Autotrophic nutrition, Site of photosynthesis take place, pigments involved in
Photosynthesis (Elementary idea), Photochemical and biosynthetic phases of photosynthesis, Cyclic and non-cyclic and
photophosphorylation, Chemiosmotic hypothesis, Photorespiration C3 and C4 pathways, Factors affecting photosynthesis.
Respiration Exchange gases, Cellular respiration-glycolysis, fermentation (anaerobic), TCA cycle and electron transport system
(aerobic), Energy relations Number of ATP molecules generated, Amphibolic pathways, Respiratory quotient.
Plant growth and development Seed germination, Phases of Plant growth and plant growth rate, Conditions of growth,
Differentiation, dedifferentiation and redifferentiation, Sequence of developmental process in a plant cell, Growth regulators-
auxin,gibberellin, cytokinin, ethylene, ABA Seed dormancy, Vernalisation, Photoperiodism.
UNIT V Human Physiology
Digestion and absorption, Alimentary canal and digestive glands, Role of digestive enzymes and gastrointestinal hormones,
Peristalsis, digestion, absorption and assimilation of proteins, carbohydrates and fats, Caloric value of proteins, carbohydrates
and fats, Egestion, Nutritional and digestive disorders – PEM, indigestion, constipation, vomiting, jaundice, diarrhea.
Breathing and Respiration Respiratory organs in animals (recall only), Respiratory system in humans, Mechanism of breathing
and its regulation in humans-Exchange of gases, transport of gases and regulation of respiration Respiratory volumes, Disorders
related to respiration-Asthma, Emphysema, Occupational respiratory disorders.
Body fluids and circulation Composition of blood, blood groups, coagulation of blood, Composition of lymph and its function,
Human circulatory system-Structure of human heart
and blood vessels, Cardiac cycle, cardiac output, ECG, Double circulation, Regulation of cardiac activity, Disorders of circulatory
system-Hypertension, Coronary artery disease, Angina pectoris, Heart failure.
Excretory products and their elimination Modes of excretion- Ammonotelism, ureotelism, uricotelism, Human excretory system-
structure and fuction, Urine formation, Osmoregulation, Regulation of kidney function-Renin-angiotensin, Atrial Natriuretic
Factor, ADH and Diabetes insipidus, Role of other organs in excretion, Disorders, Uraemia, Renal failure, Renal calculi, Nephritis,
Dialysis and artificial kidney.
Locomotion and Movement Types of movement- ciliary, fiagellar, muscular, Skeletal muscle- contractile proteins and muscle
contraction, Skeletal system and its functions (To be dealt with the relevant practical of Practical syllabus), Joints, Disorders of
muscular and skeletal system-Myasthenia gravis, Tetany, Muscular dystrophy, Arthritis, Osteoporosis, Gout.
Neural control and coordination Neuron and nerves, Nervous system in humans- central nervous system, peripheral nervous
system and visceral nervous system, Generation and conduction of nerve impulse, Reflex action, Sense organs, Elementary
structure and function of eye and ear.
Chemical coordination and regulation Endocrine glands and hormones, Human endocrine system-Hypothalamus, Pituitary,
Pineal, Thyroid, Parathyroid, Adrenal, Pancreas, Gonads, Mechanism of hormone action (Elementary Idea), Role of hormones as
messengers and regulators, Hypo-and hyperactivity and related disorders (Common disorders e.g., Dwarfism, Acromegaly,
Cretinism, goiter, exopthalmic goiter, diabetes, Addison's disease). (Important, Diseases and disorders mentioned above to be
dealt in brief.)
CLASS 12th
UNIT I Reproduction
Reproduction in organisms Reproduction, a characteristic feature of all organisms for continuation of species, Modes of
reproduction– Asexual and sexual, Asexual reproduction, Modes-Binary fission, sporulation, budding, gemmule, fragmentation,
vegetative propagation in plants.
Sexual reproduction in flowering plants Flower structure, Development of male and female gametophytes, Pollination-types,
agencies and examples, Outbreeding devices, Pollen-Pistil interaction, Double fertilization, Post fertilization events-
Development of endosperm and embryo, Development of seed and formation of fruit, Special modes-apomixis, parthenocarpy,
polyembryony, Significance of seed and fruit formation.
Human Reproduction Male and female reproductive systems, Microscopic anatomy of testis and ovary, Gametogenesis-
spermatogenesis and oogenesis, Menstrual cycle, Fertilisation, embryo development upto blastocyst formation, implantation,
Pregnancy and placenta formation (Elementary idea), Parturition (Elementary idea), Lactation (Elementary idea).
Reproductive health Need for reproductive health and prevention of sexually transmitted diseases (STD), Birth control-Need and
Methods, Contraception and Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP), Amniocentesis, Infertility and assisted reproductive
technologies – IVF, ZIFT, GIFT (Elementary idea for general awareness).
UNIT II Genetics and Evolution
Heredity and variation Mendelian Inheritance, Deviations from Mendelism-Incomplete dominance, Co-dominance, Multiple
alleles and Inheritance of blood groups, Pleiotropy, Elementary idea of polygenic inheritance, Chromosome theory of
inheritance, Chromosomes and genes, Sex determination-In humans, birds, honey bee, Linkage and crossing over, Sex linked
inheritance-Haemophilia, Colour blindness, Mendelian disorders in humans-Thalassemia, Chromosomal disorders in humans,
Down's syndrome, Turner's and Klinefelter's syndromes.
Molecular basis of Inheritance Search for genetic material and DNA as genetic material, Structure of DNA and RNA, DNA
packaging, DNA replication, Central dogma, Transcription, genetic code, translation, Gene expression and regulation-Lac
Operon, Genome and human genome project, DNA finger printing.
Evolution Origin of life, Biological evolution and evidences for biological evolution from Paleontology, comparative anatomy,
embryology and molecular evidence), Darwin's contribution, Modern Synthetic theory of Evolution, Mechanism of evolution-
Variation (Mutation and Recombination) and Natural Selection with examples, types of natural selection, Gene flow and genetic
drift, Hardy-Weinberg's principle, Adaptive Radiation, Human evolution.
UNIT III Biology and Human Welfare

Health and Disease, Pathogens, parasites causing human diseases (Malaria, Filariasis, Ascariasis, Typhoid, Pneumonia, common
cold, amoebiasis, ring worm), Basic concepts of immunology-vaccines, Cancer, HIV and AIDS, Adolescence, drug and alcohol
abuse.
Improvement in food production Plant breeding, tissue culture, single cell protein, Biofortification, Apiculture and Animal
husbandry. Microbes in human welfare In household food processing, industrial production, sewage treatment, energy
generation and as biocontrol agents and biofertilizers.
UNIT IV Biotechnology and Its Applications

Principles and process of Biotechnology Genetic engineering (Recombinant DNA technology). Applications of Biotechnology in
health and agriculture Human insulin and vaccine production, gene therapy, Genetically modified organisms-Bt crops,
Transgenic Animals, Biosafety issues-Biopiracy and patents.
UNIT V Ecology and Environment

Organisms and environment Habitat and niche, Population and ecological adaptations, Population interactions-mutualism,
competition, predation, parasitism, Population attributes-growth, birth rate and death rate, age distribution.
Ecosystem Patterns, components, productivity and decomposition, Energy flow, Pyramids of number, biomass, energy, Nutrient
cycling (carbon and phosphorous), Ecological succession, Ecological Services-Carbon fixation, pollination, oxygen release.
Biodiversity and its conservation Concept of Biodiversity, Patterns of Biodiversity, Importance of Biodiversity, Loss of Biodiversity,
Biodiversity conservation, Hotspots, endangered organisms, extinction, Red Data Book, biosphere reserves, National parks and
sanctuaries.
Environmental issues Air pollution and its control, Water pollution and its control, Agrochemicals and their effects, Solid waste
management, Radioactive waste management, Greenhouse effect and global warning, Ozone depletion, Deforestation, Any
three case studies as success stories addressing environmental issues.
01
The Living World
TOPIC 1 Column I Column II 03 The label of a herbarium sheet does
Diversity and Taxonomy 3. Museum (iii) It is a place where not carry information on
dried and pressed [NEET 2016, Phase II]
plant specimens (a) date of collection
01 The contrasting characteristics mounted on sheets (b) name of collector
generally in a pair used for are kept. (c) local names
identification of animals in
4. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing (d) height of the plant
taxonomic key are referred to as a list of characters Ans. (d)
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] and their alternates
which are helpful in Herbarium is a collection of plants that
(a) lead (b) couplet usually have been dried, pressed,
identification of
(c) doublet (d) alternate various taxa. preserved plant on sheets and are
Ans. (b) arranged in accordance with any
Couplet is the contrasting 1 2 3 4 accepted system of classification for
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) future reference and study. It does not
characteristic generally in a pair used
have information on height of the plant.
for identification of animals in (b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
taxonomic key. It represents the choice (c) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) 04 Study the four statements (I-IV)
made between two opposite options,
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) given below and select the two
each half of a couplet is called lead.
Separate taxonomic keys are required Ans. (d) correct ones out of them :
[NEET 2016, Phase II]
for each taxonomic category like family, Herbarium is a place where dried and
genus species. pressed plant specimens, mounted on I. Definition of biological species
sheets are kept systematically. It is a was given by Ernst Mayr.
02 Match the items given in Column I repository or store house for future II. Photoperiod does not affect
with those in Column II and select use. Key is a booklet containing list of reproduction in plants.
the correct option given below characters and their alternates which
III. Binomial nomenclature system
[NEET 2018] are helpful in identification of various
was given by RH Whittaker.
taxa-class, order, family, genus and
Column I Column II species. IV. In unicellular organisms, reproduc-
1. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a Museum is an institution where artistic tion is synonymous with growth.
collection of and educational materials are The two correct statements are
preserved plants and exhibited to the public. The materials (a) II and III (b) III and IV
animals. available for observation and study are (c) I and IV (d) I and II
2. Key (ii) A list that called a collection. Ans. (c)
enumerates Catalogue is a list or register that Statements I and IV are correct. The
methodically all the enumerates methodically all the correct form of II and III are as follows:
species found in an species found in a particular place. It
area with brief (II) Photoperiod does affect the
often possesses brief description of reproduction in plants.
description aiding
identification. species that aids in identification. (III) Binomial nomenclature was given by
Therefore, option (d) is correct. Carolus Linnaeus.
2 NEET Chapterwise Topicwise Biology
05 Biological organisation starts with 08 Carbohydrates the most abundant Anaerobic organisms that can live in
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] biomolecules on earth, are the absence of O2 . Light and
temperature are already known to exist
(a) sub-microscopic molecular level produced by [CBSE AIPMT 2005] on the moon.
(b) cellular level (a) all bacteria, fungi and algae
(c) organismic level (b) fungi, algae and green plant cells 11 The most important feature of all
(d) atomic level (c) some bacteria, algae and green living systems is to
Ans. (a) plant cells [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
Biological organisation starts with (d) viruses, fungi and bacteria (a) utilise oxygen to generate energy
sub-microscopic molecular level, where Ans. (c) (b) replicate the genetic information
four types of molecules, i.e. (c) produce gametes
Some photosynthetic bacteria such as
carbohydrates, lipids, proteins and (d) utilise solar energy for metabolic
Rhodopseudomonas can prepare
nucleic acids are organised into
carbohydrates. But during this type of activities
organelles of cell.
food synthesis O2 is not evolved Ans. (b)
06 The living organisms can be because, in this case hydrogen donor is
Reproduction is necessary for
other than H2 O.
un-exceptionally distinguished continuity of life. However, production
Algae (green and blue-green) and all of gametes is not only method for this.
from the non-living things on the green plant cells prepare their food A number of organisms reproduce
basis of their ability for (carbohydrate) through photosynthesis. asexually. In any case, cell division is
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] Here, hydrogen ions are donated by necessary which involves replication of
(a) responsiveness to touch water molecules by the process of DNA.
(b) interaction with the environment photolysis of water, i.e. O2 is released
and progressive evolution during this type of food synthesis.
12 Homeostasis is [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(c) reproduction
09 More than 70% of world’s fresh (a) tendency to change with change in
(d) growth and movement
water is contained in environment
Ans. (b) (a) antarctica [CBSE AIPMT 2005] (b) tendency to resist change
All living organisms interact with their (b) greenland (c) disturbance in regulatory
environment and shows progressive control
(c) glaciers and mountains
evolution. They can sense and respond
(d) polar ice (d) plants and animals extracts used
to environmental uses. On the other
in homeopathy
hand reproduction, growth and Ans. (d)
movement cannot be all inclusive Three fourth surface of earth (about Ans. (b)
defining properties of living organisms. 71% of total) is occupied by oceans Homeostasis (Gr. homeos = similar;
which contain 97.5% of total water. This stasis = standing) is the tendency of
07 Which one of the following is an is marine water with about 3.5% salt maintaining a relatively stable internal
example of negative feedback contents. physiological environment in an
loop in humans? Rest water, i.e. 2.5% is freshwater organism, or steady-state equilibrium in
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] which occurs on land. Most amount of a population or ecosystem. It is carried
(a) Constriction of skin blood vessels this water (about 1.97%) occurs as out by regulatory mechanisms which
and contraction of skeletal Frozen ice caps and glaciers and 0.5% coordinate internal functions such as
muscles when it is too cold fresh water occurs as ground water. providing nutrients to cells and
transporting substances.
(b) Secretion of tears after falling of
sand particles into the eye 10 There is no life on moon due to
(c) Salivation of mouth at the sight of the absence of [CBSE AIPMT 2002] 13 Employment of hereditary
delicious food (a)O 2 (b) water principles in the improvement of
(d) Secretion of sweat glands and (c) light (d) temperature human race is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
constriction of skin blood vessels Ans. (b) (a) Euthenics (b) Eugenics
when it is too hot Water is an essential constituent of (c) Euphenics (d) Ethnology
Ans. (a) cytoplasm of all living organisms. It helps Ans. (b)
Skin blood vessels constrict and in distribution of substances within the
Eugenics refers to improvement of
skeletal muscles contract due to the organism, elimination of waste products,
human race by modifying fertility or
cold is an example of negative feedback maintenance of body temperature, etc.
employing the hereditary principles.
mechanism of homeostasis. It is absent on the moon.
The Living World 3
TOPIC 2 with small letter. The name of capital letter while the specific epithet
taxonomist is written in Roman script starts with a small letter. It can be
Binomial Nomenclature and it is written in abbreviated form. illustrated with the example of
Mangifera indica.
14 Select the correctly written 15 Which of the following is against
scientific name of Mango which the rules of ICBN? 16 Nomenclature is governed by
was first described by Carolus
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] certain universal rules. Which one
Linnaeus. [NEET (Naional) 2019)]
(a) Handwritten scientific names of the following is contrary to the
should be underlined rules of nomenclature?
(a) Mangifera indica Linn
(b) Every species should have a [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(b) Mangifera indica generic name and a specific (a) The first word in a biological
(c) Mangifera Indica epithet name represents the genus name
(d) Mangifera indica Car. Linn. and the second is a specific
(c) Scientific names are in Latin and epithet
Ans. (a) should be italicised
(b) The names are written in Latin and
The correct form of writing the (d) Generic and specific names are Italicised
scientific name of mango as described should be written starting with (c) When written by hand, the names
by Carolus Linnaeus is Mangifera indica small letters are to be underlined
Linn. (d) Biological names can be written in
Ans. (d) any language
As per binomial nomenclature rules, the Statement (d) is against the rules of
name of an organism contains a generic ICBN because the universal rule of Ans. (d)
and specific name. The former begins nomenclature is that the first word Biological names originate from latin
with capital letter while the later begins denoting the genus starts with a language and are printed in italics.
02
Biological
Classification
TOPIC 1 Ans. (d) They do not use water as a source of
reducing power. Instead, hydrogen is
Kingdom-Monera The size of various organisms/cells are
obtained from hydrogen sulphide.
Pleuropneumonia Like Organism
(PPLO)–0.1µm Viruses–0.02 –0.2µm H2 S → 2[H] + S
01 Which of the following statement Hydrogen
Bacterial cell– 1–2µm sulphide
is correct? [NEET 2021] Light
Eukaryotic cell–10–20 µm 6CO2 + 12H2 → C6H12 O6 + 6H2 O
(a) Fusion of two cells is called Enzymes
karyogamy 03 Which of the following is incorrect Concept Enhancer Green sulphur
(b) Fusion of protoplasm between about cyanobacteria? bacteria, e.g. Chlorobium limicola,
two motile or non-motile gametes [NEET (Oct.) 2020] possesses bacteriophaeophytin as
is called plasmogamy photosynthetic pigment.
(a) They are photoautotrophs
(c) Organisms that depend on living Cycas is a gymnosperm, Nostoc is a
(b) They lack heterocysts
plants are called saprophytes blue-green algae and Chara is a green
(c) They often form blooms in
(d) Some of the organisms can fix algae. All of these produce oxygen
polluted water bodies during photosynthesis.
atmospheric nitrogen in
specialised cells called sheath (d) They have chlorophyll-a similar to
cells green plants 05 Which of the following organisms
Ans. (b) Ans. (b) are known as chief producers in
Cyanobacteria or blue-green algae are the oceans? [NEET 2018]
Statement in option (b) is correct.
photosynthetic organisms which (a) Cyanobacteria (b) Diatoms
Plasmogamy, the fusion of two
perform oxygenic photosynthesis. They
protoplasts (the contents of the two (c) Dinoflagellates (d) Euglenoids
have the ability of nitrogen fixation due
cells), brings together two compatible
to the presence of large pale cells called Ans. (b)
haploid nuclei. At this point, two parent
heterocyst in their filaments. Due to the Diatoms are chief producers in the
cells are present in the same cell, but
presence of thick walls, heterocysts are oceans and they contribute 40% of
the nuclei have not yet fused.
impermeable to oxygen. marine primary productivity. They
Incorrect statements can be corrected
as Organisms that can fix atmospheric constitute a major group of unicellular
nitrogen in specialised cells are called
04 Oxygen is not produced during eukaryotic microalgae and are among
heterocyst. photosynthesis by [NEET 2018] the most common types of
(a) Cycas phytoplanktons.
Karyogamy is nothing but the fusion of
two nuclei means production of diploid The other given organisms also exhibit
(b) Nostoc
cell (2n condition). autotrophic mode of nutrition.
(c) Green sulphur bacteria
Organisms that depends on living plants
(d) Chara 06 Which of the following are found
are called heterotrophs.
Ans. (c) in extreme saline conditions?
02 The size of Pleuropneumonia Like Green sulphur bacteria are anaerobic (a) Archaebacteria [NEET 2017]
Organism (PPLO) is bacteria. They do not evolve oxygen (b) Eubacteria
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] during photosynthesis. Such type of (c) Cyanobacteria
(a) 0.02 µm (b) 1-2 µm photosynthesis is known as anoxygenic
photosynthesis.
(d) Mycobacteria
(c) 10–20 µm (d) 0.1 µm
Biological Classification 5
Ans. (a) 09 Which one of the following 12 Archaebacteria differ from

Archaebacteria are the most primitive statements is wrong? eubacteria in [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
form of bacteria. These live in diverse [NEET 2016 Phase I] (a) cell membrane structure
habitat, e.g. extreme hot temperature, (a) Golden algae are also called (b) mode of nutrition
saline condition, variable pH, etc. Saline
desmids (c) cell shape
bacteria are called Halophiles (e.g.
Halobacterium, Halococcus). (b) Eubacteria are also called false (d) mode of reproduction
bacteria
Concept Enhancer The ability of Ans. (a)
archaebacteria to survive in such (c) Phycomycetes are also called algal
fungi Archaebacteria different from
conditions is due to the presence of eubacteria in that eubacteria have cell
branched lipid chain in their membrane, (d) Cyanobacteria are also called membrane composed mainly of
which reduces the fluidity of their blue-green algae glycerol-ester lipids, while
membrane. Ans. (b) archaebacteria have membrane made
Eubacteria are true bacteria which up of glycerol-ether lipid.
07 Which among the following are the Ether lipids are chemically more
exhibit all true characteristic features
smallest living cells, known of group Eubacteria. resistant then ester lipids. This stability
without a definite cell wall, helps archaebacteria to survive at high
pathogenic to plants as well as 10 Methanogens belong to temperture and in very acidic or alkaline
animals and can survive without environment.
[NEET 2016 Phase II]
oxygen? [NEET 2017] (a) eubacteria (b) archaebacteria
13 Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria
(a) Bacillus (c) dinoflagellates (d) slime moulds
are also found inside vegetative
(b) Pseudomonas Ans. (b)
(c) Mycoplasma
part of [NEET 2013]
Methanogens belong to archaebacteria. (a) Pinus (b) Cycas
(d) Nostoc It contains three major classes of
(c) Equisetum (d) Psilotum
Ans. (c) primitive bacteria, i.e. methanogens,
halophilic and thermoacidophilic. Ans. (b)
Mycoplasma is triple layered smallest
living cells. It does not have definite cell Methanogens are strict anaerobes, Cyanobacteria within the coralloid roots
wall. It is an anaerobic organism. It present in the gut of several ruminant of Cycas are chemoheterotrophic and
cause diseases in plants (little leaf of animals (e.g. cows, etc.) and are specifically adapted to life in symbiosis.
brinjal) as well as in animals responsible for production of methane Only a few species of cyanobacteria
(pleuromorphic pneumonia in man). gas from the dung of these animals. form associations with Cycas. Pinus is a
Concept Enhancer Halophilic bacteria gymnosperm. Equisetum belongs to
Lipoprotein membrane usually occur in salt rich substrate like vascular plants and to horse tail family.
(Three layers) Psilotum belongs to
salt marshes, etc. and are aerobic
Soluble protein division–Pteridophyta and is a fern-like
chemoheterotrophs. Thermophilic
dsDNA
bacteria have the dual ability to tolerate plant.
high temperature as well as high
Ribosomes acidity. These are basically 14 Pigment-containing membranous
chemosynthetic. extensions in some cyanobacteria
Soluble
RNA are [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
11 Chromatophores take part in (a) heterocysts
08 The primitive prokaryotes [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (b) basal bodies
responsible for the production of (a) photosynthesis (b) growth (c) pneumatophores
biogas from the dung of ruminant (c) movement (d) respiration (d) chromatophores
animals, include the Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
[NEET 2016 Phase I] Chromatophores are found in members Cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll but
(a) thermoacidophiles of phototrophic bacteria. They contain the chlorophyll is not located in
(b) methanogens bacteriochlorophyll pigments and chloroplasts, rather it is found in
(c) eubacteria carotenoids and take part in chromatophores which are infolding of
photosynthesis. In purple bacteria, the plasma membrane, where
(d) halophiles
such as Rhodospirillum rubrum, the photosynthesis is carried out.
Ans. (b) light-harvesting proteins are intrinsic to Heterocysts are specialised nitrogen
Methanogens are group of obligate the chromatophore membranes. fixing cells formed by some filamentous
anaerobic ancient and primitive However, in green sulphur bacteria, cyanobacteria such as Nostoc. A basal
bacteria. They are involved in they are arranged in specialised body is an organelle formed from a
methanogenesis and produce methane antenna complexes called centriole and a short cylindrical array of
gas in ruminant of cattles. chlorosomes. microtubules.
Pneumatophores are lateral roots that Ans. (d) (c) protists and mosses
grow upward for varying distance and The plasma membrane of eubacteria (d) liverworts and yeasts
function as the site of oxygen intake for resembles to that of eukaryotic cell. It
the submerged primary roots of Ans. (a)
is made of phospholipid, protein and
mangrove plants. Thermophiles live in very hot places,
some amount of polysaccharides.
However, it lacks sterol, the with temperature ranging from
15 Which of the following are likely to characteristic of eukaryotic cell 60°-80°C. Many thermophiles (some
be present in deep sea water? membrane. Instead, there is sterol like eubacteria and archaebacteria) are
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] compounds called hopanoid. autotrophs and have metabolisms
based on sulphur.
(a) Archaebacteria
(b) Eubacteria
19 Organisms called methanogens Some thermophilic archaebacteria
are most abundant in a form the basis of food webs around
(c) Blue-green algae
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] deep-sea thermal vents, where they
(d) Saprophytic fungi must withstand extreme temperature
(a) cattle yard (b) polluted stream
Ans. (a) (c) hot spring (d) sulphur rock and pressures. Archaebacteria can
Archaebacteria can flourish in hot grow in highly acidic (pH = 0.7) and very
springs and deep sea hypothermal Ans. (a) basic (pH = 11) environments.
vents. Eubacteria are true bacteria, Methanogens are present in the gut of
characterised by the presence of rigid several ruminants animals such as
cows and buffaloes and they are 23 Thermococcus, Methanococcus
cell wall and if motile a flagellum. Most
fungi are heterotrophic and absorb responsible for the production of and Methanobacterium exemplify
soluble organic matter from dead methane (biogas) from the dung of [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
substrates and hence, are called these animals. Thus, they are most (a) archaebacteria that contain
saprophyte. The cyanobacteria have abundant in a cattle yard. protein homologous to eukaryotic
chlorophyll-a similar to green plants core histones
and are photosynthetic autotrophs. 20 A prokaryotic autotrophic nitrogen (b) archaebacteria that lack any
fixing symbiont is found in histones resembling those found
16 The cyanobacteria are also [CBSE AIPMT 2011] in eukaryotes but whose DNA is
referred to as [CBSE AIPMT 2012] (a) Cycas (b) Cicer (c) Pisum (d) Alnus negatively supercoiled
(a) protists Ans. (a) (c) bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or
(b) golden algae The coralloid root of Cycas is positively supercoiled but which
(c) slime moulds symbiotically associated with nitrogen have a cytoskeleton as well as
(d) blue-green algae fixing blue-green algae, Anabaena mitochondria
Ans. (d) cycadae and Nostoc punctiforme. These (d) bacteria that contain a
blue green-algae (cyanobacteria) are cytoskeleton and ribosomes
Cyanobacteria, also known as
prokaryotic, photosynthetic and
blue-green algae (BGA) are most Ans. (a)
autotrophic.
primitive prokaryotic organisms. These Inspection of domain Archaea shows
are considered to be the most ancient that two sub-divisions exist, the
of all the chlorophyll bearing organisms 21 Maximum nutritional diversity is
Euryarchaeota and the Crenarchaeota.
on earth. found in the group
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] The Euryarchaeota includes
17 Nuclear membrane is absent in Methanobacterium, Methanococcus,
(a) Fungi (b) Animalia Thermococcus.
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] (c) Monera (d) Plantae
(a) Penicillium (b) Agaricus
Ans. (c)
(c) Volvox (d) Nostoc 24 Bacterial leaf blight of rice is
Maximum nutritional diversity is shown
Ans. (d) by the members of kingdom–Monera.
caused by a species of
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
Nostoc is a prokaryote. Prokaryotic Some of them are autotrophic (e.g.
cells lack membrane bound organelles photosynthetic autotrophic or (a) Xanthomonas
and well organised nucleus, i.e. nuclear chemosynthetic autotrophic) while the (b) Pseudomonas
envelope is absent. vast majority are heterotrophs (e.g. (c) Alternaria
Penicillium, Agaricus and Volvox are saprotrophic or parasitic). Ecologically, (d) Erwinia
eukaryotic. these may be producers or
Ans. (a)
decomposers.
18 In eubacteria, a cellular component Disease Causing Organism
that resembles eukaryotic cells is 22 Some hyperthermophilic Leaf blight of rice — Xanthomonas
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] organisms that grow in highly oryzae
(a) nucleus acidic habitats belong to the two Red strip of suga — Pseudomonas
(b) ribosomes groups called [CBSE AIPMT 2010] cane rubrilineans
(c) cell wall (a) eubacteria and archaea Fire blight of apple — Erwinia amylovora
(d) plasma membrane (b) cyanobacteria and diatoms Early blight of potato — Alternaria solani
25 Which one of the following 29 Organisms which obtain energy by Ans. (a)
statements about Mycoplasma is the oxidation of reduced inorganic Cyanobacteria (Gk. Kyanos = dark blue;
wrong? [CBSE AIPMT 2007] compounds are called bakterion = a staff) also known as
blue-green algae. It is a very important
(a) They are also called PPLO [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
group of photosynthetic bacteria in the
(b) They are pleomorphic (a) homoautotrophs history of life on earth.
(c) They are sensitive to penicillin (b) chemoautotrophs
The cyanobacteria fix atmospheric
(d) They cause disease in plants (c) saprozoic
nitrogen through the help of enzyme
Ans. (c) (d) coproheterotrophs
nitrogenase and also show oxygenic
Penicillin acts on cell wall and Ans. (b) photosynthetic.
Mycoplasma lacks cell wall. Thus The organisms obtaining energy by
Mycoplasma is not sensitive to chemical reactions independent of light
penicillin. Mycoplasma are inhibited by
33 What is true for photolithotrophs?
are called chemotrophs. The reductants [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
metabolic inhibitors like obtained from the environment may be
chloramphenicol and tetracyclin. (a) Obtain energy from radiations
inorganic (in case of chemoautotrophs)
and hydrogen from organic
or organic (in case of
26 Barophillic prokaryotes compounds
chemoheterotrophs).
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] (b) Obtain energy from radiations
Photoautotrophs organisms that make
(a) grow slowly in highly alkaline their own food by photosynthesis, using and hydrogen from inorganic
frozen takes at high altitudes the light energy. compounds
(b) occur in water containing high Saprozoic organisms obtain food from (c) Obtain energy from organic
concentrations of barium dead and decaying matter. compounds
hydroxide (d) Obtain energy from inorganic
(c) grow and multiply in very deep 30 In bacteria, plasmid is compounds
marine sediments [CBSE AIPMT 2002] Ans. (b)
(d) readily grown and divides in sea (a) extra-chromosomal material Photolithotrophs used light as energy
water enriched in any soluble salt (b) main DNA and inorganic electron donor (like
of barium (c) non-functional DNA H2 , H2 S) as hydrogen source. Purple
Ans. (c) (d) repetitive gene and green sulphur bacteria are
Barophillic prokaryotes grow and Ans. (a) examples of photolithotrophs.
multiply in very deep marine sediments.
Plasmid is an extrachromosomal
material capable of replicating
34 Photosynthetic bacteria have
27 A free living nitrogen fixing independently from the main
pigments in [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
cyanobacterium which can also chromosome. Plasmids usually possess (a) leucoplasts
form symbiotic association with the antibiotic resistance genes. (b) chloroplasts
water fern Azolla is (c) chromoplasts
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] 31 What is true for archaebacteria? (d) chromatophores
(a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella [CBSE AIPMT 2001] Ans. (d)
(c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena (a) All halophiles In photosynthetic bacteria, small
Ans. (d) (b) All photosynthetic particles of 60 µmdiameter, called
Anabaena is a free living nitrogen fixing (c) All fossils chromatophores, are present. These
cyanobacterium which can form (d) Oldest living beings are attached to the inner surface of
symbiotic association with water fern Ans. (d) the cell membrane, have no limiting
Azolla. membrane and possess
The archaebacteria are able to flourish in bacteriochlorophyll.
extreme conditions of environment that
28 Chromosomes in a bacterial cell Chloroplast, leucoplast and
are believed to have existed on the
chromoplasts are plastids present in
can be 1-3 in number and primitive earth. It is believed that these
eukaryotic cells.
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] represent the early forms of life. Hence,
(a) can be circular as well as linear (a) Chromoplasts Coloured plastids
archaebacteria are called ‘‘oldest living
except green, give different type
within the same cell beings’’.
of colour appearance to different
(b) are always circular parts of the plant.
(c) are always linear 32 What is true for cyanobacteria?
(b) Chloroplasts Green plastids take
(d) can be either circular or linear, but [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
part in the process of
never both within the same cell (a) Oxygenic with nitrogenase photosynthesis.
Ans. (b) (b) Oxygenic without nitrogenase
(c) Leucoplasts Colourless plastids,
(c) Non-oxygenic with nitrognase mainly function as store house of
Bacterial chromosomes are circular
DNA molecules. (d) Non-oxygenic without nitrogenase various types of food.
35 A few organisms are known to Mesosome works as mitochondia in 42 Temperature tolerance of thermal
grow and multiply at temperatures bacterial cell.
blue-green algae is due to
of 100-105°C. They belong to 39 In bacterial chromosomes, the [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
nucleic acid polymers are (a) cell wall structure
(a) marine archaebacteria [CBSE AIPMT 1996] (b) cell organisation
(b) thermophilic sulphur bacteria (a) linear DNA molecule (c) mitochondrial structure
(c) hot-spring blue-green algae (b) circular DNA molecule (d) homopolar bonds in their proteins
(cyanobacteria) Ans. (a)
(c) of two types — DNA and RNA
(d) thermophilic, subaerial fungi Cyanobacteria provide a good example
(d) linear RNA molecule
Ans. (a) of the adaptability of life to extremes of
Ans. (b)
The cell membrane of archaebacteria is environment (high temperature of hot
consists of branched chain lipids, long Nucleoid or chromatin body or springs and low temperature of polar
chain branched alcohols, phytanals, genophore in bacteria occupies 10-20% regions). It is due to their gelatinous
ether linked to glycerol. This helps them of cell, is present near the centre of sheath, that can withstand long periods
to withstand extreme conditions and cell. It consists of a single, circular DNA of desiccation. The compactness of
temperature. molecule in which all the genes are protein molecules and their bonds in
linked. It is over a thousand times the protoplasm also help the cells to
36 The hereditary material present in longer than the cell itself and is, face the extremes.
the bacterium Escherichia coli is therefore, highly folded. It lacks the
43 Escherichia coli is used extensively
[CBSE AIPMT 1997, 98] histone proteins.
in biological research as it is
(a) single stranded DNA
40 Sex factor in bacteria is [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(b) deoxyribose sugar
[CBSE AIPMT 1996] (a) easily cultured (b) easily available
(c) double stranded DNA
(a) chromosomal replicon (c) easy to handle
(d) single stranded RNA
(b) F-replicon (d) easily multiplied in host
Ans. (c)
(c) RNA Ans. (a)
Bacterial chromosome is single (d) sex-pilus
circular, double-stranded DNA Escherichia coli, a commensal
molecule. Ans. (b) bacterium is most studied bacterium
and widely used in research because it
Bacterial strains such as of E. coli show
is easily cultured on minimal medium
37 Bacterium divides every 35 sexual differences. Each male cell
and has fast rate of multiplication and
minutes. If a culture containing 10 5 possesses a sex factor or fertility factor short generation time.
cells per mL is grown for 175 called F-factor. Infact, it is a small
minutes, what will be the cell circular piece of DNA, self-replicating 44 Genophore bacterial genome or
like bacterial chromosome but only 1/100 nucleoid is made of
concentration per mL after 175 in size. The F-factor codes for the [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
minutes? [CBSE AIPMT 1998] protein of a special type of pilus, the sex (a) histones and non-histones
(a) 5 × 105 cells (b) 35 × 105 cells pilus which enables cell to cell contact (b) RNA and histones
(c) 32 × 105 cells (d) 175 × 105 cells and transfer of genetic material through
(c) a single double stranded DNA
Ans. (c) a conjugation tube.
(d) a single stranded DNA
35 min 70 min
1 × 10 5 → 2 × 10 5 → 4 × 10 5 41 The plasmid [CBSE AIPMT 1995] Ans. (c)
105 min 140 min
(a) helps in respiration In bacteria nucleoid or genophore is
→ 8 × 10 5 → 16 × 10 5 (b) genes found inside nucleus haploid and consists of single, naked,
175 min (c) is a component of cell wall of double stranded, circular ring like highly
→ 32 × 10 5 folded supercoiled DNA with no free
bacteria
ends, no histone proteins.
(d) is the genetic part in addition to
38 The site of respiration in bacteria The nucleoid of E. coli has a central
DNA in microorganisms core of RNA surrounded by about 50
is [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Ans. (d) super coilings of DNA which is then
(a) episome
Plasmids are small, self-replicating, associated with some basic proteins
(b) mesosome but never histones. Some proteins
extrachromosomal, non-essential
(c) ribosome like polyamines rich in alanine are also
genetic elements in bacteria. Each
(d) microsome found associated with DNA.
plasmid has a ring of circular,
Ans. (b) supercoiled, double stranded DNA. 45 Bacteria lack alternation of
The cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria They carry genes for replication and for generation because there is
is invaginated at certain places into the one or more cellular non-essential [CBSE AIPMT 1992, 91]
cytoplasm in the form of tubules, which functions. These are also called
are called mesosomes; on their surface (a) neither syngamy nor reduction
minichromosomes or dispensable
are found enzymes associated with division
autonomous elements.
respiration. (b) distinct chromosomes are absent
(c) no conjugation Other options are incorrect because 51 In which group of organisms the
(d) no exchange of genetic material Ciliates use filtre feeding mechanism
cell walls form two thin
Ans. (a) for obtaining food.
overlapping shells which fit
Like other protozoans, they also
Bacteria reproduces asexually by together? [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
possess contractile vacuoles.
transverse binary fission, conidia,
Ciliates use cilia for locomotion. (a) Chrysophytes (b) Euglenoids
budding, cyst and sporulation. No true
sexual reproduction (involving formation (c) Dinoflagellates (d) Slime moulds
of gametes, their fusion and meiosis) is 48 Chrysophytes, euglenoids, Ans. (a)
known to occur in bacteria. dinoflagellates and slime moulds
Chrysophytes are placed under the
However, in bacteria the transfer of are included in the kingdom
kingdom– Protista. This group includes
genetic material from donor to recipient [NEET 2016, Phase I]
diatoms and golden algae (desmids).
cell to bring genetic (a) Protista Most of them are photosynthetic. In
recombinations/variations is reported (b) Fungi diatoms, the cell walls form two thin
that occurs not through gametes/sex overlapping cells, which fit together as
(c) Animalia
cells, but by other methods like in a soap box.
conjugation, transduction and (d) Monera
transformation. It does not result in any Ans. (a) 52 What is common about
multiplication of cells.
All single celled eukaryotic organisms Trypanosoma, Noctiluca,
46 Which one belongs to the Monera? like chrysophytes [diatoms and
Monocystis and Giardia?
desmids], euglenoids [Euglena],
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
dinoflagellates and slime moulds are
(a) Amoeba (b) Escherichia included in kingdom–Protista. (a) These are all unicellular protists
(c) Gelidium (d) Spirogyra (b) They have flagella
Ans. (b) 49 Select the wrong statement. (c) They produce spores
The kingdom–Monera (Gr. monera = (d) These are all parasites
(a) The walls of diatoms are easily
simple) includes simple, prokaryotic Ans. (a)
destructible
primitive organisms. It includes bacteria,
archaebacteria, Actinomycetes, (b) ‘Diatomaceous earth’ is formed Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis
Mycoplasma, spirochaetes, rickettsiae, by the cell walls of diatoms and Giardia are all unicellular protists.
chlamydiae and cyanobacteria. (c) Diatoms are chief producers in Trypanosoma gambiense is the single
Escherichia coli is the most studied the oceans celled, parasitic zooflagellate causing
bacterium. E. coli is an enteric bacteria, (d) Diatoms are microscopic and trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness.
found in entire colon, secretes float passively in water Giardia or the ‘Grand old man of the
vitamin-K,B3 , B6 , B12 and folic acid. intestine’ is a parasitic flagellate
Ans. (a) occurring in the intestine of man and
Diatoms are single celled plant like other animals and causes giardiasis or
TOPIC 2 protists that produce intricately diarrhoea (i.e. very loose and frequent
Kingdom-Protista structured cell walls made of nano(–) stool containing large quantity of fat).
silica (SiO2 ). Thus, the walls are Noctiluca is a marine, colourless
indestructible. Hence, only option (a) is dinoflagellate. It is a voracious predator
47 Ciliates differ from all other wrong and rest of the options are and has a long, motile tentacle, near the
protozoans in [NEET 2018] correct. base of which, its single short flagellum
(a) using pseudopodia for capturing emerges.
prey 50 Pick up the wrong statement. Monocystis is a microscopic, unicellular
(b) having a contractile vacuole for [CBSE AIPMT 2015] endoparasitic protozoan found in the
removing excess water (a) Cell wall is absent in Animalia coelom and seminal vesicles of
(c) using flagella for locomotion (b) Protista have photosynthetic and earthworm. As it is an endoparasite, it
(d) having two types of nuclei heterotrophic modes of nutrition does not possess any special structure
for locomotion.
Ans. (d) (c) Some fungi are edible
Ciliates differ from all other protozoans (d) Nuclear membrane is present in 53 Auxospores and hormocysts are
in having two types of nuclei. Monera formed respectively by
These two nuclei are usually of different Ans. (d) [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
size, i.e. one is meganucleus and the In Protista kingdom members exhibit
(a) several diatoms and a few
other is micronucleus. The former both autotrophic as well as cyanobacteria
controls metabolism whereas the latter heterotrophic nutrition. Animal cells (b) several cyanobacteria and several
is concerned with reproductions, e.g. lack cell wall and there are a few fungi diatoms
paramecium. that are edible. Monera is the kingdom (c) some diatoms and several
In other protozoans, like Amoeba, that contains unicellular organisms cyanobacteria
single nucleus is present which is with a prokaryotic cell organisation, (d) some cyanobacteria and many
involved in metabolism and i.e. which lacks nuclear membrane and diatoms
reproduction. other membrane bound organelles.
Ans. (a) 56 The chief advantage of PKU autosomal recessive genetic

Auxospores and hormocysts are formed disorder characterised by homozygous
encystment to an Amoeba is
by several diatoms and a few or compound heterozygous mutation in
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
cyanobacteria respectively. the gene.
(a) the chance to get rid of
Bacillariophyceae members (diatoms)
accumulated waste products 59 Which of the following organisms
are microscopic, eukaryotic, unicellular
or colonial coccoid algae. These algae (b) the ability to survive during
possesses characteristics of both
are sexually reproduced by the adverse physical conditions
a plant and an animal?
formation of auxospores in most cases. (c) the ability to live for some time
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
Bozi (1914) and Fermi (1930) reported without ingesting food
that short sections of living cells at the
(a) Bacteria (b) Mycoplasma
(d) protection from parasites and
tips of the trichomes of Wertiella lanosa predators (c) Euglena (d) Paramecium
become invested by a thick, lamellated, Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
pigmented sheath. Such mullticellular
Encystment of Amoeba is occurred Euglena is a connecting link between
spore like structures function as
regularly to tide over unfavourable animals and plants. Euglena contains
perennating bodies. They are specially
conditions like drought and extreme chlorophyll, yet it resembles animals,
modified hormogones and are called
temperature, etc. During these because it feeds like animals in the
hormospores or hormocysts.
conditions, the Amoeba forms a absence of sunlight. It resembles the
covering or cyst wall around itself. ancestral form from which the plants
54 Which of the following unicellular and animals evolved.
Thus, it is an adaptation to sunrise
organism has a macro-nucleus for
during adverse conditions
trophic function and one or more (extranuclear inheritance adverse 60 Macro and micronucleus are the
micro-nuclei for reproduction? condition). characteristic feature of
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] [CBSE AIPMT 1995, 2002, 05]
(a) Euglena (b) Amoeba 57 In which animal, dimorphic (a) Paramecium and Vorticella
(c) Paramecium (d)Trypanosoma nucleus is found? (b) Opelina and Nictothirus
Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 2002] (c) Hydra and Ballantidium
(a) Amoeba (d) Vorticella and Nictothirus
Paramecium is a heterokaryotic
organism, i.e. it has two nuclei near the (b) Trypanosoma gambiense Ans. (a)
cytostome (oral-shaped opening called (c) Plasmodium vivax Paramecium and Vorticella have
mouth). The macronucleus, which is a (d) Paramecium caudatum dimorphic nuclei (heterokaryotic).
conspicuous larger ellipsoidal Micronucleus that is inactive except
Ans. (d)
vegetative nucleus, divides amitotically during cell division and houses the
and controls the vegetative characters Paramecium is heterokaryotic, it master copy of the genome.
and micronucleus is a small compact possesses a dimorphic nuclear Macronucleus controls daily synthetic
reproductive nucleus which divides apparatus (a single large macronucleus activities or on going metabolic
mitotically and controls the which controls metabolism and one or functions of the cell and asexual
reproduction. more small micronuclei concerned with reproduction. Macronucleus contains
reproduction). multiple copies of DNA.
55 When a freshwater protozoan
possessing a contractile vacuole is 58 Extranuclear inheritance occurs in 61 When a freshwater protozoan
placed in a glass containing [CBSE AIPMT 2001] possessing a contractile vacuole,
marine water, the vacuole will (a) killer strain in Paramecium is placed in a glass containing
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] (b) colour blindness marine water, the vacuole will
(a) increase in number (c) phenylketonuria [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(b) disappear (d) Tay Sachs disease (a) increase in number
(c) increase in size (b) disappear
Ans. (a)
(d) decrease in size (c) increase in size
Paramecium exhibits cytoplasmic (d) decrease in size
Ans. (b)
inheritance due to the presence of
Fresh water protozoans live in Kappa particles (self replicating bodies Ans. (b)
hypotonic environment so, for that produce toxin called paramecin). Freshwater protozoans live in hypotonic
regulation of excess of water which Besides binary fission and conjugation solution so, for regulation of excess of
comes in the protoplasm through the other reproductive processes that water which comes in the protoplasm
process of endosmosis, contractile occurs in Paramecium are autogamy, through the process of endosmosis,
vacuoles have developed. When these endomixis and cytogamy. contractile vacuoles have developed.
protozoans are placed in marine water, Tay Sachs disease It is a rare When these protozoans are placed in
i.e. hypertonic water, the contractile autosomal recessive genetic disorder. marine water, i.e. hypertonic water, the
vacuoles become disappear because contractile vacuoles disappear because
Colour blindness It is X-chromosome
the process of endosmosis does not the process of endosmosis does not
related disease. So, it is a sex-linked
occur and thus, water does not come in happen and thus, water does not come
disease.
the protoplasm. in the protoplasm.
62 In Protozoa like Amoeba and 65 Entamoeba coli causes 69 Genetic information in

Paramecium, an organelle is [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Paramecium is contained in
found for osmoregulation which is (a) pyorrhoea [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] (b) diarrhoea (a) micronucleus
(a) contractile vacuole (c) dysentery (b) macronucleus
(b) mitochondria (d) None of these (c) Both (a) and (b)
(c) nucleus Ans. (d) (d) mitochondria
(d) food vacuole Ans. (a)
Entamoeba coli is the common parasitic
Ans. (a) genera of phylum—Protozoa. It Ciliates (Paramecium) show nuclear
Unicellular organisms such as Amoeba, harbours the upper part of large dimorphism, large macronucleus
Paramecium have some organelles intestine (colon) and very often in the controls metabolic activities and
called contractile vacuole for excretion. liver, brain and testes and causes growth. It is called vegetative nucleus.
These are freshwater animals, i.e. they constipation. Micronucleus contains genetic
live in hypotonic solution. Therefore, informatioin and thus, takes part in
66 Protists obtain food as reproduction.
water flows from outside to inside of [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
the body of the organism.
(a) photosynthesisers, symbionts and 70 Plasmodium, the malarial parasite,
The contractile vacuoles in these
holotrophs belongs to class
organisms collect this excess water and
gradually increase in size. When the (b) photosynthesisers [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
vacuoles reach a critical size they (c) chemosynthesisers (a) Sarcodina
contract, squeezing out their contents (d) holotrophs (b) Ciliata
through the process of simple Ans. (a)
diffusion. (c) Sporozoa
Protistans have variable modes of (d) Dinophyceae
63 Excretion in Amoeba occurs nutrition. They are photosynthetic
through Ans. (c)
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] heterotrophic, i.e. saprophytic,
(a) lobopodia parasitic and ingestive. Plasmodium, the malarial parasite
belongs to class—Sporozoa.
(b) uroid portion
67 African sleeping sickness is due to Sporozoans are intracellular parasites,
(c) plasma membrane reproduce by multiple fission and life
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(d) contractile vacuole cycle may include the two different
(a) Plasmodium vivax transmitted by
Ans. (d) hosts.
tse-tse fly
Endoplasm of Amoeba in the posterior (b) Trypanosoma lewsii transmitted by
part contains a single clear rounded and 71 What is true about Trypanosoma?
bed bug [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
pulsating contractile vacuole.
Contractile vacuole is analogous to
(c) Trypanosoma gambiense (a) Polymorphic
uriniferous tubules of frog, it functions transmitted by Glossina palpalis (b) Monogenetic
in excretion and osmoregulation. (d) Entamoeba gingivalis spread by (c) Facultative parasite
house fly
64 Protistan genome has (d) Non-pathogenic
Ans. (c)
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] Ans. (a)
The disease African sleeping sickness
(a) membrane bound nucleoproteins Trypanosoma is an obligate parasite, it
is caused by Trypanosoma gambiense
embedded in cytoplasm is digenetic polymorphic (Trypanosoma
and this is transmitted by tse-tse fly
(b) free nucleic acid aggregates is adult form in human, whereas,
(Glossina palpalis).
(c) gene containing nucleoproteins crithidal and leptomonal are
68 In Amoeba and Paramecium developmental forms in tse-tse fly).
condensed together in loose mass
(d) nucleoprotein in direct contact osmoregulation occurs through
72 Trypanosoma belongs to class
with cell substance [CBSE AIPMT 1991, 95, 2002]
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (a) (a) pseudopodia
(a) Sarcodina (b) Zooflagellata
(b) nucleus
Eukaryotic (e.g. protistan) genome is (c) Ciliata (d) Sporozoa
organised in the form of nucleus. It is (c) contractile vacuole
(d) general surface Ans. (b)
differentiated into nuclear envelope,
chromatin, one or more nucleoli and Ans. (c) Zooflagellates are protozoan parasites
nucleoplasm. Nuclear DNA is linear, which possess one to several flagella
Amoeba and Paramecium contains two for locomotion. They are generally
associated with histone proteins. A
contractile vacuoles (anterior and uninucleate (occasionally
small quantity of DNA is also found in
posterior, the latter being faster) for multinucleate), body is covered by a
the plastids and mitochondria. In
osmoregulation, i.e. maintaining water firm pellicle, e.g. Trypanosoma,
contrast, prokaryotic (bacterial) DNA is
balance in the body. Leishmania, Trichomonas, etc.
circular and lies freely in the cytoplasm.
TOPIC 3 Ans. (b) 80 Which one of the following has

In fungi, cell wall contains chitin or haplontic life cycle?
Kingdom-Fungi cellulose along with other [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
polysaccharides, proteins and lipids. (a) Funaria
73 Select the wrong statement. Only in some fungi, e.g. Phytophthora or
other oomycetes a purely cellulosic cell (b) Polytrichum
[NEET 2018]
wall is present. Hence, only option (b) is (c) Ustilago
(a) Pseudopodia are locomotory and
wrong, rest of the options are correct. (d) Wheat
feeding structures in sporozoans
(b) Mushrooms belong to Concept Enhancer Chitin is chemically Ans. (c)
N-acetyl glucosamine. The exoskeleton
Basidiomycetes Ustilago has haplontic life cycle. In
of insects also contains this chemical.
(c) Cell wall is present in members of their sexual phase, only zygospore is
Fungi and Plantae diploid structure. All others are
(d) Mitochondria are the powerhouse 77 Choose the wrong statement. haploid, such a sexual cycle is termed
of the cell in all kingdoms except [CBSE AIPMT 2015] as haploid or haplontic.
Monera (a) Penicillium is multicellular and
produces antibiotics
Ans. (a) 81 Which one is the wrong pairing
(b) Neurospora is used in the study of
Sporozoans are endoparasites. They for the disease and its causal
biochemical genetics
lack locomotory organelles like cilia, organism? [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
(c) Morels and truffles are poisonous
flagella, pseudopodia, etc., e.g. (a) Late blight of potato
mushrooms
Plasmodium. Pseudopodia are found in — Alternaria solani
amoeboid protozoans, e.g., Amoeba, (d) Yeast is unicellular and useful in
fermentation (b) Black rust of wheat
Entamoeba, etc. Therefore, statement — Puccinia graminis
(a) is wrong while rest of the Ans. (c)
statements are correct. (c) Loose smut of wheat
All statements are correct, except
statement (c), which can be corrected as
— Ustilago nuda
74 Which of the following would Morels and truffles are edible and (d) Root-knot of vegetables
appear as the pioneer organisms members of Ascomycetes in fungi. — Meloidogyne sp.
on bare rocks? [NEET 2016, Phase I] Ans. (a)
(a) Liverworts (b) Mosses 78 The imperfect fungi which are The causative agent of late blight of
(c) Green algae (d) Lichens decomposers of litter and help in potato is fungus Phytophthora infestans,
Ans. (d) mineral cycling belong to class–Oomycetes,
order–Peronosporales,
In primary succession on rocks, lichens [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
family–Pythiaceae. In India, the late
secrete acids to dissolve rock, helps in (a) Deuteromycetes (b) Basidiomycetes blight of potato is a seed borne
weathering and soil formation. So, (c) Phycomycetes (d) Ascomycetes disease.
lichens are pioneer species to colonise
the bare rock. Ans. (a)
The imperfecti fungi which are 82 Trichoderma harzianum has
75 One of the major components of decomposers of litter and help in proved a useful microorganism
cell wall of most fungi is mineral cycling belong to
for [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
[NEET 2016, Phase I] Deuteromycetes. They are fungi which
do not fit into the commonly established (a) bioremediation of contaminated
(a) peptidoglycan (b) cellulose soils
taxonomic classification of fungi. They
(c) hemicellulose (d) chitin include all those fungi in which the (b) reclamation of wastelands
Ans. (d) perfect stage (sexual stage) is not (c) gene transfer in higher plants
Cell wall of most fungi is made up of reported. (d) biological control of soil-borne
chitin. Chemically it is N-acetyl plant pathogens
glucosamine. It is also found in the 79 The highest number of species in
Ans. (d)
exoskeleton of insects. the world is represented by
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] Some common fungal inhabitants of
76 Which one of the following is soil help to combat diseases caused by
(a) fungi (b) mosses
wrong for fungi? soil borne plant pathogens. These
(c) algae (d) lichens include Trichoderma harzianum which
Ans. (a) are found in damp soils. They have an
(a) They are eukaryotic inhibitory effect on the growth of the
(b) All fungi possess a purely Fungi represent the highest number of
species in the world. Around 100000 mycelium of Pythium. They serve to
cellulosic cell wall supress fungi causing damping off
species of fungi have been formally
(c) They are heterotrophic described by taxonomists but the global disease of the seedlings and thereby
(d) They are both unicellular and biodiversity of kingdom—Fungi is not influence favourably the growth of
multicellular fully understood. crops.
83 Cellulose is the major component Myxomycetes are called slime molds Ans. (a)
because they contain and secrete
of cell walls of [CBSE AIPMT 2008] Lichen is a symbiotic association
slime. They are included in lower fungi.
(a) Pythium (b) Xanthomonas between a fungus and an algae. The
Their somatic phase is a multinucleate,
fungal partner of lichen helps in the
(c) Pseudomonas (d) Saccharomyces diploid holocarpic Plasmodium (a
absorption of water and mineral to algal
product of syngamy).
Ans. (a) partner. It also provides protection and
In Plasmodium, propagation occurs anchorage to algal partner of lichen. In
Cellulose does occur in cell walls of
through fission or thick walled cysts or exchange of this, the fungal partner
Oomycetes (e.g. Pythium) and
sclerotium like structures. absorbs prepared food material from
Hyphochytridiomycetes. Fungal cell
Reproduction takes place by the algal partner. This food material
wall contains 80–90% carbohydrates,
formation of uninucleate, thick walled is prepared by the algal partner of
the remainder being proteins and lipids.
resting spores which are produced lichen through the process of
The typical feature of fungal cell wall is photosynthesis.
within minute fruiting bodies like
presence of chitin.
structures, i.e. the sporangia.
84 Which of the following is a slime Fruiting bodies and mycelium are 90 Lichens are well known
absent in lower fungi. Protonema is not combination of an alga and a
mold? [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
formed in fungi.
(a) Rhizopus (b) Physarum
fungus where fungus has
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(c) Thiobacillus (d) Anabaena 88 Which of the following (a) a saprophytic relationship with the
Ans. (b) environmental conditions are alga
The genus Physarum with about 100 essential for optimum growth of (b) an epiphytic relationship with the
species is the largest and Mucor on a piece of bread? alga
best-studied slime mold in the [CBSE AIPMT 2006] (c) a parasitic relationship with the
class–Myxomycetes. (i) Temperature of about 25°C alga
(ii) Temperature of about 5°C (d) a symbiotic relationship with the
85 Ergot of rye is caused by a species alga
of [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(iii) Relative humidity of about 5%
(iv) Relative humidity of about 95% Ans. (d)
(a) Phytophthora (b) Uncinula
(v) A shady place Lichen is a symbiotic association
(c) Ustilago (d) Claviceps
(vi) A brightly illuminated place between a fungus and an alga. The
Ans. (d) fungal part is called mycobiont while
Choose the answer from the
The fungus Claviceps purpurea is the algal part is called phycobiont. The
responsible for ergot disease of rye which
following options fungi absorb mineral and water to algae
lowers the yield of rye plant. (a) (i), (iv) and (v) only and the algae synthesise food by
(b) (ii), (iv) and (v) only photosynthesis.
86 Which pair of the following (c) (ii), (iii) and (vi) only
belongs to Basidiomycetes? (d) (i), (iii) and (v) only 91 During the formation of bread it
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] becomes porous due to the
Ans. (a)
(a) Birds nest fungi and puff balls release of CO2 by the action of
(b) Puff balls and Claviceps Mucor shows the best growth on a [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
piece of bread at a temperature of
(c) Peziza and stink horns (a) yeast (b) bacteria
about 25°C, relative humidity of about
(d) Morchella and mushrooms 95% in a moist and shady place. Mucor (c) virus (d) protozoans
Ans. (a) is a saprophytic fungus belonging to Ans. (a)
Birds nest fungi (Nidulariales) and puff the order–Mucorales and Strains of Saccharomyces cerevisiae
ball fungi (Lycoperdales) belongs to family–Mucoraceae and grows on are extensively used for leavening of
Basidiomycetes. The common example decaying dung and on some food bread. During fermentation, the
of class–Basidiomycetes are smut, rusts, stuffs. yeasts produce alcohol and CO2 which
the mushrooms, the toad stools, the leaves the bread porous.
puff balls and the pore fungi. 89 There exists a close association
between the alga and the fungus 92 Which fungal disease spreads by
87 The thalloid body of a slime mold within a lichen. The fungus seed and flowers?
(Myxomycetes) is known as [CBSE AIPMT 2005] [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] (a) provides protection, anchorage (a) Loose smut of wheat
(a) Plasmodium (b) fruiting body and absorption for the alga
(b) Corn stunt
(c) mycelium (d) protonema (b) provides food for the alga
(c) Covered smut of barley
Ans. (a) (c) fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for
the alga (d) Soft rot of potato
The thalloid body of a slime mould is
known as Plasmodium. The members of (d) release oxygen for the alga
Ans. (a) Glucose is the most widely distributed 100 Most of the lichens consist of
hexose sugar. It is an aldohexose reducing [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Fungal disease, loose smut of wheat
sugar. It is found in blood muscles and
spreads by seed and flowers. The (a) blue-green algae and
brain and works as energy fuel.
causal organism of this disease is Basidomycetes
Ustilago fungus. It is an internal Sucrose is a non-reducing disaccharide
consists of one glucose and one (b) blue-green algae and
parasite. It has a dikaryotic mycelium Ascomycetes
which remains within the intercellular fructose molecules. It is one of the
spaces of the host tissue. abundant transport sugar in plants. (c) red algae and Ascomycetes
This fungus infects the ovary of the (d) brown algae and Phycomycetes
host flower as a result of which the 96 Black rust of wheat is caused by Ans. (b)
masses of teliospores or brand spores [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
Lichens consist of the fungal
are formed in place of grains. (a) Puccinia (b) Mucor
component mycobiont, mainly
Teliospores are not surrounded by any (c) Aspergillus (d) Rhizopus
Ascomycotina (only a few
wall hence, called loose smut.
Ans. (a) Basidiomycotina and Deuteromycotina)
Black rust of wheat is caused by and the algal component, phycobiont
93 Plant decomposers are which are mostly blue-green algae
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
Puccinia graminis tritici. This is the
potential cause of enormous economic (Nostoc, Scytonema) or green algae
(a) Monera and Fungi loss in all wheat growing regions of the (Trebouxia, Trentophila, etc.)
(b) Fungi and Plants world. Puccinia graminis tritici usually
(c) Protista and Animalia passes its life cycle on two different 101 Which one of the following is not
hosts, wheat and barbery. true about lichens?
(d) Animalia and Monera
[CBSE AIPMT 1996]
Ans. (a) 97 Which of the following is the use of (a) Their body is composed of both
Decomposers are living components lichens in case of pollution? algal and fungal cells
chiefly the bacteria and fungi that [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(b) Some form food for reindeers in
breakdown the complex compounds of (a) Lichens are not related with
Arctic regions
dead protoplasm of producers and pollution
(c) Some species can be used as
consumers absorb some products and (b) They act as bioindicators of
release others.
pollution indicators
pollution
(d) These grow very fast at the rate
(c) They treat the polluted water
94 Adhesive pad of fungi penetrates of about 2 cm per year
(d) They promote pollution
the host with the help of Ans. (d)
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
Ans. (b)
Statement (d) is incorrect because
(a) mechanical pressure and enzymes Growth of lichens on trees is inhibited by lichens show very slow growth. Their
(b) hooks and suckers air pollution. Hence, atmospheric size and slow rate of growth suggest
pollution causes decrease in their that some lichens in the Arctic are
(c) softening by enzymes populations. So, lichens are biological 4000 years ago.
(d) only by mechanical pressure indicators of pollution.
Ans. (a) 102 Which of the following is not
98 Columella is a specialised
Cell wall degrading enzymes structure found in the sporangium correctly matched?
(cellulolytic, pectolytic) as well as [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
mechanical pressure of adhesive pad (a) Root knot disease
(appressorium) help the fungus in (a) Ulothrix (b) Rhizopus
(c) Spirogyra (d) None of these — Meloidogyne javanica
penetrating the host.
(b) Smut of bajra
Ans. (b)
— Tolysporium penicillariae
95 In fungi stored food material is In Rhizopus, the central non-sporiferous
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] (c) Covered smut of barley
region of sporangium is called
— Ustilago nuda
(a) glycogen (b) starch columella.
(d) Late blight of potato
(c) sucrose (d) glucose
99 Puccinia forms [CBSE AIPMT 1998] — Phytophthora infestans
Ans. (a) (a) uredia and aecia on wheat leaves Ans. (c)
Glycogen, also known as ‘animal starch’, (b) uredia and telia on wheat leaves
is the chief storage polysaccharide of Option ‘c’ is mismatched because the
(c) uredia and aecia on barbery leaves smuts in which sori are covered by the
animal cells and most of the fungi
(d) uredia and pycnia on barbery leaves membranous covering or peridium are
(though food is also stored as oil
globules in some fungi). Ans. (b) called covered smuts. These are
caused by Ustilago hordei, in which the
Starch is a complex water insoluble Puccinia graminis tritici (fungus) causes
sorus or smut ball is covered by a
polysaccharide carbohydrate chiefly black rust of wheat. It forms
found in green plants as their principal peridium of host cells. Ustilago nuda is
Urediospores (uredia) and teleutospores
energy (food) source. responsible for causing loose smut of
(telia) on wheat leaves.
barley.
103 The chemical compounds In ectomycorrhiza, the ultimate Ans. (a)

absorbing rootlets of the root system Option (b),(c) and (d) are correct
produced by the host plants to
are completely surrounded by a distinct whereas option (a) is incorrect because
protect themselves against fungal mantle or sheath of fungal tissue. In
infection is Inclusion bodies are nuclear or
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] endomycorrhiza, there is no such
cytoplasmic aggregates of proteins.
(a) phytotoxin (b) pathogen sheath. Most of the fungus is within the
They represent sites of viral
(c) phytoalexins (d) hormone root and may be intracellular as well as
multiplication in a bacterium or a
intercellular.
Ans. (c) eukaryotic cell and usually consist of
107 Absorptive heterotrophic nutrition viral capsid proteins.These are not
Phytoalexins are chemical substances involved in ingestion of food particles.
produced by plants in response to is exhibited by [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
fungal infection and are toxic to fungi. (a) algae (b) fungi 110 Which of the following statements
(c) bryophytes (d) pteridophytes is incorrect? [NEET (National) 2019]
104 White rust disease is caused by
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] Ans. (b) (a) Viruses are obligate parasites
(a) Claviceps (b) Infective constituent in viruses is
Fungi are heterotrophic, e.g. these
(b) Alternaria require an organic source of carbon, the protein coat
(c) Phytophthora also require some source of nitrogen, (c) Prions consist of abnormally
(d) Albugo candida inorganic ions (K + , Mg + ), trace folded proteins
elements (Fe, Zn, Cu) and growth (d) Viroids lack a protein coat
Ans. (d) factors like vitamins. Fungi may act as
saprobes and parasites. They obtain Ans. (b)
Albugo candida (Oomycetes) is an
obligate parasite commonly found nutrition from host by means of special The statement “infective constituent in
parastising a wide range of crucifers. It structures called haustoria and exhibit viruses is protein coat” is incorrect. The
causes a disease called white rust or absorptive or holophytic type of correct information about the
blister rust of crucifers resulting in nutrition. statement is as follows. Viruses infect
economically significant losses in the their host organisms through their
yield of turnip, rape and mustard. 108 Lichens indicate SO2 pollution genetic material, i.e either DNA or RNA
and not protein. They take over the
because they [CBSE AIPMT 1989, 92] biosynthetic machinery of the host cell
105 Ustilago caused plant diseases are
(a) show association between algae and produce chemicals required for
called smuts because
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
and fungi their own multiplication. Rest
(b) grow faster than others statements are correct.
(a) they parasitise cereals
(b) Mycelium is black (c) are sensitive to SO 2
111 Viroids differ from viruses in
(c) they develop sooty masses of (d) flourish in SO 2 rich environment
having [NEET 2017]
spores Ans. (c) (a) DNA molecules with protein coat
(d) affected parts become completely Lichens, the composite organisms
black (b) DNA molecules without protein
consist of a specific fungus living in coat
Ans. (c) symbiotic association with one or
(c) RNA molecules with protein coat
sometimes, two species of algae.
The genus Ustilago (L. ustus = burnt) (d) RNA molecules without protein
Lichens are world-wide in distribution.
includes the group of fungi producing coat
These are pioneer colonisers of barren
black, sooty powder mass of spores on
rocks and mountains. Being extremely Ans. (d)
the host plant parts imparting them a
sensitive toSO2 , the lichens especially Viroids differ from viruses in having
'burnt' appearance, hence, the name,
epiphytic lichens serve as bioindicators RNA molecules without protein coat.
the black dusty masses of spores
air pollution. Viruses on the other hand posses DNA
produced by these fungi resemble soot
or smut, so these are also known as or RNA with a protein coat as their
smut fungi. TOPIC 4 genetic material.
Viruses can infect a wide range of
106 Mycorrhiza represents Virus and Viroids organisms including plants, animals or
[CBSE AIPMT 1994, 96, 2003] bacteria, while viroids infect only
(a) antagonism (b) endemism 109 Which of the following statements plants.
(c) symbiosis (d) parasitism about inclusion bodies is
incorrect? [NEET (Sep.) 2020] 112 Which of the following statements
Ans. (c)
(a) These are involved in ingestion of is wrong for viroids?
Mycorrhiza (mykes = mushroom + rhiza = [NEET 2016 Phase I]
root) represents a symbiotic
food particles
(b) They lie free in the cytoplasm (a) They are smaller than viruses
association of fungi with the roots of
(c) These represent reserve material (b) They cause infections
higher plant. Mycorrhiza meaning
fungus root is an infected root system in cytoplasm (c) Their RNA is of high molecular
arising from the rootlets of a seed (d) They are not bound by any weight
plant. membrane (d) They lack a protein coat
Ans. (c) (c) They have ability to synthesise Ans. (b)

Viroids are infectious, non-protein- nucleic acids and proteins When bacteriophage infects a
coding, highly structured with small (d) Antibiotics have no effect on them bacterium, it entirely depends on the
circular RNA’s, which have the ability to Ans. (b) host for its multiplication. It utilises the
replicate autonomously. These contain host machinery for replication and
RNA of low molecular weight and The nucleocapsids of viruses are produce a large number of progeny
induce diseases in higher plants. constructed in highly symmetric ways. (phage particles). The bacterium cell
Two types of symmetry are recognised undergoes lysis and dies to liberate a
in viruses, which correspond to the two large number of these phage particles
113 Select wrong statement. primary shapes, rod and spherical.
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] which are ready to start another cycle
Rod-shaped viruses have helical by infecting new bacterial cell. This
(a) The viroids were discovered by DJ symmetry and spherical viruses have cycle is known as lytic cycle.
Ivanowski icosahedral symmetry.
(b) WM Stanley showed that viruses
could be crystallised 116 Virus envelope is known as 119 Which of the following statements
(c) The term ‘Contagium vivum [CBSE AIPMT 2010] is not true for retroviruses?
fluidum’ was coined by MW [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(a) capsid
Beijerinek (b) virion (a) DNA is not present at any stage in
(d) Mosaic disease in tobacco and (c) nucleoprotein the life cycle of retroviruses
AIDS in human being are caused (d) core (b) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA
by viruses dependent DNA polymerase
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) (c) The genetic material in mature
Structurally viruses are very diverse retroviruses is RNA
All statements are correct except the varying widely in size, shape and (d) Retroviruses are causative agents
statement (a), which can be corrected as chemical composition. The nucleic acid
for certain kinds of cancer in man
Viroids were discovered by TO Diener in of virus is always located within the
virion particle and surrounded by a Ans. (a)
1971 as a new infectious agent that was
smaller than virus. protein shell called capsid. Retroviruses are so, named because
The protein coat is composed of a they contain enzyme reverse
114 Which of the following shows number of individual protein molecules transcriptase or RNA dependent DNA
called structural subunits. The polymerase. The genetic material of
coiled RNA strand and these viruses is RNA, e.g. Rous
complete complex of nucleic acid and
capsomeres? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] proteins, packaged in the virion is called Sarcoma Virus.
(a) Polio virus the virus nucleocapsid.
(b) Tobacco mosaic virus 120 Viruses are no more ‘alive’ than
(c) Measles virus 117 TO Diener discovered a isolated chromosomes because
(d) Retrovirus [CBSE AIPMT 2009] [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
Ans. (b) (a) free infectious RNA (a) both require the environment of a
In TMV RNA is single stranded (ss)
(b) free infectious DNA cell to replicate
helically coiled structure containing (c) infectious protein (b) they require both RNA and DNA
about 2130 capsomeres, which is a (d) bacteriophage (c) they both need food molecules
basic subunit of capsid (an outer Ans. (a) (d) they both require oxygen for
covering of protein that protects the Viroids are small, circular, single respiration
genetic material of a virus). stranded free infectious RNA molecules Ans. (a)
RNA that are the smallest known pathogens.
Viruses are non-cellular obligate
strand The extracellular form of the viroid is
parasite. In the free state they are just
naked RNA, i.e. there is no protein
2.3 cm like the particles. They do not have their
capsid of any kind.
own metabolic machinery and use
These RNA molecule contains no host’s machinery for multiplication.
protein encoding genes and therefore,
Capsomeres the viroid is totally dependent on host
for its replication. No viroid diseases of 121 Which one of the following
18 mm animals are known and the precise statements about viruses is
mechanisms by which viroids cause correct? [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
There are about 16 capsomeres present plant diseases remain unclear. (a) Nucleic acid of viruses is known
in each helical turn.
as capsid
118 Viruses that infect bacteria, (b) Viruses possess their own
115 Which statement is wrong for multiply and cause their lysis are metabolic system
viruses? [CBSE AIPMT 2012] called [CBSE AIPMT 2004] (c) All viruses contain both RNA and
(a) All are parasites (a) lysozymes (b) lytic DNA
(b) All of them have helical symmetry (c) lipolytic (d) lysogenic (d) Viruses are obligate parasites
Ans. (d) 124 Cauliflower mosaic virus contains 126 Influenza virus has
Viruses are non-cellular, obligate [CBSE AIPMT 2001] [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
parasites. They have DNA or RNA as (a) ssRNA (a) DNA
genetic material (never both). Genetic (b) dsRNA (b) RNA
material of virus is covered in protein
(c) dsDNA (c) Both (a) and (b)
coat, known as capsid. Viruses do not
contain their own metabolic system (d) ssDNA (d) Only proteins and no nucleic
instead they occupy host’s metabolic Ans. (c) acids
system after entrance in them. Caulimovirus (Cauliflower Mosaic Virus) Ans. (b)
contains double stranded (ds) DNA. Influenza virus is single (–) stranded
122 Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular Influenza virus contains single RNA virus, which cannot serve directly
filament of size [CBSE AIPMT 2003] stranded RNA (ssRNA). as mRNA but rather as templates for
(a) 700 × 30 nm Parvovirus contains single stranded mRNA synthesis via a viral
(b) 300 × 10 nm DNA (ssDNA). transcriptase. Influenza virus
(c) 300 × 5 nm (orthomyxo virus) infects the
125 Which one of the following respiratory tract and cause influenza.
(d) 300 × 18 nm
Ans. (d) statements about viruses is
correct? [CBSE AIPMT 1997] 127 Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) genes
TMV is elongated rod-like, 3000Å
(300 nm) long and 180Å (18 nm) in (a) Viruses possess their own are [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
diameter. metabolic system (a) double stranded RNA
(b) Viruses contain either DNA or (b) single stranded RNA
123 Interferons are synthesised in RNA (c) polyribonucleotides
response to [CBSE AIPMT 2001] (c) Viruses are facultative parasites (d) proteinaceous
(a) Mycoplasma (b) bacteria (d) Viruses are readily killed by Ans. (b)
(c) viruses (d) fungi antibiotics
Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) is
Ans. (c) Ans. (b) elongated, rod shaped, most thoroughly
Cells infected by virus produce Viruses contain only one type of studied plant virus, with 95% protein
interferon which is an antiviral protein. It nucleic acid DNA or RNA. These are and 5% RNA by weight. RNA is genomic,
spreads to neighbouring cells and obligate parasites; do not possess i.e. genetic material which is single
makes them resistant to virus infections metabolic machinery and are not stranded, linear, helically coiled, 5mµ in
by inhibiting viral growth. readily killed by antibiotics. length with 6500 nucleotides long.
03
Plant Kingdom
TOPIC 1 oogamy. In isogamy and anisogamy
Algae 03 Phycoerythrin is the major both the gametes are motile while in
pigment in [NEET (Oct.) 2020] oogamy only male gametes are motile.
(a) red algae These motile gametes have two
01 Which of the following algae unequal laterally attached flagella.
contains mannitol as reserve food (b) blue-green algae
(c) green algae Chlorella is a unicellular organism. It
material ? [NEET 2021] is green algae belonging to class
(d) brown algae
(a) Ectocarpus (b) Gracilaria Chlorophyta. In Marchantia, gemma
Ans. (a)
(c) Volvox (d) Ulothrix cups are found on its dorsal surface.
Phycoerythrin is the major pigment in It contains gammae which help in
Ans. (a) red algae or rhodophytes. The vegetative propagation.
Ectocarpus is a cosmopolitan marine photosynthetic pigments in red algae
brown seaweed. Mannitol is stored as a include chlorophyll-a, carotenoids and 06 Zygotic meiosis is characteristic
food reserve in Ectocarpus. phycobilins. Phycoerythrin belongs to
the phycobilins. These pigments are of [NEET 2017]
Other options can be explained as :
soluble in water. (a) Marchantia (b) Fucus
● Gracilaria is also a type of red algae
(c) Funaria (d) Chlamydomonas
that is notable for its economic 04 Which of the following pairs is of
importance. Reserved food found in Ans. (d)
unicellular algae? [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Gracilaria is in the form of floridean Zygotic meiosis is represented in the
starch, which is similar to amylopectin (a) Gelidium and Gracilaria haplontic life cycle of many algae
and glycogen in structure. (b) Anabaena and Volvox including
(c) Chlorella and Spirulina Chlamydomonas. In such a life cycle, all
● In Volvox (green algae), stored food
(d) Laminaria and Sargassum cells are haploid except zygote. This is
material is starch and the major
pigments are chlorophyll a and d. Ans. (c) because meiosis occurs in the zygote
Some may store food as oil droplets. Chlorella and Spirulina are unicellular itself resulting into four haploid cells
algae as they are rich in proteins and that give rise to hapolid plants.
● Ulothrix is a genus of non-branching
filamentous green algae, starch hence used as food supplements by Zygote

space travellers. Gelidium, Gracilaria, Sy (2n) Meiosis
molecule is the reserved food. ng
Laminaria and Sargassum are am
y Spores
02 Which of the following algae multicellular. Volvox is colonial. A (n)
produces carrageen? [NEET 2021] 05 Which one is wrongly matched? B
Gametogenesis
(a) Green algae [NEET 2018] Haplontic
(b) Brown algae
(a) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(c) Red algae (b) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown
(d) Blue-green algae algae
Ans. (c) (c) Uniflagellate gametes – Gametophyte
(n)
Carrageen is a common name give to Polysiphonia
polysaccharides (carbohydrates) that Life cycle pattern : Haplontic
(d) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
are extracted from seaweeds like red
Ans. (c)
algae. Carrageen is known for its gelling
properties and it is one of the industrial Polysiphonia is a red algae. In it sexual 07 An example of colonial alga is
source of carrageenan that is utilised reproduction is of oogamous type. The (a) Chlorella [NEET 2017]
as a stabilizer and thickner of milk male sex organ, spermatangium
(b) Volvox
products. It can be harmful to immune produces non-flagellate male gametes.
(c) Ulothrix
system, in severe cases it leads to In Brown algae, sexual reproduction
internal bleeding. varies from isogamy, anisogamy to (d) Spirogyra
Plant Kingdom 19
Ans. (b) 10 Which one of the following shows 12 An alga which can be employed as
Volvox is a fresh water green hollow isogamy with non-flagellated food for human being is
ball-like colonial alga. Its colony has a gametes? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
fixed number of cells (500-60000). It is (a) Ulothrix
called coenobium. (a) Sargassum (b) Ectocarpus
(b) Chlorella
Cells (c) Ulothrix (d) Spirogyra
(c) Spirogyra
Mucilage Ans. (d)
(d) Polysiphonia
Isogamy with non-flagellated gametes
Daughter Ans. (b)
colony
is seen in Spirogyra. It can reproduce
both by sexual and asexual (vegetative) Chlorella is a potential food source
means. because it is high in protein and other
essential nutrients when dried, it
They reproduce sexually by conjugation contains about 45% protein, 20% fat,
in which two non-flagellated 20% carbohydrate, 5% fibre and 10%
morphologically similar but minerals and vitamins.
Flagella
Protoplasmic strands physiologically different gemetes
(isogamous) fuse together. One 13 Select the wrong statement.
Volvox
filament acts as male gamete and [NEET 2013]
passes through the conjugation tube of
(a) Isogametes are similar in
08 Which one of the following another filament which acts as female
structure, function and behaviour
statements is wrong ? gamete.
(b) Anisogametes differ either in
[NEET 2016, Phase II] structure, function and behaviour
(a) Algae increase the level of (c) In oomycetes female gamete is
dissolved oxygen in the immediate smaller and motile, while male
(a)
environment gamete is larger and non-motile
(b) Algin is obtained from red algae and Conjugation tube
(d) Chlamydomonas exhibits both
carrageenan from brown algae isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus
(c) Agar-agar is obtained from shows oogamy
Gelidium and Gracilaria Female like gamete Male like gamete Ans. (c)
(d) Laminaria and Sargassum are (b)
Statement (c) is wrong as oomycetes
used as food Zygospore wall include water moulds, white rusts
Ans. (b) and downy mildews. In these, female
Algin extracted from brown algae, e.g. gamete is large and non-motile,
Laminaria, etc. is a hydrocolloid used whereas, male gamete is small and
in shaving creams, jellies, flameproof Zygospore (c) non-motile. Isogametes are found in
plastic, etc. Carrageenan is extracted algae like Ulothrix, Chlamydomonas,
from red algae like Chondrus and used Spirogyra, etc. which are similar in
as emulsifier and clearing agent. 11 Which one of the following is structure, function and behaviour.
Thus, only option (b) is incorrect and wrong about Chara? Anisogametes are found in
all other options are correct. [CBSE AIPMT 2014] Chlamydomonas in which one gamete
(a) Upper oogonium and lower round is larger and non-motile and the
09 Which one is a wrong statement? antheridium other one is motile and smaller.
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] (b) Globule and nucule present on the Oogamy is the fusion of non-motile egg
(a) Archegonia are found in same plant with motile sperm. The gametes, differ
Bryophyta, Pteridophyta and both morphologically as well as
(c) Upper antheridium and lower physiologically. It occurs in
Gymnosperms oogonium Chlamydomonas, Fucus, Chara,
(b) Mucor has biflagellate zoospores (d) Globule is male reproductive Volvox, etc.
(c) Haploid endosperm is typical structure
feature of gymnosperms Ans. (c) 14 Algae have cell wall made up of
(d) Brown algae have chlorophyll-a [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
Both antheridium and oogonium are the
and c, and fucoxanthin (a) cellulose, galactans and mannans
male and the female reproductive
Ans. (b) structures respectively. They have (b) hemicellulose, pectins and
All the statements are correct except sterile jackets on their surface. In Chara proteins
the statement (b). Mucor (fungus) globule (antheridium) is present on (c) pectins, cellulose and proteins
lower side, while the nucule (oogonium)
belongs to the class—Zygomycetes. The (d) cellulose, hemicellulose and
is present on upper side of sterile
members of Zygomycetes bear pectins
vegetative (leaf-like) structure.
non-motile non-flagellated gametes.
Ans. (a) Ans. (a) Ans. (a)

Algae have cell wall made up of In Spirogyra, the sexual reproduction Ulothrix belongs to green algae.
cellulose, galactans and mannans. involves the fusion of two Sexual reproduction in Ulothrix takes
Like plants, algae have cell walls morphologically identical isogametes and place by the union of isogametes
containing either polysaccharides physiologically dissimilar anisogametes. which are motile, biflagellate,
such as cellulose (a glucan) or a This is a case of primitive anisogamy. In morphologically similar gametes.
variety of glycoproteins or both. this the active gamete is known as the Approximately 8-32 isogametes are
The inclusion of additional male and the passive as the female. produced from a mother cell. Two
polysaccharide in algal cell walls is used gametes come from two different
as a feature for algal taxonomy. 18 A research student collected certain filament, fuse and form a diploid
Mananas form microfibrils in the cell alga and found that its cells zygote.
walls of a number of marine green algae contained both chlorophyll-a,b,c and 21 Brown algae is characterised by
including those from the genera
chlorophyll-d as well as the presence of
Codium, Acetabularia as well as in the
phycoerythrin. The alga belongs to [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
walls of some red algae like Porphyra.
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] (a) phycocyanin
(a) Rhodophyceae (b) Bacillariophyceae (b) phycoerythrin
15 Mannitol is the stored food in
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] (c) Chlorophyceae (d) Phaeophyceae (c) fucoxanthin
Ans. (a) (d) haematochrome
(a) Chara (b) Porphyra
(c) Fucus (d) Gracilaria Members of Rhodophyceae (red algae) Ans. (c)
Ans. (c) contains Chlorophyll-a, d, In addition to chlorophyll-a, brown
r-phycoerythrin, r-phycocyanin, α and algae posses special carotenoids and
Fucus belongs to class–Phaeophyceae,
β-carotene pigments. fucoxanthin. It is due to the
in which reserve food is found in form fucoxanthin (brown pigment) that
of laminarin, mannitol and oil. Members of Chlorophyceae (green algae)
contain chlorophyll-a, b and β-carotene these algae appear brown.
Chara belongs to class–Chlorophyceae, pigments. Phycocyanin and phycoerythrin are
in which reserve food is found in form of phycobilins which are found in red
starch and oil. Members of Bacillariophyceae (diatoms)
contain chlorophyll-a, c, β-carotene, algae (phycocyanin-r, phycoerythrin-r)
Porphyra and Gracillaria belongs to α-carotene pigments. and blue-green algae (phycocyanin-c,
class—Rhodophyceae, in which reserve phycoerythrin-c).
Members of Cyanophyceae
food is found in form of floridean starch
and Galactan-SO4 polymers.
(cyanobacteria, blue-green algae) contain 22 An alga very rich in protein is
chlorophyll-a, c-phycocyanin, [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
c-phycoerythrin andβ-carotene pigments. (a) Spirogyra
16 If you are asked to classify the
(b) Ulothrix
various algae into distinct groups, 19 Ulothrix can be described as a (c) Oscillatoria
which of the following characters [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(d) Chlorella
you should choose? (a) non-motile colonial alga lacking
Ans. (d)
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] zoospores
(a) Types of pigments present in the (b) filamentous alga lacking flagellated Dried Chlorella pyrenoidosa contains
cell reproductive stages approximately 50-55% crude protein
(more than that in dried beef,
(b) Nature of stored food materials in (c) membranous alga producing
soyabean meal and dried yeast).
the cell zoospores
(c) Structural organisation of thallus (d) filamentous alga with flagellated 23 Blue-green algae belong to
(d) Chemical composition of the cell reproductive stages [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
wall Ans. (d) (a) eukaryotes
Ans. (a) Ulothrix is a freshwater, filamentous (b) prokaryotes
Types of pigments present in the cell of green algae, found in rather cold flowing (c) Rhodophyceae
algae is the most important character water. Sexual reproduction in Ulothrix is (d) Chlorophyceae
for classification. isogamous type, i.e. it takes place
between two morphological similar Ans. (b)
motile, flagellated male and female Blue-green algae or cyanobacteria are
17 Sexual reproduction in Spirogyra is gametes which come from different the largest Gram negative, aerobic,
an advanced feature because it filaments. photoautotrophic, nitrogen-fixing,
shows [CBSE AIPMT 2003] simplest chlorophyll containing
(a) physiologically differentiated sex 20 Ulothrix filaments produce thallophytes/ prokaryotes. They
organs [CBSE AIPMT 1997] neither have a definite nucleus nor
(b) different size of motile sex organs (a) isogametes definite plastid with grana. They also
lack flagella, chlorophyll-b,
(c) same size of motile sex organs (b) anisogametes
mesosome, meiosis and membrane
(d) morphologically different sex (c) heterogametes bound organelles (except ribosome of
organs (d) basidiospores 70S type).
Plant Kingdom 21
24 Agar is commercially obtained Ans. (c) Ans. (d)

from [CBSE AIPMT 1995] Spirogyra is a free floating, filamentous, Pyrenoid is a seat of synthesis and
(a) red algae (b) green algae green, freshwater alga, popularly called storage of starch present in the
pond silk. It has no role in nitrogen chloroplast of algae. A pyrenoid has a
(c) brown algae (d) blue-green algae
fixation. It forms a green slimy mass on core of protein around which starch is
Ans. (a) the surface of standing and stagnant deposited as layers.
Agar is a gelatinous, sulphated water of ponds during spring season,
non-nitrogenous, tasteless, odourless hence also called pond scum. 31 A plant in which sporophytic
mucopolysaccharide obtained from Whereas, blue-green algae like Nostoc, generation is represented by
middle lamella of cell wall of marine red Anabaena are the important nitrogen zygote is [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
algae like Gracillaria, Gelidium, Gigartina, fixing cyanobacteria, so these are used
etc. commonly known as agarophytes. It as biofertiliser. Azotobacter is the (a) Pinus (b) Selaginella
is used as solidifying agent in the culture aerobic free living/non-symbiotic (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Dryopteris
medium, as luxative stabiliser or nitrogen fixer. Ans. (c)
thickener in preparing jams, jellies,
In Chlamydomonas, the plant body is
creams, ice creams, bakery products 28 Chloroplast of Chlamydomonas is haploid, and represents gametophyte.
and as luxative in drug industry. [CBSE AIPMT 1993] It reproduces asexually through the
25 The absence of chlorophyll, in the (a) stellate (b) cup-shaped formation of zoospores and sexually
(c) collar-shaped (d) spiral through gametes. Gametes (haploid)
lowermost cell of Ulothrix, shows
fuse to produce diploid zygote,
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] Ans. (b)
representing the sporophytic
(a) functional fission In Chlamydomonas, chloroplast is single generation. The zygote secretes a wall
(b) tissue formation and cup-shaped. Chloroplasts are the around it to become a resting
(c) cell characteristic pigment (chl-a and chl-b) containing zygospore (diploid). The zygote and
(d) beginning of labour division bodies present in green algae. The zygospore are the only diploid structure
green colouration of the members of which represents the diplophase.
Ans. (d) chlorophyta is due to the presence of
Ulothrix is an advanced alga, with three excess of chlorophyll in the 32 The product of conjugation in
types of cells—green dome-shaped chloroplasts. The chloroplasts are well
apical cell, green intercalary cell and defined bodies met within every cell of
Spirogyra or fertilisation of
basal non-green cell called holdfast. the members of this class, though Chlamydomonas is
Holdfast or basal cell is for attachment, number and shape of the chloroplasts [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
it has nucleus and cytoplasm, its varies in different orders of the class. (a) zygospore (b) zoospore
presence shows the beginning of (c) oospore (d) carpospore
division of labour. 29 In Ulothrix/Spirogyra, reduction Ans. (a)
division (meiosis) occurs at the
26 In Chlorophyceae, sexual Zygospore (zygote) is the fusion
reproduction occurs by time of [CBSE AIPMT 1993] product of two gametes. It infact,
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] (a) gamete formation represents the resting stage formed
(b) zoospore formation after withdrawl of flagella and
(a) isogamy and anisogamy
(c) zygospore germination formation of a thick wall around the
(b) isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy freshly formed zygote. Zygospore is
(c) oogamy only (d) vegetative reproduction
spherical with thick, smooth or stellate
(d) anisogamy and oogamy Ans. (c) wall and contains fats and reserve food
Ans. (b) In Ulothrix/Spirogyra, meiosis takes place materials other than starch. It can
at the time of zygospore germination. It resist unfavourable conditions.
In Chlorophyceae, three types of sexual
reproduction occurs, i.e. isogamy, takes place when (+) and (–) In Chlamydomonas, zygospore is the
anisogamy and oogamy. plants/filaments results in the formation resultant of isogamy, anisogamy or
of diploid zygote (2x). Zygote is oogamy. In Spirogyra sexual
Isogamy involves the fusion of those
tetraflagellated, it secretes a thick wall reproduction occurs through
gametes which are similar in size,
shape and structure, e.g. and becomes non-motile to form diploid conjugation, which may be scalariform
Chlamydomonas debaryana. zygospore. or lateral. The resulting zygote secretes
In anisogamy gametes differ Under favourable conditions, zygospore a thick wall called zygospore (having 3
morphologically and also behave undergoes zygotic meiosis to form layers thick wall, diploid nucleus and
differently, e.g. Chlamydomonas braunii. motile tetraflagellated zoomeiospores abundant food reserves in the form of
or non-motile aplanomeiospores. Each oil and starch).
In oogamy, fusion between motile and
non-motile gametes takes place, e.g. meiospore (haploid) germinates to new
Chlamydomonas coccifera. filament of (+) (–) strain. 33 Sexual reproduction involving
fusion of two cells in
27 Which of the following cannot fix 30 Pyrenoids are the centres for Chlamydomonas is
nitrogen? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] formation of [CBSE AIPMT 1993] [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
(a) Nostoc (b) Azotobacter (a) porphyra (b) enzymes (a) isogamy (b) homogamy
(c) Spirogyra (d) Anabaena (c) fat (d) starch (c) somatogamy (d) hologamy
Ans. (d) matter and Sphagnum accumulations Ans. (d)

In Chlamydomonas, hologamy involves can store water, since both living and In the prothallus of a vascular
the fusion of two young individuals dead plants can hold large quantities cryptogam, the antherozoids and eggs
directly, e.g. C. snowiae and isogamy of water and living matter (like meat) mature at different times. As a result
involves fusion of gametes which are for long distance transport inside their self fertilisation is prevented.
similar in size, structure and physiology, cells hence, it is responsible for peat
e.g. C. euganetos. formation.
41 Spore dissemination in some
liverworts is aided by
34 Acetabularia used in Hammerling’s 37 Which one of the following is [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
nucleocytoplasmic experiments is common to multicellular fungi, (a) elaters
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] filamentous algae and protonema (b) indusium
(a) unicellular fungus of mosses? [NEET 2013] (c) calyptra
(b) multicellular fungus (a) Diplontic life cycle (d) peristome teeth
(c) unicellular uninucleate green alga (b) Members of kingdom–Plantae Ans. (a)
(d) unicellular multinucleate green (c) Mode of nutrition
Elaters are hygroscopic in nature and
alga (d) Multiplication by fragmentation help in dispersal of spores.
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
Acetabularia is the largest uninucleated Multicellular fungi, filamentous algae 42 Peat moss is used as a packing
green marine alga popularly called and protonema of mosses all show material for sending flowers and
mermaids wine glass umbrella plant. multiplication by fragmentation. live plants to distant places
It has a cap, stalk and rhizoidal base and because [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
nucleus lies in the base. Danish 38 Archegoniophore is present in (a) it is hygroscopic
biologist J Hammerling (1953) by his [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
grafting experiments involving (b) it reduces transpiration
(a) Chara (b) Adiantum (c) it serves as a disinfectant
exchange of nucleus in Acetabularia
(c) Funaria (d) Marchantia (d) it is easily available
proved the role of nucleus in heredity,
growth, morphology, differentiation and Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
morphogenesis. In Marchantia, a bryophyte, the Sphagnum is a bryophyte, commonly
archegonia (female sex organs) are
called as bog moss or peat moss. It is
borne on special branches called
TOPIC 2 archegoniophore or female
hygroscopic and possesses a
remarkable water holding capacity.
Bryophytes receptacles. Each archegoniophore has Hence, it is used as a packing material
rows of archegonia protected by in the transportation of flowers, live
involucre or perichaetium. plants, tubers, bulbs, seedlings, etc. It
35 Gemmae are present in
[NEET 2021]
is also used in seed-beds and in
39 Male and female gametophytes moss-sticks.
(a) mosses
are independent and free-living in
(b) pteridophytes [CBSE AIPMT 2010] 43 The antherozoids of Funaria are
(c) some gymnosperms [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(a) mustard (b) castor
(d) some liverworts
(c) Pinus (d) Sphagnum (a) aciliated
Ans. (d) (b) biflagellated
Ans. (d)
Some liverworts reproduce asexually by (c) multiciliated
fragmentation of thalli or by the In Sphagnum, male and female
gametophytes are independent and (d) monociliated
formation of gemmae. (green,
multicelluar asexual buds). The free living. In bryophytes, the most Ans. (b)
gemmae are held in special organs conspicuous phase in life cycle is the The antherozoids of Funaria are spirally
known as gemma cups and are gametophyte. It is independent and coiled and bear two equal flagella at
dispersed by rainfall.Gemmae becomes concerned with reproduction. anterior end.
detached from parent body and Flagella
germinate to form new individuals. 40 In the prothallus of a vascular
cryptogam, the antherozoids and
36 Which of the following is eggs mature at different times, as
responsible for peat formation? a result [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) there is no change in success rate
(a) Marchantia (b) Riccia of fertilisation
(c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum (b) there is high degree of sterility
Ans. (d) (c) one can conclude that the plant is Nucleus
Peat is mainly an accumulation of apomictic
partially decayed vegetation or organic (d) self fertilisation is prevented Antherozoids (Funaria)
Plant Kingdom 23
44 Dichotomous branching is found in Ans. (c) Elaters are diploid, spindle shaped
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] The antherozoids (sperms) of hygroscopic elongated structures with
bryophytes are flagellated (motile) and 2 spiral bands. They show twisting
(a) fern
need a film of water to swim through for movement and assist in spore dispersal
(b) Funaria on maturity.
reaching the archegonium. Bryophyta
(c) liverworts is a group of cryptogams. Main plant
(d) Marchantia body of bryophytes is gametophytic 51 The plant body of moss (Funaria) is
Ans. (d) (haploid). It bearing male and female sex [CBSE AIPMT 1995, 2006]
organs.
Though many liverworts are (a) completely sporophyte
dichotomously branched but some of (b) completely gametophyte
the leafy liverworts are not. However, 48 Bryophytes can be separated from
(c) predominantly sporophyte with
Marchantia is a liverwort which is algae because they
gametophyte
dichotomously branched. [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(d) predominantly gametophyte with
(a) are thalloid forms
sporophyte
45 Bryophytes comprise (b) have no conducting tissue
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] Ans. (d)
(c) possess archegonia with outer layer
(a) sporophyte of longer duration of sterile cells Funaria (green moss) and other
(b) dominant phase of sporophyte (d) contain chloroplasts in their cells bryophytes show alternation of
which is parasitic generation with haploid gametophytic
Ans. (c) (n) and diploid sporophytic phases (2n).
(c) dominant phase of gametophyte
Archegonia is female sex organ in Plant body represents the
which produces spores gametophytic phase, which reproduces
bryophytes. It is a flask-shaped
(d) small sporophyte phase generally by producing gametes and on fusion
multicellular organ. It is composed of a
parasitic on gametophyte form zygote.
cylindrical upper portion called neck
Ans. (d) with a single layer of sterile cells called Zygote develops into sporophyte and
Bryophyta is a group of thalloid, Neck Canal Cells (NCC) and a lower produces haploid meiospores which on
non-vascular, cryptogams which have swollen sac-like portion called venter. It germination form gametophyte.
gametophytic (haploid phase) as also has layer or layers of sterile cells. Sporophyte in mosses is differentiated
dominant phase. It bears diploid Venter encloses a larger egg cell and a into foot, seta and capsule.
sporophytic phase which takes food smaller (just above to egg) Venter Canal
from gametophytic phase, thus Cell (VCC). 52 Unique features of bryophytes is
behaves as parasite on gametophyte. that they [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
49 Multicellular branched rhizoids and (a) produce spores
46 Which of the following is true leafy gametophytes are (b) have sporophyte attached to
about bryophytes? characteristics of gametophyte
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] [CBSE AIPMT 1997] (c) lack roots
(a) They possess archegonia (a) all bryophytes (d) lack vascular tissues
(b) They contain chloroplast (b) some bryophytes Ans. (b)
(c) They are thalloid (c) all pteridophytes
The main plant body of bryophytes is
(d) All of the above (d) some pteridophytes gametophytic which is independent and
Ans. (d) Ans. (b) may be thallose or foliose. The
Bryophytes are non-vascular In pteridophytes and gymnosperms, sporophyte is differentiated into foot,
cryptogams, their main plant body is gametophyte generation is reduced, seta and capsule and is partially or fully
gametophytic (haploid) which is a sporophyte is well-developed. In dependent upon the gametophyte.
thalloid structure. It contains bryophytes, gametophyte constitutes
chlorophyll for the process of the main well developed generation but 53 The plant group that produces
photosynthesis. Thalloid plant body in mosses, (e.g. Funaria), it is foliose. spores and embryo but lacks
bear archegonia as female sex organs. vascular tissues and seeds is
50 In which one of these the elaters [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
47 Bryophytes are dependent on are present along with mature (a) Pteridophyta (b) Rhodophyta
water because [CBSE AIPMT 1998] spores in the capsule (to help in (c) Bryophyta (d) Phaeophyta
(a) water is essential for fertilisation spore dispersal)? Ans. (c)
for their homosporous nature [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(a) Riccia (b) Marchantia Bryophytes consist of thalloid body,
(b) water is essential for their
attached to the substratum by hair-like
vegetative propagation (c) Funaria (d) Sphagnum structures called rhizoids (true roots
(c) the sperms can easily reach up to Ans. (b) are absent), these lack vascular tissue
egg in the archegonium In Marchantia, capsule (the part of (xylem and phloem) and require water at
(d) archegonium has to remain filled sporophyte) contains elaters (2n) and the time of fertilisation. Bryophytes
with water for fertilisation spores (n) in tetrads. exhibit alternation of generation.
The haploid gametophyte (producing 57 Moss peristome takes part in TOPIC 3

gametes for sexual reproduction)
alternates with diploid sporophyte
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] Pteridophytes
(a) spore dispersal
(producing spores for asexual
reproduction). Production of large (b) photosynthesis
(c) protection
60 In bryophytes and pteridophytes,
number of spores is for increasing the
chances of survival and is an adaptation (d) absorption transport of male gametes
to land conditions. Ans. (a)
requires [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(a) insects (b) birds
Peristome functions in the dispersal of
54 Which one has the largest (c) water (d) wind
the spores. Peristome constitutes
gametophyte? [CBSE AIPMT 1991] rings of teeth like projections at the rim Ans. (c)
(a) Cycas (b) Angiosperm of the capsule of the mosses. In In several primitive simple plants–like
(c) Selaginella (d) Moss Funaria, peristome are 32 in number, algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes,
arragned in two rings of 16 each water is the medium through which
Ans. (d)
(a) outer exostome and (b) inner male gametes are transferred to the
Of the given options, moss has the endostome. female reproductive organ or gamete to
largest gametophyte. It get reduced in bring about fertilisation.
the order as Selaginella, Cycas, 58 Protonema occurs in the life cycle
angiosperms. Gametophyte begins with
of [CBSE AIPMT 1990, 93] 61 Which one of the following is a
the haploid spore and ends with the
formation of haploid gametes. (a) Riccia correct statement? [NEET 2013]
Gametophyte gives rise to the (b) Funaria (a) Pteridophyte gametophyte has a
sporophyte (through sexual (c) Chlamydomonas protonemal and leafy stage
reproduction) and sporophyte gives rise (d) Spirogyra (b) In gymnosperms female
to gametophyte. As one moves from Ans. (b) gametophyte is free-living
thallophyte → bryophyte → pteridophyte (c) Antheridiophores and
Protonema represents the juvenile
→ gymnosperms → angiosperms, there archegoniophores are present in
stage of moss (Funaria). It is
is development in the sporophyte and pteridophytes
much-branched, green filamentous
reduction in the gametophyte.
structure formed by the germination of (d) Origin of seed habit can be traced
spores, under favourable conditions. in pteridophytes
55 Bryophytes are amphibians The protonema consists of (a) some Ans. (d)
because [CBSE AIPMT 1991, 96] slender rhizoids (b) a number of aerial
(a) they require a layer of water for green prostrate branches bearing small Origin of seed habitat can be traced in
carrying out sexual reproduction lateral buds which grow up into new pteridophytes. Some pteridophytes like
moss gametophores. Selaginella and Salvinia are
(b) they occur in damp places heterosporous as they produce two
(c) they are mostly aquatic kinds of spores micro (small) spores and
59 Sperms of both Funaria and Pteris
(d) All of the above were released together near the macro (large) spores, which germinate
Ans. (a) archegonia of Pteris. Only Pteris and give rise to male and female
sperms enter the archegonia as gametophyte respectively.
Bryophytes are called amphibians
(amphibians of plant kingdom). They are [CBSE AIPMT 1989] The female gametophyte in these plants
first amongst land plants which occur in are retained on the parent sporophytes
(a) Pteris archegonia repel Funaria
damp and shady habitats. As vascular for variable periods. The development of
sperms
tissues are absent, male gametes the zygote into young embryos takes
(b) Funaria sperms get killed by Pteris place within the female gametophyte.
require a layer of water for swimming sperms
and fertilisation. This event is the precursor to the seed
(c) Funaria sperms are less mobile habit and considered to an important
(d) Pteris archegonia release step in evolution.
56 Apophysis in the capsule of
chemical to attract its sperms
Funaria is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
62 Which one of the following is a
Ans. (d)
(a) lower part (b) upper part vascular cryptogam?
(c) middle part (d) fertile part In Dryopteris and Pteris, when
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
fertilisation occurs, sperms are
Ans. (a) attracted by the chemical diffusing into (a) Equisetum (b) Ginkgo
Capsule (the body containing spores) of the water from the mucilage exuded by (c) Marchantia (d) Cedrus
Funaria is differentiated the open necks of archegonia of the Ans. (a)
into–operculum (cap shaped 2-3 layered older prothalli, some of them make
thick lid on the top); theca (middle fertile their way down the canal to the egg in Pteridophytes are also called vascular
part) and apophysis (sterile, solid basal the venter and only one of these enters cryptogams as these have a well
portion of the capsule having the egg to accomplish fertilisation. developed vascular system but are
chloroplasts). non-flowering plants. e.g. Equisetum.
Plant Kingdom 25
63 In which one of the following, male archegonia or female sex organs. It is mother cells which undergo meiosis and
most important evolutionary produce haploid spores. Each spore
and female gametophytes don’t
development in the vascular plants contains an outer thick brown wall called
have free living independent because it has ultimately lead to seed exine and a thin inner wall called intine.
existence? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] development, e.g. Selaginella, Marselia, Spore is the first cell of gametophyte.
(a) Pteris (b) Funaria Salvinia, Azolla, Isoetes. On germination, it gives rise to a haploid
(c) Polytrichum (d) Cedrus Dryopteris is homosporous and 32–64 gametophytic stage.
Ans. (a) haploid spores are produced in each
sporangium. 68 The ‘walking fern’ is so named
In Pteris (also Dryopteris) the spore because [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
Adiantum is also homosporous. The
germinates to produce the prothallus.
spores are the pioneer structures of (a) it is dispersed through the agency
The prothallus is a small, green flat,
the gametophytic generation. of walking animals
surface loving, thallus-like object. It is
monoecious and bears sex organs on (b) it propagates vegetatively by its
the ventral side. The antheridia (male 65 Which of the following leaf tips
sex organs) arise among the rhizoids propagates through leaf-tip? (c) it knows how to walk by itself
towards the posterior side of the [CBSE AIPMT 2004] (d) its spores are able to walk
prothallus and are emergent. The (a) Walking fern Ans. (b)
archegonia develop in central cushion (b) Sproux-leaf plant
behind the apical notch. In these plants Adiantum is called walking fern. The tips
(c) Marchantia of its leaves, on coming in contact with
male and female, gametophytes do
have free living independent existence. (d) Moss the soil, gives out adventitious roots
Ans. (a) which in turn produce new leaves and
All species of Polytrichum are
develop into new plants.
dioecious. The antheridia and Adiantum is also called walking fern. In
archegonia are borne on different Adiantum the tips of the leaves, on 69 A well developed archegonium with
gametophore. The plant body is an coming in contact with the soil, give
erect leafy shoot but is not the entire out adventitious roots which, in turn, neck consisting of 4-6 rows of
gametophyte. The leafy shoot arise produce new leaves and develop into neck canal cells, characterises
from protonema (the juvenile stage). new plants. [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
The leafy gametophore of Funaria (a) gymnosperms only
reproduces sexually by formation of 66 Which one the following pairs of (b) bryophytes and pteridophytes
antheridia and archegonia. The plants are not seed producers? (c) pteridophytes and gymnosperms
antheridia are formed at the summit of [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (d) gymnosperms and flowering plants
a relatively small, thin, leafy shoot,
(a) Ficus and Chlamydomonas Ans. (b)
which develops first. The female branch
arises later as a lateral outgrowth from (b) Punica and Pinus Archegonium is the flask-shaped female
the base of parent male shoot. (c) Fern and Funaria reproductive body of bryophytes and
Cedrus is a gymnosperm in which main (d) Funaria and Ficus pteridophytes. Archegonium usually
plant body is a sporophyte on which Ans. (c) consists of a tubular neck and a swollen
reduced type of gametophytes are Fern is a pteridophyte and Funaria is a venter. Neck is made up of 4-6 vertical
formed. bryophyte, both these produce spores row of cells and encloses 6-10 neck
but not seeds. Phanerogams is a group canal cells in bryophytes and 4 vertical
64 Which one of the following is of plants which produce seeds and rows in pteridophytes enclosing 1-4 neck
flowers. It includes gymnospermic and canal cells. Venter has 1-2 layer but it is
heterosporous? wall-less in pteridophytes.
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] angiospermic plants. While
cryptogams is another group of plants
(a) Dryopteris (b) Salvinia 70 Which one of the following is not
which do not produce seeds and
(c) Adiantum (d) Equisetum flowers, e.g. algae, fungi, bryophytes common between Funaria and
Ans. (b) and pteridophytes. Selaginella? [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
From the following Salvinia is (a) Archegonium
heterosporous. Heterospory is the 67 In ferns meiosis occurs when
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] (b) Embryo
production of spores of two different
sizes and two different developmental (a) spore germinates (c) Flagellate sperms
patterns. Small spores are called (b) gametes are formed (d) Roots
microspores and larger as megaspore. (c) spores are formed Ans. (d)
Microspores germinate to produce the (d) antheridia and archegonia are Roots are not the common structure in
male gametophyte or formed Funaria and Selaginella. Funaria (moss)
microgametophyte that bear male sex and Selaginella (pteridophytes) can be
Ans. (c)
organs while, megaspore germinates to related with the presence of
form female gametophyte or In the ferns sporangium is a diploid archegonium, embryo, flagellated
megagametophyte that bears structure. It bears diploid spore sperms.
In Funaria, the plant is attached to the TOPIC 4 (c) The leaves of gymnosperms are
substratum by means of root-like not well adapted to extremes of
structures called rhizoids, which are Gymnosperms climate
multicellular, branched, have oblique (d) Gymnosperms are both
cross wall. In Selaginella, special 73 Which of the following statements homosporous and heterosporous
leafless positively geotropic structures
called rhizophores arise from the stem is incorrect about gymnosperms? Ans. (b)
at the point of branching. Rhizophore [NEET (Oct.) 2020] Sequoia is one of the tallest tree
resembles the stem in some characters (a) They are heterosporous species, known as red wood tree. It is a
and roots in other characters and was (b) Male and female gametophytes gymnospermic plant.
regarded as organ-sui-genesis (organ of are free living Salvinia is an angiosperm, but Ginkgo
independent origin). (c) Most of them have narrow leaves and Pinus are gymnosperms.
with thick cuticle Gymnosperms are well adapted to
71 Pteridophytes differ from mosses/ extremes of climate and are
(d) Their seeds are not covered
heterosporous.
bryophytes in possessing Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(a) independent gametophyte
Statement (b) is incorrect. It can be 76 Conifers are adapted to tolerate
corrected as In gymnosperms, the male extreme environmental conditions
(b) well developed vascular system and the female gametophyte do not
(c) archegonia because of [NEET 2016, Phase II]
have an independent free-living
(d) flagellate spermatozoids existence. The male gametophyte (a) broad hardy leaves
Ans. (b) remains within the sporangia, retained (b) superficial stomata
on the sporophytes and is dependent on (c) thick cuticle
Pteridophytes are most primitive sporophyte. (d) the presence of vessels
vascular flowerless, spore producing
cryptogamic land plants, commonly Ans. (c)
called vascular amphibians/botanical 74 Which one of the following Conifers are gymnosperms. Their
snakes/spore producing seedless statements is correct? [NEET 2018] leaves show xerophytic adaptations.
trachaeophytes. They are first vascular (a) Horsetails are gymnosperms The leaves are like needle with thick
land plants to have independent walled single layered epidermal cells
(b) Selaginella is heterosporous,
sporophyte diploid plant body with true covered with thick cuticle. This enables
root, stem and leaves. In contrast while Salvinia is homosporous them to tolerate extreme climatic
bryophytes, the amphibians of plant (c) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary conditions.
kingdom are devoid of true roots, stem wall in gymnosperms
and leaves, with no vascular supply but (d) Stems are usually unbrancned in 77 Read the following statements
root-like, non-vascular rhizoids, both Cycas and Cedrus. and answer the question which
leaf-like and stem-like structures are
present. Ans. (c) follows them
In gymnosperms, ovules are not I. In liverworts, mosses and ferns
72 Evolutionary important character enclosed by ovary wall. Seeds do not gametophytes are free living.
of Selaginella is [CBSE AIPMT 1989] occur inside a fruit. They are naked. II. Gymnosperms and some ferns
Horsetail is the common name of are heterosporous.
(a) heterosporous nature
Equisetum. III. Sexual reproduction in Fucus,
(b) rhizophore
(c) strobili Pteridophytes like Selaginella and Volvox and Albugo is oogamous.
Salvinia are heterosporous and possess
(d) ligule IV. The sporophyte in liverworts is
two types of spores, i.e. microspores
Ans. (a) more elaborate than that in
and megaspores. Cycas has an
Heterospory; i.e. the production of two unbranched columnar stem while
mosses.
different types of spores : larger Cedrus possess branched stem. How many of the above statements
macrospores and smaller microspores Therefore, only statement (c) is correct. are correct? [NEET 2013]
is a character of evolutionary
(a) One (b) Two
significance in pteridophyte
(Selaginella) because seed habit 75 Select the correct statement. (c) Three (d) Four
(characteristic feature of gymnosperms [NEET 2016, Phase I] Ans. (c)
and angiosperms) and differentiation of (a) Salvinia, Ginkgo and Pinus all are Statement I, II and III are correct.
spores on the basis of sex is believed to gymnosperms Statement IV is incorrect and can be
have originated from heterosporous corrected as the sporophyte in mosses
(b) Sequoia is one of the tallest trees
condition. is more elaborate than in liverworts.
Plant Kingdom 27
78 Cycas and Adiantum resemble Gnetum resembles angiosperms in Ans. (a)

each other in having [NEET 2013] many other aspects also like The Cycadales is an ancient order of
(a) seeds (b) motile sperms (i) The leaves in Gnetum have gymnosperms exhibiting several
reticulate venation that is an primitive features—now having only a
(c) cambium (d) vessels
angiospermic character. few living representative of once a large
Ans. (b) (ii) In Gnetum female gametophyte is group of plants that glorified during the
Multiciliated motile sperms are found in only partly cellular before Mesozoic era. Therefore, Cycas is called
both Cycas (gymnosperm) and Adiantum fertilisation and becomes as living fossil.
or walking fern (pteridophyte). completely cellular only after
Seeds and cambium are present in fertilisation. Some of the free 85 Which one pair of examples will
Cycas (quite common in gymnosperms) nuclei act as eggs as there are no
correctly represent the grouping
but absent in pteridophytes. Vessels archegonia.
are absent in both.
spermatophyta according to one
The short apices in Gnetum and
angiosperms show a distinct tunica and of the schemes of classifying
79 Gymnosperms are also called soft corpus configuration. plants? [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
wood spermatophytes because they The cortex of stem of Pinus is traverse (a) Rhizopus, Triticum
lack [CBSE AIPMT 2012] by large resin ducts or canals. Each duct (b) Ginkgo, Pisum
(a) cambium or canal is lined by a layer of thin walled (c) Acacia, sugarcane
(b) phloem fibres parenchymatous glandular secretory (d) Pinus, Cycas
cells constituting epithelium. The
(c) thick-walled tracheids Ans. (b)
epithelial cells secrete resin into canal.
(d) xylem fibres Resin is the chief source of terpentine. Ginkgo is a gymnospermic plant so it
Ans. (d) comes before angiospermic plant,
82 Flagellated male gametes are Pisum (pea). Rhizopus is a fungus and
Gymnosperms lack xylem fibres. Large
Triticum (wheat) is an angiospermic
amount of parenchymatous cells are present in all the three of which plant.
present with secondary xylem one of the following sets?
tracheids. So, these are also known as Option (c) has both angiospermic plants
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
softwood spermatophytes. and option (d) has both gymnospermic
(a) Anthoceros, Funaria and Spirogyra plants.
(b) Zygnema, Saprolegnia and Hydrilla
80 The gametophyte is not an (c) Fucus, Marselia and Calotropis
independent, free living 86 Which of the following plants
(d) Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas produces seeds but not flowers?
generation in [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Ans. (d) [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(a) Adiantum (b) Marchantia
Flagellated male gametes are present (a) Maize (b) Mint
(c) Pinus (d) Polytrichum
in Riccia, Dryopteris and Cycas. (c) Peepal (d) Pinus
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d)
In gymnosperms, (e.g. Pinus, Cycas, 83 In gymnosperms, the pollen Pinus is a gymnospermic plant. Ovules
etc.) the male and female chamber represents of Pinus are uncovered which lie on the
gametophytes do not have an [CBSE AIPMT 2007] megasporophyll, hence, these plants do
independent free-living existence. They
(a) a cell in the pollen grain in which not have flowers. However, it produces
remain within the sporangia retained on
the sperms are formed seeds (from ovule after fertilisation) like
the sporophytes.
(b) a cavity in the ovule in which other three plants mentioned, all of
pollen grains are stored after which are angiosperms.
81 Select one of the following pairs of pollination
important features distinguishing (c) an opening in the 87 Cycas has two cotyledons but not
Gnetum from Cycas and Pinus and megagametophyte through which included in angiosperms because
showing affinities with the pollen tube approaches the of [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
angiosperms [CBSE AIPMT 2008] egg (a) naked ovules
(a) absence of resin duct and leaf (d) the microsporangium in which (b) seems like monocot
venation pollen grains develop (c) circinate ptyxis
(b) presence of vessel elements and Ans. (b) (d) compound leaves
absence of archegonia In gymnosperms, the pollen chamber is Ans. (a)
(c) perianth and two integuments a cavity in the ovule in which pollen
Gymnosperms (Gk. gymnos-naked;
(d) embryo development and apical grains are stored after pollination.
sperma-seed e.g. naked seed plants) is
meristem
a group of phanerogams which have
Ans. (b) 84 Which one of the following is a naked ovules, i.e. structure (ovules)
The presence of vessels in the xylem is
living fossil? that eventually become the seeds after
[CBSE AIPMT 2004, 03] fertilisation and not completely
an angiospermic character found in
Gnetum which distinguish it from Cycas (a) Cycas (b) Moss enclosed by the tissues of the parent
and Pinus. (c) Saccharomyces (d) Spirogyra individual.
88 The largest ovules, largest male 92 Seed habit first originated in Ans. (d)
and female gametes and largest (a) certain ferns [CBSE AIPMT 1996] From the evolutionary point of view, the
plants are found among (b) certain pines given options can be arranged as
Chlamydomonas, Funaria, Selaginella,
(a) angiosperms [CBSE AIPMT 2000] (c) certain monocots
and Pinus.
(b) tree ferns and some monocots (d) primitive dicots
Pinus, i.e. gymnosperms are the most
(c) gymnosperms Ans. (a) evolved seed bearing phanerogamic
(d) dicotyledonous plants The tendency towards seed formation vascular sporophytic plants, after
Ans. (c) is called seed habit. It was developed in angiosperms (most advanced group of
fossil gymnosperm of group plants).
Cycas with largest antherozoids and
ovule and the largest plant Sequoia Cycadofilicales (pteridosperms), i.e. Pteridophytes (e.g. Selaginella) are
belong to gymnosperms. seed ferns, e.g. Lyginopteris which spore bearing non-seeded vascular
bears characters of cycads and ferns cryptogams. Algae, bryophytes and
Gymnosperm is a group of naked both. Seed habit is shown by few pteridophytes resemble each other in
seeded plants, i.e. their ovules are not pteridophytes like Selaginella, Marselia, dependence on water for fertilisation.
enclosed by ovary walls. Ovules of Isoetes, etc. which exhibit heterospory.
gymnosperms are directly borne on the
megasporophyll. 96 A plant having seeds but lacking
93 The ‘wing’ of Pinus seed is derived flowers and fruits belongs to
from [CBSE AIPMT 1994] [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
89 In which of the following would
(a) testa (a) pteridophytes
you place the plants having
(b) testa and tegmen (b) mosses
vascular tissue, lacking seeds?
(c) surface of ovuliferous scale (c) ferns
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(d) All of the above (d) gymnosperms
(a) Algae (b) Bryophytes
(c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperms Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) The winges of seed of Pinus is thin, Gymnosperms (Gk Gymno=naked ;
membranous diploid and develops sperma-seed) are commonly known as
Pteridophytes and gymnosperms do jointly from the basal upper surface naked seed plants because their ovules
have vascular tissues. However, (adaxial) of ovuliferous scale and outer (which later become seeds) are not
gymnosperms bear seeds while layer of integument of the ovule. covered and lie naked on the surfaces of
pteridophytes not bear seeds. Algae
specialised leaves called
and bryophytes do not possess vascular
94 Pinus differs from mango in having megasporophylls or ovuliferous scales,
tissues.
(a) tree habit [CBSE AIPMT 1993] arranged into cones, flowers are absent;
(b) green leaves seed may have two, (e.g. Cycas) or more
90 Largest sperms in the plant world (e.g. Pinus) cotyledons.
are found in [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (c) ovules not enclosed in ovary
(a) Pinus (b) Banyan (d) wood 97 In Pinus, the pollen grain has 6
(c) Cycas (d) Tsuja Ans. (c) chromosomes then its endosperm
Ans. (c) Gymnosperms, (e.g. Pinus) are will have the chromosome
commonly called as naked seeded [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
Cycas is a gymnospermic plant. It has
plants since their ovules (which later (a) 12 (b) 18
the biggest sperms (antherozoids) and
become seed) are not covered and lie (c) 6 (d) 24
ovules in the plant world.
naked on the surfaces of specialised
leaves (megasporophylls or ovuliferous Ans. (c)
91 Which one of the following scales) arranged into cones. In gymnosperms (Pinus) both the pollen
statements about Cycas is Thus, gymnosperms are also known as grains and endosperm are haploid
incorrect? [CBSE AIPMT 1998] seeded plants without flowers or structure, formed before fertilisation. If
(a) It does not have a well organised phanerogams without ovary. In the pollen grain has haploid number of
female flower contrast, angiosperms are seed chromosome equal to 6, then its
bearing, flowering vascular plants in endosperm will also have the same
(b) It has circinate vernation
which seeds are enclosed in fruits, and number of chromosome, i.e. 6.
(c) Its xylem is mainly composed of
are called as phanerogams with ovary
xylem vessels 98 Resin and terpentine are obtained
or seeded flowering plants.
(d) Its roots contain some blue-green from [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
algae 95 Which one is the most advanced (a) Cycas (b) Pinus
Ans. (c) from evolutionary view point? (c) Cedrus (d) Abies
Statements (c) is incorrect regarding [CBSE AIPMT 1993] Ans. (b)
Cycas as Vessels are absent from the (a) Selaginella Pinus roxburghi is a source of resin and
xylem of all gymnosperms (except (b) Funaria terpentine, obtained after distillation.
Gnetales). Cycas belongs to Cycadales (c) Chlamydomonas Terpentine is utilised in varnishes and
(not Gnetales). (d) Pinus paints.
Plant Kingdom 29
99 In Pinus/gymnosperms, the 102 Which is the most common type Ans. (c)
haploid structure are of embryo sac in angiosperms? As we proceed from thallophyta to
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] [NEET (Odisha) 2019] angiosperms, there is gradual reduction
(a) megaspore, endosperm and (a) Tetrasporic with one mitotic in gametophyte with reduced size of sex
organs. From thallophyta to
embryo stage of divisions
angiosperms, there is progressive
(b) megaspore, pollen grain and (b) Monosporic with three sequential elaboration of sporophytes.
endosperm mitotic divisions
(c) megaspore, integument and root (c) Monosporic with two sequential Thallo Bryop Pterido- Gymno Angio-
Phase
(d) pollen grain, leaf and root mitotic divisions -phyta -hyta phyta sperms sperms
Ans. (b) (d) Bisporic with two sequential Gameto- 90 75 50 25 10

mitotic divisions phyte (%)
In gymnosperms, the megaspore
Ans. (b) Sporop 10 25 50 75 90
(haploid) is first cell of female -hyte (%)
gametophyte and undergoes repeated The most common type of female
divisions to form a multicellular female gametophyte (embryo sac) in
gametophyte, which because of 105 Conifers differ from grasses in the
angiosperms is the monosporic embryo
abundant food reserves, serves as [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
sac in which the embryo sac develops
endosperm. So, being produced before (a) lack of xylem tracheids
from a single functional megaspore (n)
fertilisation, endosperm is haploid in (b) absence of pollen tubes
while the other three megasproes
gymnosperms. (c) formation of endosperm before
degenerate. The functional megaspore
Microspores or pollen grains are the fertilisation
undergoes three sequential mitotic
first cell of the male gametophyte and (d) production of seeds from ovules
divisions and gives rise to 8-nucleate
are haploid in nature.
and 7-celled mature embryo sac. Ans. (c)
100 In Pinus/Cycas/gymnosperms, the The conifers (gymnosperm) differ from
endosperm is [CBSE AIPMT 1988] 103 Male gametophyte with least the grasses (angiosperm) in the
(a) triploid (b) haploid number of cells is present in formation of endosperm before
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] fertilisation. Infact, in gymnosperms,
(c) diploid (d) tetraploid
(a) Pteris the endosperm is a haploid tissue as it
Ans. (b)
(b) Funaria formed before fertilisation, while in
In gymnosperms, e.g. Pinus, Cycas, (c) Lilium angiosperms, endosperm is formed
endosperm develops before after fertilisation as a result of triple
(d) Pinus
fertilisation and is haploid in nature. In fusion or double fertilisation, thus, it is a
angiosperms, endosperm is triploid (3n) Ans. (c)
triploid tissue.
and formed after double fertilisation. Lilium (angiosperm) possesses the In both conifers and grasses seeds are
male gametophyte with least number of produced from ovules.
TOPIC 5 cells. Xylem tracheids are present in both
Angiosperms The number of cells in male conifers and grasses.
gametophyte shows the pattern of Pollen tubes are also formed in both
reduction from bryophytes to conifers and grasses.
101 Male and female gametophytes do angiosperms. In angiosperms, it is
not have an independent reduced to about 2-3 celled and called 106 Angiosperms have dominated the
free-living existence in as pollen grains. land flora primarily because of
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] The number of cells in male their [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(a) pteridophytes (b) algae gametophyte decreases in the
(a) power of adaptability in diverse
(c) angiosperms (d) bryophytes following order
habitat
Ans. (c) Funaria > Pteris > Pinus > Lilium (b) property of producing large
Male and female gametophyte do not number of seeds
have an independent free-living 104 Compared with the gametophytes (c) nature of some pollination
existence in gymnosperms and of the bryophytes, the (d) domestication by man
angiosperms. In them they remains gametophytes of vascular plants
within the sporangia retained on the Ans. (a)
sporophytes. The pollen grain is
tends to be [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Angiosperms are well adapted to
released from the microsporangium (a) larger but to have smaller sex terrestrial life and occur in diverse
and are carried in air currents and come organs habitats like cold tundra to hot tropical
in contact with the opening of the (b) larger and to have large sex and even desert areas. They also thrive
ovules borne on megasporophylls. The organs well in aquatic habitat. Hence, they
pollen tube carrying the male gametes (c) smaller and to have smaller sex being the most successful, to have
grows towards archegonia in the ovules organs dominated the land flora.
and discharge their contents near the
(d) smaller but to have larger sex organs
mouth of the archegonia.
107 Which of the following is without exception in 109 Life cycle of Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively are
angiosperms? [CBSE AIPMT 2002] [NEET 2017]
(a) Presence of vessels (a) Haplontic, Diplontic (b) Diplontic, Haplodiplontic
(b) Double fertilisation (c) Haplodiplontic, Diplontic (d) Haplodiplontic, Haplontic
(c) Secondary growth Ans. (c)
(d) Autotrophic nutrition Ectocarpus and Fucus respectively show haplodiplontic and
Ans. (b) diplontic life cycle.
Immature
A few plants, (e.g. Rafflesia) are parasitic. Some angiosperm Mature gametophyte
Meiosis u
genera are vesselless. Secondary growth does not take place in Diploid gametophyte
sporophyte v Haploid
a large variety of angiosperms. However, double fertilisation is partheno
met with amongst all angiosperms. Sexual sporophyte
In this one male gamete fuses with egg nucleus (n). This is cycle Parthenogenic
known as syngamy and the second male gamete fuses with the u v Syngamy v u cycle u
secondary nucleus or polar nuclei (2n). This is known as triple
fusion. Together these syngamy and triple fusion is known as
double fertilisation. Haplodiplontic life cycle of Ectocarpus
Concept Enhancer In Ectocarpus sporic meiosis occurs and

haploid biflagellate meiozoospores are formed. They germinate
TOPIC 6 to produce gametophytic thalli. The gametophytes liberate
gametes, which fuse to form diploid zygote, which gives rise to a
Plant Life Cycle and Alternation diploid plant.
of Generations
110 Metagenesis refers to [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
108 Match items in column I with those in column II. (a) the presence of different morphic forms
Column I Column II (b) alternation of generation between asexual and sexual
phases of an organism
A. Peritrichous flagellation 1. Ginkgo
(c) occurrence of a drastic change in form during
B. Living fossil 2. Macrocystis post-embryonic development
C. Rhizophore 3. Escherichia coli (d) the presence of a segmented body and parthenogenetic
D. Smallest flowering plant 4. Selaginella mode of reproduction
E. Largest perennial alga 5. Wolffia Ans. (b)
Metagenesis in an organism refers to the reproduction
Select the correct answer from the following.
characterised by the alteration of a sexual generation and a
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
generation that reproduces asexually, i.e. alteration of
A B C D E A B C D E generations.
(a) 3 1 4 5 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 5
(c) 5 3 2 5 1 (d) 1 2 5 3 2 111 Which one of the following is considered important in
Ans. (a) the development of seed habit? [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Column I Column II (a) Dependent sporophyte

(b) Heterospory
A. Peritrichous flagella 1. Escherichia coli
(flagella all over the body) (a bacterium) (c) Haplontic life cycle
(d) Free-living gametophyte
B. Living fossil 2. Ginkgo biloba
(maiden hair tree) Ans. (b)
C. Rhizophore (a form of aerial 3. Selaginella Heterospory is the production of spores of two different sizes
adventitious roots) (a pteridophyte) and of two different developmental patterns. It is the most
D. Smallest flowering plant 4. Wolffia important evolutionary development in the vascular plants
because it has ultimately lead to seed development, which is
E. Largest perennial algae 5. Macrocystis seen in, Selaginella, Salvinia, Azolla, etc.
04
Animal Kingdom
TOPIC 1 03 Which one of the following Ans. (d)
Phylum–Porifera statements about all the four Sycon belongs to phylum–Porifera. The
Spongilla, leech, dolphin and porifers are most primitive group of
penguin is correct? multicellular animals. They have no
01 In case of poriferans, the tissue grade of organisation and
spongocoel is lined with flagellated [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
represent cell aggregated body plan,
cells called [NEET 2017] (a) Penguin is homiothermic, while hence, included in the
the remaining three are sub-kingdom—Parazoa.
(a) ostia
(b) oscula poikilothermic
(c) choanocytes (b) Leech is a freshwater form, while 05 The canal system is a
(d) mesenchymal cells all others are marine characteristic feature of
(c) Spongilla has special collared cells [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
Ans. (c) called choanocytes, not found in (a) echinoderms
The body wall of a common sponge the remaining three
(b) helminthes
consists of three layer, i.e. pinacoderm, (d) All are bilaterally symmetrical
choanoderm and mesophyll layer. (c) coelenterates
Ans. (c) (d) sponges
Choanoderm is inner cellular layer
which consists of highly specialised Spongilla belongs to phylum–Porifera, in Ans. (d)
flagellated cells called choanocytes. which, choanocytes are the
characteristic cells, these are absent in Sponges possess an extensive system
The beating of their flagella creates of interconnected cavities called canal
water current. leech, dolphin and pengiun. These
distinctive cells line the interior body system, which typically consists of
walls of sponges. incurrent canals, radial canals,
02 Body having meshwork of cells, excurrent canals and spongocoel. The
These cells have a central flagellum that
internal cavities lined with food is surrounded by a collar of microvilli.
system is useful for nutrition,
filtering flagellated cells and respiration and excretion.
Choanocytes are versatile cells.
indirect development are the Their flagella beat to create the active
characteristics of phylum pumping of water through the sponge,
06 What is true about all sponges
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] while the collars of the choanocytes are without exception?
the primary areas where nutrients are [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(a) Coelenterata
(b) Porifera absorbed into the sponge. (a) They are all marine
(c) Mollusca (b) They have flagellated collar cells
(d) Protozoa
04 Sycon belongs to a group of (c) They have a mixed skeleton
animals which are best described consisting of spicules and spongin
Ans. (b)
as [CBSE AIPMT 2003] fibres
In Porifera (sponges), bodies are (d) They reproduce only asexually by
(a) multicellular with a gastrovascular
asymetrical. Body lacks tissue or budding
system
organs, but from a meshwork of cells
surrounding channels that open to the (b) multicellular having tissue Ans. (b)
outside through pores, and that organisation, but no body cavity Sponges are all aquatic, mostly marine
expand into internal cavities lined with (c) unicellular or acellular but few fresh water forms also exist.
food filtering flagellated cells (d) multicellular without any tissue Choanocytes or collar cells are only
(choanocytes). organisation present in sponges.
Sponges usually have a skeleton Saccharomyces is a genus of kingdom Ans. (b)

consisting of spicules or spongin fibres. fungi which includes many species of
yeast. Their cell wall is made up of True alternation of generations is
Sponges reproduce asexually by alternation between haploid
budding, gemmules and reproduce chitin.
gametophyte and diploid sporophyte
sexually too. phase. In Obelia, the asexual polypoid
10 Select the taxon mentioned that phase is alternate with sexual medusoid
07 The simplest type of canal system represents both marine and phase and this type of life cycle is called
in Porifera is [CBSE AIPMT 1992] freshwater species metagenesis.
(a) ascon type (b) leucon type (a) Echinoderms [CBSE AIPMT 2014] Neoteny It is also called Juvenilisation,
(c) sycon type (d) radial type (b) Ctenophora is one of the two ways by which
(c) Cephalochordata paedomorphism can arise.
Ans. (a)
(d) Cnidaria Paedomorphism It is the retention by
The simplest type of canal system in adults of traits previously seen only in
Porifera is ascon type. Ans. (d) young, and is a subject studied in the
Osculum Cnidarian members are found both in development biology.
freshwater and marine environments, Metamorphosis It is a biological
Ostium while members of Ctenophora, process by which an animal physically
Cylinder bore Cephalochordata and Echinodermata develops after birth or notching,
are found exclusively in marine involving a conspicous and relatively
Central cavity abrupt change in the animal body
environment.
(spongocoel)
structure through cell growth and
11 In which animal nerve cell is differentiation. e.g., in some insects,
molluses etc.
present but brain is absent?
Water Flagellated [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
current collar cells
(a) Sponge (b) Earthworm
14 Point out a non-parasite
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(c) Cockroach (d) Hydra
Ascon type canal system (Porifera) (a) tapeworm (b) mosquito
Ans. (d) (c) leech (d) sea anemone
08 Classification of Porifera is based The neurons of Hydra synapse with
Ans. (d)
each other and other body cells. As a
on [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
result, it responds to external stimuli. Sea anemone is a coelenterate found in
(a) branching (b) spicules However, there is no brain in Hydra to marine water, attached to the empty
(c) reproduction (d) symmetry coordinate the responses. shell of gastropods already occupied by
hermit crab, this association is
Ans. (b) symbiosis not parasitism.
Classification of sponges is primarily
12 In Hydra, waste material of food
digestion and nitrogenous waste Tapeworm, mosquito and leech are
based on skeleton which are spicules. parasites.
These belongs to phylum– Porifera. material are removed from
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
15 Special character of coelenterates
(a) mouth and mouth
TOPIC 2 (b) body wall and body wall
(a) polymorphism
(c) mouth and body wall
Phylum–Cnidaria (d) mouth and tentacles
(b) nematocysts
(Coelenterata) and Ans. (c)
(c) flame cells
(d) hermaphroditism
In Hydra, undigested residues are
09 Which one of the following living egested from coelentron through Ans. (b)
organisms completely lacks a cell mouth, while nitrogenous excretory The most characteristic feature of
wall? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] product (ammonia) is removed through coelenterates is the presence of
(a) Cyanobacteria general body surface. nematocysts or stinging cells.
Hydra are solitary, sessile, freshwater Nematocysts are mainly concerned
(b) Sea-fan (Gorgonia)
coelenterates. They are found in lakes, with food capture, defence and
(c) Saccharomyces attachment.
ponds stream. Hydra is an ammonotelic
(d) Blue-green algae animal i.e., it excretes waste material in
Ans. (b) the form of ammonia. 16 Which one of the following
Sea-fan (Gorgonia) belongs to: kingdom animals possesses nerve cells but
–Animalia, phylum–Cnidaria and order– 13 Most appropriate term to describe no nerves? [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
Gorgonacea. As, it is on animal, thus it the life cycle of Obelia is (a) Hydra
lacks cell wall unlike cyanobacteria or [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (b) Tapeworm
blue–green algae (kingdom–Monera) (a) neoteny (b) metagenesis (c) Earthworm
have cell wall which is composed of
(c) metamorphosis (d) Frog’s tadpole
peptidoglycan.
(d) All of these
Animal Kingdom 33
Ans. (a) TOPIC 4 Ans. (b)

Hydra has nerve cells but no nerves. Planaria is a flatworm belonging to
Hydra possesses a very primitive
Phylum-Platyhelminthes phylum–Platyhelminthes. They are the
nervous system consisting of a synaptic simplest form of multicellular animal.
network of bipolar and multipolar nerve 21 Match the following columns and They have high capacity of regeneration
cells. select the correct option. of new tissue at the wound site via cell
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] proliferation (blastema formation) and
17 Budding is a normal mode of the remodelling of pre-existing tissue
asexual reproduction in Column I Column II to restore symmetry and proportion.
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] A. Gregarious, 1. Asterias This is due the neoblast cells.
(a) starfish and Hydra polyphagous pest These cells are usually scattered
(b) Hydra and sponges B. Adult with radi 2. Scorpion through out the body and are able to
(c) tapeworm and Hydra symmetry and larva participate in any type of development.
(d) sponge and starfish with bilateral The regenerative capacity of different
symmetry
Ans. (b) body sections is an indicator of the
C. Book lungs 3. Ctenoplana presence of different numbers of
Hydra and sponges reproduce asexually
D. Bioluminescence 4. Locusta neoblast cells.
by exogenous budding, a type of
vegetative propagation.
A B C D 24 One example of animal having a
18 Jelly fish belongs to class (a) 4 1 2 3 single opening to the outside that
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] (b) 3 2 1 4 serves both as mouth as well as
(a) Hydrozoa (c) 2 1 3 4 anus is [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(b) Scyphozoa (d) 1 3 2 4
(a) Octopus (b) Asterias
(c) Anthozoa Ans. (a) (c) Ascidia (d) Fasciola
(d) None of these The correct option is (a). It can be Ans. (d)
Ans. (b) explained as follows
Fasciola hepatica (sheep liver fluke)
Aurelia (jellyfish) belongs to Locusta is a gregareous pest. belongs to phylum–Platyhelminthes.
class—Scyphozoa of phylum—Cnidaria. In echinoderms, adults are radially These worms have incomplete
It is without skeleton. symmetrical but larvae are bilaterally alimentary canal, there is a single
symmetrical. opening for both ingestion and
19 Organ pipe coral is Scorpions respire through book lungs. egestion. This is also called as blind sac
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] Bioluminescence is well-marked in body plan.
(a) Tubipora (b) Astraea ctenophores.
(c) Helipora (d) Fungia 25 Which one of the following kinds
22 Bilaterally symmetrical and of animals are triploblastic?
Ans. (a)
acoelomate animals are [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
Organ pipe coral is the common name
exemplified by [NEET (Sep.) 2020] (a) Flatworms
of Tubipora. This is coelenterate and
comes under class—Anthrozoa. (a) Platyhelminthes (b) Aschelminthes (b) Sponges
(c) Annelida (d) Ctenophora (c) Ctenophores
Ans. (a) (d) Corals
TOPIC 3
Platyhelminthes are bilaterally Ans. (a)
Ctenophora symmetrical, triploblastic and
Flatworms (phylum–Platyhelminthes)
acoelomate animals with organ level of
are triploblastic animals. The cells of
organisation.
20 Biradial symmetry and lack of the body wall are arranged in three
Aschelminthes are bilaterally layers. i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm and
cnidoblasts are the characteristics symmetrical, triploblastic and endoderm.
of [CBSE AIPMT 2006] pseudocoelomate with organ system
Sponges, ctenophores and corals are
(a) Starfish and sea anemone grade of body organisation. Annelida
diploblastic animals.
(b) Ctenoplana and Beroe are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic
(c) Aurelia and Paramecium and truly schizocoelomate. Ctenophora
are biradially symmetrical,triploblastic
26 During its life cycle, Fasciola
(d) Hydra and starfish hepatica (liver fluke) infects its
and acoelomates.
Ans. (b) intermediate host and primary
Ctenoplana and Beroe lack cnidoblasts 23 Planaria possess high capacity of host at the following larval stages
and have biradial symmetry. These [CBSE AIPMT 2014] respectively [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
belong to phylum–Ctenophora.
(a) metamorphosis (a) metacercaria and cercaria
Hydra, sea anemone and Aurelia are
(b) regeneration (b) miracidium and metacercaria
coelenterates which have cnidoblasts.
Although sea anemone has biradial (c) alternation of generation (c) redia and miracidium
symmetry. (d) bioluminescence (d) cercaria and redia
Ans. (b) 30 The excretory structures of flat Ans. (a)

Liver fluke (Fasciola hepatica) is a worms/Taenia are Round worms (phylum–Aschelminthes)
‘digenetic’ endoparasite, i.e. its life [CBSE AIPMT 1991] are pseudocoelomates, false coelom is
cycle completes within two hosts. The derived from embryonic blastocoel.
(a) flame cells
primary host is sheep and the Flat worms (phylum–Platyhelminthes)
secondary or intermediate host is fresh (b) protonephridia
are acoelomate animals.
water gastropod, snail. Fasciola (c) Malpighian tubules
hepatica infects its intermediate host Molluscs and insects
(d) green glands (phylum–Arthropoda) are coelomate
at miracidium stage and its primary
host at metacercaria stage. Ans. (a) animals.
Excretory structures of
27 Which one belongs to flatworms/Taenia are flame cells. 34 Which one of the following groups
Platyhelminthes? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Longitudinal and cross-connecting of animals is bilaterally symmetrical
excretory canals drain fluid from flame and triploblastic?
(a) Schistosoma (b) Trypansoma
cells in each proglottid. Main excretory [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
(c) Plasmodium (d) Wuchereria
products are ammonia and fatty acids. (a) Coelenterates (cnidarians)
Ans. (a)
(b) Aschelminthes (roundworms)
Schistosoma is the common human 31 Bladderworm/cysticercus is the
(c) Ctenophores
blood fluke and belongs to larval stage of [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
Platyhelminthes. It is a genus of (d) Sponges
(a) tapeworm (b) roundworm
trematodes. Ans. (b)
(c) pinworm (d) liver fluke
It is a parasitic flatworm responsible for Aschelminthes are bilateral
a highly significant group of infections Ans. (a) symmetrical and triploblastic animals,
in humans termed as Schistosomiasis. Bladderworm/Cysticercus is the larval e.g. Ascaris.
stage of tapeworm. It is found in the Coelenterates are radially symmetrical
28 What is true about Taenia muscles of pig and this is the stage and diploblastic animals, e.g. Obelia.
saginata? [CBSE AIPMT 1993] through which man gets infected by Ctenophores are radially symmetrical
(a) Life history has pig as eating raw or poorly cooked ‘measly and diploblastic animals, e.g.
intermediate host pork’. Ctenoplana.
(b) There are two large suckers on Sponges are asymmetrical or radially
scolex 32 Transfer of Taenia to secondary symmetrical and diploblastic animals,
(c) Rostellar hooks are absent host occurs as e.g. Sycon.
[CBSE AIPMT 1989, 90]
(d) Rostellum has double circle of
hooks (a) oncosphere 35 Ascaris is characterised by
(b) cysticercus [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
Ans. (c) (a) absence of true coelom but
(c) morula
Taenia saginata do not possess presence of metamerism
(d) egg
rostellum and rostellar hooks. (b) presence of neither true coelom
Ans. (a)
nor metamerism
29 What is correct about Taenia? Oncospheres pass through faecal
(c) presence of true coelom but
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] matter of man. Secondary host pig
absence of metamerism
(a) Male organs occur in posterior acquires infection by ingesting the
(d) presence of true coelom and
proglottids oncospheres.
metamerism (metamerisation)
(b) Male organs occur in anterior
proglottids Ans. (b)
(c) Female organs occur in anterior
TOPIC 5 Ascaris is endoparasite of man. It
inhabits the small intestine more
proglottids Phylum-Aschelminthes frequently of children than of adults.
(d) Mature proglottids contain both
The body is elongate, cylindrical and
male and female organs 33 Which one of the following gradually tapering at both ends. There
Ans. (d) statements about certain given is no metameric segmentation. In
Body of Taenia is divided into scolex, animals is correct? Ascaris between body wall and visceral
neck and strobilla. Strobilla is the main [CBSE AIPMT 2010] organs is a spacious fluid filled cavity.
body and made of proglottids. A (a) Round worms (Aschelminthes) are This cavity is not true coelom as it is not
proglottid is a unit of body enclosing a pseudocoelomates lined by coelomic epithelium, has no
complete set of genitalia. (b) Molluscs are acoelomates relation with reproductive and
Mature proglottids are in the middle excretory organs and develops from
(c) Insects are pseudocoelomates
having both male and female blastocoel. This body cavity is referred
(d) Flatworms (Platyhelminthes) are
reproductive organs. as pseudocoel.
coelomates
Animal Kingdom 35
36 What is common between Ascaris Ans. (c) 42 Pheretima and its close relatives
lumbricoides and Anopheles (c) (A)- (3), (B)-(4),(C)-(2),(D)-(1) derive nourishment from
stephensi? [CBSE AIPMT 2000] The annelid worms were thought to [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
have evolved from a coelomate (a) sugarcane roots
(a) Hibernation
worm-like ancestor which developed (b) decaying fallen leaves and soil
(b) Metamerism metameric segmentation or
(c) Anaerobic respiration organic matter
metamerism and the segments were
(d) Sexual dimorphism termed as somites or metameres.
(c) soil insects
(d) small pieces of fresh fallen leaves
Ans. (d) Sponges or porifera have a water
transport or canal system. Water enters
of maize
Both A. lumbricoides and A. stephensi;
have different males and females and it via minute pore (ostia) in the body wall Ans. (b)
is possible to distinguish between them into the central cavity spongocoel from Food of earthworm (Pheretima sp.)
morphologically. where it goes out via osculum. consists of organic matter, fallen
The body of ctenophores bear eight decaying leaves, algae, etc. present in
37 Ascaris larva is called external rows of ciliated comb plates the soil. Food is swallowed along with
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] which helps in locomotion. soil by sucking action.
(a) cysticercus (b) rhabditiform The name Cnidaria is derived from
(c) hexacanth (d) onchosphere
cnidocytes or cnidoblast that are found 43 One very special feature in the
on the tentacles and body of the earthworm Pheretima is that
Ans. (b) organism. [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Ascaris larva is called rhabditoid or (a) the typhlosole greatly increases
rhabditiform due to its close 40 Which of the following options the effective absorption area of
resemblance with Rhabditis. does correctly represent the the digested food in the intestine
characteristic features of (b) the S-shaped setae embedded in
38 Ascaris lumbricoides infection
phylum–Annelida? the integument are the defensive
occurs through [CBSE AIPMT 1991] [NEET (Oct.) 2020] weapons used against the
(a) sole of uncovered feet (a) Triploblastic, unsegmented body enemies
(b) contaminated cooked measly pork and bilaterally symmetrical (c) it has a long dorsal tubular heart
(c) improperly cooked measly pork (b) Triploblastic, segmented body and
(d) from air through inhalation (d) fertilisation of eggs occurs inside
bilaterally symmetrical the body
Ans. (b) (c) Triploblastic, flattened body and
acoelomate condition Ans. (a)
The transmission of infective stage
through embryonated egg of Ascaris (d) Diploblastic, mostly marine and A pair of short and conical intestinal
lumbricoides takes place by caecae project from the intestine on
radially symmetrical
contaminated cooked measly pork and the 26th segment. The characteristic
Ans. (b) feature of the intestine between 26-35
contaminated water.
Animals belonging to phylum-Annelida segments is the presence of internal
are triploblastic, bilaterally symmetrical median fold of dorsal wall called
typhlosole.
TOPIC 6 and metamerically segmented.
They exhibit organ system level of body This increases the effective area of
Phylum-Annelida organisation with presence of coelom. absorption in the intestine.
They may be aquatic (marine and
39 Match the List-I with List-II. freshwater) or terrestrial, free-living 44 If a live earthworm is pricked with
[NEET 2021] and sometimes parasitic. a needle on its outer surface
without damaging its gut, the fluid
List-I List-II 41 Which of the following animals are that comes out is
A. Metamerism 1. Coelenterata true coelomates with bilateral [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
B. Canal system 2. Ctenophora

symmetry? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] (a) excretory fluid
(a) Adult echinoderms (b) coelomic fluid
C. Comb plates 3. Annelida (c) haemolymph
(b) Aschelminthes
D. Cnidoblasts 4. Porifera (c) Platyhelminthes (d) slimy mucus
(d) Annelids Ans. (b)
Choose the correct answer from Ans. (d) The body cavity of earthworm is true
the options given below. coelom (schizocoel) as it is formed by
Annelids are true coelomates with
A B C D bilateral symmetry. These exhibit the division of mesoderm. The coelom
(a) 4 3 1 2 organ-system level of body is filled with milky, alkaline coelomic
(b) 3 4 1 2 organisation with true coelom. They are fluid, which contains different types of
triploblastic, metamerically segmented corpuscles. Thus, if alive earthworm is
(c) 3 4 2 1
and coelomate animals, e.g. prickled with a needle on its outer
(d) 4 1 2 3 surface, the coelomic fluid will come out.
earthworm.
Excretory fluids Excretory system Earthworm (Pheretima posthuma) living (a) ectoderm on both sides
regulate the chemical composition of in burrows made in moist earth. The (b) endoderm on one side and
body fluids by removing metabolic body shows metameric segmentation. ectoderm on the other
waste substances. About the middle of each segment (c) mesoderm on one side and
Haemolymph It is a fluid in the open there is a ring of tiny curved bristles ectoderm on the other
circulatory system of arthropods, e.g. called setae or chaetae, formed of a (d) mesoderm on both sides
spiders, crustaceans etc. horny nitrogenous organic substance
Ans. (d)
It is analogous to the fluids and cells known as chitin. The setae and
musculature serve for locomotion as Coeloms are secondary body cavities
making both blood and interstitial fluid. bounded on all sides by mesodermal
well as for anchoring body firmly in
Slimy mucus Mucus trap bacteria cell burrow. peritoneum. The true coelom arises
debris and prevents it from entering within the mesoderm itself.
into lungs and in their body parts. The blood of earthworm is composed of
a fluid plasma and colourless coruscles,
physiologically comparable to the 51 Coelom derived from blastocoel is
45 Which one of the following is not a leucocytes of vertebrates. known as [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
characteristic of (a) enterocoelom
phylum–Annelida? 47 Which one of the following is (b) schizocoelom
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] correct matching pair of a body (c) pseudocoelom
(a) Closed circulatory system feature and the animal possessing (d) haemocoelom
(b) Segmentation it? [CBSE AIPMT 2007] Ans. (c)
(c) Pseudocoelom Coelom derived from blastocoel is
(a) Post-anal tail — Octopus
(d) Ventral nerve cord pseudocoelom. These are cavities not
(b) Ventral central — Leech
Ans. (c) entirely lined by peritoneum (thin
nervous system
cellular membrane derived from
Name of the phylum–Annelida was first (c) Pharyngeal gills slits mesoderm).
coined by Lamarck. The body of — Chameleon absent in embryo
annelids is elongated, bilaterally Embryologically pseudocoel may be a
(d) Ventral heart — Scorpion persistent blastocoel. Such type of
symmetrical, triploblastic, truely
coelomate and metamerically Ans. (b) coelom is found in Nematohelminthes.
segmented into similar metameres. The The nervous system of leech consists of
coelom is true, schizocoelous. Blood ventral central nervous system,
52 Which one assists in locomotion?
vascular system is closed. The nervous peripheral nervous system and [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
system is with a pair of cerebral ganglia sympathetic nervous system. (a) Trichocysts in Paramecium
and a double ventral nerve cord bearing (b) Pedicellariae of starfish
ganglia and lateral nerves in each 48 In which of the following (c) Clitellum in Pheretima
segment. chlorocruorin pigment is found? (d) Posterior sucker in Hirudinaria
The blood vascular system consists of (a) Annelida [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
blood vessels and capillaries. Blood is Ans. (d)
(b) Echinodermata
composed of fluid plasma and In Hirudinaria locomotion takes place by
colourless corpuscles, physiologically (c) Insecta looping and swimming in which its
comparable to the leucocytes of (d) Lower Chordata posterior suckers provide help as setae
vertebrates. Ans. (a) are not present for locomotion.
Pseudocoelom is the body cavity of Chlorocruorin is a respiratory pigment
Aschelminthes (roundworm). 53 Blood of Pheretima is
(green, fluorescing red) dissolved in the [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
plasma of some polychaete worms
46 Earthworms have no skeleton but (annelid). (a) blue with haemocyanin in
corpuscles
during burrowing, the anterior end
becomes turgid and acts as a 49 Functionwise, just as there are (b) blue with haemocyanin in plasma
nephridia in an earthworm, so are (c) red with haemoglobin in
hydraulic skeleton. It is due to
[CBSE AIPMT 1996] corpuscles
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(a) parotid glands in toad (d) red with haemoglobin in plasma
(a) coelomic fluid (b) blood
(b) statocysts in prawn Ans. (d)
(c) gut peristalsis (d) setae
(c) flame cells in liver fluke Blood of Pheretima is red in colour and
Ans. (a) (d) myotomes in fish respiratory pigment haemoglobin is
The body cavity (coelom) of earthworm is dissolved in blood plasma.
Ans. (c)
filled with an alkaline, colourless or milky
coelomic fluid containing water, salts Flame cells in liver fluke are excretory 54 Pheretima posthuma is highly
some proteins and four types of organs as nephridia in an earthworm.
useful as [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
coelomic corpuscles i.e. phagocytes,
50 True coelom is the space lying (a) their burrows make the soil loose
mucocytes, circular nucleated cells and
chloragogen cells. During burrowing the between the alimentary canal and (b) they make the soil porous, leave
coelomic fluid becomes turgid and acts body wall enclosed by the layers of their castings and take organic
as hydraulic skeleton. [CBSE AIPMT 1996] debris in the soil
Animal Kingdom 37
(c) they are used as fish meal Grasshopper belong to Acrididae family the correct option using the codes
(d) they kill the birds due to Cockroach belong to Blattidae family. given below: [NEET 2016, Phase II]
biomagnification of chlorinated
hydrocarbons 58 Match the following organisms Column I Column II
Ans. (b) with their respective A. Family 1. Diptera

Pheretima posthuma is useful for characteristics. B. Order 2. Arthropoda
farmers as they enrich the soil by their [NEET (National) 2019] C. Class 3. Muscidae
excretory wastes and make the soil Column I Column II D. Phylum 4. Insecta
porous.
A. Pila (i) Flame cells Codes
55 Earthworms are [CBSE AIPMT 1989] B. Bombyx (ii) Comb plates A B C D
(a) useful C. Pleurobrachia (iii) Radula (a) 3 1 4 2
(b) harmful D. Taenia (iv) Malpighian (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) more useful than harmful tubules (c) 4 3 2 1
(d) more harmful (d) 4 2 1 3
Select the correct option from the
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
following :
Earthworms are friends of farmers Classification of housefly
A B C D
because they enrich the soil by A. Family – Muscidae
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
nephridial excretion, it increases the B. Order – Diptera
(b) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
fertility of soil. They also help in C. Class – Insecta
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
ploughing of fields, make the soil D. Phylum – Arthropoda
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
porous. Earthworms are also used for Short Trick The question can be easily
dissection in laboratories. Ans. (a)
solved via elimination technique as (D)
(A)–(iii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(ii), (D)–(i) phylum is given with (2) Arthropoda
56 Photoreceptors of earthworm occur Pila or apple snail contains a file-like combination in only option (a). This
on [CBSE AIPMT 1989] rasping organ called radula for feeding. easily eliminates other options as
(a) clitellum (b) many eyes Bombyx or silkworm is an arthropod in correct answer. Thus, saves your time
which excretion occurs through too.
(c) dorsal surface (d) lateral sides
Malpighian tubules. The body of
Ans. (c) ctenophore Pleurobranchia bears eight 61 Which group of animals belong to
Photoreceptors (with L-shaped lens or rows of ciliated comb plates, which help the same phylum? [NEET 2013]
optic organelles) are present on the in locomotion. (a) Malarial parasite, Amoeba,
surface of skin on dorsal side. In Taenia, excretion occurs through mosquito
Earthworm has no eyes, specialised cells called flame cells (b) Earthworm, pinworm, tapeworm
photoreceptors are used to judge which contain a protonephridia.
(c) Prawn, scorpion, Locusta
intensity and duration of light, but do
not have the capacity of vision. 59 Which of the following features is (d) Sponge, sea anemone, starfish
not present in the Ans. (c)
phylum–Arthropoda? Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta belong to
TOPIC 7 [NEET 2016, Phase I] phylum– Arthropoda therefore, it is
correct. Others can be corrected as
Phylum-Arthropoda (a) Metameric segmentation
Malarial parasite (Plasmodium vivax) and
(b) Parapodia Amoeba belong to phylum–Protozoa.
(c) Jointed appendages
57 Which one of the following Mosquito—Phylum –Arthropoda
(d) Chitinous exoskeleton
belongs to the family-Muscidae ? Earthworm — Phylum –Annelida
[NEET 2021] Ans. (b) Pinworm and Tapeworm –Phylum–
(a) Firefly (b) Grasshopper Parapodia are present in aquatic Aschelminthes
(c) Cockroach (d) Housefly annelids like Nereis, which help them in Sponge—Phylum—Porifera, Sea
swimming. Other three features, i.e. anemone –
Ans. (d)
metameric segmentation, jointed Phylum — Coelenterata
Housefly belong to Muscidae family. appendages and chitinous exoskeleton Starfish — Phylum-Echinodermata
Muscidae are a family of flies found in are present in phylum—Arthropoda. Out
superfamily-Muscoidea. The of these metameric segmentation is 62 One of the representative of
family-Muscidae is a large dipteran visible as tagmetisation.
family comprised of more than 5000 Phylum– Arthropoda is [NEET 2013]
species. (a) cuttle fish (b) silver fish
60 Match column I with column II for (c) puffer fish (d) flying fish
Other options can be explained as:
housefly classification and select
Firefly belong to Lampyridae family
Ans. (b) 65 Which of the following is correctly 67 Which one of the following is the
Silver fish — Arthropoda (phylum) states as it happens in the true description about an animal
Silver fish is a small, wingless insect in common cockroach? concerned? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
the order Thysanura. [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(a) Earthworm— The alimentary canal
Cuttle fish — Mollusca (a) Oxygen is transported by consists of a sequence
Putter fish — Chordata (phylum), haemoglobin in blood of pharynx,
class — Pisces oesophagus, stomach,
(b) Nitrogenous excretory product is gizzard and intestine
Flying fish — Pisces. urea
(b) Frog — Body divisible into three
(c) The food is ground by mandibles regions— head, neck
63 Which of the following are and gizzard and trunk
correctly matched with respect to (d) Malpighian tubules are excretory (c) Rat — Left kidney is slightly
organs projecting out from the higher in position than
their taxonomic classification? the right one
[NEET 2013] colon
(d) Cockroach — 10 pairs of spiracles (2
(a) Flying fish, cuttle fish, silver Ans. (c) pairs on thorax and 8
fish—Pisces In cockroach, mandibles are a pair of pairs on abdomen)
(b) Centipede, millipede, spider, hard, strong, large, dark coloured
scorpion—Insecta triangular, structures which move in Ans. (d)
(c) House fly, butterfly, tse-tse fly, horizontal motion and crush food The respiratory system of cockroach
silver fish—Insecta between them. consists of tracheae, tracheoles and
Gizzard or proventriculus has an outer spiracles. The main tracheal trunks
(d) Spiny anteater, sea urchin, sea open to exterior on body surface
cucumber—Echinodermata layer of thick circular muscles and thick
inner cuticle forming six highly through 10 pairs of segmentally
Ans. (c) chitinous plate called teeth. The gizzard arranged spiracles. Two pair of
Option (c) is correctly matched acts as the grinding chamber and helps spiracles are thoracic (one between pro
housefly, butterfly, tse-tse fly, silver in grinding the food particles. and mesothorax and other between
fish–Insecta of phylum–Arthropoda. meso and metathorax). Eight pairs of
spiracle are abdominal (one pair in each
Others can be corrected as 66 Which one of the following groups
of the first eight abdominal segments).
Flying fish, class – Osteichthyes of of three animals each is correctly
Alimentary canal of earthworm is
phylum – Pisces, cuttle fish (Sepia) of matched with their one complete and functionally regioned into
phylum – Mollusca characteristic morphological buccal chamber, pharynx, oesophagus,
Silver fish, class–Insecta of phylum feature? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] gizzard, stomach and intestine.
– Arthropoda
Frog’s body has two main parts, i.e.,
Sea urchin and sea cucumber belong to Morphological
Animals head and trunk. Absence of neck and
Echinodermata. Feature
tail provide convenience in both
Spider and scorpion belong to class (a) Liver fluke, sea — Bilateral hopping and swimming.
– Arachnida of phylum − Arthropoda. anemone, sea symmetry
cucumber
Centipede belongs to class – Chilopoda 68 Which one of the following phyla is
of phylum – Arthropoda. (b) Centipede, — Jointed
prawn, sea appendages correctly matched with its two
Millipede belongs to class – Diplopeda urchin general characteristics?
of phylum – Arthropoda. (c) Scorpion, spider, — Ventral solid [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
Spring anteater belongs to phylum – cockroach central nervous
Mammalia. system (a) Arthropoda — Body divided into
(d) Cockroach, — Metameric head, thorax and
locust, Taenia segmentation abdomen and
64 Which one of the following have respiration by
the highest number of species in tracheae
Ans. (c)
nature? [CBSE AIPMT 2011] Characteristic Animal (b) Chordata — Notochord at some
(a) Insects stage and separate
Bilateral —Liver fluke, Taenia anal and urinary
(b) Birds symmetry openings to the
(c) Angiosperms Jointed —Prawn, cockroach, outside
(d) Fungi appendages scorpion (c) Echinodermata— Pentamerous radial
Ans. (a) Ventral solid —Scorpion, spider, symmetry and mostly
central Cockroach internal fertilisation
More than 70% of all the species nervous system
recorded are animals. Among animals, (d) Mollusca — Normally oviparous
Metameric —Annelids
insects are the most species rich and development
segmentation through a
taxonomic group, making more than
Radial —Sea anemone trochophore or
70% of the total. It means out of every symmetry
10 animals on this planet, 7 are insects. veliger larva
Animal Kingdom 39
Ans. (a) 71 From the following statements 74 What is common among silver
Arthropoda is the largest phylum of select the wrong one. fish, scorpion, crab and honeybee?
animal kingdom. Body of an arthropod [CBSE AIPMT 2005] [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
is divisible into head, thorax and (a) Millipedes have two pairs of (a) Compound eyes
abdomen. Head and thorax often fused (b) Poison glands
appendages in each segment of
to form cephalothorax. The respiration
the body (c) Jointed appendages
takes place by general body surface,
gills, tracheae or book lungs. (b) Prawn has two pairs of antennae (d) Metamorphosis
Molluscs are mostly dioecious or
(c) Animals belonging to Ans. (c)
monoecious, one or more gonads with phylum–Porifera are exclusively The main characteristics of phylum—
gonoducts, opening into renal ducts or marine Arthropoda are as follows
to exterior. The fertilisation is external (d) Nematocysts are characteristic of
(i) Jointed appendages, present in
or internal, development direct or the phylum–Cnidaria some or all somite or segments, but
indirect through free larval forms.
Ans. (b) often modified for specialised
Echinoderms have a pentamerous functions like walking, clinging,
radial symmetry derived from an Prawn does not have two pairs of
antennae instead it has one pair of jumping, etc.
original bilateral symmetry. The
fertilisation is external, development antennae and one pair of antennules. (ii) Bilateral symmetry.
indirect through free-swimming larval (iii) Exoskeleton of cuticle.
forms. 72 In Arthropoda, head and thorax are (iv) Complex muscular system.
Chordates are sharply distinguished often fused to form (v) Reduced coelom.
from non-chordates by presence of cephalothorax, but in which one of (vi) Complete digestive system.
notochord, dorsal tubular central the following classes, is the body (vii) Open circulatory system.
nervous system and pharyngeal gills (viii) Respiration by body surface, gills,
slits. divided into head, thorax and
trachea (air tubes), or book lungs.
abdomen? [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
69 What is true about Nereis, (ix) Paired excretory glands called
(a) Insecta
coxal, antennal or maxillary glands
scorpion, cockroach and silver (b) Myriapoda present in some, homologous to
fish? [CBSE AIPMT 2007] (c) Crustacea metameric nephridial system of
(a) They all have jointed paired (d) Arachnida and Crustacea annelids, some with other excretory
appendages Ans. (a) organs called Malpighian tubules.
(b) They all possess dorsal heart An arthropod body consists of head, (x) Nervous system with dorsal brain
(c) None of them is aquatic thorax and abdomen, in some cases connected by a ring around the
(d) They all belong to the same head and thorax may be fused to form gullet to a double nerve chain of
phylum cephalothorax. Class—Insecta have ventral ganglia.
body divided into head, thorax and (xi) Sexes usually separate.
Ans. (c)
abdomen.
Nereis living in burrows in sand or mud 75 A larval stage occurs in the life
often with clams. Scorpion are history of all members of the
73 Which one of the following is
abundant in deserts. Cockroach are
found in warmth, dampness and plenty correct matching pair of an animal group [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
of organic food to devour. Lepisma and a certain phenomenon it (a) frog, lizard and cockroach
(silver fish) residing in damp cool places exhibits? [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (b) Ascaris, housefly and frog
and feeding on starch of starchy (a) Chameleon — Mimicry (c) housefly, earthworm and mosquito
matter. (d) butterfly, frog and mosquito
(b) Taenia — Polymorphism
70 Two common characters found in (c) Pheretima — Sexual dimorphism Ans. (d)
centipede, cockroach and crab are (d) Musca — Complete Lizard, cockroach, Ascaris, earthworm
[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
metamorphosis shows direct development in their life
Ans. (d) cycle. Whereas, butterfly have catterpillar,
(a) compound eyes and anal cerci
frog have tadpole and mosquito have
(b) jointed legs and chitinous The young forms of housefly (maggot, wriggler larvae in their life cycle.
exoskeleton pupas) are entirely different from the
(c) green gland and tracheae adult, the metamorphosis being 76 Adult Culex and Anopheles can be
(d) book lungs and antennae complete (holometabolic distinguished with the help of
metamorphosis). Metamorphosis is a [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
Ans. (b) process during which an animal
Crab, centipede and cockroach belong (a) mouth parts/colour
undergoes a comparatively rapid (b) sitting posture
to phylum–Arthropoda. These have changes from their larval stages to
jointed appendages and chitinous (c) antennae/wings
adult form.
exoskeleton. (d) feeding habits
Ans. (b) Ans. (a) Ans. (c)

The body of Anopheles mosquito makes Malpighian tubules are the excretory (A)-(2), (B)-(3, (C)-(4), (D)-(1)
an angle of 45° while sitting whereas organs of insects. These are ● Physalia belongs to
the body of Culex mosquito lies parallel unbranched tubules lying almost freely phylum-Coelenterata (Cnidaria) and is
to the surface. in haemocoel and open into alimentary commonly known as Portuguese
canal. The main function of these
77 Male and female cockroaches can man-of-war.
tubules is to absorb nitrogenous waste
● Limulus belongs to
be distinguished externally product.
through [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
phylum-Arthropoda and is a living fossil
and commonly termed as king crab.
(a) anal styles in male 82 Kala-azar and oriental sore are ● Ancylostoma belongs to
(b) anal cerci in female spread by [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
phylum-Aschelminthes and is
(c) anal style and antennae in females (a) housefly (b) bed bug commonly referred to as hookworm.
(d) Both (b) and (c) (c) sand fly (d) fruit fly ● Pinctada belongs to phylum-Mollusca
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) and is commonly called pearl oyster.

Anal style, a pair of small, spine–like Kala-azar and oriental sore both the 85 In which one of the following, the
unjointed structures are present on disease are caused by Leishmania. It is genus name, its two characters
sternite of 9th segment in males only. digenetic and intermediate host is sand
and its phylum are not correctly
fly belonging to the genus Phlebotomus.
78 Metamorphosis of insects is matched, whereas the remaining
Leishmania donovani causes kala-azar
regulated through hormone three are correct?
or visceral leishmaniasis which is also
called dum-dum fever, infection occurs
(a) pheromone (b) thyroxine chiefly in spleen and liver, secondarily in Genus Name Two characters Phylum
(c) ecdysone (d) All of these bone marrow and intestinal villi. (a) Pila (i) Body Mollusca
Ans. (c) L. tropica causes oriental sore or segmented
cutaneous leishmaniasis in man. (ii) Mouth with
Metamorphosis is regulated by
Radula
ecdysone hormone secreted by
prothoracic glands. This hormone was 83 Silk thread is obtained from silk (b) Asterias (i) Spiny skinnedEchinoder-
isolated in a crystalline form in 1954 by moth during [CBSE AIPMT 1988] mata
Butenandt and Karlson. (a) pupal stage (b) larval stage (ii) Water
vascular
79 An insect regarded as greatest (c) nymph stage (d) adult stage system
mechanical carrier of diseases is Ans. (a) (c) Sycon (i) Pore bearing Porifera
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] Caterpillar feeds on mulberry leaves. Its (ii) Canal system
(a) Pediculus (b) Cimex salivary gland secretes liquid silk. Silk is (d) Periplaneta (i) Jointed Arthropo-da
(c) Musca (d) Xenopsylla obtained from (pupa, chrysalis). Ripe appendages
cocoons are treated with boiling water (ii) Chitinous
Ans. (c) to kill the moth before hatching. exoskeleton
Musca (house fly) is the carrier of many
disease as anthrax, trachoma, Ans. (a)
diarrhoea, tuberculosis, leprosy, TOPIC 8 Option (a) is incorrect because molluscs
gaugrene, plague, gonorrhoea, typhoid, are bilaterally symmetrical,
cholera and dysentery. Phylum-Mullusca triploblastic, coelomate, soft bodied
animals. Their soft body is covered by a
80 Ecdysis is shedding of calcareous shell and is unsegmented
[CBSE AIPMT 1990]
84 Match the following. [NEET 2021]
with a distinct head, muscular foot and
(a) stratum corneum List-I List-II visceral hump.
(b) epidermis e.g. Pila (apple snail), Sepia (cuttle fish),
A. Physalia 1. Pearl oyster
(c) dermis Pinctada (pearl oyster), etc.
(d) stratum malpighi B. Limulus 2. Portuguese Man
of War 86 Which one of the following is a
Ans. (a) matching set of phylum and its
C. Ancylostoma 3. Living fossil
Ecdysis is the removal of outermost three examples?
partially cornified layer of stratum D. Pinctada 4. Hookworm
[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
corneum, which is then replaced by the
cells formed by stratum germinativum. (a) Cnidaria — Bonellia, Physalia,
Choose the correct answer from
Aurelia
81 Malpighian tubules are the options given below. (b) Platyhelminthes — Planaria,
[CBSE AIPMT 1990]
A B C D Schistosoma, Enterobius
(a) 2 3 1 4 (c) Mollusca — Loligo, Teredo, Octopus
(a) excretory organs of insects
(b) 4 1 3 2 (d) Porifera—Spongilla, Euplectella,
(b) excretory organs of annelids
(c) 2 3 4 1 Pennatula
(c) respiratory organs of insects
(d) 1 4 3 2
(d) respiratory organs of annelids
Animal Kingdom 41
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)

Loligo, Teredo and Octopus are the
TOPIC 9 The correct matches are
members of phylum—Mollusca. Phylum-Echinodermata 1. Ophiura (Brittle star) (iii) Echinodermata
Loligo is commonly called squid or sea
arrow and is gregarious, fast swimmer 2. Physalia (Portuguese (iv) Coelenterata
in the open water of the sea and is 90 Read the following statements. man of war)
carnivorous, feeding on crabs and [NEET 2021] 3. Pinctada (ii) Mollusca
fishes. I. Metagenesis is observed in (Pearl oyester)
Octopus (devil fish) is found at the helminths. 4. Planaria (Flatworm) (ii) Platyhelminthes
bottom of the sea. It is nocturnal and II. Echinoderms are triploblastic
feeds on crabs, fishes and other 92 The animal with bilateral
molluscs.
and coelomate animals.
III. Round worms have symmetry in young stage and
Teredo or shipworm is a marine bivalve
which has small anterior shell and long organ-system level of body radial pentamerous symmetry in
slender body with a small foot organisation. the adult stage belong to the
functioning as adhesive structure. IV. Comb plates present in phylum [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
ctenophores help in digestion. (a) Annelida (b) Mollusca

87 Closed circulatory system occurs (c) Cnidaria (d) Echinodermata
V. Water vascular system is
in [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Ans. (d)
characteristic of echinoderms.
(a) snail Echinoderms are triploblastic animals
(b) cockroach
with organ system level of organisation.
(c) cuttle fish the options given below.
Larval forms possess bilateral symmetry
(d) All of these (a) III, IV and V are correct while adults have radial symmetry.
(b) I, II and III are correct
Ans. (c) (c) I, IV and V are correct 93 Radial symmetry is usually
Closed circulatory system occurs in (d) II, III and V are correct associated with [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
cuttle fish, i.e. Sepia, cephalopods are
Ans. (d) (a) aquatic mode of life
the only molluscs with a closed
circulatory system. They have two gill Statements II, III and V are correct,
(b) lower grade of organisation
hearts (also known as bronchial hearts) while statements I and IV are incorrect. (c) creeping mode of locomotion
that move blood through capillaries of (d) sedentary mode of life
Incorrect statement can be corrected
the gill. A single systemic heart pumps as- Ans. (b)
the oxygenated blood through rest of Comb plates are present in In radial symmetry body is in the form of
the body. ctenophores which help in locomotion flat or tall cylinder and can be divided
or swimming and not in digestion. into similar halves by more than two
88 Eye of the molluscan group that Metagenesis is the alternation of planes passing through one main axis. It
resembles vertebrate eye is generations between sexual and is found in some sponges, hydras,
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] asexual reproduction. In helminths jellyfish, sea urchin, etc.
(a) Bivalvia (b) Gastropoda metagenesis is not observed.
94 The organisms attached to the
(c) Pelecypoda (d) Cephalopoda
91 Match the following genera with substratum generally, possess
Cephalopoda contains the most
their respective phylum
[NEET (Odisha) 2019]
(a) radial symmetry
specialised molluscs including squids, (b) one single opening of digestive
Octopus, cuttle fish. In these animals Column I Column II canal
well developed eyes are present which (c) asymmetrical body
resembles vertebrate eyes. 1. Ophiura (i) Mollusca
(d) cilia on surface to create water
2. Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes current
89 A wood boring mollusc/shipworm Ans. (a)
3. Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata
The organisms attached to the
(a) Chiton 4. Planaria (iv) Coelenterata
substratum, generally possess radial
(b) Teredo symmetry.
(c) Limax
(d) Patella following 95 Radial symmetry is often exhibited
1 2 3 4 by animals having
Ans. (b) (a) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Teredo comes under class—Pelecypoda (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (a) one opening of alimentary canal
(bivalvia). It is commonly known as (b) aquatic mode of living
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
‘shipworm’. It is destructive to wood in
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (c) benthos/sedentary
sea water.
(d) ciliary mode of feeding
Ans. (b) Ans. (a) Ans. (d)

Radial animals are usually sessile, freely The members of subphylum–Vertebrata All the three animal groups namely
floating or weakly swimming. possess notochord during the Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
embryonic period. The notochord is possess organ system level of
96 Tube feet occur in replaced by a cartilaginous or bony organisation, bilateral symmetry and
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] vertebral column in the adult. Thus, all true coelom with segmented body.
vertebrates are chordates but, all Molluscans are also bilaterally
(a) cockroach (b) starfish
chordates are not vertebrates. symmetrical and show organ system
(c) cuttle fish (d) cat fish grade of organisation but they do not
Ans. (b) possess segmented body.
101 Which of the following statements
In starfish locomotion takes place by
are true for the phylum–Chordata? 103 An important characteristic that
external tube feet, connected with
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
water vascular system. hemichordates share with
I. In Urochordata notochord chordates is [NEET 2017]
97 Aristotle’s lantern occurs in class extends from head to tail and it
(a) absence of notochord
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] is present throughout their life.
(b) ventral tubular nerve cord
(a) Echinoidea (b) Asteroidea II. In Vertebrata, notochord is (c) pharynx with gill slits
(c) Holothuroidea (d) Ophiuroidea present during the embryonic (d) pharynx without gill slits
Ans. (a) period only.
Ans. (c)
A biting or masticatory apparatus or III. Central nervous system is dorsal
and hollow. The important characteristic that
Aristotle’s lantern’ is present in the
hemichordates share with chordates is
members of class— Echinoidea. IV. Chordata is divided into 3 pharynx with gillslits. These gillslits are
subphyla, Hemichordata, narrow openings in the pharynx. The
98 Star fish belongs to Tunicata and Cephalochordata. position of these pharyngeal gillslits is
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] lateral in chordates, while dorsal in
(a) III and I
(a) Asteriodea (b) Ophiuroidea hemichordates.
(b) I and II
(c) Holothuroidea (d) Crinoidea
(c) II and III
Ans. (a) 104 Choose the correct statement.
(d) IV and III
Starfish belongs to class—Asteroidea. Ans. (c) (a) All mammals are viviparous
Statement II and III are correct. (b) All cyclostomes do not possess
99 Which one occurs in
Statement I and IV are incorrect and jaws and paired fins
Echinodermata? [CBSE AIPMT 1991] can be corrected as (c) All reptiles have a
(a) Bilateral symmetry In Urochordata, notochord is present three-chambered heart
(b) Radial symmetry only in larval tail, while in (d) All Pisces have gills covered by an
(c) Porous body Cephalochordata, it extend from head operculum
(d) Soft skin to tail region and is persistent
throughout their life. Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Phylum–Chordata is divided into three Cyclostomata is a class belonging to
Echinoderms are triploblastic and section 1-Agnatha of subphylum–
radially symmetrical but their larvae are subphyla i.e. Urochordata or Tunicata,
Cephalochordata and Vertebrata. Vertebrata.
bilaterally symmetrical.
It is a paraphytelic superclass of jawless
102 Consider the following features. fishes. They lack paired fins too. Thus,
option (b) is correct.
TOPIC 10 [NEET (National) 2019]
Phylum-Chordata A. Organ system level of 105 In which of the following notochord

organisation is present in embryonic stage?
B. Bilateral symmetry [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
100 All vertebrates are chordates, but C. True coelomates with (a) All chordates (b) Some chordates
all chordates are not vertebrates, segmentation of body (c) Vertebrates (d) Non-chordates
why? [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
Select the correct option of Ans. (a)
(a) Notochord is replaced by vertebral
column in adult of some
animal groups which possess all Notochord is the primary axial
chordates the above characteristics. supportive structure present in all
(b) Ventral hollow nerve cord remains (a) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca chordate embryos as well as in many
(b) Arthropoda, Mollusca and adults. In a vast majority, it is replaced
throughout life in some chordates
Chordata by vertical column in adults.
(c) All chordates possess vertebral Vertebrates come under the category
column (c) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
of chordate. Non-chordates do not
(d) All chordates possess notochord (d) Annelida, Arthropoda and contain notochord.
throughout their life Chordata
Animal Kingdom 43
106 Besides Annelida and Arthropoda, Ans. (b) Ans. (c)

the metamerism is exhibited by Penguins are found in Antarctica (South The option (c) is the correct match
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] pole). They have paddle like wings and which is as follows
(a) Cestoda cannot fly. Penguins are marine and lay Aptenodytes is penguin
(b) Chordata eggs in ice. Pteropus is flying fox
(c) Mollusca Pterophyllum is angel fish
111 A chordate character is
(d) Acanthocephala Petromyzon is lamprey
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (b) (a) gills 115 Match the following columns and
Chordates also exhibit metameric (b) spiracles select the correct option.
segmentation. This is because of (c) post-anal tail [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
repetition of homologous structures
(d) chitinous exoskeleton Column I
along the length of an animal. Column II
Ans. (c) A. 6-15 pairs of gill 1. Trygon
107 A common characteristic of all Presence of post-anal tail is one of the slits
vertebrates is [CBSE AIPMT 1994] characters of chordate. B. Heterocercal 2. Cyclostomes
(a) presence of skull caudal fin
(b) division of body into head, neck, 112 Necturus is [CBSE AIPMT 1988] C. Air bladder 3. Chondrichthyes
trunk and tail (a) hell bender D. Poison sting 4. Osteichthyes
(c) presence of two pairs of
functional appendages (b) congo eel A B C D
(d) body is covered with an (c) mud puppy (a) 3 4 1 2
exoskeleton (d) blind worm (b) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) (c) 1 4 3 2
Vertebrates have well developed (d) 2 3 4 1
Common name of Necturus is mud
cranium (skull) hence, they are also puppy. This comes under Ans. (d)
called as Craniata. order–Urodela. Option (d) is correct. It can be explained
as follows
108 All chordates possess 113 Typhlos is [CBSE AIPMT 1988] Cyclostomes have an elongated body
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] bearing 6-15 pairs of gill slits for
(a) sea snake (b) glass snake
(a) exoskeleton respiration. Air bladder is present in
(b) limbs (c) blind snake (d) grass snake bony fishes belonging to
(c) skull Ans. (c) class-Osteichthyes which regulates
(d) axial skeletal rod of notochord buoyancy.
Typhlos is blind snake and it is
Ans. (d) non-poisonous. Trygon, a cartilaginous fish, possesses
poison sting.
Phylum—Chordata was created by
Balfour in 1880. This refers to the Heterocercal caudal fin is present in
members of class-Chondrichthyes.
presence of a shoft, supporting rod-like TOPIC 11
structure along the back called
‘notochord’. Super-Class-Pisces 116 Which of the following
characteristic features always
109 All vertebrates possess 114 Match the following columns and holds true for the corresponding
group of animals?
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] select the correct option from the [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(a) renal portal system codes given belows.
(b) dorsal, hollow, central nervous [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(a) Viviparous Mammalia
system (b) Possess a mouth Chordata
Column I Column II with an upper and a
(c) four chambered ventral heart lower jaw
(d) pharyngeal gill slits A. Aptenodytes 1. Flying fox
(c) 3-chambered heart Reptilia
Ans. (b) B. Pteropus 2. Angel fish with one
C. 3. Lamprey incompletely
Dorsal, hollow, central nervous system Pterophyllum
divided ventricle
is present in all vertebrates. D. Petromyzon 4. Penguin (d) Cartilaginous – Chondrichthyes
110 Penguin occurs in endoskeleton
Codes
A B C D
(a) Australia (a) 3 4 2 1 Reptiles have 3-chambered heart
(b) Antarctica (b) 3 4 1 2 except crocodiles. Mammals are
(c) Africa (c) 4 1 2 3 viviparous except prototherian
(d) America mammals; chordates have jaws except
(d) 2 1 4 3 protochordates and cyclostomes.
117 A jawless fish, which lays eggs in Ans. (a) (b) Female – Anal cerci
fresh water and whose Option (a) is correctly matched as cockroach
ammocoetes larvae after Petromyzon (lamprey) is an ectoparasite (c) Male shark – Claspers borne
metamorphosis return to the on fishes, which belongs to on pelvic fins
Cyclostomata. Other can be corrected (d) Female – Sharply curved
ocean is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
as Ichthyophis is a limbless amphibian. Ascaris posterior end
(a) Eptatretus (b) Myxine Limulus (king crab) is a living fossil,
(c) Neomyxine (d) Petromyzon which belongs to Arthropoda. Adamasia Ans. (c)
having polyp body form is a A clasper is a male anatomical structure
Ans. (d)
coelenterate. found in some groups of animals and
Petromyzon (the lamprey) belongs to the
used in mating. Male cartilaginous fish
section Agnatha of the
subphylum—Vertebrata. They have long,
120 Which one of the following groups like shark have claspers formed from
greenish brown, cylindrical body with of animals is correctly matched the posterior portion of their pelvic fin
smooth scaleless, slimy skin, jawless with its one characteristic feature which serves as intermittent organs
mouth, etc. They lay eggs in freshwater, without even a single exception? used to channel semen into the
but their ammocoete larvae (lower) [CBSE AIPMT 2011] female’s cloaca during mating.
after metamorphosis return to the
ocean. (a) Chordata – Possess a mouth 122 Which one of the following pairs of
provided with an
animal comprises ‘jawless fishes’?
118 A marine cartilaginous fish that can upper and a lower
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
jaw
produce electric current is (a) Lampreys and eels
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] (b) Chondrichthyes – Possess
(b) Mackerals and rohu
(a) Pristis (b) Torpedo cartilaginous
(c) Lampreys and hag fishes
endoskeleton
(c) Trygon (d) Scoliodon (d) Guppies and hag fishes
(c) Mammalia – Give birth to young
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
ones
Torpedo is a marine cartilaginous fish Lampreys and Myxine (hag fish) belong
which produces 8-220 volt electric (d) Reptilia – Possess
to the class—Cyclostomata,
charge (current) depending on species. 3-chambered heart
with one group–Agnatha of Vertebrata. Agnatha
Their electric organs are modified have mouth without jaws. In these,
incompletely
lateral muscle plates innervated by mouth is ventral, suctorial and circular.
divided ventricle
cranial nerves.
Trygon (sting ray) resembles electric ray Ans. (b) 123 Which one of the following is an
in many aspects but is devoid of The members of class–Chondrichthyes
electricity discharging (or producing) exotic Indian fish?
are marine animals with streamlined [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
organs. body and have cartilaginous
Scoliodon (dog fish) is known for its (a) Catla catla
endoskeleton.
great sense of smell. Chordata These possessing a (b) Heteropneustes fossilis
Pristis or common saw fish (also known notochord, a hollow dorsal nerve cord, (c) Cyprinus caprio
as carpenters shark) is characterised by pharyngeal slits, an endostyle and a (d) Labeo rohita
a long, narrow, flattened rostrum lined post and tail for atleast some period of
with sharp transverse teeth to their life cycle. Ans. (c)
resembles a saw. Mammalia These are a clade of Cyprinus caprio is the exotic breed. It is
endothermic amniotes distinguished also known as common carp. It is a
119 Match the name of the animal from reptiles and birds by the widespread fresh water fish of
(column I) with one characteristics possession of hair, three middle ear eutrophic water lakes and rivers in
(column II) and the phylum/class bones, mammary glands, and a Europe and Asia.
(column III) to which it belongs neocortex.
[NEET 2013] Reptile These are an evolutionary 124 Fish which can be used in biological
clade of animals, comprising today’s control of mosquitoes/larvicidal
Column I Column II Column III turtles, crocodilians, snakes, lizards and fish is [CBSE AIPMT 1989, 99, 2001]
(a) Petromyzon Ectoparasite Cyclostomata tuatara, their extinct relatives and some (a) eel
of the extinct ancestors of mammals.
(b) Ichthyophis Terrestrial Reptilia (b) carp
121 What will you look for to identify (c) cat fish
(c) Limulus Body Pisces
covered by the sex of the following? d) Gambusia
chitinous [CBSE AIPMT 2011] Ans. (d)
exoskeleton
Gambusia (mosquito fish) eats the
(a) Male frog – A copulatory pad
(d) Adamsia Radially Porifera larvae of mosquito, so it is used in
on the first digit
symmetrical of the hindlimb biological control of mosquito.
Animal Kingdom 45
TOPIC 12 water leading to the conclusion that TOPIC 13

amphibians have originated from fishes.
Class-Amphibia Class-Reptilia
127 Mucus helps frog in forming
125 In which one of the following the [CBSE AIPMT 1993] 132 Which of the following pairs are
genus name, its two characters and (a) thick skin (b) dry skin correctly matched?
its class/phylum are correctly (c) smooth skin (d) moist skin [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
matched? [CBSE AIPMT 2011] Ans. (d) Animals Morphological features
Class/ Mucus helps frog in keeping the skin (i) Crocodile — Four-chambered
Genus Two characters
phylum moist that helps in cutaneous heart
(a) Salamandra (i) A tympanum Amphibia respiration when the frog is in
hibernation or estivation.
(ii) Sea urchin — Parapodia
represents
ear (iii) Obelia — Metagenesis
(ii) Fertilisation 128 Bull frog of India is (iv) Lemur — Thecodont
is external [CBSE AIPMT 1992] (a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) Pteropus (i) Skin Mammalia (a) Rana tigrina (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
possesses (b) R. sylvatica
hair (c) Only (i) and (iv)
(c) R. ecutesbeiana (d) Only (i) and (ii)
(ii) Oviparous
(d) R. esculenta Ans. (a)
(c) Aurelia (i) Cnidoblast Coelenter
ata Ans. (a) Exceptionally, crocodile has
(ii) Organ level Indian bull frog is Rana tigrina. four-chambered heart. In Obelia the
of alternation of generation is called
organisation 129 Skin is a respiratory organ in metagenesis in which an asexual
(d) Ascaris (i) Body Annelida [CBSE AIPMT 1990] polypoid generation appears to
segmented alternate regularly with a sexual
(a) lizards
(ii) Males and medusoid generation.
(b) birds
females Thecodont dentition is found in
distinct (c) primitive mammals
mammals.
(d) frog
Ans. (a) Ans. (d) 133 In which of the following animal,
Salamandra (salamander) is a member Frog is an amphibian and its skin is well post-anal tail is found?
of class–Amphibia. It has a tympanum adapted or in other words acts as a [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
representing the ear and fertilisation is secondary respiratory organ when it is (a) Earthworm
external. in water.
(b) Lower invertebrate
126 The presence of gills in the (c) Scorpion
130 Which is not a true amphibian
(d) Snake
tadpole of frog indicates that animal? [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] (a) Salamander Ans. (d)
(a) fishes were amphibious in the past (b) Toad In snakes, post-anal tail is found.
(b) fishes evolved from frog like Snakes belong to class—Reptilia.
(c) Tortoise
Jurassic period (Mesozoic era) is known
ancestors (d) Frog as Golden age of reptiles. The study of
(c) frogs will have gills in future Ans. (c) snake is known as serpentology.
(d) frogs evolved from gilled
Tortoise is a reptile of
ancestors sub–class—Anapsida and
Ans. (d) order—Chetomia or Testudinata.
TOPIC 14
According to biogenetic law of Ernst Class-Aves
Haeckel (1860) Ontogeny repeats 131 Fire bellied toad is
Phylogeny. Ontogeny is the life history [CBSE AIPMT 1988] 134 Which one of the following
of an organism, while phylogeny is the (a) Amphiuma organisms bears hollow and
evolutionary history of the race of that (b) Bombinator
organism. In other words we can say ‘an pneumatic long bones?
organism repeats its ancestral history (c) Necturus [NEET 2021]
during its development’. Hence, (d) Salamandra (a) Neophron
resemblance of Amphibia to fish is seen Ans. (b) (b) Hemidactylus
in most systems of the body, both are (c) Macropus
Fire bellied toad is Bombinator and this
cold-blooded, both respire by gills (as
is an Anuran. (d) Ornithorhynchus
tadpole of frog), both usually lay eggs in
Ans. (a) Ans. (d) 141 Pneumatic bones are expected to

Pneumatic bones are hollow bones Nearly a century ago TH Huxley called be found in [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
found in birds, which enables them to birds ‘glorified reptiles’ thereby meaning (a) pigeon (b) house lizard
fly. Neophron is a bird. that birds have evolved from some
(c) frog’s tadpole (d) flying fish
Other options are incorrect because reptilian ancestor. Both birds and
● Hemidactylus is a reptile. reptiles lay the same type of eggs, Ans. (a)
● Macropus is a mammal. which are deposited outside water. In birds like pigeon bones are
● Ornithorhynchus is a mammal.
Eggs are large and telolecithal. The pneumatic or hollow and have no
ovum is surrounded by albumen, an egg marrow, thus helps in reducing the body
membrane and a thick hard calcareous weight.
135 Match the following (Columns) shell, which are all secreted by special
group of organisms with their glands located in the walls of oviduct. 142 The flightless bird cassowary is
respective distinctive Like mammals birds also have complete found in [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
characteristics and select the four chambered heart with double
circulation, in which there is no mixing (a) Mauritius (b) Australia
correct option from the codes
of pure and impure bloods. Whereas, (c) New Zealand (d) Indonesia
given belows [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
the ventricle is imperfectly divided in
Ans. (b)
Column-I Column-II reptiles, resulting in partial mixing of
(Organisms) blood. Cassowary (Casuarius) is found in
(Characteristics)
Australia and New Guinea.
A. Platyhelminthes 1. Cylindrical body with
no segmentation 137 Which of the following is not found
in birds? [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
143 What is common between ostrich,
B. Echinoderms 2. Warm blooded
(a) Hind limb (b) Pectoral girdle
penguin and kiwi?
animals with direct
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
development (c) Pelvic girdle (d) Fore limb
(a) Running birds (b) Migratory birds
C. Hemichordates 3. Bilateral symmetry Ans. (d)
with incomplete (c) Flightless birds (d) Four toed birds
Fore limbs of birds are modified into
digestive system Ans. (c)
wings.
D. Aves 4. Radial symmetry Ostrich (Struthio), penguin (Aptenodytes)
with indirect and kiwi (Apteryx) all are flightless birds.
138 The long bones are hollow and
development
connected by air passage. They are
144 Sound box of birds is called
Codes the characteristics of [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
A B C D [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) pygostyle (b) larynx
(a) 3 4 1 2 (a) Aves
(c) syrinx (d) synsacrum
(b) 2 3 4 1 (b) mammals
(c) 4 1 2 3 (c) Reptilia Ans. (c)
(d) 1 2 3 4 (d) land vertebrates Sound box of birds is called syrinx, this
produces voice. It lies at or near
Ans. (a) Ans. (a) junction of trachea and bronchi.
The option (a) is the correct match The bones of birds are pneumatic, (i.e.
which is as follows they have air cavities) to reduce weight 145 Flight muscles of bird are attached
Platyhelminthes are bilaterally which help them in flying.
to [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
symmetrical with incomplete digestive
system, e.g. Taenia. (a) clavicle (b) keel of sternum
139 Feet of kingfisher are modified for
(c) scapula (d) coracoid
Echinoderms are radially symmetrical [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
with indirect development, e.g. star (a) wading (b) perching Ans. (b)
fish, sea urchin etc. Sternum of birds is large, usually with a
(c) running (d) catching
● Hemichordates are cylindrical bodied vertical, midneutral keel which provides
animal with no segmentation, e.g. Ans. (a) attachment of flight muscles.
Balanoglossus.Aves are Kingfisher is fish-eating bird and its
warm-blooded animals with direct feet are modified for wading. It is 146 Wish bone of birds is formed from
grouped into order–Coraciifermers, [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
development like pigeon.
which comes in family– Alcedinidae.
(a) pelvic girdle
136 Which one of the following in (b) skull
140 Bird vertebrae are
birds, indicates their reptilian [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
(c) hindlimbs
ancestry? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] (d) pectoral girdle/clavicles
(a) acoelous (b) heterocoelous
(a) Scales on their hindlimbs Ans. (d)
(c) amphicoelous (d) procoelous
(b) Four chambered heart Both clavicles and a single interclavicle
(c) Two special chambers crop and Ans. (b) fused to form a V-shaped bone called
gizzard in their digestive tract Bird vertebrae are heterocoelous or furcula or wish bone or merry-thought
(d) Eggs with a calcareous shell saddle shaped. bone.
Animal Kingdom 47
147 Both male and female pigeons Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
secrete milk, through RBCs or erythrocytes of frog are oval, Since, terrestrial animals do not have
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] disc–like biconvex, have centrally automatic access to either fresh or salt
(a) salivary glands placed nucleus and with haemoglobin. water, they must regulate water
Usually in mammals (including human), content in other ways, balancing off
(b) modified sweat glands
RBCs are circular and non-nucleated gains and losses.
(c) crop except those of family–Camilladae
(d) gizzard (camels, llamas, etc), which have 155 Given below are four matchings of
Ans. (c) nucleated RBCs. an animal and its kind of respiratory
Both male and female pigeon secrete 151 What is common between parrot, organ [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
milk through crop during breeding
platypus and kangaroo? (i) silver fish — trachea
season.
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (ii) scorpion — book lung
(a) Homeothermy (iii) sea squirt — pharyngeal gills
TOPIC 15 (b) Toothless jaws (iv) dolphin — skin
Class-Mammalia (c) Functional post-anal tail The correct matchings are
(d) Oviparity (a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (iii) and (iv)
148 Which among these is the correct (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
combination of aquatic mammals? Ans. (a)
Parrot (birds), platypus and kangaroo Ans. (d)
[NEET 2017]
(both mammal) are homeothermic Dolphins are mammals which respire by
(a) Seals, Dolphins, Sharks lungs, which are situated next to the
animals.
(b) Dolphins, Seals, Trygon heart in the thorax cavity.
(c) Whales, Dolphins, Seals 152 In which one of the following sets of
(d) Trygon, Whales, Seals animals do all the four give birth to 156 Trachea of cockroach and
Ans. (c) young ones? [CBSE AIPMT 2006] mammal are similar in having
Among the given options, option (c) (a) Lion, bat, whale, ostrich [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
contains all aquatic mammals. Whales (b) Platypus, penguin, bat, (a) paired nature
are inhabitants of the open sea, while hippopotamus (b) non-collapsible walls
seal (Phoca) is a marine carnivore. (c) Shrew, bat, cat, kiwi (c) ciliated inner lining
Dolphins are found in rivers. Trygon and (d) origin from head
(d) Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin, loris
sharks are fishes, which belong to
chondrichthyes class of Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
superclass–Pisces. Kangaroo, hedgehog, dolphin and loris The trachea of cockroach and
are all mammals. These give birth to mammals is lined with spiral thickening
149 Which one of the following young ones. of cuticle called intina which prevents
characteristics is not shared by the tracheal tubes from collapsing.
birds and mammals? 153 Which one of the following
[NEET 2016, Phase I] characters is not typical of the 157 What is common in whale, bat and
(a) Breathing using lungs class–Mammalia? rat? [CBSE AIPMT 1993, 2000, 04]
(b) Viviparity [CBSE AIPMT 2005] (a) Absence of neck
(c) Warm blooded nature (a) Seven cervical vertebrae (b) Muscular diaphragm between
(d) Ossified endoskeleton (b) Thecodont dentition thorax and abdomen
(c) Ten pairs of cranial nerves (c) Extra-abdominal testes to avoid
Ans. (b) high temperature of body
(d) Alveolar lungs
Mammals are viviparous while birds are (d) Presence of external ears
oviparous. Viviparous means giving Ans. (c)
birth to offspring that develops within Ten pairs of cranial nerves are not Ans. (b)
the mother’s body. Oviparous means common in mammals but common in The presence of diaphragm is a
producing eggs that hatch outside the frog. In mammals 12 pairs of cranial characteristic feature of mammals,
body of mother. nerves are found. diaphragm acts as a separater between
thorax and abdomen. Whale, bat and rat
150 Compared to those of humans, the 154 A terrestrial animal must be able all are mammals and have diaphragm.
erythrocytes in frog are to [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] (a) excrete large amounts of water in 158 Gorilla, chimpanzee, monkeys and
(a) without nucleus but with urine human belong to the same
haemoglobin (b) conserve water [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(b) nucleated and with haemoglobin (c) actively pump salts out through (a) species
(c) very much smaller and fewer the skin (b) genus
(d) nucleated and without (d) excrete large amounts of salts in (c) family
haemoglobin urine (d) order
Ans. (d) Ans. (b) 162 Eutherians are characterised by

Gorilla, chimpanzee, monkeys and Egg laying mammals are primitive [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
humans these all belong to same mammals classified under (a) hairy skin
orderPrimata of class—Mammalia. sub-class–Prototheria. These are (b) true placentation
oviparous, reptile-like mammals,
(c) ovoviviparity (d) glandular skin
159 The cervical vertebrae in humans is confined to Australian region.
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] Ornithorhynchus, (duck billed platypus) Ans. (b)
(a) same as in whale is found is Australia and New Zealand is Infraclass—Eutheria includes viviparous
an egg laying mammal. placental mammals. They give birth to
(b) more than that in rabbit
young ones, which gets nourishment
(c) double than that of horse through placenta inside the body of its
161 Kidney of adult rabbit is
(d) less than that in giraffe mother.
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
Ans. (a) (a) pronephros
The number of cervical vertebrae is (b) metanephros
163 Hair occur in all mammals except
constant, i.e. 7 in number in all (c) mesonephros those of [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
mammals except sea cow and sloth. So, (a) Rodentia (b) Chiroptera
(d) opisthonephros
the cervical vertebrae in humans is (c) Primata (d) Cetacea
same as in whale. Ans. (b)
Kidney of adult rabbit is metanephros Ans. (d)
160 An egg laying mammal is which is divided into cortex and medulla Order—Cetacea of mammals consists of
[CBSE AIPMT 1992, 2000] and its duct is useless. This is most aquatic mammals in which hairs are
advanced type of kidney found in man present only on snout, e.g. porpoise,
(a) kangaroo (b) platypus
and rabbit. killer whale, dolphin, blue whale, sperm
(c) koala (d) whale whale, etc.
05
Morphology of
Flowering Plants
TOPIC 1 growing and becomes rudimentary, are adapted to grow in highly saline
while new roots for anchorage and areas such as mangroves.
Root absorption develop from the base of Pneumatophores help these plants in
the stem. This type of root formation is respiration as they do not get sufficient
01 Identify the incorrect statement. observed in monocot like wheat plant. oxygen from the soil. On the other hand
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] vivipary aids in perennation.
(a) Sapwood is involved in the 03 Pneumatophores occur in
conduction of water and minerals [NEET 2018] 05 Roots play insignificant role in
from root to leaf (a) carnivorous plants absorption of water in
(b) Sapwood is the innermost [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(b) free-floating hydrophytes
secondary xylem and is lighter in (c) halophytes (a) sunflower (b) Pistia
colour (d) submerged hydrophytes (c) pea (d) wheat
(c) Due to deposition of tannins, Ans. (b)
resins. oils, etc., heartwood is Ans. (c)
Pneumatophores are breathing or Pistia is a hydrophyte where absorption
dark in colour of water by root is insignificant.
respiratory roots which are found in
(d) Heartwood does not conduct halophytes like mangroves. Halophytes
water but gives mechanical grow in saline swamps, therefore 06 Roots of which plant contains an
support respiratory roots come out of water and oxidising agent? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
Ans. (b) pick up oxygen for respiration. Excess (a) Carrot (b) Soyabean
CO2 is also given out. It occurs through (c) Mustard (d) Radish
Statement in option (b) is incorrect and small pores, called lenticles.
can be corrected as :
Carnivorous plants, free-floating Ans. (b)
Sapwood is outermost secondary xylem hydrophytes and submerged
and is lighter in colour. There cell walls Leghaemoglobin is present in roots of
hydrophytes do not possess soyabean plants. It is an oxygen-binding
are not lignified and there is no pneumatophores.
deposition of organic compounds. haem protein, which is present in the
Sapwood is involved in the conduction cytoplasm of infected nodule cells at
of water and minerals from root to leaf. 04 Plants, which produce high concentration and gives the
characteristic pneumatophores nodules a pink colour. It’s main function
and show vivipary belong to is to help in the transport ofO2 to the
02 The roots that originate from the respiring symbiotic bacterial cells in a
base of the stem are [NEET 2017]
manner analogous to haemoglobin,
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] (a) mesophytes which transportsO2 to respiring tissues
(a) primary roots (b) halophytes in animals.
(b) prop roots (c) psammophytes
(c) lateral roots (d) hydrophytes 07 The plant, which bears clinging
(d) fibrous roots Ans. (b) roots, is [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
Ans. (d) Plants that produce pneumatophores, (a) Trapa

i.e. negatively geotropic roots and show (b) orchid
The roots that originates from the base (c) screw pine
of the stem are fibrous roots. In fibrous vivipary, i.e. germination of seeds inside
the fruits are halophytes. These plants (d) Podostemon
root system, the primary roots stop
Ans. (b) Ans. (c) 16 Vegetative propagation in mint

Orchids have clinging roots that are In Bougainvillea, thorns are the occurs by [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
modified adventitious roots meant for modifications of stem. They are stiff, (a) runner (b) offset
providing mechanical support. These sharp structures, which have lost their
(c) rhizome (d) sucker
arise from the axils of leaves or nodes growing point and become hard. They
of the stem and pierce the substratum reduce transpiration as well as Ans. (d)
plant to facilitate fixation. browsing by animals. The vegetative propagation in mint
(Mentha arvensis) occurs by sucker.
08 The plant which bears clinging 12 Stems modified into flat green Sucker is a non-green underground
roots is [CBSE AIPMT 1999] organs performing the functions specialised stem developing from the
underground base of an erect shoot or
(a) Podostemon (b) orchid of leaves are known as
crown.
(c) Trapa (d) Screwpine [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(a) phyllodes (b) phylloclades
Ans. (b) 17 Vegetative reproduction of Agave
(c) scales (d) cladodes
Clinging roots are modified adventitious occurs through [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
roots meant for providing mechanical Ans. (b) (a) rhizome (b) stolon
support. These arise from the axils of Phylloclades are aerial modified stem, (c) bulbils (d) sucker
leaves or nodes of the stem and pierce in which stem becomes thick, fleshy
the substratum plant to facilitate succulent, green and perform the Ans. (c)
fixation e.g. orchids, ivy. function of photosynthesis. The leaves Bulbil is a condensed axillary bud meant
are reduced to spines in this. for vegetative propagation, e.g.
09 Buttress roots are found in Dioscorea and Agave. In ananas, bulbils
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] 13 Which of the following is not a are associated with flowers and fruits.
(a) Sorghum (b) Banyan stem modification? Tiny secondary bulb that forms in the
(c) Terminalia (d) Pandanus [NEET 2016, Phase I] angle between a leaf and stem or in
place of flowers. in certain plants.
Ans. (c) (a) Thorns of Citrus Bulbills are called offsets when
Buttress roots refer to irregular, (b) Tendrils of cucumber full-sized, fall or are removed and
broad–like the wood plants that arise (c) Flattened structures of Opuntia planted to produce new plants.
from basal parts of main stem of older (d) Pitcher of Nepenthes
plants, and spread in different directions
18 New banana plants develop from
in the soil, e.g. Ficus religiosa (peepal),
Pitcher of Nepenthes is modified leaf. It (a) rhizome (b) sucker
Terminalia, Bombax, etc. These roots
helps to trap insects, in insectivorous (c) stolon (d) seed
aids in providing mechanical support to
plants.
the trees.
Ans. (b)
10 Velamen is found in 14 An example of edible underground Sucker is the subaerial modification of
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] stem is [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
stem, which originates from the basal
and underground portion of the main
(a) roots of screwpine (a) carrot (b) groundnut stem but it grows obliquely upwards
(b) aerial and terrestrial roots of (c) sweet potato (d) potato and give rise to leafy shoot or a new
orchids plant, e.g. Musa (banana),
Ans. (d)
(c) leaves of Ficus elastica Chrysanthemum, mint.
(d) aerial roots of orchids Potato (Solanum tuberosum) is an edible
underground stem which become
Ans. (d) fleshy and tuberous as a result of food TOPIC 3
The aerial roots of orchids, (e.g. Vanda) storage.
are surrounded by a spongy tissue, Leaf
(velamen) which is hygroscopic and 15 The ‘eyes’ of the potato tuber are
absorbs moisture from the surrounding [CBSE AIPMT 2011, 01] 19 Large, empty colourless cells of
air. (a) flower buds (b) shoot buds the adaxial epidermis along the
(c) axillary buds (d) root buds veins of grass leaves are
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
TOPIC 2 Ans. (c) (a) lenticels
Stem Eyes of potato tubers are axillary buds.
As tuber is oval or spherical swollen
(b) guard cells
(c) bundle sheath cells
11 In Bougainvillea thorns are the underground modified stem lacking
(d) bulliform cells
adventitious roots.
modifications of [NEET 2017]
Ans. (d)
It possesses a number of spirally
(a) stipules Grass leaves are isobilateral or typical
arranged depressions called eyes. Each
(b) adventitious root eye represents node and consists of 1-3 monocot leaves. In such leaves, at
(c) stem axillary buds in the axil of small scally places, the upper or adaxial epidermis
(d) leaf leaves. contain groups of larger, thin-walled,
Morphology of Flowering Plants 51
colourless cells called bulliform cells. 24 A family delimited by type of seen in the ray florets of sunflowers. In
These cells are highly vacuolated and epigynous flowers,all the floral parts
inflorescence is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
can store water, if available. However, are present above the gynoecium.Ovary
these cells lose water and become (a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae has been covered completely by
flaccid in case of water deficiency. (c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae thalamus, e.g. guava, apple, sunflower.
Ans. (b) Inflorescence
20 Which of the following shows Ray floret
Ray floret
Disk floret
Asteraceae (Compositae) is Seeds
whorled phyllotaxy? characterised by the inflorescence
Disk
floret
head or capitulum, consisting of a few Involucral bract Receptacle
(a) Mustard (b) China rose or large number of flowers closely Leaves Inflorescence
(c) Alstonia (d) Calotropis arranged on an axis surrounded by Stigma
involucral bracts. Style
Ans. (c) Stem Anther Corolla
The whole head or capitulum with Corolla
Sepal
Alstonia shows whorled phyllotaxy. In Sepal
racemose arrangement is apparently Bract ovary Ovary
Bract
whorled phyllotaxy, more than two Root
similar to a single flower. Disk floret Ray floret
leaves arise at a node and form a whorl.
Mustard and China rose show alternate
phyllotaxy. Calotropis shows opposite TOPIC 5 27 The ovary is half inferior in
phyllotaxy.
Flower [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
21 Phyllode is present in (a) mustard (b) sunflower
(a) Asparagus [CBSE AIPMT 2012] 25 Correct position of floral parts (c) plum (d) brinjal
(b) Euphorbia over thalamus in mustard plant is Ans. (c)
(c) Australian Acacia [NEET (Oct.) 2020] The ovary is half inferior in plum. It is a
(d) Opuntia (a) gynoecium occupies the highest perigynous condition in which ovary is
position, while the other parts are at the top (origin wise) and other whorls
Ans. (c) are at the same level (position wise).
situated below it
Modified petiole is called phyllode There are three possible arrangements
(b) margin of the thalamus grows
present in Australian Acacia. Phyllodes of attachment of floral whorls with
upward, enclosing the ovary
develop usually vertically and possess thalamus where thalamus is disc-like,
fewer stomata hence, reduce
completely and other parts arise
below the ovary cup-shaped and flask-shaped.
transpiration.
(c) gynoecium is present in the
22 Choose the correct match. centre and other parts cover it 28 Placentation in which ovules
Bladderwort, Sundew, Venus fly partially develop on the inner wall of the
(d) gynoecium is situated in the ovary or in peripheral part, is
trap [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
centre and other parts of the [NEET (National) 2019]
(a) Nepenthes, Dionea, Drosera
flower are located at the rim of (a) axile (b) parietal
(b) Nepenthes, Utricularia, Vanda the thalamus, at the same level (c) free central (d) basal
(c) Utricularia, Drosera, Dionea
(d) Dionea, Trapa, Vanda Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
Option (a) is correct. It can be explained In parietal placentation, the ovules
Ans. (c) as develop on the inner wall of the ovary or
Utricularia, Drosera and Dionaea are A flower, has four different whorls in peripheral part. In this type, the ovary
also known as bladderwort, sundew and arranged successively on the swollen is compound or syncarpous type which
venus fly trap, respectively. end of the stalk or pedicel called is either unilocular or falsely two or
thalamus or receptacle. In mustard, more locular, e.g. mustard, Argemone,
flower is hypogymous, i.e., the Fumaris, etc. Axial placentation is when
TOPIC 4 gynoecium occupies the highest ovules are placed along the central axis
Inflorescence position while the other parts are
situated below it. The ovary in such
of the ovary.
Basal placentation is when ovules are
23 Hypanthodium is flowers is said to be superior. placed at the base of the ovary.
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] Free-central placentation is when
(a) thalamus (b) fruit
26 Ray florets have [NEET (Sep.) 2020] placenta develops at the centre of
(c) inflorescence (d) ovary (a) superior ovary ovary as prolongation of floral axis. On
(b) hypogynous ovary this axis, the ovules are attached.
Ans. (c) (c) half inferior ovary
Hypanthodium is special type of (d) inferior ovary 29 Bicarpellary ovary with obliquely
inflorescence in which the axis placed septum is seen in
becomes fleshy and pear-shaped with a Ans. (d)
hollow cavity inside. At the base lie Ray florets have inferior ovary as
female flowers and towards the apical epigynous flowers have an inferior (a) Brassica (b) Aloe
opening, lie the male flowers, e.g. Ficus. ovary with the flattened thalamus as (c) Solanum (d) Sesbania
Ans. (c) 33 Free-central placentation is found 37 Flowers are unisexual in

Solanum (family Solanaceae) has in [NEET 2016, Phase II] [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
bicarpellary ovary with obliquely placed (a) Dianthus (b) Argemone (a) pea (b) cucumber
septum. Brassica (family Brassicaceae) (c) China rose (d) onion
(c) Brassica (d) Citrus
has bicarpellary ovary with false
septum. In Sesbania (subfamily Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
Fabaceae), ovary is monocarpellary. The plant Dianthus has free-central Cucumber is a member of the
Aloe (family Liliaceae) shows placentation in its ovary. Ovules are family—Cucurbitaceae. In the members
tricarpellary ovary. attached on the main axis of the of this family, the flowers are unisexual,
placenta. with male and female flowers on
30 Match the placental types (Column Ovary wall different plants (dioecious) or on the
I) with their examples (Column II) same plant (monoecious).
Ovules
Placenta 38 Axile placentation is present in
Column I Column II Locule [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
1. Basal (i) Mustard (a) dianthus (b) lemon
Free-central placentation
2. Axile (ii) China rose (c) pea (d) Argemone
3. Parietal (iii) Dianthus 34 Radial symmetry is found in the Ans. (b)
flowers of [NEET 2016, Phase II] Placentation refers to the arrangement
4. Free-central (iv) Sunflower
of ovules inside the ovary.
(a) Brassica (b) Trifolium
Select the correct option from the In axile placentation, the ovules are
(c) Pisum (d) Cassia
following axial as shown in the figure below.
1 2 3 4 Ans. (a) Examples include, lemon, China rose
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) The Brassica flower can be cut into two and tomato.
equal halves from any plane. So, it
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
shows the radial symmetry. These
(c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) flowers are referred to as
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) actinomorphic flowers.
Ans. (c) Other flowers given in the option
The correct matches are (Trifolium, Pisum and Cassia) can be cut
into two equal halves only at one plane
The placental types Examples so they are called zygomorphic flowers. 39 Among China rose, mustard,
These three flowers belong to family– brinjal, potato, guava, cucumber,
Basal Sunflower
Fabaceae. onion and tulip, how many plants
Axile China rose have superior ovary?
Parietal Mustard
35 How many plants among [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, (a) Five (b) Six
Free-central Dianthus Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, (c) Three (d) Four
gram and turnip have stamens
31 The standard petal of a Ans. (b)
with different lengths in their
papilionaceous corolla is also flowers? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
A superior ovary is an ovary attached to
the receptacle above the attachment of
called [NEET 2016, Phase I] (a) Three (b) Four
other floral parts. In this case the flower
(a) pappus (b) vexillum (c) Five (d) Six is said to be hypogynous, e.g. China
(c) corona (d) carina Ans. (b) rose, mustard, brinjal, potato, onion and
Ans. (b) Only Salvia, mustard, radish and turnip tulip. Guava and cucumber have inferior
have stamens of different length in ovaries or epigynous flowers.
The standard or large upper petal of a
papilionaceous corolla is also called their flowers. So, out of 8 given names, 6 have
vexillum. Hence, correct answer is (b). superior ovaries.
32 Tricarpellary, syncarpous 36 The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related 40 Placenta and pericarp are both
gynoecium is found in flowers of to [NEET 2016, Phase II] edible portions in
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (a) gynoecium (b) androecium [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) Solanaceae (b) Fabaceae (c) corolla (d) calyx (a) apple (b) banana
(c) Poaceae (d) Liliaceae Ans. (b) (c) tomato (d) potato
Ans. (d) The term polyadelphous is related to Ans. (c)

androecium. In this condition, many Tomato is botanically a fruit but it is
Liliaceae represents G (3 ) . This family
stamens are present in more than 2 considered as a vegetable for various
includes plants like garlic, onion, tulip,
groups which are separated from each purposes. Its edible parts are both
indigo, etc.
other.
placenta and pericarp.
Placenta is the connecting tissue which other by rotation about the centre of 47 Which one of the following
supply nutrition for embryo and the flower, e.g. China rose.
statements is correct?
pericarp is the remains of ovular wall. It Zygomorphic flowers can be divided by
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
is rich in lycopene. only a single plane into two mirror
image halves, e.g. orchids. (a) Seeds of orchids have oil-rich
Valvate aestivation The sepals or
endosperm
41 When the margins of sepals or
petals in a whorl just touch one another (b) Placentation in primrose is basal
petals overlap one another
at the margin, e.g. Calotropis. (c) Flower of tulip is a modified shoot
without any particular direction, (d) In tomato, fruit is a capsule
Twisted aestivation One margin of the
the condition is termed as appendage overlaps that of the next
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] Ans. (c)
one, e.g. China rose. In Imbricate
(a) vexillary (b) imbricate aestivation the margins of sepals or The correct statement is ‘c’ because
(c) twisted (d) valvate petals overlap but not necessarily in flower is highly condensed and modified
specific direction, e.g. Cassia. shoot meant for sexual reproduction
Ans. (b) (Dr. Goethe; 1790). During the course of
Imbricate aestivation is the evolution, the nodes of the axis of shoot
arrangements of five petals being
44 Placentation in tomato and lemon came in contact so, that internodes got
arranged in such a way that one petal is is [CBSE AIPMT 2012] reduced, and leaves get modified and
completely external and another petal (a) parietal (b) free central specialised to form floral leaves.
is completely internal, while three (c) marginal (d) axile
petals are partially external and partially 48 Flowers are zygomorphic in
Ans. (d)
internal, e.g. Cassia, Callistemon and [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Caesalpinia. Lemon or Citrus (family–Rutaceae),
tqmato or Lycopersicon sp. (a) gulmohur (b) tomato
(family–Solanaceae), China rose or (c) datura (d) mustard
Hibiscus (family–Malvaceae) etc. have Ans. (a)
axile placentation. It occurs in When a flower can be divided into two
multicarpellary, syncarpous ovary. similar halves only in one particular
42 Among bitter gourd, mustard, Inward growth of margins of carpels vertical plane, it is called zygomorphic,
brinjal, pumpkin, China rose, lupin, forms a multicarpellary condition which e.g. bean, pea, gulmohur, Cassia, etc.
cucumber, sunnhemp, gram, contains an axis in the centre.
guava, bean, chilli, plum, Petunia,
Placentae arise from this central axis 49 The ovary is half inferior in flowers
which bear ovules. of [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
tomato, rose, Withania, potato,
onion, aloe and tulip, how many (a) cucumber (b) cotton
45 Cymose inflorescence is present (c) guava (d) peach
plants have hypogynous flower? in [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
[NEET 2013] Ans. (d)
(a) Solanum (b) Sesbania
(a) Six (b) Ten (c) Trifolium (d) Brassica If gynoecium is situated in the center
(c) Fifteen (d) Eighteen and other parts of the flowers are
Ans. (d) located on the rim of the thalamus
Ans. (c) Cymose inflorescence seen in Brassica almost at the same level, it is called
All the given plants except bitter gourd, is also called definite or determinate perigynous. The ovary here is said to be
pumpkin, cucumber, guava, plum and inflorescence because the growing half inferior, i.e. plum rose, peach, etc.
rose are hypogynous flower, i.e. 15. point of the peduncle is used up in the
Hypogynous flower have gynoecium formation of a flower. Further growth of
50 Keel is characteristic of the
present above all other floral parts and the flowering axis is continued by one or flowers of [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
with superior ovary. (a) gulmohur (b) Cassia
more lateral branches (peduncles)
which also end in flowers. This type of (c) Calotropis (d) bean
43 In China rose the flowers are inflorescence is found in
[NEET 2013] Ans. (d)
family–Solanaceae.
(a) actinomorphic, hypogynous with In bean-family the two-in-one petal is
twisted aestivation 46 The gynoecium consists of many called the keel, like the keel of a boat.
(b) actinomorphic, epigynous with free pistils in flowers of Bean blossoms with this configuration
are said to be papilionaceous.
valvate aestivation [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(c) zygomorphic, hypogynous with (a) Aloe (b) tomato 51 In unilocular ovary with a single
imbricate aestivation (c) Papaver (d) Michelia ovule, the placentation is
(d) zygomorphic, epigynous with [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
Ans. (d)
twisted aestivation (a) marginal
Apocarpous condition arises when the
Ans. (a) number of carpels is two or more and (b) basal
Actinomorphic (star-shaped) can be they are free from each other. e.g. (c) free central
divided into 3 or more identical Clematis, Michelia (Magnoliaceae), (d) axile
sections, which are related to each Aconitum, Ranunculus (buttercup), etc.
Ans. (b) In basal placentation, the ovules are syncarpous pistils in which the ovary is
few or reduced to one and are borne at unilocular. The placentae are formed
In basal placentation, ovary is
the base of ovary e.g. Compositae. along the fused margins of the carpels
bicarpellary, syncarpous and unilocular
In axile placentation, margins of from where the ovules arise.
and a single ovule is borne at the base
of ovary, e.g. marigold. carpels fold inwards, fusing together in Ovary wall
centre of ovary to form a single central
In marginal placentation, the ovary is Locule
placenta. Ovary is divided into as many
simple, unilocular and the ovules are
locules, as there are carpels, e.g.
arranged along the margin of the Placenta
Hibiscus, Asphodelus. Free-central
unilocular ovary, e.g. pea.
placentation possesses a placenta
In free central placentation, ovary is arises as a central upgrowth from ovary
unilocular and the placenta bearing base, e.g. Stellaria.
ovules arise from the central axis, e.g.
Stellaria. Ovule
55 Long filamentous threads
In axile placentation, ovary is two or
protruding at the end of the young Parietal placentation
more chambered, usually as many as
the number of carpels, e.g. Petunia. cob of maize are
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] 58 Angiosperm to which the largest
52 The technical term used for the (a) styles (b) ovaries flowers belong is [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
androecium in a flower of China (c) hairs (d) anthers (a) total stem parasite
rose (Hibiscus rosa sinensis) is Ans. (a) (b) partial stem parasite
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] In a cob of maize, each ovary has a long (c) total root parasite
(a) monadelphous (b) diadelphous silky (hairy) style, called as corn silk. (d) partial root parasite
(c) polyandrous (d) polyadelphous Collectively these styles protrude at the
end of a young cob. The grains are Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
formed on the cob which remain Rafflesia, a total root parasite,
In monadelphous condition, all covered by the leafy bracts. produces largest flower in the world.
filaments become fused and form a
group, while anther remain free, e.g. 56 Bicarpellary gynoecium and 59 Floral features are chiefly used in
China rose, Achyranthes, etc. In angiosperms identification
oblique ovary occurs in
diadelphous, two separate bundles of because [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
united filaments are formed, e.g. pea. In
polyadelphous, more than two separate (a) mustard (b) banana (a) flowers are of various colours
bundles of filaments are formed, e.g. (c) Pisum (d) brinjal (b) flowers can be safely pressed
Ricinus. Ans. (d) (c) reproductive parts are more
Brinjal belongs to family–Solanaceae.
stable and conservative than
53 An example of axile placentation is Obliquely placed bicarpellary ovary is vegetative parts
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] characteristic of Solanaceae. (d) flowers are nice to work with
(a) Argemone (b) Dianthus Ovary wall Ans. (c)
(c) lemon (d) marigold Vegetative parts are relatively less
Ovules
Ans. (c) stable and exhibit changes due to the
Lemon (Citrus sp.) belongs to Placenta environmental factors quite readily. On
family–Rutaceae, characterised by axile the other hand, floral features are more
placentation. conservative and can be relied upon. On
Argemone belongs to Locule the basis of reproductive parts of
family–Papaveraceae, contains parietal different flowers Linnaeus classified
placentation. Dianthus belongs to plants into different groups.
family–Caryophyllaceae, contains
free-central placentation. Marigold
60 Which one yields fibre?
Obliquely placed bicarpellary ovary
[CBSE AIPMT 1988]
belongs to family–Asteraceae, contains
basal placentation. 57 The type of placentation in which (a) Coconut (b) Oak
(c) Teak (d) Sissoo
ovary is syncarpous, unilocular and
54 What type of placentation is seen ovules on sutures is called Ans. (a)
in sweet pea? [CBSE AIPMT 2006] [CBSE AIPMT 1999] On the basis of their origin, commercial
(a) Axile (b) Free central (a) apical placentation fibres are of three types : surface fibres
(c) Marginal (d) Basal (b) parietal placentation (fibres obtained from seeds), e.g.
(c) marginal placentation cotton, coconut (coir), Calotropis, bast
Ans. (c) fibres (fibres present in phloem), e.g.
(d) superficial placentation
In sweet pea (Pisum sativum), the Cannabis (hemp), Linum (flax), jute,
placentation is marginal, in which, the Ans. (b) sunnhemp, and leaf fibres (fibres
placenta develops along the junction of Parietal placentation occurs in extracted from leaves), e.g. Agave (sisal
two carpels, in a unilocular ovary. bicarpellary to polycarpellary hemp), Musa (masnila hemp).
TOPIC 6 Ans. (d) 67 The fruit is chambered, developed

Fruit Fig, pineapple and mulberry are from inferior ovary and has seeds
composite fruits. with succulent testa in
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
61 Identify the correct features of Botanical Inflores-
SN Plant Fruit (a) pomegranate (b) orange
mango and coconut fruits. Name cence
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] (c) guava (d) cucumber
1. Fig Ficus Sycous Hypant-h
(i) In both fruit is a drupe carica odium Ans. (a)
(ii) Endocarp is edible in both 2. Pineapple Annanas Sorosis Spike Balausta is special type of false or
sativus pseudocarpic berry, that develops from
(iii) Mesocarp in coconut is fibrous
multilocular, syncarpous inferior ovary.
and in mango it is fleshy 3. Mulberry Morus sp. Sorosis Catkin The whole fruit is enclosed by a hard
(iv) In both, fruit develops from rind made up of exocarp (epicarp fused
monocarpellary ovary 64 The coconut water and the edible with thalamus) and part of mesocarp.
Select the correct option. part of coconut are equivalent to Plate-like infoldings are developed by
mesocarp. The papery endocarp covers
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
the individual group of seeds. The
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii) (a) endosperm
seeds possess bright red juicy testa
Ans. (a) (b) endocarp that form edible part of fruit, e.g.
(c) mesocarp pomegranate.
Both mango and coconut are drupe,
belonging to the class of simple (d) embryo The fruit of cucumber is pepo. In this
succulent fruits. These are also called Ans. (a) the exocarp is not separable from
stone fruit as the endocarp is stony and mesocarp and the seeds from
non-edible. These fruits develop from The coconut water obtained from the placentae.
monocarpellary ovary. In coconut, coconut is the free nuclear endosperm
The fruit of guava is berry. A berry is
epicarb is membranous and mesocarp (made up of thousands of nuclei) and
pulpy, indehiscent, few to multiseeded
is fibrous. In mango, mesocarp is fleshy the surrounding white kernel is the
fruit derived from multicarpellary
and pulpy. cellular endosperm.
syncarpous gynoecium.
Thus, statements (i), (iii), (iv) are correct
The fruit of orange is hesperidium. It
while (ii) is incorrect. 65 A drupe develops in
develops from multicarpellary,
[CBSE AIPMT 2011, 1994]
syncarpous, multilocular, superior
62 An aggregate fruit is one which (a) wheat (b) pea ovary with axile placentation.
develops from [CBSE AIPMT 2014] (c) tomato (d) mango
(a) multicarpellary syncarpous Ans. (d) 68 The fleshy receptacle of syconous
gynoecium In mango, coconut, plum, etc. the fruit of fig encloses a number of
(b) multicarpellary apocarpus is known as drupe (stony fruit). They [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
gynoecium develop from monocarpellary, superior
(a) achenes (b) samaras
(c) complete inflorescence ovaries and are one seeded. In mango,
the pericarp is well differentiated into (c) berries (d) mericarps
(d) multicarpellary superior ovary
an outer thin epicarp, a middle fleshy Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) edible mesocarp and an inner stony Syconus is a composite fruit that
Aggregate fruits or etario are those hard endocarp. develops from hypanthodium
fruits that develops from the inflorescence, e.g. Ficus carica, Ficus
multicarpellary apocarpus gynoecium 66 A fruit developed from benghalensis. The flask-shaped
(ovary). In contrast, a simple fruit hypanthodium inflorescence is receptacle encloses female flowers
develops from one ovary. called [CBSE AIPMT 2009] that give rise to achene-like fruitlets.
Aggregate fruit may also be called This fruit possesses a small pore
(a) hesperidium
accessory fruits in which part of the protected by scaly leaves. The
(b) sorosis receptacle that becomes fleshy is
flower other than the ovary become
(c) syconus edible.
fleshy and form part of the fruit, e.g.
raspberry, etc.
(d) caryopsis Samara is a single seeded, dry
Ans. (c) indehiscent fruit. Its pericarp becomes
63 How many plants in the list given Syconus fruit develops from membranous and flat-like wings that
below have composite fruits that hypanthodium inflorescence, e.g. Ficus help in dispersal, e.g. Ulmus, Holoptelia
indica.
develop from an inflorescence? carica, F. religiosa, F. benghalensis. The
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] flask shaped receptacle encloses A berry is a pulpy-indehiscent, few to
female flowers that gives rise to multiseeded fruit derived from
Walnut, poppy, radish, fig, achene-like fruitlets. This fruit multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium.
pineapple, apple, tomato, mulberry possesses a small pore protected by The fleshy pericarp of berry consists of
(a) Four (b) Five scaly leaves. The receptacle that three parts i.e. epicarp that make the
(c) Two (d) Three becomes fleshy is edible. rind of fruit, mesocarp and endocarp.
Schizocarpic fruits are simple, dry, 71 Juicy hair-like structures Ans. (d)
multiseeded fruits, which breakup into observed in the lemon fruit Each fruit of date palm (Phoenix
single seeded parts. The single seeded
develop from [CBSE AIPMT 2003] dactylifera) is one seeded oblong berry.
parts, which further do not dehisce are
called mericarps. (a) mesocarp and endocarp Fleshy pericarp of date palm is edible.
(b) exocarp We eat mesocarp of tomato,
(c) mesocarp endosperm of maize and thalamus and
69 Dry indehiscent single-seeded pericarp of guava.
fruit formed from bicarpellary (d) endocarp
syncarpous inferior ovary is Ans. (d) 76 Edible part of banana is
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] Lemon is a hesperidium type of fruit. [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(a) caryopsis (b) cypsela Epicarp of this fruit contains many oil (a) epicarp
(c) berry (d) cremocarp glands. Below epicarp is present a
(b) mesocarp and less developed
fibrous part which fuses with epicarp,
Ans. (b) endocarp
this is known as mesocarp. While
Cypsela is dry indehiscent single endocarp projects inwards and forms (c) endocarp and less developed
seeded fruit that develops from distinct chambers. Many unicellular mesocarp
unilocular, single ovulate inferior ovary juicy hairs are present on the inner (d) epicarp and mesocarp
of bicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium side of endocarp which are edible Ans. (b)
possessing basal placentation. The fruit parts of this fruit.
wall develops from pericarp and Fleshy mesocarp and rudimentary
thalamus and is thin and remains 72 Edible part in mango is endocarp of banana are edible.
attached to the seed at one point, [CBSE AIPMT 2002, 04] Banana (Musa sapientum) is a perennial
e.g. Helianthus. (a) mesocarp (b) epicarp herb and belongs to family–Musaceae.
Caryopsis is dry indehiscent, small, (c) endocarp (d) epidermis A fully ripened fruit of banana contains
single seeded fruit develop from near about 75.6% moisture, 20.4%
unilocular, single ovuled, superior ovary Ans. (a)
sugars (mainly glucose and fructose),
of multicarpellary gynoecium. It differs Mango is a drupe fruit which develops 1.2% starch, 2% fats, 1.22% protein, 6%
from typical achenes as their pericarp is from a monocarpellary, syncarpous, crude fibres and 0.8% ash
completely fused with the seed coat unilocular and superior ovary. Epicarp
characteristic of Solanaceae.
testa, e.g. Poaceae. of mango fruit forms skin while
Cremocarp are bilocular and two mesocarp is fleshy and fibrous which is
edible part of this fruit. Endocarp is 77 Edible part in litchi is
seeded schizocarpic fruits (small, dry) [CBSE AIPMT 1999, 2005, 06]
hard and stony.
developed from inferior ovary of (a) mesocarp (b) fleshy aril
bicarpellary, syncarpous gynoecium 73. Geocarpic fruits are produced by (c) endosperm (d) pericarp
possessing persistant stylopodium, e.g. [CBSE AIPMT 2000, 02]
Apiaceae.
(a) onion (b) watermelon Ans. (b)
Berry is a fleshy, indehiscent few to (c) ground nut (d) carrot Aril is a fleshy covering on the seed,
multiseeded fruit derived from arising as an upgrowth of the funicle or
multicarpellary syncarpous gynoecium. Ans. (c) base of the ovule. It is the edible part of
The fleshy pericarp of berry consists of Geocarpy refers to the ripening of fruits litchi.
epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp. underground. In the case of ground nut,
the young fruits are pushed into the soil 78 Which plant will lose its economic
70 Pineapple (ananas) fruit develops as a result of post-fertilisation
value if its fruits are produced by
from [CBSE AIPMT 2006] curvature of the stalk.
induced parthenocarpy?
(a) a multipistillate syncarpous 74 Geocarpic fruit is [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
flower [CBSE AIPMT 2002] (a) Grape (b) Pomegranate
(b) a cluster of compactly borne (a) potato (b) groundnut (c) Banana (d) Orange
flowers on a common axis (c) onion (d) garlic Ans. (b)
(c) a multilocular monocarpellary
flower Ans. (b) Testa is the edible part in pomegranate.
(d) a unilocular polycarpellary flower The groundnut fruits ripen It is not formed if fruits are produced by
underground, the young fruits being parthenocarpy (no seeds will be
Ans. (b) pushed into the soil by a formed). Fruits of banana, grape and
The fruit of Ananas comosus (pineapple post-fertilisation curvature of the stalk. orange have seeds, so induced
or ananas) is sorosis, (a type of multiple parthenocarpy in these fruits is
fruits), developing from spike, spadix or 75 Which is correct pair for edible beneficial.
catkin. In this type, the flowers part? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
associate by their succulent tepals, the (a) Tomato — Thalamus 79 Which one of the following is a
axis bearing them grows and becomes
fleshy or woody, thus, the whole (b) Maize — Cotyledons true fruit? [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
inflorescence turns into a compact (c) Guava — Mesocarp (a) Apple (b) Pear
fruit. (d) Date palm — Pericarp (c) Cashewnut (d) Coconut
Ans. (d) 84 Persistent nucellus in the seed is 88 Perisperm differs from endosperm
Coconut is a true fruit, when a fruit known as [NEET (National) 2019) in [NEET 2013]
develops from ripened ovary, it is called (a) perisperm (b) hilum (a) being a haploid tissue
true fruit as in majority of fruits. A false (c) tegmen (d) chalaza (b) having no reserve food
fruit develops from any part of the
Ans. (a) (c) being a diploid tissue
flower except the ovary, e.g. apple,
pear, cashewnut and all composite Persistent nucellus in the seed is known (d) its formation by fusion of
fruits (mulberry, pine apple). as perisperm. secondary nucleus with several
The albuminous seeds usually retain a sperms
80 Which part of the coconut part of endosperm as it is not Ans. (b)
produces coir? [CBSE AIPMT 1996] completely used up during embryo The main difference between
development. perisperm and endosperm is that
(a) Seed coat (b) Mesocarp
(c) Epicarp (d) Pericarp But in some seeds, remnants of perisperm is present in seeds and
nucellus are also persistent, e.g. black endosperm is present in developing
Ans. (b) pepper and beet. embryo as its reserved food which is
In coconut (drupe or stone fruit), completely consumed by it during
epicarp is thin, mesocarp is fibrous, 85 The morphological nature of the development.
produces coir, endocarp bears three edible part of coconut is
eye spots and encloses a single seed [NEET 2017] 89 Cotyledons and testa are edible
with brown testa, oily endosperm, (a) perisperm (b) cotyledon parts of [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
embryo and watery fluid.
(c) endosperm (d) pericarp (a) groundnut and pomegranate
Ans. (c) (b) walnut and tamarind
81 Mango juice is got from
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] The edible part of coconut is (c) french bean and coconut
(a) epicarp endosperm. Coconut water is free (d) cashew nut and litchi
nuclear endosperm and white kernel is
(b) mesocarp Ans. (a)
the cellular endosperm.
(c) endocarp Cotyledons and testa are edible parts of
(d) pericarp and thalamus 86 Which one of the following groundnut and pomegranate
statements is correct? respectively.
Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] The edible part of walnut is cotyledon,
In mango (a drupe) edible part is
(a) The seed in grasses is not tamarind-mesocarp, french
mesocarp, which is fibrous, pulpy and
endospermic bean-seeds, coconut-endosperm,
juicy.
testa, cotyledons and embryo,
(b) Mango is a parthenocarpic fruit
cashewnut-cotyledons and fleshy
82 Fruit of groundnut is (c) A proteinaceous aleurone layer is pedicels and of litchi is fleshy aril.
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] present in maize grain
(a) legume (b) caryopsis (d) A sterile pistil is called a 90 An example of a seed with
(c) berry (d) nut staminode endosperm, perisperm and
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) caruncle is [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Legume or pod develops from A proteinaceous aleurone protein layer (a) cotton (b) coffee
monocarpellary gynoecium. It is a dry of maize start developing (c) lily (d) castor
dehiscent fruit occurs in Leguminosae approximately 10-15 days after Ans. (d)
(pea, gram, bean and groundnut). pollination in stack that take 40 day for
The seeds of castor (Ricinus communis,
the aleurone to mature completely.
family–Euphorbiaceae) are
Thus is the correct statement. Correct
endospermic dicot seeds. They
TOPIC 7 sentences for other options are
possess, endosperm which acts as the
(a) Seed in grasses are endospermic food storage tissue of seed. They also
Seed (b) Banana is a parthanocarpic fruit possess perisperm and caruncle.
but mango is not a parthenocarpic
83 The body of the ovule is fused fruit. 91 In a cereal grain the single
within the funicle at (c) Sterile pistil is called pistillode. cotyledon of embryo is
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] represented by [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(a) micropyle (b) nucellus 87 Seed coat is not thin,
(a) scutellum (b) prophyll
(c) chalaza (d) hilum membranous in [NEET 2013]
(c) coleoptile (d) coleorhiza
(a) maize (b) coconut
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
(c) groundnut (d) gram
The attachment point of funicle and In a cereal grain (e.g. wheat), the single
body of ovule is known as hilum. It is the Ans. (b) cotyledon of embryo is represented by
point where ovule attaches to the base. Seed coat is thick in coconut seed and the scutellum. Scutellum is specialised
It is generally present as an eye of the thin, membranous in groundnut, gram for nutrient absorption from the
seed as it is present as a scar. and maize seeds. endosperm.
Coleoptile is a modified ensheathing

leaf that covers and protects the young
Ans. (b) TOPIC 8
Dicotyledoneae is the group of
primary leaves of a grass seedling.
angiosperm with two cotyledons, flower Important
Coleorhiza is a sheath like structure
found on the radicle which covers and
bi or pentamerous, leaves net-viened, Angiospermic Families
stem with open collateral vascular
protects it during the growth into the bundle arranged in a ring and roots form
soil. tap root system. 98 Match the Column -I with
Column -II. [NEET 2021]
92 The embryo in sunflower has 95 Vivipary is [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] Column I Column II
(a) seed germination with A. 1. Brassicac
(a) one cotyledon subterranean cotyledons %O K (5)C1+2+(2) A(9)+1G1
eae
+
(b) two cotyledons (b) seed germination with
(c) many cotyledons epiterranean cotyledons B. 2. Liliaceae
(d) no cotyledon ⊕O K(5)C(5) A5G2
(c) fruit development without +
Ans. (b) pollination
C. 3. Fabaceae
Sunflower is a dicotyledonous plant, so (d) seed germination inside the fruit ⊕O P (3+3)A3+3 G3
+
the number of cotyledons in sunflower while attached to the plant
is two. Monocotyledons contain only D. ⊕O K 2+2C4 A2–4 G(2)
4. Solanacea
Ans. (d) + e
one cotyledon in their embryo. It belong
Germination of seeds inside the fruit
to order–Asterales and
which is still attached to the parent tree Select the correct answer from
family–Asteraceae.
is called vivipary. It is a special type of
seed germination occurring in plants
the options given below.
93 Heterospory and seed habit are growing in sea coasts and salt lakes, A B C D
often discussed in relation to a (e.g. man-groves). These seeds lack any (a) 3 4 2 1
dormant period. (b) 1 2 3 4
structure called [CBSE AIPMT 1997] (c) 2 3 4 1
(a) spathe (d) 4 2 1 3
(b) bract 96 Oil reserve of groundnut is present
Ans. (a)
(c) petiole in [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
(A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)
(d) ligule (a) embryo
Fabaceae was earlier called
(b) cotyledons
Ans. (d) Papilionoideae. Flowers of Fabaceae
(c) endosperm are zygomorphic (%),
Heterospory and seed habit are (d) underground tubers
discussed mostly with respect to ligule. _
Ans. (b) + ), have 5 fused
hermaphrodite (O
Development of two types of spores
(microspores and megaspores) is called Cotyledons are the leaves of embryo, sepals (K (5) ),
heterospory. Though all seed-bearing usually store food for the use of embryo
plants are heterosporous, it evolved in have 5 petals out of which 2 are fused
during development. Groundnut, a dicot
some pteridophytes. In early (1 + 2 + (2)) have 9 united stamens and 1
stores food in the form of oil reserve in
heterosporous plants, megaspores free stamen (C9) + 1) and have 1 superior
the cotyledons.
were released from the parent. ovary (G 1 ).
But in seed plants, these are retained This way the floral formula is made and
97 Vivipary is characteristics of thus, similarly for Brassicaceae,
and fertilised to become seed. This habit [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
is seen in Selaginella which bears a small Liliaceae and Solanaceae.
(a) mesophytes (b) xerophytes
multicellular scale-like structure called
ligule at the base of leaf on adaxial side. (c) hygrophytes (d) halophytes 99 Which of the following is the
Ans. (d) correct floral formula of Liliaceae?
94 Plant having column of vascular Vivipary is a special type of seed [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
tissues, bearing fruits and having germination, known to occur in (a) % O C1+2+(2)A(9)+1G1
halophytes, e.g. Rhizophora where +
a tap root system is
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] seeds germinate inside the fruit, while (b) r O K(5)C(5) A1G1
+
it is still attached to the parent plant.
(a) monocot
The embryo get nourishment from the (c) Brr O P
(b) dicot A G
parent plant and grows out of seed as + (3+3) 3+3 (3)
(c) gymnosperm or dicot well as fruit. Projecting out in the form (d) r O K(5)C(5) A5G(2)
(d) gymnosperm or monocot of a green seedling. +
Ans. (c) 102 Which of the following is a correct Ans. (a)

Floral formula of Liliaceae is pair? [CBSE AIPMT 2002] Fabaceae (Leguminaceae) is
(a) Cuscuta — Parasite economically important family
Br + O P A (3+3) G (3) containing a number of legumes or
+ (3+3) (b) Dischidia — Insectivorous pulses, e.g. gram (Cicer arietinum),
(c) Opuntia — Predator green gram (Vigna radiata), black gram
It represents bracteate, actinomorphic, (Phaseolus mungo), pigeon pea (Cajanus
bisexual flowers having six tepals and (d) Capsella — Hydrophyte
cajan), soyabean, etc.
six epitepalous stamens. Ovary is Ans. (a)
superior with three lobed stigma. 106 Epipetalous and syngenesious
Cuscuta, commonly known as dodder or
100 Vexillary aestivation is amarbel, is a parasitic plant. It belongs stamens occur in [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
to order Solanales and (a) Solanaceae (b) Brassicaceae
characteristic of the family family–Convolvulaceae.
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] (c) Fabaceae (d) Asteraceae
(a) Fabaceae (b) Asteraceae Ans. (d)
(c) Solanaceae (d) Brassicaceae 103 Match the following and indicate
In disc florets of family–Asteraceae
Ans. (a)
which is correct? (Compositae), androecium consists of
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
five stamens, which are epipetalous,
Vexillary aestivation of corolla is a (a) Cucurbitaceae — Orange with free filaments and fused anthers
characteristic of family–Fabaceae. In
(b) Malvaceae — Cotton (e.g. syngenesious), dithecous, introse
corolla, the posterior petal called
(c) Brassicaceae — Wheat and dehiscing longitudinally.
vexillum is largest, two lateral, curved
petals are called wings and two (d) Leguminosae — Sunflower
107 Botanical name of cauliflower is
anterior, boat-shaped petals are called Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
keels. Sunflower belongs to Asteraceae (a) Brassica oleracea var. capitata
(Compositae), orange to Rutaceae wheat (b) Brassica campestris
101 The correct floral formula of chilli to Poaceae (Gramineae) while cotton
is [CBSE AIPMT 2011] (c) Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
(Gossypium) belongs to Malvaceae.
_
(a) ⊕ O K (5 ) C (5 ) A 5 G (2 ) (d) Brassica oleracea var. gemmifera
+
_
(b) ⊕ O K (5 ) C (5 ) A (5 )G 2 104 Tetradynamous stamens are Ans. (c)
+ Brassica oleracea var. botrytis
found in family
(cauliflower = phulgobhi), B. oleracea
(c) ⊕ O_K C 5 A (5 )G 2 [CBSE AIPMT 1995, 2001]
+ 5 var. capitata (cabbage = bandgobhi), B.
(a) Malvaceae oleracea var. caulorapa (knol khol =
_
(d) ⊕ O K (5 ) C 5 A 5 G (2 ) (b) Solanaceae ganth gobhi), B. campestris var. sarson
+ (c) Cruciferae (yellow mustard), B. rapa (turnip).
(d) Liliaceae
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
108 Floral formula of tomato/tobacco
Floral formula of chilli (Capsicum annum)
_ is [CBSE AIPMT 1989, 92]
is ⊕ O Tetradynamous stamens refer to four
+ K (5) C (5) A5 G (2) . It belongs to
family–Solanaceae. In this family, long and two short stamens arranged in (a) ⊕ +
oä K 4 – 5 A 10G(2)
flower is actinomorphic, complete and a flower, e.g. members of Cruciferae
(Brassica). (b) ⊕ +
oä K 2+ 2C 4 A 2+ 4G1
bisexual, calyx has five sepals which are
gamosepalous showing valvate (c) ⊕ +
oä P2A 3G1
aestivation, corolla has five petals 105 Pulses are obtained from (d) Br ⊕+
oäK(5)C(5)A 5G(2)
which are polypetalous showing valvate [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
aestivation, androecium has five free (a) Fabaceae Ans. (d)
stamens (polyandrous) but epipetalous, (b) Asteraceae Tomato and tobacco are the members
gynoecium is bicarpellary, syncarpous, of family–Solanaceae, with floral
(c) Poaceae
bilocular with superior ovary having formula
(d) Solanaceae
axile placentation.
06
Anatomy of
Flowering Plants
TOPIC 1 Permanent tissues having all cells 03 Root hairs develop from the region
similar in structure and function are
Tissues and Tissue System called simple tissue.
of [NEET 2017]
(a) maturation
Vascular tissues are formed of more
01 Match the List-I with List - II. (b) elongation
than one cell type, found in vascular
[NEET 2021]
(c) root cap
plants.
(d) meristematic activity
List-I List-II The primary components of vascular
Ans. (d)
tissues are the xylem and phloem.
A. Cells with active cell 1. Vascular
These two tissues transport fluid and The root is covered at the apex by a
division capacity tissues
nutrients internally. thimble-like structure called the root
B. Tissue having all cells 2. Meristema cap. It protects the tender apex of the
Sclereids are a kind of sclerenchyma
similar in structure tic tissue root as it makes its way through the
cells that are irregular or short. These
and function soil. A few millimetres above the root
are dead cells. Their walls are irregular,
C. Tissue having 3. Sclereids very thick and their lumen is very cap is the region of meristematic
different types of narrow. They do not conduct any activity. The cells of this region are very
cells metabolic activities. They exhibit small, thin-walled and with dense
D. Dead cells with highly 4. Simple different types of lignin depositions and protoplasm. They divide repeatedly.
thickened walls and tissue also have pits. Sclereids are found in The cell proximal to this region undergo
narrow lumen hard parts such as hard seed coats, rapid elongation and enlargement and
endocarp of coconut. They are also are responsible for the growth of the
Select the correct answer from the referred to as stone cells. root in length. This region is called the
options given below. region of elongation. The cells of the
A B C D elongation zone gradually differentiate
(a) 2 4 1 3
02 Regeneration of damaged growing and mature. Hence, this zone, proximal.
(b) 4 3 2 1 grass following grazing is largely From this region, some of the
(c) 1 2 3 4 due to [NEET (Odisha) 2019] epidermal cells form very fine and
(d) 3 2 4 1 (a) lateral meristem delicate, thread-like structure called
(b) apical meristem root hairs. These root hairs absorb
Ans. (a)
(c) intercalary meristem water and minerals from the soil.
(A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(3)
(d) secondary meristem
Meristematic cells are totipotent and
Ans. (c) 04 Which of the following is made up
are capable of continued cell division.
Division of meristematic cells provides Regeneration of damaged growing of dead cells? [NEET 2017]
new cells for expansion and grass following grazing is largely due to (a) Xylem parenchyma
differentiation of tissues and the intercalary meristem. It is the meristem (b) Collenchyma
initiation of new organs, providing the which occurs between mature tissues. It
basic structure of the plant body. (c) Phellem
is found in grasses and regenerates parts
Hence, they have cells with active cell damaged by the grazing herbivores. (d) Phloem
division capacity.
Anatomy of Flowering Plants 61
Ans. (c) Cork is impervious to water due to the 11 The chief water conducting
Phellem or cork is a tissue formed on suberin and provides protection to
elements of xylem in
the outer side of cork cambium. It is underlying tissues. The cells cut off
from cork cambium towards inside add gymnosperms are
composed of dead cells. The cell wall [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
become impermeable due to to the cortex and are called secondary
suberisation. cortex cells or phelloderm cells. (a) vessels
(b) fibres
05 Specialised epidermal cells 08 Companion cells are closely (c) transfusion tissue
surrounding the guard cells are associated with [CBSE AIPMT 2012] (d) tracheids
called [NEET 2016, Phase I] (a) sieve elements (b) vessel elements Ans. (d)
(a) subsidiary cells (c) trichomes (d) guard cells
The tracheids are elongated, angular
(b) bulliform cells Ans. (a) dead cells with hard lignified wide
(c) lenticels lumen and narrow end walls. The walls
Companion cells are characteristic
(d) complementary cells of tracheids possess different types of
elements of phloem tissue associated
thickenings and the unthickened areas
Ans. (a) with the sieve tubes (sieve elements) in
of its wall allow the rapid movement of
the angiosperms. The sieve tubes and
Few epidermal cells, in the vicinity of water from one tracheid to another.
companion cells are related
the guard cells become specialised in Tracheids are the characteristic cell
ontogenically as they develop from the
their shape and size and are known as types of xylem tissues in gymnosperms
same mother cell. The companion cells
subsidiary cells. These cells are devoid and pteridophytes, where they are the
and sieve tubes maintain close
of chloroplasts. chief elements of water conduction.
cytoplasmic connections through
The stomatal aperture, guard cells and plasmodesmata.
the surrounding subsidiary cells are 12 Which one of the following is not a
together called stomatal apparatus. lateral meristem?
09 Closed vascular bundles lack
06 Tracheids differ from other trachery (a) ground tissue (a) Intrafascicular cambium
elements in [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(b) conjunctive tissue (b) Interfascicular cambium
(a) having casparian strips (c) cambium (c) Phellogen
(b) being imperforate (d) pith (d) Intercalary meristem
(c) lacking nucleus Ans. (d)
(d) being lignified Ans. (c)
Intercalary meristems are the portions
Closed vascular bundles lack cambium. of apical meristems which are
Ans. (b) In dicot stems, cambium is present separated from the apex during the
Tracheids and vessels both are called between phloem and xylem. Such growth of axis and formation of
tracheary elements because their main vascular bundles because of the permanent tissues . It is present mostly
function is conduction of sap. presence of cambium, possess the at the base of node, (e.g. Mentha viridis),
Tracheids differ from other trachaery ability to form secondary xylem and base of internode, (e.g. stem of many
elements in being imperforate. phloem tissues and hence, are called monocots viz, wheat, paddy, grasses;
Tracheids are the specific cells which open vascular bundles. On the contrary, pteridophytes like Equisetum) or at the
have pits to support upwards and vascular bundles in monocots have no base of leaf, (e.g. Pinus).
lateral conduction of water sap. cambium. Hence, they do not form
Tracheid are comparatively short and secondary tissues, and are referred to
single cell, while vessels have more as closed.
13 Palisade parenchyma is absent in
than one cell and up to 10 cm long. leaves of [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
10 Ground tissue includes (a) Sorghum (b) mustard
07 The common bottle cork is a [CBSE AIPMT 2011] (c) soyabean (d) gram
product of [CBSE AIPMT 2012] (a) all tissues except epidermis and Ans. (a)
vascular bundles
(a) dermatogen Sorghum (family–Poaceae) is a monocot
(b) epidermis and cortex
(b) phellogen plant. The leaves of monocot do not
(c) all tissues internal to endodermis
(c) xylem contain palisade parenchyma because
(d) all tissues external to endodermis the mesophyll of monocot leaf is not
(d) vascular cambium
Ans. (a) differentiated into palisade and spongy
Ans. (b) parenchyma, all being thin walled,
All tissues except epidermis and
The cork cambium or phellogen cells chlorophyllous and irregularly
vascular bundles constitute the ground
divide periclinally cutting off cells compactly arranged with fewer
tissue or fundamental tissue. It
towards the outside and inside. The intercellular spaces.
consists of simple tissues such as
cells cut off towards the out side
parenchyma, collenchyma and Palisade cells occur in dicotyledonous
becomes suberised and dead. These
sclerenchyma. It includes cortex, plants and also in the net-veined
are compactly packed in radial rows
pericycle, medullary rays, in leaves the monocots, the Araceae and
without intercellular spaces and form
ground tissue consists of mesophyll. Dioscoreaceae.
cork or phellem.
14 The annular and spirally thickened Ans. (d) Ans. (a)

conducting elements generally Intercalary meristem is present away In roots, endodermis is the innermost
develop in the protoxylem when from apical meristem in primary layer of cortex. Some of the
the root or stem is permanent tissue. It is present at the endodermal cells present opposite to
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] base of internodes, e.g. in the xylem patches are thin walled and
(a) maturing (b) elongating family–Gramineae or at the base of are called passage cells or transfusion
(c) widening (d) differentiating leaves, e.g. Pinus or at the base of node, cells.
e.g. Mentha. Intercalary meristem is Passage cells help in transfer of water
Ans. (c)
responsible for increase in length. and dissolved salts from cortex directly
Vessels or tracheae are made up of a The shoot apical meristem present at into the xylem and ultimately to the
row of cells, placed one above the the apices of shoot, is self determining pericycle.
other, with their intervening walls and autonomous organising centre. The
absent or variously pored. The walls of primary growth and differentiation of
vessels are lignified and hard but not primary tissues is entirely due to this
20 A common structural feature of
very thick. The cell cavity or the lumen meristem as it continuously divides vessel elements and sieve tube
is wide. The thickening may be annular, giving rise to new cells. These are the elements are [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
spiral, scalariform, reticulate and apical meristems that increase the (a) pores on lateral walls
pitted. length of plant but not internodes (b) presence of p-protein
variability. (c) enucleate condition
15 In barley stem, vascular bundles
(d) thick secondary walls
are [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
18 Vascular tissues in flowering Ans. (a)
(a) open and scattered plants develop from
(b) closed and scattered The vessels are nucleated and the sieve
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(c) open and in a ring tube elements are enucleated.
(a) phellogen
(d) closed and radial The wall of both the vessel and sieve
(b) plerome
Ans. (b) tube elements are perforated by large
(c) periblem openings. Due to these adaptation the
The vascular bundles in Hordeum (d) dermatogen cell to cell contact is possible.
vulgare (barley) plant are scattered in
ground tissues, many in number and Ans. (b)
vary in size-smaller towards periphery Histogen theory for shoot apical 21 Chlorenchyma is known to develop
and bigger towards centre of the meristem has been proposed by in the [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
ground tissue, oval or rounded in Hanstein (1870). It advocates that there (a) pollen tube of Pinus
outline, conjoint, collateral and closed. are three distinct meristematic zones (b) cytoplasm of Chlorella
(layers) called dermatogen, periblem
16 Reduction in vascular tissue, and plerome. The dermatogen is the
(c) mycelium of a green mould such
mechanical tissue and cuticle is outermost histogen giving rise to as Aspergillus
characteristic of epidermis, periblem is the middle one (d) spore capsule of a moss
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] producing the cortex and plerome is the Ans. (d)
(a) xerophytes (b) mesophytes innermost resulting in central cylinder, The apophysis of moss capsule
(c) epiphytes (d) hydrophytes (i.e. vascular tissue).
contains chloroplast bearing
Ans. (d) Cork cambium (phellogen) is the parenchymatous cells, called as
secondary lateral meristem found in chlorenchyma. Due to the presence of
In hydrophytes, vascular tissue and
outer cortical region. Its cells divide chloroplasts, chlorenchyma cells have
mechanical tissue are reduced. Cuticle
periclinally cutting off cells towards the the ability to prepare food by the
is either completely absent or if
outside (forming cork or phellem) and
present, it is thin and poorly developed. process of photosynthesis.
inside (forming secondary cortex or
In xerophytes, cuticle is heavy and well phelloderm).
developed. Vascular tissue and 22 The apical meristem of the root is
mechanical tissue are well developed 19 Passage cells are thin walled cells
and differentiated.
present [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
found in [CBSE AIPMT 2007] (a) in all the roots
In mesophytes, cuticle in aerial part is (a) endodermis of roots facilitating (b) only in radicals
moderately developed. Vascular and
rapid transport of water from (c) only in tap roots
mechanical tissues are fairly developed
cortex to pericycle (d) only in adventitious roots
and well differentiated.
(b) phloem elements that serve as Ans. (a)
17 The length of different internodes entry points for substances for
transport to other plant parts Apical meristems are primary
in a culm of sugarcane is variable meristems which are located in the
because of [CBSE AIPMT 2008] (c) testa of seeds to enable
growing points (roots and shoot
(a) shoot apical meristem emergence of growing embryonic
apices), as well as buds in the axils of
(b) position of axillary buds axis during seed germination leaves. The various organs increase in
(c) size of leaf lamina at the node (d) central region of style through length due to the activity of apical
below each internode which the pollen tube grows meristem.
(d) intercalary meristem towards the ovary
23 The cells of the quiescent centre 26 Axillary bud and terminal bud are Ans. (d)
are characterised by derived from the activity of Phellogen or cork cambium is a part of
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] [CBSE AIPMT 2002] periderm. It presents between phellem or
(a) dividing regularly to add to tunica (a) lateral meristem cork towards outerside and phelloderm or
(b) having dense cytoplasm and (b) intercalary meristem secondary cortex towards inner side.
prominent nuclei (c) apical meristem Phellogen appearing in the cortical
(c) having light cytoplasm and small regions cuts off new cells for extrastelar
nuclei (d) parenchyma
secondary growth—cork on the outer side
(d) dividing regularly to add to the Ans. (c) and secondary cortex on the inner side.
corpus It is the shoot apical meristem which
Ans. (c) gives rise to lateral buds. The lateral 30 A leaf primordium grows into the
The region of quiescent centre was buds however remain suppressed due adult leaf lamina by means of
discovered by Clowes (1958). The cells to the apical dominance. [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
of quiescent centre have lower (a) apical meristem
concentration of DNA, RNA and protein 27 Which of the following statements
(b) lateral meristem
as compared to other cells in the root is true? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
apex. These cells also have fewer (c) marginal meristem
(a) Vessels are multicellular with
mitochondria, little endoplasmic (d) at first by apical meristem and
narrow lumen
reticulum and very small nuclei and later largely by marginal meristem
nucleoli. (b) Tracheids are multicellular with
narrow lumen Ans. (d)
24 Vessels are found in (c) Vessels are unicellular with wide Apical meristem is present at the tips of
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] lumen stems, roots and leaves, it takes part in
(a) all angiosperms and some (d) Tracheids are unicellular with initial growth or elongation of roots,
gymnosperms wide lumen stems and leaves. Marginal meristem or
(b) most of angiosperms and few plate meristem has parallel layers of
gymnosperms Ans. (a)
cells which divide anticlinally in two
(c) all angiosperms and few Each vessel is made up of a number of planes as in growing flat organs
gymnosperms and some components called ‘vessel members’ like-leaves.
pteridophytes arranged end-to-end running parallel to
(d) all pteridophytes the long axis of the organ in which it lies. 31 At maturity which of the following
Ans. (b) is enucleate? [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
28 What happens during
Most angiosperms have vessels except (a) Sieve cell (b) Companion cell
vascularisation in plants?
a few, (e.g. Drimys, Tetracentron, [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(c) Palisade cell (d) Cortical cell
Trochodendron). The gymnosperms, as (a) Differentiation of procambium is Ans. (a)
a rule, lack vessels but these are found immediately followed by the
in the order–Gnetales. Vessels are the Phloem (complex tissue) is composed
development of secondary xylem
and phloem of companion cells, phloem
constituent of xylem. They are
parenchyma, phloem fibre and sieve
composed of row of cells placed one (b) Differentiation of procambium
followed by the development of tube cells. Sieve tube cells are
above the other. Transverse wall of
xylem and phloem cylindrical and tube-like structure
these cells is absent due to the which are involved in transport of
dissolution. (c) Differentiation of procambium,
xylem and phloem is simultaneous organic solute. In sieve cells nucleus is
evident in the younger stage but
25 Four radial vascular bundles are (d) Differentiation of procambium
disappears in mature stage.
found in [CBSE AIPMT 2002] followed by the development of
(a) dicot root (b) monocot root primary phloem and then by 32 What is not true about sclereids?
(c) dicot stem (d) monocot stem primary xylem [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) (a) These are parenchyma cells with
Roots have radial vascular bundles From the procambium, primary xylem thickened lignified walls
while stems have conjoint vascular and phloem arise simultaneously. (b) These are elongated and flexible
bundles. Dicot roots have 3-6 vascular with tapered ends
bundles while monocot roots have more 29 Which of the following meristems (c) These are commonly found in the
than 6 vascular bundles. is responsible for extrastelar shells of nuts and in the pulp of
Phloem secondary growth in guava, pear, etc
(d) These are also called the stone
dicotyledonous stem?
cells
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) Intrafascicular cambium Ans. (a)
(b) Interfascicular cambium Sclereids are broad sclerenchyma cells
Xylem (c) Intercalary meristem which may be oval, spherical, cylindrical,
(d) Phellogen or stellate in structure. Sclereids
Radial vascular bandies in dicot root
develop from sclerenchyma cells, occur
singly or in groups to provide stiffness. (marigold), (b) Lamellar—thickening on (c) rate of cell growth
These may be of different types, such as tangential walls, e.g. stem of sunflower, (d) rate of shoot tip growth
brachysclereids (stone cells) found in grit (c) Lacunate—thickening on the walls
of pear, apple, macrosclereids bordering intercellular spaces, e.g. Ans. (a)
(columnar), e.g. legume seeds, stem of Cucurbita. Tunica (outer zone of shoot apex) forms
astrosclereids (star shaped), e.g. tea protoderm which through anticlinal
leaves, etc. 36 An organised and differentiated divisions gives rise to epidermis of stem
cellular structure having and leaves. Corpus is inner mass of
33 Bordered pits are found in cytoplasm but no nucleus is meristem where cells undergo divisions
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] in different planes to form procambium
(a) sieve cells and ground meristem.
(a) vessels (b) xylem parenchyma
(b) vessel wall (c) sieve tubes (d) tracheids
(c) companion cells 40 Sieve tubes are suited for
(d) sieve tube wall Ans. (c) translocation of food because
Sieve tubes are food conducting they possess [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (b)
elements of phloem. They possess (a) bordered pits
Pits are the depressions or cavity nucleus in the young stage but (b) no ends walls
formed in the cell wall that are found in disappears in mature ones. The central
the sclerenchyma, thick walled (c) broader lumen and perforated
part of sieve tube has an organised and
parenchyma cells and the tracheary cross walls
differentiated cellular structure with a
elements, (i.e. vessels and tracheids). network of cytoplasmic strands, though (d) no protoplasm
Simple pits are uniform while bordered the peripheral cytoplasm is thin and Ans. (c)
pits are the flask shaped depressions. tonoplast is absent. Sieve tubes function as the food
conducting elements of phloem which
34 Which is correct about transport 37 Collenchyma occurs in the stem are elongated tubular channels formed
or conduction of substances? and petioles of [CBSE AIPMT 1990] by end to end union of numerous cells.
[CBSE AIPMT 1991, 97] (a) xerophytes (b) monocots Sieve tubes have broader lumen, thin
(a) Organic food moves up through (c) dicot herbs (d) hydrophytes walls. Septa present between sieve tube
phloem cells are called sieve plates, they
Ans. (c)
(b) Organic food moves up through possess a number of perforations called
Collenchyma is a simple permanent sieve pores or sieve pits.
xylem
tissue, made of elongated living cells
(c) Inorganic food moves upwardly having thickened pectocellulosic walls.
and downwardly through xylem 41 Death of protoplasm is a
It is a living mechanical tissue which
(d) Organic food moves upwardly and provides both mechanical strength and
prerequisite for a vital function
downwardly through phloem elasticity and allow them to grow in like [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
size. Collenchyma is found in epidermis (a) transport of sap
Ans. (d) of dicot stem and petioles and (b) transport of food
Sieve tubes are the conducting abundant in climbing stems. (c) absorption of water
elements of phloem that carry the (d) gaseous exchange
organic nutrients upwardly and 38 Monocot leaves possess
downwardly. Organic nutrients [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
Ans. (a)
absorbed through roots reaches the (a) intercalary meristem Certain cells get lignified, leading to
shoot apex and other parts through (b) lateral meristem death of protoplasm such as xylem
phloem cells. Moreover, nutrients are cells. Xylem cells are dead, i.e. devoid of
(c) apical meristem
also translocated downwardly through protoplasm, and performs the function
phloem as demonstrated by girdling (d) mass meristem
of conducting water or sap inside the
experiment (Malpighi; 1671) in which Ans. (a) plant.
removal of ring of bark (including
phloem) prevents downward Intercalary meristems are derived from
the apical meristems and separated 42 Out of diffuse porous and ring
translocation of food and causing
starvation and death of roots. from the same by permanent cells. porous woods, which is correct?
These meristems occur at leaf bases [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
and above or below the nodes (e.g. (a) Ring porous wood, carries more
35 Angular collenchyma occurs in grass, mint). They help in elongation of
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] water for short period
leaves and internodes besides allowing
(a) Cucrbita (b) Tagetes (b) Diffuse porous wood carries more
the prostrate stems to become erect.
(c) Althaea (d) Salvia water
39 Organisation of stem apex into (c) Ring porous wood carries more
Ans. (b) water when need is higher
corpus and tunica is determined
Depending upon the thickening, (d) Diffuse porous wood is less
collenchyma is of three types—(a)
mainly by [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
specialised but conducts water
Angular—thickening at the angles, e.g. (a) planes of cell division
rapidly through out
stem of tomato, Datura, Tagetes (b) regions of meristematic activity
Ans. (c) Ans. (a) 48 Cortex is the region found

In dicot root, the vascular cambium between [NEET 2016, Phase II]
In dicots, large sized vessels are
originates from tissues located below
arranged in two ways—ring porous (a) epidermis and stele
the phloem bundles and a portion of
(large sized vessels in early wood, e.g. pericycle tissue above protoxylem. (b) pericycle and endodermis
Quercus) and diffuse porous (large sized
Vascular cambium is the meristematic (c) endodermis and pith
vessels distributed throughout, e.g.
layer that is responsible for cutting off
Azadirachta). Ring porous vessels are vascular tissues (xylem and phloem). In (d) endodermis and vascular bundle
more efficient and advanced as they young stem, it is present in patches as a
provide quicker translocation when Ans. (a)
single layer between the xylem and
water requirement is maximum. phloem. Cortex tissue is found in between the
epidermis and stele. It is multilayered
43 Which meristem helps in 46 Casparian strips occur in and is made up of parenchymatous cells
increasing girth? [NEET 2018] with big intercellular spaces.
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] (a) cortex (b) pericycle
(a) Lateral meristem (c) epidermis (d) endodermis Root hair
(b) Intercalary meristem Ans. (d)
Epiblema
(c) Primary meristem Casparian strips are found in
(d) Apical meristem endodermis of roots. It is a band of
thickening which runs along the radial Cortex
Ans. (a)
and tangential walls of endodermal
Lateral meristem occurs on the sides cells. It is made up of suberin and lignin.
and helpful in increasing girth of stem Casparian strips prevent plasmolysis of
and root, e.g. vascular cambium, endodermal cells.
phellogen (cork cambium). Cortex is found below epiblema. It is
Endodermis
made up of thin-walled parenchymal
Pericycle
44 Tunica corpus theory is connected cells. Epidermis is the outermost layer
made up of thin-walled flattened and Phloem
with [CBSE AIPMT 1988] slightly elongated parenchymal cells. Protoxylem
Stele
(a) root apex Pericycle is found below endodermis Metaxylem
(b) root cap and it is made of parenchymatous cells. Pith
(c) shoot apex Structure of a portion of
47 The balloon-shaped structures TS of Gram root
(d) secondary growth
called tyloses [NEET 2016, Phase II]
Ans. (c) 49 Anatomically fairly old
(a) originate in the lumen of vessels
Tunica corpus theory, given by Schmidt
dicotyledonous root is
(b) characterise the sapwood
(1927) is related with shoot apex or stem distinguished from the
(c) are extensions of xylem
apical meristem. According to it, tunica parenchyma cells into vessels dicotyledonous stem by
is the outer zone of shoot apex while [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
(d) are linked to the ascent of sap
corpus is inner zone. Tunica forms through xylem vessels (a) absence of secondary xylem
protoderm that give rise to epidermis of (b) absence of secondary phloem
Ans. (c)
stem and leaves. Corpus is the inner (c) presence of cortex
mass which undergoes divisions to form The tyloses are the structures found in
the woody tissues of dicot stems. (d) position of protoxylem
procambium and ground meristem.
These are the extensions of xylem Ans. (d)
parenchyma cells into the vessel
In dicotyledonous root, the condition of
TOPIC 2 elements.
xylem is exarch as the protoxylem is
Internal Structure away from the centre and metaxylem is
towards the centre. In dicotyledonous
of Dicot Plants Parenchyma
stem, (e.g. Cucurbita), the condition of
xylem is endarch as the metaxylem is
45 In dicot root, the vascular away from the centre and protoxylem is
cambium originates from towards the centre.
(a) tissue located below the phloem 50 In a woody dicotyledonous tree
bundles and a portion of pericycle which of the following parts will
tissue above protoxylem mainly consist of primary tissues?
(b) cortical region [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(c) parenchyma between endodermis (a) All parts
and pericycle (b) Stem and root
Structure of tyloses
(d) intrafascicular and interfascicular in woody tissue
(c) Flowers, fruits and leaves
tissue in a ring (a) in longitudinal section (b) in cross section
(d) Shoot tips and root tips
Ans. (d) Pericycle gives rise to lateral roots, root Ans. (c)
branches of vascular cambium and
Primary tissues are those meristematic Medullary rays (pith rays or wood rays)
whole of cork cambium.
tissues which are derived directly from are sheets or ribbons of cells running
embryonal tissues. from the inside of the plant to the
e.g. shoot apex and root apex.
54 Where do the casparian bands outside. That is, they run at right angles
occur? [CBSE AIPMT 1990, 94, 99] to the xylem and phloem, which run
51 Ectophloic siphonostele is found (a) Epidermis (b) Endodermis vertically. While the plant is alive, these
(c) Pericycle (d) Phloem medullary cells are alive. In dicot stems,
in [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
the cambium which is present between
(a) Adiantum and Cucurbitaceae Ans. (b) primary xylem and primary phloem is
(b) Osmunda and Equisetum In roots, the inner most layer of cortex, called intrafascicular cambium. The
(c) Marsilea and Botrychium i.e. endodermis consists of compactly cells of medullary rays near these
(d) Dicksonia and maiden hair fern arranged barrel shaped cells that intrafascicular cambium become
possess ligno-suberin thickenings meristematic and form interfascicular
Ans. (b)
called casparian strips. In dicot stems, cambium. This leads to the formation of
In the ectophloic siphonostele, the endodermis is called starch sheath, it a continuous ring of cambium.
xylem surrounds pith and this xylem is does not contain casparian strips. Other options can be corrected as :
surrounded by phloem, pericycle and Few epidermal cells in the vicinity of
endodermis respectively. e.g. Osmunda guard cells become specialised in their
and Equisetum.
55 A bicollateral vascular bundle is
shape and size and are called subsidiary
Phloem characterised by
cells.
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
The parenchymatous cells which lie
Xylem (a) phloem being sandwitched
between xylem and the phloem are
between xylem called conjunctive tissue.
Pith (b) transverse splitting of vascular A spongy layer of irregular chlorophyll
bundle bearing cells interspersed with air
(c) longitudinal splitting of vascular spaces that fills the interior part of leaf
bundle below the palisade layer is called
Ectophloic siphonostele spongy parenchyma.
(d) xylem being sandwitched between
phloem
52 In a longitudinal section of root, Ans. (d) 57 Match the List -I with List - II.
starting from the tip upward, the Bicollateral vascular bundles are List-I List-II
four zones occur in the following conjoint bundles having phloem both on A. Lenticels 1. Phellogen
order [CBSE AIPMT 2004] the outer and inner side of xylem, e.g.
B. Cork cambium 2. Suberin
(a) root cap, cell division, cell Cucurbita. These vascular bundle
deposition
enlargement, cell maturation generally seen in Solanaceae (the
(b) root cap, cell division, cell potato family) and cucurbitaceae (the C. Secondary 3. Exchange of
cucumber family). In this situation cortex gases
maturation, cell enlargement
(c) cell division, cell enlargement, cell phloem is present on both outside and D. Cork 4. Phelloderm
maturation, root cap inside the xylem.
(d) cell division, cell maturation, cell Choose the correct answer from the
enlargement, root cap options given below. [NEET 2021]
TOPIC 3 A B C D
Ans. (a)
In a longitudinal section of root, starting
Secondary Growth (a) 4 1 3 2
(b) 3 1 4 2
from the tip upward the four zones
(c) 2 3 4 1
occur in the following order 56 Select the correct pair. [NEET 2021]
(d) 4 2 1 3
Root cap → Zone of cell division→ Zone (a) Large colourless empty cells in
of cell enlargement→ Zone of cell the epidermis of grass leaves − Ans. (b)
maturation Subsidiary cells (A)-(3), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(2)
(b) In dicot leaves, vascular bundles Lenticels permit the exchange of gases
53 Pericycle of roots produces are surrounded by large between the environment and the
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] thick-walled cells − Conjunctive internal tissue spaces of the organs
(a) mechanical support tissue (stems and some fruits). They permit
(b) lateral roots (c) Cells of medullary rays that form the entrance of oxygen and
simultaneously the output of carbon
(c) vascular bundles part of cambial ring −
dioxide and water vapour. Thus, they
(d) adventitious buds Interfascicular cambium
are responsible for gaseous exchange.
(d) Loose parenchyma cells rupturing
Ans. (b) Cambium, called the phellogen or cork
the epidermis and forming a cambium, is the source of the periderm,
In roots, pericycle lies below lens-shaped opening in bark −
endodermis and is made of one or more a protective tissue that replaces the
Spongy parenchyma epidermis when the secondary growth
layers of parenchymatous cells.
displaces, and ultimately destroys, the Annual rings are formed due to the 62 Plants having little or no
epidermis of the primary plant body. seasonal activity of cambium. In the secondary growth are [NEET 2018]
Phelloderm is the parenchymatous plants of temperate region, cambium is
(a) conifers
tissue which originates from the highly active in spring and less active in
autumn season. Hence, prominent (b) deciduous angiosperms
phellogen towards its inner side known
as the secondary cortex. It is a living rings are formed in these plants having (c) grasses
tissue having a cellulosic cell wall. light and dark bands of tissue. Rest (d) cycads
Cork tissue, consisting of dead cells statements are correct about the Ans. (c)
surrounded by alternating layers of formation of annual rings in trees.
Secondary growth occurs due to the
suberin and wax, has a particularly high presence of vascular cambium. Grasses
suberin content. Cork cells are found in 60 Plants having little or no are monocot and lacks vascular
a secondary protective layer (periderm) secondary growth are [NEET 2018] cambium. Therefore, they do not show
in the bark of trees. (a) conifers secondary growth.
(b) deciduous angiosperms Deciduous angiosperms are usually
58 Which of the following statements (c) grasses woody dicot plants and show secondary
about cork cambium is incorrect? (d) cycads growth. Conifers and cycads are
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] gymnosperms and usually show
Ans. (c) anomalous secondary growth.
(a) It forms secondary cortex on its
outerside Secondary growth occurs due to the
presence of vascular cambium. Grasses 63 Identify the wrong statement in
(b) It forms a part of periderm
are monocot and lacks vascular context of heartwood. [NEET 2017]
(c) It is responsible for the formation cambium. Therefore, they do not show (a) Organic compounds are deposited
of lenticels secondary growth. in it
(d) It is a couple of layers thick Deciduous angiosperms are usually (b) It is highly durable
Ans. (a) woody dicot plants and show secondary
(c) It conducts water and minerals
Cork cambium is a meristematic tissue growth. Conifers and cycads are
efficiently
involved in secondary growth. It is also gymnosperms and usually show
anomalous secondary growth. (d) It comprises dead elements with
called phellogen. It is few layer thick highly lignified walls
and it cut off cells into an outer layer
and an inner layer. The former 61 Secondary xylem and phloem in Ans. (c)
differentiates into cork or phellem while dicot stem are produced by Heartwood also called duramen is the
the latter differentiate into secondary [NEET 2018] central dead wood of trees. It
cortex or phelloderm. The phellogen, (a) phellogen comprises of dead, lignified cells
phellem and phelloderm are collectively (b) vascular cambium containing organic compounds, e.g.
known as periderm. In woody trees, (c) apical meristems tannins or other substances. These
phellogen cuts off closely arranged substances make it darker in colour and
(d) axillary meristems
parenchymatous cells which ruptures aromatic. Heartwood is strong durable
the epidermis and form lenticels. Thus, Ans. (b) and resistant to decay. It does not
statement 1 is incorrect while other are Secondary vascular tissues, i.e., conduct water and minerals because of
correct. secondary xylem and pholem are the presence of dead elements.
formed by the vascular cambium. It is Thinking Process The conduction of
59 Which of the statements given produced by two types of meristems; water and minerals is carried out by
below is not true about formation fascicular or intrafascicular and sapwood, because it contains living
of annual rings in trees? interfascicular cambium. cells.
Intrafascicular cambium is a primary
[NEET (National) 2019]
meristem which occurs as strips in 64 The vascular cambium normal
(a) Differential activity of cambium vascular bundles. gives rise to [NEET 2017]
causes light and dark bands of
It divides to form secondary phloem on (a) phelloderm
tissue early and late wood, outer side and secondary xylem on the (b) primary phloem
respectively inner side. Interfascicular cambium (c) secondary xylem
(b) Activity of cambium depends arises secondarily from the cells of (d) periderm
upon variation in climate medullary rays.
Ans. (c)
(c) Annual rings are not prominent in Phellogen or cork cambium is produced
trees of temperate region in the outer cortical cells of dicot Vascular cambium located between
(d) Annual ring is a combination of stems. It is helpful in increasing the xylem and phloem in the stems and
girth. Apical meristems are present at roots of vascular plants. It produces
springwood and autumnwood
the tips of stem, root and their secondary xylem towards the pith and
produced in a year
branches. They are responsible for secondary phloem towards the bark.
Ans. (c) increase in length of the plant. Axillary Phellogen is made of narrow thin-walled
The statement “annual rings are not meristem is found in axillary buds. and nearly rectangular cells. phellogen
prominent in trees of temperate region’’ These cells are left behind from shoot cuts off cells on both sides. The outer
is incorrect. Correct information about apical meristem during the formation of cells differentiate into cork or phellem
the statement is as follows: leaves and elongation of stems. while inner cells differentiate into
secondary cortex or phelloderm. The Ans. (c) 69 The cork cambium, cork and
phellogen, phellem and phelloderm are
We will observe the protoxylem of the secondary cortex are collectively
collectively known as periderm.
dicot stem and dicot root to distinguish called [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
between them. In dicot stem the (a) phellogen (b) periderm
65 Read the different components protoxylem is present towards center
from I-IV in the list given below and (pith) and metaxylem is present towards (c) phellem (d) phelloderm
tell the correct order of the the periphery of the organ. This type of Ans. (b)
xylem is known as endarch.
components with reference to their The periderm is a secondary protective
In root protoxylem is present towards
arrangement from outer side to structure and is made up of cork
periphery and metaxylem is present
inner side in a woody dicot stem. cambium (phellogen), cork (phellem)
towards center that is called exarch.
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] and secondary cortex (phelloderm).
I. Secondary cortex Protoxylem
Metaxylem (outer sides) 70 Heartwood differs from sapwood
II. Wood (outer side)
III. Secondary phloem in [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
IV. Phellem (a) presence of rays and fibres

Protoxylem (b) absence of vessels and
The correct order is (inside) Metaxylem parenchyma
(a) III, IV, II, I (b) I, II, IV, III (inside)
(c) having dead and non-conducting
(c) IV, I, III, II (d) IV, III, I, II TS of dicot stem TS of dicot root
elements
Ans. (c) 67 Interfascicular cambium develops (d) being susceptible to pests and
pathogens
The correct order of arrangement of from the cells of [NEET 2013]
the given components from outside to (a) medullary rays Ans. (c)
inside in a woody dicot stem is as (b) xylem parenchyma As a result of continued secondary
follows
(c) endodermis growth in subsequent years, the older
Phellem → Secondary cortex → part of secondary xylem or wood
(d) pericycle
Secondary phloem → Wood becomes non-functional (dead) as it
Ans. (a) loses the power of conduction. The
Resin duct Cork
(phellem) In dicot stems, the cells of cambium cells of this wood are filled with resins
Cork cambium present between primary xylem and or tannins produced by adjacent
(phellogen) primary phloem is the intrafascicular functional cells. The activities of
Cortex cambium. The cells of medullary rays, vessels become blocked by tyloses. Due
endodermis adjoining these intrafascicular cambium to these activities, non-functional,
Sclerenchy become meristematic and form the
matous pericycle secondary xylem becomes hard,
Primary phloem interfascicular cambium.
Secondary durable and blackish in colour, called
Xylem parenchyma are living and
phloem heartwood. Now, the function of
Cambium thin-walled and their cell walls are made
Secondary xylem up of cellulose. In dicot roots the secondary xylem (water and mineral
Medullary rays innermost layer of the cortex is called conduction from roots) is performed by
Autumn wood endodermis. Next to endodermis lies a outer younger-rings of xylem which is
Annual
rings
few layers of thick walled called sapwood.

Spring wood
parenchymatous cells called as
pericycle. 71 For a critical study of secondary
Metaxylem Primary 68 Age of a tree can be estimated by growth in plants which one of the
Protoxylem Xylem [NEET 2013]
following pairs is suitable?
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
Pith (a) its height and girth
(a) Sugarcane and sunflower
TS of a typical dicot stem (b) biomass
showing secondary growth (c) number of annual rings (b) Teak and pine
(d) diameter of its heartwood (c) Deodar and fern
(d) Wheat and maiden hair fern
66 You are given a fairly old piece of Ans. (c)
dicot stem and a dicot root. Which Age of a tree can be estimated by Ans. (b)
of the following anatomical counting the number of annual rings. The increase in diameter or thickness is
structures will you use to This study is known as due to the formation of secondary
dendrocronology. The two kinds of tissues as a result of the activities of
distinguish between the two? woods that appear as alternate vascular cambium and cork cambium.
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] concentric rings, constitute an annual This secondary growth is characteristic
(a) Secondary xylem ring heartwood comprises dead of dicot stem and root. Thus,
(b) Secondary phloem elements with highly lignified walls that
sugarcane, pine, ferns, wheat, etc.
(c) Protoxylem give mechanical support to the stem.
The height and girth of a tree increases cannot be used to study secondary
(d) Cortical cells due to the activity of vascular cambium. growth.
72 Main function of lenticel is 75 Abnormal/anomalous secondary Ans. (a)

[CBSE AIPMT 2002] growth occurs in[CBSE AIPMT 1993] In old trees, secondary xylem or wood
(a) transpiration (a) Dracaena (b) ginger gets differentiated into outer light
(b) guttation (c) wheat (d) sunflower coloured functional sapwood or
(c) gaseous exchange alburnum and inner dark coloured
(d) bleeding Ans. (a) non-functional heartwood or duramen.
Secondary growth in monocotyledons is Heartwood is stronger and highly
Ans. (c)
rather rare, it is commonly seen in durable because of presence of oils,
The primary function of lenticels is woody monocotyledons such as resins, gums, tannins and tyloses which
gaseous exchange. Lenticel respiration Dracaena, Aloe, Agave, etc. In Dracaena are plugged into the tracheids and
generally seen in stem of dicotyledons sp exceptionally large secondary vessel elements.
plants. Transpiration takes place mostly growth in thickness occurs that begins As the secondary growth takes place
through stomata. Guttation and with the formation of secondary
size of heart wood increases because
bleeding takes place through meristematic tissue—the cambium, in
of conversion of inner alburnum
hydathodes. the parenchyma outside the primary
(sapwood) into it.
bundles. Moreover, cork in Dracaena
73 As the secondary growth takes appears in seriated bands without the
formation of cork cambium (phellogen) 79 Commercial cork is obtained from
place (proceeds) in a tree,
and is known as storied cork. [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
thickness of [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(a) Berberis/Barberry
(a) heartwood increases 76 A narrow layer of thin walled cells (b) Salix/Willow
(b) sapwood increases found between phloem/bark and (c) Quercus/Oak
(c) both increase
wood of a dicot is [CBSE AIPMT 1993] (d) Betula/Birch
(d) both remain the same
(a) cork cambium Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) (b) vascular cambium Cork or phellem develops from cork
As a result of continous secondary (c) endodermis cambium and is made up of dead
growth in subsequent year, the older (d) pericycle suberised and rectangular cells which
part of secondary xylem becomes are filled with air and tannins. Cork is
non-functional. Due to this activities of Ans. (b)
protective and is obtained
vessels become blocked by bladder like Vascular cambium is formed by strips
commercially from Quercus suber (cork
ingrowths which are called tyloses. Due of fascicular cambium and
interfascicular cambium. It consists of oak, bottle cork).
to this non-functional xylem becomes
hard and blackish in colour called narrow layer of thin walled cells found
between phloem and xylem tissues. 80 Cork cambium and vascular
duramen or heartwood.
Vascular cambium helps in secondary cambium are [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
Now, the function of secondary xylem is growth in dicot root and stem. (a) parts of secondary xylem and
continoued by younger rings called
sapwood or alburnum with the passage
phloem
77 Periderm is produced by (b) parts of pericycle
of time and addition of new outer rings [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
of secondary xylem more rings of (c) lateral meristems
(a) vascular cambium (d) apical meristems
sapwood changes into heartwood. This
is why the heartwood increases in (b) fascicular cambium
(c) phellogen Ans. (c)
diameter year after year but the
sapwood remains almost in the same (d) intrafascicular cambium Lateral meristems are present along
thickness. the lateral sides of stem and root. They
Ans. (c) divide only in radial direction. The
Phellogen or cork cambium which cambium of vascular bundles
74 Procambium forms develops secondarily from some outer (fascicular, intrafascicular) and the cork
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
layer of cortex (or pericycle) divides on cambium or phellogen belongs to this
(a) only primary vascular bundles the outside as well as inside to form category and are found in dicotyledons
(b) only vascular cambium respectively cork or phellem and and gymnosperms.
(c) only cork cambium secondary cortex or phelloderm. Cork,
(d) primary vascular bundles and cork cambium and secondary cortex are 81 For union between stock and
vascular cambium together called periderm. scion in grafting which one is the
Ans. (d) first to occur? [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
78 Which exposed wood will decay
The meristematic tissue which forms (a) Formation of callus
faster? [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
the primary xylem and phloem is known (b) Production of plasmodesmata
as procambium. The term procambium (a) Sapwood (c) Differentiation of new vascular
is used to indicate the meristematic (b) Softwood tissues
tissue that give rise to the morphological (c) Wood with lot of fibres (d) Regeneration of cortex and
vascular units. (d) Heartwood epidermis
Ans. (a) respectively cork or phellem and (a) sunflower (b) maize
In grafting, cambium bearing shoot secondary cortex or phelloderm. Cork or (c) Cycas (d) Pinus
(scion) of one plant is joined to cambium phellem is made up of dead suberised
and rectangular cells, filled with air and Ans. (b)
bearing stump (root system = stock) of
related plant through different union tannins, it is protective in nature. In monocot stem like Zea mays, vascular
like tongue grafting, wedge grafting, bundles are conjoint, collateral and
etc. closed. In vascular bundles, the
The union of scion and stock leads to TOPIC 4 lowermost protoxylem vessels and
xylem parenchyma cells dissolve forming
irregular, unorganised and
undifferentiated mass of actively
Internal Structure or a water containing schisolysigenous
cavity called protoxylem cavity or lacuna
dividing cells known as callus. Monocot Plants or lysigenous cavity. Protoxylem cavity
and protophloem may be absent in the
82 Vascular cambium produces 84 The transverse section of a plant
smaller vascular bundles in maize.
[CBSE AIPMT 1990, 92] shows following anatomical
(a) primary xylem and primary phloem features. [NEET (Sep.) 2020] 86 What is true about a monocot
(b) secondary xylem and secondary I. Large number of scattered leaf? [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
phloem vascular bundles surrounded (a) Reticulate venation
(c) primary xylem and secondary by bundle sheath. (b) Absence of bulliform cells from
phloem II. Large conspicuous epidermis
(d) secondary xylem and primary parenchymatous ground (c) Mesophyll not differentiated into
phloem tissue. palisade and spongy tissues
Ans. (b) III. Vascular bundles conjoint and (d) Well diffferentiated mesophyll
Vascular cambium is formed by closed.
Ans. (c)
fascicular and interfascicular cambium. IV. Phloem parenchyma absent.
It leads to secondary growth in dicot Monocot leaves are characterised by
roots and dicot stems. Cells of vascular
Identify the category of plant and parallel venation, leaves are isobilateral
cambium, known as fusiform initially its part. (both the surfaces equally green),
produce secondary phloem on the (a) Monocotyledonous root amphistomatic with dumb bell-shaped
outside and secondary xylem on the guard cells. The upper epidermis
(b) Dicotyledonous stem possesses groups of larger sized thin
inner side.
(c) Dicotyledonous root walled vacuolate cells called bulliform
Youngest xylem layer occur inner to
(d) Monocotyledonous stem or motor cells. Mesophyll is
vascular cambium while oldest layer of undifferentiated and consists of
secondary xylem is found outside the Ans. (d)
isodiametric cells enclosing
primary xylem or towards pith. In case The transverse section of intercellular spaces. Midrib region does
of phloem, youngest layer of secondary monocotyledonous stem shows not contain mesophyll and possesses
phloem lies just outside the vascular following anatomical features : number of parallel vascular bundles.
cambium while oldest layer is towards The monocot stem have conjoint and
outside, inner to primary phloem. closed vascular bundles, scattered in 87 Pith and cortex do not
the ground tissue containing the differentiate in [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
83 Cork is formed from parenchyma. Each vascular bundle is
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] (a) monocot stem (b) dicot stem
surrounded by sclerenchymatous
(a) cork cambium (phellogen) (c) monocot root (d) dicot root
bundle-sheath cells. Phloem
(b) vascular cambium parenchyma and medullary rays are Ans. (a)
(c) phloem absent in monocot stems. In monocot stem, ground tissue is
(d) xylem undifferentiated, thus endodermis,
Ans. (a)
85 Water containing cavities in pericycle cortex and pith are not
Cells of cork cambium (phellogen) divide
vascular bundles are found in recognisable. Ground tissue consists of
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] only parenchyma cells that store food.
on the outside as well as inside to form
07
Structural Organisation
in Animals
TOPIC 1 Ans. (a) 04 Mach the following cell structures
Epithelial Tissue Goblet cells of alimentary canal are with their characteristic features.
modified from columnar epithelial cells,
which secrete mucus.
01 Identify the types of cell junctions These cells are found in the lining of
that help to stop the leakage of Column I Column II
organs like intestine and respiratory
the substances across a tissue tract. 1. Tight (i) Cement
and facilitation of communication junctions neighbouring cells
These secretes mucin (glycoprotein)
together to form
with neighbouring cells via rapid and maintains the layer of mucus. As sheet
transfer of ions and molecules. each cell secretes mucin for mucous
production it is called as a unicellular 2. Adhering (ii) Transmit information
[NEET 2021]
junctions through chemical to
(a) Gap junctions and adhering mucous gland.
another cells
junctions, respectively
03 Cuboidal epithelium with brush 3. Gap (iii) Establish a barrier to
(b) Tight junctions and gap junctions, junctions prevent leakage of
respectively. border of microvilli is found in fluid across epithelial
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] cells
(c) Adhering junction and tight
junctions, respectively (a) ducts of salivary glands 4. Synaptic (iv) Cytoplasmic
(d) Adhering junctions and gap (b) proximal convoluted tubule of junctions channels to facilitate
junctions, respectively nephron communication
between adjacent
Ans. (b) (c) Eustachian tube
cells
Tight junction helps to stop the leakage (d) lining of intestine
of the substances across a tissue and Ans. (b) Select the correct option from the
Gap junction are channels that following
Cuboidal epithelium with brush border
physically connect neighbouring cells, of microvilli is found in proximal 1 2 3 4
mediating the rapid exchange of small convoluted tubule of nephron. The (a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
molecules or ions. epithelium fills the lumen, and the (b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
Adhering junction They are cell-cell microvilli increases the surface area by (c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
junction complexes that make 30-40 fold. (d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
important contribution to A brush border is a name for the
embryogenesis and tissue Ans. (c)
microvilli-covered surface of simple
homeostasis. The correct matches are
cuboidal epithelium and simple
columnar epithelium cells found in 1. Tight (iii) Establish a barrier to
02 Goblet cells of alimentary canal certain locations of the body. junctions prevent leakage of
are modified from The proximal convoluted tubule of the fluid across epithelial
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] vertebrate nephron lies between cells.
(a) columnar epithelial cells Bowman’s capsule and the loop of 2. Adhering (i) Cement neighbouring
(b) chondrocytes Henle and functions especially in the junctions cells together to form
absorption of sugar, sodium and sheet.
(c) compound epithelial cells
chloride ions and water from the
(d) squamous epithelial cells glomerular filtrate.
3. Gap (iv) Cytoplasmic ions, small molecules and some 10 The cell junctions called tight,
junctions channels to facilitate large molecules
communication adhering and gap junctions are
(c) separate two cells from each found in [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
between adjacent
cells other
(a) muscular tissue
(d) stop substance from leaking (b) connective tissue
4. Synaptic (ii) Transmit information
junctions through chemical to across a tissue (c) epithelial tissue
another cells. Ans. (b) (d) neural tissue
A gap junction may nexus or macula Ans. (c)
05 The ciliated epithelial cells are communicans. These are specialised In epithelial tissue, the adjacent cells
required to move particles or intercellular connection between a form ion-rich gap or cell junctions for
mucus in a specific direction. multitude of animal cell types. They intercellular communication and
directly connect the cytoplasm of two chemical exchange. These junctions
In humans, these cells are mainly cells, which allows various molecules, probably do not provide physical
present in [NEET (National) 2019] ions and electrical impulses to directly support.
(a) Fallopian tubes and pancreatic pass through a regulated gate between
duct cells. 11 The ciliated columnar epithelial
(b) eustachian tube and salivary duct cells in humans are known to
(c) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes 08 Choose the correctly matched occur in [CBSE AIPMT 2011, 09]
(d) bile duct and bronchioles pair. [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) bronchioles and Fallopian tubes
Ans. (c) (a) Inner lining of salivary (b) bile duct and oesophagus
ducts – Ciliated epithelium
In humans, ciliated epithelial cells are (c) Fallopian tubes and urethra
present in the bronchioles and Fallopian (b) Moist surface of buccal
(d) eustachian tube and stomach
tube. In bronchioles, these cells help in cavity – Glandular epithelium
lining
the movement of mucus and in (c) Tubular parts of
Fallopian tube, these are required to nephrons – Cuboidal epithelium Ans. (a)
move the egg towards uterus. (d) Inner surface of The columnar epithelium is composed
On the other hand, salivary and bronchioles – Squamous of a single layer of tall and slender cells.
pancreatic ducts are lined by simple epithelium If the columnar cells bear cilia on their
cuboidal epithelium. Bile duct is lined by free surface, they are called ciliated
Ans. (c) columnar epithelium. They are mainly
simple columnar epithelium and
Eustachian tube is lined by columnar Cuboidal epithelium is present in the present in the inner surface of hollow
epithelium having ciliated cells. tubular parts of nephron (PCT and DCT). organs like bronchioles and Fallopian
It consists of short, cube-shaped cells tubes. Their function is to move
06 Which type of tissue correctly with round nuclei located in the centre particles or mucus in a specific
of the cell. These cells often forms direction over the epithelium.
matches with its location?
microvilli to increase the absorptive
[NEET 2016, Phase I] 12 The kind of epithelium which
surface area of the cell.
Tissue Location Other correctly matched points are forms the inner walls of blood
(a) Areolar tissue Tendons Inner lining of salivary ducts is lined by vessels is [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(b) Transitional Tip of nose compound epithelium. (a) cuboidal epithelium

epithelium Moist surface of buccal cavity is lined by (b) columnar epithelium
compound epithelium. (c) ciliated columnar epithelium
(c) Cuboidal Lining of
epithelium stomach nner surface of bronchioles is lined by (d) squamous epithelium
(d) Smooth muscle Wall of intestine ciliated epithelium. Ans. (d)
Simple squamous epithelium consists
Ans. (d) 09 In which one of the following of only one layer of flat, scale like cells
Columnar epithelium is present in the preparations are you likely to usually polygonal cells, which are
lining of stomach. closely fitted together like the tiles of a
come across cell junctions most mosaic. It is also known as pavement
Tendon is dense connective tissue and frequently? [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
connects muscle to bone. Tip of nose epithelium. It forms lining of blood
(a) Ciliated epithelium vessels, lymph vessels, heart,
consists of elastic cartilage.
(b) Thrombocytes peritoneum, pleura, Bowman’s capsule,
(c) Tendon etc.
07 The function of the gap junction is
(d) Hyaline cartilage
to [CBSE AIPMT 2015] 12 Simple epithelium is a tissue in
(a) performing cementing to keep Ans. (a) which the cells are
neighbouring Specialised cell junctions occur at many [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
cells together points of cell-cell and cell matrix (a) hardened and provide support to
(b) facilitate communication between contact in all tissues, but they are the organ
adjoining cells by connecting the particularly important and plentiful in
(b) cemented directly to one another
cytoplasm for rapid transfer of epithelium.
to form a single layer
Structural Organisation in Animals 73
(c) continuously dividing to provide Ans. (b) Ans. (c)

form to an organ The wall of alveoli is highly vascularised. Loose connective tissue, also called
(d) loosely connected to one another It is surrounded by flattened, areolar connective tissue, is the ‘packing
to form an irregular organ non-ciliated squamous cells to increase material’ of the body that anchors blood
the surface area. Simple columnar vessels, nerves and body organs. It
Ans. (b)
ciliated cells line the few portions of contains fibroblasts that synthesise the
Simple epithelium is a tissue in which upper respiratory tract, oviduct, fibres and ground substance of
the cells are cemented directly to one Fallopian tube and neurocoel of CNS, connective tissue and wandering
another to form a single layer. An whereas non-ciliated columnar macrophages that phagocytise pathogens
epithelium is a sheet or tube of firmly
epithelium lines stomach, intestine, or damaged cells. The different fibre
adherent cells with minimum
digestive glands and gall bladder. types include strong collagen fibres and
(practically negligible) material and
thin elastic fibres formed of the protein
space between them.
elastin. Adipose (fat) tissue is considered
13 Stratum germinativum is an
TOPIC 2 a type of loose connective tissue.
example of which kind of Connective Tissue
epithelium? [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
20 Compared to blood our lymph has
17 Choose the correctly matched [CBSE AIPMT 2009, 1989]
(a) Cuboidal (b) Ciliated
pair. [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) no plasma
(c) Columnar (d) Squamous (b) plasma without proteins
Ans. (c) (a) Tendon – Specialised connective (c) more WBCs and no RBCs
tissue (d) more RBCs and less WBCs
Stratum germinativum (Stratum
Malpighi/ Stratum cylindricum) consists (b) Adipose tissue – Dense connective
tissue Ans. (c)
of columnar cells resting upon a
common basement membrane. (c) Areolar tissue – Loose connective Lymph can be defined as blood minus
tissue RBCs, also it contains more WBCs.
14 Basement membrane is made up (d) Cartilage – Loose connective Lymph is a clear, colourless fluid,
of [CBSE AIPMT 1997] similar to plasma but with less protein.
tissue
It is a mobile connective tissue like,
(a) only epidermal cells
Ans. (c) blood and is formed by the filtration of
(b) only endodermal cells blood. Microscopic examination of
Areolar tissue is the body’s loose
(c) Both (a) and (b) connective tissue, and provide lymph depicts that it contains a large
(d) no cell at all, but is a product of flexibility and cushioning. Adipose number of leucocytes (mostly
epithelial cells tissue is also loose connective tissue lymphocytes), ranging from 500-75,000
Ans. (d) while, the tendon is a dense connective per cubic mm. But platelates are not
tissue, which connect the muscles with present in lymph.
The cells of epithelial tissues rest upon
the bone. Cartilage is composed of 21 The most active phagocytic white
a thin layer composed of protein bound
mucopoly- saccharides and specialised connective tissue called
chondrocytes that produce a large
blood cells are [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
glycoproteins, both secreted by (a) neutrophils and eosinophils
epithelial cells (hence, product of amount of extracellular matrix
composed of collagen fibre. (b) lymphocytes and macrophages
epithelial cell) along with a layer of
(c) eosinophils and lymphocytes
collagen fibres of the underlying 18 The kind of tissue that forms the
connective tissue. (d) neutrophils and monocytes
supportive structure in our pinna
(external ears) is also found in Ans. (d)
15 Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] Neutrophils and monocytes are
appearing like packed tiles occurs phagocytic white blood cells.
(a) vertebrae
on [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Monocytes are largest of all leucocytes
(b) nails
(a) inner lining of cheek (c) ear ossicles and generally change into macrophages
(b) inner lining of stomach (d) tip of the nose after entering tissue spaces.
(c) inner lining of Fallopian tubes Neutrophils are most numerous of all
Ans. (d) leucocytes, and have many lobed
(d) inner lining of ovary
Yellow fibrous cartilage tissue is found nucleus.
Ans. (d) in pinna (external ear). It is also found at Eosinophils are granular white blood
Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells the tip of the nose. cells. Their number increases in people
appearing like packed tiles occurs on with allergic conditions such as asthma
inner lining of ovary. It is called germinal 19 Which one of the following or hay fever. They are non-phagocytic
epithelium. and seem to play part in immune system.
contains the largest quantity of
extracellular material? Lymphocytes are non-motile and
16 The alveolar epithelium in the lung
non-phagocytic. These are found as B
is [CBSE AIPMT 1990] [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
and T-lymphocytes. B-lymphocytes
(a) non-ciliated columnar (a) Myelinated nerve fibres secrete antibodies to destroy microbes.
(b) non-ciliated squamous (b) Striated muscle T-lymphocytes either directly attack
(c) ciliated columnar (c) Areolar tissue the antigens or stimulate
(d) ciliated squamous (d) Stratified epithelium B-lymphocytes to produce antibodies.
22 Which type of white blood cells in blood, the serum is the component 28 During an injury nasal septum gets
are concerned with the release of that does not contain blood cell (WBCs damaged and for its recovery
or RBCs) nor any clotting factor. It is the which cartilage is preferred?
histamine and the natural
blood plasma without the fibrinogens. [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
anticoagulant heparin?
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] (a) Hyaline cartilage
25 Areolar connective tissue joins
(a) Neutrophils (b) Basophils [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(b) Elastic cartilage
(c) Eosinophils (d) Monocytes (c) Calcified cartilage
(a) integument with muscles
(d) Fibrous cartilage
Ans. (b) (b) bones with muscles
The basophils are probably like mast (c) bones with bones Ans. (a)
cells of connective tissue. They release (d) fat body with muscles Hyaline cartilage forms nasal septum,
heparin, (a natural anticoagulant), larynx, trachea and hyoid apparatus.
Ans. (a)
histamine and serotonin. Their nucleus
is usually three lobed and their granules Loose or areolar connective tissue is the
most generalised connective tissue, 29 The polysaccharide present in the
take basic stain strongly.
which is spread extensively throughout matrix of cartilage is known as
Monocytes are largest of all types of the body under the skin and epithelium, [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
leucocytes. Their nucleus is around and in between the muscles,
bean-shaped. They are motile and (a) cartilagin (b) ossein
nerves and blood vessels, between lobes (c) chondriotin (d) casein
phagocytic in nature and engulf and lobules of compound glands, in the
bacteria and cellular debris. Generally, sub-mucosa of respiratory and Ans. (c)
they change into macrophages after gastrointestinal tracts.
entering tissue spaces. The chief component of ground
It functions mainly for binding the parts substance of cartilage is
Eosinophils have two-lobed nucleus. together but also helps in sliding chondromucoprotein which is formed
They are non-phagocytic and help in movement of epithelia, muscles and of chondriotin sulphate, keratin
dissolving blood clot. Their number other parts and also forms the internal
increases in people with allergic sulphate and hyaluronic acid.
histological framework or stroma of
conditions such as asthma or hay fever. many solid organs.
Neutrophils are most numerous of all 30 Formation of cartilage bones
leucocytes. They eat harmful germs and 26 Mast cells of connective tissue involves [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
are therefore, phagocytic in nature. contain [CBSE AIPMT 2004] (a) deposition of bony matter by
Their nucleus is many lobed and stain (a) vasopressin and relaxin osteoblasts and resorption by
weakly with both acid and basic stains. chondroclasts
(b) heparin and histamine
(b) deposition of bony matter by
23 Which one of the following (c) heparin and calcitonin
osteoclasts and resorption by
mammalian cells is not capable of (d) serotonin and melanin
chondroblasts
metabolising glucose to Ans. (b) (c) only deposition of bony matter by
carbon-dioxide aerobically? Mast cells are granulated wandering osteolasts only
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] leucocyte cells. Their granules contain (d) deposition of bony matter by
(a) White blood cells histamine which is vasodilator and osteoblasts only
(b) Unstriated muscle cells heparin (anticoagulant). These take part
(c) Liver cells in body defence and allergic reaction. Ans. (d)
(d) Red blood cells Osteoblasts are bone forming cells
27 Which cartilage is present at the while osteoclasts are bone-destroying
Ans. (d)
end of long bones? cells. Ossification or osteogenesis is
Cell organelles and nucleus are absent [CBSE AIPMT 2002] the process of bone formation.
in mature red blood cells. Therefore, Chondroblasts are cartilage forming
(a) Calcified cartilage
aerobic respiration do not take place
(b) Hyaline cartilage cells.
red blood cells.
(c) Elastic cartilage
24 A drop of each of the following, is (d) Fibrous cartilage 31 Component of blood responsible
placed separately on four slides. Ans. (b) for producing antibodies is
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
Which of them will not coagulate? Hyaline cartilage is present at the end
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] of long articular bones. It provides a (a) thrombocytes (b) monocytes
(a) Blood plasma smooth articular surface to permit (c) erythrocytes (d) lymphocytes
movement at joints. Elastic cartilage is
(b) Blood serum Ans. (d)
found where support with flexibility is
(c) Sample from the thoracic duct of needed such as in external ears. Lymphocytes (20-25%) are the second
lymphatic system most abundant leucocytes. These
Fibrous cartilage is a very tough
(d) Whole blood from pulmonary vein protect us from pathogens and are
substance and is used in places of the involved in the production of
Ans. (b) body where shock absorbers are antibodies. These lymphocytes are of
Serum will not coagulate if placed needed, e.g. discs between the two types, which are known as
separately on a slides. This is because vertebrae and in the knee joint. B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes.
32 Histamine secreting cells are (d) These muscles are present in the TOPIC 4
found in [CBSE AIPMT 1989] wall of blood vessels Structural Organisation
(a) connective tissue Ans. (c) in Some Animals
(b) lungs Statement in option (c) is incorrect and
(c) muscular tissue can be corrected as 38 Which of the following
(d) nervous tissue Intercalated discs are not found in characteristic is incorrect with
Ans. (a) smooth muscles these are found in
respect to cockroach? [NEET 2021]
Histamine is a vasodilator, involved in cardiac muscles.
(a) A ring of gastric caeca is present
allergic and inflammatory reactions. It is Smooth muscle cells are
at the junction of midgut and
secreted by mast cells, these are spindle-shaped, have a single nucleus
hindgut
modified basophils of blood that occur in and do not show striations. These
areolar tissue i.e. the loose connective involuntary muscles are found on the (b) Hypopharynx lies within the cavity
tissue. walls of internal organs such as blood enclosed by the mouth parts
vessels. (c) In females, 7 th - 9 th sterna
33 Haversian canal occurs in together form a genital pouch
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] 36 Which of the following is not (d) 10 th abdominal segment in both
exclusively supplied with sexes, bears a pair of anal cerci
(a) humerus (b) pubis
(c) scapula (d) clavicle involuntary muscles? Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] In cockroach ,a ring of 6-8 blind tubules
Ans. (a)
(a) Muscular coats of blood vessels called hepatic or gastric caeca is
Haversian canal, named after ‘Clopton
(b) Muscles of the ducts of glands present at the junction of foregut and
Havers’ are fine channels parallel to the
(c) Muscles of iris midgut which secrete digestive juice to
long axis of mammalian bone
containing blood vessels, nerve fibres, (d) Muscles of urethra facilitate digestion.
connective tissue and occasionally Rest statements are correct.
Ans. (b)
lymphatic vessels. Haversian system is
found in long bones of mammals Muscles of the ducts of glands are not 39 Following are the statements
(humerus among given options) and exclusively supplied with involuntary
about prostomium of earthworm.
absent in spongy bones of mammals. muscles. Smooth muscles are
[NEET 2021]
involuntary muscles and are found in
34 Mineral found in red pigment of the posterior part of oesophagus, I. It serves as a covering for
vertebrate blood is stomach, urinogenital tract, blood mouth.
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] vessels, iris of eye and dermis of skin. II. It helps to open cracks in the
(a) magnesium (b) iron soil into which it can crawl.
(c) calcium (d) copper 37 Characteristics of smooth muscle III. lt is one of the sensory
fibres are [CBSE AIPMT 1990] structures.
Ans. (b)
(a) spindle-shaped, unbranched, IV. It is the first body segment.
Haemoglobin constitutes about 33% of
red blood cells. It is a conjugated
unstriated, uninucleate and Choose the correct answer from
protein, composed of a protein called involuntary
the options given below
globin and an Fe 2 + porphyrin complex (b) spindle-shaped, unbranched,
(a) I, II and III are correct
called heme. The mineral present in the unstriped, multinucleate and
involuntary (b) I, II and IV are correct
red pigment (haemoglobin) of
vertebrate blood is iron. (c) cylindrical, unbranched, unstriped, (c) I, II, III and IV are correct
multinucleate and involuntary (d) II and III are correct
(d) cylindrical, unbranched,
TOPIC 3 unstriated, multinucleate and
Ans. (a)
Statements I, II and III are correct.
Muscular Tissue voluntary
Earthworms have cylindrical body.
and Nervous Tissue Ans. (a) Anterior end consists of the mouth and
Smooth muscle fibres are the prostomium, a lobe which serves as
spindle-shaped, thick in the middle and a covering for the mouth and as a
35 Which of the following statements thin at either ends, uninucleated, no wedge to force open cracks in the soil.
wrongly represents the nature of sarcolemma, contraction is slow, The prostomium is sensory in function.
smooth muscle? [NEET 2021] involuntary under the control of Statement IV is incorrect and can be
(a) These muscles have no striations autonomous nervous system. These corrected as :
(b) They are involuntary muscles muscles are also known as visceral The first body segment is called the
(c) Communication among the cells is muscles, non-striated, non-skeletal or peristomium.
performed by intercalated discs involuntary muscles.
40 In cockroach, identify the parts of There are 10 pairs of small holes called 44 Select the correct sequence of
spiracles present on the lateral side of
the foregut in correct sequence. organs in the alimentary canal of
the body which are part of respiratory
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
system. cockroach starting from mouth
(a) Mouth → Oesophagus → Pharynx [NEET (National) 2019]
Anal cerci is a pair of jointed
→ Crop → Gizzard filamentous structure in both sexes in (a) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard
(b) Mouth → Crop → Pharynx → their 10th segment. → Crop → Ileum → Colon →
Oesophagus → Gizzard Rectum
(c) Mouth → Gizzard → Crop → 42 If the head of cockroach is (b) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Gizzard
Pharynx → Oesophagus removed, it may live for few days → Ileum → Crop → Colon →
(d) Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus because [NEET (Sep.) 2020] Rectum
→ Crop → Gizzard (a) the cockroach does not have (c) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Ileum
Ans. (d) nervous system → Crop → Gizzard → Colon →
Rectum
In cockroach, the parts of the foregut in (b) the head holds a small proportion
correct sequence are of a nervous system, while the (d) Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →
rest is situated along the ventral Gizzard → Ileum → Colon →
Mouth → Pharynx → Oesophagus →
Rectum
Crop → Gizzard part of its body
The alimentary canal in cockroach has (c) the head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous Ans. (d)
three regions, i.e. foregut, midgut and system, while the rest is situated The correct sequence of organs in the
hindgut. The foregut comprises of the along the dorsal part of its body. alimentary canal of cockroach starting
mouth, which opens into a short tubular (d) the supra-oesophageal ganglia of from mouth is
pharynx, leading to a narrow tubular Pharynx → Oesophagus → Crop →
the cockroach are situated in
passage called oesophagus. This in turn Gizzard → Ileum → Colon → Rectum.
ventral part of abdomen
opens into a sac-like structure called
Both crop and gizzard are the
crop used for storing food. The crop is Ans. (b)
structures of foregut. The former
followed by gizzard or proventriculus Option (b) is correct because the serves as the food reservoir while the
which helps in grinding the food nervous system of cockroach consists
particles. latter helps to masticate the food due
of a series of fused segmentally
to the presence of six chitinous teeth in
arranged ganglia joined by paired
it.
41 Match the following columns with longitudinal connectives on the ventral
reference to cockroach and select side. Three ganglia, i.e. in the throax
and six in the abdomen. In this way 45 Select the correct route for the
the correct option from the codes
cockroach nervous system is spread passage of sperms in male frogs.
given belows. [NEET (Oct.) 2020] throughout the body. The head holds a [NEET 2017]
Column I Column II bit of a nervous system, while the rest is (a) Testes → Bidder’s canal → Kidney
situated along the ventral (belly side) → Vasa efferentia → Urinogenital
A. Grinding of the 1. Hepatic caecal part of its body. Therefore if the head
food particles duct → Cloaca
region of a cockroach is removed it may
B. Secrete gastric 2. 10th segment (b) Testes → Vasa efferentia →
live for few days.
juice Kidney → Seminal vesicle →
43 Which of the following statements Urinogential duct → Cloaca
C. 10 pairs 3. Proventriculus
is incorrect? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] (c) Testes → Vasa efferentia →
D. Anal cerci 4. Spiracles
Bidder’s canal → Ureter → Cloaca
5. Alary muscles (a) Cockroaches exhibit mosaic
(d) Testes → Vasa efferentia →
vision with less sensitivity and
Kidney → Bidder’s canal →
Codes more resolution
Urinogenital duct → Cloaca
A B C D (b) A mushroom-shaped gland is
(a) 3 1 4 2 present in the 6-7th abdominal Ans. (d)
(b) 4 3 5 2 segments of male cockroach In male frogs, germinal epithelium of
(c) 1 4 3 2 (c) A pair of spermatheca is present seminiferous tubules produce sperms,
(d) 2 3 1 4 in the 6th segment of female which are transferred to kidney via vasa
cockroach efferentia, from the kidney, these enter
Ans. (a) into Bidder’s canal from where, the
(d) Female cockroach possesses
The option (a) is the correct match with sperms are carried to the transverse
reference to cockroach which is as
sixteen ovarioles in the ovaries
collecting tubules, longitudinal
follows Ans. (a) collecting tubule and then to
Grinding of the food particles is done by Statement (a) is incorrect because urinogenital duct. The later carries the
proventriculus or gizzard. cockroach vision is very sensitive but sperms to seminal vesical. where, they
Hepatic caeca is a ring of 6-8 blind provides less resolution. Such vision is are stored temporarily. From here,
tubules present at the junction of called mosaic vision. It has compound sperms are carried to cloaca and then
foregut and midgut. It secretes eye and each eye contains about 2000 these shed into water.
digestive juice. ommatidia.
46 Frog’s heart when taken out of the 49 The body cells in cockroach Ans. (b)
body continues to beat for discharge their nitrogenous waste In cockroach, the male and females can
sometime. in the haemolymph mainly in the be identified easily with the presence or
Select the best option from the form of [CBSE AIPMT 2015] absence of one pair of anal styles in the
(a) ammonia posterior region. The anal styles are
following statements. [NEET 2017] unjointed, thread-like structures
(b) potassium urate
I. Frog is a poikilotherm. present on the 9th sternite of male.
(c) urea
II. Frog does not have any
(d) calcium carbonate 52 Which one of the following
coronary circulation.
III. Heart is myogenic in nature. Ans. (b) correctly describes the location of
Insects including cockroach excrete some body parts in the earthworm
IV. Heart is autoexcitable. nitrogenous waste in the form of
(a) Only III Pheretima? [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
soluble potassium urate which is
(b) Only IV liberated into the haemolymph and
(a) Two pairs of accessory glands in
16-18 segments
(c) I and II taken up by the cells lining the
Malpighian tubules. The tubules (b) Four pairs of spermathecae in 4-7
(d) III and IV segments
facilitate the absorption of urate by
Ans. (d) stirring up the blood. In the cells of the (c) One pair of ovaries attached at
Frog heart is myogenic and tubule the potassium urate reacts with intersegmental septum of 14th
autoexcitable. In this conditions, water and carbon dioxide (from and 15th segments
contraction of the heart originates respiration) to form potassium (d) Two pairs of testes in 10th and
within the muscles itself. When hydrogen carbonate and uric acid. The 11th segments
muscles are contracting. They are former is absorbed back into the blood, Ans. (d)
releasing heat, which keeps the but the later is excreted. In earthworm, two pairs of testes are
electrochemical reactions in muscles found in 10th and 11th segments,
going so the muscles of heart keep 50 What external changes are visible accessory glands in 17th and 19th
contracting after the removal of heart after the last moult of a cockroach segments, four pairs of spermatheca
from the body. nymph? [NEET 2013] from 6th-9th segment and one pair of
(a) Mandibles become harder ovaries in 13th segment.
47 Which of the following features is
(b) Anal cerci develop
not present in Periplaneta 53 If a piece of bone such as femur of
(c) Both fore wings and hind wings
americana? [NEET 2016, Phase I]
develop frog is kept in dilute HCl for about
(a) Indeterminate and radial cleavage (d) Labium develops a week. It will [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
during embryonic development (a) assume black colour
(b) Exoskeleton composed of Ans. (c)
In cockroach, development is pauro
(b) shrink in size
N-acetylglucosamine (c) turn flexible
metabolous. The nymph grows by
(c) Metamerically segmented body moulting about 13 times to reach the (d) crack into pieces
(d) Schizocoelom as body cavity adult form. The next to last nymphal
stage has wing pads but only adult
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a)
cockroaches have wings. When a bone is kept in dilute acid for a
Cockroach has determinate cleavage few days, the salts get dissolved,
during embryonic development and it Anal cerci are a pair of jointed
filamentous structures in 10 th segment leaving only soft and flexible organic
develops into nymph, which is a fully matrix (decalcification). If kept in KOH,
developed cockroach except its size as of both sexes labium is a lower lip and a
pair of mandibles are present in it remains unaffected, only the
it is much smaller than the adult one. surrounding muscles and connective
mouthparts of cockroach.
tissue get dissolved so that the bone
48 In male cockroaches, sperms are 51 Select the correct statement from now appears clean. If burned, the
stored in which part of the the ones given below with respect organic matter burns off producing
reproductive system? smoke and the ash (mineral matter) is
to Periplaneta americana. left behind.
[NEET 2016, Phase II] [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) Seminal vesicles (a) Nervous system located dorsally,
(b) Mushroom glands
54 In frog, the surface of attachment
consists of segmentally arranged
(c) Testes of tongue is [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
ganglia joined by a pair of
(d) Vas deferens longitudinal connectives (a) sphenoid (b) palatine
(b) Males bear a pair of short (c) pterygoid (d) hyoid apparatus
Ans. (a)
In male cockroaches, sperms are thread-like anal styles Ans. (d)
stored in the seminal vesicles of the (c) There are 16 very long Malpighian Main part of hyoid apparatus is a broad,
reproductive system. The seminal tubules present at the junctions of flat and squarish plate, also called
vesicles are small sacs present on the midgut and hindgut basilingual plate, because it provides
ventral surface of the anterior of the (d) Grinding of food is carried out only attachment and support to the tongue.
ejaculatory duct. by the mouth parts
08
Cell : The Unit of Life
TOPIC 1 Ans. (d) 06 Which of the following
The Cell Rudolf Virchow proposed the concept components provides sticky
of “omnis cellula-e-cellula’’, i.e. all cells character to the bacterial cell ?
are derived from the pre-existing cells.
01 What will be the direction of flow [NEET 2017]
Schleiden and Theodor Schwann jointly (a) Cell wall
of water when a plant cell is put forward the cell theory in 1839.
placed in a hypotonic solution? (b) Nuclear membrane
(c) Plasma membrane
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] 04 Which one of the following (d) Glycocalyx
(a) Water will flow in both directions elements is responsible for
(b) Water will flow out of the cell maintaining turgor in cells? Ans. (d)
(c) Water will flow into the cell [NEET 2018] Glycocalyx is the outer most mucilage
(d) No flow of water in any direction (a) Potassium (b) Sodium layer of the cell envelope. It gives sticky
character to the bacterial cell .
Ans. (c) (c) Magnesium (d) Calcium
The behaviour of the plant cells with Ans. (a) 07 Select the wrong statement.
regard to water movement depends on Among the given elements, potassium [NEET 2016, Phase II]
the surrounding solution. When a plant (K + ) is responsible for maintaining (a) Bacterial cell wall is made up of
cell is placed in hypotonic solution then turgor pressure in cell because it peptidoglycan
the water will flow into the cell and the regulates the proton pumps involved in (b) Pili and fimbriae are mainly
cell will swell. opening and closing of stomata. involved in motility of bacterial
Magnesium (Mg 2 + ) is a constituent of cells
02 Which of the following organic chlorophyll pigment which helps in (c) Cyanobacteria lack flagellated
compounds is the main photosynthesis in green plants. Calcium cells
constituent of lecithin? (Ca2 + ) provides selective permeability
(d) Mycoplasma is a wall-less
to the cell membrane. All of these, i.e.
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] microorganism
K + , Ca2 + and Mg 2 + are essential
(a) Arachidonic acid elements. Ans. (b)
(b) Phospholipid Sodium (Na+ ) is involved in membrane Fimbriae or pili are fine hair like
(c) Cholesterol permeability. It is a non-essential appendages used by bacteria for
(d) Phosphoprotein element. attachment rather than motility. These
Ans. (b) are formed of protein called pilin.
05 Which among the following is not Pili are longer than fimbriae and are one
Phospholipids are main constituents of
lecithin. These molecules are
a prokaryote? [NEET 2018] or two per cells.
composed of choline and inositole. It is (a) Nostoc (b) Mycobacterium Some special type of pili called sex pili
found in all living cells as a major (c) Saccharomyces (d) Oscillatoria are present in certain strains of
component of cell membrane. bacteria which help the bacterium for
Ans. (c) forming conjugation canal during sexual
Among the given options, reproduction by conjugation method.
03 The concept of ‘Omnis
Saccharomyces is a fungus, i.e. it is a Fimbriae also help bacterium for cell to
cellula-e-cellula’ regarding cell eukaryote. They possess a well defined cell adhering and colonisation.
division was first proposed by nucleus and other cell organelles.
[NEET (National) 2019] Nostoc and Oscillatioria are 08 The structures that help some
(a) Theodor Schwann cyanobacteria while Mycobacterium is bacteria to attach to rocks and/or
(b) Schleiden a true bacterium. Cyanobacteria and
bacteria both are prokaryotes as they host tissues are [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(c) Aristotle lack a well-defined nucleus and other (a) rhizoids (b) fimbriae
(d) Rudolf Virchow cell organelles. (c) mesosomes (d) holdfast
Cell: The Unit of Life 79
Ans. (b) each phospholipid molecule point (d) proteins embedded in a

Fimbriae are small bristle like fibres inwards. The globular alpha proteins do carbohydrate bilayer
sprouting out of the cell. In some not form continuous layer but are
embedded randomly in the lipid bilayer or Ans. (b)
bacteria, they are known to help is
superficially attached. According to fluid mosaic model given
attachment to rocks in streams and
by Singer and Nicolson (1972), plasma
also to the host tissues.
12 Which one of the following membrane consists of a continuous
organisms is not an example of bilayer of phospholipid molecules, in
09 Which of the following structure is
which globular proteins are embedded.
not found in a prokaryotic cell? eukaryotic cells? This arrangement corresponds to
icebergs (proteins) floating in a sea of
(a) Nuclear envelope (a) Escherichia coli phospholipids.
(b) Ribosome (b) Euglena viridis Proteins stay in the membrane because
(c) Mesosome (c) Amoeba proteus they have regions of hydrophobic amino
(d) Plasma membrane (d) Paramecium caudatum acids which interact with fatty acid tails
to exclude water. Rest of the molecule
Ans. (a) Ans. (a) is hydrophilic, which faces into or
In a prokaryotic cell, nuclear envelope is The bacterium E. coli is a prokaryote. It outward, both of which are aqueous
not found. It means genetic material is a Gram-negative, facultatively environment.
(DNA) is not enclosed by any envelope anaerobic, rod-shaped bacterium. It is
and lies in direct contact with the the most widely studied prokaryotic 16 Middle lamella is mainly composed
cytoplasm. model organism.
10 A protoplast is a cell 13 Which one of the following also (a) hemicellulose

[CBSE AIPMT 2015] acts as a catalyst in a bacterial (b) muramic acid
(a) without plasma membrane cell? [CBSE AIPMT 2011] (c) calcium pectate
(b) without nucleus (a) sn RNA (b) hn RNA (d) phosphoglycerides
(c) undergoing division (c) 23S rRNA (d) 5S rRNA Ans. (c)
(d) without cell wall The middle lamella is cementing layer
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) between the cells. It is made up of Ca
23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme
and Mg pectates. The basic chemical
A protoplast is a cell without cell wall. It ribozyme for the formation of peptide
is a plant, bacterial or fungal cell that bond. 23S rRNA is found in large unit of pectin is galacturonic acid
had its cell wall completely or partially sub-unit (70S) of ribosome of bacteria. which have the capability of salt
removed using either mechanical or formation with calcium and
enzymatic means. 14 Which one of the following magnesium (an acid base reaction).
structures between two adjacent
11 Select the correct statement from 17 Plasmodesmata are
cells is an effective transport [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
the following regarding cell pathway? [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) lignified cemented layers between
membrane. [CBSE AIPMT 2012] (a) Plasmodesmata cells
(a) Na + and K + ions move across cell (b) Plastoquinones (b) locomotory structures
membrane by passive transport (c) Endoplasmic reticulum (c) membranes connecting the
(b) Proteins make up 60 to 70% of the (d) Plasmalemma nucleus with plasmalemma
cell membrane (d) connections between adjacent
Ans. (a)
(c) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer cells
with polar heads towards the The primary cell wall contains many
inner part small openings or pores situated in Ans. (d)
the primary pit fields. The cytoplasm The primary cell wall contains many
(d) Fluid mosaic model of cell
of adjacent cells communicates by small openings or pores situated in
membrane was proposed by
means of cytoplasmic bridges called primary pit fields. The cytoplasm of
Singer and Nicolson
plasmodesmata. The plasmodesmata adjacent cells communicates through
Ans. (d) permit translocation of fluid and the pores by means of cytoplasmic
In 1972, Singer and Nicolson proposed passage of solutes between cells. bridges called plasmodesmata. The
fluid mosaic model for internal plasmodesmata permit circulation of
structure of plasma membrane. This is 15 The plasma membrane consists fluid and passage of solutes between
most widely accepted model for plasma mainly of [CBSE AIPMT 2010] cells.
membrane. (a) phospholipids embedded in a
According to this model, a membrane protein bilayer 18 Keeping in view the ‘fluid mosaic
consists of a continuous bilayer of (b) proteins embedded in a model’ for the structure of cell
phospholipids with their polar phospholipid bilayer membrane, which one of the
hydrophilic ends on the outer surfaces
and two non-polar hydrohobic tails of
(c) proteins embedded in a polymer following statements is correct
of glucose molecules with respect to the movement of
lipids and proteins from one lipid 20 According to widely accepted ‘fluid 22 The main difference in Gram (+)ve
monolayer to the other (described mosaic model’, cell membranes are and Gram (–)ve bacteria resides in
as flip-flop movement)? semi-fluid, where lipids and their [CBSE AIPMT 1990, 2001]
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] integral proteins can diffuse (a) cell wall (b) cell membrane
(a) Both lipids and proteins can randomly. In recent years, this (c) cytoplasm (d) flagella
flip-flop model has been modified in several Ans. (a)
(b) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, respects. In this regard, which of Gram stain is a differential stain that
proteins cannot
the following statements is differentiates bacteria into two
(c) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids
incorrect? [CBSE AIPMT 2005] groups —Gram +ve and Gram –ve. The
cannot basis of this differentiation lies in the
(d) Neither lipids, nor proteins can (a) Proteins in cell membranes can
composition (lipid contents) and
flip-flop travel within the lipid bilayer
thickness of cell wall of these bacteria.
(b) Proteins can also undergo flip-flop
Ans. (b) Bacteria are called Gram +ve, if they
movements in the lipid bilayer
Mobility of membrane proteins due to retain the crystal violet colour even
(c) Proteins can remain confined after alcohol washing. Whereas, cell
the fluid property of lipid bilayer was within certain domains of the
demonstrated by classical experiment wall of Gram –ve bacteria is thin, rich in
membrane lipids and decolourise the crystal violet
of D Frye and M Edidin (1970). Lipid
(d) Many proteins remain completely colour of Gram stain.
molecules very rarely migrate from one
lipid monolayer to other monolayer of embedded within the lipid bilayer
lipid bimolecular layer. Ans. (b)
23 In ‘fluid mosaic model’ of plasma
Such a type of movement is called Statement (b) is incorrect because
membrane, [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
flip-flop or transbilayer movement and flip-flop or transmembrane movement (a) upper layer is non-polar and
occurs once a month for any individual is due to the migration of lipid molecules hydrophilic
lipid molecule. But protein can never from one lipid monolayer to other (b) upper layer is polar and
perform flip-flop movement. monolayer of lipid bilayer. hydrophobic
(c) phospholipids form a bimolecular
19 A major breakthrough in the 21 A student wishes to study the cell layer in middle part
studies of cells came with the structure under a light microscope (d) proteins form a middle layer
development of electron having 10X eyepiece and 45X Ans. (c)
microscope. This is because objective. He should illuminate the According to the fluid mosaic model,
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] object by which one of the the cell membrane consists of a highly
(a) the resolving power of the electron following colours of light so as to viscous fluid matrix of two layers of
microscope is 200-350 nm as get the best possible resolution? phospholipid molecules. Protein
compared to 0.1-0.2 for the light [CBSE AIPMT 2005] molecules (or their complexes) occur
microscope in membrane but not in continuous
(a) Blue (b) Green
(b) electron beam can pass through layer.
(c) Yellow (d) Red
thick materials, whereas light
microscopy required thin sections Ans. (a) 24 DNA is mainly found in
(c) the electron microscope is more Resolving power or resolution is the [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
powerful than the light microscope ability of the lens to distinguish fine (a) nucleus (b) cytoplasm
as it uses a beam of electrons details and structure. Specifically, it (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) nucleolus
which has wavelength much longer refers to the ability of the lenses to
distinguish between two points a Ans. (a)
than that of photons
specified distance apart. Resolving Most of the amount of DNA is found
(d) the resolution power of the power depends on two factors : in nucleus. Though some amount of
electron microscope is much DNA is found in chloroplast and
(a) Wavelength of light used for
higher than that of the light mitochondria also .
illumination.
microscope
(b) Power of objective lenses.
Ans. (d) Resolving power
25 The eukaryotic genome differs
The resolution power of the electron Wavelength of light from the prokaryotic genome
=
microscope is much higher than that of 2 × NA because [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
the light microscope. (a) DNA is complexed with histones
Since, the limit of resolving power of a
As an average the resolving power of a microscope is fixed by the structure of in prokaryotes
light microscope is 0.25µm–0.3 µmwhile light, the shortest wavelength of visible (b) repetitive sequences are present
that of electron microscope is 2–10Å light will give the maximum resolution. in eukaryotes
though theoritically, it is 0.25Å. The Among yellow, green, red and blue light (c) genes in the former cases are
magnification range of light microscope colour. Blue (500 nm) have shortest
is 2000–4000 while of electron organised into operons
wavelength so, it will give best
microscope is 100000–300000. (d) DNA is circular and single
resolution.
stranded in prokaryotes
Ans. (b) 28 Cell recognition and adhesion Ans. (c)

A major component (20–50%) of the occur due to biochemicals of cell Angstrom (Å) = 0.0001 µm
eukaryotic genome consists of DNA membranes named 1 Å = 10 −10 M = 10 −8 cm = 10 −7 mm =10 −4 µ.
which does not code for any protein.
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
This portion consists of certain base 32 Addition of new cell wall particles
sequences which are repeated many (a) proteins
times (hence, called repetitive DNA). (b) lipids amongst the existing ones is
DNA of prokaryotes does not contain (c) Both (a) and (b) [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
histones nor it is single stranded. (d) glycoproteins and glycolipids (a) deposition
(b) apposition
Ans. (d)
26 Which is correct about cell theory (c) intussusception
In the cell membrane, oligosaccharides
in view of current status of our (d) aggregation
do not occur freely but are attached to
knowledge about cell structure? the external surface of phospholipids Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] and proteins forming glycolipids and Apposition or accretion is defined as
(a) It needs modification due to glycoproteins respectively. They form the addition of new cell wall particles
discovery of subcellular cell coat (glycocalyx) which acts as amongst the existing one, such as
structures like chloroplasts and recognition centre, site for attachment deposition of secondary walls in layers
mitochondria and provides antigen specificity to cell from outside over the existing primary
(b) Modified cell theory means that all membranes, blood grouping and wall.
living beings are composed of matching of tissues in transplantation
Intussusception can be demonstrated
cells capable of reproducing of organs.
as the internal growth of the primary
(c) Cell theory does not hold good 29 Genophore/bacterial genome or wall which occurs during the growth
because all living beings do not nucleoid is made of period of the cell resulting in the
have cellular organisation [CBSE AIPMT 1993] increase in volume of cell wall.
(e.g. viruses) (a) histones and non-histones Deposition Molecules settling out of a
(d) Cell theory means that all living (b) RNA and histones solution.
objects consist of cells whether or (c) a single double stranded DNA Aggregation Direct mutual attraction
not capable of reproducing (d) a single stranded DNA between particles or Aggregation of
soil granules to form soil structure.
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
Cell theory proposed by Schleiden and Genophore refers to nucleoid or 33 Resolution power is the ability to
Schwann states that all living bacterial genome, made of single, [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
organisms whether animal or plants are double stranded DNA. It is
made up of cells and have similar (a) distinguish two trees
supercoiled with the help of RNA and
organisation. It is the basic unit of (b) distinguish two close objects
polyamines forming a circular genetic
structure and function. Exception to material complex. (c) distinguish amongst organelles
cell theory are the viruses, (d) magnify image
mycoplasma, viroids, bacteria which
are acellular organisms, i.e. lacks
30 Balbiani rings (puffs) are sites of Ans. (b)
cellular organisations. Moreover,
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] Resolution power is the ability of a
coenocytic forms like Paramecium, (a) DNA replication microscope to distinguish between two
Rhizopus, have more than one nuclei (b) RNA and protein synthesis points that are closely situated, i.e. the
and are exception to cell theory. (c) synthesis of polysaccharides smallest distance by which two objects
lying closely can be separated. Higher
27 Name of Schleiden and Schwann (d) synthesis of lipids
resolution makes image clear.
are associated with Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
In polytene chromosomes (salivary 34 Cell wall shows [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(a) protoplasm as the physical basis gland chromosomes). Large swellings
of life (a) complete permeability
are called puffs or Balbiani rings, named
(b) semi-permeability
(b) cell theory after their discoverer. In such rings,
DNA is active, uncoiled for rapid (c) differential permeability
(c) theory of cell lineage
transcription of RNA or protein (d) impermeability
(d) nucleus functions as control
center of cell synthesis. Ans. (a)
31 Angstrom (Å) is equal to Cell wall is the structural, functional and
Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] heritable unit of living organisms. It is
Matthias J Schleiden (a German non-living, porous, permeable, inert,
(a) 0.01 µm
botanist, 1938). Theodor Schwann hydrophilic, inelastic, rigid,
(1939), a German zoologist in 1939, (b) 0.001 µm
semi-transparent protective covering
jointly proposed the cell theory. (c) 0.0001 µm
around the plasmalemma.
(d) 0.00001 µm
35 Fluid mosaic model of cell 38 Plasma membrane is made up of Ans. (a)

membrane was put forward by [CBSE AIPMT 1989] Presence of cell wall is the
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] (a) proteins and carbohydrates characteristic feature of all plant cells.
(a) Danielli and Davson (b) proteins and lipids Cell wall consisted of three layers,
(b) Singer and Nicolson (c) proteins, lipids and carbohydrates middle lamella or middle layer, primary
(c) Garner and Allard layer and secondary layer. The position
(d) proteins, some nucleic acid and
of middle lamella is between two
(d) Watson and Crick lipids primary walls of different cells and thus
Ans. (b) Ans. (c) functions as cementing layer between
Fluid mosaic model of plasma Plasma membrane is living, quasifluid, these two cells. Main constituents of
membrane was proposed by SJ Singer trilaminar membrane, usually consists middle lamella are calcium and
and GL Nicolson (1972). of proteins (44-76%), lipids (20-53%), magnesium pectate.
water (20%) and carbohydrates (1-8%).
36 Magnification of compound 42 In plants, inulin and pectin are
microscope is not connected with 39 Nucleoproteins are synthesised in [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] [CBSE AIPMT 1989] (a) reserve materials

(a) numerical aperture (a) nucleoplasm (b) wastes
(b) focal length of objective (b) nuclear envelope (c) excretory material
(c) focal length of eye piece (c) nucleolus (d) insect-attracting material
(d) tube length (d) cytoplasm
Ans. (a)
Ans. (a) Ans. (d) Inulin a polymer of fructose, is used as a
Magnification is the power of Nucleoproteins are the conjugated stored food, particularly in roots and
enlargement. It is the ratio of the size of proteins. These include tubers of family–Compositae. Pectin is a
an object seen under microscope to the ribonucleoproteins and occur in mucopolysaccharide which is found in
actual size observed without ribosomes. Deoxyribonucleoproteins cell wall of plants. During the time of fruit
microscope. Magnification depends on occur in chromosomes. ripening, the pectin hydrolyses and gives
focal length of lenses and length of body rise to the constituents of sugar.
tube. 40 According to fluid mosaic model,
It does not depend on numerical plasma membrane is composed of
aperture of objective lens and the [CBSE AIPMT 1988] TOPIC 2
nature of light being used for (a) phospholipids and
illumination. The total magnification The Cell Organelles
oligosaccharides
of a microscope is determined by
(b) phospholipids and hemicellulose
multiplying the magnifying power of
(c) phospholipids and integral
43 Match the List-I with List-II.
the objective lens by that of the eye
proteins List-I List-II
piece.
(d) phospholipids, extrinsic proteins A. Cristae 1. Primary constriction
and intrinsic proteins in chromosome
37 Electron microscope has a high
B. Thylakoids 2. Disc-shaped sacs in
resolution power. This is due to Ans. (d)
Golgi apparatus
[CBSE AIPMT 1990, 92] In fluid mosaic model lipid bilayer is
composed of phospholipids with their C. Centromere 3. Infoldings in
(a) electromagnetic lenses mitochondria
(b) very low wavelength of electron polar hydrophilic ends on the outer
surfaces and two non-polar D. Cisternae 4. Flattened
beam membranous sacs in
hydrophobic tails of each phospholipid
(c) low wavelength of light source stoma of plastids
molecule point inwards. The globular
used alpha proteins do not form continuous Choose the correct answer from
(d) high numerical aperture of glass layer but are embedded irregularly in
lenses used
the lipid bilayer (called integral or
[NEET 2021]
Ans. (b) intrinsic proteins) or superficially
attached (extrinsic or peripheral A B C D
Resolving power is defined as the proteins). (a) 4 3 2 1
ability of an optical system or objective (b) 1 4 3 2
lens to distinguish two closely placed (c) 3 4 1 2
points as two distinct separate points. It
41 Element necessary for the middle (d) 2 3 4 1
depends on wavelength of light and lamella [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
Ans. (c)
numerical aperture, as limit of resolution (a) Ca
0.61 λ (A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(2)
(L m ) = . In electron microscope, (b) Zn
NA (c) K The inner membrane of mitochondria
higher resolution is provided by the low forms a number of infolding of the
(d) Cu
wavelength of electrons. cristae.
These dramatically increases the Nuclear envelop contain an array of substructures

surface area available for hosting the Endoplasmic reticulum referred to as gas vesicles. The
enzymes responsible for cellular Golgi apparatus membrane of gas vacuoles is rigid,
respiration. impermeable to water and freely
Lysosomes permeable to all gases.
The lamellae, in chloroplast after
separation from the inner membrane, Vacuoles
usually take the form of closed, Plasma membrane 48 The biosynthesis of ribosomal
flattened, ovoid sacs, the thylakoids, RNA occurs in [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
which lie closely packed in piles, the 46 When the centromere is situated (a) ribosomes (b) Golgi apparatus
grana. in the middle of two equal arms of (c) microbodies (d) nucleolus
Primary constriction in the chromosomes, the chromosome
chromosome forms the centromere. Ans. (d)
is referred as [NEET 2021]
A cisternae are series of flattened, The biosynthesis of ribosomal RNA
(a) metacentric (b) telocentric
curved membrane saccules of the occurs in nucleolus of nucleus. It helps
(c) sub-metacentric (d) acrocentric the nucleus of the cell to control cell
endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi
apparatus. Ans. (a) metabolism and other activities. The
other two types of RNA, i.e. mRNA and
Metacentric chromosomes have the
tRNA are also synthesised here.
44 Which of the following is an centromere in the center, such that both
incorrect statement? [NEET 2021] sections are of equal length, e.g. human
chromosome 1 and 3. 49 Match the following columns and
(a) Mature sieve tube elements select the correct option from the
possess a conspicuous nucleus
Telocentric chromosomes have the codes given below.
and usual cytoplasmic organelles
centromere at the very end of the [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(b) Microbodies are present both in
chromosome.
plant and animal cells Column I Column II
Sub-metacentric chromosomes have A. Smooth 1. Protein
(c) The perinuclear space forms a
the centromere slightly offset from the Endoplasmic synthesis
barrier between the materials
center leading to a slight asymmetry in Reticulum
present inside the nucleus and the length of the two sections.
that of the cytoplasm B. Rough 2. Lipid
Acrocentric chromosomes have endoplasmic synthesis
(d) Nuclear pores act as passages for centromere which is severely offset reticulum
proteins and RNA molecules in from the center leading to one very long
both directions between nucleus and one very short section. C. Golgi complex 3. Glycosylation
and cytoplasm Satellite D. Centriole 4. Spindle
Secondary constriction formation
Ans. (a)
Short arms
Mature sieve tube elements contain Codes
structural phloem specific proteins Short arms
A B C D
(P-proteins), mitochondria, ER, and
Centromeres (a) 2 1 3 4
sieve elements plastids but not
conspicuous nucleus. (b) 3 1 2 4
Centromeres
(c) 4 2 1 3
45 The organelles that are included in (d) 1 2 3 4
Long arms
the endomembrane system are Ans. (a)
[NEET 2021] Types of chromosomes The option (a) is the correct match
(a) endoplasmic reticulum, which is as follows
mitochondria, ribosomes and 47 Inclusion bodies of blue-green, Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum is the
lysosomes purple and green photosynthetic major site for synthesis of lipid.
(b) endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi bacteria are [NEET (Oct.) 2020] Rough Endoplasmic reticulum is
complex, lysosomes and vacuoles (a) contractile vacuoles actively involved in protein synthesis
(c) Golgi complex, mitochondria, and secretion.
(b) gas vacuoles
ribosomes and lysosomes (c) centrioles Golgi complex is an important site of
(d) Golgi complex, endoplasmic formation of glycoproteins and
(d) microtubules glycolipids, i.e. glycosylation.
reticulum, mitochondria and
Ans. (b) Centrioles help in spindle formation in
lysosomes
Gas vacuoles are the inclusion bodies in the cell.
Ans. (b) many aquatic prokaryotes like
The endomembrane system is a group blue-green, purple and green 50 Which of the following elements
of membranes and organelles in photosynthetic bacteria. These are helps in maintaining the structure
eukaryotic cells that works together to generally small, hollow cylindrical
modify, package and transport protein structure which facilitates air
of ribosomes? [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
and lipids. permeability. Gas vacuoles are (a) Magnesium (b) Zinc
The endomembrane system include- membrane bound inclusion bodies that (c) Copper (d) Molybdenum
Ans. (a) Vacuoles – Trap waste and excretory 56 Which of the following
products
Each ribosome consist of two unequal statements is not correct?
subunits, a larger and a smaller one. Ribosomes – Synthesis of protein [NEET (National) 2019]
Mg 2 + ions are required for binding the (a) The hydrolytic enzymes of
two subunits. Below 0⋅0001 M Mg 2 + , the 53 Which of the following cell lysosomes are active under acidic
two subunits dissociate while above organelles is present in the pH
this strength, the two subunits form highest number in secretory (b) Lysosomes are membrane bound
the dimer. cells? [NEET Odisha) 2019] structures
(a) Mitochondria (c) Lysosomes are formed by the
51 Which is the important site of process of packaging in the
(b) Golgi complex
formation of glycoproteins and endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum
glycolipids in eukaryotic cells? (d) Lysosomes (d) Lysosomes have numerous
(a) Peroxisomes [NEET (Sep.) 2020] hydrolytic enzymes
Ans. (b)
(b) Golgi bodies Ans. (c)
Golgi complex (Golgi apparatus) is a
(c) Polysomes The statement “lysosomes are formed
cell organelle present in highest
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum number in secretory cells. These are by the process of packaging in the
Ans. (b) the site of modification, packaging endoplasmic reticulum” is incorrect.
and secretions of secretory proteins The correct form of the statement is
Golgi bodies are site of formation of
and glycoproteins outside the cell. ‘lysosomes are actually formed by the
glycoproteins and glycolipids in
budding off from the trans-face of
eukaryotic cells. Glycoproteins are simply
54 Non-membranous nucleoplasmic Golgi bodies.
proteins with a sugar attached to them.
The sugars can be attached to a protein in structures in nucleus are the site These membrane bound structures
two locations in the cell, the endoplasmic contain hydrolytic enzymes whose
for acitive synthesis of precursors are synthesised by rough
reticulum, which produces N-linked [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
sugars, and the Golgi apparatus, which endoplasmic reticulum. Rest
produces O-linked sugars. Glycolipids are (a) protein synthesis (b) mRNA statements are correct.
components of cellular membranes (c) rRNA (d) tRNA
comprised of a hydrophobic lipid tail and 57 The shorter and longer arms of a
Ans. (c)
one or more hydrophilic sugar groups submetacentric chromosome are
Non-membranous nucleoplasmic
linked by a glycosidic bond. Their role is to
structure in the nucleus of the cell are
referred to as
maintain the stability of the cell [NEET (National) 2019]
the site for active synthesis of rRNA.
membrane . (a) p-arm and q-arm, respectively
These structures are called nucleolus.
Larger and more numerous nucleoli (b) q-arm and p-arm, respectively
52 Match the Column I with Column II. are present in the cell actively (c) m-arm and n-arm, respectively
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] carrying out protein synthesis. (d) s-arm and l-arm, respectively
Column I Column II Ans. (a)
1. Golgi (i) Synthesis of
55 Which of the following pairs of
The shorter and longer arms of
apparatus protein organelles does not contain
submetacentric chromosome are
2. Lysosomes (ii) Trap waste and DNA? [NEET (National) 2019] designated as p and q arm,
excretory products (a) Chloroplast and Vacuoles respectively. Here, ‘p’ signifies petite
3. Vacuoles (iii) Formation of (b) Lysosomes and Vacuoles or short. In a submetacentric
glycoproteins and (c) Nuclear envelope and chromosome, centromere is located
glycolipids Mitochondria near the centre due to which the two
4. Ribosomes (iv) Digesting (d) Mitochondria and Lysosomes arms appear unequal in length.
biomolecules
Ans. (b) 58 Which of the following
Select the correct option from the Lysosomes and vacuoles do not statements regarding
following contain DNA. Lysosomes are single mitochondria is incorrect?
membrane bound small vesicles
1 2 3 4 [NEET (National) 2019]
which contain hydrolytic enzymes.
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) Vacuoles are a large membranous sac
(a) Enzymes of electron transport
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) found in the cytoplasm. These contain are embedded in outer membrane
(c) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) substances that are not essentially (b) Inner membrane is convoluted
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) useful for the cell like water, sap, with infoldings
Ans. (a) excretory products and other (c) Mitochondrial matrix contains
materials. Chloroplast and single circular DNA molecule and
The correct matches are mitochondria are semi-autonomous ribosomes
Golgi apparatus – Formation of organelles because they contain their (d) Outer membrane is permeable to
glycoproteins and glycolipids own DNA and are believed to be monomers of carbohydrates, fats
Lysosomes – Digesting biomolecules prokaryotic symbionts. and proteins
Ans. (a) Microtubules take part in the spindle 63 Which one of the following
The statement ‘‘enzymes of electron formation. Mitochondria, vacuoles and events does not occur in rough
transport are embedded in outer plastids, etc. are membrane-bound
endoplasmic reticulum?
membrane’’ is incorrect. The correct structures. The dividing cells possess a
[NEET 2018]
form of statement is large number of mitochondria.
(a) Cleavage of signal peptide
Enzymes of electron transport are Perinucleolar
chromatin (b) Protein glycosylation
embedded in the inner membrane of
mitochondria. An electron transport
Intranucleolar (c) Protein folding
chromatin
chain is a series of coenzymes and (d) Phospholipid synthesis
Matrix
cytochromes that take part in the (Pars amorpha) Ans. (d)
passage of electrons from a chemical Granular portion Phospholipid synthesis does not
to its ultimate acceptor. Rest (Ribosomal occur in RER. It occurs inside
statements are correct. precursor)
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
Fibrillar portion
(SER). A signal peptide is a short
59 The Golgi complex participates in (RNA fibrils)
peptide present at the N-terminus
[NEET 2018]
of the newly synthesised proteins. It
(a) respiration in bacteria Structure of nucleolus targets them to the ER and is then
(b) formation of secretory vesicles cleaved off. RER synthesises
(c) fatty acid breakdown 61 Nissl bodies are mainly composed proteins. It bears enzymes for
(d) activation of amino acid modifying polypeptides synthesised
of [NEET 2018]
Ans. (b) by attached ribosomes, e.g.
(a) nucleic acids and SER
Golgi complex participates in the glycosylation.
(b) DNA and RNA
formation of secretory vesicles. It is a (c) proteins and lipids
cytoplasmic structure found in 64 Many ribosomes may associate
(d) free ribosomes and RER
eukaryotic cells. It is made up of four with a single mRNA to form
parts; cisternae, tubules, vesicles and Ans. (d) multiple copies of a polypeptide
vacuoles. Nissl granules are found in the cell-body simultaneously. Such strings of
The forming face or cisternae receives of neurons. These granules are ribosomes are termed as
vesicles from endoplasmic reticulum. composed of Rough Endoplasmic [NEET 2018]
Their contents pass through various Reticulum (RER) that bears free
cisternae with the help of coated ribosomes. The latter acts as the site of (a) plastidome (b) polyhedral bodies
vesicles and intercisternal connectives. protein synthesis. These granules were (c) polysome (d) nucleosome
They ultimately reach the maturing face named after its discoverer Franz Nissl. Ans. (c)
where they are budded off as, coated
62 Select the incorrect match. Polysome is a string of ribosomes
secretory or Golgian vesicles or
associated with a single mRNA.
vacuoles. [NEET 2018]
Polysome helps to produce a number
In bacteria, respiration occurs with the (a) Submetacentric – L-shaped
of copies of the same polypeptide.
help of mesosomes. The breakdown of chromosomes chromosomes
Nucleosome is the unit of eukaryotic
fatty acid occurs in peroxisomes and (b) Allosomes – Sex
chromosomes DNA that consists of a DNA segment
mitochondria. Activation of amino wrapped around a core of eight
acid is an important step of protein (c) Lampbrush – Diplotene
chromosomes bivalents histone proteins. Nucleosome chain
synthesis and it occurs in cytoplasm. In gives a ‘beads on string’ appearance
this process, amino acids get attached (d) Polytene – Oocytes of
chromosomes amphibians under electron microscope.
to tRNA molecules. Plastidome refer to all the plastids of
Ans. (d) a cell which work as a functional unit.
60 Which of the following is true for Polytene chromosomes are giant
nucleolus? [NEET 2018] chromosomes that are quite common in 65 Which of the following cell
(a) It takes part in spindle formation the salivary glands of insects therefore organelles is responsible for
(b) It is a membrane-bound structure they are popularly called as salivary extracting energy from
chromosomes.
(c) Larger nucleoli are present in carbohydrates to form ATP?
dividing cells The Lampbrush chromosomes are [NEET 2017]
highly elongated special kind of synapsed
(d) It is a site for active ribosomal (a) Lysosome (b) Ribosome
mid-prophase or diplotene chromosome
RNA synthesis (c) Chloroplast (d) Mitochondrion
that are bivalents. Sex chromosomes
Ans. (d) are also called as allosomes. They Ans. (d)
Nucleolus is a naked, round or slightly determine the sex of an organism. Mitochondria is referred as ‘power
irregular structure in nucleus. It lacks a Submetacentric chromosomes have a house of the cell’. It contains the
membrane and its contents are in direct submedian centromere. They appear enzymes for cellular respiration. It
contact with the nucleoplasm. It is a L-shaped during metaphase. oxidises carbohydrate to produce
site for active ribosomal RNA (rRNA) Therefore, except option (d), all are ATP molecules in the process of
synthesis. correctly matched. aerobic respiration.
Thinking process Mictochondria is a Ans. (a) Codes

double membrane bound Microtubules are structures present in A B C D
semi-autonomous cell organelles. The cilia, flagella, centrioles and spindle (a) 4 3 1 2
number of mitochondria per cell is more fibres. They are also the part of fibres (b) 3 4 1 2
in metabolically active cells. found in cytoskeleton. (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 2 1
66 Water soluble pigments found in 70 A cell organelle containing
plant cell vacuoles are Ans. (b)
hydrolytic enzyme is The columns can be matched correctly
[NEET 2016, Phase I] [NEET 2016, Phase II]
as follows
(a) chlorophylls (b) carotenoids (a) lysosome
(c) anthocyanins (d) xanthophylls (b) microsome Column I Column II
Ans. (c) (c) ribosome A. Thylakoids 3. Flat membranous
Anthocyanins are water soluble (d) mesosome sacs in stroma
vacuolar pigments that may appear red,
Ans. (a) B. Cristae 4. Infoldings in
purple or blue depending on pH. It is mitochondria
impermeable to cell membranes of Lysosomes are membrane bound cell
plants and can leak out only when organelles. These contain many C. Cisternae 1. Disc-shaped sacs
membrane is damaged or dead. hydrolytic enzymes which work at high in Golgi apparatus
pH. They bring about the intracellular
D. Chromatin 2. Condensed
67 Which one of the following cell digestion of cell debris and worn and structure of DNA
organelles is enclosed by a single torned cell organelles. These loose
their existence while doing so, that is
membrane? [NEET 2016, Phase I] why they are also called as suicidal 73 Balbiani rings are sites of
(a) Chloroplasts (b) Lysosomes bags. [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(c) Nuclei (d) Mitochondria (a) lipid synthesis
Ans. (b) 71 Select the mismatch. (b) nucleotide synthesis
[NEET 2016, Phase II] (c) polysaccharide synthesis
Nuclei, mitochondria and chloroplasts
are all double membrane bound (a) Gas vacuoles — Green bacteria (d) RNA and protein synthesis
organelles. Lysosomes are single cells
Ans. (d)
membrane bound organelle. (b) Large central vacuoles — Animal
cells A Balbiani ring is a large chromosome
68 Mitochondria and chloroplast are puff. Balbiani rings are diffused
(c) Protists — Eukaryotes
uncoiled regions of the polytene
I. semi-autonomous organelles. (d) Methanogens — Prokaryotes chromosome that are sites of RNA
II. formed by division of Ans. (b) transcription and protein synthesis.
pre-existing organelles and Animal cells do not have large central
they contain DNA but lack vacuole. Instead, these have 2-3 small 74 Which of the following are not
protein synthesising machinery. vacuoles. The presence of such large membrane bound?
Which one of the following central vacuoles is the characteristics [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
options is correct? feature of plant cells. (a) Vacuoles
[NEET 2016, Phase I] Concept Enhancer The presence of (b) Ribosomes
(a) II is true, but I is false large vacuole is an indication of (c) Lysosomes
irregular growth, i.e. growth in cell (d) Mesosomes
(b) I is true, but II is false
membrane is synchronised with growth
(c) Both I and II are false in protoplasmic content. Ans. (b)
(d) Both I and II are true Ribosomes are non-membranous
Ans. (b) 72 Match the columns and identify particles these are simple aggregations
the correct option. of RNA (rRNA) and proteins.
Mitochondria and chloroplast are
semi-autonomous organelles which [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
contains DNA, ribosomes (70S), etc.
75 Cellular organelles with
Column I Column II membranes are [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
They are capable of self-replication so
called semi-autonomous. A. Thylakoids 1. Disc-shaped (a) nuclei, ribosomes and
sacs in Golgi
apparatus mitochondria
69 Microtubules are the constituents (b) chromosomes, ribosomes and
of [NEET 2016, Phase I] B. Cristae 2. Condensed
structure of DNA endoplasmic
(a) spindle fibres, centrioles and cilia reticulum
C. Cisternae 3. Flat
(b) centrioles, spindle fibres and (c) endoplasmic reticulum,
membranous
chromatin sacs in stroma ribosomes and nuclei
(c) centrosome, nucleosome and D. Chromatin 4. Infoldings in (d) lysosomes, Golgi apparatus and
centrioles mitochondria mitochondria
(d) cilia, flagella and peroxisomes
Ans. (d) Codes Ans. (b)
Membrane bound organelles include A B C D The Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
lysosomes, endoplasmic reticulum, (a) 4 2 1 3 (SER) is the major site for synthesis of
Golgi apparatus, mitochondria, (b) 1 2 4 3 lipids. RER is actively involved in
chloroplasts, vacuoles, nucleus. (c) 1 3 2 4 protein synthesis and secretion.
Non-membrane bound organelles (d) 4 3 1 2 Nucleoplasm is the site for active
include ribosomes, centrioles, ribosomal RNA synthesis. Symplast is
Ans. (a)
microtubules. the system of interconnected
(a) Centriole In organism with flagella protoplast through which water
and cilia, the position of these movement occurs.
76 The solid linear cytoskeletal
organelles is determined by the
elements having a diameter of 6 mother centriole which become the
nm and made up of a single type 81 The Golgi complex plays a major
basal body.
of monomer are known as role [NEET 2013]
(b) Chlorophyll Chlorophyll molecules
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] are specially arranged in and around (a) in trapping the light and
(a) microtubules transforming it into chemical
photosystem that are embedded in
(b) microfilaments the thylakoid membrane of energy
(c) intermediate filaments chloroplast. (b) in digesting proteins and
(d) lamins (c) Cristae These are folds in the inner carbohydrates
Ans. (b) membrane of mitochondria which (c) as energy transferring organelles
Microfilaments (actin filament) are the provides a large amount of surface (d) in post translational modification
thinnest filaments of the cytoskeleton. area for chemical reaction. of proteins and glycosidation of
They are found in the cytoplasm of the (d) Ribozymes (Ribonucleic acid enzyme) lipids
eukaryotic cells. is an RNA molecule that is capable of Ans. (d)
They constitute the cytoskeleton catalysing specific biochemical
reactions of nucleic acids Golgi complex plays a major role in post
through which the cells acquire shape translational modification of proteins
their diameter is approximately 6 nm and glycosidation of lipids.
(avg.) These are the polymer of actin 79 Which one of the following Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll which
sub-units. organelles in the figure correctly traps light and transform into chemical
matches with its function? energy. Lysosomes are involved in
77 The osmotic expansion of a cell [NEET 2013] digesting proteins, fats and
kept in water is chiefly regulated Nucleus carbohydrates. Mitochondria are
by [CBSE AIPMT 2014] energy transferring organelles.
(a) mitochondria (b) vacuoles
(c) plastids (d) ribosomes 82 Ribosomal RNA is actively
synthesised in [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
Ans. (b)
Rough endoplasmic (a) lysosomes (b) nucleolus
The osmotic expansion of a cell kept in reticulum
water is chiefly regulated by vacuole. It (c) nucleoplasm (d) ribosomes
is the single and large organelle which Golgi apparatus Ans. (b)
constitutes about 20% of plant cells In eukaryotes, the site of synthesis of
and is small and multiple in animal cells. (a) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, most of the ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is
Vacuole store water and formation of glycoproteins nucleolus. The nucleolar organiser
macromolecules including ions, sugar, (b) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis contains many copies of ribosomal
amino acid, protein and carbohydrates. DNA (repetitive DNA). The RNA cistron
(c) Golgi apparatus, formation of
The membrane that surrounds the of nucleolar DNA forms 45S precursor
vacuole is called tonoplast. The vacuole glycolipids
(d) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, with the help of RNA polymerase. This
contains cell sap in it. 45S RNA undergoes cleavage with the
The cell sap has high osmotic pressure protein synthesis
help of nucleases to give 18S, 28S and
which regulate turgor pressure in plant Ans. (d) 5.8S rRNA units. Out of different
cells. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) – rRNAs, the 5S rRNA is not synthesised
Protein synthesis in nucleolus. It is synthesised outside
78 Match the following and select the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) – it.
correct answer. [CBSE AIPMT 2014] Lipid synthesis.
Golgi apparatus – Important site of 83 What is true about ribosomes?
Column I Column II [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
formation glycoproteins and glycolipids.
A. Centriole 1. Infoldings in (a) The prokaryotic ribosomes are
mitochondria
80 A major site for synthesis of lipids 80S, where S stands for
B. Chlorophyll 2. Thylakoids sedimentation coefficient
is [NEET 2013]
C. Cristae 3. Nucleic acids (b) These are composed of
(a) RER (b) SER
D. Ribozymes 4. Basal body of cilia
(c) symplast (d) nucleoplasm ribonucleic acid and proteins
or flagella
(c) These are found only in eukaryotic 87 Cytoskeleton is made up of These vacuoles contain water, phenol,
cells [CBSE AIPMT 2009] flavonols, anthocyanins, alkaloids and
(d) These are self-splicing introns of storage products such as sugars and
(a) calcium carbonate granules
some RNAs proteins.
(b) callose deposits
The vacuoles of animal cells are
Ans. (b) (c) cellulosic microfibrils bounded by a lipoproteinaceous
Ribosomes are large, (d) proteinaceous filaments membrane and their function is
non-membranous, RNA protein storage, transmission of materials and
Ans. (d)
complexes which are necessary for maintenance of internal pressure of
protein synthesis. In prokaryotes, 70S The cytoplasm of all eukaryotic cells is
cell.
type of ribosomes are found while 80S criss-crossed by a network of protein
type of ribosomes are found in fibres that support the shape of the cell
and here organelles are anchored at 90 In germinating seeds, fatty acids
eukaryotes.
fixed locations. It is a dynamic system are degraded exclusively in the
which includes three types [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
84 Important site for formation of
proteinaceous filaments—actin (a) proplastids
glycoproteins and glycolipids is filaments, microtubule and intermediate (b) glyoxysomes
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] filament. (c) peroxisomes
(a) Golgi apparatus
(d) mitochondria
(b) plastid 88 The two sub units of ribosome
(c) lysosome remain united at a critical ion level Ans. (b)
(d) vacuole of [CBSE AIPMT 2008] Glyoxysomes are found to occur in the
cells of yeast, Neurospora and oil rich
Ans. (a) (a) copper (b) manganese seeds of many higher plants. During
The Golgi apparatus principally (c) magnesium (d) calcium germination of oily seeds, the stored
performs the function of packaging Ans. (c) lipid molecules of glyoxysomes are
materials. Golgi apparatus is the main Magnesium is constituent of chlorophyll, hydrolysed by the enzyme lipase to
site of formation of glycoproteins and middle lamella, and connected with glycerol and fatty acids. The long chain
glycolipids. phosphate transfer in respiration. It is fatty acids are then broken down by
concerned with binding of ribosomes, successive removal of two carbon
85 Peptide synthesis inside a cell DNA and RNA synthesis. fragments in the process of
β-oxidation.
takes place in [CBSE AIPMT 2011] Manganese activates enzymes of
respiration, photosynthesis and Peroxisomes are present in all
(a) mitochondria (b) chromoplast
nitrogen metabolism performing photosynthetic cells of higher plants in
(c) ribosomes (d) chloroplast etiolated leaf tissue. It is the site of
oxidation, reduction, decarboxylation,
Ans. (c) photolysis of water, etc. hydrogen peroxide metabolism and
The cellular factory responsible for glycolate cycle.
Copper is activator of plastocyanin,
synthesising proteins (peptide cytochrome oxidase, RuBP carboxylase Mitochondria is the site of aerobic
synthesis) is the ribosome. and many other enzymes. It functions in respiration in eukaryotic cell. It is
electron transfer, maintenance of called power house of the cell.
86 Which one of the following has its carbohydrate/nitrogen balance,
own DNA? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] chlorophyll synthesis, etc. 91 Select the wrong statement from
(a) Mitochondria Calcium is constituent of middle lamella, the following [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(b) Dictyosome activator of enzymes connected with (a) Both chloroplasts and
(c) Lysosome chromosome formation and many mitochondria contain an inner
(d) Peroxisome aspects of metabolism. and an outer membrane
(b) Both chloroplasts and
Ans. (a) 89 Vacuole in a plant cell mitochondria have an internal
In mitochondria, the inner membrane [CBSE AIPMT 2008] compartment, the thylakoid
space is filled with a matrix which (a) is membrane-bound and contains space bounded by the thylakoid
contains dense granules along with membrane
storage proteins and lipids
ribosomes and mitochondrial DNA. The
mitochondrial DNA is circular in nature. (b) is membrane-bound and contains (c) Both chloroplasts and
Their number varies from 2-6. Besides water and excretory substances mitochondria contain DNA
DNA, a mitochondrion has RNA and its (c) lacks membrane and contains air (d) The chloroplasts are generally
ribosomes (70S) also. (d) lacks membrane and contains much larger than mitochondria
Thus, a complete protein synthesising water and excretory substances Ans. (b)
machinery is present in mitochondria, Ans. (b) Thylakoid space which is known as
so mitochondria is semi autonomous lumen is present only in chloroplasts.
The vacuoles of plant cells are bounded
organelle in nature. Dictyosome, The inner membrane of mitochondria
by a single semipermeable membrane
lysosome and peroxisome do not have known as tonoplast. is folded to form cristae.
their own DNA.
92 Which of the following statements Newly formed protein enters within the 97 In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is
cavity of rough ER and follows following
regarding mitochondrial present in the [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
path :
membrane is not correct? (a) outer membrane
Protein → Cavity of rough
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] (b) inner membrane
ER → Cavity of smooth ER → Golgi
(a) The enzymes of the electron membrane → Lysosomes or (c) thylakoids
transfer chain are embedded in transport vesicles or secretory (d) stroma
the outer membrane granules. Ans. (c)
(b) The inner membrane is highly
The thylakoids of chloroplast are
convoluted forming a series of 94 Protein synthesis in an animal cell flattened vesicles arranged as a
infoldings occurs [CBSE AIPMT 2005, 2000] membranous network within the
(c) The outer membrane resembles a stroma. 50% of chloroplast proteins
(a) only on the ribosomes present in
sieve and various components involved
cytosol
(d) The outer membrane is (namely chlorophyll, carotenoids and
(b) only on ribosomes attached to the
permeable to all kinds of plastoquinone) are present in thylakoid
nuclear envelope and membranes that are involved in
molecules
endoplasmic reticulum photosynthesis.
Ans. (a) (c) on ribosomes present in the
In mitochondria, the enzymes of nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm 98 Flagella of prokaryotic and
electron transport chain are found in (d) on ribosomes present in
the inner membrane while outer eukaryotic cells differ in
cytoplasm as well as in [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
membrane contains enzymes involved mitochondria
in mitochondrial lipid synthesis and (a) type of movement and placement
those enzymes that convert lipid Ans. (d) in cell
substrates into other forms that are Protein synthesis is taken place on (b) location in cell and mode of
subsequently metabolised in the ribosomes. In an eukaryotic cell functioning
matrix. ribosomes are present in cytoplasm, (c) microtubular organisation and
The outer membrane resembles a sieve mitochondria and chloroplasts. So, type of movement
that is permeable to all molecules of in these places protein synthesis also
(d) microtubular organisation and
10,000 daltons mole weight or less, takes place.
function
including small proteins.
The inner membrane is impermeable 95 Chlorophyll in chloroplast is Ans. (c)
and highly convoluted, forming a located in [CBSE AIPMT 2005] Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic
series of infoldings, known as cristae, (a) grana species differ in microtubular
in the matrix space. organisation and type of movement.
(b) pyrenoid
In eukaryotes the arrangement is
(c) stroma (9 + 2) and specialised while in
93 The main organelle involved in (d) Both (a) and (c) prokaryotes arrangement is (9 + 0)
modification and routing of newly and is simple.
synthesised proteins to their Ans. (a)
destinations is [CBSE AIPMT 2005] Chlorophyll is a specialised light
absorbing pigment which is found in the
99 Ribosomes are produced in
(a) chloroplast inner wall of granum. Each granum is a
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(b) mitochondria flat, sac-like structure in which light (a) nucleolus
(c) lysosome reaction of photosynthesis takes place. (b) cytoplasm
(d) endoplasmic reticulum (c) mitochondria
Ans. (d) 96 Extra nuclear inheritance is a (d) Golgi body
Porter coined the name Endoplasmic consequence of presence of Ans. (a)
Reticulum (ER). It is a network of genes in [CBSE AIPMT 2004] The proteins required for the formation
tubules, vesicles and cisternae within (a) mitochondria and chloroplasts of ribosome are synthesised within the
an eukaryotic cell (absent in prokaryotic (b) endoplasmic reticulum and cytoplasm through the process of
cells). Two types of ER are recognised mitochondria translation.
on the basis of presence/absence of These proteins are later shifted to
(c) ribosomes and chloroplast
ribosomes on the wall of the ER. nucleus and then to nucleolus where
(d) lysosomes and ribosomes
(i) Smooth ER It does not have the RNA and proteins are assembled
ribosomes. Smooth ER helps in the Ans. (a) into ribosomal sub-units. In prokaryotes
synthesis of lipid and glycogen. Extra nuclear or extra chromosomal or (bacteria) ribosomes are synthesised in
(ii) Rough ER Wall of this ER contains cytoplasmic or organellar inheritance is cytoplasm.
ribosomes. Rough ER is involved in a consequence of presence of genes in In eukaryotes, the process takes place
protein synthesis and transfer. mitochondria and chloroplast. Extra both in the cell cytoplasm and in the
Protein synthesis takes place in chromosomal units function either nucleolus which is a region within the
ribosomes attached on wall of ER. independently or in collaboration with cell nucleus.
nuclear genetic system.
100 Microtubules are absent in Microsomes are product of 107 Centromere is a part of
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] homogenisation of ER. [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) mitochondria (b) centriole Liposomes are artificially produced (a) ribosomes
(c) flagella (d) spindle fibres lipid bilayers, 25 nm or more in (b) chromosome
diameter. Golgi body is a dynamic
(c) mitochondria
Ans. (a) eukaryotic organalle, consisted of
Microtubules are present only in cisternae, vesicles and tubules. (d) endoplasmic reticulum
eukaryotes; and are component of cilia Ans. (b)
and flagella as well as spindle (during In every chromosome, there is a small
cell division). They are straight, hollow 104 The proteins are synthesised at
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
region called primary constriction in
rods measuring about 25 nm in which there is a centromere where two
diameter and 200 nm to 25 µm in (a) ribosomes (b) mitochondria sister chromatids are held together and
length. Microtubules give shape and (c) centrosomes (d) Golgi bodies spindle fibres get attached during cell
support to the cell. dizvision.
Ans. (a)
During protein synthesis, smaller
101 Lysosomes are reservoirs of Telomeres
sub-units of ribosomes attach to
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
mRNA. The ribosomes provide space as
(a) RNA and protein well as enzyme for the synthesis of
(b) fats proteins. Therefore, these are known as Chromonemata
(c) secretory glycoproteins protein factories or workbenches of
(d) hydrolytic enzymes protein.
Ans. (d) 105 Which of the following organ has Centromere
Lysosomes were discovered by single membrane?

Chromatid
Christian de Duve (1955) from rat liver. [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
Matile (1964) discovered lysosomes in (a) Nucleus
plants. Generally, lysosomes are 0.2–0.8 (b) Cell wall
µ in size, irregular membranous vesicles (c) Mitochondria
filled with hydrolytic enzymes. They are (d) Spherosomes Chromosome
polymorphic. About 40 enzymes (all
hydrolytic) are present in lysosomes. Ans. (d)
These include proteases, nucleases, Cell wall does not have a membrane. 108 The mechanism of ATP formation
glycosidases, lipases, phospholipases, The mitochondria and nucleus are both in chloroplast and
phosphatases and sulphatases. surrounded by double membraned mitochondria is explained by
envelope. [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
102 The cell organelle involved in Spherosomes are single membrane (a) Relay Pump Theory of Godlewski
glycosylation of protein is bound, spherical structures in plant cell (b) Cholodny-Went’s Model
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] cytoplasm. These are apparently (c) Chemiosmotic Theory
centres of lipid synthesis and
(a) ribosome (d) Munch’s Mass Flow Hypothesis
accumulation.
(b) peroxisome Ans. (c)
(c) endoplasmic reticulum As per Peter Mitchell’s chemiosmotic-
106 Microtubule is involved in the
(d) mitochondria [CBSE AIPMT 1998] coupling hypothesis, outward pumping
of protons across the inner chloroplast
Ans. (c) (a) cell division
or mitochondrial membrane results in
The proteins synthesised by the (b) membrane architecture accumulation of protons between outer
ribosomes bound to ER are passed into (c) muscle contraction membrane and inner membrane. A
the lumen of ER where an (d) DNA recognition proton gradient is thus established. As
oligosaccharide is added to them,
protons now flow back, passively down
(i.e. these are glycosylated). Ans. (a)
the gradient, the proton motive force is
Microtubules are one of the essential utilised to synthesise ATP.
103 Some of the enzymes which are protein filaments of the cytoskeletons
associated in converting fats into of probably all eukaryotic cells and their
cilia, flagella, basal bodies, centrioles 109 Protein synthesis in an animal cell
carbohydrates, are present in takes place
and mitosis and meiosis spindles. Each [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
microtubule is made up of a hollow (a) only in cytoplasm
(a) liposomes (b) Golgi bodies cylinder of 13 protofilaments of the (b) in the nucleolus as well as in the
(c) microsomes (d) glyoxysomes tubulin protein. The diameter of each cytoplasm
microfibril is 25 nm. The function of
Ans. (d) (c) in the cytoplasm as well as in
microtubule is to guide organelle and
Besides catalase, the glyoxysomes mitochondria
chromosome movement in the cell,
contain enzymes for the glyoxylate cause cell elongation and help in (d) only on ribosomes attached to
cycle through which fats are converted movements of cilia/flagella. nucleus
into carbohydrates.
Ans. (c) proteins), lysosomal and membrane ATPase in F1 (stalk) and proton channels
Protein synthesis is a complex proteins, glycoproteins and helps in on F0 (base). ATPase helps in oxidative
process, it essentially involves DNA for packaging of polypeptide chains into phosphorylation, synthesise ATP
the synthesis of mRNA (transcription) enzymes/proteins. It also provides through electron transport system by
which contains information for the membrane to Golgi bodies for forming undergoing oxidation reduction
synthesis of proteins (translation). vesicles and lysosomes. reactions.
The process of translation takes place
113 The prokaryotic flagella possess 117 Organelle having flattened
on ribosomes which are found in membrane bound cisternae and
cytoplasm (in attached form on ER) [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
and in mitochondria (in the free form). (a) unit membrane enclosed fibre lying near the nucleus is
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(b) protein membrane enclosed fibre
110 Genes located on mitochondrial (c) ‘9+2’ membrane enclosed structure (a) Golgi apparatus
(b) mitochondrion
DNA [CBSE AIPMT 1997] (d) helically arranged protein molecule
(c) centriole
(a) generally show maternal Ans. (d) (d) nucleolus
inheritance Prokaryotic (bacterial) flagellum is made
(b) are always inherited from the up of flagellin protein arranged helically. Ans. (a)
male parent It do not show 9+2 organisation and Golgi body or dictyosome has a stack of
(c) show biparental inheritance like the ATPase activity. These flagella do not single membrane bound cisternae with
nuclear genes beat but rotate like a propellar that swollen ends, network of tubules and
brings about backward pushing of water. vesicles. Cisternae are parallel
(d) are not inherited
Gram +ve bacteria having two rings in the membrane lined narrow sacs which are
Ans. (a) basal body. Gram −ve bacteria interconnected.
Mitochondria are found only in have four rings. The L, P, M and S rings. Golgi body has two faces- concave or
eukaryotic cells, they contain a single distal or maturing (M) face or trans face
circular double stranded DNA 114 The desmosomes are concerned towards cell membrane and cis or
molecule (mtDNA). Available evidences with [CBSE AIPMT 1995] convex or proximal or forming (F) face
show that mitochondria of female (a) cytolysis (b) cell division towards rough ER and nuclear
parent are transferred to progeny (c) cell adherence (d) cellular excretion membrane. New cisternae are formed
during fertilisation. Recent studies from SER and added from F-face.
have shown that factors responsible Ans. (c)
for cytoplasmic male sterility are Desmosomes (macula adherens) 118 Cell organelles having
located in mitochondrial DNA. consists of intercellular thickening hydrolases/digestive enzymes are
materials, disc-shaped intracellular [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
111 Lysosomes have a high content thickening adjacent to each membrane (a) peroxisomes
of [CBSE AIPMT 1996] with tonofibrils. These act as (b) lysosomes
intercellular cementing material, adhere
(a) hydrolytic enzymes (c) ribosomes
cells together at places like spot welding.
(b) lipoproteins (d) mesosomes
(c) polyribosomes 115 Inner membrane convolutions of a Ans. (b)
(d) DNA ligases mitochondrion are known as Lysosomes (or suicidal bags or cellular
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] house keepers or scavenger of cell) are
Ans. (a)
(a) lamellae (b) thylakoids single membrane bound, spherical
Lysosomes or suicidal bags are filled
with about 40 types of acid hydrolases (c) grana (d) cristae microbodies, filled with different types
(digestive enzymes) like acid of acid hydrolases (digestive enzymes)
Ans. (d) working at pH≤ 5 and can digest almost
proteases, acid nucleases, acid
Mitochondrial inner membrane is every type of organic matter except
phosphatases, acid sulphatases, acid
convoluted several times to form cristae. cellulose.
lipases, acid glycosidases working at
an optimum pH≤ 5 for controlling Primary lysosome (storage granules)
intracellular digestion of 116 Mitochondrial cristae are sites of unites with food vacuole (phagosome)
macromolecules. [CBSE AIPMT 1994] forming secondary lysosomes
(a) breakdown of macromolecules (heterophagosomes or digestive
112 The function of rough (b) protein synthesis vacuoles) which cause intracellular
(c) phosphorylation of flavoproteins digestion (heterophagy).
endoplasmic reticulum is
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] (d) oxidation-reduction reactions 119 Organelle/organoid involved in
(a) fat synthesis (b) lipid synthesis Ans. (d) genetic engineering is
(c) protein synthesis Mitochondrial cristae bear the functional [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(d) steroid synthesis unit, i.e. oxysomes, Fernandes and Moran (a) plasmid
Ans. (c) particles (F0 −F1 ) particles or electron (b) mitochondrion
transport particle. Since, inner (c) Golgi apparatus
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER)
membrane is impermeable to ATP, thus (d) lomasome
provides surface for ribosomes for
ATP is synthesised on oxysomes having
synthesis of secretory (serum
Ans. (a) (c) bacteria and blue-green algae Ans. (a)

Plasmids are small, self-replicating (d) None of the above Nucleolus was discovered by Fontana
extra chromosomal, non-essential (1781) and named by Bowman (1840) is a
Ans. (c)
genetic/DNA elements. Plasmid naked roughly rounded darkly stained
consists of a ring of circular, Golgi bodies are absent in prokaryotic
structure. It is attached to chromatin
supercoiled double stranded naked DNA cells, (i.e. bacteria, cyanobacteria,
at specific spot called nucleolar
carrying genes for replication and for mycoplasma), in mature RBC, mature
organiser region or NOR. Nucleolus
one or more cellular non-essential sperms, mature eggs, sperms of
constitute 35% mass of nucleus and is
functions. bryophytes, pteridophytes and mature
the largest part of nucleus.
They are ideal vectors for genetic sieve tubes. In contrast, active
engineering, gene cloning since, they eukaryotic cells are rich in Golgi bodies.
are self-replicating, carry non-essential Maximum number (25000) of Golgi bodies 126 Ribosomes are the centre for
genes and has a restriction site for one are found in rhizoidal cells of Chara. [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
or more restriction endonucleases. (a) respiration
120 In plant cells, peroxisomes are 123 All plastids have similar structure (b) photosynthesis
because they can (c) protein synthesis
associated with [CBSE AIPMT 1993] (d) fat synthesis
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(a) photorespiration
(a) store starch, lipids and proteins Ans. (c)
(b) phototropism
(b) get transformed from one type to Ribosomes are smallest,
(c) photoperiodism another membraneless sub- microscopic
(d) photosynthesis
(c) perform same function organelles, called as protein factories.
Ans. (a) (d) be present together They act as a template, bringing
Peroxisomes are microbodies arising together different components
Ans. (b)
from ER and containing enzymes for involved in the protein synthesis.
peroxide formation. In plants, they All plastids are similar in structure
because these are interconvertible and
occur in green mesophyll cells of
get transformed from one type to
127 Which one is apparato reticolare
leaves of C3 plants and are involved in interno?
photorespiration through interacting another. Leucoplasts are formed from
with chloroplast and mitochondria. In proplastids and leucoplasts; chloroplasts [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
animals, they are involved in lipid can arise from pre-existing chloroplasts, (a) Golgi apparatus
synthesis, purine catabolism, proplastids and leucoplasts and (b) Endoplasmic reticulum
gluconeogenesis, etc. chromoplasts can develop from (c) Microfilaments
proplastids, leucoplasts and (d) Microtubules
121 Membranous bag with hydrolytic chloroplasts.
Ans. (a)
enzymes which is used for
124 Oxysomes or F0 − F1 particles occur Golgi body (dictyosomes, lipochondria)
controlling intracellular digestion is a stack of flattened membrane
of macromolecules is on [CBSE AIPMT 1992] bound sac-like body. They form
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] (a) thylakoids internal reticulare apparatus (apparato
(a) endoplasmic reticulum (b) mitochondrial surface reticolare interno).
(b) nucleosome (c) inner mitochondrial membrane
(c) lysosome (d) chloroplast surface 128 Experiments on Acetabularia by
(d) phagosome
Ans. (c) Hammerling proved the role of
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
Ans. (c) Oxysomes are the elementary particles
The intracellular digestion, i.e. the or F0 − F1 or Fernandes-Moran particle (a) cytoplasm in controlling
breakdown of substances within the present on the inner membrane of differentiation
cytoplasm of a cell is controlled by mitochondria. They are about 10 4 − 10 5 in (b) nucleus in heredity
lysosomes. number and has a base ofF0 sub-unit (c) chromosomes in heredity
Intracellular digestion occurs in toward C-face (11 × 1.5 nm), a stalk (d) nucleocytoplasmic ratio
animals that lack a digestive track. (0.5 − 3.5 nm) and a head or F1 sub-unit
(8.5–10 nm diameter) towards matrix or Ans. (b)
e.g. in Pycnogonida, Mollusca,
Cnidaria and Porifera. M-face. J Hammerling (1953) carried the
grafting experiments involving
122 Golgi apparatus is absent in 125 An outer covering membrane is exchange of nucleus (located at the
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] absent over [CBSE AIPMT 1992] base) in Acetabularia. He proved the
(a) higher plants role of nucleus in heredity, growth,
(a) nucleolus (b) lysosome
(b) yeast etc.
(c) mitochondrion (d) plastids
129 Ribosomes were discovered by [CBSE AIPMT 1991] brings about polymerisation of a specific protein molecule, with
the help of ribosomes, from amino acid molecules found in the
(a) Golgi cytosol.
(b) Porter
(c) de Robertis 131 Organelles can be separated from cell homogenate
(d) Palade through [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (d) (a) chromatography
Ribosomes were first observed by Claude (1941), he called them (b) X-rays diffraction
as microsomes. Robinson and Brown (1950) noticed them in (c) differential centrifugation
plant cells of bean roots and Palade (1955) detected them in (d) auto-radiography
animal cells and called these structures as ribosomes.
Ans. (c)
Differential centrifugation is the mechanical separation of
130 Polyribosomes are aggregates of [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
individual sub-cellular components from homogenate in
(a) ribosomes and rRNA centrifuge at low speed.
(b) only rRNA Depending upon the size, specific gravity, mass, density,
(c) peroxisomes different organelles are separated and settled at the bottom of
(d) several ribosomes held together by string of mRNA the centrifuge tube at different centrifugal speeds.
Ans. (d) Ultracentrifuges have 50,000-1,00,000 rpm and are used for the
separation of minute cell organelles and constitutents on the
Polyribosomes or ergasomes are formed by the combination of
6-8 ribosomes attached on a single-strand of mRNA. mRNA basis of different densities.
09
Biomolecules
TOPIC 1 (c) Hydroxyl and methyl of 2 glucose units. Its first glucose
(d) Carbonyl and hydroxyl residue cannot undergo oxidation,
Carbohydrates whereas, second residue can undergo
Ans. (d) oxidation because it has a reactive free
01 Which of the following are not Sugars are chemically carbohydrates. anomeric carbon atom. Hence, it is a
They are polyhydroxy aldoses, ketoses reducing sugar.
secondary metabolites in plants? and their condensation products.
[NEET 2021] Lactose and ribose-5-phosphate are
Aldoses bear a terminal aldehyde or also reducing in nature due to the
(a) Morphine, codeine CHO group while ketoses have an presence of a free ketonic or aldehyde
(b) Amino acids, glucose internal ketone or CO group. group.
(c) Vinblastine, curcumin Thus, they possess two functional
(d) Rubber, gums groups, i.e. carbonyl and hydroxyl. 06 Macromolecule chitin is
Ans. (b) [NEET 2013]
04 The chitinous exoskeleton of (a) nitrogen containing
Primary metabolites are compounds
that are directly involved in the growth arthropods is formed by the polysaccharide
and development of a plant like amino polymerisation of (b) phosphorus containing
acids and sugars (glucose). Primary [CBSE AIPMT 2015] polysaccharide
metabolites prominently function (a) keratin sulphate and chondroitin (c) sulphur containing polysaccharide
growth, development and reproduction sulphate
of cell. Secondary metabolites are (d) simple polysaccharide
compounds produced in other (b) D-glucosamine Ans. (a)
metabolic pathways that, although (c) N-acetyl glucosamine Macromolecule chitin is a complex
important, are not essential for the (d) lipoglycans polysaccharide containing amino
functioning of the plant.
Ans. (b) sugars and chemically modified sugars,
The chitinous exoskeleton of (e.g. glucosamine, N-acetyl
02 Floridean starch has structure galactosamine, etc). Polysaccharides
similar to [NEET (Sep.) 2020] arthropods is formed by the
polymerisation of N-acetyl are long carbohydrate molecules of
(a) amylopectin and glycogen monosaccharide units joined together
glucosamine, which is a derivative of
(b) mannitol and algin glucose. It is also a characteristic by glycosidic bonds. They have a
general formula Cx (H2 O) y . Chitin is the
(c) laminarin and cellulose component of the cell wall of fungi, the
radulae of molluscs and the beaks and main component of the cell wall of
(d) starch and cellulose fungi, the exoskeletons of arthropods,
internal shells of cephalopods,
Ans. (a) including squid and octopuses. insects and radulae of molluscs, etc.
Floridean starch has structure similar
to amylopectin and glycogen as both 05 Which one of the following is a 07 Which one of the following pairs is
are made fromα-D glucose monomers. wrongly matched?
non-reducing carbohydrate?
The key difference between [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
amylopectin and glycogen is, (a) Detergents — Lipase
amylopectin is a soluble form of starch, (a) Maltose
(b) Sucrose (b) Alcohol — Nitrogenase
while glycogen is an insoluble form of
starch. (c) Lactose (c) Fruit juice — Pectinase
(d) Ribose 5-phosphate (d) Textile — Amylase
03 Which two functional groups are Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
characteristic of sugars? Sucrose is a disaccharide of glucose
[NEET 2018] The wrongly matched pair is ‘b’ because
and fructose. It is a non-reducing sugar alcohol (ethyl alcohol) can be produced
(a) Carbonyl and phosphate as it do not contain any free anomeric by fermentation of any carbohydrate,
(b) Carbonyl and methyl carbon atom. Maltose is a disaccharide containing a fermentable sugar.
Biomolecules 95
The development of synthetic alcohol 11 Lactose is composed of straight chains by 1,6α-D glycosidic
follows following reaction [CBSE AIPMT 1998] bonds.
Enzyme Yeast (a) glucose+glucose Glycogen is long chain branched
Starch Hydrolysis Glucose Pyruvate polymer of 5-300 thousand glucose
Glycolysis
(b) glucose+fructose
(50-60°C) (30-35°C) Yeast (30-35°C) units, straight chain linked byα-D 1-4
Yeast
(Pyruvate (c) fructose+galactose glycosidic bonds and side chains
decarboxylase)
Ethanol (30-35°C)
Aldehyde
(d) glucose+galactose through α-D 1 → 6 glycosidic bonds.
(Recovered by distillation) Alcohol
Ans. (d) Cellulose, a fibrous polysaccharide
dehydrogenase
has a linear chain of 6-10 thousand
Lactose (C12 H22 O11 ) is a disaccharide
1 → 4 linkedβ-pyranose glucose
08 About 98 per cent of the mass of found in mammalian milk. It comprises
chain.
of galactose and glucose units which
every living organism is composed of are linked together byβ, 1-4 glycosidic
just six elements including carbon, bonds. It is a reducing sugar. 14 Glycogen is a polymer of
hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen and [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] 12 Cellulose, the most important (a) galactose (b) glucose
(a) phosphorus and sulphur constituent of plant cell wall is (c) fructose (d) sucrose
(b) sulphur and magnesium made of [CBSE AIPMT 1998] Ans. (b)
(c) magnesium and sodium (a) unbranched chain of glucose A glycogen molecule is a long highly
(d) calcium and phosphorus molecules linked by α 1, branched chain of about 30000 to
4-glycosidic bond 100000 α-D glucose units joined by
Ans. (a)
(b) branched chain of glucose glycosidic bonds. It is storage form of
About 98% of the mass of every living glucose, popularly called animal
molecules linked by β 1,
organism including bacterium and human starch. It provides energy to animals,
beings is composed of just six elements, 4-glycosidic bond in straight
chain and α, 1, 6 -glycosidic bond fungi and bacteria.
i.e. Carbon (C), Hydrogen (H), Nitrogen (N),
Oxygen (O), Phosphorus (P) and Sulphur (S). at the site of branching 15 Living cell contains 60-75%
Charagaff (1950) suggested that despite (c) unbranched chain of glucose water. Water present in human
wide compositional variations exhibited molecules linked by β 1, body is [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
by different types of DNA the total 4-glycosidic bond (a) 60-65%
amount of purines equaled the total (d) branched chain of glucose (b) 50-55%
amount of pyrimidines (A + G = T + C). molecules linked by α 1, (c) 75-80%
6-glycosidic bond at the site of (d) 65-70%
09 Which of the following is a reducing branching
sugar? Ans. (d)
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
Ans. (c) In humans, about two-third of body is
Cellulose (C6H10O5 ) n is the most formed of water. About 65-70% of
(a) Galactose
abundant organic polymer. It is a human body is water, of these about
(b) Gluconic acid polysaccharide and consists of long 55% (20-22 L) is confined to cells as
(c) β-methyl galactoside unbranched chains of glucose residues intracellular water.
(d) Sucrose linked byβ, 1-4 glycosidic bonds. In
Ans. (a) plants, cellulose is formed from sugar.
It serves as building material in the
Glucose, fructose, mannose, galactose formation of cell wall.
TOPIC 2
are hexose monosaccharides. The
monosaccharides have free aldehyde or
Proteins
13 In which one of the following
ketone group which can reduce Cu 2 + to groups, all the three are examples
Cu. Therefore, these are called reducing 16 Which one of the following is the
of polysaccharides?
sugars. [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
most abundant protein in the
animals? [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
10 Most abundant organic compound on (a) Starch, glycogen, cellulose
(a) Collagen
earth is [CBSE AIPMT 2001, 04] (b) Sucrose, maltose, glucose
(b) Lectin
(a) protein (b) cellulose (c) Glucose, fructose, lactose
(c) Insulin
(c) lipids (d) steroids (d) Galactose, starch, sucrose
(d) Haemoglobin
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Cellulose is fibrous polysaccharide that Starch and glycogen are storage
Collagen is the most abundant
forms the structural component of plant polysaccharide and cellulose is a
protein in animal world and RuBisCO
cell wall, some primitive fungi and tunic of structural polysaccharide. Starch has
is the most abundant protein in the
ascidians. Cellulose is the most abundant straight chain of 1,4α-D pyranose
whole of the biosphere because it is
organic substance on earth. It can be glucose units and side chains or
present in every plant that undergoes
digested by only a few microbes present in amylopectin part of 2-200 thousand
photosynthesis and molecular
the gut of ruminants and white ants. glucose units that are attached to
synthesis through the Calvin cycle.
17 Identify the substances having 21 Which of the following is the least Ans. (c)
glycosidic bond and peptide bond, likely to be involved in stabilising Structure D represents basic amino
respectively in their structure. the three-dimensional folding of acid lysine whereas structure A
[NEET (Sep.) 2020) most proteins? represents glutamic acid (acidic amino
(a) Glycerol, trypsin [NEET 2016, Phase II] acid) and structure B represents
(b) Cellulose, lecithin (a) Hydrogen bonds alcoholic amino acid serine.
(c) Inulin, insulin (b) Electrostatic interaction 24 Which of the following is the
(d) Chitin, cholesterol (c) Hydrophobic interaction simplest amino acid?
Ans. (c) (d) Ester bonds [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
Inulin is a fructan (polysaccharide of Ans. (d) (a) Alanine (b) Asparagine
fructose). Adjacent fructose units are (c) Glycine (d) Tyrosine
Ester bonds are the least likely to be
linked through glycosidic bond. Insulin
involved in stabilising the 3D folding of
is a protein composed of 51 amino Ans. (c)
most proteins. A long protein chain gets
acids. Adjacent amino acids are Proteins are polymers of amino acids in
folded upon itself like a hollow woolen
attached through peptide bond. which amino acids are joined by peptide
ball, giving rise to a tertiary structure
(3D) structure. bonds. Glycine is the simplest amino
18 Identify the basic amino acid from acid.
This structure is stabilised by several
the following. [NEET (Sep.) 2020] type of bonds, i.e. hydrogen bonds,
(a) Glutamic acid (b) Lysine
25 Collagen is [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
ionic bonds, Vander waal’s interactions,
(c) Valine (d) Tyrosine covalent bonds and hydrophobic bonds. (a) fibrous protein
Ester bond is formed between sugar (b) globular protein
Ans. (b)
and phosphate in a nucleotide and is (c) lipid
Option (b) is correct as lysine is a basic
not involved in stability of a polypeptide (d) carbohydrate
amino acid because it’s side chain
chain. Thus, option (d) is correct.
contain nitrogen and resemble Ans. (a)
ammonia, which is a base. Valine is a Collagen is a major fibrous protein of
neutral amino acid, glutamic acid is an 22 Which one is the most abundant connective tissue, occurring as white
acidic amino acid, while tyrosine is an protein in the animal world? fibres produced by fibroblast.
aromatic amino acid. [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) Trypsin 26 Which is an essential amino acid?
19 “Ramachandran plot” is used to (b) Haemoglobin [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
confirm the structure of (c) Collagen (a) Serine (b) Aspartic acid
(d) Insulin (c) Glycine (d) Phenylalanine
(a) RNA (b) proteins
(c) triacylglycerides (d) DNA Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
Ans. (b) Collagen is the most abundant protein For human beings, eight amino acids
(structural protein) in the animal world are essential : Leucine, isoleucine,
‘Ramachandran plot’ is used to confirm while Ribulose Bisphosphate lysine, methionine, phenylalanine,
the structure of proteins. Carboxylase Oxygenase (RuBisCO) is the threonine, tryptophan and valine. So,
Ramachandran plot is a plot of the most abundant protein in the whole of these are known as essential amino
angles-phi (ϕ) and psi(ψ) of amino acids the plant world. acids.Cannot be synthesised in animal
found in a peptide chain. This plot was
body.
developed by GN Ramachandran, an
Indian Scientist in 1963. 23 Which one out of A-D given below
correctly represents the structural 27 Conjugated proteins containing
20 Which of the following is an amino formula of the basic amino acid? carbohydrates as prosthetic group
acid derived hormone? [NEET 2018] [CBSE AIPMT 2012] are known as [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(a) Estradiol (b) Ecdysone A B C D (a) chromoproteins
(c) Epinephrine (d) Estriol NH2 NH2 CH2OH NH2
(b) glycoproteins
(c) lipoproteins
Ans. (c) HCCOOH HCCOOH CH2 HCCOOH
(d) nucleoproteins
Among the following, epinephrine is an CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2
amino acid derived hormone. It is a CH2 OH NH2 CH2 Ans. (b)
catecholamine which is produced in the Glycoproteins (mucoproteins) are
chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla C CH2
O OH conjugated protein having a simple or
from amino acids tyrosine. On the other CH2 complex sugar (galactose) residue at
hand, estradiol and estriol are steroid NH2 their N-terminal end. Glycoprotein is
hormone that are involved in the found in egg white, mucin, antibody IgG,
regulation of estrous and menstrual cell membrane, saliva, synovial fluid,
cycles. (a) C (b) D heparin. Lipoproteins contain lipids and
Ecdysone is also a steroid hormone that (c) A (d) B nucleoproteins contain nucleic acid as
controls moulting in insects. the prosthetic group.
Biomolecules 97
28 What is common among amylase, TOPIC 3 (c) Three glycerol and three fatty acid
rennin and trypsin? molecules
[CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Lipids (d) Three glycerol molecules and one
(a) These are all proteins fatty acid molecule
(b) These are proteolytic enzymes 32 Following are the statements
Ans. (a)
(c) These are produced in stomach with reference to lipids.
A typical fat molecule is triglyceride
[NEET 2021]
(d) These act at a pH lower than 7 formed by esterification of one glycerol
I. Lipids having only single and three fatty acid molecules. The
Ans. (a)
bonds are called unsaturated three fatty acids can be of same type or
All three are proteins enzymes amylase, different depending on the type of the
rennin and trypsin acts respectively on
fatty acids.
II. Lecithin is a phospholipid. fat molecules.
the substrates starch, lactose and
protein. Amylase acts at an optimum III. Trihydroxy propane is
pH—6.8-7, rennin at pH-2 and trypsin at 35 A phosphoglyceride is always made
glycerol.
an optimum pH—8.5. up of [NEET 2013]
IV. Palmitic acid has 20 carbon
(a) only a saturated fatty acid
29 Most diverse macromolecules, atoms including carboxyl
esterified to a glycerol molecule
found in the cell both physically and carbon. to which a phosphate group is also
chemically are [CBSE AIPMT 1996] V. Arachidonic acid has 16 attached
(a) proteins (b) carbohydrates carbon atoms. (b) only an unsaturated fatty acid
(c) nucleic acids (d) lipids Choose the correct answer from esterified to a glycerol molecule
the options given below to which a phosphate group is also
Ans. (a) attached
Proteins are the most diverse among (a) I and III (b) III and IV
(c) a saturated or unsaturated fatty
organic compounds. Among the (c) II and III (d) II and V
acid esterified to a glycerol
biomolecules, proteins constitute 9-12%, Ans. (c) molecule to which a phosphate
fat 1-3%, carbohydrates 1-2%, minerals
1-3%, nucleic acids 2% and water 60-75%. Statements I, IV and V are incorrect, group is also attached
while II and III are correct. (d) a saturated or unsaturated fatty
30 The pyrenoids are made up of The incorrect statements can be acid esterified to a phosphate
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] corrected as group, which is also attached to a
(a) proteinaceous centre and starchy Lipid having only single bonds are glycerol molecule
sheath called saturated fatty acids.
Ans. (c)
(b) core of protein surrounded by fatty Palmitic acid has 16 carbon atoms
including carboxyl carbon. A fat is formed of two kinds of smaller
sheath molecules, i.e. glycerol and fatty acids.
(c) core of starch surrounded by Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms.
In making a fat free fatty acid molecules
sheath of protein join to glycerol by an ester linkage. A
(d) core of nucleic acid surrounded by 33 Which of the following are not fatty acid has a long carbon skeleton,
protein sheath polymeric ? [NEET 2017] usually 16 or 18 carbon atoms in length.
(a) Nucleic acid If there are no double bonds between
Ans. (a)
(b) Proteins carbon atoms composing the chain,
Pyrenoids consist of dense proteinaceous
(c) Polysaccharides then as many hydrogen atoms as
area surrounded by starchy sheath. These
(d) Lipids possible are bonded to the carbon
are unique to chloroplast of algae and are
skeleton.This is called saturated fatty
associated in polymerising sugars into Ans. (d)
reserve polymers (starch). acid. Unsaturated fatty acid has one or
Among the given options except lipids more double bonds. Phosphoglycerides
31 Amino acids are produced from all are polymers. These are formed by are esters of two fatty acids,
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
the polymerisation of monomers. The phosphoric acid and a trifunctional
basic unit of lipid are fatty acids and alcohol glycerol. The fatty acids are
(a) proteins (b) fatty acids glycerol molecules that do not form attached to the glycerol at the 1 and 2
(c) essential oils (d) α-keto acids repetitive chains. Instead they form position on glycerol through ester
Ans. (d) triglycerides from three fatty acids and bonds.
one glycerol molecules.
Amino acids are smallest structural units
of proteins. Plants and some 36 Which one of the following is not a
microorganisms can synthesise these
34 A typical fat molecule is made up
constituent of cell membrane?
amino acids from inorganic of [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
nitrogen/α-keto acids by reductive [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(a) Cholesterol
amination and transamination. Amino (a) One glycerol and three fatty acid
acids besides bearing a carboxyl group, (b) Glycolipids
molecules
possess an amino group attached to (c) Proline
(b) One glycerol and one fatty acid
α-carbon, hence, called asα-amino (d) Phospholipids
molecule
acids.
Ans. (c) TOPIC 4 Option (a) is correct match which is as

follows
The lipids of cell membrane are of three Nucleic Acids
types namely phospholipids, glycolipids Chemically, aquaporins are major
and sterols. The sterol found in the intrinsic proteins that form pores in the
membrane may be cholesterol membranes of cell. Asparagine is
40 Match the List-I with List-II. beta-amide derivative of aspartic acid.
(animals), phytosterol (plants) or
[NEET 2021]
ergosterol (microorganisms). Cell Abscisic acid is an apo-carotenoid.
membrane is made up of lipid+protein List-I List-II Chitin is a heteropolysaccharide
(60%) and carbohydrates (2-10%). A. Protein 1. C == C double consisting of two types of
Proline is an amino acid. bonds monosaccharide monomers.
B. Unsaturated fatty2. Phosphodiester 42 DNA precipitation out of a mixture
37 Lipids are insoluble in water acid bonds
because lipid molecules are of biomolecules can be achieved
C. Nucleic acid 3. Glycosidic bonds
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] by treatment with
(a) hydrophilic (b) hydrophobic D. Polysaccharide 4. Peptide bonds [NEET (National) 2019]
(c) neutral (d) Zwitter ions (a) chilled ethanol
Choose the correct answer from (b) methanol at room temperature
Ans. (b) the options given below. (c) chilled chloroform
Bloor (1943) first time used the term A B C D (d) isopropanol
‘lipid’. These are the compounds of C, (a) 4 1 2 3
H, O but the ratio of H and O is more Ans. (a)
(b) 1 4 3 2
than 2 : 1 that is the ratio of oxygen is Chilled ethanol is used to precipitate
lesser as compared to carbohydrates. (c) 2 1 4 3
DNA out of a mixture of biomolecules.
Lipids are insoluble in water but soluble (d) 4 3 1 2
Low temperature protects the DNA by
in non-polar solvents such as benzene, Ans. (a) slowing down the activity of enzymes
chloroform, etc. Common lipid that could break it apart and ethanol
(A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(3)
occurring in a cell is phospholipid. It helps in the quick precipitation of DNA.
contains a hydrophilic (polar) head and a Proteins are polypetides, they are
hydrophobic (non-polar) tail. linear chain of amino acids linked by
peptide bond. 43 Which one of the following
Unsaturated fatty acids are carbon statements is wrong?
38 Which steroid is used for [NEET 2016, Phase I]
chains containing one or more double
transformation?
bonds with terminal carboxylic acid. (a) Cellulose is a polysaccharide
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
The two sugar molecules of nucleic (b) Uracil is a pyrimidine
(a) Cortisol
acids are linked together via (c) Glycine is a sulphur containing
(b) Cholesterol phosphodiester bond. amino acid
(c) Testosterone Polysaccharides are long chain of sugar (d) Sucrose is a disaccharide
(d) Progesterone molecules joined with a covalent bond,
i.e. glycosidic linkage. Ans. (c)
Ans. (b)
Glycine is the simplest amino acid in
Cholesterol forms a major component which functional group ‘R’ is replaced by
of animal cell membranes liposomes
41 Match the items in Column I with
hydrogen atom (H).
(artificially created spheres surrounded those in Column II.
by a phospholipid bilayer like a [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
44 Which of the following
membrane) which are used for
Column I Column II biomolecules does have a
transformation (transgenics).
A. Aquaporin (i) Amide phosphodiester bond?
39 Spoilage of oil can be detected by B. Asparagine (ii) Polysaccharide [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
which fatty acid? C. Abscisic acid (iii) Polypeptide (a) Fatty acids in a diglyceride
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] D. Chitin (iv) Carotenoids (b) Monosaccharides in a
(a) Oleic acid (b) Linolenic acid polysaccharide
(c) Linoleic acid (d) Erucic acid Select the correct option. (c) Amino acids in a polypeptide
Ans. (d) A B C D (d) Nucleic acids in a nucleotide
Erucic acid occurs as glycerides in (a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) Ans. (d)
vegetable oils. It is a monounsaturated (b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Phosphodiester bond is in responsible
omega-9-fatty acid. It is found in (c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) for linking nucleotides in nucleic acid
rapseed, mustared seed and wallflower (d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (DNA and RNA).
seed. Ans. (a)
Biomolecules 99
45 Given below is the diagrammatic (a) A — Triglyceride- — Source of These are polymers of nucleotides.
major energy Each nucleotide is composed of
representation of one of the
phosphoric acid, pentose sugar and
categories of small molecular (b) B — Uracil — A component
nitrogenous base. The nitrogenous
of DNA
weight organic compounds in the bases are of two types, i.e. purine and
living tissues. Identify the category (c) A — Lecithin — A component pyrimidines.
of cell Purines are heterocyclic and two
shown and the one blank membrane
component X in it rings, e.g. adenine, guanine.
O (d) B — Adenine — A nucleotide
HOCH2 X that makes 6 N
7
up nucleic 1
N 5
acids 8
2 4
Ans. (c) N N
OH OH Lecithin is a phospholipid composed of 3 H9
choline and inositol. It is found in all Purine
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
living cells as a major component of cell Pyrimidines are single ring compound,
Category Component membrane.
(a) Cholesterol — Guanine e.g. thymine, cytosine, uracil.
(b) Amino acid — NH 2 47 Which one of the following is the 4
(c) Nucleotide — Adenine correct matching of three items 5
N3
(d) Nucleoside — Uracil and their grouping category?
Ans. (d) [CBSE AIPMT 2009] 6 2
N
1
O Items Group
Uracil Pyrimidine
HOCH2 (a) Malleus, incus, — Ear ossicles
cochlea 49 In the DNA molecule
(b) Ilium, ischium, — Coxal bones of [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
pubis pelvic girdle (a) the total amount of purine
OH OH (c) Actin, myosin, — Muscle nucleotides and pyrimidine
Nucleoside Uridine rhodopsin proteins nucleotides is not always equal
Nucleoside is made up of ribose sugar (b) there are two strands which run
(d) Cytosine, — Pyrimidines
and nitrogenous base only. Uracil forms parallel in the 5′ → 3′ direction
uracil,
nucleoside with only ribose sugar. So, thymine (c) the proportion of adenine in
the option with category nucleoside relation to thymine varies with the
component uracil is correct.
Ans. (d) organism
There are total five nitrogenous bases (d) there are two strands which run
46 Which one of the following antiparallel one in 5′ → 3′ direction
found in nucleic acids. Out of these
structural formula of two organic and other in 3′ → 5′
adenine, guanine (purines) and
compounds is correctly identified cytosine, thymine (pyrimidines) are Ans. (d)
along with its related function? present in DNA, while RNA contains In DNA molecule the adjacent
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] uracil in place of thymine (both deoxyribonucleotides are joined in a
O pyrimidines) along with rest 3 similar to chain by phosphodiester bridges or
DNA.

bonds, which link the 5′ carbon of

O CH2OCR
deoxyribose of one mononucleotide

R2COCH O
48 Which one of the following pairs of unit with3′ carbon of deoxyribose of
nitrogenous bases of nucleic acids, next mononucleotide unit.


CH2OPOCH2CH2 is wrongly matched with the According to Watson and Crick DNA


category mentioned against it? molecule consists of two such

OH N polynucleotide chains wrapped helically
 CH
 [CBSE AIPMT 2008]

CH3 3 around each other, with the sugar

CH2 (a) Thymine, Uracil — Pyrimidines
phosphate chain on the outside and
(A) (b) Uracil, Cytosine — Pyrimidines purine and pyrimidine on the inside of
NH2 (c) Guanine, Adenine — Purines helix.

N (d) Adenine, Thymine — Purines The two strands run antiparallel, i.e. one
N
strand has phosphodiester linkage in3′
Ans. (d)
N NH → 5′ direction while other strand has
DNA and RNA the principal genetic phosphodiester linkage in 5′→ 3′
(B) materials of living organisms are direction.
chemically called nucleic acids.
Chargaff (1950) suggested that despite wide compositional variations exhibited by different types of DNA the total amount of purines
equaled the total amount of pyrimidines (A + G = T + C).
50 The two polynucleotide chains in DNA are [CBSE AIPMT 2007]

(a) parallel (b) discontinuous (c) antiparallel (d) semiconservative
Ans. (c)
In 1953 James Watson and Francis Crick suggested that in a DNA molecule there are two polynucleotide chains arranged antiparallel or
in opposite directions.
51 One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately

[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(a) 0.34 nm (b) 3.4 nm (c) 2 nm (d) 20 nm
Ans. (b)
B-DNA is helical structure with 20Å diameter and the distance between the two base pairs is 3.4Å and there are 10 base pairs in each turn
or pitch (one round). Hence, one turn of the helix is approximately 34Å or 3.4 nm (10Å = 1.0 nm). Z-DNA (in comparision to B-DNA) is left
handed double helical structure in which double helix winds to left inzig-zag pattern (instead of right, like B-DNA).
52 Nucleotides are building blocks of nucleic acids. Each nucleotide is a composite molecule formed by
[CBSE AIPMT 2005, 1991]
(a) base-sugar-phosphate (b) base-sugar-OH (c) (base-sugar-phosphate) n (d) sugar-phosphate
Ans. (a)
Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). A single nucleotide is composed of a phosphate molecule, a five
carbon sugar (either ribose or deoxyribose) and a purine (adenine or guanine) or a pyrimidine (thymine or cytosine or uracil) nitrogenous
base.
O– O– Guanine
Cytosine
P N H O
O
HO O 2´ 3´
N
CH2 O N H
5´ 1´ 4´
Pentose 4´ N 1´ 5´
O H2C
sugar 2´ O H N
3´ O HO
O– O– H H
Phosphate P P
H O CH3
N N H
O O
HO O
2´ 3´
CH2 O N N H N
Hydrogen
4´ N bonds N
1´ O
2´ H
3´ O
O Adenine Thymine
Nucleotides
Chemical structures of base pairs and sugar phosphate chains
53 ATP is a [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(a) nucleotide (b) nucleosome
(c) nucleoside (d) purine
Ans. (a)
A nucleotide contains (a) a 5-C sugar (b) a phosphate molecule (c) a nitrogenous base. ATP is also a nucleotide. It also has a 5-C
sugar (ribose), 3 phosphate molecules and a nitrogenous base (adenine).
Biomolecules 101
NH2
|
C N
6 7
N1 5C
8C H Pyrophosphate
2
H C 3
4C
O O O
9
N N 5' || || ||
Adenine O
CH2O—P—O~P—O~P—OH
4' | | |
1' H H OH OH OH
H
H 2' 3'
OH OH
Ribose
AMP
Adenine–Ribose–O–P=AMP
ADP Adenine–Ribose–O—P—O~ P=ADP
Adenine–Ribose–O—P—O~ P—O~ P=ATP

ATP
The chemical structure of AMP, ADP and ATP
Adenine + sugar (ribose) →Adenosine

Adenosine + 1 phosphate →Adenosine Monophosphate (AMP)
AMP + 1 phosphate →Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP)
54 Which one of the following amino acids is an essential part of human diet ? [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(a) Glycine (b) Phenylalanine (c) Serine (d) Aspartic acid
Ans. (b)
For human beings, eight amino acids are essential. These are leucine, isoleucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine,
tryptophan and valine.
55 Radioactive thymidine when added to the medium surrounding living mammalian cells gets incorporated into the newly
synthesised DNA. Which of the following types of chromatin is expected to become radioactive if cells are exposed
radioactive thymidine as soon as they enter the S-phase? [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) Heterochromatin (b) Euchromatin (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) but only the nucleolus
Ans. (b)
In the beginning of S-phase, DNA replication occurs. DNA replication can occur in diffuse/less tightly coiledeuchromatin. So active DNA
stains light in colour when stained with acetocarmin and feulgen reagent in comparison to heterochromatin.
56 DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by estimating the incorporation of radio labelled [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) uracil (b) adenine (c) thymidine (d) deoxyribose sugar
Ans. (c)
DNA consists of deoxyribose sugar, phosphate molecules and nitrogenous bases-adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine, whereas RNA
consists of ribose sugar, phosphate molecules and nitrogenous bases-adenine, guanine, cytosine and uracil.
Thus, estimating the incorporation of radiolabelled thymine can measure DNA synthesis and radiolabelled uracil can measure RNA
synthesis, as all other nitrogenous bases are similar in both DNA and RNA.
57 The nitrogenous organic base purine occurring in RNA is [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(a) cytosine (b) thymine (c) guanine (d) uracil
Ans. (c)
Purines are 9-membered double ring nitrogen bases which possess nitrogen at 1, 3, 7 and 9 positions, e.g. adenine (A), guanine (G). These
purines are present in both DNA and RNA.
58 Two free ribonucleotide units are interlinked with [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(a) peptide bond (b) covalent bond (c) hydrogen bond (d) phosphodiester bond
Ans. (d)
The bonds that exist between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and hydroxyl group of sugar (ribose or deoxyribose) of the adjacent
nucleotide is known as phosphodiester bond.
59 Which is wrong about nucleic by Miescher (1868-69) as nuclein and 66 In double helix of DNA, the two
acids? [CBSE AIPMT 1993] named nucleic acid by Altmann DNA strands are [CBSE AIPMT
(1889). They are formed of C, H, O, N
(a) DNA is single stranded in some 1988]
and P comprising nitrogenous
viruses (a) coiled around a common axis
heterocyclic bases viz purines or
(b) RNA is double stranded (b) coiled around each other
pyrimidines, pentose sugar and
occasionally phosphoric acid. (c) coiled differently
(c) Length of one helix is 45 Å in (d) coiled over protein sheath
B-DNA 63 DNA is composed of repeating Ans. (a)
(d) One turn of Z-DNA has 12 bases units of Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid (DNA) is helically
Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 1991] coiled macromolecule, made up of two
Length of one helix or the pitch per turn (a) ribonucleosides antiparallel polydeoxyribonucleotide
of helix is 34 Å in B-DNA, 25 Å in A-DNA (b) deoxyribonucleosides chains held together by hydrogen
and 46 Å in Z-model of DNA. In Z-DNA (c) ribonucleotides bonds.
sugar moieties are seen in opposite (d) deoxyribonucleotides The chains are interlocked and are
direction. So the 3-5 diester bond forms coiled around a common axis. DNA has
zig-zag structure in Z-DNA. Ans. (d) a diameter of 20 Å. One turn of spiral
Nucleic acids are repeating units of has a distance of 34 Å containing 10
60 Adenine is [CBSE AIPMT 1992] nucleotides, DNA is formed of the nucleotides in each turn.
(a) purine (b) pyrimidine repeating units of deoxyribonucleotides
and RNA is a mixed polymer chain of
(c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide TOPIC 5
ribonucleotides.
Ans. (a)
64 In RNA, thymine is replaced by
Enzymes
Nitrogen bases are of two
types-purines and pyrimidines. Purines [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
are 9 membered double ring nitrogen (a) adenine
bases which possess nitrogen at 1, 3, 7
67 Match the following columns.
(b) guanine [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
and 9 positions, e.g. adenine (A),
(c) cytosine
guanine (G). Pyrimidines are Column I Column II
6-membered nitrogen bases that (d) uracil
contain nitrogen at 1 and 3 positions, A. Inhibitor of catalytic 1. Ricin
Ans. (d) activity
e.g. cytosine (C), thymine (T), uracil (U). Uracil forms nucleoside with only ribose
sugar while thymine forms the same B. Possess peptide 2. Malonate
61 Which is distributed more widely bonds
with only deoxyribose sugar. Other
in a cell? [CBSE AIPMT 1992] nitrogen bases (i.e. adenine, guanine, C. Cell wall material in 3. Chitin
(a) DNA (b) RNA cytosine) produce nucleosides with fungi
both sugars. D. Secondary 4. Collagen
(c) Chloroplasts (d) Spherosomes
metabolite
O
Ans. (b)
Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) is a single chain Choose the correct option.
polyribonucleotide which functions as NH A B C D
carrier of coded genetic information (a) 3 1 4 2
from DNA to cytoplasm, and takes part (b) 3 4 1 2
in protein and enzyme synthesis. RNA is
N (c) 2 3 1 4
more common and abundant than DNA. O
There are six types of RNAs-ribosomal
H (d) 2 4 3 1
Uracil
(most abundant), transfer RNA (15% to Ans. (d)
total RNA), messenger RNA (2-5%), 65 RNA does not possess Option (d) is the correct. It can be
small sized nuclear RNA, small [CBSE AIPMT 1988] explained as follows.
cytoplasmic RNA, and genetic RNA (in
(a) uracil (b) thymine Malonate is the competitive inhibitor of
viruses called riboviruses).
(c) adenine (d) cytosine catalytic activity of succinic
dehydrogenase. Collagen is
62 The basic unit of nucleic acid is Ans. (b) proteinaceous in nature and possesses
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] Ribonucleic Acid (RNA) contains peptide bonds.
(a) pentose sugar (b) nucleoid pyrimidine bases-cytosine and uracil Chitin is a homopolymer present in the
(c) nucleoside (d) nucleotide and purine bases-adenine and guanine. cell wall of fungi and exoskeleton of
Thymine is the pyrimidine base arthropods.
Ans. (d)
present only in DNA and uracil is Abrin and ricin are toxins, secondary
Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) are present only in RNA, though other metabolites.
linear mixed polymers of nucleotides, nitrogenous bases remain the same
so also called polynucleotides. in both DNA and RNA.
Nucleic acids were first discovered
Biomolecules 103
68 Prosthetic groups differ from Ans. (a) 73 Which of the following describes
coenzymes in that Statement A is true but B is false. the given graph correctly?
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] Correct information about statement B [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(a) they require Gmetal ions for their is as follows.
A complete catalytic, active enzyme
activity B
with its bound prosthetic group is called
(b) they (prosthetic groups) are holoenzyme. An apoenzyme is an
Potential energy
tightly bound to apoenzymes inactive enzyme which gets activated A
(c) their association with by the binding of an organic or inorganic Substrate
apoenzymes is transient cofactor.
(d) they can serve as cofactors in a
number of enzyme catalysed 71 Select the correct match Product
reactions [NEET 2018] Reaction
Ans. (b) (a) TH Morgan – Transduction (a) Endothermic reaction with energy
Prosthetic groups are organic (b) F2 × Recessive parent – Dihybrid A in the presence of enzyme and B
compounds and are distinguished from cross in the absence of enzyme
other cofactors in that they are tightly (c) Ribozyme – Nucleic acid (b) Exothermic reaction with energy A
bound to the apoenzyme. For example, (d) G Mendel – Transformation in the presence of enzyme and B
in peroxidase and catalase, which in the absence of enzyme
catalyse the breakdown of hydrogen Ans. (c)
(c) Endothermic reaction with energy
peroxide to water and oxygen, haem is Ribozymes are RNA molecules having A in the absence of enzyme and B
the prosthetic group and it is a part of enzymatic activity, i.e. they are capable in the presence of enzyme
the active site of the enzyme. of catalysing specific biochemical
reactions. Hence, they are nucleic acids
(d) Exothermic reaction with energy A
with enzymatic function. in the absence of enzyme and B in
69 Which of the following is a the presence of enzyme
TH Morgan is known as the ‘Father of
commercial blood cholesterol Experimental Genetics’. He worked on Ans. (b)
lowering agent? linkage, crossing over, linkage maps,
[NEET (National) 2019] The graph shows the exothermic
etc.
reaction A in the presence of enzyme as
(a) Statin (b) Streptokinase In dihybrid cross, two allelic pairs are it lowers down the activation energy
(c) Lipases (d) Cyclosporin A used for crossing. substantially.
Ans. (a) Mendel is considered as the ‘Father of The B graph shows this reaction in the
Statins are commercial blood Genetics’. He proposed the laws of absence of enzyme when activation
cholesterol lowering agent as they inheritance. energy is quite high. Thus, option (b) is
competitively inhibit the enzymes correct.
involved in cholesterol synthesis. They 72 Which one of the following
are obtained from a yeast, Monascus statements is correct, with 74 A non-proteinaceous enzyme is
purpureus. reference to enzymes? [NEET 2017] [NEET 2016, Phase II]
Streptokinase is a thrombolytic agent (a) Apoenzyme = Holoenzyme + (a) Iysozyme (b) ribozyme
which is used to treat pulmonary Coenzyme
embolism and myocardial infarction. (c) ligase
(b) Holoenzyme = Apoenzyme + (d) deoxyribonuclease
Lipases help to digest fat molecules Coenzyme
while cyclosporin A is an Ans. (b)
immunosuppressant.
(c) Coenzyme = Apoenzyme +
Holoenzyme Ribozyme is a form of ribosomal RNA
(d) Holoenzyme = Coenzyme + (23 SrRNA) which acts as a catalyst in
70 Consider the following statement splicing of RNA during protein
Cofactor
[NEET (National) 2019] synthesis. It is the only non-protein
(A) Coenzyme or metal ion that is Ans. (b) enzyme known so far, rest all the
tightly bound to enzyme Holoenzyme It is a conjugate enzymes are proteinaceous. Hence,
protein is called prosthetic catalytically active enzyme together option (b) is correct.
with its coenzyme.
group.
Apoenzyme The protein part of 75 Select the option which is not
(B) A complete catalytic active catabolically active enzyme is called correct with respect to enzyme
enzyme with its bound apoenzyme.
prosthetic group is called
action. [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
Coenzyme Some enzymes require
apoenzyme. Select the (a) Substrate binds with enzyme as its
additional organic or metallo-organic
active site
correct option. molecules for their activity. These
molecules are called coenzyme. (b) Addition of lot of succinate does
(a) (A) is true but (B) is false
not reverse the inhibition of
(b) Both (A) and (B) are false So, holoenzyme is apoenzyme together
with coenzyme hence option (b) is succinic dehydrogenase by
(c) (A) is false but (B) is true malonate
(d) Both (A) and (B) are true correct.
(c) A non-competitive inhibitor binds 78 The curve given below shows 80 A competitive inhibitor of succinic
the enzyme at a site distinct from enzymatic activity with relation to dehydrogenase is
that which binds the substrate
three conditions (pH, temperature [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(d) Malonate is a competitive inhibitor (a) malonate
and substrate concentration).
of succinic dehydrogenase (b) oxaloacetate
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Ans. (b) (c) α-ketoglutarate
What do the two axis (X and Y)
Option (b) is incorrect with respect to (d) malate
represent?
enzyme action because addition of a lot
Ans. (a)
of succinate reverse the inhibition of
Succinic dehydrogenase oxidised the
succinic dehydrogenase by malonate.
succinate to fumarate. Malonate, an
Inhibition of succinic dehydrogenase by
Y-axis
analogue of succinate, which is a strong
malonate is an example of competitive
competitive inhibitor of succinate
inhibition.
dehydrogenase and therefore, blocks
Competitive inhibition occurs when the activity of citric acid cycle in
enzyme and inhibitor both have more or X-axis eukaryotes.
less similar structure and are present in
In Krebs’ cycle the reversible hydration
higher concentration.
X-axis Y-axis of fumarate to malate is catalysed by
Thus, both enzyme and inhibitor fumarase enzyme.
compete for the active site of enzyme (a) Temperature — Enzyme activity
resulting in the decrease of the (b) Substrate — Enzymatic
enzymatic activity.
81 An organic substance bound to an
concentration activity
enzyme and essential for its
76 Transition state structure of the (c) Enzymatic — Temperature activity is called
activity [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
substrate formed during an
enzymatic reaction is (d) Enzymatic — pH (a) holoenzyme (b) apoenzyme
activity (c) isoenzyme (d) coenzyme
(a) transient but stable [NEET 2013]
(b) permanent but unstable Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
(c) transient and unstable X-axis represents temperature and Coenzyme is an organic non-protein
(d) permanent and stable Y-axis represent enzyme activity. All molecule that associates with an
enzyme act at an optimum enzyme molecule in catalysing
Ans. (c) biochemical reactions. It usually
temperature, above and below this
The substrate binds to the enzyme at temperature, the enzyme activity participates in the substrate enzyme
its active site forming an enzyme declines. interaction by donating or accepting
substrate complex. This complex certain chemical groups.
formation is a transient and unstable 79 Modern detergents contain Holoenzyme is a complex comprising of
phenomenon. Very soon, the product enzyme molecule and its cofactor. The
enzyme preparation of enzyme is catalytically active in this
is released from the active site. It is
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
the fact that all other intermediate state.
structural states are unstable. (a) acidophiles Apoenzyme is an inactive enzyme that
Stability is related to energy status of (b) alkaliphiles must associate with a specific cofactor
the molecule or the structure. (c) thermoacidophiles molecule in order to function.
(d) thermophiles Isoenzyme or isozyme is one of the
77 The essential chemical several forms of an enzyme that catalyse
Ans. (b)
the same reaction but differ from each
components of many coenzymes Modern detergents contains enzyme other in such properties as substrate
are [NEET 2013] preparation of alkaliphiles. Detergents affinity and maximum rates of enzyme
(a) proteins represent the largest industrial substrate reaction.
(b) nucleic acids application of enzymes amounting to
25–30% of total sales of enzyme.
(c) carbohydrates 82 An enzyme that can stimulate
The enzymes used in detergents must
(d) vitamins germination of barley seeds is
be cost effective, safe to use and be
[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
Ans. (d) able to perform the task in the
presence of anionic and non-ionic (a) α-amylase (b) lipase
Essential chemical components of
many coenzymes are vitamins, e.g. detergents, soaps, oxidants, etc at pH (c) protease (d) invertase
coenzyme Nicotinamide Adenine between 8–10.5%.
Ans. (a)
Dinucleotide (NAD) and NADP contain The chief enzymes used are
Barley seeds are rich in carbohydrate
the vitamin niacin. Proteins, nucleic proteases, α-amylase and
(starch). The starch is hydrolysed by
acids and carbohydrates are not sometimes cellulase. α-amylase to monosaccharides unit at
enzymatic biomolecules. the time of germination of seeds.
Biomolecules 105
83 Which one of the following (b) are exclusively synthesised in the 88 Hydrolytic enzymes which act at
hydrolyses internal body of a living organism as at low pH are called as
present
phosphodiester bonds in a [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(c) are conjugated proteins (a) proteases (b) α-amylases
polynucleotide chain?
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(d) enhance oxidative metabolism (c) hydrolases (d) peroxidases
(a) Lipase (b) Protease Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
(c) Endonuclease (d) Exonuclease Enzymes, vitamins and hormones are Lysosomes are the reservoirs of acid
classified into a single category of hydrolases showing optimum activity at
Ans. (c)
biological chemical because all these pH 5.0 maintained within the lysosome.
DNase (deoxyribonuclease) or simply help in regulation of metabolism.
nuclease is an enzyme which breaks These include proteases, nucleases,
Enzyme is a proteinaceous catalyst glycosidases, lipase, etc. Among these
down DNA by hydrolysis of the
produced by a cell and responsible for protease act a very low pH, i.e. 2.
phosphodiester bonds of its
sugar-phosphate back bone.
the high rate and specificity of one or
Depending on the position of more intercellular or intracellular 89 Cytochrome is
hydrolysing phosphodiester bonds, biochemical reactions. Vitamin is an [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
nucleases are of two types : organic substance which generally (a) metallo flavoprotein
synthesised by plants (exception
(i) Endonucleases (b) Fe containing porphyrin pigment
vitamin-D). Absence of a vitamin from
(ii) Exonucleases (c) glycoprotein
the diet for sufficient time gives
Endonucleases hydrolyse internal symptoms of a resulting deficiency (d) lipid
phosphodiester bonds in a disease. Hormones are chemical
polynucleotide chain (i.e. DNA). While Ans. (b)
messengers which on secretion bring Cytochrome is the respiratory pigment.
exonucleases hydrolyse terminal
about a specific and adaptive It is composed of protein, iron and
phosphodiester bonds in a
physiological response. porphyrin ring. It functions as an
polynucleotide chain (i.e. DNA).
enzyme in the respiratory chain. Unlike
84 Which of the following statements 86 The catalytic efficiency of two haemoglobin the metal atom in the
different enzymes can be porphyrin ring must change it’s valency
regarding enzyme inhibition is for the molecule to function.
correct? compared by the
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] Cytochromes are basically located in
(a) Competitive inhibition is seen inner mitochondrial membranes and
(a) formation of the product
when a substrate competes with thylakoids of chloroplasts.
an enzyme for binding to an (b) pH optimum value
inhibitor protein (c) K m value 90 Enzymes enhance the rate of
(b) Competitive inhibition is seen (d) molecular size of the enzyme reaction by [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
when the substrate and the Ans. (c) (a) forming a reactant-product
inhibitor compete for the active K m , Michaelis-Menten constant is complex
site on the enzyme (b) changing the equilibrium point of
defined as substrate concentration at
(c) Non-competitive inhibition of an which reaction velocity of enzyme the reaction
enzyme can be overcome by catalysed reaction (V0 ) is half of the (c) combining with the product as soon
adding large amount of substrate maximum velocity of this reaction (Vmax ) as it is formed
(d) Non-competitive inhibitors often , (i.e. K m = ½ Vmax ). K m can vary greatly (d) lowering the activation energy of
bind to the enzyme irreversibly from enzyme to enzyme and even for the reaction
the different substrates of the same
Ans. (b)
enzyme. Ans. (d)
A competitive inhibitor competes with Enzymes enhance the rate of a reaction
substrate molecule for occupying the by just lowering the activation energy
active site of an enzyme. These
87 The major role of minor elements
inside living organisms is to act as (the energy required for substances to
inhibitors have structural resemblance react and get converted into product) of
with substrate molecules due to which [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
a reaction.
they easily bind with active site of an (a) binder of cell structure
enzyme and form an enzyme-inhibitor High
(b) cofactors of enzymes
complex. (c) building blocks of important amino Activation energy
E + I → EI complex Activation without
(inhibitor)
acids energy
(enzyme) catalyst
(d) constituent of hormones Energy with catalyst
85 Enzymes, vitamins and hormones content
Ans. (b) of
can be classified into a single Reactants
Though trace elements are required for molecules
category of biological chemicals, various uses, most of these have a
because all of these significant role in enzyme activities (e.g. Products
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] zinc activates carboxylases, carbonic Low
Progress of reaction
(a) help in regulating metabolism anhydrase and various dehydrogenases).
91 Feedback inhibition of an It has a proteinaceous part called 94 Enzymes having slightly different
enzymatic reaction is caused by apoenzyme and a non-proteinaceous molecular structure but
(a) end product [CBSE AIPMT 2000] part called cofactor. performing identical activity are
(b) substrate Holoenzyme a Apoenzyme [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(conjugated enzyme) (protein part)
(c) enzyme (a) homoenzymes (b) isoenzymes
(d) rise in temperature + Cofactor (c) apoenzymes (d) coenzymes
(non- protein part)
Ans. (a) Cofactor is very necessary for the Ans. (b)
activity of holoenzyme.
In feedback inhibition, the product of Isoenzymes (analogous enzymes) are
an enzyme-catalysed reaction Cofactors can be separated from multiple molecular forms of same
accumulates and acts as inhibitor of enzyme by dialysis. Cofactors may be enzyme with same substrate activity
inorganic (i.e. metal activators) or and found in the same organism. These
the reaction.
Glucose + ATP organic (i.e. coenzymes and prosthetic enzymes are formed by different genes,
group). have differentK m constants for their
Hexo-
kinase substrates and operate at different pH.
(enzyme) 93 An enzyme brings about About 100 enzymes are known to have
Inhibits
Glucose-6-phosphate
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] isoenzymes, e.g. LDH
(end product) (a) decrease in reaction time (Lacto-Dehydrogenase acting on
+ (b) increase in reaction time pyruvate to form lactate) has 5
ADP isoenzymes in man,α-amylase in wheat
(c) increase in activation energy
has 16 isoenzymes.
(d) reduction in activation energy
92 Cofactor (coenzyme) is a part of
holoenzyme it is [CBSE AIPMT 1997] Ans. (d) 95 Which of the following is not a part
(a) loosely attached inorganic part Enzymes act by reducing the amount of of enzyme but it activates the
(b) accessory non-protein substance activation energy. The binding energy is enzyme? [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
the source of energy used by enzyme to (a) K (b) C
attached firmly
lower the activation energy of reaction. (c) N (d) Si
(c) loosely attached organic part
Activation energy is the minimum
(d) None of the above energy required from outside to Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) overcome the energy barrier of Potassium (K + ) is an essential
reactants. Enzymes lower energy of element, loosely held to the
Coenzyme/cofactors are organic
activation by two ways-bringing apoenzyme part of the enzyme. K + is
substances (often vitamins) which are
reactants molecules together, and an inorganic cofactor (metal
loosely attached with apoenzymes. A
developing strain in bonds of reactants. activator) of enzyme pyruvate kinase.
holoenzyme is a conjugated enzyme.
10
Cell Cycle and
Cell Division
TOPIC 1 vulnerable. In the eukaryotic cell cycle, chromosomes arrange themselves at
chromosome duplication occurs during the equator on metaphasic plate. Due
The Cell Cycle ‘S phase’ (the phase of DNA synthesis) to this arrangement, the attachment of
and chromosome segregation occurs spindle fibres to kinetochore is clearly
01 The centriole undergoes during ‘M phase’ (the mitosis phase). visible.
duplication during [NEET 2021] During the G 2 phase, extra protein is
(a) S-phase (b) prophase often synthesised, and the organelles 04 Identify the correct statement
(c) metaphase (d) G 2 -phase multiply until there are enough for two with regard to G 1 -phase (Gap 1) of
cells. Other cell materials such as lipids interphase. [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Ans. (a)
for the membrane may also be (a) Reorganisation of all cell
During S phase or synthesis phase of
interphase replication of DNA and
produced. components, takes place.
synthesis of histone protein, The cell is in a quiescent (inactive) stage (b) Cell is metabolically active, grows
centromere and centrioles occur. that occurs when cells exit the cell but does not replicate its DNA
During the S phase, DNA replication cycle. Some cells enter G 0 temporarily (c) Nuclear division takes place
begins in the nucleus, and the until an external signal triggers the (d) DNA synthesis or replication takes
centriole duplicates in the cytoplasm onset of G 1 . Other cells that never or place
of the cell. rarely divide, such as mature cardiac
Ans. (b)
muscle and nerve cells, remain in G0
02 Match the List-I with List-II. The statement in option (b) is correct
permanently.
[NEET 2021] with regard to G 1 - phase of interphase
G 1 phase corresponds to the interval because during G 1 -phase the cell is
List-I List-II between mitosis and initiation of DNA metabolically active and continuously
A. S-phase 1. Proteins are replication. During G 1 phase the cell is grows but does not replicate its DNA.
synthesised metabolically active and continuously DNA synthesis takes place in S-phase.
B. G 2 -phase 2. Inactive phase grows but does not replicate its DNA. Nuclear division occurs during
karyokinesis.
C. Quiescent 3. Interval between
stage mitosis and initiation 03 Attachment of spindle fibres to Reorganisation of all cell components
of DNA replication kinetochores of chromosomes takes place in M-phase.
D. G 1 -phase 4. DNA replication becomes evident in
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] 05 Some dividing cells exist the cell
Choose the correct answer from (a) anaphase (b) telophase cycle and enter vegetative inactive
the options given below. (c) prophase (d) metaphase stage. This is called quiescent
A B C D stage (G 0 ). This process occurs at
(a) 3 2 1 4 Ans. (d)
the end of [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(b) 4 2 3 1 During the metaphase stage of cell
cycle, spindle fibres originating from (a) G1-phase (b) S-phase
(c) 4 1 2 3 (c) G 2-phase (d) M-phase
the centrosomes attaches to the
(d) 2 4 3 1 kinetochore of chromosomes. Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) Kinetochore is a disc-shaped structure
Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle
(A)-(4), (B)-(1), (C)-(2), (D)-(3) at the surface of centromere through
and enter vegetative inactive stage,
which the sister chromatids are held
During DNA replication, the unwinding called quiescent stage (G 0 ). This
together. During metaphase, the
of strands leaves a single strand process occurs at the end of M-phase
and beginning of G 1 -phase. Cells enter 09 During cell growth, DNA synthesis 12 Given below is a schematic
G 0 for varying amounts of time, and break-up of the phases/stages of
takes place in [NEET 2016, Phase II]
some cells enter the G 0 -phase and stay
(a) S-phase (b) G 1 -phase cell cycle
there forever. This is because once
they reach maturity, like nerve and (c) G 2 -phase (d) M-phase A
heart cells they do not divide again, so Ans. (a) B C
they stay in the G 0 -phase. In the cycle of cell division,interphase is
the longest phase consisting of G1 , S, Mitosis
06 Cells in G 0 phase G 2 -phases. In this phase cell prepares
[NEET (National) 2019] itself for cell division. In S or synthetic Interphase
(a) enter the cell cycle phase DNA duplication (synthesis) takes
place. D
(b) suspend the cell cycle
(c) terminate the cell cycle 10 During which phase(s) of cell cycle,
(d) exit the cell cycle amount of DNA in a cell remains at Which one of the following is the
Ans. (d) 4C level if the initial amount is correct indication of the
G 0 phase is the stage in which the cells stage/phase in the cell cycle?
denoted as 2C? [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
exit the cell cycle. It is the resting or [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
(a) G 0 and G1 (b) G 1 and S
quiescent phase in which the cells do (a) B-metaphase
(c) Only G 2 (d) G 2 and M
not divide. It is the permanent state for (b) C-karyokinesis
some cells, e.g., neurons. Ans. (d) (c) D-synthetic phase
During the S or synthetic phase, the (d) A-cytokinesis
07 The correct sequence of phases DNA content doubles, i.e., from 2C to
Ans. (c)
of cell cycle is 4C for all diploid cells. The G2 phase
follows the S-phase and is called Cell cycle completes in two steps, i.e.
second growth phase or pre mitotic gap interphase and M-phase. Interphase is
(a) G 1 → G 2 → S → M completed in three successive stages
phase. In G2 phase the synthesis of DNA
(b) S → G 1 → G 2 → M stops therefore, the DNA level remains G1 -phase (post mitotic phase), S-phase
(c) G 1 → S → G 2 → M 4C if initial was 2C. (synthetic phase) and G2 -phase
(premitotic or post synthetic phase). In
(d) M → G 1 → G 2 → S However, the formation of RNA and
the given figure, D is representing the
protein continue as they are required
Ans. (c) S-phase (synthetic phase) of cell cycle.
for the multiplication of cell
The correct sequence of phases of cell organelles, spindle formation and cell
cycle is 13 At what stage of the cell cycle are
growth. This amount becomes half
G1 → S → G2 → M (i.e.) 2C only during anaphase
histone proteins synthesised in a
Here G1 and G2 represent first and (in mitosis) when chromosomes eukaryotic cell?
separate. [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
second growth phase, respectively.
S-phase represents synthesis phase (a) During G 2-stage of prophase
during which DNA replicates. M-phase 11 In S-phase of the cell cycle (b) During S-phase
is mitotic phase during which cell [CBSE AIPMT 2014, 2000, 1996] (c) During entire prophase
begins to divide. (a) amount of DNA doubles in each (d) During telophase
cell Ans. (b)
08 When cell has stalled DNA (b) amount of DNA remains same in
During S-phase of cell cycle synthesis
replication fork, which checkpoint each cell of histone proteins takes place because
should be predominantly (c) chromosome number is increased at this stage the amount of DNA per cell
activated? [NEET 2016, Phase II] (d) amount of DNA is reduced to half get double to that of somatic number.
in each cell Histone proteins are basic proteins and
(a) G1 / S
are used in packing of eukaryotic
(b) G 2 /M Ans. (a)
(absent in prokaryotes) DNA. DNA and
(c) M S-phase is the synthesis phase in which histones together comprise chromatin,
(d) Both G 2 /M and M the cell synthesise a replica of its forming bulk of the eukaryotic
genome, i.e. DNA replication occurs by chromosomes. Histones are of five
Ans. (a) DNA polymerase. major kindsH1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4. H1
Stalled forks activate checkpoint DNA replication along with the histones link neighbouring
signaling and pause replication. Since, synthesis of histone proteins results in nucleosomes.
G 1 /S checkpoint checks DNA damage, the duplication of chromosomal
cells size prior to S-phase (i.e. DNA material, i.e., amount of DNA doubles 14 In the somatic cell cycle
replication phase), this checkpoint in each cell. [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
would be activated by stalled DNA Amount of DNA remains unchanged (a) in G1-phase DNA content is double
replication fork. during G1 -phase or post mitotic gap
the amount of DNA present in the
and/or G2 -phase or pre mitotic phase.
original cell
Cell Cycle and Cell Division 109
(b) DNA replication takes place in Ans. (a) Codes

S-phase During S phase or synthetic phase of A B C D
(c) a short interphase is followed by a interphase, replication of DNA and (a) 2 3 4 1
long mitotic phase synthesis of histone protein, (b) 3 4 1 2
(d) G 2-phase follows mitotic phase centromere and centrioles occur, but (c) 4 1 2 3
the number of chromosomes remains (d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (b) same from beginning till the end of S
DNA replication occurs during S-phase phase. Ans. (d)
of the mitotic cycle where it gets Hence, number of chromosome will
doubled as compared to that in the 20 After karyogamy followed by
remain 8 after the S phase in fruitfly.
original cell. meiosis, spores are produced
18 In a mitotic cycle, the correct exogenously in [NEET 2018]
15 Which of the following occurs (a) Agaricus (b) Alternaria
sequence of phases is
more than one and less than five [NEET (Oct.) 2020] (c) Neurospora (d) Saccharomyces
in a chromosome? (a) S,G1,G 2,M Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(b) G1,S,G 2,M Agaricus Meiospores are produced
(a) Chromatid exogenously after karyogamy and
(c) M, G1, G 2, S
(b) Chromosome meiosis. It belongs to Basidiomycetes.
(d) G1, G 2, S, M
(c) Centromere Alternaria belongs to the
(d) Telomere Ans. (b) Deuteromycetes class of fungi. The
In a mitotic cycle, the correct sequence fungi of this class lack sexual
Ans. (d) of phases is G1 , S, G2 , M. The first three reproduction. Therefore, sexual spores
A chromosome has one centromere, phases, i.e. G1 , S, G2 occurring during are not formed.
may have many chromomeres, two interphase whereas the M-phase is the
chromatids; but four telomeres (two Neurospora and Saccharomyces belong
period of actual cell division. The major
each at the opposite ends of each to Ascomycetes class of fungi. They
event occurring in each phase is
chromatid). produce ascopores as meiospores.
tabulated below
Their ascospores are produced
Phases Activities endogenously.
16 During cell division in apical
meristem the nuclear membrane G1 -phase Cell becomes metabolically Ascospores Basidiospores
active, enzymes and proteins
appears in [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
required for replication are
(a) metaphase (b) anaphase synthesised.
(c) telophase (d) cytokinesis S-phase Synthesis or replication of DNA Sterigma
Ans. (c) occurs so that amount of DNA Ascus
per cell gets doubled.
During telophase, nuclear envelope
initially reforms around each G2 -phase Proteins required for mitosis are Basidium
chromosome individually which later on synthesised while the growth
fuse to form complete nuclear of cell continues.
envelope. M-phase Cell divides to form daughter
Metaphase Chromosomes are cells.
Basidiospores
arranged on equatorial plate. Ascospores
Anaphase Chromosomes split 19 Match the following (Columns)
longitudinally. Chromatids migrate events that occur in their 21 Anaphase Promoting Complex
towards opposite poles. (APC) is a protein degradation
respective phases of cell cycle
Cytokinesis Division of cytoplasm. and select the correct option from machinery necessary for proper
the codes given below. mitosis of animals cells. If APC is
defective in a human cells, which
TOPIC 2 [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
of the following is expected to
Mitosis Column I Column II occur? [NEET 2017]
A. G 1 -phase 1. Cell grows and (a) Chromosomes will not condense
organelle
17 The fruit fly has 8 chromosomes duplication (b) Chromosomes will be fragmented
(2n) in each cell. During interphase (c) Chromosomes will not segregate
B. S phase 2. DNA replication
of mitosis, if the number of and chromosome (d) Recombination of chromosome
chromosomes at G 1 -phase is 8, duplication arms will occur
what would be the number of C. G 2 -phase 3. Cytoplasmic Ans. (c)
chromosomes after S-phase ? growth If anaphase promoting complex is
(a) 8 (b) 16 [NEET 2021] D. Metaphase 4. Alignment of defective in a human cell, the
(c) 4 (d) 32 in M-phase chromosomes chromosomes will not segregate during
anaphase of mitosis. APC triggers the
transition from metaphase to anaphase next stage called pachytene. These respective poles decondense, i.e.,
by tagging specific proteins for are not observed during mitosis. nuclear envelop reforms, Golgi complex
degradation. reforms, etc. In late anaphase
Concept Enhancer Anaphase stage of 24 Spindle fibres attach on to centromeres split and chromatid
mitosis is characterised by two events [NEET 2016, Phase I] separate and chromatid move to
(a) Splitting of centromeres and (a) kinetochore of the chromosome opposite poles. Cytokinesis is process
segregation of chromosomes. in which cell itself is divided two
(b) centromere of the chromosome
daughter cells.
(b) Movement of chromatids towards (c) kinetosome of the chromosome
the opposite poles. (d) telomere of the chromosome 27 Select the correct option with
22 Which of the following options Ans. (a) respect to mitosis.
Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
gives the correct sequences of
chromosomes during cell division. They (a) Chromatids start moving towards
events during mitosis ? [NEET 2017] help the chromosomes/chromatids to opposite poles in telophase
(a) Condensation → nuclear get separated to the two daughter cells, (b) Golgi complex and endoplasmic
membrane disassembly → towards opposite poles.
reticulum are still visible at the
crossing over → segregation → end of prophase
telophase 25 The complex formed by a pair of (c) Chromosomes move to the
(b) Condensation → nuclear synapsed homologous spindle equator and get aligned
membrane disassembly → chromosomes is called [NEET 2013] along equatorial plate in
arrangement at equator → (a) equatorial plate (b) kinetochore metaphase
centromere division →
(c) bivalent (d) axoneme (d) Chromatids separate but remains
segregation → telophase
Ans. (c) in the centre of the cell in
(c) Condensation → crossing over → anaphase
nuclear membrane disassembly → The process of pairing of homologous
segregation → telophase chromosomes is called synapsis. Each Ans. (c)
(d) Condensation → arrangement at pair of synapsed homologous In metaphase of mitosis, spindle fibres
equator → centromere division → chromosome called bivalent. attach to kinetochore of chromosomes.
segregation → telophase Chromosomes are moved to spindle
26 A stage in cell division is shown in equator and get aligned along
Ans. (b) metaphasic plate through spindle fibres
the figure. Select the answer
During mitosis following events occurs to both pole.
which gives correct identification
as follows
of the stage with its characteristic
Condensation of chromosomal 28 During mitosis ER and nucleolus
material, which takes place at an early mentioned. [NEET 2013]
begin to disappear at
prophase stage. During late prophase [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
nuclear membrane disintegrates. (a) late prophase
Then chromosomes get arranged at (b) early metaphase
equator in the metaphase stage. After
(c) late metaphase
that splitting of centromere and
(d) early prophase
segregation of chromosomes occur
in the anaphase stage. In telophase Ans. (d)
stage chromosomes move to opposite In mitosis, prophase is the longest
poles of the cell. It is last stage of phase of karyokinesis. In early
mitosis. (a) Telophase — Nuclear envelope prophase, nuclear membranes,
reforms, Golgi nucleolus start disintegrating. Cells
23 Which of the following is not a complex reforms
cytoskeleton, Golgi complex, ER, etc.
characteristic feature during (b) Late anaphase — Chromosomes move disappear.
away from equatorial
mitosis in somatic cells? plate, Golgi complex
[NEET 2016, Phase I] not present 29 Which stages of cell division do
(a) Disappearance of nucleolus (c) Cytokinesis — Cell plate formed, the following figures A and B
(b) Chromosome movement mitochondria represent respectively?
(c) Synapsis distributed between [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
two daughter cells
(d) Spindle fibres
(d) Telophase — Endoplasmic
Ans. (c) reticulum and
Synapsis is pairing of homologous nucleolus not
chromosomes. It occurs during reformed yet
zygotene stage of meiosis. The
Ans. (a)
homologous chromosomes come
closer leading to cross over in the Telophase is reverse of prophase. The B
A
chromosome that have reached their
(a) Metaphase – Telophase nuclear envelope during M-phase 35 During cell division, the spindle
(b) Telophase – Metaphase of the cell cycle? fibres attach to the chromosome
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] at a region called
(c) Late anaphase – Prophase
(a) Decondensation from [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(d) Prophase – Anaphase
chromosomes and reassembly of (a) Chromocentre (b) kinetochore
the nuclear lamina (c) centriole (d) chromomere
Ans. (c)
(b) Transcription from chromosomes
In the given figures Ans. (b)
and reassembly of the nuclear
A. Late anaphase is characterised by lamina During late prophase, specialised
following events structures called kinetochores develop
(c) Formation of the contractile ring
(i) Centromeres split and chromatids on either surface of the centromere.
and formation of the Chromosomal fibres get attached to
separate. phragmoplast kinetochore.
(ii) Chromatids move to opposite poles. (d) Formation of the contractile ring Chromomeres are beaded structures
B. Prophase is characterised by and transcription from on the chromosomes which are found
centriole separation. chromosomes particularly at the prophase-I
Ans. (a) (particularly at leptotene) of meiosis-I.
30 Centromere is required for
At telophase stage, nuclear membrane Chromocentre is developed due to the
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
vesicles associate with the surface of fusion of centromeric regions of all the
(a) movement of chromosomes chromosomes of a cell.
individual chromosomes and fuse to
towards poles
reform the nuclear membranes, which Centrosome is found in animal cells
(b) cytoplasmic cleavage partially enclose clusters of (absent in higher plant cells). It is found
(c) crossing over chromosomes before coalescing to near the nucleus. Each centrosome is
(d) transcription reform the complete nuclear envelope. made up of two centrioles and each
During this process the nuclear pores centriole is a cylindrical structure with a
Ans. (a)
reassemble and the dephosphorylated diameter of 1500-1800 Å and is made up
The arms of chromosome are known as reassociate to form the nuclear lamina. of nine fibrils.
chromatids. These arms are held One of the lamina proteins (lamina-B)
together at a point called the remains with the nuclear membrane 36 How many mitotic divisions are
centromere (or primary constriction). fragments throughout mitosis and may
Centromere occurs any where along the needed for a single cell to make
help nuclear reassembly. After the
length of chromosome. During cell nucleus reforms, the chromosome 128 cells? [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
division spindle fibres are attached to decondense and RNA synthesis (a) 7 (b) 14
centromere and help in the movement resumes, causing the nucleolus to (c) 28 (d) 64
of chromosomes towards the poles. reappear. Ans. (a)
31 If you are provided with root tips A single mitotic division results in the
33 Mitotic spindle is mainly production of two cells from single
of onion in your class and are composed of which protein? cell.
asked to count the chromosomes [CBSE AIPMT 2002] D1 D2 D3 D4 D5 D6 D7 D8
which of the following stages can (a) Actin (b) Myosin O O O O O O O O O
you most conveniently look into? (c) Actomyosin (d) Myoglobin

[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Ans. (a) 1 2 4 8 16 32 64 128
(a) Metaphase
Spindles formed during mitosis and
(b) Telophase meiosis are nothing but microtubule 37 Which one of the following
(c) Anaphase complex. Microtubules are made up structures will not be common to
(d) Prophase of small units of tubulin which has
mitotic cells of higher plants?
Ans. (a) amino acid composition similar to [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
At metaphase, the chromosomes are actin.
(a) Cell plate (b) Centriole
clearly visible as composed of two (c) Centromere (d) Spindle fibres
closely associated halves 34 Best material for the study of
(chromatids) and the chromosomes mitosis in laboratory is Ans. (b)
have undergone maximum [CBSE AIPMT 2002] Centrosome is found in animals,
contraction so, these can be counted (a) anther (b) root tip Euglena, Nitella, some fungi and
conveniently. In metaphase (c) leaf tip (d) ovary members of dinoflagellate. It is found
chromosome align in the equator of near the nucleus.
Ans. (b)
the cell before being separated into Centriole is not common to mitotic cell
each of the two daughter cells. Root tips have active meristematic of higher plants. Main function of
zone where cells divide mitotically centrosome is at the time of cell
leading to increase in the length of the division when the two centrioles
32 Which one of the following roots. This is the best site for the study separate and move on two poles. Aster
precedes reformation of the of mitosis, e.g. onion root tips. and spindle are formed from it which
help in the movement of chromatids. separation and cytokinesis. In fact, each (c) four chromatids and two
They form basal body, cilia, flagella, etc. polytene chromosome is formed by centromeres
Centriole is rich in tubulin and ATPase. pairing of two somatic homologous (d) four chromatids and four
chromosomes which undergo repeated
Centrioles replicate in G2 -phase of centromeres
endomitosis to form numerous strands
interphase of cell cycle but do not attached to a common large Ans. (c)
initiate cell division. chromocentre. Each pair of homologous chromosome
38 The point, at which polytene carrying one maternal and one paternal
41 Number of chromatids at chromosome of similar type is called
chromosomes appear to be metaphase is [CBSE AIPMT 1992] bivalent. Each chromosome has two
attached together, is called (a) two each in mitosis and meiosis sister chromatids and a centromere.
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] (b) two in mitosis and one in meiosis Thus, bivalents possesses four
(a) centriole (b) centromere (c) two in mitosis and four in meiosis chromatids, two centromeres. This
(c) chromomere (d) chromocentre (d) one in mitosis and two in meiosis bivalent with four chromatids is called
pachytene tetrad (quadrivalent).
Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
Polytene chromosomes are infact In metaphase, chromosomes are thick,
formed by pairing of two somatic shortest least coiled and minimum in
homologous chromosomes which size. Each chromosome has its both
TOPIC 3
undergo repeated endomitosis, forming chromatids attached at centromere, Meiosis
a number of strands. These strands oriented at the equator of spindle
remain attached to a common large apparatus.
chromocentre of all polytene In meiotic metaphase, each 44 Which stage of meiotic prophase
chromosomes and are rich in chromosome with two chromatids in a
heterochromatin. shows terminalisation of
bivalent is connected to the spindle
pole of its side by a kinetochore chiasmata as its distinctive
39 Best stage to observe shape, size microtubule instead of two as in feature?
and number of chromosomes is metaphase of mitosis. [NEET 2021]
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] (a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene
42 Mitotic anaphase differs from
(a) interphase (b) metaphase (c) Diakinesis (d) Pachytene
metaphase in possessing
(c) prophase (d) telophase [CBSE AIPMT 1991] Ans. (c)
Ans. (b) (a) same number of chromosomes Diakinesis is the final stage of meiotic
Metaphase can be characterised by and same number of chromatids prophase 1. In this stage the two
the chromosomes that are least (b) half number of chromosomes and homologous chromosomes do not
coiled which show maximum separate completely but remain
half number of chromatids
condensation and are shortest in attached together at one or more
(c) half number of chromosomes and
length. It is the best stage to study the points as indicated by ‘X’ arrangement
same number of chromatids
structure, size and number of known as chiasmata. The
(d) same number of chromosomes displacement of chiasmata is termed
chromosome in a cell. and half number of chromatids
Idiogram/karyotype of chromosomes as terminalisation of chiasmata
is prepared at metaphase. Ans. (d) which is completed in diakinesis
Mitotic metaphase is the best stage to phase.
40 In salivary gland observe the structure, size and number
chromosomes/polytene of chromosomes in a cell. Centromeres 45 Which of the following stages of
chromosomes pairing is of all chromosomes lie closely at meiosis involves division of
equator and their arms in different
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
directions towards poles.
centromere? [NEET 2021]
(a) absent Chromosomes are shortest in (a) Metaphase-I (b) Metaphase-lI
(b) occasional metaphase but thickest in anaphase. (c) Anaphase-II (d) Telophase-II
(c) formed between non-homologous In anaphase, centromere of each Ans. (c)
chromosomes chromosome divides so that each sister
chromatid now has its own centromere. During anaphase II, each pair of
(d) formed between homologous
Thus, mitotic anaphase differs from chromosomes is separated into two
chromosomes identical, independent chromosomes.
metaphase in possessing same number
Ans. (d) of chromosomes and half number of The chromosomes are separated by a
Polytene chromosomes/salivary gland chromatids. structure called the mitotic spindle
chromosomes was reported by Balbiani made up of many long proteins called
(1881) from cells of salivary glands of 43 A bivalent consists of microtubules, which are attached to a
Chironomus larva (insect of Diptera [CBSE AIPMT 1989] chromosome at one end and to the pole
group). The polytene chromosomes (a) two chromatids and one of a cell at the other end. The sister
become giant due to the centromere chromatids are separated
endoduplication, i.e., repeated simultaneously at their centromeres. The
(b) two chromatids and two
replication of chromatids without their separated chromosomes are then
centromeres
pulled by the spindle to opposite poles Ans. (a) 51 Match the stages of meiosis in
of the cell. Thus, the centromere splits, The correct option is (a). It can be column I to their characteristic
freeing the sister chromatids from each explained as follows features in column II and select
other. Other options can be explained
as: During zygotene phase the homologous the correct option using the codes
chromosomes pair or come together given below [NEET 2016, Phase II]
In metaphase I, the homologous pair of and forms synapsis.
chromosomes align on either side of Column I Column II
Crossing over takes place during
the equatorial plate.
pachytene stage and at each point of A. Pachytene 1. Pairing of
During metaphase II, the centromeres crossing over a chiasma is formed homologous
of the paired chromatids align along the chromosomes
between non-sister chromatids of
equatorial plate in both cells. homologous chromosomes. B. Metaphase-I 2. Terminalisation
During telophase II, the two groups of Chiasmata is the point of contact of chiasmata
chromosome once again get between the two non sister chromatids C. Diakinesis 3. Crossing-over
enclosed by nuclear envelope. of homologous chromosomes, takes place
chiasmata becomes visible during D. Zygotene 4. Chromosomes
46 During meiosis 1, in which stage diplotene stage. align at
synapsis takes place? Terminalisation of chiasmata gets equatorial plate
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] completed during diakinesis phase
(a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene where chromosomes gets freely Ans. (a)
(c) Diplotene (d) Leptotene distributed in the cytoplasm. Various phases of meiosis and their
Ans. (b) characteristic features are
49 After meiosis-I, the resultant Pachytene — Crossing-over takes place
During zygotene stage of meiosis-I, daughter cells have
chromosomes start pairing together Metaphase-I — Chromosomes align at
and this process of association is called equatorial plate
(a) same amount of DNA as in the Diakinesis — Terminalisation of
synapsis. Such paired chromosomes
parent cell in chiasmata
are called homologous chromosomes.
S-phase
Zygotene — Pairing of homologous
47 Dissolution of the synaptonemal (b) twice the amount of DNA in chromosomes
comparison to haploid gamete
complex occurs during
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] (c) same amount of DNA in 52 Arrange the following events of
comparison to haploid gamete meiosis in correct sequences.
(a) zygotene (b) diplotene
(d) four times the amount of DNA in [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(c) leptotene (d) pachytene
comparison to haploid gamete I. Crossing over
Ans. (b)
Ans. (b) II. Synapsis
Dissolution of the synaptonemal
After meiosis-I, the resultant daughter III. Terminalisation of chiasmata
complex occurs during diplotene
cells have twice the amount of DNA in
stage of prophase-I of meiosis-I. comparison to haploid gamete.
IV. Disapperance of nucleolus
Prophase of meiosis-I is long and Meiosis-I causes segregation of (a) II, I, IV, III (b) II, I, III, IV
complex. It is comprised of homologous pairs of chromosomes. (c) I, II, III, IV (d) II, III, IV, I
leptotene, zygotene, pachytene, However, each chromosome is
diplotene and diakinesis. During Ans. (b)
double-stranded, having two sister
diplotene, at most places chromatids due to DNA replication The correct sequence of events of
synaptonemal complex dissolves. before meiosis began. meiosis are
Synapsis in zygotene → Crossing
48 Match the following columns with 50 In meiosis crossing over is over in pachytene → Terminalisation
respect to meiosis. of chaismata in diplotene →
initiated at [NEET 2016, Phase I]
Disapperance of nucleolus in diakinesis.
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(a) leptotene (b) zygotene
Column I Column II (c) diplotene (d) pachytene 53 The enzyme recombinase is
A. Zygotene 1. Terminalisation Ans. (d) required at which stage of
B. Pachytene 2. Chiasmata Leptotene — Condensation of meiosis? [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
C. Diplotene 3. Crossing over chromatin (a) Pachytene (b) Zygotene

Zygotene — Synapsis of homologous (c) Diplotene (d) Diakinesis
D. Diakinesis 4. Synapsis chromosomes
Ans. (a)
Pachytene — Crossing over
Select the correct option. Crossing over is an enzymatic process
Diplotene — Dissolution of occurring during the pachytene stage
A B C D synaptonemal complex and appearance of prophase-I. The enzyme involved in
(a) 4 3 2 1 of chiasmata this process is called recombinase
(b) 1 2 4 3 which aids in the recombination of
Diakinesis — Terminalisation of
(c) 2 4 3 1 genes between homologous
chiasmata
(d) 3 4 1 2 chromosomes.
During zygotene stage, homologous Ans. (a) 59 The exchange of genetic material
chromosomes pair up by a process During zygotene stage of prophase-I of between chromatids of paired
called synapsis and form a complex meiosis-I, bivalent chromosomes homologous chromosomes during
bivalent structure. Diplotene is marked clearly appear as tetrads. Pachytene
by the dissolution of synaptonemal first meiotic division is called
stage is characterised by the
complex and chaisma formation. While [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
appearance of recombination nodules,
diakinesis is marked by terminalisation the sites at which crossing over (a) transformation (b) chiasmata
of chiasmata (i.e. chiasmata shifts (exchange of genetic material) occurs (c) crossing over (d) synapsis
towards periphery of chromosome). between non-sister chromatids of the
homologous chromosomes. Ans. (c)
54 Meiosis takes place in [NEET 2013] In pachytene stage of prophase-I of
57 Synapsis occurs between meiosis, there is breakage and
(a) meiocyte (b) conidia
reunion of chromatids, it results in
(c) gemmule (d) megaspore [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
exchange of segments between non-
(a) a male and a female gamete
Ans. (a) sister chromatids of a bivalent,
(b) mRNA and ribosomes
In diploid organisms, specialised cells known as crossing over. It leads to
called meiocytes (gamete mother cell) (c) spindle fibres and centromere recombination of linked genes/alleles
undergo meiosis. Conidia and (d) two homologous chromosomes and is a major source of continuous
gemmules are asexual reproductive Ans. (d) type of genetic variations in sexually
structures found in Penicillium and In zygotene of prophase-I, homologous reproducing organisms.
sponge respectively. Megaspores are chromosomes pair up. This process is
female gametes in plants which 60 Lampbrush chromosomes occur
called synapsis. One chromosome of
undergo sexual reproduction. the pair is from the male parent and one during [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
from the female parent. (a) prophase of mitosis
55 During gamete formation, the (b) diplotene of meiosis
enzyme recombinase participates 58 Crossing over that results in (c) metaphase of meiosis
during [CBSE AIPMT 2012] genetic recombination in higher (d) interphase
(a) metaphase-I (b) anaphase-II organisms occur between Ans. (b)
(c) prophase-I (d) prophase-II [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Lampbrush chromosomes were
Ans. (c) (a) sister chromatids of bivalent reported by W Flemming (1882) and
The pachytene stage of prophase-I of (b) non-sister chromatids of a described by Ruckert (1892) from nuclei
meiosis-I is characterised by the bivalent of yolk rich primary oocytes of newts
appearance of recombination nodules, (c) two daughter nuclei and frog (amphibians). These are also
the sites at which crossing over occurs (d) two different bivalents found in spermatocytes of many
between non-sister chromatids of the animals. These are found in permanent
homologous chromosomes. Crossing
Ans. (b) diplotene stage of meiosis and do not
over is the exchange of genetic material The process of crossing over takes undergo cell cycle.
between two homologous place in pachytene stage of prophase-I Each such chromosome has a double
chromosomes. It is also an enzyme of meiosis-I. In this process some main axis made up of DNA and histones.
mediated process and the enzyme genes of two non-sister chromatids of a The chromosomes are coiled and held
involved is called recombinase. bivalent are exchanged. at many places forming cross like
The process of crossing over is structure called chiasmata. Loops
56 Given below is the representation depicted arising laterally has uncoiled DNA which
helps in rapid transcription and yolk
of a certain event at a particular Sister chromatids of one synthesis.
stage of a type of cell division. duplicate chromosome
Which is this stage? Synapsis 61 Meiosis has evolutionary
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] significance because it results in
Sister chromatids of chromosome’s homologue
123 [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Adjacent (a) genetically similar daughters
non-sister
chromatids
Centromere (b) four daughter cells
(c) eggs and sperms
(d) recombinations
Crossing
over Chiasmata Ans. (d)
Recombination takes place in meiosis
(a) Prophase-I during meiosis but still Meiosis maintains the
Recombinant chromosome number constant. It
(b) Prophase-II during meiosis chromosomes
(c) Prophase of mitosis produces haploid gametes by reducing
the chromosome number to half.
(d) Both prophase and metaphase of Crossing over produces new
mitosis Crossing Over Process combination of linked genes and is
major source of genetic variation.
Also, distribution of bivalents which is 63 In meiosis, the daughter cells 64 Meiosis-I is reductional division.
at random in metaphase-I provides the
differ from parent cell as well as Meiosis-II is equational division due
secondary source of genetic variation
in the organisms and is essential for amongst themselves due to to [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
speciation and evolution. [CBSE AIPMT 1991] (a) pairing of homologous
(a) segregation, independent chromosomes
62 Meiosis-II performs assortment and crossing over (b) crossing over
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] (b) segregation and crossing over (c) separation of chromatids
(a) separation of sex chromosomes (c) independent assortment and (d) disjunction of homologous
(b) synthesis of DNA and centromeres crossing over chromosomes
(c) separation of homologous (d) segregation and independent
Ans. (c)
chromosomes assortment
Meiosis-I is called heterotypic division
(d) separation of chromatids Ans. (b) as the two chromatids of a
Ans. (d) The daughter cells differ from parent chromosome became genetically
cell as well as amongst themselves due different due to the crossing over.
Meiosis-II is homotypic or equational
to the segregation and crossing over Number of chromosomes is reduced to
division similar to mitosis but occurs in
taking place in them. Meiosis-I brings half, hence, called reduction division.
haploid nuclei. Meiosis-II is essential to
gene recombinations and haploidy of Meiosis-II is just like mitosis but occurs
separate out the chromatids of diad
number of chromosomes. Crossing in haploid nuclei, it is called homotypic
chromosomes to bring real haploidy in
over during pachytene produces new or equational division as the
amount of DNA. It also increases the
combination of genes and is the major chromosomes are distributed equally
number of daughter cells though the
source of new genetic variations in the into daughter cells and chromosome
chromosome number remains the same
sexually reproducing organisms. number remains the same in daughter
in daughter cells as produced after
cells.
meiosis-I.
11
Transport in Plants
TOPIC 1 Ans. (b) (c) Anaerobic respiration
Means of Transport Option (b) is not a feature of active (d) Imbibition
transport of solutes in plants. Active Ans. (d)
transport of solutes in plants is carried
01 The main difference between If certain substances for example seeds
out by membrane proteins. Like
are dropped in water, within a few hour
active and passive transport enzymes, the carrier proteins are very
they absorbs the water and swell up
across cell membrane is specific (i.e. selective) in what they
considerably. These substances are
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] carry across the membranes. Active
called imbibants and the phenomenon
(a) passive transport is non-selective transport uses energy (ATP) to pump
is known as imbibition. The blast
whereas active transport is molecules against a concentration
occurred due to increasing imbibitional
gradient.
selective pressure whose magnitude is extremely
(b) passive transport requires a high.
03 Water entering root due to diffusion
concentration gradient across a
is part of [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
biological membrane whereas
active transport requires energy (a) endosmosis TOPIC 2
to move solutes (b) osmosis
(c) passive transport is confined to (c) passive absorption Plant-Water Relation
anionic carrier proteins whereas (d) active absorption
active transport is confined to 05 The process responsible for
Ans. (c)
cationic channel proteins facilitating loss of water in liquid
Most of the water is absorbed by the
(d) active transport occurs more
plants passively. The force for this type
form from the tip of grass blades
rapidly than passive transport at night and in early morning is
of water absorption originates in the
Ans. (b) aerial parts of the plant due to the loss [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
The main difference between active of water in transpiration. The root (a) root pressure
and passive transport across the cell is serves only as pathway and is not (b) imbibition
that passive transport requires actively involved in this process. (c) plasmolysis
concentration gradient across (d) transpiration
biological membrane whereas during 04 An innovative professor who
active transport, the movement of wanted to give a live demonstration Ans. (a)
molecules is from high concentration to of a physiological process, filled a Root pressure is positive hydrostatic
low concentration that means they pressure. It develops in tracheary
glass bottle with previously element at night and in early morning.
move against the concentration
gradient by using ATP. moistened mustard seeds and Which results loss of water in liquid
water. He screwcapped the bottle form from tip of grass blades.
02 Which of the following is not a and kept it away in a corner and Imbibition is the process by which
feature of active transport of resumed his lecture. Towards the colloidal soild particles absorb water
solutes in plants? end of his lecture there was a and swell without being dissolved.
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] sudden explosion with glass pieces Which results loss ofwater in liquid
of bottle thrown around. form from tip of grass blades.
(a) Occurs against concentration
gradient Which of the following phenomena Plasmolysis is the process in which
cells lose water in a hypertonic solution.
(b) Non-selective did the professor want to
Transpiration is the loss of water
(c) Occurs through membranes demonstrate? [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
from a plant in the form of water
(d) Requires ATP (a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis vapour.
Transport in Plants 117
06 Xylem translocates 09 Water enters a cell due to 13 Osmotic pressure in the leaf cells is
[NEET (National) 2019] [CBSE AIPMT 2001] positive during [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) water and mineral salts only (a) OP (b) SP (c) TP (d) WP (a) excessive transpiration
(b) water, mineral salts and some (b) low transpiration
Ans. (b)
organic nitrogen only (c) excessive absorption
Suction pressure (also called DPD) is
(c) water, mineral salts, some organic (d) guttation
believed to suck water (cause
nitrogen and hormones movement of water molecule) from Ans. (a)
(d) water only pure solvent/hypotonic solution. It is a Osmotic pressure in the leaf cells is
Ans. (c) measure of the ability of the cells to positive during excessive transpiration.
Xylem in plants helps in the absorb water. BS Meyer (1938) coined Transpiration is a physical and
translocation of water, mineral salts, the term suction pressure or DPD. physiological process in which aerial
some organic nitrogen and hormones parts of a living plant remove water in
from the soil to the aerial parts of the 10 In soil, water available for roots the form of vapours. As the water is
plant. This process is known as the (to plants) is [CBSE AIPMT 1999, 91] lost from the leaf surface by
ascent of sap and it involves four major (a) capillary water transpiration, osmotic pressure of the
forces namely root pressure, capillarity, (b) hygroscopic water leaf cells increases.
transpirational pull and cohesion and (c) gravitational water
adhesion of water molecule and 14 The movement of water from one
(d) chemically bound water cell of the cortex to the adjacent
cell wall.
Ans. (a) one in roots is due to
07 The water potential of pure water Water is present in the space between (a) accumulation of inorganic salts in
is [NEET 2017] the soil particles. A large proportion of the cells
(a) zero water is retained between the soil (b) accumulation of organic
particles against the gravitational compounds in the cells
(b) less than zero
force. This is called capillary water. It is (c) chemical potential gradient
(c) more than zero, but less than one readily available to plants for absorption
(d) more than one by roots. (d) water potential gradient
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
The value of water potential of pure
11 The water potential and osmotic Water potential is the difference in the
water is highest and it is zero. Water potential of pure water are chemical potential per unit molal
molecules possess kinetic energy. [CBSE AIPMT 1998] volume of water in a system and that of
Greater the concentration of water in a (a) 100 and zero (b) zero and zero pure water at the same temperature
system, greater is its kinetic energy or (c) 100 and 200 (d) zero and 100 and pressure. Water always moves
its water potential. from the area of high water potential to
Ans. (b) the area of low water potential.
If we add solute in water, the solution
The term water potential indicates the
has fewer free water molecule and 15 The direction and rate of water
net tendency of any system to donate
concentration of water decreases thus
reducing its water potential.
water to its surroundings. The water movement from cell to cell is
potential of pure water at atmospheric based on [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
08 Two cells A and B are contiguous. pressure is zero. Any addition of solute (a) WP (b) TP
to this water reduces its water potential
Cell A has osmotic pressure 10 (c) DPD (d) incipient plasmolysis
and makes its value negative. The
atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and osmotic potential of pure water also Ans. (c)
diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. would be zero. The difference between the diffusion
Cell B has osmotic pressure 8 atm, pressure of the solution and its solvents
turgor pressure 3 atm and 12 If turgidity of a cell surrounded by at a particular temperature and
diffusion pressure deficit 5 atm. water increases, the wall pressure atmospheric condition is called DPD.
will [CBSE AIPMT 1997] The direction and rate of water
The result will be movement from cell to cell is based on
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (a) increase DPD (Diffusion Pressure Deficit).
(a) movement of water from cell B-A (b) decrease
(b) no movement of water (c) fluctuate 16 Water potential can be obtained
(c) equilibrium between the two (d) remain unchanged by [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(d) movement of water from cell A-B Ans. (a) (a) OP + TP (b) OP = WP
Ans. (d) If a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic (c) ΨS + ΨP (d) OP – DPD
solution/pure water, water starts Ans. (c)
The water moves from lower DPD to
moving in by endosmosis. As the
higher DPD, i.e. from cell A to cell B. Water potential is the difference
volume of the protoplast increases, it
This is because when a cell is placed in between the free energy of water in a
begins to exert pressure against the
pure water, the water enters into the system and free energy of pure water. It
cell wall (turgor pressure). The cell wall can be obtained by ΨW = ΨS + ΨP . It is a
cell as a result of the diffusion pressure
exerts equal and opposite pressure function of solute potential and
deficient (DPD) of cell sap.
(wall pressure) on the protoplast.
DPD = OP − TP. pressure potential.
17 Mainly conduction of water in an strong for water, especially with other depends on cohesion, adhesion and
molecules bearing positive or negative surface tension property of water. Due
angiosperm occurs through
charges. to these forces only transpiration
[CBSE AIPMT 1990]
At liquid-air interfaces, surface tension driven ascent of xylem sap occurs.
(a) tracheids (b) xylem vessels
results from the greater attraction of
(c) sieve tubes (d) All of these liquid molecules to each other 23 Which of the following criteria
Ans. (b) (cohesion) than to the molecules in the does not pertain to facilitated
The water absorbed by roots has to be air (adhesion). The process by which transport? [NEET 2013]
conducted upward so as to meet the plants loose water in liquid form usually (a) Requirement of special membrane
needs of tissues there. Water moves up from tips and margins of leaves is called proteins
through the lumen of xylem vessels. guttation.
(b) High selectivity
(c) Transport saturation
18 Root system in a plant is well 20 A few drops of sap were collected
(d) Uphill transport
developed [CBSE AIPMT 1990] by cutting across a plant stem by a
(a) due to deficiency of auxins suitable method. The sap was Ans. (d)
(b) due to deficiency of cytokinins Uphill transport is a process in which
tested chemically. Which one of
(c) due to deficiency of minerals diffusion of a component occurs from a
the following test results indicates less concentrated stream to a more
(d) for increased absorption of water
that it is phloem sap? concentrated permeable stream.
Ans. (d) [NEET 2016, Phase II] Facilitated transport is a form of passive
Water in land plants is mainly absorbed (a) Acidic transport in which materials are moved
through the roots, especially at the tips (b) Alkaline across the plasma membrane by a
in the region of root hairs. Therefore, (c) Low refractive index transport protein down their
root system in a plant is well developed, (d) The absence of sugar concentration gradient.
for increasing absorption of water. It requires integral membrane proteins
Ans. (b)
and highly selective biological
The phloem sap is alkaline in nature. It membranes to cross. Saturation occurs
TOPIC 3 continuously pumps protons from its in facilitated, diffusion because not
Ascent of Sap companion cells to the other neighbouring enough carriers may be available to
cells during transport of sugars. handle all the free solute molecules.
The rate of movement may reach a
19 Match the List-I with List-II. 21 Root pressure develops due to maximum. Thus, uphill transport does
[NEET 2021] [CBSE AIPMT 2015] not pertain to faciliated transport.
List-I List-II (a) active absorption
A. Cohesion 1. More attraction in (b) low osmotic potential in soil 24 The rupture and fractionation do
liquid phase (c) passive absorption not usually occur in the water
B. Adhesion 2. Mutual attraction (d) increase in transpiration column in vessel/tracheids during
among water
molecules Ans. (a) the ascent of sap because of
Root pressure is the positive pressure [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
C. Surface 3. Water loss in liquid
tension phase that develops in the roots of plants by (a) lignified thick walls
D. Guttation 4. Attraction towards the active absorption of nutrients from (b) cohesion and adhesion
polar surfaces the soil. When the nutrients are actively (c) weak gravitational pull
absorbed by root hairs, water (along (d) transpiration pull
Choose the correct answer from with minerals) increases the pressure in
the xylem. This pressure pushes water Ans. (b)
up to small heights. The vertical conduction of water from
A B C D
root to aerial parts of plant is called
(a) 2 4 1 3 22 A column of water within xylem ascent of sap. The water molecules
(b) 4 3 2 1 vessels of tall trees does not remain joined to each other due to a
(c) 3 1 4 2 break under its weight because of force of attraction called cohesion force.
(d) 2 1 4 3 [CBSE AIPMT 2015] This attraction is due to the presence of
hydrogen bonds between them.
Ans. (a) (a) dissolved sugars in water
The magnitude of this force is very high
(A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(3) (b) tensile strength of water therefore, continuous water column in
Cohesion is the property of like molecules (c) lignification of xylem vessels the xylem cannot be broken easily due
(of the same substance) to stick to each (d) positive root pressure to the force of gravity or other
other due to mutual attraction, e.g. obstructions offered by internal tissues
Ans. (b) in the upward movement of water. This
attraction of water molecules.
A column of water within xylem vessels adhesive property of water i.e.,
Adhesion is the property of different of tall trees does not break under its attraction between the water
molecules or surfaces to cling to each weight because of high tensile strength molecules and the walls of xylem also
other. Adhesion is the attraction of of water, i.e. an ability to resist a pulling ensures the continuity of water column
molecules of one kind for molecules of force. This high tensile property in xylem.
a different kind, and it can be quite
25 Meaningful girdling (ringing) exchange but are also the main source
TOPIC 4 of transpiration. Stomatal movements
experiment cannot be performed
within sugarcane because Transpiration are affected by many factors like light,
temperature and CO2 concentration. In
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] the majority of plants, the stomata are
(a) its phloem is situated interior to 28 Grass leaves curl inwards during open in light and close in darkness.
xylem very dry weather.Select the most Normally high temperature above30° C
(b) its stem surface is covered with appropriate reason from the reduces stomatal opening in many
waxy coating following [NEET (National) 2019] species. Low CO2 concentration usually
(c) its vascular bundles are not (a) Flaccidity of bulliform cells induces opening of stomata while high
present in a ring CO2 concentration closes the same.
(b) Shrinkage of air spaces in spongy
(d) its stem is thin mesophyll 31 Stomata in grass leaf are
Ans. (c) (c) Tyloses in vessels (a) rectangular [NEET 2018]
In ringing experiment removal of bark (d) Closure of stomata
(b) kidney-shaped
breaks the continuity of epidermis, Ans. (a)
cortex and phloem. It shows clearly that (c) dumb-bell-shaped
epidermis, cortex and phloem do not Flaccidity of bulliform cells is the most (d) barrel-shaped
take part in transport of sap or water. appropriate reason for the curling of
grass leaves during dry weather. Ans. (c)
In sugarcane (monocot) the vascular Epidermis of all green aerial parts of
bundles are scattered, therefore, Bulliform cells are present between the
epidermal cells of the leaf and they help plants contain minute opening called
ringing experiment is not applicable. stomata. It is surrounded by guard cells
to minimise the water loss due to
transpiration during water stress and neighbouring subsidiary cells
period. collectivity termed as stomatal
Leave for apparatus. Kidney-shaped or
a week 29 Stomatal movement is not bean-shaped guard cells are present in
affected by dicots only, while in monocots like
grasses, these cells are dumb-bell
(a) O 2 concentration [NEET 2018] shaped. Guard cells differ from rest of
(b) Light the cells in shape, size and thickenings.
(c) Temperature Epidermal
(d) CO 2 concentration cells
ring of bank and A swelling Subsidiary
phloem removed above the ring Ans. (a) cells
Chloroplast
Stomatal movement is not affected by Guard cells
26 Guttation is caused by CO2 concentration. Stomata are tiny Stomatal
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] pore complexes found in the epidermis aperture
(a) transpiration of leaves and other soft aerial parts. (a) Nucleus (b)
They are meant for the gaseous Bean-shaped guard cells Dumb-bell guard cells
(b) osmosis/DPD
exchange but are also the main source Stomatal apparatus
(c) root pressure of transpiration. Stomatal movements
(d) osmotic pressure are affected by many factors like light, 32 Which of the following facilitates
temperature and CO2 concentration. In opening of stomatal aperture ?
Ans. (c)
the majority of plants, the stomata are
Guttation refers to the exudation of open in light and close in darkness. (a) Contraction of outer wall of guard
droplets of liquid water from the cells [NEET 2017]
Normally high temperature above30° C
margins and tip of leaves through a
reduces stomatal opening in many (b) Decrease in turgidity of guard cells
group of cells called hydathodes.
Guttation depends on root pressure. species. Low CO2 concentration usually (c) Radial orientation of cellulose
induces opening of stomata while high microfibrils in the cell wall of
27 Soil water available to roots is CO2 concentration closes the same. guard cells
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] (d) Longitudinal orientation of
30 Stomatal movement is not
(a) surface water cellulose microfibrils in the cell
affected by [NEET 2018]
wall of guard cells
(b) hygroscopic water
(a) O 2 concentration
(c) gravitational water Ans. (c)
(b) Light
(d) capillary water Stomata are tiny pore complexes. Each
(c) Temperature
Ans. (d) stomata is surrounded by two
(d) CO 2 concentration specialised green epidermal cells called
Water, which is mainly held between
Ans. (a) guard cells. The opening of the stoma is
the spaces of soil particles forming a
facilitated by the orientation of the
septum of capillaries, is called capillary Stomatal movement is not affected by
water. It is most important form of microfibril in the cell walls of the guard
O2 concentration. Stomata are tiny
water which is mainly taken by the cells. Cellulose microfibrils are oriented
pore complexes found in the epidermis
plants. radially rather than longitudinally
of leaves and other soft aerial parts.
making it easier for the stoma to open.
They are meant for the gaseous
33 Water vapour comes out from the vapour into the atmosphere. This Ans. (b)
process is known as transpiration.
plant leaf through the stomatal Potometer is an apparatus for
opening. Through the same measuring the rate of transpiration. It is
36 Stomata of a plant open due to also known as Transpirometer.
stomatal opening carbon dioxide [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
diffuses into the plant during (a) influx of hydrogen ions 40 Which of the following is an
photosynthesis. Reason out the (b) influx of calcium ions effective adaptation for better gas
above statements using the (c) influx of potassium ions exchange in plants?
following options. (d) efflux of potassium ions [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
[NEET 2016, Phase I]
Ans. (c) (a) Presence of multiple epidermis
(a) Both processes can happen (b) Presence of hair on the lower
together because the diffusion Accumulation of K+ ions in the guard
cells during the day time is responsible epidermis
coefficient of water and CO 2 is
for migration of water molecules from (c) Presence of waxy cuticle covering
different
subsidiary cells to guard cells. This the epidermis of the leaves
(b) The above processes happen only increases turgidity of guard cells and (d) The location of the stomata
during night time thus stomata open. primarily on the lower surface of
(c) One process occurs during day the leaf, the side turned away
time and the other at night 37 Opening and closing of stomata is from the direct sun rays
(d) Both processes cannot happen due to [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
simultaneously Ans. (d)
(a) hormonal change in guard cells
Stomata are meant for the gaseous
Ans. (a) (b) change in turgor pressure of guard exchange but are also the main source
Diffusion of water vapour and CO2 are cells of transpiration. The presence of
independent process. Their diffusion (c) gaseous exchange stomata on the lower surface of leaf,
depends on the difference in their (d) respiration the side turned away from the direct
partial pressure in the atmosphere as sun rays is an effective adaptation for
well as inside the leaves. Ans. (b) better gaseous exchange in plants.
When the guard cells become turgid,
34 In land plants, the guard cells the stomata open. On the other hand, if 41 Conversion of starch to organic
differ from other epidermal cells in the guard cells loose water, these acid is essential for
having [CBSE AIPMT 2011] become flaccid, the inner walls sag and [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(a) mitochondria the pore closes.
(a) stomatal closure
(b) endoplasmic reticulum Thus, stomatal movement occurs due (b) stomatal opening
to changes in turgor pressure of guard (c) stomatal initiation
(c) chloroplasts
cells. (d) stomatal growth
(d) cytoskeleton
38 Glycolate induces opening of Ans. (b)
Ans. (c)
stomata in [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
The starch hydrolyse into glucose
The guard cells of stomata in land
(a) presence of oxygen 1-phosphate so that, osmotic potential
plants are specialised epidermal cells
which contain chloroplasts. In rest of (b) low CO 2 concentration becomes lower in guard cells. As a
epidermal cells, chloroplasts are (c) high CO 2 concentration result of this water enters into the
absent. The chloroplasts of guard (d) absence of CO2 guard cell by osmotic diffusion from
cells are capable of poor surrounding epidermal and mesophyll
Ans. (b)
photosynthesis as there is absence cells. Guard cells become turgid and
Light causes photosynthesis which stomata will open. The starch-sugar
of NADP reductase enzyme.
leads to reduction in CO2 concentration interconversion theory about the
35 Guard cells help in → synthesis of glycolate → oxidation of mechanism of stomatal movement was
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] glycolate → ATP synthesis → activation given by Seyere (1923) and modified by
(a) protection against grazing of K + pump → movement of K + in guard Steward (1964).
(b) transpiration cell → movement of water into guard
(c) guttation cells → swelling of guard cell→ opening 42 In guard cells when sugar is
(d) fighting against infection of stomata.
converted into starch the stomatal
Ans. (b) pore [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
Guard cells help in transpiration. 39 Which of the following is used to
(a) opens fully
Stomata are surrounded by two determine the rate of transpiration
(b) opens partially
specialised epidermal cells, called in plants? [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(c) closes completely
guard cells. Because of their small size (a) Porometer
guard cells are rapidly influenced by (d) remains unchanged
(b) Potometer
turgor changes and thus regulate the Ans. (c)
opening and closing of stomata.
(c) Auxanometer
(d) Tensiometer According to starch-sugar
Stomata are involved in releasing water interconversion theory, during night the
glucose 1-phosphate (sugar) converts (a) increases transpiration requiring food). Later, the food in sink is
into starch in guard cells and thus (b) reduces transpiration mobilised towards the growing buds of
increasing the osmotic potential. The (c) increases rate of photosynthesis the plant.
guard cells release water, become
(d) causes guttation
flaccid and stomata closes. 49 The translocation of organic
Ans. (b)
solutes in sieve tube members is
43 In a terrestrial habitat which of the Phenyl mercuric acetate is an
supported by [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
following is affected by antitranspirant. It covers the stomata
as a film and resist the diffusion of (a) P-proteins
temperature and rainfall (b) mass flow involving a carrier and
water therefore, reduces the rate of
condition? [CBSE AIPMT 1989] transpiration. Other antitranspirants ATP
(a) Translocation include Abscisic Acid (ABA) and aspirin. (c) cytoplasmic streaming
(b) Transpiration (d) root pressure and transpiration
(c) Transformation pull
(d) Thermodenaturation TOPIC 5 Ans. (b)
Ans. (b)
Phloem Transport According to mass flow hypothesis the
Transpiration increases with increase in transport of organic solutes takes place
temperature and decreases with rainfall from source to sink, this transport also
conditions. Transpiration will also depends on metabolic energy.
depends on number of stomata as more
47 Select the incorrect statement.
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] According to cytoplasmic streaming
stomata may provide more pores for hypothesis (which was given by de
transpiration. (a) Transport of molecules in phloem
Vries, 1885) the transport of organic
can be bidirectional
solutes takes place by combination of
44 Basis of stomatal opening is (b) Movement of minerals in xylem is diffusion and cytoplasmic streaming.
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] unidirectional Cytoplasmic streaming carry organic
(a) exosmosis (c) Unloading of sucrose at sink does solutes from one and to the other end
(b) endosmosis not involve the utilisation of ATP of sieve tube.
(c) decrease in cell sap concentration (d) Elements most easily mobilised in P-proteins has a role as defence
(d) plasmolysis of guard cells plants from one region to another against phloem feeding insects and
are phosphorus, sulphur, nitrogen sealing of damaged sieve tubes.
Ans. (b) and potassium
The entry of water into a cell when 50 Loading of phloem is related to
Ans. (c)
placed in less concentrated solution is [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
called endosmosis. Due to increase in Statement (c) is incorrect. It can be
corrected as Unloading of sucrose at (a) increases of sugar in phloem
osmotic pressure and diffusion
pressure deficit of guard cells sink does require utilisation of ATP. (b) elongation of phloem cell
endosmosis of water from the Long distance transport of sucrose (c) separation of phloem parenchyma
surrounding epidermal and mesophyll from the source to sink is carried out by (d) strengthening of phloem fibre
cells takes place into the guard cells. phloem. It is a bidirectional movement.
Ans. (a)
The guard cells swell and the stomata Both loading of food at the source and
unloading of the same at sink region are Sugar synthesied in leaves (source) is
open.
active processes, i.e. require energy in ‘loaded’ in phloem through which it is
the form of ATP. transported to all other parts of plants
45 Stomata in angiosperms open and where it is required (sinks).
close due to [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
48 What is the direction of movement
(a) their genetic constitution 51 Translocation of carbohydrate
(b) effect of hormones of sugars in phloem?
nutrients usually occurs in the
(c) change of turgor pressure in form of [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
guard cells (a) Upward
(b) Downward (a) glucose (b) maltose
(d) pressure of gases inside the (c) starch (d) sucrose
leaves (c) Bidirectional
(d) Non-multidirectional Ans. (d)
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c) In plants, translocation, i.e. the
The turgor pressure of guard cell movement of organic nutrients from
increases due to the osmotic diffusion Sugars show bidirectional movements the region of supply to the region of
of water from the surrounding in phloem unlike unidirectional sink or utilisation occurs through
epidermal and mesophyll cells. Thus, movement of water in xylem. In phloem, phloem (sieve tube/sieve cells) tissue.
the guard cells swell and stomata open. sugars move in both directions Translocated organic nutrients
depending upon the source-sink constitute 10-26% carbohydrates
46 The spraying of phenyl mercuric relationship. (usually sucrose) and 1% nitrogenous
acetate in leaves Initially leaves act as source of ‘food components (mostly amino acids).
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] from where it moves to the sink (parts
12
Mineral Nutrition
TOPIC 1 Ans. (c) 05 Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen
Inorganic Nutrients According to NCERT, plants absorb iron and potassium are visible first in
mostly in the form of ferric (Fe3 + ) ions. [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
However, plants in acidic soil can (a) senescent leaves
01 Match the following concerning absorb iron in ferrous (Fe2 + ) as well as (b) young leaves
ferric (Fe3 + ) form. It is an important
essential elements and their constituent of proteins involved in the
(c) roots
functions in plants. transfer of electrons like ferredoxin and (d) buds
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] cytochromes. It is reversibly oxidised Ans. (a)
from Fe2 + to Fe3 + during electron
Deficiency of both nitrogen and (N)
Column I Column II transfer. It activates catalase enzyme.
potassium (K) is first visible in senescent
A. Iron 1. Photolysis of water It is essential for the formation of
(older) leaves, due to the deficiency
chlorophyll.
B. Zinc 2. Pollen germination symptoms of N chlorosis occurs while,
the deficiency of K causes the inhibition
C. Boron 3. Required for 03 In which of the following, all three of protein synthesis and scorching of
chlorophyll are macronutrients? older leaves.
biosynthesis
D. Manganese 4. IAA biosynthesis (a) Iron, copper, molybdenum 06 Which one of the following is
(b) Molybdenum, magnesium, correctly matched?
Select the correct option. [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
manganese
A B C D (a) Passive transport of nutrients –
(c) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus
(a) 4 3 2 1 ATP
(d) Boron, zinc, manganese
(b) 3 4 2 1 (b) Apoplast – Plasmodesmata
(c) 4 1 2 3 Ans. (c)
(c) Potassium – Readily
(d) 2 1 4 3 None of the option is correct w.r.t. immobilisation
question. The option (a) seems to be
Ans. (b) (d) Bakane of rice seedlings – F Skoog
more appropriate.
The correct option is (b). It can be None of the option consist of all three Ans. (c)
explained as follows macronutrients, But option (c) have Active transport of nutrients require
Iron – essential for the formation of nitrogen and phosphorus which are ATP. Symplast includes translocation
chlorophyll. macronutrients, but nickel is a through plasmodesmata. Bakane
Zinc – needed for synthesis of auxin micronutrients. disease of rice was found by Hori (1918)
to be caused due to Gibberella fujikuroi.
Boron – have a role in pollen grain None of the options is correct. Option
germination 04 Which is essential for the growth
(c) may be correct if statement be read
Manganese – is involved in the splitting of root tip? [NEET 2016, Phase II] as “Potassium readily mobilisation”
of water to liberate O 2 during (a) Zn instead of “potassium readily
photosynthesis. (b) Fe immobilisation.
(c) Ca
02 In which of the following forms is (d) Mn 07 Which one of the following
iron absorbed by plants? elements in plants is not
Ans. (c)
[NEET 2018] remobilised? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Calcium is needed to the growing root
(a) Free element (a) Calcium
tip. It is required in the formation of
(b) Ferrous middle lamella of the cell wall present in (b) Potassium
(c) Ferric the form of calcium pectate. Thus, (c) Sulphur
(d) Both ferric and ferrous correct answer is (c). (d) Phosphorus
Mineral Nutrition 123
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) (c) calcium, magnesium and sulphur

Element like calcium are a part of Magnesium is an important constituent (d) carbon, nitrogen and hydrogen
structural component of the cell and of chlorophyll molecule. Thus, a plant
Ans. (a)
hence, are not released. The requires magnesium for chlorophyll
synthesis. The four most common elements in
deficiency symptoms tend to appear
living organisms are H, C, O, N. These
first in the young tissues whenever,
12 The deficiencies of micronutrients, are also called as framework element.
the elements are not demobilised.
not only affects growth of plants
08 Which one of the following is not a but also vital functions such as 16 Passive absorption of minerals
micronutrient? photosynthetic and mitochondrial depend on [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
[CBSE AIPMT 2010, 03] electron flow. Among the list given (a) temperature
(a) Molybdenum (b) Magnesium below, which group of three (b) temperature and metabolic
(c) Zinc (d) Boron elements shall affect most, both inhibitor
photosynthetic and mitochondrial (c) metabolic inhibitor
Ans. (b)
electron transport? (d) humidity
Magnisium is an essential
macrountrient found from 0.2-0.4% dry [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
Ans. (a)
matter and is necessary for normal (a) Co, Ni, Mo (b) Ca, K, Na Metabolic inhibitors affect active
plant growth. (c) Mn, Co, Ca (d) Cu, Mn, Fe absorption. Humidity does not affect
Magnesium has an important role in Ans. (d) absorption of minerals as much as
photosynthesis because it forms the temperature.
Micronutrients are minerals obtained
central atom of chlorophyll. The movement of mineral ions into the
from the soil and present in plant
tissues at concentrations usually less root cells by the process of simple
09 Manganese is required in than 3 µmol g –1 dry matter. Cu (copper), diffusion is called as passive
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] Mn (manganese) and Fe (iron) are those absorption. This is spontaneous
(a) nucleic acid synthesis micronutrients which affect both process and does not require energy.
(b) plant cell wall formation photosynthesis and mitochondrial
(c) photolysis of water during electron transport because they are the 17 Zinc as a nutrient is used by the
photosynthesis main constituents of various electron plants in the form of
carriers. [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(d) chlorophyll synthesis
(a) Zn (b) Zn 2 +
Ans. (c) 13 Boron in green plants assists in (c) ZnO (d) ZnSO 4
In plants, manganese is absorbed in the [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
form of manganous ions (Mn2 + ). It (a) sugar transport Ans. (b)
activates many enzymes involved in (b) activation of enzymes Zinc is taken up by the plants in the
photosynthesis, respiration and (c) acting as enzyme cofactor form of Zn2 + . It is required for
nitrogen metabolism. The best defined biosynthesis of chlorophyll in some
(d) photosynthesis
function of manganese is in the plants. Deficiency of Zn is shown by a
splitting of water or photolysis of water Ans. (a) reduction in internodal growth as a
to liberate oxygen during Boron is required by plants for (i) uptake result plants display a rosette habit of
photosynthesis. and utilisation of Ca2 + , (ii) pollen growth in which the leaves form a
germination and cell differentiation circular cluster radiating at or close to
10 Which one of the following (iii) carbohydrate translocation. the ground.
elements is not an essential
micronutrient for plant growth?
14 Grey spots of oat are caused by 18 The plants grown in magnesium
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
deficiency of [CBSE AIPMT 2003] deficient but urea sprayed soil
(a) Mn (b) Zn (c) Cu (d) Ca (a) Fe (b) Cu would show [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(c) Zn (d) Mn (a) deep green foliage
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) (b) early flowering
Ca is essential macronutrient for plant
growth. It is constituent of middle Grey spots of oat are caused by the (c) yellowing of leaves
lamella, activator of enzymes, deficiency of manganese (Mn). It is a (d) loss of pigments in petals
connected with chromosome formation trace element, required in very small
Ans. (c)
and many aspects of metabolism. amount. Manganese exists in the soil in
the form of bivalents, trivalents. Nitrogen is the constituent of amino
acids, proteins, nucleic acids,
11 A plant requires magnesium for nucleotides, coenzymes, hexosamines
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
15 The major portion of the dry
weight of plants comprises of etc. Deficiency of nitrogen rapidly
(a) holding cells together inhibits the plant growth and yellowing
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
(b) protein synthesis of the leaves (chlorosis) magnesium has
(a) carbon, hydrogen and oxygen the specific role in the activation of
(c) chlorophyll synthesis
(b) nitrogen, phosphorus and enzymes, taking part in photosynthesis
(d) cell wall development potassium and respiration. It also forms a part of
the ring structure of the chlorophyll 22 Which one of the following is a

molecule. Deficiency of Mg causes TOPIC 2
micronutrient for plants?
chlorosis, i.e. yellowing of leaves.
[CBSE AIPMT 1996] Nitrogen Metabolism
Thus a plant growing in
(a) Calcium
magnesium-deficient soil would show
chlorosis inspite of being sprayed with (b) Magnesium 26 Match the Column -I with
urea (nitrogen). (c) Manganese Column-II. [NEET 2021]
(d) Nitrogen
19 Which of the following is not Column I Column II
Ans. (c)
caused by deficiency of mineral Micronutrients are needed in very small A. Nitrococcus 1. Denitrification
nutrition? [CBSE AIPMT 1997] amounts by plants, e.g. Manganese, B. Rhizobium 2. Conversion of
(a) Necrosis copper, molybdenum, zinc, boron and ammonia to
(b) Chlorosis chlorine. nitrite
(c) Etiolation C. Thiobacillus 3. Conversion of
23 Phosphorus and nitrogen ions nitrite to nitrate
(d) Shortening of internodes
generally get depleted in soil
Ans. (c) D. Nitrobacter 4. Conversion of
because they usually occur as atmospheric
The plants grown in dark are said to be [CBSE AIPMT 1989] nitrogen to
etiolated. They lack chlorophyll and, (a) neutral ions ammonia
therefore, appear yellow. Thus, it is not
(b) negatively charged ions
caused by deficiency of mineral
(c) positively charged ions Choose the correct answer from
nutrient.
(d) both positively and negatively options given below.
Chlorosis is resulted due to the partial
failure of development of chlorophyll charged but disproportionate A B C D
which causes an abnormal colour to mixture (a) 2 4 1 3
plant tissues. Ans. (b) (b) 1 2 3 4
Uncontrolled death of tissues/cells is (c) 3 1 4 2
In the soil, phosphorus and nitrogen are
called as necrosis. present as negatively charged ions, e.g. (d) 4 3 2 1
Shortening of internodes is due to the H2 PO−4 , NO−2 , NO−3 ions. These are usually Ans. (a)
deficiency ofZn2 + ions. supplied by fertilisers as urea. (A)-(2), (B)-(4), (C)-(1), (D)-(3)
Nitrification is the process of
20 The core metal of chlorophyll is 24 The four elements making 99% of
conversion of ammonia into nitrites and
[CBSE AIPMT 1997] living system are nitrites into nitrates. It is facilitated by
(a) iron (b) magnesium [CBSE AIPMT 1994] microorganism like
(c) nickel (d) copper (a) CHOS (b) CHOP Nitrococcus and Nitrobacter.
Ans. (b) (c) CHON (d) CNOP Rhizobium is involved in biological
Chlorophyll molecule, is made up of Ans. (c) nitrogen fixation, i.e. it converts
porphyrin ring which is a structure with atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia.
Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen
alternating single and double bonds These are symbiotically associated with
are called as big four of the cell. C is
containing four small pyrrole rings. It the roots of leguminous plants.
18%, O is 65%, H is 10% and N is 2.5%.
has magnesium atom at the centre. These are principal non-metal elements Thiobacillus are involved in conversion of
and form 95% of total cellular materials. nitrate to nitrogen gas by the process
21 Which one of the following is not called denitrification
an essential element for plants? 25 Mineral associated with
[CBSE AIPMT 1996] cytochrome is [CBSE AIPMT 1991] 27 In Glycine max, the product of
(a) Potassium (b) Iron (a) Cu (b) Mg biological nitrogen fixation is
(c) Iodine (d) Zinc (c) Fe and Mg (d) Fe and Cu transported from the root nodules
Ans. (c) Ans. (d) to other parts as
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
Essential elements are those element Cytochromes are iron-porphyrin (haem)
which are absolutely necessary for proteins discovered by Mac Cunn. (a) ammonia
supporting normal growth and Cytochromes are infact, the conjugated (b) glutamate
reproduction of plants, the elements proteins, composed of a protein (c) nitrates
are specific in their action and are molecule and a non-protein group, i.e. (d) ureides
directly involved in the nutrition of the inorganic factor iron. It is to be noted,
plant. Potassium is macroelement, zinc that cell cytochromes have iron only, Ans. (c)
and iron are microelement. Iodine and though cyt-a 3 possesses both Fe and In Glycine max (Soyabean), the product
sodium are essential for animals and Cu. Fe has a role in picking up of of biological nitrogen fixation is
are not required by most of the plants electrons and Cu hands over the transported from the root nodules to
however, iodine is found in certain electrons to oxygen. other parts as nitrate.
marine algae.
Mineral Nutrition 125
28 The product(s) of reaction Ans. (b) relationships with plant roots. It is a

catalysed by nitrogenase in root Among the given options, only option (b) longest Genus of AM fungi but it is
is mismatched. Rhodospirillum is a free currently defined as non-monphylactic.
nodules of leguminous plants
living nitrogen fixing bacteria. Mo, Zn and B are micronutrients.
is/are [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Mycorrhiza is the symbiotic association
(a) nitrate only of a fungus with the root of a higher 35 The function of leghaemoglobin in
(b) ammonia and oxygen plant. the root nodules of legumes is
(c) ammonia and hydrogen [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(d) ammonia only 32 During biological nitrogen fixation, (a) oxygen removal
Ans. (c) inactivation of nitrogenase by (b) nodule differentiation
The products of reaction catalysed by oxygen poisoning is prevented by (c) expression of nif gene
nitrogenase in root nodules of [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (d) inhibition of nitrogenase activity
leguminous plants are ammonia and (a) leghaemoglobin Ans. (a)
hydrogen. The reaction is as follows
(b) xanthophyll Leghaemoglobin is an oxygen
N2 + 8e− + 8H + + + 16ATP → 2NH3 + H2
(c) carotene scavenger. It protects the nitrogen
+ 16ADP + 16Pi
(d) cytochrome fixing enzyme nitrogenase from
Symbiotic Rhizobium bacteria invade oxygen.
the roots of leguminous plants and Ans. (a)
form root nodules in which they fix During biological nitrogen fixation, 36 Nitrifying bacteria
nitrogen, supplying both to the bacteria inactivation of nitrogenase by oxygen [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
and the plants. poisioning is prevented by
(a) convert free nitrogen to nitrogen
leghaemoglobin.
compounds
29 Which of the following bacteria It is a red-pigment that is filled outside
(b) convert proteins into ammonia
reduces nitrate in soil into the peribacteroid space in the cytosol
of nodule cells. It is similar to (c) reduce nitrates to free nitrogen
nitrogen? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
haemoglobin of red blood cells. It has (d) oxidise ammonia to nitrates
(a) Nitrobacter (b) Nitrococcus the ability to combine very rapidly with Ans. (d)
(c) Thiobacillus (d) Nitrosomonas oxygen and thus acts as a very efficient
Nitrifying bacteria (one of the
Ans. (c) O2 scavenger.
chemosynthetic bacteria) which oxidise
Thiobacillus reduces nitrate in soil into ammonia to nitrites and obtain energy
nitrogen. The process is called 33 The first stable product of fixation for the preparation of food. This
denitrification. of atmospheric nitrogen in oxidation occurs in two steps. In the
On the other hand, Nitrosomonas and leguminous plants is [NEET 2013] first step, ammonia is oxidised to nitrite
Nitrococcus oxidise ammonia into (a) NO −2 (b) ammonia by nitrite bacteria (e.g. Nitrosomonas
nitrite. The bacterium, Nitrobacter and Nitrococcus). In the second step,
(c) NO −3 (d) glutamate
oxidises nitrite to nitrate. These nitrite is oxidised to nitrate by nitrate
processes together are known as Ans. (b) bacteria (e.g. Nitrocystis and
nitrification. The process of conversion of nitrogen Nitrobacter).
(N 2 ) to ammonia is termed as nitrogen
30 Thiobacillus is a group of bacteria fixation. 37 An element playing important role
helpful in carrying out N2 → N 2 H2 → N 2 H4 → 2NH3 in nitrogen fixation is
[NEET (National) 2019] (Nitrogen) (Dimide) (Hydrazine) [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) chemoautotrophic-fixation (Ammonia) (a) molybdenum (b) copper
(b) nitrification 2NH3 + 3O2 → 2NO−2 + 2H + + 2H2 O (c) manganese (d) zinc
(c) denitrification 2NO2 + O2 → 2NO−3
Ans. (a)
(d) nitrogen-fixation In reductive animation ammonia reacts
Molybdenum is absorbed as molybdate
with α-ketoglutaric acid and forms
Ans. (c) by plants. It is involved in nitrogen
glutamic acid
Thiobacillus bacteria help to carry out metabolism including nitrogen fixation.
α-ketoglutaric acid + NH4+ + NADPH It is a component of enzyme
denitrification during nitrogen cycle.
This bacteria brings about the
Glutamate
→ Glutamate + H2 O + NADP nitrogenase and acts as enzyme
Dehygrogenae activator. Its deficiency causes
reduction of nitrate to free nitrogen
(N2 ). Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are chlorosis and necrosis, whiptail of
chemoautotrophs that cause
34 Which one of the following helps cauliflower and premature leaf fall.
nitrification. in absorption of phosphorus from Copper is absorbed by the plant in ionic
soil by plants? [CBSE AIPMT 2011] form. Its deficiency causes necrosis,
31 Select the mismatch. [NEET 2017] (a) Rhizobium (b) Frankia die back in Citrus, reclamation in
legumes.
(a) Frankia — Alnus (c) Anabaena (d) Glomus
(b) Rhodospirillum — Mycorrhiza Manganese is absorbed by the plants as
Ans. (d) bivalent ion. It acts as enzyme
(c) Anabaena — Nitrogen fixer
Glomus is a genus of arbuscular activator. Its deficiency causes
(d) Rhizobium — Alfa-alfa mycorrhizal fungi, which form symbiotic interveinal chlorosis as well as
yellowing of starch and their Ans. (a) (a) Azolla (b) Nostoc
subsequent degenerate. (c) Salvia (d) Salvinia
The Casuarina tree has nitrogen fixing
Zinc is needed for biosynthsis of IAA root nodules that harbor a filamentous Ans. (a)
and also acts as enzyme activator. Its actinomycete nitrogen fixing organism The leaves of Azolla contain colonies of
deficiency causes chlorosis, little called Frankia. Anabaena azollae which have the
leaf,rosette, white bud of maize and
capacity to fix atmospheric nitrogen.
mottling of leaves.
41 A free living, nitrogen fixing
38 The common nitrogen-fixer in cyanobacterium which can also 45 Which of the following is a free
paddy fields is [CBSE AIPMT 2010] form symbiotic association with living aerobic non-photosynthetic
(a) Rhizobium the water fern Azolla is nitrogen fixer? [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(b) Azospirillum [CBSE AIPMT 2004] (a) Rhizobium
(c) Oscillatoria (a) Tolypothrix (b) Azotobacter
(d) Frankia (b) Chlorella (c) Azospirillum
Ans. (b) (c) Nostoc (d) Nostoc
Azospirillum is a nitrogen fixing (d) Anabaena
Ans. (b)
bacterium in paddy fields. It is very Ans. (d)
useful soil and root bacterium. It is Azotobacter is a free living, aerobic
Anabaena is a free living, nitrogen fixing non-photosynthetic, i.e. saprophytic
associative symbiotic N 2 -fixing cyanobacterium which can form
bacteria. When it is added to the soil, it bacteria. It retains the capability of
symbiotic association with water fern fixing atmospheric nitrogen, i.e. fixation
multiplies in millions and can supply
20-40 Kg of nitrogen per hectare per Azolla. of atmospheric dinitrogen into
season. It also producess growth ammonia.
promoting substances like Indole 42 Enzyme involved in nitrogen
Acetic Acid (IAA), gibberellins(GA3 ) and assimilation [CBSE AIPMT 2001] 46 Which of the following can fix
promotes root proliferation. These (a) nitrogenase atmospheric nitrogen?
substances improve the plant growth
(b) nitrate reductase [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
and yield.
(c) transferase (a) Albugo
39 Nitrogen fixation in root nodules (d) transaminase (b) Cystopus
of Alnus is brought about by Ans. (a) (c) Saprolegnia
In the process of biological nitrogen (d) Anabaena
fixation, the dinitrogen molecule is Ans. (d)
(a) Bradyrhizobium (b) Clostridium
reduced by the addition of pairs of
(c) Frankia (d) Azorhizobium Blue-green algae (BGA) are the only
hydrogen in the presence of enzyme
organisms, capable of performing
Ans. (c) nitrogenase. Enzyme nitrate reductase
oxygenic photosynthesis and fixation of
Nitrogen is the most critical element. and nitrite reductase come into picture
nitrogen, e.g. Anabaena, Nostoc which
Certain non-leguminous plants also at later stage
produce a specialized type of cell,
form nodules to fix nitrogen. The best (for nitrate assimilation).
called heterocyst within whichN2
known example in temperate region is fixation occurs.
alder (Alnus sp). The bacteria involved in 43 In plants inulin and pectin are
nodule formation is an Actinomycetes [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
47 Minerals absorbed by roots move
the Frankia. (a) reserved food material
to the leaf through
Clostridium is anaerobic, saprotrophic (b) wastes [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
free-living nitrogen fixing bacteria. (c) secretory material (a) xylem
Bradyrhizobium sp are symbiont in (d) insect attracting material
plants of Paraspania and soyabean. (b) phloem
The Azorhizobium forms both stem and Ans. (a) (c) sieve tubes
root nodules in Sesbania (aquatic plant). Inulin a polymer of fructose, is used as (d) None of these
a food store, particularly in roots and
tubers of family–Compositae. Pectin is Ans. (a)
40 Which of the following is a Mineral ions accumulated in the root
a mucopolysaccharide which is found in
flowering plant with nodules cell wall of plants. During the time of hairs passes into the cortex and finally
containing filamentous nitrogen food ripening, the pectin becomes reach the xylem from where these are
fixing microorganism? hydrolyse and gives rise the carried along with water to other parts
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] constituents of sugar. of the plant along the transpiration
stream. Like organic solutes, minerals
(a) Casuarina equisetifolia
44 Which aquatic fern performs can move upwards, downwards
(b) Crotalaria juncea (bidirectional movement) as well as
(c) Cycas revoluta nitrogen fixation? laterally.
(d) Cicer arietinum [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
13
Photosynthesis
TOPIC 1 03 Of the total incident solar radiation C. easily digested by animals
Site and Pigments the proportion of PAR is D. osmotically inactive
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] E. synthesised during
Involved in Photosynthesis (a) about 60% (b) less than 50% photosynthesis
(c) more than 80% (d) about 70% The useful properties are
01 One scientist cultured Cladophora Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
in a suspension of Azotobacter and PAR (Photosynthetically Active (a) B and C (b) B and D
illuminated the culture by splitting Radiation) designates the spectral (c) A, C and E (d) A and E
light through a prism. He observed range of solar radiation from 400-700 Ans. (c)
that bacteria accumulated mainly nm that photosynthetic organisms are
Option (c) is correct. As starch is a high
able to use in the process of
in the region of molecular weight polymer of D-glucose
photosynthesis. Of the total incident
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] in α 1→ 4 linkage. It is synthesised in
solar radiation the proportion of PAR is
(a) violet and green light chloroplasts as one of the stable end
less than 50%.
products of photosynthesis. It is most
(b) indigo and green light
abundant and common storage
(c) orange and yellow light 04. Stroma in the chloroplasts of polysaccharide in plants hence, most
(d) blue and red light higher plants contains staple food for man and herbivores.
Ans. (d) [CBSE AIPMT 2009] It is a mixture of two types of glucose
Engelmann used a prism to split light (a) light-independent reaction homopolysaccharide viz, amylose and
into its spectral components and then enzymes amylopectin. During day time the starch
illuminated a green alga, Cladophora (b) light-dependent reaction enzymes synthesis in chloroplast is coordinated
placed in a suspension of aerobic (c) ribosomes with sucrose synthesis in cytosol.
bacteria (Azotobacter). The bacteria Typically about 90% of total solute
(d) chlorophyll
were used to detect the sites of oxygen carried in phloem is the carbohydrate
evolution. Ans. (a) sucrose, a disaccharide.
He observed that bacteria mainly In higher plants, enzymes for light This is relatively inactive and highly
accumulated in the region of blue and independent reactions (dark reactions) soluble sugar playing little direct role in
red light of the split spectrum, thus are present in the stroma of metabolism and so, making an ideal
giving the first action spectrum of chloroplasts. transport sugar.
photosynthesis. Light dependent reaction occurs in
grana of chloroplast. 06 Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is
02 In a chloroplast the highest Ribosomes are necessary for protein located in [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
number of protons are found in synthesis. (a) outer membrane
[NEET 2016, Phase I] Chlorophyll is green photosynthetic (b) inner membrane
(a) lumen of thylakoids pigment found in chloroplasts. (c) thylakoids (d) stroma
(b) inter membrane space
05 Carbohydrates are commonly Ans. (c)
(c) antennae complex
found as starch in plant storage The thylakoids of chloroplast are
(d) stroma flattened vesicles arranged as a
organs. Which of the following five membranous network within the
Ans. (a)
properties of starch (A–E) make it stroma. 50% of chloroplast proteins
Proton concentration is higher in the
lumen of thylakoid due to photolysis of useful as a storage material? and various components involved
water, H + pumping and NADP reductase A. easily translocated (namely chlorophyll, carotenoids and
activity which occurs in stroma of the plastoquinone) in photosynthesis are
B. chemically non-reactive
chloroplast. present in thylakoid membranes.
07 Which fractions of the visible chlorophyll molecules and later on 14 Maximum solar energy is trapped
utilised for the synthesis of ATP
spectrum of solar radiations are by
(chemical energy) molecules which are
primarily absorbed by carotenoids later utilised in the dark reaction, i.e.,
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
of the higher plants? Calvin cycle. (a) planting trees
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] (b) cultivating crops
(a) Violet and blue (b) Blue and green 11 Chlorophyll-a molecule at its (c) growing algae in tanks
(c) Green and red (d) Red and violet carbon atom 3 of the pyrrole (d) growing grasses
Ans. (a) ring-II has one of the following Ans. (d)
Carotenoids are a group of yellow, red [CBSE AIPMT 1996] Maximum solar energy is trapped by
and orange pigments which function as (a) aldehyde group growing grasses, as they have the
accessory pigments and protect (b) methyl group largest surface area for absorption.
chlorophyll molecules from destruction (c) carboxyl group Limited number of algal individual are
by intensive light rays. Carotenoids growing in tank so, they absorb limited
(d) magnesium
have three absorption peaks in the amount of light.
blue-violet range of the spectrum. Ans. (a)
Chlorophyll has a tetrapyrrole porphyrin 15 Chlorophyll-a occurs in
08 Which element is located at the head and a long chain alcohol called [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
centre of the porphyrin ring in phytol tail. Each pyrrole is a 5 member (a) all photosynthetic autotrophs
ring with one nitrogen and four carbon.
chlorophyll? [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (b) in all higher plants
A non-ionic Mg atom lies in the centre
(a) Manganese (b) Calcium of porphyrin, attached to nitrogen (c) all oxygen liberating autotrophs
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium atoms of pyrrole rings. Chlorophyll-a (d) all plants except fungi
Ans. (c) has methyl group at carbon 3 of pyrrole Ans. (b)
ring and chlorophyll-b has formyl Chlorophyll-a (C55 H72 O5 N4Mg) is a bluish
Magnesium is at the centre of the
(aldehyde) group attached to this atom. green pigment, it is the primary
porphyrin ring in chlorophyll. The
general structure of chlorophyll was photosynthetic pigment or universal
elucidated by Hand Fischer in 1940. 12 Pigment acting as a reaction photosynthetic pigment that occurs in
centre during photosynthesis is all plants except photoautotrophic
09 Stomata of CAM plants [CBSE AIPMT 1994] bacteria, i.e. found in all oxygenic
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] (a) carotene photoautotrophs.
(a) open during the night and close (b) phytochrome
during the day (c) P700 16 Photosynthetic pigments found in
(b) never open (d) cytochrome the chloroplasts occur in
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(c) are always open Ans. (c)
(a) thylakoid membranes
(d) open during the day and close at Photosynthetic pigment molecules (e.g. (b) plastoglobules
night P700 , P680 ) are able to convert light energy
(c) matrix
Ans. (a) into chemical energy. These pigment
(d) chloroplast envelope
molecules which together forms the
CAM (Crassulacean Acid Metabolism)
photosynthetic units, possess Ans. (a)
plants open stomata only at night (when
photocentres (reaction centre = trap Photosynthetic pigments are those
temperature is low and humidity is high)
centre) surrounded by harvesting pigments which occur on
to cause lesser loss of water (e.g.
molecules differentiated into core photosynthetic thylakoids of
Agave, Opuntia, etc.). So, CAM
molecules and antenna molecules. chloroplasts and absorb light energy for
photosynthesis is a carbon fixation
pathway that evolved in some plants as the purpose of photosynthesis. These
an adaptation to arid condition. 13 Nine-tenth of all photosynthesis of are mainly of two types—chlorophylls
world (85-90%) is carried out by and carotenoids.
10 The first step of photosynthesis is [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] (a) large trees with millions of 17 The size of chlorophyll molecule is
(a) excitation of electron of branches and leaves [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
chlorophyll by a photon of light (b) algae of the ocean (a) head 15 × 15 Å, tail 25 Å
(b) formation of ATP (c) chlorophyll containing ferns of the (b) head 20 × 20 Å, tail 25 Å
(c) attachment of CO 2 to 5 carbon forest (c) head 15 × 15 Å, tail 20 Å
sugar (d) scientists in the laboratories (d) head 10 × 12 Å, tail 25 Å
(d) ionisation of water Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) 90% of total photosynthesis is carried A chlorophyll molecule consists of two
out by aquatic plants, chiefly algae (80% parts, the porphyrin ring (head) 15 × 15 Å
The entire process of photosynthesis is
in oceans and 10% in freshwater). 10% and a phytol tail (20 Å).
driven by light energy coming from the
of total photosynthesis is performed by
sun. This energy is first captured by
land plants.
Photosynthesis 129
TOPIC 2 20 Which of the following is not a 23 A process that makes important

product of light reaction of difference between C 3 and
Light Reaction photosynthesis? [NEET 2018] C 4 -plants is [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) NADPH (b) NADH (a) transpiration (b) glycolysis
(c) ATP (d) Oxygen (c) photosynthesis
18 Which of the following statement (d) photorespiration
is incorrect? [NEET 2021] Ans. (b)
+ During light reaction of photosynthesis Ans. (d)
(a) Both ATP and NADPH + H are
NADPH, ATP and oxygen are formed. Photorespiration is a light dependent
synthesised during non-cyclic
Oxygen is liberated by the photolysis of process which occurs in C3 -plants. It is
photophosphorylation water. opposite to photosynthesis because
(b) Stroma lamellae have PS-I only during this process, uptake of O2 and
4H2 O r 4H+ + 4OH−
and lack NADP reductase release of CO2 take place. Due to the
Oxygen-Evolving complex
(c) Grana lamellae have both PS-I and 4OH− →
2+ 2+ − presence of Kranz anatomy, C4 -plants
Mn , Ca , Cl
PS-II 2H2 O + O2 ↑ + 4e − do not show photorespiration.
(d) Cyclic photophosphorylation The electrons released during
involves both PS-I and PS-II photolysis of water are picked up byP680 24 Oxygenic photosynthesis occurs in
Ans. (d) photocentre of PS-II. On receiving light [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Statement in option (d) is incorrect and energy photocentre expels an electron (a) Chromatium (b) Oscillatoria
can be corrected as which passes over a series of carriers. (c) Rhodospirillum (d) Chlorobium
Only photosystem I is involved in cyclic As a result assimilatory power, i.e. ATP
and NADPH is produced. NADH is Ans. (b)
photophosphorylation process. Cyclic
formed during respiration. Oscillatoria is a photosynthetic
photophosphorylation is a process in
cyanobacterium. In this cyanobacteria
which an electron expelled by the
21 In photosynthesis, the during photosynthesis water is electron
excited photocentre is returned to it
donor and oxygen is a byproduct,
after passing through a series of light-independent reactions take i.e., oxygenic photosynthesis occurs.
electron carriers. The excited electron place at [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
does not pass on to NADP + but is Rhodospirillum and Chlorobium are
(a) thylakoid lumen non-oxygenic photosynthetic, purple
cycled back to the PS I complex through
(b) photosystem-I non-sulphur and green- sulphur
the electron transport chain.
(c) photosystem-II bacteria.
Non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(d) stromal matrix Chromatium is purple sulphur
involves both photosystems I and II. The
bacterium, also a non-oxygenic
electron follows a non-cyclic pathway in Ans. (d) photosynthetic.
it. The representation of it is also called
The light-independent reactions (or
Z scheme.
dark reactions) take place in the 25 Cyclic-photophosphorylation
stromal matrix of the chloroplasts.
19 In light reaction, plastoquinone results in the formation of
In light independent reactions, carbon [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
facilitates the transfer of dioxide is reduced to glucose
electrons from [NEET (Sep.) 2020] (a) NADPH
(carbohydrate) by the hydrogen in
NADPH by using the chemical energy
(b) ATP and NADPH
(a) Cyt-b 6 f complex to PS-I
stored in ATP. This reaction takes place (c) ATP, NADPH and O 2
(b) PS-I to NADP + (d) ATP
in the presence of a substance called
(c) PS-I to ATP synthase RuDP. Ans. (d)
(d) PS-II to Cyt-b 6 f complex
Cyclic-photophosphorylation involves
Ans. (d) 22 Anoxygenic photosynthesis is only pigment system-I and results in the
In light reaction, plastoquinone characteristic of formation of ATP only. When the
facilitates the transfer of electrons [CBSE AIPMT 2014] photons activate PS-I, a pair of
from PS II to cytochrome b 6f complex (a) Rhodospirillum (b) Spirogyra electrons are raised to a higher energy
(non-cyclic photophosphorylation) (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Ulva level. They are captured by primary
process of light reaction starts with PS acceptor which passes them on to
II (680 nm). When sunlight falls on the Ans. (a) ferredoxin, plastoquinone, cytochrome
reaction center (chlorophyll, a) it Anoxygenic photosynthesis (in whichO2 complex, plastocyanin and finally back
abosrbs 680 nm wavelength of red light is not released) is seen in Rhodospirillum to reaction centre of PS-I, i.e., P700 .
causing electrons to become excited which is a purple non-sulphur bacteria. It At each step of electron transfer, the
and jump into an orbit farther from the helps an organism to trap light energy and electrons lose potential energy. Their
atomic nucleus. These electrons are store it as chemical energy. trip down hill is caused by the transport
picked by the electron acceptor which Other than this anoxygenic chain to pumpH + across the thylakoid
passes them to an electron transport photosynthesis commonly occurs in membrane. The proton gradient thus
system consisting of cytochromeb 6 purple non-sulphur bacteria, green established is responsible for forming
complex. sulphur/non-sulphur bacteria, and ATP (2 molecules). No reduction of
heliobacteria, etc. NADP to NADPH + H + .
26 The first acceptor of electrons called red drop. Reaction centre of PS-II 33 Which one occurs both during
is P680 while that of PS-I is P700 . So in the
from an excited chlorophyll cyclic and non-cyclic modes of
red drop reaction PS-II is inactivated.
molecule of photosystem-II is photophosphorylation?
[CBSE AIPMT 2007, 08] [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
30 Photochemical reactions in the
(a) cytochrome (a) Involvement of both PS-I and PS-II
chloroplast are directly involved in
(b) iron-sulphur protein [CBSE AIPMT 2000] (b) Formation of ATP
(c) ferredoxin (a) formation of phosphoglyceric acid (c) Release of O 2
(d) quinone (b) fixation of carbon dioxide (d) Formation of NADPH
Ans. (d) (c) synthesis of glucose and starch Ans. (b)
Plastoquinone is the first acceptor of (d) photolysis of water and Cyclic photophosphorylation is that
electrons from an excited chlorophyll phosphorylation of ADP to ATP type of light energised ATP synthesis in
molecule of photosystem-II. which electron expelled by excited
Ans. (d)
photocentre does not return to them. It
27 In photosystem-I the first electron CO2 is fixed in the stroma of the involves two Photochemical Systems
acceptor is [CBSE AIPMT 2006] chloroplast leading to the synthesis of (PS-I and PS-II) and produces
(a) cytochrome PGA from which glyceraldehyde assimilatory power (ATP and NADPH).
phosphate is formed. From
(b) plastocyanin In both, cyclic and non-cyclic
glyceraldehyde phosphate, sugar and
(c) an iron-sulphur protein photophosphorylation, formation of ATP
starch are formed.
takes place.
(d) ferredoxin All these do not require light. However,
Ans. (c) photolysis of water and
34 Formation of ATP in
In photosystem-I, the primary electron phosphorylation of ADP to ATP requires
light energy. photosynthesis and respiration is
acceptor is probably a Fe-S protein.
an oxidation process which
The reduced primary acceptor
transfers the electrons to secondary 31 Protochlorophyll differs from utilises the energy from
electron acceptor (most probablyP430 ). chlorophyll in lacking [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
The sequence of electron transfer is as [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (a) cytochromes (b) ferredoxin
follows : (a) 2 hydrogen atoms in one of its (c) electrons (d) carbon dioxide
− − −
P700 —e→ A1 —e→ A2 —e→ A3 pyrrole rings Ans. (c)
(Chl-a + ) (Phyloquinone) (Fe -S
protein)
(P 430 )
(b) 2 hydrogen atoms in two of its Cytochromes (Keilin; 1925) are the
pyrrole rings electron transport intermediates
The reducedP430 passes its electrons to
ferredoxin (Fd) present at outer surface (c) 4 hydrogen atoms in one of its containing heme (or related prosthetic
of thylakoid membrane. pyrrole rings groups) in which the iron undergoes
(d) 4 hydrogen atoms in two of its valency changes during electron
pyrrole rings transfer and produces energy (ATP) in
28 Which of the following absorb light
both photosynthesis and respiration.
energy for photosynthesis? Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] Protochlorophyll differs from 35 Photosystem-II occurs in
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Water molecule chlorophyll in lacking 2 hydrogen atoms [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(c) O 2 (d) RuBP in one of its pyrrole rings. (a) stroma (b) cytochrome
Ans. (a) (c) grana
32 NADPH is generated through (d) mitochondrial surface
Chlorophyll molecule absorbs light for [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
photosynthesis. H2 O molecules provide Ans. (c)
H + ions and electrons during (a) photosystem-I
(b) photosystem-II PS-II is present in appressed part of
photosynthesis. O2 is liberated during
granal thylakoids. PS-I is present in
photosynthesis. RuBP (Ribulose 1, (c) anaerobic respiration
stroma thylakoids and non-appressed
5-bisphosphate) reacts with CO2 during (d) glycolysis
parts of granal thylakoids.
dark reaction of photosynthesis. This
Ans. (b)
process takes place in the presence of
NADPH is generated through 36 Ferredoxin is a constituent of
enzyme RuBisCO.
photosystem-II. In non-cyclic [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
photophosphorylation (which involves (a) PS-I (b) PS-II
29 Which pigment system is both PS-I and II) protons released from (c) Hill reaction (d) P680
inactivated in red drop? photolysis and electrons emitted from
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] P700 are ultimately passed on to NADP + Ans. (a)
(a) PS-I and PS-II (b) PS-I resulting in the formation of NADPH. Ferredoxin (Fd) is a soluble protein
(c) PS-II (d) None of these In cyclic photophosphorylation (which which acts as electron carrier and
involves only PS-I) electrons flow in a forms a constituent of PS-I. Ferredoxin
Ans. (c) passes electrons to reductase complex
cyclic manner but there is no net
The fall in photosynthetic yield beyond formation of NADPH and O2 . which helps in reducing NADP + to
red region of spectrum (680 nm) is NADPH (a strong reducing agent).
Photosynthesis 131
37 NADP + is reduced to NADPH in Ans. (b) converts it to oxalo acetate –– a C4

[CBSE AIPMT 1988] Statement (b) is incorrect and can be compound. It is the first stable
corrected as In C4 plants, Kranz anatomy compound of C4 -plants.
(a) PS-I (b) PS-II
in leaf is found due to the presence of Concept Enhancer C4 -plants possess
(c) Calvin cycle special adaptation anatomy in their
two type of cells viz., mesophyll cells
(d) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation leaves to cope up the photorespiratory
and bundle sheath cells.
Ans. (d) The mesophyll cells are specialised to losses. There are dimorphic chloroplast
perform light reaction, evolveO2 and present in them—agranal in bundle
In photosynthesis during non-cyclic
produce assimilatory power. The bundle sheath cells and granal in mesophyll
photophosphorylation involving both
sheath cells possess RuBisCO and thus, cells.
PS-I and PS-II, electrons released
during photolysis of water are perform RuBisCO activity at this site.
transfered to PS-II and then PS-I via a
43 A plant in your garden avoids
series of electron carriers.P700 of PS-I 40 The oxygenation activity of photorespiratory losses, has
releases electron after absorbing light RuBisCO enzyme in improved water use efficiency,
energy. This electron passes through photorespiration leads to the shows high rates of
chlorophyll X, Fe-S, ferredoxin and photosynthesis at high
formation of [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
finally to NADP + . NADP + combines with
H + (released during photolysis) with the (a) 1 molecule of 3-C compound temperatures and has improved
help of NADP reductase to form (b) 1 molecule of 6-C compound efficiency of nitrogen utilisation. In
NADPH. (c) 1 molecule of 4-C compound and 1 which of the following
NADP molecule of 2-C compound physiological groups would you
reductase NADPH
NADP+ + 2e− + H + → assign this plant?
(d) 2 molecules of 3-C compound
Ans. (a) (a) C 4 (b) CAM
TOPIC 3 The oxygenation activity of RuBisCO (c) Nitrogen fixer (d) C 3
enzyme in photorespiration leads to the
Dark Reaction formation of 1 molecule of 3C Ans. (a)
compound (phosphoglycerate). InC3 This plant is a C4 -plant as these group of
38 The first stable product of CO 2 plants during oxygen fixation, one plants shows little photorespiration,
molecule of PGA(3C) and one molecule efficient in binding to CO2 even at low
fixation in Sorghum is [NEET 2021] of 2-phosphoglycolate(2C) are formed. concentrations, better utilisation of
(a) pyruvic acid The latter is then converted back to water as well as high rates of
(b) oxaloacetic acid PGA in the photorespiratory cycle. photosynthesis even at high
(c) succinic acid Photorespiration occurs at high temperatures, i.e. tropical region.
(d) phosphoglyceric acid concentration of oxygen and Besides, they can also tolerate excess of
temperature in the environment. salts due to presence of organic acids.
Ans. (b)
Carbon fixation or carbon assimilation 41 In Hatch and Slack pathway, the 44 PGA as the first CO2 -fixation
is the process by which inorganic primary CO2 acceptor is
carbon (particularly in the form of
product was discovered in
carbon dioxide) is converted to organic photosynthesis of
(a) oxaloacetic acid
compounds by living organisms. The (b) phosphoglyceric acid
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
compounds are then used to store (a) bryophyte (b) gymnosperm
(c) phosphoenol pyruvate
energy and as structure for other (c) angiosperm (d) alga
(d) RuBisCO
biomolecules.
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
Most of the plants that are adapted to
dry tropical regions form C-4 acid i.e. In Hatch and Slack pathway, the primary The use of radioactive 14 C by Melvin
oxalic acid as their first stable product. CO2 acceptor is phosphoenol pyruvate. Calvin in algal (Chlorella) photosynthesis
These plants are called C 4 plants. This occurs in C4-plants. Phosphoenol studies led to the discovery that the
Sugarcane, maize, Sorghum, etc. are pyruvate, a 3-carbon compound, first CO2 fixation product was a
the examples of these plants. accepts CO2 and forms oxaloacetic acid 3-carbon organic acid. The first product
which is a 4-carbon compound. identified was 3-phosphoglyceric acid
39 Which of the following statements (PGA).
is incorrect? [NEET (Oct.) 2020] 42 Phosphoenol Pyruvate (PEP) is the
45 C 4 -plants are more efficient in
(a) RuBisCO is a bifunctional enzyme primary CO2 acceptor in
(b) In C 4 plants the site of RuBisCO [NEET 2017] photosynthesis than C3 -plants due
activity is mesophyll cell (a) C 3 -plants (b) C 4-plants to [CBSE AIPMT 2010, 08]
(c) The substrate molecule for (c) C 2 -plants (d) C 3 and C 4-plants (a) higher leaf area
RuBisCO activity is a 5-carbon Ans. (b) (b) presence of larger number of
compound chloroplasts in the leaf cells
Phosphoenol Pyruvate (PEP) is found in
(d) RuBisCO action requires ATP and the mesophyll cell, which accepts the (c) presence of thin cuticle
NADPH atmospheric CO2 in C4 -plants and (d) lower rate of photorespiration
Ans. (b) (c) four carbon acids are the primary 51 In photosynthesis energy from
C4 -plants are more efficient in initial CO 2 -fixation products light reaction to dark reaction is
photosynthesis than C3 -plants but use (d) the primary fixation of CO 2 is transferred in the form of
more energy. They possess the larger mediated via PEP carboxylase [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
number of chloroplasts in the leaf cells.
In the leaves of C 4 -plants, the vascular
Ans. (d) (a) ADP (b) ATP
bundles are surrounded by bundle The fixation of CO2 in C4 -plants takes (c) RuDP (d) chlorophyll
sheath cells which in turn are place in two places and by two different
Ans. (b)
surrounded by mesophyll cells. organic compounds. Phosphoenol
Pyruvate (PEP) is found in mesophyll As a result of light reaction, oxygen,
Chloroplast in bundle sheath cells are NADPH and ATP are formed. Oxygen is
larger and always contain grana, cells which primarily fixes atmospheric
CO2 into oxalo acetic acid (4C). released into the atmosphere while
whereas chloroplasts in mesophyll cells NADPH and ATP are utilised for
are smaller. RuBisCO is present in bundle sheath
reduction of CO2 to carbohydrate in
cells where final fixation of CO2 in
dark reaction.
46 In the leaves of C 4 -plants, malic hexose sugars takes place. CO2 is
primarily fixed by PEP carboxylase
acid formation during CO2 -fixation because this enzyme has greater 52 Which pair is wrong?
occurs in the cells of affinity to CO2 than RuBisCO. [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
[CBSE AIPMT 2007, 08] (a) C 3—Maize
(a) mesophyll (b) bundle sheath 49 In C 3 -plants, the first stable (b) C 4 —Kranz anatomy
(c) phloem (d) epidermis (c) Calvin cycle—PGA
product of photosynthesis during
(d) Hatch and Slack Pathway—Oxalo
Ans. (a) the dark reaction is
acetic acid
The oxalic acid is reduced to malic acid [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
in mesophyll cells, from chloroplast of (a) malic acid Ans. (a)
mesophyll cells the malic acid is (b) oxaloacetic acid Maize is a C4 -plant. C4 -plants have
transferred to the chloroplast of bundle (c) 3-phosphoglyceric acid Kranz type anatomy of leaves.
sheath cells where, it is decarboxylated to PGA (3-Phosphoglyceric Acid) is formed
(d) phosphoglyceraldehyde
form CO2 and pyruvic acid. during Calvin cycle.
Ans. (c) OAA (Oxalo Acetic Acid) a 4C compound
47 As compared to a C 3 -plant, how In C3 -plants the first stable product is formed during Hatch and Slack cycle
many additional molecules of ATP formed during dark reaction is (C4 cycle).
3-phosphoglyceric acid. Since, it is a 3
are needed for net production of carbon compound hence, the pathway 53 How many turns of Calvin cycle
one molecule of hexose sugar by is referred as C3 -pathway. Oxalo Acetic yield one molecule of glucose?
C 4 -plants [CBSE AIPMT 2005] Acid (OAA) is the first stable compound [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(a) 2 (b) 6 (c) 12 (d) zero in C4 -plants. It is a 4C compound. (a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 4
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
50 In sugarcane plant 14 CO2 is fixed
In C 4-plants every CO 2 molecule has Conversion of CO2 to simple (reduced)
to be fixed twice, so these plants are in malic acid, in which the enzyme organic compounds is called CO2
needed more energy for the that fixes CO2 is assimilation or CO2 fixation or carbon
synthesis of hexose sugar molecules [CBSE AIPMT 2003] fixation. This fixation pathway was
than C 3 -plants in which CO 2 has to be elucidated in the early 1950s by Melvin
(a) fructose phosphatase
fixed only once. 18 ATP molecules are Calvin and Coworkers and is often
(b) ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase called as Calvin cycle.
required by C 3 -plants for the (c) phosphoenol pyruvic acid
synthesis of one molecule of hexose Since, one molecule of carbon is fixed
carboxylase in one turn of the Calvin cycle. So, six
sugar while 30 ATP molecules are (d) ribulose phosphate kinase
needed by the C 4-plants for the turns of the cycle are required to fix the
Ans. (c) glucose molecule containing 6 carbon
same. Thus, C 4-plants have a need of
atoms.
12 ATP molecules extra than In C4 -plants, CO2 is taken up by
C 3 -plants for the synthesis of one Phosphoenol- Pyruvate (PEP) and the
molecule of hexose sugar. reaction being catalysed by PEP 54 Fixation of one CO2 molecule
carboxylase. through Calvin cycle requires
48 Photosynthesis in C 4 -plants is [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
PEP carboxylase
CO2 + PEP Oxalo acetic acid (a) 1 ATP and 2NADPH 2
relatively less limited by (Mesophyll cells of
atmospheric CO2 levels because C4-plant) (b) 2 ATP and 2NADPH 2
Dehydro NADPH
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] genase (c) 3 ATP and 2NADPH 2
(a) effective pumping of CO 2 into (d) 2ATP and 1NADPH 2
bundle sheath cells Malic acid Ans. (c)
(b) RuBisCO in C 4-plants has higher + 2 ATP are required during conversion of
+
affinity for CO 2 NADP PGA to 1, 3 diphosphoglyceric acid and 1
Photosynthesis 133
ATP during conversion of glyceraldehyde compound are called C4 -plants, e.g. Ans. (a)
phosphate to ribulose biphosphate. 2 sugarcane, maize, sorghum, etc. These Leaves of C4 -plants (e.g. sugarcane,
NADPH2 molecules are utilised for plants show characteristic Kranz maize) are characterised by Kranz
converting 1, 3 diphosphoglyceric acid anatomy. The first CO2 acceptor in anatomy in which the mesophyll is
to glyceraldehyde phosphate. these plants is Phosphoenol Pyruvate undifferentiated and its cells occur in
(PEP). concentric layers around vascular
55 Which one of the following is bundles.
represented by Calvin cycle? 59 The enzyme that catalyses initial Vascular bundles are surrounded by
[CBSE AIPMT 1996] carbon dioxide fixation in large sized bundle sheath cells which
(a) Reductive carboxylation C 4 -plants is are arranged in a wreath-like manner
(b) Oxidative carboxylation [CBSE AIPMT 1992, 2002] (Kranz- wreath).
(c) Photophosphorylation (a) RuBP carboxylase
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation (b) PEP carboxylase 63 The first carbon dioxide acceptor
Ans. (a) (c) carbonic anhydrase in C 4 -plants is
In dark phase or Calvin cycle, carbon (d) carboxydismutase
dioxide is assimilated with the help of (a) phosphoenol-pyruvate
Ans. (b)
assimilatory power (ATP and NADPH2 ) (b) ribulose 1,5-diphosphate
In C4 -plants, mesophyll cells fix carbon
to produce organic acid. The cycle dioxide with the help of
(c) oxalo acetic acid
involves reduction of carbon involving phosphoenol-pyruvate (the first (d) phosphoglyceric acid
carboxylation, glycolytic reversal and acceptor) in the presence of PEP Ans. (a)
regeneration of RuBP. C3 cycle is also carboxylase to a compound oxaloacetic
known as reductive pentose pathway or In C4 -plants, phosphoenol-pyruvate is
acid (first product). the first acceptor of CO2 while ribulose
Photosynthetic Carbon Reduction
(PCR). bi-phosphate is the second acceptor.
60 Dark reactions of photosynthesis Oxalo Acetic Acid (OAA) is the first
56 C 4 -cycle was discovered by occur in [CBSE AIPMT 1991] product of C4 -cycle.
(a) granal thylakoid membranes
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(b) stromal lamella membranes 64 In C 4 -plants, Calvin cycle operates
(a) Hatch and Slack (b) Calvin
(c) stroma outside photosynthetic in
(c) Hill (d) Arnon [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
lamellae
(a) stroma of bundle sheath
Ans. (a) (d) periplastidial space chloroplasts
C4 pathway or dicarboxylic acid pathway Ans. (c) (b) grana of bundle sheath
is an alternative path of CO2 -fixation in
photosynthesis. It was discovered by Light reaction of photosynthesis chloroplasts
MD Hatch and CR Slack in 1967, so also occurs in granal thylakoid membranes (c) grana of mesophyll chloroplasts
known as Hatch- Slack cycle. of chloroplast while dark reaction (d) stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts
occurs in the stroma or matrix, i.e.
outside the photosynthetic lamellae of Ans. (a)
57 The carbon dioxide acceptor
chloroplast. C4 -plants possess two types of
in Calvin cycle/ C 3 -plants is chloroplasts granal in mesophyll cells
[CBSE AIPMT 1993, 95, 96, 99] 61 Which technique has helped in and agranal in bundle sheath cells.
(a) Phosphoenol Pyruvate (PEP) investigation of Calvin cycle? Mesophyll cells are specialised to
(b) Ribulose 1,5-Diphosphate (RuDP) [CBSE AIPMT 1991] perform light reaction and bundle
(c) Phosphoglyceric Acid (PGA) (a) X-ray crystallography sheath cells possess RuBisCO, here CO2
(d) Ribulose Monophosphate (RMP) is fixed through Calvin cycle.
(b) X-ray technique
Ans. (b) (c) Radioactive isotope technique
65 A very efficient converter of solar
In C3 -plants, CO2 combines with (d) Intermittent light
ribulose biphosphate (acceptor energy with net productivity of 2-4
Ans. (c) kg/m2 or more is the crop of
molecule) in the presence of RuBisCO
Calvin, Benson and Basshan utilised C14
(RuBP carboxylase) and form two [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
(with long life) to trace the path of
molecules of 3-Phosphoglyceric acid or (a) wheat (b) sugarcane
carbon in photosynthesis. Calvin was
PGA (first stable product). (c) rice (d) bajra
awarded Nobel Prize in 1961 in
recognition to his work with C14 isotope. Ans. (b)
58 Which one is a C 4 -plant?
He discovered the cycle involved in In C4 -plants, (e.g. maize, sugarcane,
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] carbon assimilation, known as Calvin sorghum) optimum temperature of
(a) Papaya (b) Pea cycle or C3 -cycle. photosynthesis is 30–45°C. In C4 -plants,
(c) Potato (d) Maize/Corn rate of net photosynthesis in full
62 Kranz anatomy is typical of sunlight is (40–80 mg CO2 /dm2 /hr) which
Ans. (d)
[CBSE AIPMT 1990, 95] is more than the rate of net
The plants in which the first stable
(a) C 4 -plants (b) C 3-plants photosynthesis (15–35 mg CO2 /dm2 /hr)
product of dark reaction of
(c) C 2-plants (d) CAM plants at optimum sunlight in C3 -plants.
photosynthesis is a 4-carbon
66 Carbon dioxide joins the 69 The correct sequence of cell 72 Which enzyme is most abundantly
photosynthetic pathway in organelles during photorespiration found on earth? [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] is [CBSE AIPMT 2012] (a) Catalase (b) RuBisCO
(a) PS-I (b) PS-II (a) chloroplast–Golgi (c) Nitrogenase (d) Invertase
(c) light reaction (d) dark reaction bodies–mitochondria Ans. (b)
Ans. (d) (b) chloroplast-rough endoplasmic RuBisCO (RuBP carboxylase) is the most
In dark reaction of photosynthesis, reticulum- dictyosomes abundant protein on this planet.
reducing agent (NADPH) and source of (c) chloroplast–mitochondria RuBisCO constitutes 16% of chloroplast
energy (ATP) formed during light –peroxisome protein. It is required for CO2 fixation
reaction, are utilised in the conversion (d) chloroplast–vacuole–peroxisome with RuBP (Ribulose Biphosphate) in
of CO2 to carbohydrates. Calvin cycle.
Ans. (c)
None of the option is correct.
73 Photorespiration is favoured by
Photorespiration required three cell
TOPIC 4 organelles in sequence of chloroplast,
[CBSE AIPMT 1996]
peroxisome and mitochondria. (a) high O 2 and low CO 2

Photorespiration (b) low light and high O 2
Option (c) may be correct if be read as
said sequence. (c) low temperature and high O 2
67 During non-cyclic (d) low O 2 and high CO 2
photophosphorylation, when 70 During photorespiration, the Ans. (a)
electrons are lost from the oxygen consuming reaction(s) Photorespiration is light induced
reaction centre at PS-II, what is occur in [CBSE AIPMT 2006] oxidation of photosynthetic
the source which replaces these (a) stroma of chloroplasts and intermediates with the help of oxygen.
peroxisomes It is stimulated by highO2 concentration
electrons? [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
or low CO2 , high light intensity, high
(a) Oxygen (b) Water (b) grana of chloroplasts and
temperature and ageing of leaf.
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Light peroxisomes
(c) stroma of chloroplasts
Ans. (b) 74 The substrate for photorespiration
(d) stroma of chloroplasts and
During non-cyclic mitochondria
photophosphorylation, electrons (a) ribulose bis-phosphate
expelled by the excited PS-II Ans. (a)
(b) glycolate
photocentre does not return to it. The first reaction of photorespiration (c) serine
Therefore, it requires an external occurs in stroma of chloroplast. In this
reaction the RuBP (Ribulose 1-5
(d) glycine
electron donor and that purpose is
served by water. biphosphate) consumes one oxygen Ans. (b)
H2 O undergo photolysis and the molecule in presence of enzyme Photorespiration is the oxidation of
electrons thus released are picked up RuBisCO. photosynthetic intermediate without
by PS-II (P680 ) and handed over to PS-I or In peroxisome the glycolate transferred production of CO2 , ATP andNADH2 . The
P700 . from chloroplast takes up O2 and substrate for photorespiration is a
formed the glyoxylate whereas, the 2-carbon compound glycolic acid
68 The process which makes major H2 O2 released as byproduct. (glycolate).
difference between C 3 and
C 4 -plants is [NEET 2016, Phase II] 71 Which one of the following is
wrong in relation to TOPIC 5
(a) glycolysis
(b) Calvin cycle photorespiration? Factors Affecting
(c) photorespiration [CBSE AIPMT 2003] Photosynthesis
(d) respiration (a) It is a characteristic of C 3-plants
(b) It occurs in chloroplasts
Ans. (c) 75 With reference to factors
(c) It occurs in day time only
Photorespiration is the process which affecting the rate of
makes a difference between the C 3 and
(d) It is a characteristic of C 4 -plants
C 4 -plants. In this process, there is a Ans. (d)
photosynthesis, which of the
continuous loss of carbon fixed in the Dicker and Tio (1959) discovered
following statements is not
form of CO2 . photorespiration in tobacco plant. It is a correct? [NEET 2017]
It occurs due to the highO2 content, light dependent process of oxygenation (a) Light saturation for CO 2 -fixation
high temperature conditions in which of Ribulose Bisphosphate (RuBP). occurs at 10%of full sunlight
RuBP carboxylase starts working as During this process CO2 is liberated and (b) Increasing atmospheric CO 2
RuBP oxygenate and normal O2 is consumed. C4 -plants avoid concentration upto 0.05% can
photosynthesis does not occur. photorespiration by following Hatch enhance CO 2-fixation rate
Slack pathway.
Photosynthesis 135
(c) C 3-plants respond to higher following pairs of elements wavelength betwen 400 to 700 nm.
temperature with enhanced involved in this reaction? Green plants use this wavelength in the
photosynthesis, while C 4 -plants process of manufacture of food, i.e.
have much lower temperature photosynthesis.
(a) Manganese and chlorine
optimum
(b) Manganese and potassium 81 A photosynthesising plant is
(d) Tomato is a greenhouse crop,
(c) Magnesium and molybdenum releasing 18 O more than the
which can be grown in CO 2
enriched atmosphere for higher (d) Magnesium and chlorine normal. The plant must have been
yield Ans. (a) supplied with [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
Ans. (c) Photolysis of water during (a) O 3
In C4 -plants, the initial fixation of CO2 photosynthesis evolve nascent oxygen (b) H2O with 18 O
occurs in mesophyll cells. The primary in the presence of manganese, calcium (c) CO 2 with 18 O
acceptor of CO2 is Phosphoenol and chloride ions.
(d) C 6H12O 6 with 18 O
Pyruvate (PEP). It combines with CO2 in
the presence of enzyme PEP 78 Plants adapted to low light Ans. (b)
carboxylase to form the first stable intensity have [CBSE AIPMT 2004] Ruben, Hassid and Kamen (1941) using
product, i.e. Oxalo Acetic Acid (OAA). heavy isotope of oxygen, O18 in water,
(a) larger photosynthetic unit size
Where as C3 -plants lack PEPcarboxylase found that oxygen evolved in
than the sun plants
enzyme. They possess RuBisCO photosynthesis comes from water.
(b) higher rate of CO 2 fixation than the Evolution of oxygen does not require
enzyme. This enzyme can work as both
sun plants carbon dioxide.
carboxylase (fixation of CO2 ) and
oxygenase (fixation of O2 ). RuBisCO has (c) more extended root system
a much greater affinity for CO2 than for (d) leaves modified to spines 82 At a temperature above 35°C
O2 and the binding is competitive. At Ans. (a) [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
higher temperature, its affinity for CO2
Shade tolerant plants have lower (a) rate of photosynthesis will decline
decrease and it works as oxygenase.
photosynthetic rates and hence, lower earlier than that of respiration
Therefore, at higher temperature growth rates. On the other hand, these (b) rate of respiration will decline
photosynthesis decrease in C3 -plants, plants have larger photosynthetic unit earlier than that of
while in C4 -plants it increases. size than the sun plants. photosynthesis
76 Emerson’s enhancement effect (c) there is no fixed pattern
79 The principle of limiting factors (d) both decline simultaneously
and red drop have been was proposed by
instrumental in the discovery of [CBSE AIPMT 1996] Ans. (a)
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (a) Blackmann (b) Hill Optimum temperature for
(a) two photosystems operating (c) Arnon (d) Liebig photosynthesis is 10°-25°C for
simultaneously C3 -plants and 30°-45°C for C4 -plants.
Ans. (a) Optimum temperature for respiration is
(b) photophosphorylation and cyclic
The principle of limiting factors was 20°C–30°C, i.e. respiration has a higher
electron transport
given by Blackmann, a British plant temperature optimum than
(c) oxidative phosphorylation physiologist in 1905, according to him, photosynthesis and thus declines later.
(d) photophosphorylation and light intensity, carbon dioxide
non-cyclic electron transport concentration and temperature are the 83 During monsoon, the rice crop of
limiting factors in photosynthesis.
Ans. (a) Eastern states of India shows
When a process is conditioned as to its
Emerson performed photosynthetic lesser yield due to limiting factor
rapidity by a number of separate
experiment on Chlorella. He provided of
factors, the rate of the process is [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
monochromatic light of more than 680
limited by the pace of the slowest (a) CO 2 (b) light
nm and observed decrease in rate of
factor. (c) temperature (d) water
photosynthesis known as red drop.
Later, he provided synchronised light of Ans. (b)
80 Photosynthetically active radiation
680 nm and 700 nm and observed According to the principle of limiting
increase in rate of photosynthesis, is represented by the range of
factor, the rate of the process is limited
known as enhancement effect. This wavelength by the pace of the slowest factor. Light
experiment led to discovery of two [CBSE AIPMT 1996, 2004, 05] intensity varies with latitude, altitude,
photosystems –PS-I and PS-II operating (a) 340-450 nm (b) 400-700 nm season, topography, presence or
in photosynthesis. (c) 500-600 nm (d) 400-950 nm absence of interceptors like cloud,
dust, fog, humidity, etc. In Eastern
77 The oxygen evolved during Ans. (b) states, low light intensity during
Photosynthetically Active Region (PAR) monsoon results in low photosynthesis
photosynthesis comes from water
of solar radiation is visible region. It and hence, lesser yield.
molecules. Which one of the consists of radiations having
14
Respiration in Plants
TOPIC 1 (a) ATP Ans. (b)
Glycolysis (b) glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate EMP (Embden-Meyerhof Paranas
(c) NAD + Pathway) refers to glycolysis, in which
(d) molecular oxygen one molecule of glucose is broken down
01 Conversion of glucose to to two molecules of pyruvic acid. In this
glucose-6-phosphate, the first Ans. (c) process there is a gain of 2NADH
irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is When 3-phosphoglyceraldehyde is (2 × 3 ATP) and 2 ATP, i.e. total 8 ATP.
converted into 1,3 diphosphoglyceric
catalysed by [NEET (National) 2019]
acid, two electrons and two protons are 07 Incomplete oxidation of glucose
(a) hexokinase released which are utilised to convert into pyruvic acid with several
(b) enolase NAD + to NADH and one H + .
(c) phosphofructokinase NAD+ + 2H+ + 2e− → NADH + H+ . intermediate steps is known as
[CBSE AIPMT 1988]
(d) aldolase
04 In animal cells, the first stage of (a) TCA-pathway (b) glycolysis
Ans. (a)
glucose breakdown is (c) HMS-pathway (d) Krebs’ cycle
Conversion of glucose to
glucose-6-phosphate during glycolysis
is catalysed by the enzyme hexokinase. (a) Krebs’ cycle Glycolysis is the sequence of enzyme
During this step, glucose is (b) glycolysis mediated reactions by which glucose is
phosphorylated to glucose-6-phosphate (c) oxidative phosphorylation degraded anaerobically into pyruvic acid
by ATP. It is the first step of activation (d) ETC in cell cytoplasm. The net gain of
phase of glycolysis. molecules of ATP during glycolysis is two.
Ans. (b)
02 Which of the following Glycolysis refers to the sequence of TOPIC 2
reactions by which glucose is
biomolecules is common to
degraded anaerobically into pyruvic Krebs Cycle and Electron
respiration-mediated breakdown acid inside cytoplasm. The net gain of Transport Chain
of fats, carbohydrates and molecules of ATP during glycolysis is 2.
proteins? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
08 Which of the following statement
(a) Glucose-6-phosphate 05 End product of glycolysis is
[CBSE AIPMT 1990]
is incorrect? [NEET 2021]
(b) Fructose 1,6-bisphosphate (a) During aerobic respiration, role of
(c) Pyruvic acid (a) acetyl Co-A
oxygen is limited to the terminal
(b) pyruvic acid
(d) Acetyl Co-A stage
(c) glucose 1-phosphate
Ans. (d) (b) In ETC (Electron Transport Chain),
(d) fructose 1-phosphate
Carbohydrates, fats and proteins, all one molecule of NADH + H + gives
can be used as a substrate in cellular Ans. (b) rise to 2 ATP molecules and one
respiration. All of them first get During glycolysis one molecule of FADH 2 gives rise to 3 ATP molecules
converted to acetyl Co-A to enter into glucose is broken down into two (c) ATP is synthesised through
Krebs’ cycle of aerobic cellular molecules of pyruvic acid in the complex V
respiration. Thus, it is the common cytoplasm. Glycolysis is the common (d) Oxidation-reduction reactions
factor of respiration entering Krebs’ path of aerobic and anaerobic produce proton gradient in
cycle after breakdown of respiration.
respiration
carbohydrates, fats and proteins.
06 EMP can produce a total of Ans. (b)
03 In glycolysis, during oxidation [CBSE AIPMT 1990] Oxidation of one molecule of NADH
(a) 6 ATP (b) 8 ATP gives rise to 3 molecules of ATP and
electrons are removed by one molecule of FADH 2 produces 2
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] (c) 24 ATP (d) 38 ATP molecules of ATP.
Respiration in Plants 137
NADH and FADH 2 are two different Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
types of electron donors. They differ in Respiratory Electron Transport System Option (d) is incorrect, which can be
the ways they feed electron during (ETS) in plants is located in inner corrected as
electron transport chain. NADH feeds mitochondrial membrane. It serves as Krebs’ cycle starts with the
its electrons into the electron transport the site of oxidative phosphorylation condensation of acetyl group with
chain at the beginning (Complex I). through the action of ATP synthase. oxaloacetic acid and water to yield
FADH 2 feeds into the electron
citric acid.
transport chain at Complex II (at a lower 12 Which one of these statements is
energy level down the chain). The high During conversion of succinic acid to
incorrect? [NEET 2018] fumaric acid FAD + is reduced toFADH2 .
energy electrons from NADH have
sufficient energy to result in 3 ATP (a) Glycolysis operates as long as it is During conversion of pyruvic acid to
whereas the lower energy electrons in supplied with NAD that can pick acetyl Co- A, isocitrate to oxalosuccinic
FADH 2 have energy for 2 ATP production. up hydrogen atoms. acid andα-ketoglutaric acid to succinyl
(b) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol Co-A NAD + is reduced toNADPH+H + .
09 Pyruvate dehydrogenase activity (c) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present
during aerobic respiration requires in mitochondrial matrix 15 Oxidative phosphorylation is
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation takes
(a) calcium (b) iron place in outer mitochondrial (a) formation of ATP by transfer of
(c) cobalt (d) magnesium membrane phosphate group from a substrate
Ans. (d) to ADP
Ans. (d)
Oxidative phosphorylation is the (b) oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
Pyruvate dehydrogenase enzyme is
involved in the conversion of pyruvate process of ATP formation due to the (c) addition of phosphate group to ATP
to acetyl Co-A, after the completion of transfer of electrons from NADH or (d) formation of ATP by energy
glycolysis and before the start of Krebs’ FADH2 to oxygen molecule (O2 ) by a released from electrons removed
cycle. This enzyme is made up of series of electron carriers. This process during substrate oxidation
decarboxylase, lipoic acid, occurs in the inner mitochondrial
membrane because of its less Ans. (a)
transacetylase and Mg 2 + ion. The
reaction occur in following way permeability, presence of ETC proteins Oxidative phosphorylation is the
and ATP synthase. process of formation of ATP from ADP
Pyruvate+ NAD+ + Co- A Pyruvate
→ 2 +
dehydrogenase, Mg The rest three statements are correct. and inorganic phosphate (P)i in the
Acetyl Co- A + NADH + H + + CO2 presence of oxygen. It occurs mainly in
In this reaction Mg 2 + acts as a
13 What is the role of NAD+ in the Electron Transport Chain (ETC) of
cellular respiration? [NEET 2018] cellular respiration.
cofactor.
(a) It is a nucleotide source of ATP
10 The number of substrate level synthesis 16 Which of the metabolites is
phosphorylation in one turn of (b) It functions as an electron carrier common to respiration mediated
citric acid cycle is (c) It functions as an enzyme breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] (d) It is the final electron acceptor for and proteins? [NEET 2013]
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) zero anaerobic respiration (a) Glucose-6-phosphate
Ans. (b) (b) Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate
Ans. (a)
NAD+ functions as an electron carrier (c) Pyruvic acid
The number of substrate level
in cellular respiration. NAD is an (d) Acetyl Co-A
phosphorylation in one turn of citric
acid cycle is 1. During Krebs’ or citric oxidising agent which accept electrons Ans. (d)
acid cycle, succinyl-Co-A is acted upon and then transfer them to the Electron
Acetyl Co-A is common to respiration
by enzyme succinyl-Co-A synthetase to Transport System (ETS). As a result,
mediated breakdown of fats,
form succinate (a 4C compound). The 3ATP molecules are formed.
carbohydrates and proteins.
reaction releases sufficient energy to Glucose and fructose are
form ATP (in plants) or GTP (in animals)
14 Which statement is wrong for
Krebs’ cycle? [NEET 2017]
phosphorylated to give rise to
by substrate-level phosphorylation. glucose-6-phosphate by the activity of
GTP can form ATP through a coupled (a) There are three points in the cycle the enzyme hexokinase.
reaction. Succinyl Co-A+GDP/ADP+H 3 where NAD + is reduced to NADH Glucose-6-phosphate is then converted
PO 4 synthetase. Succinyl Co-A + H+ into fructose-6-phosphate and further
Succinate +Co-A+GTP/ATP. (b) There is one point in the cycle to fructose 1-6-bisphosphate. Pyruvic
where FAD + is reduced to FADH2 acid is the end product of glycolysis.
11 Where is respiratory Electron (c) During conversion of succinyl
Transport System (ETS) located in Co-A to succinic acid, a molecule 17 The three boxes in this diagram
plants? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] of GTP is synthesised represent the three major
(a) Mitochondrial matrix (d) The cycle starts with biosynthetic pathways in aerobic
(b) Outer mitochondrial membrane condensation of acetyl group respiration. Arrows represent net
(c) Inner mitochondrial membrane (acetyl Co-A) with pyruvic acid to reactants or products [NEET 2013]
(d) Intermembrane space yield citric acid
5 9 10
1 Ans. (c) (a) glycolysis (b) Krebs’ cycle
6
Pathway A 2 Pathway Pathway C 11 The production of ATP with the help of (c) conversion of pyruvic acid to
B
Glucose
7 energy liberated during oxidation of acetyl Co-A
4 12
8 reduced coenzymes and terminal (d) electron transport chain
3 oxidation is called oxidative
phosphorylation. Peter Mitchell (1961)
Ans. (d)
Arrows numbered 4, 8 and 12 can The last step of aerobic respiration is
gave a hypothesis known as chemiosmotic
all be hypothesis for ATP synthesis. the oxidation2 of reduced coenzymes,
(a) NADH (b) ATP According to this when electrons flow i.e., NADH2 and FADH2 by molecular
(c) H 2O (d) FAD + or FADH 2 from dual proton, electron carrier to a oxygen through FAD, ubiquinone, cyt.-b,
non-hydrogen carrier theH + are cyt.-c, cyt-c 1 , cyt.-a and cyt.-a 3 . By
Ans. (b) oxidation of 1 molecule ofNADH2 , 3 ATP
released and expelled into the
Pathway A is glycolysis, pathway B is intermembrane space and thus creates molecules are produced and by
the Krebs’ cycle and pathway C is a proton gradient with higher oxidation of 1 molecule of FADH 2 2ATP
oxidative phosphorylation concentration of H + in the inter molecules are Produced.
Arrow 1 — ADP or NAD + membranous space than the matrix. In glycolysis 2 ATP molecules are
Arrow 2 — Pyruvate Due to the proton motive force the produced from ADP.
Arrow 3 — NADH protons flow back and energy liberated Further 2NADH2 produced, give
Arrow 4 — ATP during this back flow of protons 2 × 3 = 6 ATP, on oxidative
activate ATPase present inF1 head to phosphorylation. Similarly in Krebs’
Arrow 5 — ADP, NAD + or FAD
synthesize ATP. cycle 2 ATP molecules are produced.
Arrow 6 and 7 — FADH 2 and NADH
(either one can be 6 or 7) So the greatest number of ATP
20 The overall goal of glycolysis, molecules are produced in the
Arrow 8 — ATP or CO 2
Krebs’ cycle and the electron electron transport chain.
Arrow 9 and 10 — O 2 and ADP (either
one can be 9 or 10) transport system is the formation
Arrow 11 and 12 — H 2 O and ATP of [CBSE AIPMT 2007] 23 Chemiosmotic theory of ATP
(either onecan be 11 or 12) (a) ATP in small stepwise units synthesis in the chloroplast and
(b) ATP in one large oxidation reaction mitochondria is based on
18 Aerobic respiratory pathway is (c) sugars [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
appropriately termed (d) nucleic acids (a) membrane potential
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Ans. (a) (b) accumulation of Na + ions
(a) catabolic (b) parabolic
Glycolysis, Krebs’ cycle and electron (c) accumulation of K + ions
(c) amphibolic (d) anabolic transport system are meant for ATP (d) proton gradient
Ans. (c) synthesis in different steps. ATP is the Ans. (d)
An amphibolic pathway is a biochemical energy currency of cell.
Chemiosmotic hypothesis for oxidative
pathway that serves both anabolic and phosphorylation (ATP synthesis) was
catabolic processes. An important 21 All enzymes of TCA cycle are proposed by Peter Mitchell in 1961, for
example of an amphibolic pathway is located in the mitochondrial this he was awarded Nobel Prize in
the Krebs’ cycle, which involves both matrix except one which is located 1978. This theory is based on proton
the catabolism of carbohydrates and gradient.
in inner mitochondrial membranes
fatty acid and the synthesis of anabolic
precursors for amino acid synthesis, eg, in eukaryotes and in cytosol in
prokaryotes. This enzyme is 24 Which one of the following
α-ketogluturate and oxalo acetate.
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] concerns photophosphorylation?
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
19 The chemiosmotic coupling (a) lactate dehydrogenase
(b) isocitrate dehydrogenase (a) AMP + inorganic PO 4
hypothesis of oxidative
Light energy
phosphorylation proposes that (c) malate dehydrogenase → ATP
Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is (d) succinate dehydrogenase Light energy
(b) ADP + AMP → ATP
formed because Ans. (d) (c) ADP + inorganic PO 4
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] Succinate dehydrogenase enzyme is Light energy
(a) high energy bonds are formed in present on inner membrane of → ATP
mitochondrial proteins mitochondria and catalyses the (d) ADP + inorganic PO 4 → ATP
(b) ADP is pumped out of the matrix oxidation of succinate to fumarate.
into the intermembrane space Ans. (c)
(c) a proton gradient forms across Phosphorylation refers to the process
22 During which stage, in the
the inner membrane in which ATP is made when energy is
complete oxidation of glucose are used to bind another phosphate to ADP.
(d) there is a change in the
permeability of the inner the greatest number of ATP Photophosphorylation reactions are
mitochondrial membrane toward molecules formed from ADP part of both respiration and
Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP) [CBSE AIPMT 2005] photosynthesis.
25 In which one of the following do 28 Oxidative phosphorylation involves 32 Out of 38 ATP molecules produced
the two names refer to one and the simultaneous oxidation and per glucose, 32 ATP molecules are
same thing? [CBSE AIPMT 2003] phosphorylation to finally form formed from NADH / FADH2 in
(a) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and urea [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
cycle (a) pyruvate (b) NADP (a) respiratory chain
(b) Krebs’ cycle and Calvin cycle (c) DPN (d) ATP
(b) Krebs’ cycle
(c) Tricarboxylic acid cycle and citric Ans. (d) (c) oxidative decarboxylation
acid cycle In oxidative phosphorylation ATP is (d) EMP
(d) Citric acid cycle and Calvin cycle formed as the electrons are transferred
Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) from NADH or FADH 2 to O 2 by a series
of electron carriers, located in the inner Respiratory chain helps in forming 32
Tricarboxylic acid cycle is also known as ATP molecules from NADH/FADH2
membrane of mitochondria.
citric acid cycle. This is an aerobic molecules. In which Oxidative
process, that takes place in the matrix phosphorylation is the synthesis of
of mitochondria. Kreb that discovered 29 Krebs’ cycle occurs in
energy rich ATP molecules with the help
this cycle in 1937. So, this is also known [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
of energy liberated during oxidation of
as Krebs’ cycle. (a) mitochondria reduced coenzymes (NADH2 , FADH2 ).
(b) cytoplasm produced in glycolysis and Krebs’ cycle.
26 The mechanism of ATP formation (c) chloroplast A total of 10NADH2 and 2FADH2
both in chloroplast and (d) ribosomes molecules are formed in aerobic
mitochondria is explained by respiration. They help in formation of 32
Ans. (a) or 34ATP molecules.
[CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Krebs’ cycle occurs inside the matrix of
(a) relay pump theory of Godlewski mitochondria. The cycle is also named 33 End product of citric acid/Krebs’
(b) Munch’s pressure/mass flow model as citric acid cylce or tricarboxylic cycle is [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(c) chemiosmotic theory of Mitchell acid cycle. It includes stepwise (a) citric acid (b) lactic acid
(d) Cholondy-Went’s model oxidative and cyclic degradation of
(c) pyruvic acid (d) CO 2 + H 2O
activated acetate derived from pyruvic
Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
acid.
In chemiosmotic- coupling hypothesis,
Krebs’ cycle or citric acid cycle that
outward pumping of protons across the
30 Which of the following is essential takes place in the matrix of
inner chloroplast or mitochondrial
for conversion of pyruvic acid into mitochondrion begins by linking acetyl
membrane results in accumulation of
protons between outer membrane and Co-A to oxaloacetic acid forming citric
acetyl Co-A? [CBSE AIPMT 1995] acid. In the presence of various
inner membrane. A proton gradient is
(a) LAA (b) NAD + enzymes, cycle continues through the
thus established. As protons now flow
back passively down the gradient, the (c) TPP (d) All of these formation of various intermediates and
proton motive force is utilised to release of CO2 and H2 O as end-products.
Ans. (d)
synthesise ATP.
The oxidative decarboxylation of 34 Link between glycolysis, Krebs’
27 In Krebs’ cycle FAD participates as
pyruvate into acetyl Co-A involves the cycle and β-oxidation of fatty acid
presence of atleast five essential
electron acceptor during the or carbohydrate and fat
co-factors and an enzyme complex. The
conversion of [CBSE AIPMT 1997] co-factors involved are Mg ions, metabolism is
Thiamine Pyrophosphate (TPP), NAD + , [CBSE AIPMT 1992, 90]
(a) succinyl Co-A to succinic acid
Coenzyme-A (Co-A) and lipoic acid. (a) oxaloacetic acid (b) succinic acid
(b) α-ketoglutarate to succinyl Co-A
(c) citric acid (d) acetyl Co-A
(c) succinic acid to fumaric acid
31 ATP is injected in cyanide Ans. (d)
(d) fumaric acid to malic acid
poisoning because it is The pyruvic acid synthesised from
Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 1994] glycolysis enters into mitochondria and
Electrons and H-ions during oxidation (a) necessary for cellular functions undergoes oxidative decarboxylation to
of succinic acid to fumaric acid, are
taken up by FAD which gets reduced to (b) necessary for Na + – K + pump produce CO2 and NADH2 .
FADH2 . (c) Na + – K + pump operates at the The product combines with
cell membranes coenzyme-A to form acetyl Co-A. It is
O H H O the connecting link between glycolysis,
| | Succinate (d) ATP breaks down cyanide
C—C— C—C Krebs’ cycle and fat oxidation.
dehydrogenase
– | | Ans. (a)
O O–
H H + FAD 2+
Cyanide is a deadly poison. It stops
35 Oxidative phosphorylation is
Succinic acid respiration by inhibiting electron flow production of [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
O H H O from cyt.-b tocyt.- c 1 . ATP is the energy (a) ATP in photosynthesis
| | currency of cell is injected in cyanide (b) NADPH in photosynthesis
C—C C—C + FADH2
–
poisoning because, it is necessary for (c) ATP in respiration
O O– cellular functions.
Fumaric acid (d) NADH in respiration
Ans. (c) Tripalmitin Ans. (b)

Oxidative phosphorylation is the 102 CO2 Respiratory Quotient (RQ)
RQ = = 0.7
synthesis of ATP from ADP and 1450 O2 Volume of CO2 formed
inorganic phosphate which occurs with =
It is to note that RQ of common fats is Volume of O2 utilised
the help of energy obtained from
usually less than 1 under aerobic
oxidation of reduced coenzymes In fats, large amount of O 2 is used to
conditions.
formed in cellular respiration. combine withH2 , so output of CO2 is
less and RQ is only 0.70, i.e., less than
39 How many ATP molecules could
36 Terminal cytochrome of unity.
maximally be generated from one
respiratory chain which donates
molecule of glucose, if the 43 Respiratory substrate yielding
electrons to oxygen is
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] complete oxidation of one mole of maximum number of ATP
glucose to CO2 and H2 O yields 686 molecule is [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(a) cyt-b (b) cyt-c
kcal and the useful chemical (a) ketogenic amino acids (b) glucose
(c) cyt-a1 (d) cyt-a3
energy available in the high energy (c) amylose (d) glycogen
Ans. (d) phosphate bond of one mole of Ans. (b)
The ETS system contains various ATP is 12 kcal? [CBSE AIPMT 2006] Respiratory substrate yielding maximum
electron carriers such as
(a) 30 (b) 57 (c) 1 (d) 2 number of ATP molecules is glucose.
cytochromes. The correct sequence of
One glucose molecule on aerobic
electron carrier/acceptor in ATP Ans. (b) respiration yields 36 ATP molecules.
synthesis is cyt-b, cyt-c 1 , cyt-c, cyt One mole of ATP liberates 12 kcal of
( a and cyt -a 3 ). Cyt-a 3 is the terminal energy. so 686 kcal will be liberated by 44 Maximum amount of energy/ATP
cytochrome, it possess two copper 686 / 12 = 57.1 ATP molecules.
centers, which help in transfer of is liberated on oxidation of
electron to oxygen. [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
40 How many ATP molecules are (a) fats (b) proteins
37 NADP + is reduced to NADPH in produced by aerobic oxidation of (c) starch (d) vitamins
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] one molecule of glucose? Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(a) HMP (b) Calvin cycle Fats or lipids are second to
(c) glycolysis (d) EMP (a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 38 (d) 34 carbohydrates as a source of energy.
Ans. (c) By weight, each gram mol of fat yields
Ans. (a)
A total of 38 molecules of ATP are about 9.3 kcal of energy, i.e. more than
Pentose Phosphate Pathway (PPP) or double of that yielded by glucose.
Hexose Monophosphate Shunt (HMP) or produced during aerobic respiration of
phosphogluconate pathway occurs in one molecule of glucose 45 Apparatus to measure rate of
the cytosol of mammalian cells. It Summary of ATP synthesis respiration and RQ is
involves oxidation of glucose to CO 2 8 ATP from glycolysis. [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
and water through a series of reactions 6 ATP from acetyl Co-A. (a) auxanometer (b) potometer
in which NADP is reduced to NADPH.
24 ATP from Krebs’ cycle. (c) respirometer (d) manometer
Complete breakdown of one molecule
of glucose forms 12 NADPH equal to Total = 38 ATP from aerobic oxidation of Ans. (c)
36 ATP molecules. one molecule of glucose.
Respirometer is an instrument used to
measure the rate of respiration and also
41 Net gain of ATP molecules during
TOPIC 3 aerobic respiration is
Respiratory Quotient (RQ). The most
common respirometer is Ganong’s
Respiratory Quotient and [CBSE AIPMT 1999] respirometer.
Respiratory Balance Sheet (a) 36 molecules (b) 38 molecules
(c) 40 molecules (d) 48 molecules 46 When one glucose molecule is
Ans. (b)
completely oxidised, it changes
38 Respiratory Quotient (RQ) value of [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
tripalmitin is [NEET (National) 2019] During aerobic respiration, 38 ATP
molecules are gained. If specifically
(a) 36 ADP molecules into 36 ATP
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.07 aerobic respiration in eukaryote is molecules
(c) 0.09 (d) 0.9 asked, then the answer would be 36 ATP (b) 38 ADP molecules into 38 ATP
because 2 ATP molecules are produced molecules
Ans. (a)
by FADH2 which accepts theH + from 2 (c) 30 ADP molecules into 30 ATP
The RQ value of tripalmitin is 0.7. It can
NADH molecules produced in glycolysis. molecules
be calculated as follows
(d) 32 ADP molecules into 32 ATP
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) 42 Respiratory quotient (RQ) for fatty molecules
Amount of CO2 released acid is [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
= Ans. (b)
Amount of O2 Consumed (a) > 1 (b) < 1
In aerobic respiration or biological
2 (C51H98O6 ) + 145 O2 → 102CO2 + 98 H2 O (c) 1 (d) 0 oxidation of one glucose molecule, 38
ADP molecules change into 38 ATP are converted into energy and the Fermentation is defined as anaerobic
molecules, where donor phosphate is metabolite lactate. It is an anaerobic break down of carbohydrates and other
inorganic phosphate. ATP molecules fermentation reaction that occurs in organic compounds to form aldehyde,
are the energy currency of the cell, i.e. some bacteria and animal cells and alcohol and organic acids (lactic acid)
the common immediate source of allows glycolysis to continue by with the help of microorganisms or
energy in cellular activity. ensuring that NADH is returned to its their enzymes.
oxidised state (NAD + ).
53 Fermentation products of yeast
47 Which one of the following
50 The energy-releasing metabolic are
statements about cytochrome 450 [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
is wrong? [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
process in which substrate is (a) H2O + CO 2
(a) It contains iron
oxidised without an external (b) methyl alcohol +CO 2
(b) It is a coloured cell electron acceptor is called (c) methyl alcohol + H 2O
(c) It has an important role in [CBSE AIPMT 2010, 08] (d) ethyl alcohol + CO 2
metabolism (a) glycolysis Ans. (d)
(d) It is an enzyme involved in (b) fermentation Yeast cells undergo alcoholic
oxidation reactions (c) aerobic respiration fermentation in which glucose is first
(d) photorespiration converted into pyruvic acid. In the
Ans. (b) presence of pyruvic decarboxylase, it is
Cytochrome is not a coloured cell, Ans. (b) changed into acetaldehyde. Alcohol
instead this is a respiratory Fermentation takes place in the lack of dehydrogenase changes it to ethyl
pigment-mixture of iron and protein oxygen (when the electron transport alcohol and CO2 .
which are electron acceptors. chain is unusable) and becomes the
Cytochrome are membrane bound cell’s primary means of ATP (energy) 54 Life without air would be
hemeproteins contains heme groups production. It turns NADH and pyruvate [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
and are primarily responsible for the in the glycolysis intoNAD + and various (a) reductional
generation of ATP via electron small molecules depending on the type (b) free from oxidative damage
transport. of fermentation. In the presence ofO2 , (c) impossible
NADH and pyruvate are used to (d) anaerobic
48 RQ is [CBSE AIPMT 1988] generate ATP in respiration. It is called
Ans. (d)
(a) C/N (b) N/C (c) CO 2 /O 2 (d) O 2 /CO 2 oxidative respiration.
Anaerobic means ‘in the absence of
Ans. (c) molecular oxygen’, so life without air
51 In alcoholic fermentation would be anaerobic. The atmosphere of
Respiratory Quotient (RQ) is the ratio of [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of earth at the time of origin of life was
(a) oxygen is the electron acceptor without free oxygen atoms, so the
oxygen consumed per unit time per
unit weight. Therefore, RQ = CO2 /O2 . (b) triose phosphate is the electron primitive atmosphere was reducing.
donor while acetaldehyde is the
It is useful in knowing the type of electron acceptor 55 Out of 36 ATP molecules produced
respiration, major transformations and per glucose molecule during
(c) triose phosphate is the electron
respiratory substrate.
donor while pyruvic acid is the respiration [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
electron acceptor (a) 2 are produced outside glycolysis
TOPIC 4 (d) there is no electron donor and 34 during respiratory chain
Ans. (b) (b) 2 are produced outside
Fermentation mitochondria and 34 inside
In alcoholic fermentation,
(a) NADH (formed during conversion mitochondria
49 In which one of the following of triose-3 phosphate to 3 (c) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during
processes CO 2 is not released? phosphoglycerate) is oxidised to Krebs’ cycle
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] NAD+ (d) all are formed inside mitochondria
(a) Aerobic respiration in plants (b) electrons are accepted by Ans. (b)
acetaldehyde formed by
(b) Aerobic respiration in animals A total of 38 ATP molecules are
decarboxylation of pyruvate. produced per glucose molecule during
(c) Alcoholic fermentation
(d) Lactate fermentation respiration. Out of which, 2 ATP are
52 Fermentation is anaerobic produced outside mitochondria
Ans. (d)
2 lactate
production of [CBSE AIPMT 1996] (i.e. glycolysis in cytoplasm) and 36 ATP
Glucose inside mitochondria (i.e. 2 ATP through
(a) Protein and acetic acid
NAD Krebs’ cycle and 34 ATP from
P++ADP+2P (b) alcohol, lactic acid or similar
Glycolysis NADH/FADH2 through respiratory
+ compounds
ATP + P P P 2NADH chain). In contrast, in some cells the
+2H+ (c) ethers and acetones number of ATP produced inside
2 pyruvate (d) alcohol and lipoproteins mitochondria equals to 34 and thus,
Lactic acid fermentation is process by there is a net synthesis of 36 ATP
Ans. (b)
which glucose, fructose and sucrose molecules.
15
Plant Growth and
Development
TOPIC 1 03 Inhibitory substances in dormant Select the correct option.
seeds cannot be removed by A B C D
Plant Growth and (a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
subjecting seeds to
Plant Hormones [NEET (Oct.) 2020] (b) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i)
(a) gibberellic acid (c) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
01 The plant hormone used to (b) nitrate (d) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
destroy weeds in a field is (c) ascorbic acid Ans. (c)
[NEET 2021] (d) chilling conditions Options (c) is the correct match which is
(a) IAA (b) NAA as follows
Ans. (c)
(c) 2,4-D (d) IBA The function of different
Presence of inhibitory substances in
Ans. (c) phytohormones include ethephon is a
dormant seeds can be removed by
commercial derivative of ethylene and
2, 4 D hormone is used as a herbicide to subjecting seeds to
it is used to ripen fruits. 2, 4-D is a
destroy weeds. (i) growth hormones like gibberellic synthetic auxin and it is used as
Auxins like IAA and IBA are used to acid, cytokinins, herbicide against dicotyledonous
induce parthenocarpy. IAA also (ii) by stratification in which seeds weeds. Gibberellic acid induces bolting
stimulate nodule formation. Auxin like requiring low temperature are first in plants, i.e. the promotion of
NAA is used to increase dwarf shoots. allowed to imbibe water and then internodal elongation just prior to their
exposed to low temperature. reproductive phase.
02 Plants follow different pathways in (iii) low concentration application of Abscisic acid is a stress hormone as it
response to environment or nitrates because it promote seed the plants to overcome unfavourable
phases of life to form different germination. conditions by inhibiting growth.
kinds of structures. This ability is Ascorbic acid is known to cause seed
dormancy as it is a potent chemical 05 A species which was introduced
called [NEET 2021]
inhibitor. Thus, option (c) is incorrect. for ornamentation but has
(a) elasticity
(b) flexibility become a trouble some weed in
04 Match the following concerning
(c) plasticity India [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
the activity/ function and the
(d) maturity (a) Parthenium hysterophorus
phytohormone involved.
(b) Eichhornia crassipes
Ans. (c) [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(c) Prosopis juliflora
Plant plasticity refers to the ability to
Column I Column II (d) Trapa spinosa
modify itself by forming different kind
of structures to adapt and cope with Ans. (b)
A. Fruit ripener (i) Abscisic acid
changes in its environment. It can be Eichhornia crassipes, (water hyacinth)
intrinsic plasticity or extrinsic plasticity. B. Herbicide (ii) GA 3 was introduced in several tropical
In both the cases plants shows countries including India for
heterophylly along with other C. Bolting agent (iii) 2, 4-D ornamentation but later this exotic
morphological features, e.g. in the species became a trouble-some
D. Stress hormone (iv) Ethephone
leaves Larkspur and buttercup. aquatic weed.
Plant Growth and Development 143
This free floating weed clogged rivers 09 Removal of shoot tips is very Auxin induces flowering in pineapple
and lakes and threatened the survival of and ethylene helps to synchronise
useful technique to boost the
many native species to the point of flower and fruit growth in this plant.
extinction. This species was called production of tea leaves. This is Though in other cases, ethylene causes
‘Terror of Bengal’ in India. because [NEET (Odisha) 2019] fading of flowers.
(a) gibberellins prevent bolting and
06 Which of the following is not an are inactivated 12 Fruit and leaf drop at early stages
inhibitory substance governing (b) auxins prevent leaf drop at early can be prevented by the
seed dormancy? [NEET (Sep.) 2020] stages application of [NEET 2017]
(a) Abscisic acid (c) effect of auxins is removed and (a) cytokinins (b) ethylene
(b) Phenolic acid growth of lateral buds is enhanced (c) auxins (d) gibberellic acid
(c) Para-ascorbic acid (d) gibberellins delay senescence of Ans. (c)
(d) Gibberellic acid leaves
Auxin delay abscission of leaves and
Ans. (d) Ans. (c) fruits at early stages. Whenever leaf or
Removal of shoot tips is a very useful fruit fall occurs, the organ concerned
Gibberellic acid is not an inhibitory
technique to boost the production of stops producing auxin. However, it
substance governing seed dormancy
tea leaves. This is because effect of promotes abscission of older, mature
because gibberellic acid promotes
auxin is removed and growth of lateral leaves and fruits.
growth and elongation of cells. It
affects decomposition of plants and bud is enhanced. This phenomenon in
helps plants grow if used in small most higher plants in which growing 13 The Avena curvature is used for
amounts, but eventually plants develop apical buds (shoot tips) inhibit growth of bioassay of [NEET 2016, Phase I]
tolerance to it. Action of ABA is lateral buds due to effects of auxin is
(a) GA 3 (b) IAA
counteracted by GA, which promotes called apical dominance.
(c) Ethylene (d) ABA
seed germination at appropriate time.
Abscisic acid, phenolic acid and 10 In order to increase the yield of Ans. (b)
para-ascorbic acid are inhibitory sugarcane crop, which of the Bioassay is a quantitative and
substances that causes seed dormancy following plant growth regulators qualitative test used to determine the
as they occur in the seed coats and nature and function of a biochemical by
should be sprayed? using living material, e.g. Avena
cotyledons of the embryos, e.g., apple,
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] curvature test is used as bioassay
peach, ash, Cucurbita, iris, Xanthium.
(a) Ethylene (b) Auxins usually for auxins (Indole Acetic Acid).
07 The process of growth is (c) Gibberellins (d) Cytokinins
maximum during [NEET (Sep.)
14 You are given a tissue with its
Ans. (c)
2020] potential for differentiation in an
In order to increase the yield of
(a) lag phase (b) senescence sugarcane crop, gibberellins should be artificial culture. Which of the
(c) dormancy (d) log phase sprayed.Sugarcane stores following pairs of hormones would
carbohydrates as sugar in their stems. you add to the medium to secure
Ans. (d) Spraying sugarcane crop with shoots as well as roots?
The process of growth is maximum gibberellins increases the length of the [NEET 2016, Phase II]
during log phase (exponential phase ) stem, thus increasing the yield by as
because during log phase the growth (a) IAA and gibberellin
much as 20 tonnes per acre.
rate of the cells gradually increases, at (b) Auxin and cytokinin
a maximum rate. In exponential growth, 11 It takes very long time for (c) Auxin and abscisic acid
the initial growth is slow (lag phase) and (d) Gibberellin and abscisic acid
pineapple plants to produce
thereafter it increases rapidly.
flowers. Which combination of Ans. (b)
hormones can be applied to When a tissue with a potential of
08 Name the plant growth regulator
artificially induce flowering in differentiation is grown in an artificial
which upon spraying on sugarcane medium containing auxin and cytokinin
crop, increases the length of pineapple plants throughout the in a specific ratio, it starts
stem, thus increasing the yield of year to increase yield? differentiating.
sugarcane crop. [NEET (Sep.) 2020] Thus, root and shoot differentiation
(a) Gibberellin and Cytokinin occurs. Auxin initiate root formation
(a) Gibberellin (b) Ethylene
(b) Gibberellin and Abscisic acid while cytokinin starts shoot formation.
(c) Abscisic acid (d) Cytokinin
(c) Cytokinin and Abscisic acid
Ans. (a) (d) Auxin and Ethylene 15 Auxin can be bioassayed by
The correct option is (a) because [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Ans. (d)
spraying on sugarcane crop with
Auxin and ethylene can be applied to
(a) Avena coleoptile curvature
gibberellins increases the length of the (b) hydroponics
artificially induce flowering in pineapple
stem, thus increasing the yield by as (c) potometer
plants throughout the year to increase
much as 20 tonnes per acre.
yield. (d) lettuce hypocotyl elongation
Ans. (a) Senescence as an active Cytokinines promote nutrient

Auxin is a phytohormone that is often developmental cellular process in the mobilisation which helps in the delay of
bioassayed by Avena coleoptile growth and functioning of a flowering leaf senescence. ABA plays an
curvature test. The angle of curvature plant, is indicated in leaf abscission. important role in seed development,
of a decapitated oat coleoptile is Whole plant senescence also known as maturation and dormancy. Ethylene
measured after placing an agar block all senescence occurs in annuals, (e.g., induces fruit ripening, breaks seed
containing auxin on one side. The ability rice, wheat, gram, mustard), biennials dormancy.
of auxin to stimulate shoot growth is (e.g. henbane) or perennials.
then measured. 21 Phototropic curvature is the result
18 Some of the growth regulators of uneven distribution of
16 Dr. F Went noted that if coleoptile affect stomatal opening. Closure [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
tips were removed and placed on of stomata is brought about by (a) gibberellin (b) phytochrome
agar for one hour, the agar would [CBSE AIPMT 1994] (c) cytokinins (d) auxin
produce a bending when placed on (a) indole butyric acid Ans. (d)
one side of freshly cut coleoptile (b) abscisic acid Darwin and his son Francis used
stumps. Of what significance is this (c) kinetin germinating oat (Avena sativa) and
experiment? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] (d) gibberellic acid canary grass (Phalaris canariensis)
seedling in their experiments and
(a) It made possible the isolation and Ans. (b) hypothesised that when shoots were
exact identification of auxin Abscisic acid promotes reversal of illuminated from one side, they bent
(b) It is the basis for quantitative H+ º K + pump and increasing forward the light in response to an
determination of small amounts availability of H + inside the guard cell ‘influence’, that was transmitted
of growth-promoting substances cytoplasm. Loss of K + decreases downward from its source at the tip of
(c) It supports the hypothesis that osmotic concentration of guard cells as the shoot. Paal concluded that the tip
IAA is auxin compared to adjacent epidermal cells. secretes a substance which promotes
(d) It demonstrated polar movement Due to the exosmosis the turgidity of the growth of part below it.
of auxins guard cells decreases and it closes the In 1926, F Went discovered that some
pore of stoma. unidentified compound probably
Ans. (b) caused curvature of oat coleoptile
Dr. F Went isolated auxin from Avena 19 Which one of the following growth towards light, i.e., phototropism. The
coleoptile tip. His experiment regulators is known as ‘stress compound (auxin) found by Went is
demonstrated the polar movement of relatively abundant in coleoptile tips.
auxins, i.e. it showed that the plants
hormone’? [CBSE AIPMT 2014, 1993]
grow towards light in response to a (a) abscsic acid
22 Coiling of graden pea tendrils
signal generated in the tip of coleoptile (b) Ethylene
by a plant hormone auxin.
around any support is an example
(c) GA 3
of [CBSE AIPMT 2010, 1995, 91]
(d) Indole acetic acid
17 Senescence as an active (a) thigmotaxis (b) thigmonasty
Ans. (a) (c) thigmotropism (d) thermotaxis
developmental cellular process in
Abscisic Acid (ABA) is also known as
the growth and functioning of a ‘stress hormone’ or dormin because it Ans. (c)
flowering plant, is indicated in is produced in much higher amounts, Thigmotropism movements are due to
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] when plants are subjected to various the contact with a foreign body. In
(a) vessels and tracheid kinds of stresses. twiners and lianas, there is less growth
differentiation It often gives plant organs a signal that on the idea of contact and more growth
they are undergoing physiological on the side of branch away from the
(b) leaf abscission
stresses such as lack of water, saline contact. Coiling of garden pea tendrils
(c) annual plants arround any support is an example of
(d) floral parts soil, cold temperature and frost. ABA
often cause responses that help plants thigmotropism.
Ans. (b) and protect against these stresses.
Abscission is natural shedding of 23 One of the synthetic auxin is
leaves, foliage branches, fruits, floral 20 During seed germination its stored [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
parts, etc. According to Leopold (1967) food is mobilised by [NEET 2013] (a) NAA (b) IAA (c) GA (d) IBA
abscission is a senescence
(a) ethylene Ans. (a)
phenomenon. Senescence is known as
‘the sum of deteriorative processes
(b) cytokinin NAA (Naphthalene Acetic Acid) and
which naturally terminate the functional (c) ABA 2,4-D (2,4-dichlorophenoxy acetic acid)
life of an organism. (d) gibberellin are synthetic auxins.
Senescence is not confined only to Ans. (d) The term auxin is applied to the
whole plant, it may be limited to a indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) and to other
Gibberellin induces aleurone cells to
particular plant organ such as leaf and natural and synthetic compounds
secrete enzyme that break stored food
flower or cells such as phloem and having certain growth regulating
in seed.
xylem. properties.
IAA and IBA (Indole Butyric Acid) have Ans. (b) 31 Cell elongation in internodal
been isolated from plants. All these Gibberellins help in cell growth of stem, regions of the green plants takes
auxins have been used extensively in leaves and other aerial parts. place due to [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
agricultural and horticultural
practices. (a) indole acetic acid
28 How does pruning help in making (b) cytokinins
the hedge dense? (c) gibberellins
24 Which one of the following acids is [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
a derivative of carotenoids? (d) ethylene
(a) It frees axillary buds from apical
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
dominance Ans. (c)
(a) Indole-butyric acid (b) The apical shoot grows faster Gibberellin (GA3 ) promotes internodal
(b) Indole-3-acetic acid after pruning elongation in a wide range of species.
(c) Gibberellic acid This internodal elongation phenomenon
(c) It releases wound hormones is known as bolting.
(d) Abscisic acid (d) It induces the differentiation of Gibberellin is a plant growth hormone
Ans. (d) new shoots from the rootstock which was first time obtained from a
Abscisic acid is a terpenoid, which is a Ans. (a) fungus Gibberella fujikuroi (Fusarium
derivative of steroid (carotenoid). moniliformi).
Pruning helps in making the hedge
Indole butyric acid and indole-3-acetic dense as it frees the axillary buds from
acid are auxins which are weak organic apical dominance. In fact, the apices of 32 Differentiation of shoot is
acids. Gibberellic acid (gibberellin) is a the plant axis, (e.g. shoot apex) has the controlled by [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
terpene. highest concentration of auxin which (a) high gibberellin—cytokinin ratio
suppresses the axillary buds while
25 Opening of floral buds into flowers, (b) high auxin—cytokinin ratio
promotes the growth of apical bud.
is a type of [CBSE AIPMT 2007] When the shoot apex is cut down (c) high cytokinin—auxin ratio
(a) autonomic movement of through pruning, the axillary buds grow (d) high gibberellin—auxin ratio
locomotion and the hedge becomes dense. Ans. (c)
(b) autonomic movement of variation Ratio of cytokinins to auxins controls
29 An enzyme that can stimulate differentiation. If both of these are
(c) paratonic movement of growth
(d) autonomic movement of growth
germination of barley seeds is present in equal quantities, the cells
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] divide but fail to differentiate. If there is
Ans. (d) (a) lipase (b) protease more cytokinin than auxin, shoot buds
Opening of floral buds into flower is a (c) invertase (d) α-amylase develop. If there is more auxin than
type of autonomic movement of growth cytokinin, roots develop.
(nastic movement). This is Ans. (d)
non-directional movement in which the Barley seeds are rich in carbohydrate 33 Plants deficient of element zinc,
response is determined by the (starch). The starch is hydrolysed by
show its effect on the
structure of the responsive organ and α-amylase to monosaccharides unit
not to the direction of stimulus. Greater at the time of germination of seeds. biosynthesis of plant growth
growth on one side causes the organ to hormone
bend to the opposite side. 30 Treatment of seed at low [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
temperature under moist (a) abscisic acid

26 ‘Foolish seedling’ disease of rice conditions to break its dormancy (b) auxin
led to the discovery of is called [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(c) cytokinin
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (d) ethylene
(a) vernalisation (b) chelation
(a) GA (b) ABA Ans. (b)
(c) 2, 4 D (d) IAA (c) stratification (d) scarification
Deficiency of zinc effects biosynthesis
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) of auxin. It is characterised by a
Stratification involves the treatment of reduction in internodal growth due to
Gibberellins (GA) were first observed
seed at low temperature (5–10°C) under which plant develops in rosette habit.
from the fungus Gibberella fujikuroi, the
sufficiently moist conditions to break The leaves may also be small and
causal organism of foolish seedling
its dormancy and to induce distorted. These results are due to loss
disease of rice plants in Japan by
germination. of capacity to produce Indole Acetic
Kurasawa in 1926.
Scarification involves any damage or Acid (IAA).
27 Which one of the following pairs, breakage of seed coat by physical
methods, (e.g. use of scalpel, wooden 34 Hormone responsible for
is not correctly matched ? hammer, etc.) or chemical methods
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] senescence is [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(use of mild acids) to break seed dormancy.
(a) Abscisic acid —Stomatal closure (a) ABA
Vernalisation and Chelation are the
(b) Gibberellic acid —Leaf fall (b) auxin
chill treatment of plant in its early
(c) Cytokinin —Cell division stages of life history to stimulate or (c) GA
(d) IAA — Cell wall elongation induce early flowering. (d) cytokinin
Ans. (a) 38 The closing and opening of the Ans. (b)

Senescence is an active genetically leaves of Mimosa pudica is due to During seed germination especially of
controlled developmental process in [CBSE AIPMT 1999] cereals gibberellins stimulate the
which cellular structure and (a) thermonastic movement production of hydrolytic enzymes like
macromolecules are broken down and amylases, lipases, ribonucleases. These
(b) hydrotropic movement
translocated away from the senescing enzyme solubilise the reserve food of
organ (typical leaves) to actively (c) seismonastic movement the seed.
growing region that serve as nutrient (d) chemonastic movement
sinks. Senescence is initiated by Ans. (c) 42 Ethylene gas is used for
environmental cues and is regulated by [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
Seismonastic movements are nastic
the hormones, e.g. ABA (Abscisic Acid).
movements of turgor in response to (a) growth of plants
Higher amount of ABA stops protein stimulus of shock (like (b) delaying fruit’s abscission
and RNA synthesis thus accelerating touch/mechanical/electrical/thermal/c (c) ripening of fruits
the senescence. hemical shock). On touching Mimosa (d) stopping the leaf abscission
pudica, its leaves droop down and the
35 Which of the following prevents stimulus travels at the speed of 1 Ans. (c)
fall of fruits? [CBSE AIPMT 2001] cm/sec. Climacteric fruits are fleshy fruits which
(a) GA 3 (b) NAA show a sudden sharp rise of respiration
(c) Ethylene (d) Zeatin 39 Which combination of gases is rate at the time of ripening. Ethylene is
suitable for fruit ripening? used to induce artificial ripening of
Ans. (b) these fruits, e.g. apple, mango, banana.
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
NAA (Naphthalene Acetic Acid) is a
synthetic auxin hormone which is useful
(a) 80% CO 2 and 20% CH2
43 Movement of auxin is
for preventing pre-harvest fruit drop of (b) 80% CH4 and 20% CO 2
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
tomatoes. (c) 80% CO 2 and 20% O 2
(a) centripetal (b) basipetal
(d) 80% C 2H4 and 20% CO 2
(c) acropetal (d) Both (b) and (c)
36 Which breaks bud dormancy of Ans. (d)
potato tuber? [CBSE AIPMT 2001] Ans. (d)
Ethylene is a gaseous hormone which
(a) Gibberellin (b) IAA promotes ripening of fruits. Methionine Went (1928) reported that auxin is
amino acid is precursor molecule for transported basipetally, i.e., it moves
(c) ABA (d) Zeatin
ethylene synthesis. Ethylene synthesis from apical to basal end. However,
Ans. (a) takes place in all parts of a plant such McCready and Jacobs (1963) working on
Gibberellins overcome the natural as roots, stems, leaves, fruits, seeds, petiole segments of Phaseolus vulgaris
dormancy of buds, seeds, tubers, etc. In etc. observed acropetal movement of auxin
this way, these are antagonistic to ABA. but such type of movement occurs very
IAA (Indole Acetic Acid) is the principal little and directly dependent with the
40 A plant hormone used for inducing presence of oxygen.
naturally occurring auxin, found in all morphogenesis in plant tissue
plants including fungi. It helps in Thus, recent studies have indicated
eradication of weeds, root initiation and culture is [CBSE AIPMT 1998] that the polar movement of auxin is an
production of parthenocarpic fruits. (a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins active transport.
ABA (Abscisic Acid) is the natural (c) ethylene (d) abscisic acid
growth inhibitor. Zeatin is a naturally Ans. (b)
44 Removal of apical bud results in
occurring cytokinin that stimulates [CBSE AIPMT 1993, 2000]
Ratio of cytokinin to auxin controls cell
mature plant cells to divide when added (a) formation of new apical bud
differentiation. If there is more
to a culture medium along with an (b) elongation of main stem
cytokinin than auxin, shoot buds
auxin. (c) death of plant
develop. Relatively more auxin than
cytokinins leads to the development of (d) formation of lateral branching
37 What reason will you assign for roots. Abscisic Acid (ABA) is known as
coconut milk used in tissue Ans. (d)
natural plant growth inhibitor.
culture? [CBSE AIPMT 2000, 03] Gibberellin stimulates stem elongation, Apical dominance is the phenomenon in
leaf expansion, bolting, flowering, etc. which the presence of apical bud does
(a) Gibberellins (b) Cytokinins not allow the nearby lateral buds to
Ethylene is a fruit ripening hormone.
(c) Auxins (d) Ethylene grow. When the apical bud is removed
Ans. (b) the lateral buds sprout.
41 Gibberellins induce
Skoog (1954-1956) observed that [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
coconut milk contained a substance 45 Klinostat is employed in the study
(a) flowering
which stimulated cell division. The of [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(b) production of hydrolysing
substance was later on called cytokinin. (a) osmosis
enzymes in germinating seeds
The most widely occurring cytokinin in (c) cell division (b) growth movements
plants is isopentanyladenine (IPA). IPA (c) photosynthesis
has been isolated from Pseudomonas (d) hasten leaf senescence
(d) respiration
tumefaciens.
Ans. (b) 49 Dwarfness can be controlled by 53 Which of the following movement

Clinostat/klinostat is an instrument treating the plant with is not related to auxin level?
which can nullify the effect of gravity [CBSE AIPMT 1992, 2002] [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
and allow a plant to grow horizontally by (a) cytokinin (b) gibberellic acid (a) Bending of shoot towards light
slowly rotating it.
(c) auxin (d) antigibberellin (b) Movement of root towards soil
Rotating clinostat do not show any
bending because the gravitation Ans. (b) (c) Nyctinastic leaf movements
stimulus in this case is not unilateral as The most important effect of GA is the (d) Movement of sunflower head
it affects all the sides of the rotating stem elongation, in which GA induces tracking the sun
organs equally, whereas plant kept in internodal elongation or sub-apical Ans. (c)
unrotated/fixed clinostat bends elongation. Phototropic movements, e.g. bending
downwards showing positive It has been confirmed on several of shoot toward light, movement of
geotropism. plants such as pea, bean, tomato, sunflower head tracking the sun, etc.
cabbage, etc. where a significant and geotropic movement,
46 Cytokinins [CBSE AIPMT 1992] elongation of internodes is reported. e.g. movement of root towards soil are
(a) promote abscission Genetically dwarf plants like pea and mediated through differential
(b) influence water movement maize show normal size in the distribution of IAA.
(c) help retain chlorophyll presence of gibberellins. Nyctinastic leaf movements are
(d) inhibit protoplasmic streaming affected by diurnal variation of light
50 A chemical believed to be involved intensity and temperature, such as
Ans. (c) elliptical up and down movement of the
in flowering is
Cytokinin retards the process of [CBSE AIPMT 1991, 95] two lateral leaflet.
chlorophyll degradation. Leaf discs are
taken in two lots. In one lot cytokinin is (a) gibberellin (b) kinetin
(c) florigen (d) IBA
54 Phototropic and geotropic
provided. After 48–72 hrs the leaf discs
movements are linked to
are compared for chlorophyll content. Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
The leaf disc of cytokinin containing lot Chailakhyan (1936) proposed that
has high chlorophyll content. (a) gibberellins (b) enzymes
photoperiodic induction produces a
(c) auxins (d) cytokinins
chemical complex ‘florigen’ for flowering.
47 Which is employed for artificial It is synthesised in the older leaves and Ans. (c)
ripening of banana fruits? then transferred to the growing region Differential distribution of indole
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] where it initiates the floral bud initiation. 3-acetic acid produces tropical plant
(a) Auxin However, florigen has not been responses like phototropism and
(b) Cumarin extracted, nor identified till now. geotropism. Phototropism is directional
(c) Ethylene growth movement of curvature induced
(d) Cytokinin 51 Abscisic acid causes by direction of light while geotropism is
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] directional movement of curvature
Ans. (c) caused by the unilateral application of
(a) stomatal closure
Ethylene is a gaseous hormone that force of gravity.
(b) stem elongation
induces ripening and maturity of fruits.
When applied as foliar spray ethylene (c) leaf expansion
55 Phytohormones are
accelerates maturity and induces (d) root elongation [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
uniform ripening in banana, pineapple, Ans. (a) (a) chemicals regulating flowering
fig, etc. It also induces fruiting in Application of minute quantity of
ornamental plants and causes (b) chemicals regulating secondary
abscisic acid to leaves shall reduce growth
preharvest defoliation in nursery stock. transpiration to a great extent through (c) hormones regulating growth from
partial closure of stomata.
48 Bananas can be prevented from seed to adulthood
over-ripening by (d) regulators synthesised by plants
52 The hormone responsible for and influencing physiological
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
apical dominance is processes
(a) maintaining them at room [CBSE AIPMT 1991, 92]
temperature Ans. (d)
(a) IAA (b) GA
(b) refrigeration (c) ABA (d) florigen Phytohormones (Thimann; 1948) are the
(c) dipping in ascorbic acid solution plant hormones, i.e. the organic
Ans. (a) substances which are naturally
(d) storing in a freezer Apical dominance is the phenomenon in produced in plants, control the growth
Ans. (c) which the presence of apical bud does or other physiological functions at a
Ascorbic acid (vitamin-C) prevents over not allow the nearby lateral buds to site away from their place of synthesis
ripening of banana and other fruits grow. This is characteristically caused and active in extremely minute
because it is an antioxidant. by high auxin concentration. quantities.
56 Highest auxin concentration Ans. (d) 63 Out or excised leaves remain

occurs Cytokinin retards senescence and green for long if induced to root or
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] ageing of leaves by preventing dipped in [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
(a) in growing tips disappearance of chlorophyll and
degradation of proteins that occur with
(a) gibberellins (b) cytokinins
(b) in leaves (c) auxins (d) ethylene
the ageing process of leaves.
(c) at base of plant organs
Ans. (b)
(d) in xylem and phloem 60 Which of the following hormones In Richmond-Lang effect, cytokinin
Ans. (a) can replace vernalisation? delays senescence of leaves. As
Boysen-Jensen (1913), Paal (1919) and [CBSE AIPMT 1989] cytokinin treated detached leaves
Went (1928) reported that stem tip is (a) Auxin (b) Cytokinin remain green after a period of twenty
the seat of growth regulating centre. (c) Gibberellins (d) Ethylene days whereas controlled leaves were
Auxin shows polar transport from stem completely yellow and drying at tips and
apex to base and from these to root Ans. (c) margins.
apex. Vernalisation refers to the application It was concluded that cytokinin was
of low temperature to moistened seeds able to postpone for a number of days
57 Abscisic acid controls and young plants, causing shortening of the disappearance of chlorophyll and
[CBSE AIPMT 1990, 93, 99, 2000]
vegetative phase and initiation of degradation of proteins that normally
reproductive phase. occur with the ageing process of
(a) cell division
Chailakhyan (1968) reported that under leaves.
(b) leaf fall and dormancy long-day conditions vernalin hormone
(c) shoot elongation turn into gibberellin and thus, in some
(d) cell elongation and wall formation plants, the requirement for
64 Hormone primarily connected with
Ans. (b) vernalisation is overcome by cell division is
gibberellins. [CBSE AIPMT 1988, 91]
Abscisic Acid (ABA) is called stress
hormone or dormin. It is a growth
(a) IAA
61 Leaves of many grasses are (b) NAA
retarding hormone which induces
dormancy, promotes ageing and capable of folding and unfolding (c) cytokinin/zeatin
abscission of fruits, leaves and flowers. because they [CBSE AIPMT 1989] (d) gibberellic acid
It also causes closure of stomata and (a) are very thin Ans. (c)
overcome the conditions of stress. (b) are isobilateral Cell division is by far the most
(c) have specialised bulliform cells characteristic property associated with
58 Mowing grass lawn facilitates
(d) have parallel vascular bundles cytokinins, though cytokinin never acts
better maintenance because alone, as in combination with auxins,
cytokinins stimulate cell division even in
(a) wounding stimulates regeneration Leaves of monocots are characterised non-meristematic tissues.
(b) removal of apical dominance and as isobilateral (equally green on both
stimulation of intercalary the surfaces), amphistomatic (stomata
on both surface), dumb bell-shaped
meristem
guard cells.
TOPIC 2
(c) removal of apical dominance
(d) removal of apical dominance and
The upper epidermis possesses groups Photoperiodism,
of larger sized thin walled vacuolate Vernalisation
promotion of lateral meristem cells called bulliform or motor cells.
Ans. (d) Bulliform cells help in rolling of leaves and Senescence
Apical dominance of terminal bud is due during water stress or drought.
to the secretion of auxin (IAA) by it. 65 The site of perception of light in
According to Thimann and Skoog (1933) 62 Movement of leaves of sensitive plants during photoperiodism is
removal of apical bud causes sprouting plant, Mimosa pudica is due to [NEET 2021]
of lateral buds with stimulation of [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
(a) shoot apex (b) stem
intercalary meristem and this is the (a) thermonasty (b) seismonasty
reason that mowing grass lawn (c) axillary bud (d) leaf
(c) hydrotropism (d) chemonasty
facilitates better maintenance. Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
The response of plants to periods of
59 Leaf fall can be prevented with the In seismonastic movement, response is day/night is termed as photoperiodism.
help of [CBSE AIPMT 1989] made to mechanical shocks such as The site of perception of photoperiod is
blows, shaking or pressure. In Mimosa, leaf. The hormone florigen is
(a) abscisic acid
turgor changes occur in thin walled cells responsible for inducing flowering as it
(b) auxins of pulvinus (lower side) and pulvinnules
(c) florigen migrates from leaves to shoot apices
(upper side), causing folding of on induction of required photoperiods.
(d) cytokinins pinnules, drooping of compound leaves.
66 What is the site of perception of Ans. (b) 73 Proteinaceous pigment which

photoperiod necessary for Photoperiodism was first discovered by control activities concerned with
induction of flowering in plants? Garner and Allard (1920, 1922). They light [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
[NEET (National) 2019] observed that maryland mammoth
variety of tobacco could be made to
(a) phytochrome (b) chlorophyll
(a) Pulvinus (b) Shoot apex flower only by reducing the light hours (c) anthocyanin (d) carotenoids
(c) Leaves (d) Lateral buds with artificial darkning. Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) On the basis of photoperiodic response Phytochromes are the plant
For the induction of flowering in to flowering plants have been divided chromoproteins, containing protein
plants, photoperiod stimulus is into short day plants (tobacco), long day pigment existing in two
percieved by the leaves of plants. As plant (e.g. wheat, hanbane), short long inter-convertible forms—Pr (absorbs red
a result, floral hormones are day plants. (e.g. Campanula), long short light- 660 nm) and Pfr (absorbs far red
produced in the leaves which are day plants (e.g. Bryophyllum) light-730 nm). It controls flowering,
intermediate plants (e.g. wild kidney seed dormancy, etc.
then translocated to the apical part
bean) and day neutral plants
and subsequently cause the initiation
(e.g. cotton). 74 The method that renders the seed
of floral primordial growth.
coat permeable to water so that
70 The wavelength of light absorbed embryo expansion is not physically
67 Phytochrome is a
[NEET 2016, Phase II] by Pr form of phytochrome is retarded, is [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(a) flavoprotein (a) vernalisation (b) stratification
(a) 640 nm (b) 680 nm
(b) glycoprotein (c) denudation (d) scarification
(c) 720 nm (d) 620 nm
(c) lipoprotein Ans. (d)
(d) chromoprotein Ans. (b)
In many plants, the seed coats are quite
When P r absorbs red light (650-670 nm)
Ans. (d) tough and provide mechanical
it is converted into P fr form and when
Phytochrome is a chromoprotein which resistance to the growth of the
P fr absorbs far red light (730-735 nm) it
exist in two forms,Pr and Pfr . These are embryos. Scarification done by
is converted back into P r form.
inter-convertible. When plants get red abrasion through machine, threshing,
right this protein gets converted intoPfr filing, etc this process is done to
71 One set of a plant was grown at 12 rupture or weaken the seed coat and
form Pr and vice versa. It controls the
photoperiodism in the plants.
hr day and 12 hr night period promote germination.
cycles and it flowered while in the
other set night phase was 75 The response of different
68 A few normal seedlings of tomato
interrupted by flash of light and it organisms to environmental
were kept in a dark room. After a
did not produce flower. Under rhythms of light and darkness is
few days they were found to have
which one of the following called [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
become white-coloured like
categories will you place this (a) phototaxis (b) photoperiodism
albinos. Which of the following
plant? [CBSE AIPMT 2004] (c) phototropism (d) vernalisation
terms will you use to describe
them? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] (a) Long-day Ans. (b)
(a) Mutated (b) Darkness neutral Photoperiodism is the term to denote
(b) Embolised (c) Day neutral (d) Short-day a biological response to changes in
the ratio of light and darkness in a 24
(c) Etiolated Ans. (d) hrs cycle.
(d) Defoliated The condition shows that the plant
Ans. (c) require photo-period shorter than the 76 The pigment, that absorbs red and
critical day length. This plant needs far-red light in plants, is
Etiolation is a process in which
uninterrupted dark period for flowering.
flowering plants are grown in partial or [CBSE AIPMT 1995, 2002]
Therefore, it is a short-day plant and
complete absence of light. Etiolation is (a) xanthophyll (b) cytochrome
these do not flower if the dark period is
mainly characterised by long and weak (c) phytochrome (d) carotene
interrupted with flashes of light.
stem and smaller, sparse pale yellow
colour of leaves due to the longer Ans. (c)
internodes. Thus due to this tomato 72 Which one is a long-day plant? Phytochrome is a type of pigment
seeding became white coloured. [CBSE AIPMT 2001] which absorbs red or far-red light and
(a) Tobacco (b) Glycine max its absorbing region is closely
69 Importance of day length in (c) Mirabilis jalapa (d) Spinach associated with protein. The
phytochrome pigment is found to be
flowering of plants was first Ans. (d) present in two photoreversible forms
shown in [CBSE AIPMT 2008] Plants which require long-day Pr (P660 ) and Pfr (P730 ) ⋅
(a) Lemna (b) tobacco photoperiod for flowering and a small Red light
(c) cotton (d) Petunia dark period for vegetation are known as Pr Pfr
long-day plants, e.g. spinach. (inactive) Far red (active)
77 What will be the effect on 79 In short-day plants, flowering is 81 Which one increases in the
phytochrome in a plant subjected induced by [CBSE AIPMT 1992] absence of light?
to continuous red light? (a) photoperiod less than 12 hrs [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
[CBSE AIPMT 1997] (b) photoperiod below a critical (a) Uptake of minerals
(a) Level of phytochrome decreases length and uninterrupted long (b) Uptake of water
(b) Phytochrome is destroyed night (c) Elongation of internodes
(c) Phytochrome synthesis increases (c) long night (d) Ascent of sap
(d) Destruction and synthesis of (d) short photoperiod and interrupted Ans. (c)
phytochrome remain in long night In general intense light retards growth
equilibrium Ans. (b) in plants. High light intensities induce
Ans. (b) In short-day plants, flowering is induced dwarfening of the plant. Absence of
Continuous exposure to red light when the day length do not exceed a light reduces the overall growth,
causes (a) conversion of Pr -Pfr which is certain critical value, the day length photosynthesis, uptake of minerals and
rapidly destroyed, (b) inhibition of required is less than a certain critical ascent of sap. However, the elongation
synthesis of Pr . Thus, total amount of length. Short-day plants may be more of internodes is seen to occur in the
phytochrome is decreased. correctly called long night plants as a absence of light.
certain minimum of uninterrupted dark
78 If a tree, flowers thrice in a year period in 24 hrs is necessary for their 82 Phytochrome is involved in
flowering. Short-day plants will not [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
(Oct., Jan. and July) in Northern
flower if the dark period is less than a (a) phototropism
India, it is said to be critical length.
[CBSE AIPMT 1997] (b) photorespiration
(a) photosensitive but (c) photoperiodism
80 Flowering dependent on cold
thermoinsensitive (d) geotropism
treatment is [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(b) thermosensitive but Ans. (c)
(a) cryotherapy
photoinsensitive Phytochrome is a chromoprotein
(b) cryogenics
(c) hoto and thermosensitive (photosensitive pigment) that exists in
(c) cryoscopy
(d) photo and thermoinsensitive two states, Pr (red) or P660 and Pfr (far red)
(d) vernalisation or P730 .
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) Phytochrome is involved in
Since, flowering can take place during
Vernalisation is a process of shortening photomorphogenetic responses, seed
any part of the year, therefore, the plant
of juvenile or vegetative phase and germination, bud dormancy, synthesis
is not sensitive to photoperiod and
hastening flowering by a previous cold of gibberellin and ethylene and
temperature.
treatment. photoperiodism.
16
Digestion and
Absorption
TOPIC 1 03 Match the following structures with Ans. (b)
Components of Food their respective location in organs. The terms, thecodont, diphyodont and
[NEET (National) 2019] heterodont describe human dentition. In
and Digestive System men, two types of teeth are found, milk
Column I Column II or deciduous teeth and permanent
01 Sphincter of Oddi is present at A. Crypts of Lieberkuhn (i) Pancreas teeth. Thus, they have diphyodont
[NEET 2021] teeth. The teeth are thecodont, i.e. they
B. Glisson's capsule (ii) Duodenum remain embedded in the sockets of the
(a) ileo-caecal junction C. Islets of Langerhans (iii) Small jaw bones. Men have four types of teeth;
(b) junction of hepato-pancreatic duct intestine incisors, canine, premolars and molars,
and duodenum i.e., heterodont teeth.
D. Brunner's glands (iv) Liver
(c) gastro-oesophageal junction
(d) junction of jejunum and duodenum Select the correct option from the 05 Conversion of milk to curd
Ans. (b) following improves its nutritional value by
Sphincter of Oddi is the smooth muscle A B C D increasing the amount of
or a muscular valve that surrounds the (a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) [NEET 2018]
end portion of the common bile duct and (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (a) vitamin-B 12
pancreatic duct (hepato-pancreatic (c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (b) vitamin-A
duct). It controls the flow of digestive (d) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) (c) vitamin-D
juices into the intestine.
Ans. (b) (d) vitamin-E
02 Identify the correct statement with (A)–(iii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(ii) Ans. (a)
reference to human digestive Crypts of Lieberkuhn are simple, tubular Conversion of milk to curd improves its
intestinal glands which occur throughout nutritional value by increasing the
system. [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
the small intestine between the villi. amount of vitamin-B12 .
(a) Serosa is the innermost layer of the They secrete digestive enzymes and Vitamin-A is found in milk, carrot,
alimentary canal mucus. Glission’s capsule is the inner tomato, etc. Skin can synthesise
(b) Ileum is a highly coiled part thin layer of connective tissue in liver. vitamin-D in the presence of sunlight.
(c) Vermiform appendix arises from Islets of Langerhans constitute the Vitamin-E is found in wheat, green
duodenum endocrine part of pancreas which
leafy vegetables, etc.
(d) Ileum opens into small intestine secrete hormones.
Brunner’s glands are located in the 06 A baby boy aged two years is
Ans. (b) submucosa of duodenum and they open
The option (b) is correct as ileum is a admitted to play school and passes
into the crypts of Lieberkuhn.
highly coiled tube with reference to through a dental check-up. The
human digestive system. Other option 04 Which one of the following terms dentist observed that the boy had
can be corrected as describe human dentition? twenty teeth. Which teeth were
Serosa is the outermost layer of the [NEET 2018] absent? [NEET 2017]
alimentary canal. A narrow finger-like (a) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont (a) Incisors
tubular projection, the vermiform
(b) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont (b) Canines
appendix arises from caecum part of
(c) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont (c) Premolars
large intestine. Ileum opens into the
large intestine. (d) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont (d) Molars
Ans. (c) There is one more portal system in Due to the improper movement of
In human beings, after birth the first set human body named hypophyseal portal epiglottis, one may suddenly start
of teeth that develops are deciduous system present in the hypothalamus, coughing while swallowing some food.
teeth or temporary teeth. These are 20 which brings neuro secretions of
in number. The dental formula of child is hypothalamus to pituitary gland. 12 Epithelial cells of the intestine
2102/2102. The renal portal system is found in involved in food absorption have on
Thus, they have 2 incisors, 1 canine, 0 fishes and amphibians. It supplies blood their surface [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
premolars and 2 molars. Therefore, from posterior region of the body to the
kidneys by renal portal veins to remove (a) pinocytic vesicles
the baby boy would not have (b) phagocytic vesicles
waste products before sending it to
premolars. (c) zymogen granules
heart via renal veins and post canal
veins. (d) microvilli
07 Which cells of ‘Crypts of
Lieberkuhn’ secrete antibacterial Ans. (d)
09 Which of the following guards the The mucosa and sub-mucosa of small
lysozyme ? [NEET 2017] opening of hepatopancreatic duct intestine are thrown into folds. Surfaces
(a) Argentaffin cells into the duodenum? of these folds are covered by fine,
(b) Paneth cells [NEET 2016, Phase I] finger-like projections of the epithelium.
(c) Zymogen cells (a) Ileocaecal valve These projections are called villi. In
(d) Kupffer cells (b) Pyloric sphincter addition, the epithelial cells of the villi
Ans. (b) (c) Sphincter of Oddi are covered on their exposed surface by
cytoplasmic projections called microvilli.
The mucosa present in between the (d) Semilunar valve
bases of villi of small intestine (Crypts Ans. (c) 13 The richest sources of vitamin–B 12
of Lieberkuhn) contain paneth, which Sphincter of Oddi guards the opening
secrete antibacterial lysozyme. are [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
of hepatopancreatic duct into the (a) goat’s liver and Spirulina
duodenum. Hepatopancreatic duct
(b) chocolate and green gram
Villi brings secretion of liver as well as
pancreas to the duodenum. (c) rice and hen’s egg
Lacteal
(d) carrot and chicken’s breast
10 The primary dentition in human Ans. (a)
Capillaries differs from permanent dentition in Vitamin-B12 (cyanocobalamin) is the only
not having one of the following vitamin which is not found in vegetables.
Artery type of teeth [CBSE AIPMT 2015] It is present in animal protein such as
Crypts of meat, liver, fish and Spirulina (single cell
Lieberkuhn (a) Canine (b) Premolars protein). It promotes DNA synthesis,
Vein (c) Molars (d) Incisors maturation of RBCs and myelin formation.
A section of small intestinal mucosa
Ans. (b)
showing villi and the Crypts of
There are four classes of teeth, i.e. 14 Which one is correctly matched ?
Concept Enhancer Kupffer cells are incisors, canines, premolars and molars. [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
phagocytic cells of liver. There are no premolars in primary (a) Vit-E–Tocopherol
Zymogen cells produce enzyme. dentition (deciduous or boby teeth). (b) Vit-D–Riboflavin
Argentaffin cells produce hormones. These are found only in permanent (c) Vit-B–Calciferol
dentition (adult teeth). (d) Vit-A–Thiamine
08 The hepatic portal vein drains Ans. (a)
blood to liver from [NEET 2017] 11 Two friends are eating together on
Option (a) is correctly matched.
(a) heart (b) stomach a dining table. One of them Thiamine, riboflavin, calciferol,
(c) kidneys (d) intestine suddenly starts coughing while tocopherol are also known as vitamin-B1 ,
Ans. (d) swallowing some food. This vitamin-B2 , vitamin-D2 and vitamin-E
coughing would have been due to respectively.
In the hepatic portal system, the hepatic
veins takes blood from intestine to the improper movement of
liver. This way, it takes all the nutrients [CBSE AIPMT 2011] 15 The layer of cells that secrete
absorbed from intestine to the liver first, (a) diaphragm (b) neck enamel of tooth is
where screening and storing of nutrition (c) tongue (d) epiglottis [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
takes place. (a) dentoblast (b) amiloblast
Concept Enhancer Ans. (d)
(c) osteoblast (d) odontoblast
The portal system is a system of veins in The epiglottis is a flap that is made of
elastic cartilage tissue covered with a Ans. (d)
which vein takes blood to some
organ/tissue of the body other than mucous membrane, attached to the The pulp cavity contains a mass of dense
heart. In this, the vein has capillary entrance of the larynx. It prevents the but soft connective tissue which is
network at it’s both ends. entry of food into the larynx and directs called pulp. A single layer of odontoblast
it to the oesophagus. cells is lined by the pulp cavity.
Digestion and Absorption 153
These cells secrete enamel which is a (a) Haversian duct 24 The proteolytic enzyme renin is
bluish white, shiny translucent and the (b) Stenson’s duct found in [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
hardest substance of the body. (c) Wolffian duct (a) intestinal juice (b) bile juice
(d) Infra-orbital duct (c) gastric juice (d) pancreatic juice
16 A dental disease characterised by
moltting of teeth is due to the Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
presence of a certain chemical Parotid glands are largest salivary The proteolytic enzyme rennin is found
glands, present just below the external in gastric juice of infants which helps in
element in drinking water. Which of ear. These are compound tubulo-acinar the digestion of milk proteins, casein
the following is that element? glands. Saliva is secreted by Stenson’s into paracasein.
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] duct which open opposite to the second
(a) Mercury (b) Chlorine upper molar tooth.
25 The enzyme enterokinase helps in
(c) Fluorine (d) Boron
21 Lamina propria is connected with conversion of [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Ans. (c) (a) trypsinogen into trypsin
[CBSE AIPMT 1988]
Increased amount of fluorine in drinking (b) caseinogen into casein
water causes fluorosis, responsible for
(a) acini
(b) liver (c) pepsinogen into pepsin
moltting of teeth.
(c) Graafian follicle (d) protein into polypeptides
17 Brunner’s glands occur in (d) intestine Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] Ans. (d) The correct option is (a) because
(a) sub-mucosa of duodenum Lamina propria of ileum shows yellow the enzyme enterokinase helps in
(b) sub-mucosa of stomach coloured oval, granular masses of lymph conversion of trypsinogen into trypsin.
(c) mucosa of oesophagus nodules called ‘Peyer’s patches.’ Trypsinogen is activated by an
(d) mucosa of ileum enzyme, enterokinase, secreted by
TOPIC 2 the intestinal mucosa into active
Ans. (a) trypsin. Trypsinogen is a zymogen
Brunner’s glands are convoluted and Functioning of released from pancreas.
branched glands found only in duodenum Digestive System
and located in sub-mucosa. 26 Match the items given in Column I
22 Succus entericus is referred to as with those in Column II and choose
18 In man the zymogen or chief cells
[NEET 2021] the correct option.
are mainly found in [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
[CBSE AIPMT 1990]
(a) pancreatic juice
(b) intestinal juice Column I Column II
(a) cardiac part of stomach
(c) gastric juice
(b) pyloric part of stomach 1. Rennin (i) Vitamin-B 12
(d) chyme
(c) duodenum 2. Enterokinase (ii) Facilitated
(d) fundic part of stomach Ans. (b) transport
Ans. (d) Succus entericus also known as
3. Oxyntic cells (iii) Milk proteins
intestinal juice. It is a fluid secreted in
Chief cells or zymogen are mainly found small intestine in small quantity. The 4. Fructose (iv) Trypsinogen
in fundic part of stomach which secretes secretion of the brush border cells of the
two proenzymes, pepsinogen and mucosa along with the secretions of 1 2 3 4
prorennin and an enzyme gastric lipase. goblet cells constitute succus entericus. (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
It consist of various enzymes like (b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
19 Whartson’s duct is associated with lipases, disaccharides, nucleosidases (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
[CBSE AIPMT 1988]
etc. and mucus. (d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(a) sub-lingual salivary duct
(b) parotid salivary gland Ans. (d)
23 Intrinsic factor that helps in the
(c) sub-maxillary salivary gland The correct matches are
absorption of vitamin-B 12 is
(d) Brunner’s glands 1. Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme that
secreted by [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
causes
Ans. (c) (a) goblet cells (b) hepatic cells coagulation of milk.
Whartson’s duct is associated with (c) oxyntic cells (d) chief cells 2. Enterokinase converts trypsinogen
sub-maxillary salivary gland. These lie into its
Ans. (c)
beneath the jaw angles, their secretion is active form trypsin.
carried by Whartson’s duct which open Parietal cells or oxyntic cells secrete HCl
and intrinsic factor. These intrinsic 3. Oxyntic cells (also called parietal
below the tongue. These are compound
factors are essential for absorption of cells) during digestion release
acinar gland.
vitamin-B12 . Goblet cells secrete mucus. stomach acid to allow release of
20 Duct leading from parotid gland Peptic or chief-cells secrete the vitamin- B 12 from food.
and opening into vestibule is proenzyme pepsinogen. Hepatic cells 4. Fructose is absorbed by facilitated
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] secrete bile. transport into the blood capillaries.
27 Identify the cells whose secretion Ans. (c) transport of the molecules or ions
protects the lining of Cholecystokinin (CCK) and secretin are across a biological membrane via
the peptide hormones that stimulate the specific transmembrane integral
gastrointestinal tract from various
production of pancreatic juice and protein.
enzymes. [NEET (National) 2019]
bicarbonates within the alimentary canal.
(a) Goblet cells (b) Oxyntic cells Secretin acts on the exocrine pancreas 34 Select the correct match of the
(c) Duodenal cells (d) Chief cells and stimulates the secretion of water digested products in humans given
Ans. (a) and bicarbonate ions. in column I with their absorption
Secretions of goblet cells protect the CCK acts on both pancreas and gall site and mechanism in column II.
lining of gastrointestinal tract from bladder and stimulates the secretion of [NEET 2013]
various enzymes. These cells secrete pancreatic enzymes and bile juice
mucus which along with bicarbonate ions respectively. Hence, option (c) is Column I Column II
helps in the lubrication and protection of correct. (a) Glycine and Small intestine and
the mucosal epithelium from the glucose active absorption
excoriation by the highly concentrated 31 The enzyme that is not present in (b) Fructose and Small intestine
HCl. On the other hand, oxyntic or succus entericus is Na + passive absorption
parietal cells secrete hydrochloric acid. [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (c) Glycerol and Duodenum and move
Chief cells or peptic cells secrete fatty acids as chilomicrons
(a) maltase (b) nucleases
proenzymes-pepsinogen and prorenin.
(c) nucleosidase (d) lipase (d) Cholesterol Large intestine and
and maltose active absorption
28 Which of the following options best Ans. (b)
represents enzyme composition of Succus entericus or intestinal digestive Ans. (a)
pancreatic juice? [NEET 2017] juice contains a variety of enzymes like
Amino acids, monosaccharides like
(a) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen, disaccharidases (e.g. maltase),
glucose, electrolytes like Na + are
rennin dipeptidases, lipases, nucleosidases.
absorbed into the blood by active
(b) Amylase, pepsin, trypsinogen, maltase Nucleases are enzymes present in
transport. Fructose and some amino
pancreatic juice that break nucleic acids
(c) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin acids are absorbed with the help of the
into nucleotides.
(d) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, carrier ions like Na + by facilitated
procarboxypeptidase transport. Fatty acid and glycerol cannot
32 The initial step in the digestion of be absorbed into the blood. They are
Ans. (d) milk in humans is carried out by? first incorporated into small droplets
Pancreas consist of exocrine and [CBSE AIPMT 2014, 11] called micelles, which move into the
endocrine part. Exocrine part secrets (a) Lipase (b) Trypsin intestinal mucosa.
alkaline pancreatic juice. This juice
(c) Rennin (d) Pepsin
contains trypsinogen, 35 If for some reason our goblet cells
chymotrypsinogen, procarboxypeptidase, Ans. (d) are non-functional, this will
lipase, amylase, elastase. In humans, the milk protein digesting adversely affect [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
Concept Enhancer Renin and pepsin enzyme in stomach is pepsin. In calves it
enzymes are present in gastric juice. is rennin. It is also present in small (a) production of somatostatin
Maltase is present in the intestinal juice. amounts in human infants but not (b) secretion of sebum from the
adults. Pepsin acts on water soluble sebaceous glands
29 In the stomach, gastric acid is ‘caseinogen (milk protein) to form (c) maturation of sperms
secreted by the [NEET 2016, Phase I] soluble ‘casein’. This combines with (d) smooth movement of food down the
(a) parietal cells calcium salts to form insoluble calcium intestine
paracaseinate, which gets readily Ans. (d)
(b) peptic cells
digested enzymatically.
(c) acidic cells Goblet cells are something like a
(d) gastrin secreting cells wineglass that present in the columnar
33 Fructose is absorbed into the blood epithelium of the mammalian intestine
Ans. (a) through mucosa cells of intestine and secrete mucin, a mucoprotein that
In stomach, gastric acid (HCl) is secreted by the process called forms mucus when in solution. If Goblet
by parietal cells of gastric gland. It [CBSE AIPMT 2014] cells become non-functional, this will
makes the medium of food in stomach (a) active transport adversely affect smooth movement of
acidic for stimulation of proteolytic food down the intestine due to the
enzymes of stomach.
(b) facilitated transport
absence of mucin.
(c) simple diffusion
30 Which hormones do stimulate the (d) co-transport mechanism 36 Carrier ions like Na + facilitate the
production of pancreatic juice and Ans. (b) absorption of substance like
bicarbonate? [NEET 2016, Phase II] Fructose is absorbed into the blood [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) Angiotensin and epinephrine through mucosa cells of intestine by (a) amino acids and glucose
(b) Gastrin and insulin the process called facilitated (b) glucose and fatty acids
(c) Cholecystokinin and secretin transport thus, facilitated transport is (c) fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Insulin and glucagon the process of spontaneous passive (d) fructose and some amino acids
Ans. (d) (a) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete (d) Enterokinase will not be released
Active transport occurs with the help of the proenzyme pepsinogen from the duodenal mucosa and so
energy, usually against concentration (b) Fructose and amino acids are trypsinogen is not converted to
gradient. For this, cell membrane absorbed through intestinal mucosa trypsin
possesses carriers and gated channels. with the help of carrier ions likeNa + Ans. (c)
Active transport of one substance is (c) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein
The parietal cells (oxyntic cells) are large
often accompanied by permeation of particles that are transported from
and most numerous on the side walls of
other substances. intestine into blood capillaries
gastric glands. These secrete hydrochloric
The phenomenon is called secondary (d) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by acid and castle intrinsic factor. The peptic
active transport. It is of two main types, salivary amylase in our mouth cells (zymogen) of gastric glands secrete
i.e. Co-transport, (e.g. glucose and some Ans. (c) gastric digestive enzymes as
amino acids along with inward pushing of proenzymes-pepsinogen and prorennin
Chylomicrons are lipoprotein particles
excess Na + ) and counter transport and small amount of gastric amylase and
synthesised by intestinal epithelial cells
(Ca2 + and H + movement outwardly as and consisting mainly of triglycerides. gastric lipase. The hydrochloric acid
excess Na + passes inwardly). maintains a strongly acidic pH of about
Chylomicrons are the form, in which
dietary fat is transported in the 1.5-2.5 in the stomach. HCl converts
37 A young infant may be feeding circulatory system. pepsinogen and prorennin to pepsin and
entirely on mother’s milk, which is rennin respectively.
white in colour but the stools, which 40 Which one of the following is the
the infant passes out is quite
42 Secretin and cholecystokinin are
correct matching of the site of
digestive hormones. They are
yellowish. What is this yellow colour action on the given substrate, the
secreted in [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
due to? [CBSE AIPMT 2009] enzyme acting upon it and the end
(a) oesophagus
(a) Intestinal juice product? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(b) ileum
(b) Bile pigments passed through bile (a) Duodenum: Triglycerides trypsin
juice monoglycerides (c) duodenum
(c) Undigested milk protein casein (b) Small intestine: Starchα-amylase (d) pyloric stomach
(d) Pancreatic juice poured into disaccharide (maltose) Ans. (c)
duodenum (c) Small intestine: Proteins pepsin Secretin and cholecystokinin (CCK) are
amino acids
Ans. (b) two main gastrointestinal (GI) hormones
(d) Stomach: Fats, Lipase micelles secreted in duodenum of alimentary
The stools, which the infant passes out
is quite yellowish due to the bile Ans. (b) canal. CCK stimulates gall bladder
pigments. These bile pigments are In small intestine food meats with the contraction and thus increases the flow
released in the bile juice. pancreatic juice containingα-amylase, of bile salts into the intestine.
which converts starch into maltose, Secretin stimulates the release of an
38 Which one of the following pairs of isomaltose and α-dextrins in small alkaline pancreatic fluid that neutralises
intestine. stomach acid as it enters the intestine.
food components in humans
Pancreatic α-amylase
reaches the stomach totally Starch → Maltose 43 Duodenum has characteristic
undigested? [CBSE AIPMT 2009] (disaccharide)
Brunner’s glands which secrete two
(a) Protein and starch The pancreatic juice also contains
proenzymes trypsinogen,
hormones called
(b) Starch and fat
chymotrypsinogen and [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(c) Fat and cellulose
(d) Starch and cellulose
procarboxypeptidase. The trypsinogen is (a) kinase, oestrogen
converted to active trypsin in intestine (b) secretin, cholecystokinin
Ans. (c) by enterokinase of intestinal juice. The (c) prolactin, parathormone
In humans, starch is digested in trypsin converts proteins into large
(d) estradion, progesterone
buccopharyngeal cavity. Cellulose is not peptides and the large peptides are
digested in the humans because converted to dipeptide and amino acids Ans. (b)
cellulose containsβ-1, 4-linkage and by carboxypeptidase. Brunner’s gland secrete large amount of
vertebrates themselves do not possess mucus and bicarbonates to protect
any enzyme capable of hydrolysing β-1, 41 What will happen if the secretion of duodenal mucosa and to neutralise the
4-linkages. Protein is digested in parietal cells of gastric glands is acidic chyme. It also secretes two
stomach and fat in small intestine. Thus, hormones :
blocked with an inhibitor?
in the given options, fat and cellulose (a) Secretin
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
reach totally undigested in the stomach (b) Cholecystokinin (CCK)
of humans. (a) Gastric juice will be deficient in
chymosin These stimulate:
(b) Gastric juice will be deficient in (i) Secretion of pancreatic juice by
39 Which one of the following pancreas.
pepsinogen
statement is true regarding (ii) Release of bile from gall bladder.
(c) In the absence of HCl secretion,
digestion and absorption of food in inactive pepsinogen is not converted (iii) Formation of bile by liver and
humans? [CBSE AIPMT 2009] into the active enzyme pepsin pancreatic juice.
44 During prolonged fasting, in what Ans. (b) Ans. (c)

sequence are the following organic Secretin is a polypeptide hormone Cholecystokinin (also called
compounds used up by the body? secreted by the mucosa of duodenum pancreozymin) is a hormone of mucosa
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] and jejunum. of small intestine. It is released in
It perform two functions : (a) It response to chyme. It causes pancreas
(a) First carbohydrates, next proteins
stimulates sodium bicarbonate from to release pancreatic enzymes and gall
and lastly lipids
the pancreas which neutralises the bladder to eject bile.
(b) First proteins, next lipids and lastly
lcarbohydrates acid in the chyme so that it will not
damage the wall of the small intestine. 52 If pancreas is removed, the
(c) First carbohydrates, next fats and
lastly proteins (b) It increases the rate of bile compound which remain
(d) First fats, next carbohydrates and secretion in the liver. undigested is [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
lastly proteins (a) carbohydrates
48 The hormone that stimulates the (b) fats
Ans. (c)
stomach to secrete gastric juice is (c) proteins
During prolonged fasting, first of all [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
carbohydrates are utilised which include (d) All of these
glycogen stored in liver. This is followed (a) gastrin
Ans. (d)
by the breakdown of adipose tissue, thus (b) renin
Pancreas secretes pancreatic juice
providing lipids and lastly the body (c) enterokinase
which contain enzymes that acts on
utilises proteins. (d) enterogasterone proteins, carbohydrates and fats.
Ans. (a) Enzymes of pancreatic juice are
45 A certain person eats boiled (a) Pancreatic amylase which acts on
The stomach controls the production of
potato; one of the food component gastric juice by means of a digestive starch and glycogen
in it is [CBSE AIPMT 2000] hormone called gastrin. It is produced by (polysaccharides).
(a) lactose which is indigestible endocrine (hormone secreting) cells that (b) Trypsin, chymotrypsin and
(b) starch which does not get digested are scattered throughout the epithelium carboxypeptidases, which act on
(c) cellulose which is digested by of the stomach. proteins and lipase which acts on
triglycerides and converts it into
intestinal cellulase fatty acids and glycerol.
(d) DNA which gets digested by 49 Lactose is composed of
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] If pancreas is removed from the body,
pancreatic DNAase
the digestion of all these would not occur.
(a) glucose+ fructose
Ans. (d)
(b) glucose + glucose
Anything which cannot be digested
(c) glucose + galactose
53 Which one of the following vitamin
cannot serve as ‘food’. Therefore, starch can be synthesised by bacteria
and lactose in the present case have (d) fructose + galactose
Ans. (c) inside the gut? [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
been automatically deleted.
(a) B1 (b) C
Cellulose cannot be digested by human Lactose (C12 H22 O11 ) is a disaccharide
beings, thus option (c) also stands found in mammalian milk. It comprises (c) D (d) K
rejected. Pancreatic juice can digest galactose and glucose units which are Ans. (d)
DNA which is the component of every linked together byβ, 1-4 glycosidic Vitamin-K 2 (menaquinone) It is formed
cell. bonds. It is a reducing sugar. by bacteria in the gut, while vitamin-K1
(phylloquinone) is found in green plant
46 Cholecystokinin and duocrinin are 50 In vertebrates lacteals are found in leaves.
secreted by [CBSE AIPMT 1999] (a) ileum [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
Vitamin-B 1 (thiamine) It acts as
(a) adrenal cortex (b) thyroid gland (b) ischium TPP-coenzyme for decarboxylases.
(c) pancreas (d) intestine (c) oesophagous Vitamin-C (ascorbic acid). It helps in
(d) ear development of teeth gums and
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) maintenance of capillary wall.
Both cholecystokinin and duocrinin Vitamin-D (calciferol). It helps in
are hormones secreted by the Lacteals are found in ileum they are
lymph vessels draining villi of vertebrate maintenance of calcium and
intestine, while the former stimulates phosphorus balance within the body.
the gall bladder to release bile and small intestine. After digestion,
pancreas to release enzyme mixture, reconstituted fats are released into
lacteals as chylomicrons. 54 Which one of the following is a
the latter regulates the release of
mucus from Brunner’s glands. matching pair of a substrate and its
51 The contraction of gall bladder is particular digestive enzyme?
47 Which part of body secretes the due to [CBSE AIPMT 1998] [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
hormone secretin? (a) gastrin (a) Maltose — Maltase

[CBSE AIPMT 1999] (b) secretin (b) Lactose — Rennin
(a) Oesophagus (b) Duodenum (c) cholecystokinin (c) Starch — Steapsin
(c) Stomach (d) Ileum (d) enterogasterone (d) Casein — Chymotrypsin
Ans. (a) of stomach and stimulates the gastric Ans. (d)

Intestinal juices contain a number of glands to secrete gastric juices. Secretin is secreted byδ-cells of mucosa
oligosaccharidase which hydrolyse the Pancreozymin is secreted by mucosa of of duodenum which stimulates pancreas
specific oligosaccharides into their duodenum and stimulates the acinal and controls the volume of pancreatic
monosaccharides. Maltase is one of cells of pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice including water and electrolytes.
them, which hydrolyses maltose into two enzymes.
glucose molecules. Cholecystokinin is secreted by cells of 62 Pancreas produces
mucosa of duodenum and stimulates [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
55 The enzyme enterokinase helps in contraction of gall bladder to release (a) three digestive enzymes and one
the conversion of bile. hormone
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
58 Most of the fat digestion occurs in (b) three digestive enzymes and two
(a) pepsinogen into pepsin [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
hormones
(b) trypsinogen into trypsin (c) two digestive enzymes and one
(a) rectum (b) stomach
(c) caseinogen into casein hormone
(c) duodenum (d) small intestine (d) three digestive enzymes and no
(d) proteins into polypeptides
Ans. (d) hormone
Ans. (b) Fats are emulsified in small intestine by Ans. (b)
Enterokinase helps in conversion of the detergent action of bile salts.
trypsinogen into trypsin in small Pancreas produces pancreatic juice
Emulsification of fat converts large fat
intestine, which is an endoproteolytic which contains trypsinogen,
droplets into large number of small
enzyme and hydrolyses the peptones chymotrypsin, carboxypeptidases,
droplets, which provide larger surface
and proteoses into peptides. lipase, pancreaticα-amylase, elastage,
area to lipases.
nucleases. Out of these enzymes, the
Then pancreatic lipase (steapsin) which first three are concerned with protein
56 Rennin acts on is principal fat digesting enzyme, digest digestion which finally converts protein
[CBSE AIPMT 1994, 2000] about 2/3rd of fats in these stages. into small peptides. Pancreas also
(a) milk changing casein into calcium Then intestinal lipase hydrolyses secretes insulin and glucagon hormones
paracaseinate at 7.2–8.2 pH some tri, di and monoglycerides to which acts antagonastically in
(b) protein in stomach fatty acids and glycerol molecules. So, controlling the blood sugar level.
(c) fat in intestine the most of fat digestion occurs in
(d) milk changing casein into calcium small intestine. 63 Emulsification of fat will not occur
paracaseinate at 1-3 pH in the absence of
Ans. (d) 59 Secretion of gastric juice is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
Stomach secretes gastric juice pH stopped by [CBSE AIPMT 1993] (a) lipase
[1–3.5] which contains prorennin (a) gastrin (b) bile pigments
secreted by the zymogen cells. Inactive (b) pancreozymin (c) bile salts
prorennin is converted into rennin by (c) cholecystokinin (d) pancreatic juice
HCl. Rennin acts on casein, a protein
(d) enterogasterone Ans. (c)
milk changing it into calcium
paracaseinate, it is known as curdling of Ans. (d) Bile is a watery greenish fluid containing
milk. Enterogasterone is produced by small bile salts, bile pigments, cholesterol and
intestine and slows down the secretion phospholipid. Bile salts play an
57 Inhibition of gastric and stimulation of gastric juice and decreases the important role in digestion of fats.
gastric movements. Therefore in their absence
of gastric, pancreatic and bile emulsification of fat cannot take place.
secretions are controlled by
60 Where is protein digestion
hormones [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
accomplished? [CBSE AIPMT 1991] TOPIC 3
(a) gastrin, secretin, enterokinin and
cholecystokinin (a) Stomach (b) Ileum Nutritional and
(b) enterogasterone, gastrin, (c) Rectum (d) Duodenum Digestive Disorders
pancreozymin and cholecystokinin Ans. (b)
(c) gastrin, enterogasterone, The cells that line the ileum contain the
cholecystokinin and pancreozymin protease and carbohydrase enzymes 64 Kwashiorkor disease is due to
(d) secretin, enterogasterone, gastrin responsible for the final stages of [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
and enterokinin protein and carbohydrate digestion. (a) simultaneous deficiency of proteins
Ans. (b) These enzymes are present in the and fats
cytoplasm of the epithelial cells. (b) simultaneous deficiency of protein
Enterogasterone hormone secreted by
mucosa of duodenum inhibits secretion 61 Release of pancreatic juice is and calories
of gastric juices and slows down the stimulated by [CBSE AIPMT 1990, 89] (c) deficiency of carbohydrates
gastric movements. (d) protein deficiency not accompanied
(a) enterokinase (b) cholecystokinin by calorie deficiency
Gastrin is the hormone secreted by
G-cells/argentaffin cells of pyloric region (c) trypsinogen (d) secretin
Ans. (d) Ans. (c) C. A nutritional disorder in infants

Kwashiorkor disease is due to protein Prolonged starvation causes marasmus and young children when the diet
deficiency not accompanied by calorie disease due to a generalised wasting of is persistently deficient in
deficiency in the children of age 1-5 body because of both energy and protein essential protein.
years. It’s symptoms are weak muscle, deficiency. The body becomes lean and
D. Occurs in those countries where
thin limbs, retarded growth of the body weak, eyes depressed and skin wrinkled.
and brain, swelling of legs due to the staple diet is polished rice.
Kwashiorkor is a disease caused by
retention of water (oedema), reddish continued deficiency of proteins in diet E. The symptoms are pain from
hair, pot belly, etc. although energy intake may be adequate. neuritis, paralysis, muscle
Rickets (in children) occurs due to the wasting, progressive oedema,
65 Good vision depends on adequate deficiency of vitamin-D. mental deterioration and finally
intake of carotene rich food. Pellagra occurs due to the deficiency heart failure.
Select the best option from the of nicotinamide (vitamin-B 5 ). (a) A, B and D (b) B, C and E
following statements. [NEET 2017] (c) A, C and E (d) B, D and E
I. Vitamin-A derivatives are formed 68 Which one of the following is a
Ans. (d)
from carotene. fat-soluble vitamin and it’s related
The deficiency of vitamin-B 1 or thiamine
II. The photopigments are deficiency disease ?
causes the disease beri-beri. This
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
embedded in the membrane disease occurs in those countries where
discs of the inner segment. (a) Ascorbic acid — Scurvy the staple diet is polished rice.
(b) Retinol — Xerophthalmia The symptoms of this disease are pain
III. Retinal is a derivative of
(c) Cobalamine — Beri-beri from neuritis, paralysis, muscle wasting,
vitamin-A.
(d) Calciferol — Pellagra progressive oedema, mental
IV. Retinal is a light absorbing part deterioration and finally heart failure.
of all the visual photopigments. Ans. (b)
(a) (I) and (II) (b) (I), (III) and (IV) Xerophthalmia is caused due to the
71 Which one of the following is the
(c) (I) and (III) (d) (II), (III) and (IV) deficiency of vitamin-A (retinol). Retinol
and calciferol are fat soluble vitamins correct matching of a vitamin, its
Ans. (b) but pellagra is not the deficiency disease nature and its deficiency disease ?
Vitamin-A is a group of unsaturated of calciferol. [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
nutritional organic compounds that (a) Vitamin-A—Fat soluble—Night
includes retinol, retinal, retinoic acid and 69 A patient is generally advised to blindness
β-carotene. specially, consume more meat, (b) Vitamin-K—Fat soluble—Beri-beri
Vitamin-A is needed by the retina of eye lentils, milk and eggs in diet only (c) Vitamin-A—Fat soluble—Beri-beri
in the form of retinal, which combines
with protein opsin to form rhodopsin, the
when he suffers from (d) Vitamin-K—Water soluble—Pellagra
light absorbing molecule.
(a) kwashiorkor (b) rickets Fat soluble vitamins are A, D, E and K.
66 Anxiety and eating spicy food (c) anaemia (d) scurvy Deficiency of vitamin-A leads to night
together in an otherwise normal Ans. (a) blindness or nyctalopia because
vitamin-A is essential for synthesis of
human, may lead to The deficiency of proteins within the
visual pigments (rhodopsin).
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] body is responsible for a disease, known
(a) indigestion (b) jaundice as kwashiorkor. So, a kwashiorkor
diseased patient is generally advised to 72 Which one of the following pairs is
(c) diarrhoea (d) vomiting
specially, consume more meat, lentils, not correctly matched?
Ans. (a) milk and eggs because these are rich [CBSE AIPMT 2003, 04]
Unhealthy eating habits together with sources of protein. (a) Vitamin-B12 — Pernicious anaemia
anxiety, stress or panic attacks may (b) Vitamin-B1 — Beri-beri
cause indigestion, stomach ache, 70 Which group of three of the
stomach palpitations, nausea, etc. (c) Vitamin-C — Scurvy
following five statements (A–E)
(d) Vitamin-B2 — Pellagra
contains all three correct
67 When breast feeding is replaced by Ans. (d)
statements regarding beri-beri ?
less nutritive food low in proteins [CBSE AIPMT 2005] Pellagra (Italian Pelle = skin, agra =
and calories; the infants below the rough) is a skin disease which is caused
A. A crippling disease prevalent by the deficiency of vitamin-B 3 or niacin.
age of one year are likely to suffer among the native population of
from [CBSE AIPMT 2009] Pellagra is especially frequent among
sub-Sahara Africa. the people eating food with low
(a) marasmus (b) rickets B. A deficiency disease caused by tryptophan (an essential amino acid).
(c) kwashiorkor (d) pellagra lack of thiamine (vitamin-B1 ).
73 Stool of a person contains whitish The main sources of vitamin-K are green Ans. (c)
leafy vegetables such as cauliflower,
grey colour due to malfunction of Vitamin-C or ascorbic acid prevents
cabbage, spinach, etc. It is also found in
which type of organ ? scurvy (failure to form connective
animal sources like egg yolk, liver, etc.
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] tissue). Characterised by bleeding gums,
Vitamin-K is essential for blood clotting
anaemia, loose teeth, painful and
(a) Pancreas (b) Spleen and deficiency of it causes haemorrhage.
swollen joints, delayed healing of
(c) Kidney (d) Liver wounds and emaciation.
Ans. (d)
76 Which one of the following is a
protein deficiency disease? 79 Calcium deficiency occurs in the
Bilirubin is broken down to urobilinogen
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
and stereobilinogen. Yellowish brown absence of vitamin
colour of stool is due to the (a) Eczema (b) Cirrhosis [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
stereobilinogen. (c) Kwashiorkor (d) Night blindness
(a) D (b) C
Due to the malfunctioning of liver, Ans. (c) (c) E (d) B
insufficient production of Kwashiorkor is a protein deficiency
Ans. (a)
stereobilinogen leads to white stool. disease (no calorie deficiency but
structural). Its common symptoms are Vitamin-D (calciferol/antirachitic factor)
wasting of muscles, thinning of limbs, mainly helps in Ca/P balance in the body
74 In a person of advanced age, the
failure of growth and brain development fluids. It increases absorption of calcium
hair become thinner gradually. It from intestine so, it is necessary for
and diarrhoea.
happens because of decrease in formation of healthy bones and teeth.
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
77 For person suffering from high Deficiency of vitamin-D causes
(a) synthesis of glucose increased loss of Ca2 + in urine, so, no
blood cholesterol, the physicians
(b) synthesis of proteins Ca2 + gets deposited in the bones. This
recommend [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(c) energy availability cause rickets in children and in pregnant
(a) pure ‘deshi ghee’ or butter
(d) blood supply woman it causes osteomalacia.
(b) vegetable oil such as groundnut oil
Ans. (b) (c) red meat with layers of fats
In vertebrates,α-keratin (a protein)
80 Which of the following pair is
(d) vanaspati margarine characterised by swollen lips, thick
constitutes almost the entire dry weight
of hair. Therefore, as the person ages, Ans. (b) pigmented skin of hands and legs
metabolism decreases, synthesis of A patient of high blood cholesterol is and irritability?
protein decreases leading to thinning of suggested to take unsaturated fats as [CBSE AIPMT 1993, 94, 96]
hair. vegetable oils. Such as ground nut oil
(a) Thiamine — Beri-beri
because high intake of saturated fat
causes high blood cholesterol which (b) Protein — Kwashiorkor
75 Which of the following is
ultimately gets deposited in the walls of (c) Nicotinamide — Pellagra
mismatched? [CBSE AIPMT 1999] (d) Iodine — Goitre
arteries causing their blockage resulting
(a) Vitamin-K — Beri-beri in various cardiac-disease. Ghee, butter, Ans. (c)
(b) Vitamin-D — Rickets red meat vanaspati, they all are rich
Pellagra is characterised by swollen lips,
(c) Vitamin-C — Scurvy sources of saturated fats.
pigmented skin of hands, legs and
(d) Vitamin-A — Xerophthalmia irritability. This disease is caused by the
78 The vitamin-C or ascorbic acid deficiency of vitamin-B3 or niacin. This is
Ans. (a)
prevents [CBSE AIPMT 1995] pellagra protective vitamin and can be
Beri-beri is caused by the deficiency of
(a) rickets synthesised in the body from amino acid
vitamin-B1 (thiamine).
(b) pellagra tryptophan.
Vitamin-K is also known as
antihaemorrhagic factor. (c) scurvy
(d) antibody synthesis
17
Breathing and
Exchange of Gases
TOPIC 1 A–trachea or wind pipe is an air Ans. (a)
conducting tube through which transport
Human Respiratory of gases takes place. B–pleural
Option (a) is correctly mentioned as
alveoli which are the primary sites of
System: Structure membrane is double layered which exchange of gases. The exchange of
reduces friction on the lung surface. gases (O 2 and CO 2 ) between the alveoli
D–diaphragm is involved in the inspiration and the blood occurs by simple diffusion.
01 The figure shows a diagrammatic and expiration process of breathing.
view of human respiratory system
03 Which one of the following organs
with labels A, B, C and D. Select the 02 The figure given below shows a
in the human body is most affected
option, which gives correct small part of human lung where
due to shortage of oxygen?
identification and main function exchange of gas takes place. In [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
and/or characteristic. [NEET 2013] which one of the options given (a) Intestine (b) Skin
below, the one part A, B, C or D is (c) Kidney (d) Brain
correctly identified along with its Ans. (d)
A
function. [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
The brain cells are highly specialised.
Bronchus They cannot regenerate and respire
without O2 . Therefore, the shortage ofO2
Cut end of rib B leads to death of brain cells.
C D
Lung 04 In alveoli of the lungs, the air at the
D site of gas exchange, is separated
C
Heart A from the blood by
[CBSE AIPMT 1997]
B
(a) A–trachea-long tube supported by (a) alveolar epithelium only
complete cartilaginous rings for (b) alveolar epithelium and capillary
conducting inspired air endothelium
(a) A — Alveolar — main site of
(c) alveolar epithelium, capillary
(b) B–pleural membrane-surround ribs cavity exchange of
respiratory endothelium and tunica adventitia
on both sides to provide cushion
gases (d) alveolar epithelium, capillary
against rubbing
endothelium, a thin layer of tunica
(c) C–alveoli-thin walled vascular (b) D — Capillary — exchange of media and tunica adventitia
wall gases takes
bag-like structures for exchange of
place here Ans. (b)
gases
(d) D–lower end of lungs-diaphragm pulls (c) B — Red blood — transport of The wall of the capillaries consists of
cell mainly only tunica internae which is made up of
it down during inspiration haemoglobin simple squamous endothelium. The wall
Ans. (c) (d) C — Arterial — passes oxygen of alveoli is also very thin, consisting of
C–Alveoli are thin-walled vascular bag-like capillary to tissues squamous epithelium.
structures for exchange of gases.
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 161
(c) Inspiration occurs when atmospheric Ans. (d)

TOPIC 2 pressure is less than intrapulmonary The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is the total
Mechanism of Breathing pressure volume of air accommodated in the
(d) Expiration is initiated due to lungs at the end of a forced inspiration.
contraction of diaphragm This includes Residual Volume (RV),
05 Select the correct events that Ans. (b) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV), Tidal
Volume (TV) and Inspiratory Reserve
occur during inspiration. Statement (b) is correct as
Volume (IRV).
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] intrapulmonary pressure is lower than
the atmospheric pressure during TLC is also equals to vital capacity of
I. Contraction of diaphragm. residual volume. Thus, option (d) is
inspiration. Other statements can be
II. Contraction of external corrected as correct.
inter-costal muscles. (a) Inspiration occurs due to external
III. Pulmonary volume decreases. intercoastal muscles.
09 The maximum volume of air a
IV. Intra pulmonary pressure (c) Inspiration occurs when
person can breathe in after a
increases. atmospheric pressure is more than forced expiration is known as
intrapulmonary pressure. [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
(a) III and IV (b) I, II and IV
(c) Only IV (d) I and II (d) Inspiration is initiated due to (a) expiratory capacity
contraction of diaphragm. (b) vital capacity
Ans. (d)
(c) inspiratory capacity
Statement I and II are correct as during 07 Air is breathed through (d) total lung capacity
inspiration, the contraction of
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
diaphragm occurs which pulls it Ans. (b)
downward, while the external intercostal (a) trachea—lungs—larynx—pharynx—
Vital Capacity (VC) is the maximum
muscles contract and lifts up the ribs alveoli
volume of air a person can breathe in
and sternum. This increases the size of (b) nose—larynx—pharynx—bronchus—
after a forced expiration. This
the thoracic cavity and decreases the alveoli—bronchioles
includes ERV, TV and IRV or the
pressure inside. As a result, air rushes in (c) nostrils—pharynx—larynx—trachea—
maximum volume of air a person can
and fills the lungs. bronchi—bronchioles—alveoli
breathe out after a forced inspiration.
Statement III and IV are incorrect (d) nose—mouth—lungs
because during inspiration, the volume Ans. (c) 10 Tidal Volume and Expiratory
of the thoracic cavity increases. This In mammalian respiratory system, air is Reserve Volume of an athlete is
causes a similar increase in pulmonary breathed through nostrils, from nostrils
volume. An increase in pulmonary 500 mL and 1000 mL, respectively.
air passes through pharynx (common What will be his Expiratory Capacity
volume decreases the intrapulmonary passage for food and air) → larynx (voice
pressure to less than the atmospheric box) → trachea (wind pipe)→ bronchi (2 if the Residual Volume is 1200 mL?
pressure which forces the air from for each side lungs)→ bronchioles → [NEET (National) 2019]
outside to move into the lungs. alveoli (small sacs or pouches for (a) 1700 mL (b) 2200 mL
Air entering lungs exchange of gases). (c) 2700 mL (d) 1500 mL
Ans. (d)
Ribs and TOPIC 3 The Expiratory Capacity of athlete will be
sternum 1500 mL.
raised
Volume of
Respiratory Volumes It can be calculated as
thorax and Capacities Given, Tidal Volume (TV) = 500 mL
increased
Rib cage Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) = 1000 mL
Expiratory Capacity = TV+ERV
08 The Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is
Diaphragm = 500 + 1000 = 1500 mL
contracted the total volume of air
accommodated in the lungs at the 11 Match the items given in Column I
end of a forced inspiration. This with those in Column II and select
Mechanism of inspiration includes [NEET (Oct.) 2020] the correct option given below
(a) RV, IC (Inspiratory Capacity), EC [NEET 2018]
(Expiratory Capacity) and ERV
06 Select the correct statement. (b) RV, ERV, IC and EC Column I Column II
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] 1. Tidal volume (i) 2500–3000 mL
(c) RV, ERV, VC (Vital Capacity) and FRC
(a) Expiration occurs due to external (Functional Residual Capacity) 2. Inspiratory (ii) 1100–1200 mL
intercostal muscles (d) RV (Residual Volume), ERV (Expiratory reserve volume
(b) Intrapulmonary pressure is lower Reserve Volume), TV (Tidal Volume) 3. Expiratory (iii) 500–550 mL
than the atmospheric pressure during and IRV (Inspiratory Reserve Volume) reserve volume
inspiration
4. Residual volume (iv) 1000–1100 mL
1 2 3 4 The outer alveolar wall surface has cells Total lung capacity is the sum of vital
(a) i iv ii iii which secrete DPPC also called as lipid capacity and residual volume, i.e., vital
(b) iii i iv ii surfactant. capacity of our lungs is total lung
(c) iii ii i iv The surfactant expands the alveoli due capacity minus residual volume.
(d) iv iii ii i to which the negative pressure inside Tidal volume is the amount of air which
Ans. (b) the alveoli increases. This prevents the normally passes into and out of the lungs
alveoli from collapsing. Since, in this during each cycle of quite breathing. It is
Tidal Volume (TV) is the volume of air about 800 mL in adult person.
question both options (a) and (b) are
inspired or expired during normal breath.
correct and option (b) provides more Inspiratory reserve volume is the extra
It is about 500–550 mL.
appropriate explanation, therefore, it volume of air that can be inhaled into
Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) is the must be chosen. lungs during deepest possible
extra amount of air that can be inspired inspiration.
directly after a normal inspiration. It is 14 Listed below are four respiratory
about 2500–3000 mL.
capacities (1 - 4) and four jumbled 16 The quantity 1500 mL in the
Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) is
respiratory volumes of a normal respiratory volumes of a normal
the extra amount of air that can be
expired forcibly after a normal human adult human adult refers to
expiration. It is about 1000-1100 mL. [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
Respiratory
Residual Volume (RV) is the volume of (a) maximum air that can be breathed in
Respiratory
air which remains still in the lung after and breathed out
Capacities Volumes
the most forceful expiration. It is about (b) residual volume
1100-1200 mL. 1. Residual volume 2500 mL
2. Vital capacity 3500 mL (c) expiratory reserve volume
Therefore, option (b) is correct. (d) total lung capacity
3. Inspiratory reserve volume 1200
12 Lungs are made up of air-filled mL Ans. (b)
sacs, the alveoli. They do not 4. Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL Residual air is the volume of air that
remains in the lungs after the most
collapse even after forceful Which one of the following is the forceful expiration. It equals to 1500 mL.
expiration, because of [NEET 2017] correct matching of two capacities Residual air mostly occurs in alveoli.
(a) Residual Volume (RV) and volumes? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] Maximum air that can be breathed in
(b) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) (a) (2) 2500 mL, (3) 4500 mL and breathed out is vital capacity
(c) Tidal Volume (TV) (b) (3) 1200 mL, (4) 2500 mL (3500–4500 mL) while the air that can
(d) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV) (c) (4) 3500 mL, (1) 1200 mL be expired over and above the tidal air
Ans. (a) (d) (1) 4500 mL, (2) 3500 mL by most forceful expiration is the
expiratory reserve volume (1200 mL).
In lungs, even after the most forceful Ans. (c)
expiration, some of the volume of air
remains. This volume is termed Residual
Inspiratory Capacity (IC) is the maximum
amount of air that can be inspired after a
TOPIC 4
Volume (RV). Due to this, lungs do not
collapse even after the most forceful
normal expiration,IC = TV + IRV. It is Exchange and
3500 mL in adult male and 2400 mL in
expiration. RV is about 1100
adult female.
Transport of Gases
mL -1200 mL.
Residual Volume (RV) is the amount of
13 Lungs do not collapse between air remaining in the lungs after a 17 Assertion (A) A person goes to high
breaths and some air always forced exhalation. Its average value is altitude and experiences ‘altitude
1200 mL and 1100 mL in adult male and sickness’ with symptoms like
remains in the lungs which can
female respectively. breathing difficulty and heart
never be expelled because
[NEET 2016, Phase II] palpitations.
15 What is the vital capacity of our
(a) there is a negative pressure in the Reason (R) Due to low
lungs
lungs? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
atmospheric pressure at high
(b) there is a negative intrapleural (a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus
tidal volume
altitude, the body does not get
pressure pulling at the lung walls
(b) Total lung capacity minus expiratory sufficient oxygen.
(c) there is a positive intrapleural
pressure reserve volume In the light of the above
(d) pressure in the lungs in higher than (c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus statements, choose the correct
the atmospheric pressure expiratory reserve volume answer from the options given
(d) Total lung capacity minus residual
Ans. (b) below. [NEET 2021]
volume
Lungs do not collapse between breaths (a) Both A and R are true and R is the
and some air always remains in the lungs Ans. (d) correct explanation of A
which can be never expelled because Vital capacity is the sum of inspiratory (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the
there is a negative intrapleural pressure reserve volume, tidal volume and correct explanation of A
pulling at the lung walls. Alveoli are basic expiratory reserve volume. It is about (c) A is true, but R is false
functional unit of lungs. 4800 mL. (d) A is false, but R is true
Ans. (a) Column I Column II Ans. (b)

Both A and R are true and R is the A. Pneumotaxic 1. Alveoli Reduction in pH of blood, i.e. increase in
correct explanation of A. centre acidity favours the dissociation of
A person goes to the high altitude and B. O 2 dissociation 2. Pons region oxyhaemoglobin thereby giving upmore
experiences altitude sickness like heavy curve of brain O2 . When this phenomenon occurs due
to increase in CO2 concentration then it
breathing and heart palpitation. It is due C. Carbonic 3. Haemoglobin
is called Bohr effect.
to low atmospheric pressure at high anhydrase
altitude, the body does not get sufficient D. Primary site of 4. RBC
oxygen. exchange of gases
23 The partial pressure of oxygen in
the alveoli of the lungs is
18 Select the favourable conditions Codes [NEET 2016, Phase II]
required for the formation of A B C D (a) equal to that in the blood

oxyhaemoglobin at the alveoli. (a) 1 3 2 4 (b) more than that in the blood
[NEET 2021] (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) less than that in the blood
(a) High pO 2 , low pCO 2 , less H + , lower (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) less than that of carbon dioxide
temperature (d) 4 1 3 2 Ans. (b)
(b) Low pO 2 , high pCO 2 , more H + , higher Ans. (b) The partial pressure of oxygen(pO 2 ) in
temperature Option (b) is correct match, which is as alveoli of lungs is 104 mm Hg, which is
(c) High pO 2 , high pCO 2 , less H + , higher follows. Pneumotaxic centre is present more than that of blood in the blood
temperature in the pons region of the brain. capillaries of lung alveoli (40 mm Hg).
(d) Low pO 2 , low pCO 2 , more H + , higher O2 dissociation curve is useful in This difference allows passive diffusion
temperature studying the effect of factors like pCO2 , of O 2 from air filled in the lungs to the
H + concentration, etc., on binding ofO2 blood vessels of lung alveoli.
Ans. (a) with haemoglobin.
The favourable conditions for the Carbonic anhydrase is an enzyme 24 Approximately seventy percent of
formation of oxyhaemoglobin is high pO 2 , present on the surface of RBC. carbon dioxide absorbed by the
lesser H + concentration and lower Primary site of exchange of gases is the
temperature found in alveoli, whereas low blood will be transported to the
alveoli of the lungs.
pO 2 , high H + concentration and high lungs [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
temperature are favourable for (a) as bicarbonate ions
dissociation of oxygen from the 21 Identify the wrong statement with
(b) in the form of dissolved gas
oxyhaemoglobin found in tissues. reference to transport of oxygen. molecules
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(c) by binding to RBC
19 The partial pressures (in mm Hg) of (a) Partial pressure of CO 2 can interfere
(d) as carbaminohaemoglobin
oxygen (O 2 ) and carbon dioxide with O 2 binding with haemoglobin
(b) Higher H + concentration in alveoli Ans. (a)
(CO 2 ) at alveoli (the site of
favours the formation of The largest fraction of carbon dioxide,
diffusion) are [NEET 2021] oxyhaemoglobin i.e. about 70% is converted to
(a) pO 2 = 104 and pCO 2 = 40 (c) Low pCO 2 in alveoli favours the bicarbonates (HCO−3 ) and transported in
(b) pO 2 = 40 and pCO 2 = 45 formation of oxyhaemoglobin the plasma.
Carbonic Carbonic
(c) pO 2 = 95 and pCO 2 = 40 (d) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin
CO2 + H2 O a H2 CO3 a
(d) pO 2 = 159 and pCO 2= 0.3 is mainly related to partial pressure of Anhydrase Anhydrase
O2
Ans. (a) HCO−3 + H +
Ans. (b) About −23% of CO2 is carried by
Partial pressures of oxygen( in mm Hg)
and carbon dioxide at alveoli are pO 2 Statement in option (b) is incorrect with haemoglobin as carbaminohaemoglobin
= 104 and pCO 2 = 40. reference to transport of oxygen. It can CO2 + Hb (haemoglobin) s HbCO3
be corrected as
Carbo amino haemoglobin
Respir Atmos- Blood Blood In alveoli high pO 2 , low pCO 2 , low H +
atory pheric Alveoli (deoxy (oxyge Tissue concentration and lower temperature
gas air genated) nated)
25 People who have migrated from
are the factors that favour the formation
of oxyhaemoglobin. the planes to an area adjoining
O2 159 104 40 95 40 Rohtang Pass about six months
CO 2 0.3 40 45 40 45 22 Reduction in pH of blood will back [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (a) have more RBCs and their
20 Match the following columns and (a) reduce the blood supply to the brain haemoglobin has a lower binding
(b) decrease the affinity of haemoglobin affinity to O2
select the correct option from the
with oxygen (b) are not physically fit to play games
codes given below. (c) release bicarbonate ions by the liver
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] like football
(d) reduce the rate of heartbeat
(c) suffer from altitude sickness with Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
symptoms like nausea, fatigue, etc. Haemoglobin is the protein that makes Inhalation of polluted air causes increase
(d) have the usual RBC count but their red blood corpuscles appear red, binds in CO in the blood of a person. Carbon
haemoglobin has very high binding easily and reversibly with oxygen. Normal monoxide forms a stable compound with
affinity toO 2 values for haemoglobin are 14–20 g/100 haemoglobin called carboxy-
Ans. (a) mL of blood in infants, 13–18 g/100 mL in haemoglobin as affinity of Hb for CO is
adult male and 12–16 g/100 mL in adult 210 times greater than its affinity forO 2 .
As a person moves up a hill the pO2 and females. Foetal red blood cells are not In this form haemoglobin does not carry
total atmospheric pressure decreases. sickle-shaped even in that destined to oxygen resulting in death due to hypoxia.
Decrease in pO2 due to the increasing have sickle-cell anaemia, i.e. Hb + CO a Hb CO
altitude, stimulates the Juxtaglomerular haemoglobin of foetus has higher Haemoglobin Carboxy haemoglobin
cells of kidney to secrete erythropoietin affinity of oxygen than that an adult.
hormone which increases the number of
RBCs (polycythemia) to compensate the 30 When CO2 concentration in blood
28 People living at sea level have
supply of O2 . At higher altitude, increases, breathing becomes
haemoglobin has lower binding affinity around 5 million RBC per cubic
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
to O2 because the primary factor millimeter of their blood whereas
(a) shallower and slow
responsible for binding is pO2 which those living at an altitude of
decreases at higher altitude. (b) there is no effect on breathing
5400 metre have around 8 million.
(c) slow and deep
This is because at high altitude
26 Which two of the following changes [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(d) faster and deeper
(1- 4) usually tend to occur in the (a) atmospheric O 2 level is less and Ans. (d)
plain dwellers when they move to hence, more RBCs are needed to When CO2 concentration in blood
high altitudes (3,500 m or more)? absorb the required amount ofO 2 to increases breathing becomes faster and
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] survive deeper. The effect of increased CO2 is to
(b) there is more UV radiation which decrease the affinity of haemoglobin for
1. Increase in red blood cell size
enhances RBC production O2 .
2. Increase in red blood cell (c) people eat more nutritive food, Thus, due to Bohr’s effect the CO2
production therefore, more RBCs are formed released in respiring tissue accelerates
3. Increased breathing rate (d) people get pollution-free air to the delivery of oxygen by faster and
4. Increase in thrombocyte count breathe and more oxygen is available deeper breathing.
Changes occurring are Ans. (a)

31 The process of migration of
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] At high altitudes, the atmosphericO2
level is less and hence, more RBCs are chloride ions from plasma to RBC
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 needed to absorb the required amount and of carbonate ions from RBC to
of O2 to survive. That is why, the people plasma is [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
Ans. (a) living at sea level have around 5 million (a) chloride shift
When a person moves to higher RBC/mm 3 of their blood whereas, those
(b) ionic shift
altitudes, the pO2 and total atmospheric living at an altitude of 5400 meter have
pressure decrease. Hypoxia stimulates around 8 million RBC/mm 3 of their blood. (c) atomic shift
the Juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney (d) Na + pump
to release erythropoietin hormone which 29 Blood analysis of a patient reveals Ans. (a)
stimulates erythropoesis in bone an unusually high quantity of To maintain electrostatic neutrality of
marrow causing polycythemia (increase
carboxyhaemoglobin content. plasma, many chloride ions diffuse from
in RBCs production). Hypoxia will also
Which of the following conclusions plasma into RBCs and bicarbonate ions
increase breathing rate. Initially the size
pass out.
of RBCs will also increase but with is most likely to be correct?
increase in number of RBCs, the size of [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
The chloride content of RBCs increases
RBCs becomes normal. when oxygenated blood becomes
(a) The patient has been inhaling polluted
deoxygenated. This is termed as chloride
air containing unusually high content
shift or Hamburger shift.
27 The haemoglobin of a human of carbon disulphide
foetus [CBSE AIPMT 2008] (b) The patient has been inhaling polluted
air containing unusually high content
32 The exchange of gases in the
(a) has a lower affinity for oxygen than
of chloroform alveoli of the lungs takes place by
that of the adult
(c) The patient has been inhaling polluted [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(b) its affinity for oxygen is the same as
that of an adult air containing unusually high content (a) simple diffusion
(c) has only 2 protein sub-units instead of 4 of carbon dioxide (b) osmosis
(d) has a higher affinity for oxygen than (d) The patient has been inhaling polluted (c) active transport
that of an adult air containing unusually high content (d) passive transport
of carbon monoxide
Ans. (a) 36 Although much CO2 is carried in 39 Carbonic anhydrase occurs in

Oxygen diffuses from alveoli to blood, yet blood does not become [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
deoxygenated blood and CO2 diffuses acidic, because (a) lymphocytes (b) blood plasma
from deoxygenated blood to alveoli by [CBSE AIPMT 1995] (c) RBC (d) leucocytes
simple diffusion. Diffusion is defined as, (a) it is absorbed by the leucocytes
the flow of the substance (gases) from a Ans. (c)
(b) blood buffers play an important role in The erythrocyte (RBC) contains
region of their higher concentration to a
CO2 transport
region of lower concentration. sufficient amount of carbonic
(c) it combines with water to formH2 CO3 anhydrase enzyme which catalyses
which is neutralised by Na2 CO3
33 Which one of the following the reaction between CO 2 and H2O and
(d) it is continuously diffused through helps in transportation of CO 2 from
statements about blood tissues and is not allowed to
tissues to the lungs.
constituents and transport of accumulate
respiratory gases is most Ans. (b)
accurate? [CBSE AIPMT 1996] Buffer of the blood is sodium
TOPIC 5
(a) RBCs transport oxygen whereas bicarbonate which play an important Disorders of
WBCs transport CO2 role in CO2 transport. During CO2 Respiratory System
(b) RBCs transport oxygen whereas transportation, carbonic acid
plasma transports only CO2 dissociates intoH + and HCO–3
(c) RBCs as well as WBCs transport both (bicarbonate ions). This bicarbonate 40 According to Central Pollution
oxygen and CO2 combines with sodium forming sodium Control Board (CPCB) what size (in
(d) RBCs as well as plasma transport bicarbonate. Thus, concentration of diameter) of particulate is
both oxygen and CO2 carbonic acid does not increase in blood
responsible for causing greater
due to the presence of sodium and thus
Ans. (d) blood does not become acidic. About harm to human health?
RBCs and plasma both transportO2 and 70% of CO2 released during cellular [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
CO2 either in chemically bonded state or respiration is transported by blood in the (a) 3.5 micrometers
in dissolved state. form of sodium bicarbonate in plasma. (b) 2.5 micrometers
(c) 4.0 micrometers
34 At high altitude, the RBCs in the 37 Oxygen dissociation curve of (d) 3.0 micrometers
human blood will [CBSE AIPMT 1995] haemoglobin is [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Ans. (b)
(a) increase in size (a) sigmoid (b) hyperbolic
According to Central Pollution Control
(b) decrease in size (c) linear (d) hypobolic
Board (CPCB), particulate size 2.5
(c) increase in number Ans. (a) micrometers or less in diameter (PM
(d) decrease in number Oxygen haemoglobin dissociation curve 2.5) are responsible for causing the
gives the relationship between the greatest harm to human health. These
Ans. (c)
saturation of haemoglobin and oxygen fine particulates can be inhaled deep
At high altitude there is low O 2 tension. The curve obtained by plotting
concentration, so RBCs increase in into the lungs and can cause breathing
the percent saturation of Hb against and respiratory symptoms, irritation,
number, i.e. O 2 supply can be time is sigmoid, at 38°C and pH 7.4.
maintained to organs. inflammation and damage to the lungs
Dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin can be
and premature deaths.
promoted by rise in the body
35 The carbon dioxide is transported temperature and low pH (highCO2 ).
41 Which of the following is an
via blood to lungs as 38 Carbon dioxide is transported from
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] occupational respiratory disorder?
tissues to respiratory surface by [NEET 2018]
(a) dissolved in blood plasma only [CBSE AIPMT 1993] (a) Botulism (b) Silicosis
(b) in the form of carbonic acid only
(a) plasma and erythrocytes (c) Anthracis (d) Emphysema
(c) in combination with haemoglobin only
(b) plasma
(d) carbaminohaemoglobin and as Ans. (b)
carbonic acid (c) erythrocytes
Silicosis is an occupational respiratory
(d) erythrocytes and leucocytes disorder which is caused due to
Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) excessive inhalation of silica dust. It
Most of the CO2 (70%) that dissolves in
Carbon dioxide is transported from usually affects the workers of grinding or
plasma reacts with water forming
tissues to respiratory surface by only stone breaking industries. The long-term
carbonic acid. This reaction occurs
plasma and erythrocytes. Carbon exposure can cause lung fibrosis (or
rapidly inside RBCs because of the
dioxide (CO 2 ) transportation by blood stiffening), leading to breathing difficulties.
presence of an enzyme carbonic
anhydrase. Moreover, above 23% of total is much easier than oxygen due to the Anthracis or Anthrax is a bacterial
blood CO2 is transported by loosely high solubility of CO 2 in water. During infection caused by Bacillus anthracis.
binding with haemoglobin forming an transport of CO 2 , 7% of CO 2 is Botulism is food poisoning infection
unstable compound called dissolved in plasma, 23% as caused by Clostridium botulinum. Its
carbaminohaemoglobin. carbaminohaemoglobin and 70% symptoms include diarrhoea, vomiting,
transported as bicarbonates (HCO −3 ). abdominal distention, etc.
Emphysema is a lung disease, that 43 Name the chronic respiratory In this disease, the alveolar walls are
damages the air sacs and causes damaged leading to drastic reduction
disorder caused mainly by cigarette
shortness of breathe. It may be caused in gas exchange.
by smoking, deficiency of enzymes smoking [NEET 2016, Phase I]
alpha-1-antitrypsin and air pollution. (a) asthma
(b) respiratory acidosis
correct statement for respiration in
42 Which one of the following options (c) respiratory alkalosis
humans? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
correctly represents the lung (d) emphysema
(a) Cigarette smoking may lead to
conditions in asthma and Ans. (d) inflammation of bronchi
emphysema, respectively? Emphysema is characterised by inflation (b) Neural signals from pneumotoxic
[NEET 2018] or distension of alveoli by dissolution of centre in pons region of brain can
(a) Increased respiratory surface; wall of the two adjacent lung alveoli. It
increase the duration of inspiration
Inflammation of bronchioles generally occurs due to chronic
(b) Increased number of bronchioles; cigarette smoking. (c) Workers in grinding and stone
Increased respiratory surface breaking industries may suffer, from
(c) Inflammation of bronchioles; 44 Name the pulmonary disease in lung fibrosis
Decreased respiratory surface which alveolar surface area (d) About 90% of carbon dioxide(CO 2 ) is
(d) Decreased respiratory surface; involved in gas exchange is carried by haemoglobin as carbamino
Inflammation of bronchioles haemoglobin
drastically reduced due to damage
Ans. (c) in the alveolar walls. Ans. (c)
Asthma is inflammation of bronchioles. [CBSE AIPMT 2015] Irritating gases, fumes, dusts, etc.,
Its symptoms include wheezing, (a) Pleurisy present in the work place result in
coughing and difficulty in breathing (b) Emphysema lung disorders.
mainly during expiration. This is because the defence
(c) Pneumonia
Emphysema is an inflation or abnormal (d) Asthma mechanism of the body cannot fully
distension of the bronchioles or alveolar cope with this situation of so much
sacs of the lungs. Many of the septa Ans. (b) dust.
between the alveoli are destroyed and Empysema is a chronic respiratory Long exposure can give rise to
much of the elastic tissue of the lungs is disease where there is over-inflation inflammation leading to fibrosis
replaced by connective tissue. As a of the air sacs (alveoli) in the lung, (proliferation of fibrous tissue) and
result alveolar septa collapse and the causing a decrease in lung function thus causing serious lung damage.
surface area get greatly reduced. and often, breathlessness.
18
Body Fluids and
Circulation
TOPIC 1 Thrombin acts as a proteolytic enzyme Ans. (d)
to convert soluble plasma protein
Blood fibrinogen molecule produced from the
Parietal cells (oxyntic cells) secrete
hydrochloric acid and castle intrinsic
liver in the presence of vitamin-K to form
factor. HCl converts iron (in diet) from
01 Persons with ‘AB’ blood group are insoluble fibrin monomer.
ferric to ferrous form which can be easily
called as "universal recipients". This absorbed and used during erythropoiesis
is due to [NEET 2021] 03 Match the following columns and (formation of RBCs).
(a) absence of antigens-A and B on the select the correct option. Castle intrinsic factor helps in absorbing
surface of RBCs [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
vitamin-B12 and its deficiency causes
(b) absence of antigens-A and B in Column I Column II pernicious anaemia. The functions of
plasma other cells are as follows
(c) presence of antibodies, anti-A and A. Eosinophils 1. Immune response
Mucous or Goblet cells secrete mucus
anti-B on RBCs B. Basophils 2. Phagocytosis that lines the stomach and protects it
(d) absence of antibodies, anti-A and C. Neutrophils 3. Release histaminase from the acid present in stomach.
anti-B in plasma destructive enzymes
Chief cells secrete gastric digestive
Ans. (d) D. Lymphocytes 4. Release granules enzymes as proenzymes or zymogens.
Person with AB blood group are universal containing histamine
recipient because they do not have any 05 Match the items given in Column I
antibodies to anti-A and anti-B in their A B C D
with those in Column II and select
blood hence they can receive blood from (a) 4 1 2 3
a donor of any blood type. (b) 1 2 4 3 the correct option given below
[NEET 2018]
During transfusion, plasma is matched (c) 2 1 3 4
to avoid A and B antibodies in the (d) 3 4 2 1 Column I Column II
transfused plasma that will attack the Ans. (d) 1. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic
recipient's red blood cells. Person with balance
AB blood type does not contain A and B Option (d) is the correct. It can be
antibodies in plasma. Therefore, they are explained as follows 2. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
also called universal plasma donors. Eosinophils are associated with allergic
reactions and release histaminase, 3. Albumin (iii) Defence
mechanism
02 Which enzyme is responsible for destructive enzymes. Basophils secrete
histamine, serotonin, heparin, etc. and
the conversion of inactive are involved in inflammatory reactions. 1 2 3
fibrinogens to fibrins? [NEET 2021] Neutrophils are phagocytic cells. (a) (i) (iii) (ii)
(a) Thrombin (b) (i) (ii) (iii)
Both B and T lymphocytes are
(b) Renin responsible for immune responses of (c) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) Epinephrine the body. (d) (ii) (iii) (i)
(d) Thrombokinase Ans. (d)
04 Which of the following gastric cells Fibrinogen is a soluble plasma protein
Ans. (a)
indirectly help in erythropoiesis? that is stimulated by thrombin and gets
Plasma contains prothrombin and
[NEET 2018] converted into insoluble form fibrin. The
fibrinogen. During clotting, inactive
prothrombin converts to active thrombin. (a) Goblet cells (b) Mucous cells latter helps in the formation of blood clot
(c) Chief cells (d) Parietal cells to seal the wound and stop bleeding.
Globulins are simple proteins that form a Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
large fraction of blood serum proteins When all clotting factors along with cells Fibrinogen (factor 1] is a soluble plasma
involved in defence mechanism. There are removed from plasma, it becomes glycoprotein, synthesised by the liver. It is
are four main types of globulins that are serum. converted by thrombin into fibrin during
manufactured in liver, namely alpha-1, blood coagulation. Fibrin is then
alpha-2, beta and gamma. cross-linked by factor XIII to form a clot.
09 Person with blood group AB is
Albumin is a plasma protein that is
manufactured by the liver. It helps in
considered as universal recipient
because he has [CBSE AIPMT 2014] 12 A person with unknown blood
maintaining osmotic pressure which
prevents the fluid-leakage out into the (a) Both A and B antigens on RBC but no group under ABO system, has
tissues from the bloodstream. antibodies in the plasma suffered much blood loss in an
(b) Both A and B antibodies in the plasma accident and needs immediate
06 Adult human RBCs are enucleate. (c) No antigen on RBC and no antibody in blood transfusion. His one friend
Which of the following statement(s) the plasma who has a valid certificate of his
is/are most appropriate (d) Both A and B antigens in the plasma own blood type, offers for blood
but no antibodies
explanation for this feature? donation without delay. What
Ans. (a) would have been the type of blood
(I) They do not need to reproduce.
[NEET 2017] Blood group AB is universal recipient group of the donor friend?
because the person with AB blood group [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(II) They are somatic cells. has both A and B antigens on RBC but no
(III) They do not metabolise. (a) Type AB (b) Type O
antibodies in the plasma.Other blood
group and their genotypes are given (c) Type A (d) Type B
(IV) All their internal space is
available for oxygen transport. below Ans. (b)
Codes Blood Antigen (s) Antibodies Genotypes Blood type ‘O’ has no antigen but both
(a) Only (IV) group Present on Present in types of antibodies ‘a’ and ‘b’. The
(b) Only (I) the RBC Serum person with blood type ‘O’ is universal
(c) (I), (III) and (IV) donor.
A Antigen-A Anit-b AA/AO
(d) (II) and (III) B Anitigen-B Anti-a BB/BO 13 The most popularly known blood
Ans. (a) None grouping is the ABO grouping. It is
O Anti-a and b O
The absence of nucleus in RBC is an named ABO and not ABC because
adaptation that allows it to contain more
‘O’ in it refers to having
haemoglobin and carry more oxygen by 10 A certain road accident patient [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
providing empty space. This adaptation
with unknown blood group needs (a) other antigens besides A and B on
also aids in effective diffusion of oxygen.
immediate blood transfusion. His RBCs
Concept Enhancer RBCs are initially
one doctor friend at once offers his (b) over dominance of this type on the
produced in bone marrow with a nucleus.
blood. What was the blood group of genes for A and B types
They, then undergo enucleation at
(c) one antibody only—either anti-A or
maturity, in which their nucleus is the donor? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
removed. anti-B on the RBCs
(a) Blood group B (b) Blood group AB (d) no antigens A and B on RBCs
(c) Blood group O (d) Blood group A
07 Name the blood cells, whose Ans. (d)
reduction in number can cause Ans. (c)
Landsteiner divided human population
clotting disorder, leading to Blood group is tested by two types of into four groups based on the presence
sera, i.e. anti-A (antibody-A) and anti-B of antigens found in their RBCs. Each
excessive loss of blood from the
(antibody-B). Persons with blood group O group represented a blood group. Thus,
body. [NEET 2016, Phase II] possess both antibodies in their plasma there are four types of blood groups A, B,
(a) Erythrocytes (b) Leucocytes but have no antigens in their RBCs. So, AB and O. Blood group ‘O’ does not
(c) Neutrophils (d) Thrombocytes RBCs of blood group ‘O’ do not show contain any antigen on RBCs, hence can
clumping in any of the two sera. That’s be given to any person, that’s why this
Ans. (d)
why, persons with blood group ‘O’ are blood group is called universal donor.
A reduction in number of thrombocytes called universal donor and they can
can lead to clotting disorders which will donate blood to a person with any type of
result in excessive loss of blood from the
14 If you suspect major deficiency of
blood group.
body. These are also called blood platelets. antibodies in a person, to which of
the following would you look for
11 Which one of the following plasma
08 Serum differs from blood in confirmatory evidence?
proteins is involved in the
[NEET 2016, Phase II] [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
coagulation of blood?
(a) lacking globulins (a) Serum albumins
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(b) lacking albumins (b) Serum globulins
(a) Serum amylase (b) A globulin
(c) lacking clotting factors (c) Fibrinogen in the plasma
(c) Fibrinogen (d) An albumin
(d) lacking antibodies (d) Haemocytes
Body Fluids and Circulation 169
Ans. (b) Steroids are a group of lipids derived from Ans. (a)
Deficiency of antibodies can be a saturated compound cyclopentano Most of the T and B-lymphocytes (types
confirmed by serum globulins as perhydrophenanthrene which has a of leukocytes) continuously circulate
antibodies are also called nucleus of four rings. between the blood and lymph. These
immunoglobulins and constitute the Prostaglandin is a group of organic leave the blood stream, squeezing out
gamma globulin part of blood proteins. compounds derived from essential fatty between specialised endothelial cuts
These are secreted by activated B-cells acids and causing a range of found in certain small vessels and enter
or plasma cells. physiological effects in animals. various tissues including all the lymph
nodes.
15 A drop of each of the following, is 18 Which of the following substances, After percolating through a tissue, these
placed separately on four slides. if introduced in the blood stream, accumulate in small lymphatic vessels
Which of them will not coagulate? would cause coagulation, at the which connect to a series of lymph
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] nodes, from where they ultimately enter
site of its introduction?
the main lymphatic vessel (thoracic duct)
(a) Blood plasma [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
which carries them back into the blood.
(b) Blood serum (a) Fibrinogen
(c) Sample from the thoracic duct of (b) Prothrombin
lymphatic system
21 What is correct for blood group ‘O’?
(c) Heparin [CBSE AIPMT 2001, 1999]
(d) Whole blood from pulmonary vein (d) Thromboplastin (a) No antigens but both a and b
Ans. (b) Ans. (d) antibodies are present
Serum will not coagulate. Because Lipoproteinaceous, thromboplastin is (b) A antigen and b antibody
serum do not contain clotting factor, released by the injured tissue which (c) Antigen and antibody both absent
RBCs or WBCs. It is blood plasma not causes blood clotting. In blood vessels, (d) A, B antigens and a, b antibodies
including the fibrinogens. thromboplastin do not release due to
which blood does not clot. Ans. (a)
16 Examination of blood of a person But external thromboplastin to blood will In blood of ‘O’ group, no antigens are
suspected of having anaemia, shows cause blood clotting at the site of its present on red blood cells, but both
large, immature, nucleated introduction due to the formation of anti-a and anti-b antibodies are present
prothrombinase. in plasma. Blood group A has antigen ‘A’
erythrocytes without haemoglobin. and antibody ‘b’.
Supplementing his diet with which of Blood group B has antigen ‘B’ and
the following, is likely to alleviate his 19 You are required to draw blood antibody ‘a’. Blood group AB has antigens
symptoms? [CBSE AIPMT 2006] from a patient and to keep it in a ‘A’ and ‘B’ but no antibody in plasma.
(a) Thiamine test tube for analysis of blood
(b) Folic acid and cobalamin corpuscles and plasma. You are 22 Haemoglobin is a type of
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(c) Riboflavin also provided with the following
(d) Iron compounds (a) carbohydrate
four types of test tubes. Which of
(b) vitamin
Ans. (d) them will you not use for the (c) skin pigment
Anaemia refers to any condition in which purpose? [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(d) respiratory pigment
there is an abnormally low haemoglobin (a) Test-tube containing calcium
concentration and/or blood cell count. bicarbonate Ans. (d)
The most common cause is deficiency of (b) Chilled test tube Haemoglobin (Hb) is a proteinaceous
iron which is an essential element of (c) Test tube containing heparin respiratory pigment made up of a protein
haemoglobin molecule. Thus, the iron (d) Test tube containing sodium oxalate called globin with iron[Fe 2 + ] containing
compounds in the diet will help to porphyrin as prosthetic group. It binds to
alleviate the symptoms of anaemia. Ans. (a) oxygen reversibly.
Clotting of collected blood can be
17 Antibodies in our body are complex prevented by coating the test tubes with 23 Which is the principal cation in the
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] silicon or adding chelating agents. plasma of the blood?
(a) lipoproteins Citrate, oxalate, heparin and EDTA are [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(b) steroids anticoagulants.
(a) Magnesium (b) Sodium
(c) prostaglandins (c) Potassium (d) Calcium
(d) glycoproteins
20 What is correct regarding
leucocytes? [CBSE AIPMT 2000] Ans. (b)
Ans. (d) The concentration ofNa + in plasma is
(a) These can squeeze out through (can
Antibodies are the proteins cross) the capillary walls 0.32% followed byK + (0.02%) and
(glycoproteins) called immunoglobulins. (b) These are enucleate magnesium (0.0025%).
These are produced by B-lymphocytes in The mineral ions likeNa + and others
(c) Sudden fall in their number indicates
response to entry of a foreign substance present in the blood plasma play an
cancer
or antigen into the body. Lipoproteins essential role in the maintenance of
(d) These are produced in thymus
are the micellar complex of protein and osmotic pressure of the blood.
lipids.
24 Which of the following is 28 Cells formed in bone marrow Ans. (c)

agranulocyte? [CBSE AIPMT 1997] include [CBSE AIPMT 1993] Blood group A has A antigen and b
(a) Lymphocyte (b) Eosinophil (a) RBC antibody and blood group O has no
antigens and both a and b antibodies so,
(c) Basophil (d) Neutrophil (b) RBC and leucocytes
if a patient with blood group A needs
Ans. (a) (c) leucocytes blood, both A and O blood group can be
White Blood Corpuscles (WBC) or (d) lymphocytes given to him.
leucocytes can be divided into two Ans. (b)
groups on the presence/absence of In the developing foetus, the 32 Which one engulfs pathogens
minute granules in the cytoplasm. haemopoietic tissues are liver and rapidly? [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
(a) Granulocytes which contain granules. spleen, while after birth RBCs are mainly (a) Acidophils (b) Monocytes
e.g. neutrophils, eosinophils and produced in the bone marrow of the long (c) Basophils (d) Neutrophils
basophils. bones. The formation of leucocytes
(b) Agranulocytes which do not contain occurs in the bone marrow, Peyer’s Ans. (d)
granules. lymphocytes, monocytes. patches, lymph nodes, thymus, spleen Neutrophils are granulocytes, i.e.,
etc. and it is called as leucopoiesis. cytoplasm is filled with fine granules.
25 The life span of human WBC is These granules are actually lysosome
approximately [CBSE AIPMT 1997] 29 Removal of calcium from freshly and Golgi bodies. These are the chief
(a) less than 10 days collected blood would phagocytic cells of the body and engulf
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] the microbes by phagocytosis, so
(b) between 20-30 days
neutrophils are also called soldiers of the
(c) between 2-3 months (a) cause delayed clotting
body.
(d) more than 4 months (b) prevent clotting
Ans. (a) (c) cause immediate clotting 33 Child death may occur in the
(d) prevent destruction of haemoglobin
Human WBC (or leukocytes) life span is marriage of
approximately less than 10 days. Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 1988, 2000]
Leukocytes constitute less than 1% of Blood clotting starts when (a) Rh + man and Rh + woman
the cells in human blood. They are large prothrombinase in the presence of (b) Rh + man and Rh − woman
in size than red blood cells. They have Ca2 + converts inactive prothrombin into
nucleus but no haemoglobin. (c) Rh − man and Rh − woman
thrombin which in turn converts
dissolved fibrinogen protein into fine (d) Rh − man and Rh + woman
26 Which one of the following thread-like fibrin. The network of fibrin Ans. (b)
vertebrate organs receives the covers the wound in which blood Rhesus antibodies are formed in the
oxygenated blood only? corpuscles get endulge and form clot. If plasma of Rh– woman who have been
[CBSE AIPMT 1996] Ca2 + is removed, it will prevent clotting. pregnanted with Rh + babies, if the foetal
(a) Gill (b) Lung blood leaks across the placenta during
(c) Liver (d) Spleen 30 In the ABO system of blood groups, the birth the mother body starts
if both antigens are present but no preparing antibodies against the
Ans. (d) Rh-antigen. Later Rh + foetus would be at
antibody, the blood group of the
Only spleen and brain always receive risk and may suffer from haemolysis.
oxygenated blood. Gills and lungs are the individual would be
blood purifying organs, i.e. here blood [CBSE AIPMT 2004, 1991]
34 RBCs do not occur in
becomes oxygenated and these two (a) B (b) O (c) AB (d) A [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
organs always receive deoxygenated Ans. (c)
blood. Liver is a part of hepatic portal
(a) frog (b) cow
system, in which hepatic portal vein (c) camel (d) cockroach
Blood Antigen on Antibodies in
carries food laiden blood from groups RBC serum Ans. (d)
alimentary canal and associated glands
A A anti-b RBCs or red blood corpuscles are meant
before finally returning to heart.
B B anti-a for the transportation of respiratory
gases in the blood and these are present
27 Antigens are present AB A and B – in all vertebrates.
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
O – anti-a and anti-b In cockroach haemolymph is present
(a) inside the nucleus
Hence, blood group AB has no antibodies which serves for the transportation of
(b) on cell surface nutrients, maintains hydrostatic
in serum but both antigens A and B.
(c) inside the cytoplasm pressure and acts as a reservoir of
(d) on nuclear membrane water.
31 A person with blood group A
Ans. (b) requires blood. The blood group
Antigens (Ag) are foreign particles 35 Breakdown product of
which can be given is haemoglobin is [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
present on the surface of cell and when
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
introduced in the blood they initiate a (a) bilirubin (b) iron
specific immune response against (a) A and B (b) A and AB
(c) biliverdin (d) calcium
themselves. (c) A and O (d) A, B, AB and O
Ans. (a) Ans. (d) The SAN (Sino-Atrial Node) can generate
Haemoglobin of erythrocytes split off Vitamin-K (phylloquinone) is required for the maximum number of action
into heme and globin. The core of iron in the synthesis of prothrombin necessary potentials, i.e 70-75 min, i.e. the highest
heme is salvaged, bound to protein as for blood clotting. It is synthesised by rate of depolarisation and is responsible
hemosiderin and stored for reuse. bacteria in the colon. Vitamin-K is for initiating and maintaining the
commonly called anti-haemorrhagic rhythmic contractile activity of the
The remaining of the heme group is
vitamin. Its deficiency leads to bleeding, heart. Therefore, it is called pacemaker.
degraded to bilirubin a yellow pigment
that is released into the blood. Bilirubin i.e. no coagulation or clotting.
is picked up by liver cells which in turn 41 A specialised nodal tissue
secrete it into the intestine where it is embedded in the lower corner of
metabolised to urobilinogen. TOPIC 2 the right atrium, close to
36 One of the factors required for the

Structure of the Human atrio-ventricular septum, delays
Circulatory System: Heart the spreading of impulses to heart
maturation of erythrocytes is apex for about 0.1 sec. The delay
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
allows [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
(a) vitamin-D 39 The QRS complex in a standard (a) blood to enter aorta
(b) vitamin-A ECG represents [NEET (Sep.) 2020] (b) the ventricles to empty completely
(c) vitamin-B12 (a) depolarisation of auricles (c) blood to enter pulmonary arteries
(d) vitamin-C (b) depolarisation of ventricles (d) the atria to empty completely
Ans. (c) (c) repolarisation of ventricles Ans. (d)
Vitamin-B12 (cobalamin) promotes DNA (d) repolarisation of auricles Atrio-Ventricular Node (AVN) present in
synthesis, maturation of erythrocytes the lower corner of the right atrium,
Ans. (b)
and myelin formation. Vitamin-D delays the spreading of impulses to
(calciferol), It is necessary for the Option (b) is correct and can be explained
as in an ECG there occurs five heart ventricles for about 0.1 second.
formation of healthy bones and teeth. This pause allows the atria to empty
consecutive waves: P, Q, R, S and T.
Vitamin-A (retinol), It is necessary for completely into the ventricles before the
P wave represents depolarisation of
proper body growth and night vision. ventricles pump out the blood.
atria and leads to contraction of both
Vitamin-C (ascorbic acid), It helps in
atria.
wound healing, blood formation and 42 What would be the heart rate of a
QRS complex represents depolarisation
absorption of iron. person if the cardiac output is 5 L,
of ventricles which leads to initiation of
ventricular contraction. blood volume in the ventricles at
37 The haemorrhagic disease of new the end of diastole is 100 mL and at
T wave represents return of ventricles
born is caused due to the from excited to normal state. the end of ventricular systole is 50
deficiency of [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
mL? [NEET (National) 2019]
(a) vitamin-A 40 All the components of the nodal (a) 75 beats per minute
(b) vitamin-B1 tissue are autoexcitable. Why does (b) 100 beats per minute
(c) vitamin-B12 the SA node act as the normal (c) 125 beats per minute
(d) vitamin-K pacemaker? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] (d) 50 beats per minute
Ans. (d) (a) SA node has the lowest rate of Ans. (b)
depolarisation
The haemorrhagic disease of new born is As per the given data, the heart rate of
(b) SA node is the only component to the person would be 100 beats per minute.
caused due to the deficiency of
generate the threshold potential It can be calculated as follows Given,
vitamin-K, characterised by delayed
(c) Only SA node can convey the action Cardiac output = 5L (5000 mL) Blood
blood clotting and haemorrhage (blood
potential to the other components volume in ventricles at the end of diastole
loss).
(d) SA node has the highest rate of = 100 mL
depolarisation
38 Vitamin-K is required for Blood volume at the end of ventricular
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] Ans (d) systole
(a) formation of thromboplastin The nodal musculature has the ability to = 50 mL
(b) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin generate action potentials without any So, Stroke volume = 100 − 50 = 50 mL
external stimuli, i.e. it is autoexcitable. Cardiac output = Stroke volume × Heart
(c) conversion of prothrombin to
However, the number of action rate, i.e.
thrombin
potentials that could be generated in a
(d) synthesis of prothrombin 5000 mL = 50 mL × Heart rate
minute vary at different parts of the
nodal system. Therefore, Heart rate = 100 beats/min.
43 Match the following columns. Ans. (c) (a) contraction of both the atria
[NEET (National) 2019] The atrioventricular opening between (b) initiation of the ventricular
the left atrium and left ventricle is contraction
Column I Column II guarded by the bicuspid valve. It is also (c) beginning of the systole
A. P - wave (i) Depolarisation of called as mitral valve. The right (d) end of systole
ventricles atrioventricular opening is guarded by
Ans. (a)
B. QRS complex (ii) Repolarisation of the tricuspid valve. It has three flaps.
ventricles Semilunar valve is found in right In ECG, P-wave represents the
ventricle and pulmonary artery. depolarisation of atria which leads to the
C. T-wave (iii) Coronary ischemia
contraction of both atria. T-wave
D. Reduction in (iv) Depolarisation of Therefore, option (c) is correct.
represents the return of ventricles from
the Size of atria excited to normal state. The QRS
T-wave 45 Doctors use stethoscope to hear complex represents the depolarisation
(v) Repolarisation of the sounds produced during each of the ventricles which initiates
atria cardiac cycle. The second sound is ventricular contraction. The contraction
heard when [CBSE AIPMT 2015] starts shortly after Q and marks the
Select the correct option. beginning of systole.
A B C D (a) AV valves open up
(b) ventricular walls vibrate due to
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
gushing in of blood from atria
48 ‘Bundle of His’ is a part of which
(b) (ii) (i) (v) (iii) (c) semilunar valves close down after the one of the following organs in
(c) (ii) (iii) (v) (iv) blood flows into vessels from humans? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) ventricles (a) Heart (b) Kidney
(d) AV node receives signal from SA node (c) Pancreas (d) Brain
Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
(A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii)
In healthy adults, there are two normal The bundle of His, are specialised
In an Electrocardiograph (ECG), P-wave
heart sounds often described as lub and muscle fibres for electrical conduction
represents the depolarisation of atria
dup. These are the first heart sound and present in the heart which were named
which is caused by the activation of SA
second heart sound produced by the after the Swiss cardiologist Wilhelm His,
node. QRS complex represents
closing of the AV valves and semilunar Jr., who discovered them in 1893. These
depolarisation of ventricles which is
valves respectively. are also known as AV bundle which is a
caused by the impulse of contraction from
collection of heart muscle cells
AV node.
T-wave represents repolarisation of
46 Which one of the following animals
ventricles and reduction in its size has two separate circulatory 49 If due to some injury the chordae
signifies coronary ischemic, i.e. when pathways? [CBSE AIPMT 2015] tendinae of the tricuspid valve of
the heart muscles receive insufficient (a) Frog (b) Lizard the human heart is partially
oxygen as in arteriosclerotic heart (c) Whale (d) Shark non-functional, what will be the
disease. immediate effect?
Ans. (c)
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
44 Match the items given in Column I The circulatory system in which two
distinct and separate circulatory (a) The flow of blood into the aorta will be
with those in Column II and select slowed down
pathways for blood flow are involved, is
the correct option given below called double circulatory system (also, (b) The ‘pacemaker’ will stop working
[NEET 2018] double-loop circulatory system). It (c) The blood will tend to flow back into
occurs in mammals and birds. Whale is a the left atrium
Column I Column II
mammal, so it shows above (d) The flow of blood into the pulmonary
1. Tricuspid (i) Between left characteristic. artery will be reduced
valve atrium and left
ventricle Ans. (d)
2. Bicuspid (ii) Between right
47 The diagram given here is the If chordae tendinae of the tricuspid
valve ventricle and standard ECG of a normal person. valve became partially non-functional
pulmonary artery The P-wave represents the due to the injury then the flow of blood
3. Semilunar (iii) Between right [NEET, CBSE AIPMT 2013, 2009] into the pulmonary artery will be
valve atrium and right reduced. Because chordae tendinae,
R arise from papillary muscles and insert
ventricle
upon the flaps of tricuspid and bicuspid
1 2 3 valves and the valves in the heart allow
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) the flow of blood only in one direction,
(b) (i) (iii) (ii) T i.e., from the atria to the ventricles and
P Q from the ventricles to the pulmonary
(c) (iii) (i) (ii)
artery or aorta.
(d) (ii) (i) (iii)
50 In humans, blood passes from the Mast cells are especially prevalent in the Ans. (b)
connective tissue of the skin, respiratory
post caval to the diastolic right Right auricle opens in right ventricle
tract and in surrounding blood vessels. through a wide circular right
atrium of heart due to
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] auriculoventricular aperture guarded by
54 The correct route through which right auriculoventricular valve which is
(a) pushing open of the venous valves pulse-making impulse travels in the formed of three flaps called cusps, so it
(b) suction pull heart is [CBSE AIPMT 1995] is called tricuspid valve. It regulates the
(c) stimulation of the sino auricular node unidirectional flow of blood from right
(a) AV node → Bundle of His→ SA node
(d) pressure difference between the post → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles auricle to right ventricle.
caval and atrium
(b) AV node→ SA node → Purkinje fibres
Ans. (d) → Bundle of His→ Heart muscles TOPIC 3
Due to the pressure difference between (c) SA node → Purkinje fibres → Bundle
of His → AV node → Heart muscles
Structure of Human Circulatory
the post caval and atrium, the blood
passes from the post caval to the (d) SA node → AV node → Bundle of His System Blood vessels
diastolic right atrium. Because the → Purkinje fibres → Heart muscles
action of heart includes contractions
Ans. (d) 58 Blood pressure in the pulmonary
and relaxations of the atria and
ventricles. The dynamics of blood flow in The correct route through which artery is [NEET 2016, Phase I]
blood vessels is no exception and blood pulse-making impulse travels in the
heart is : SA node→ AV node → Bundle (a) more than that in the carotid
flows through the blood vessels along a (b) more than that in the pulmonary vein
pressure gradient, always moving from of His→ Purkinje fibres→ Heart muscles.
(c) less than that in the vena cava
higher to lower pressure areas.
55 Pacemaker of heart is (d) same as that in the aorta
[CBSE AIPMT 1994, 99, 2002, 04]
51 Systemic heart refers to Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] (a) AV node (b) bundle of His
Blood pressure in different blood vessels :
(a) enteric heart in lower vertebrates (c) SA node (d) Purkinje fibres Artery > Arteriole > Capillary > Venule >
(b) the two ventricles together in humans Ans. (c) Vein (vena cava). The pulmonary arteries
(c) the heart that contracts under SA node lies in the right wall of right have thicker smooth muscle and
stimulation from nervous system auricle below the opening of superior connective tissue then the pulmonary
(d) left auricle and left ventricle in higher vena cava. It is also called pacemaker as it veins to accomodate the higher
vertebrates is first to originate the cardiac impulses pressure and high rate of blood flow.
and determines the rate of heartbeat.
Ans. (a) 59 In mammals, which blood vessel
Systemic heart refers to enteric heart in 56 Dup sound is produced during would normally carry largest amount
lower vertebrates. It pumps the blood to
closure of [CBSE AIPMT 1994] of urea? [NEET 2016, Phase I]
different body parts and not to lungs.
(a) semilunar valves (a) Dorsal Aorta
52 Bundle of His is a network of (b) bicuspid valve (b) Hepatic Vein
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
(c) tricuspid valve (c) Hepatic Portal Vein
(a) nerve fibres distributed in ventricles
(d) Both (b) and (c) (d) Renal Vein
(b) nerve fibres found throughout the heart
(c) muscle fibres distributed throughout Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
the heart walls The period between the end of one Urea is synthesised in liver. So,
(d) muscle fibres found only in the heartbeat to the end of next heartbeat is maximum amount of urea is present in
ventricle wall called cardiac cycle. Cardiac cycle is hepatic vein and minimum in renal vein.
formed of three phases.
Ans. (d)
Bundle of His is a network of specialised
Atrial systole, ventricular systole and 60 Figure shows schematic plan of
joint diastole. During ventricular systole blood circulation in human with
conducting muscle fibres (Purkinje
closing of Auriculo ventricular (AV) valves labels A-D. Identify the correct label
fibres) which transmit the impulse from
at the start of ventricular systole
AV node to all parts of both the
produces first heart sound called ‘lubb’ or
with given function [NEET 2013]
ventricles.
systolic sound. During joint diastole
rapid closure of semilunar valves at the A
53 In mammals, histamine is secreted beginning of ventricular diastole produces D
by [CBSE AIPMT 1998] the second heart sound called ‘dup’.
(a) fibroblasts (b) histocytes
(c) lymphocytes (d) mast cells 57 Tricuspid valve is found in between C B
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (d)
(a) sinus venosus and right auricle
Histamine is a potent vasodilator formed
(b) right auricle and right ventricle
by decarboxylation of the amino acid
histidine and released by mast cells in (c) left ventricle and left auricle
response to appropriate antigens. (d) ventricle and aorta
(a) A–pulmonary vein–takes impure blood diseases and also affects vital organs like 67 Wall of blood capillary is formed of
from body parts, pO 2 = 60 mm Hg brain and kidney. Hypertension means the [CBSE AIPMT 1993, 91]
(b) B–pulmonary artery takes blood from blood pressure that is higher than normal
(a) haemocytes (b) parietal cells
heart to lungs, pO 2 = 90 mm Hg [120/80]. In this measurement, 120 mm
Hg (millimeter of mercury pressure) is the (c) endothelial cells (d) oxyntic cells
(c) C–vena cava takes blood from body
parts to right auricle, pCO 2 = 45 mm Hg normal systolic or pumping, pressure and Ans. (c)
80 mm Hg is the normal diastolic or Each capillary is lined by a single layer of
(d) D–dorsal aorta takes blood from heart resting pressure.
to body parts, pO 2 = 95 mm Hg flat cells, called endothelium. The
endothelium allows the exchange of
Ans. (c) 63 Pulmonary artery is different from materials like the nutrients, respiratory
The correct labelling of parts with their pulmonary vein because it has gases, waste products, hormones, etc
respective functions is as follows. [CBSE AIPMT 2000] between the blood and surrounding
(a) larger lumen tissue cells through the tissue fluid.
A. Pulmonary takes oxygenated blood
vein from lung and carried it (b) thick muscular walls
to left auricle. (c) no endothelium 68 Splenic artery arises from
(d) valves [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
B. Dorsal aorta takes blood from heart to
body parts, pO 2 = 95mm Ans. (b) (a) anterior mesenteric artery
Hg. (b) coeliac artery (or celiac artery)
Arteries have thick walls, narrow lumen
C. Vena cava takes blood from body but no valves. Endothelium is present in (c) posterior mesenteric artery
parts to right auricle both arteries and veins. (d) intestinal artery
pCO 2 = 45 mm Hg
Ans. (b)
D. Pulmonary takes blood from heart to 64 The thickening of walls of arteries
artery Splenic artery is the blood vessel that
lungs, pO 2 = 90 mm Hg is called [CBSE AIPMT 1999] supplies oxygenated blood to the spleen.
(a) arthritis (b) atherosclerosis It branches from the celiac artery and
(c) anaeurysm (d) Both (a) and (c) follows a course superior to the
61 Arteries are best defined as the pancreas.
vessels which [CBSE AIPMT 2011] Ans. (b)
(a) carry blood away from the heart to Atherosclerosis involves thickening of 69 A vein possesses a large lumen
different organs inner walls of arteries due to deposition because [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
(b) break up into capillaries which reunite of lipid (cholesterol) which prevents the
(a) tunica media and tunica externa form
to form a vein dilation of arteries.
a single coat
(c) carry blood from one visceral organ to (b) tunica interna and tunica media form
another visceral organs 65 An adult human with average a single coat
(d) supply oxygenated blood to the health has systolic and diastolic (c) tunica interna, tunica media and
different organs pressures as [CBSE AIPMT 1998] tunica externa are thin
Ans. (a) (a) 80 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg (d) tunica media is a thin coat
Arteries are blood vessels that carry (b) 70 mm Hg and 120 mm Hg Ans. (d)
blood away from the heart towards (c) 120 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg The tunica media is comparatively thin in
different organs. They generally contain (d) 50 mm Hg and 80 mm Hg the veins making a large lumen in veins.
oxygenated blood (except pulmonary Basically each artery and vein consists
Ans. (c)
artery which contains deoxygenated of three layers, an inner lining of
blood). The blood flows in an artery under In a normal human being, the systolic
and diastolic pressure are 120 mmHg and squamous endothelium, the tunica
alternate increased pressure and with interna, a middle layer of smooth muscle
jerks. 80 mmHg respectively.
and elastic fibre, the tunica media and an
66 Closed circulatory system occurs in external layer of fibrous connective
62 Which one of the following tissue with collagen fibres, the tunica
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
statements is correct regarding externa.
(a) cockroach (b) tadpole/fish
blood pressure? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(c) mosquito (d) house fly 70 Arteries carry oxygenated blood
(a) 100/55 mm Hg is considered an ideal
blood pressure Ans. (b) except [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
(b) 105/50 mm Hg makes one very active Closed circulatory system is usually high (a) pulmonary
(c) 190/110 mm Hg may harm vital organs pressure system, in which blood flows in (b) cardiac
like brain and kidney closed tubular structures called blood (c) hepatic
(d) 130/90 mm Hg is considered high and vessels (arteries, veins and capillaries). It
(d) systemic
requires treatment is found in most of annelids,
cephalopods, among the molluscs and all Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) vertebrates including human beings. In Right ventricle pumps deoxygenated
Blood pressure [190/110 mm Hg) of an this type of system there is no direct blood into pulmonary artery which
individual is 140/90 [140 over 90] or contact between body tissues and blood. supplies it to the lungs where
higher, it shows hypertension. High blood This is more efficient as blood oxygenation of blood takes place.
pressure [190/110 mm Hg) leads to heart circulation is completed in short period.
TOPIC 4 73 The lymph serves to erythroblastosis foetalis. It is a special

case of Rh incompatibility in which
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
Lymph and (a) transport oxygen to the brain
during the second pregnancy of Rh − ve
Lymphatic System mother carrying Rh + ve foetus, the Rh
(b) transport carbon dioxide to the lungs
antibodies from mother (Rh − ve) can
(c) return the interstitial fluid to the leak into the blood of the foetus (Rh + ve)
blood and destroy the foetal RBCs
71 Which of the following statements (d) return the WBCs and RBCs to the
is true for lymph? lymph nodes
75 Continuous bleeding from an
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] Ans. (c) injured part of body is due to
(a) WBC and serum Lymph acts as a middle man between deficiency of [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(b) All components of blood except RBCs the blood and tissue cells. Lymph is a
and some proteins (a) vitamin-A (b) vitamin-B
transparent fluid derived from blood and
(c) RBCs, WBCs and plasma other tissues which accumulates in the (c) vitamin-K (d) vitamin-E
(d) RBCs, proteins and platelets interstitial spaces as the interstitial fluid Ans. (c)
and it passes on food andO2 from blood Vitamin-K is required for clotting
Ans. (b) to tissue cells and handed ones process, it is required for the formation
Lymph is known as blood minus RBCs excretory wastes, hormones and of prothrombin in liver, the deficiency of
and some proteins. The main site of CO2 from the body cells to the blood. which leads to severe bleeding
lymph formation is interstitial space and
disorders. Deficiency of vitamin-A
normally the rate of lymph formation is
equal to the rate of its return to blood TOPIC 5 causes night blindness, xerophthalmia,
keratomalacia, retarded growth.
stream.
Disorders of Deficiency of vitamin-B causes beri-beri
disease. Deficiency of vitamin-E causes
72 Which of the following is not main Circulatory System sterility.
function of lymph glands?
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] 74 Which of the following conditions 76 The blood cancer is known as
(a) Forming WBC causes erythroblastosis foetalis? [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(b) Forming antibodies [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(a) leukemia
(c) Forming RBC (a) Mother Rh+ve and foetus Rh−ve (b) thrombosis
(d) Destroying bacteria (b) Mother Rh−ve and foetus Rh+ve (c) haemolysis
Ans. (c) (c) Both mother and foetus Rh−ve (d) haemophilia
(d) Both mother and foetus Rh+ve
Cells of lymph nodes perform the Ans. (a)
following functions. (a) produce Ans. (b) Blood cancer is known as leukemia
lymphocytes (b) synthesise antibodies (c) If mother is Rh−ve and foetus is Rh + ve which is characterised by uncontrolled
destroy bacteria by phagocytosis. then there can occur a condition called division of leukocytes.
19
Excretory Products
and Their Elimination
TOPIC 1 02 Uricotelic mode of passing out Ans. (c)
Modes of Excretion nitrogenous wastes is found in Cockroach excretes uric acid as the
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] chief nitrogenous excretory product.
(a) birds and annelids Man excretes urea as the chief
01 Match the items in Column-I with nitrogenous excretory product.
those in Column II (b) amphibians and reptiles
Earthworm excretes 40% urea, 20%
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] (c) insects and amphibians ammonia and 40% amino acids.
(d) reptiles and birds Frog excretes urea as the chief
Column I Column II
Ans. (d) nitrogenous product.
1. Podocytes i. Crystallised
oxalates Reptile, birds, land snails and insects
excrete nitrogenous waste as uric acid in 05 Consider the following four
2. Protonephridia ii. Annelids the form of pellet of paste with a statements (A–D) about certain
3. Nephridia iii. Amphioxus minimum loss of water and are called desert animals such as kangaroo
4. Renal calculi iv. Filtration slits uricotelic animals.
rat
03 Which one of the following is not a A. They have dark colour and high
part of a renal pyramid? rate of reproduction and excrete
following
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] solid urine.
1 2 3 4
(a) Convoluted tubules B. They do not drink water, breathe
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (b) Collecting ducts at a slow rate to conserve water
(b) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (c) Loop of Henle and have their body covered with
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (d) Peritubular capillaries thick hairs.
(d) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) Ans. (a) C. They feed on dry seeds and do
Ans. (c) Convoluted tubule is the highly not require drinking water.
The correct matches are convoluted segments of nephron in the D. They excrete very concentrated
renal labyrinth of the kidney. urine and do not use water to
1. Podocytes (iv) Filtration slit It is made up of the proximal tubule regulate body temperature.
2. Protonephridia (iii) Amphioxus leading from the Bowmans capsule to
the descending limb of Henle’s loop and
Which two of the above
3. Nephridia (ii) Annelids statements for such animals are
the distal tubule leading from the
4. Renal calculi (i) Crystallised ascending limb of Henle’s loop to a true? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
oxalates collecting tubule. (a) C and D (b) B and C
Podocytes are cells in Bowman’s capsule (c) C and A (d) A and B
in kidneys. They have filtration slits 04 Uric acid is the chief nitrogenous
Ans. (a)
through which the blood is filtered. component of the excretory
Kangaroo rat is a desert rodent. Its body
Protonephridia help in osmoregulation. products of [CBSE AIPMT 2009] is covered by hairs. Its urine is more than
Nephridia in annelids help in (a) man 20 times concentrated as its plasma.
osmoregulation and excretion. Renal (b) earthworm This concentrated waste enables it to
calculi are kidney stones which mainly live in dry or desert environment where
(c) cockroach
consist of crystallised oxalates. little water is available for him to drink.
(d) frog
Excretory Products and Their Elimination 177
Most of its water is metabolically 08 In living beings, ammonia is Ans. (a)

produced from the oxidation of
converted into urea through Urea is the main nitrogenous excretory
carbohydrates, fats and proteins in the product of ureotelic animals. It is
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
seeds that it eat. The animal remains in produced by liver cells from deaminated
cool burrow during day time and the (a) ornithine cycle
excess amino acids via urea cycle, also
respiratory moisture condensed in nasal (b) citrulline cycle
called Ornithine cycle or Krebs-Henseleit
passages. (c) fumarine cycle cycle.
(d) arginine cycle
06 In Ornithine cycle which one pair of
Ans. (a) 12 The kidney of an adult frog is
the following wastes are removed [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Ornithine combines with one molecule of
from the blood? NH3 and CO2 to produce citrulline. (a) pronephros
Citrulline combines with another (b) mesonephros
(a) CO 2 and urea molecule of NH3 to form arginine. (c) metanephros
(b) CO 2 and ammonia Arginine is broken down into urea and (d) opisthonephros
(c) Ammonia and urea ornithine which repeats the cycle. This is
(d) Urea and sodium salts called Ornithine cycle or urea cycle or Ans. (b)
Krebs-Henseleit cycle. Mesonephric kidney consists of a large
Ans. (b) number of tubules which develop
CO2 and ammonia are the pair of wastes 09 The enteronephric nephridia of internal glomeruli enclosed in capsules
removed from the blood in Ornithine forming Malpighian bodies. In
earthworms are mainly concerned
cycle. Urea is formed in Ornithine cycle amphibians, (e.g. frog) it is functional
or urea cycle and urea is fomed of two with [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
both in embryo as well as adults.
molecules of ammonia and one molecule (a) digestion
of CO2 . Urea cycle is represented as (b) respiration 13 Uric acid is nitrogenous waste in
follows (c) osmoregulation [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Citrulline (d) excretion of nitrogenous wastes (a) mammals and molluscs
NH3 NH3
Ans. (d) (b) birds and lizards
H 2O H 2 O
Enteronephridia is concerned with (c) frog and cartilaginous fishes
CO2 excretion of nitrogenous waste. In (d) insects and bony fishes
Arginine Omithine annelids, the nephridia are the excretory
Ans. (b)
organs. In earthworm, three types of
nephridia are found (a) septal (b) Uric acid is least soluble nitrogenous
Arginase waste and 1 g of it needs only 10 mL of
pharyngeal and (c) integumentary.
water to be expelled out of body.
H2O Urea The septal nephridia do not discharge
Another advantage of it is that it is least
the excretory fluid to the exterior.
Urea cycle toxic among all nitrogenous wastes and
Instead, these pour it into the intestine.
can be retained in the body for longer
Most of the urea is produced in the liver. Hence, these are also called
period, so it is of greater advantage to
The liver cells continuously release urea enteronephric nephridia.
animals which have limited access to
into the blood and kidneys withdraw it water like birds and lizards.
from the blood to excrete it in urine. 10 Aquatic reptiles are
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
14 Nitrogenous waste products are
07 Uricotelism is found in (a) ammonotelic
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
eliminated mainly as
(b) ureotelic [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(a) mammals and birds (c) ureotelic in water (a) urea in tadpole and ammonia in adult
(b) fishes and freshwater protozoans (d) ureotelic over land frog
(c) birds, reptiles and insects (b) ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult
Ans. (b)
(d) frogs and toads frog
Ureotelic animals include, Ascaris,
Ans. (c) earthworm, cartilaginous fishes, (c) urea in both tadpole and adult frog
The animals which excrete mainly uric semiaquatic amphibians aquatic or (d) urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult
acid are uricotelic and this phenomenon semiaquatic reptiles like turtles and frog
is called uricotelism. Uric acid is alligators. Ans. (b)
excreted by terrestrial reptiles (lizard, Ammonia is the main nitrogenous waste.
snakes, etc) birds and insects to 11 In ureotelic animals, urea is formed It is soluble in water and highly toxic. A
conserve water in their body. by [CBSE AIPMT 1997] large amount of water is required for its
Frog and mammals excrete urea and so (a) Ornithine cycle excretion. Tadpole is aquatic and lives in
they are called as ureotelic animals and plenty of water so, nitrogenous wastes
(b) Cori cycle
this phenomenon is known as in tadpole are eliminated as ammonia.
ureotelism. (c) Krebs’ cycle
Frog being amphibious, excretes its
(d) EMP pathway nitrogenous wastes as urea.
A Arginase
2NH3 + CO2 → NH2  CO NH2
TOPIC 2 B
+ H2 O
Kidney
Human Excretory C
System: Structure 18 What will happen if the stretch
D receptors of the urinary bladder
wall are totally removed?
15 Match the items given in Column I [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
with those in Column II and select Urinary bladder (a) Urine will not collect in the bladder
the correct option given below (b) Micturition will continue
[NEET 2018] (a) A−Adrenal gland—located at the
(c) Urine will continue to collect normally
anterior part of kidney. Secrete in the bladder
Column-II catecholamines, which stimulate
Column-I (Part of (d) There will be no micturition
glycogen break down
(Function) Excretory Ans. (c)
System) (b) B–Pelvis—broad funnel shaped space
inner to hilum, directly connected to If stretch receptors of urinary bladder
1. Ultrafiltration i. Henle’s loop wall are totally removed, the urine will
loops of Henle
2. Concentration ii. Ureter continue to collect normally in the
(c) C–Medulla—inner zone of kidney and
of urine bladder. The urinary bladder is a
contains complete nephrons
3. Transport of iii. Urinary pear-shaped, hollow muscular organ
(d) D–Cortex—outer part of kidney and do
urine bladder situated in the pelvic cavity which is
not contain any part of nephrons
made up of smooth and involuntary
4. Storage of iv. Malpighian
Ans. (a) muscles. The lumen of urinary bladder is
urine corpuscle
A–Adrenal gland it is correctly lined by transition epithelium which has
v. Proximal mentioned. It is located at the anterior great power of stretching.
convoluted
part of kidney and secretes
tubule
catecholamines which stimulate 19 Bowman’s glands are found in
glycogen breakdown. [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
1 2 3 4
(a) v iv i ii (a) olfactory epithelium
17 The principal nitrogenous excretory (b) external auditory canal
(b) iv i ii iii
(c) iv v ii iii
compound in humans is (c) cortical nephrons only
(d) v iv i iii synthesised [CBSE AIPMT 2010] (d) juxtamedullary nephrons
(a) in kidneys but eliminated mostly Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) through liver
Ultrafiltration or Glomerular filtration is Bowman’s glands (olfactory glands)
(b) in kidneys as well as eliminated by
carried out in the glomerular capillaries occur below the olfactory epithelia.
kidneys
found in Malpighian corpuscle. This Their ducts open on the olfactory
(c) in liver and also eliminated by the epithelial surface. These glands secrete
process is carried out under high same through bile
pressure. watery mucus to protect and keep the
(d) in the liver but eliminated mostly epithelium moist.
Henle’s loop continuously absorbs the through kidneys
water from glomerular filtrate, because
of the hyperosmolarity created by Ans. (d) 20 Part not belonging to uriniferous
counter-current mechanism. This helps In humans, the principal nitrogenous tubule is [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
in the concentration of urine and hence, excretory compound (i.e. urea) is (a) glomerulus
it becomes hypertonic. synthesised in liver by Ornithine cycle (b) Henle’s loop
Ureter are narrow, tubular structures and is eliminated mostly through kidney
as nitrogeneous excretory product. In
(c) distal convoluted tubule
that convey or transport urine from
liver, one molecule of CO2 is activated by (d) collecting tubule
kidney to urinary bladder.
biotin and combines with two molecules Ans. (a)
Urinary bladder is pear-shaped,
of NH3 in the presence of carbamyl From the option given glomerulus do not
muscular, sac-like structure that
phosphate synthetase enzyme and 2ATP belong to uriniferous tubule. Each
temporarily stores urine.
to form carbamyl phosphate and one nephron is about 6 cm long and is divided
molecule of H2 O is released. into two parts : Bowman’s capsule and
16 Figure shows human urinary
Carbamyl phosphate reacts with nephric or uriniferous tubule. Glomerulus
system with structures labelled Ornithine and forms Citrulline. Citrulline is a group of about 50 capillaries. Its
A-D. Select option, which correctly combines with another molecule of capillary wall has numerous minute
identifies them and gives their ammonia and form arginine that is broken pores, so the permeability of glomerular
characteristics and/of functions into urea and Ornithine in the presence of membrane increases 100-500 times as
[NEET 2013] an enzyme arginase and water. high as that of usual capillary.
While Henle’s loop, DCT and collecting Ans. (d)

tubules are part of uriniferous tubule. Statements in option (d) are correct as (c) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
the close proximity between the Henle’s permeable to water
21 Proximal and distal convoluted loop and vasa recta as well as the (d) The descending limb of loop of Henle
tubules are parts of counter-current in them help in is permeable to electrolytes
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] maintaining an increasing osmolarity Ans. (a)
(a) seminiferous tubules towards the inner medullary interstitium,
The ascending limb of loop of Henle is
(b) nephron i.e. from 300 mOsmol L− 1 in the cortex
impermeable to water and permeable to
(outside) to about 1200 mOsmol L− 1 in the
(c) oviduct K+ , Cl − and Na+ and partially permeable
inner medulla (inside).
(d) vas deferens to urea. Due to this, sodium, potassium,
calcium, magnesium and chloride are
Ans. (b) 24 Match the following parts of a reabsorbed here making the filterate
Nephron is the structural and functional nephron with their function. hypotonic.
unit of kidney. Nephrons are also called [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
renal tubules or uriniferous tubules.
Each nephron is formed of two parts. Column I Column II
26 The part of nephron involved in
(i) Bowman’s capsule and (ii) Nephric
active reabsorption of sodium is
1. Descending (i) Reabsorption [NEET 2016, Phase II]
tubule which is a long and coiled and is limb of Henle’s of salts only
formed of proximal convoluted tubule, loop (a) distal convoluted tubule
loop of Henle and distal convoluted (b) proximal convoluted tubule
2. Proximal (ii) Reabsorption
tubule. convoluted of water only (c) Bowman’s capsule
tubule (d) descending limb of Henle’s loop
22 Brush border is characteristic of 3. Ascending limb (iii) Conditional Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] of Henle’s loop reabsorption Proximal convoluted tubule is involved in
(a) neck of nephron of sodium ion
and water active reabsorption of sodium. The
(b) collecting tube majority (about 70%) of sodium is
(c) proximal convoluted tubule 4. Distal (iv) Reabsorption reabsorbed here, into the cytosol of the
(d) All of the above convoluted of ion, water epithelial cells of the nephron.
tubule and organic
Ans. (c) nutrients
Proximal convoluted tubule is present in
27 Which of the following causes an
cortex and is convoluted. It is about Select the correct option from the increase in sodium reabsorption in
12-24 mm in length. It is lined by brush following. the distal convoluted tubule?
bordered cuboidal epithelium with 1 2 3 4 [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
numerous microvilli. These cells have (a) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (a) Increase in aldosterone levels
numerous mitochondria for active (b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (b) Increase in antidiuretic hormone
transport. (c) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) levels
(d) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii) (c) Decrease in aldosterone levels
TOPIC 3 Ans. (b) (d) Decrease in antidiuretic hormone
Human Excretory The correct matches are levels
System: Physiology Part of nephron Function

Ans. (a)
Increase in aldosterone levels cause an
1. Descending limb of (ii) Reabsorption of increase in sodium reabsorption in DCT.
23 The increase in osmolarity from Henle’s loop water only It is secreted by outer layer of adrenal
outer to inner medullary 2. Proximal (iv) Reabsorption of gland when aldosterone is present in the
interstitium is maintained due to convoluted tubule ion, water and blood and all theNa + ions in the filterate
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] organic nutrients are reabsorbed. Retaining Na + raises the
osmotic pressure of the blood and
I. close proximity between Henle’s 3. Ascending limb of (i) Reabsorption of
Henle’s loop salts reduces the water loss from the body.
loop and vasa recta
II. counter-current mechanism 4. Distal convoluted (iii) Conditional
tubule reabsorption of
28 The maximum amount of
III. selective secretion of HCO −3 and sodium ion and electrolytes and water (70-80%)
hydrogen ions in PCT. water from the glomerular filtrate is
IV. higher blood pressure in reabsorbed in which part of the
glomerular capillaries 25 Which of the following statements nephron? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) Only II is correct? [NEET 2017] (a) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
(b) III and IV (a) The ascending limb of loop of Henle is (b) Distal convoluted tubule
(c) I, II and III impermeable to water (c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(b) The descending limb of loop of Henle (d) Descending limb of loop of Henle
(d) I and II
is impermeable to water
Ans. (c) These hormones are proteinaceous in Ans. (b)

From the Bowman’s capsule, the nature and derived from amino acid The main function of the Henle’s loop is
glomerular filtrate enters the proximal tyrosine. Thus, injury to adrenal cortex to absorb water from the tubular lumen,
convoluted tubule (PCT). PCT is will not affect the secretion of thus making the urine concentrated. If
surrounded by a network of peritubular adrenaline. loop of Henle absent then the urine
capillaries and is the seat of becomes more dilute.
reabsorption. About 75% of glomerular 31 Which one of the following
filtrate is normally reabsorbed in PCT statements in regard to the 34 The ability of the vertebrates to
before reaching the loop of Henle. excretion by the human kidneys is produce concentrated
The reabsorbed materials include correct? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] (hyperosmotic) urine usually
glucose, amino acids, vitamins,
(a) Descending limb of Loop of Henle is depends upon the
hormones, sodium, potassium,
impermeable to water [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
chlorides, phosphates, bicarbonates,
(b) Distal convoluted tubule is incapable (a) area of Bowman’s capsule epithelium
most of the water and some urea, etc.
of reabsorbing HCO3 (b) length of Henle’s loop
(c) Nearly 99% of the glomerular filtrate (c) length of the proximal convoluted
29 Which one of the following is reabsorbed by the renal tubules
correctly explains the function of a tubule
(d) Ascending limb of loop of Henle is (d) capillary network forming glomerulus
specific part of a human nephron? impermeable to electrolytes
Ans. (c)
Length of Henle’s loop determined the
(a) Henle’s loop — Most The plasma fluid that filters out from
reabsoroption of concentration of urine. Urine is
glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s concentrated through counter current
the major capsule of nephron is called glomerular
substances from mechanism which involves (a) the loop of
the glomerular filtrate. A comparison of the volume of Henle (b) the vasa recta (c) nearby
filtrate the filtrate formed per day (180 L/day) collecting tubules and ducts, (d) the
with that of the urine released (1.5L), interstitial fluid.
(b) Distal — Reabsorption of suggests that nearly 99% of the filtrate
convoluted ions into the
tubule surrounding blood has to be reabsorbed by the renal
tubules in a process called reabsorption.
35 The basic functional unit of human
capillaries kidney is [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(c) Afferent — Carries the blood (a) nephron
arteriole away from the 32 The net pressure gradient that
glomerulus causes the fluid to filter out of the (b) pyramid
towards renal vein glomeruli into the capsule is (c) nephridia
(d) Podocytes — Create minute [CBSE AIPMT 2005] (d) Henle’s loop
spaces (slit pores) (a) 20 mmHg Ans. (a)
for the filtration of
blood into the (b) 75 mmHg Each human kidney consists of about
Bowman’s capsule (c) 30 mmHg one million structural and functional
(d) 50 mmHg units called nephrons. Each nephron is
Ans. (d) mainly made up of two parts :
Ans. (a)
Podocytes or visceral epithelial cells are (i) Malpighian body
Kidneys help in the formation of urine,
the cells in Bowman’s capsule in the (ii) Renal tubule.
from the blood flowing through
kidneys that wrap around the capillaries Nephridia are excretory tubules found in
glomerular capillaries. About 20% of
of glomeruls. They create minute pores the Platyhelminthes (flatworms) and
plasma fluid filters out into the
(slit pores) for the filtration of blood into annelids (earthworms).
Bowman’s capsule through a thin
the Bowman’s capsule.
glomerular-capsular membrane due to a
net or effective filtration of about 36 Under normal conditions which one
30 Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely 10-15 mm Hg. So, it is the nearest option is completely reabsorbed in the
to affect the secretion of which one (a) which is correct. renal tubule? [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
of the following? [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) Urea
(a) Aldosterone 33 If Henle’s loop were absent from
(b) Uric acid
(b) Both androstenedione and mammalian nephron, which of the
(c) Salts
dehydroepi- androsterone following is to be expected? (d) Glucose
(c) Adrenalin [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
(d) Cortisol (a) The urine will be more concentrated Ans. (d)
Ans. (c) (b) The urine will be more dilute Glucose is high threshold substance, i.e.,
(c) There will be no urine formation it is totally or mostly reabsorbed from
The adrenal medulla synthesises two the nephric filtrate in the blood
hormones adrenaline (epinephrine) and (d) There will be hardly any change in the
capillaries.
non-adrenaline (non-epinephrine). quality and quantity of urine formed
Renal threshold, i.e., upper limit of Angiotensin-II is a powerful 41 Human urine is usually acidic
kidney to reabsorb such high threshold vasoconstrictor, it increases the GFR. because [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
substances of kidney for reabsorption of Counter-current pattern of blood flow is (a) the sodium transporter exchanges
glucose is about 180 mg/100 mL of observed in vasa recta. one hydrogen ion for each sodium
nephric filtrate. When blood sugar level
ion, in peritubular capillaries
reaches beyond this, sugar also appears 39 Which of the following factors is (b) excreted plasma proteins are acidic
in urine.
responsible for the formation of (c) potassium and sodium exchange
37 Reabsorption of useful substances concentrated urine? generates acidity
[NEET (National) 2019] (d) hydrogen ions are actively secreted
from glomerular filtrate occurs in
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
(a) Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards into the filtrate
inner medullary interstitium in the
(a) collecting tube kidneys Ans. (d)
(b) loop of Henle (b) Secretion of erythropoietin by The proximal tubule is the portion of
(c) proximal convoluted tubule juxtaglomerular complex nephron of the kidney which leads from
(d) distal convoluted tubule (c) Hydrostatic pressure during the Bowman’s capsule to the loop of
glomerular filtration Henle.
Ans. (c) It regulates the pH of the filtrate by
(d) Low levels of antidiuretic hormone
Proximal convoluted tubule is the main exchanging hydrogen ions in the
site for the reabsorption of useful Ans. (a) interstitium for bicarbonate ions in the
substances from glomerular filtrate. In Maintaining hyperosmolarity towards filtrate. Due to theH + ions the human
PCT complete reabsorption by active inner medullary interstitium in the urine is usually acidic. ThusH + are
transport takes place for glucose. kidneys is the factor responsible for the actively secreted into the filtrate is the
PCT reabsorbs most of the amino acids formation of concentrate urine because correct option.
and vitamin-C, about 70% ofNa + and it provides concentration gradient
nearly 75% of K + and a large amount of necessary for water reabsorption in 42 Which one of the following
Ca2 + from glomerular filtrate. renal tubules. statements is correct with respect
Cl − is reabsorbed by diffusion. 70% of Erythropoietin secretion by juxtaglomerular to kidney function regulation?
water from filtrate is also reabsorbed in complex is related to red blood cell [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
PCT by osmosis. production and hydrostatic pressure
(a) Exposure to cold temperature
during glomerular filtration to amount of
stimulates ADH release
filtrate formed by kidneys.
TOPIC 4 (b) An increase in glomerular blood flow
High levels of antidiuretic hormone and stimulates formation of
Regulation of not low levels produce urine that is more angiotensin-II
concentrated.
Kidney Function (c) During summer when body loses lot
of water by evaporation, the release
40 A decrease in blood
of ADH is suppressed
38 Select the correct statement. pressure/volume will not cause the
(d) When someone drinks lot of water
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] release of [NEET 2017]
ADH release is stopped
(a) Atrial Natriuretic Factor increases (a) renin
Ans. (d)
the blood pressure (b) atrial natriuretic factor
(b) Angiotensin II is a powerful (c) aldosterone When someone drinks lot of water which
vasodilator is not required by body, the
(d) ADH osmoregulation of the blood will
(c) Counter-current pattern of blood flow
Ans. (b) decrease. The decrease in osmoregulation
is not observed in vasa recta
A decrease in blood pressure/volume will inhibit the release of ADH.
(d) Reduction in Glomerular Filtration
Rate (GFR) activities JG cells to stimulates the hypothalamus to release
ADH (Anti Diuretic Hormone) as well as 43 A person who is on a long hunger
release renin
JGA (Juxtaglomerular Apparatus) cells to strike and is surviving only on
Ans. (d) release renin. Renin by renin water, will have [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
Statement in option (d) is correct as a angiotensin mechanism activates the (a) more sodium in his urine
reduction in glomerular filtration rate adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. (b) less amino acids in his urine
activate the JG cells to release renin Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) is
which converts angiotensinogen in blood (c) more glucose in his blood
produced by atria of heart during
to angiotensin-I. Other statements are (d) less urea in his urine
increased blood pressure/volume.
incorrect and can be corrected as Ans. (d)
It can cause vasodilation and there by,
Atrial Natriuretic Factor (ANF) causes decrease the blood pressure, therefore, A person who is on a long hunger strike
vasodilation and thereby decreases the option (b) is correct and is surviving only on water, will have
blood pressure. less urea in his urine.
As urea is an organic compound which is a

waste product produced during body
TOPIC 5 excess ketones as an indication that it is
using an alternative source of energy. It
metabolism. Accessory is seen more commonly in type 1
44 Angiotensinogen is a protein
Excretory Organs diabetes mellitus.
Presence of glucose indicates Type II
produced and secreted by diabetes. In some cases, insulin cannot
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] 47 Which one of the following is transport blood sugar into the body’s
(a) macula densa cells correctly matched pair of the given cells effectively.
(b) endothelial cells (cells lining the blood secretion and its primary role in This can also cause blood sugar to be
vessels) passed out in urine.
human physiology?
(c) liver cells [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(d) Juxtaglomerular (JG) cells 49 Which of the following would help
(a) Sebum — Sexual attraction
Ans. (c) in prevention of diuresis?
(b) Sweat — Thermoregulation
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Angiotensinogen is a plasma protein (c) Saliva — Tasting food
produced and secreted by the liver cells. (a) Reabsorption of Na + and water from
Renin is secreted from juxtaglomerular (d) Tears — Excretion of salts renal tubules due to aldosterone
cells and acts enzymatically on Ans. (b) (b) Atrial natriuretic factor causes
angiotensinogen to release 10 amino vasoconstriction
acid contaning peptide angiotensin-I. Sweat glands are coiled tubular glands
situated in the dermis and connected to (c) Decrease in the secretion of renin by
Macula densa is actually a plaque in wall
at the end of thick assending limb of a sweat duct which open as pore on the JG cells
nephrons. surface of the skin. (d) More water reabsorption due to
These secrete sweat which contains undersecretion of ADH
45 A person is undergoing prolonged 0.1-0.4% of sodium chloride, sodium Ans. (a)
fasting. His urine will be found to acetate and urea. Adrenal cortex secretes
contain abnormal quantities of Sweating occurs when the body mineralocorticoids, i.e. aldosterone
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] temperature increases. As sweat which increase the reabsorption ofNa +
(a) fats (b) ketones evaporates from the skin surface, and water from renal tubule thereby
(c) amino acids (d) glucose energy is lost from the body as latent preventing diuresis.
heat of vaporation and in this way
Ans. (b)
sweat reduces body temperature. 50 Use of an artificial kidney during
If a person is undergoing prolonged
fasting, his urine will be found to contain hemodialysis may result in :
abnormal quantities of ketones. During TOPIC 6 [NEET (National) 2019]
fasting energy is obtained by the Disorders of A. Nitrogenous waste build-up in
oxidation of reserved fats. As a result of the body
fatty acid oxidation large amount of Excretory System B. Non-elimination of excess
ketone bodies are produced such as
potassium ions
acetoacetate, β-hydroxybutyrate and
acetone.
48 Presence of which of the following C. Reduced absorption of calcium
conditions in urine are indicative of ions from gastrointestinal tract
46 Glucose is taken back from diabetes mellitus? D. Reduced RBC production
glomerular filtrate through [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Which of the following options is
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] (a) Uremia and Renal calculi
the most appropriate?
(a) active transport (b) Ketonuria and Glycosuria
(a) (B) and (C) are correct
(b) passive transport (c) Renal calculi and Hyperglycaemia (b) (C) and (D) are correct
(c) osmosis (d) Uremia and Ketonuria (c) (A) and (D) are correct
(d) diffusion (d) (A) and (B) are correct
Ans. (b)
Ans. (a) Presence of glucose (glycosuria) and Ans. (b)
Glucose is taken back from glomerular ketone bodies (ketonuria) in urine are
Statements (C) and (D) are correct.
filtrate through active transport in indicative of diabetes mellitus. In
proximal convoluted tubule. diabetes mellitus the body produces Use of an artificial kidney during
haemodialysis may result in reduced
RBC production and reduced absorption 1 2 3 4 (a) deamination

of calcium ions from gastrointestinal (a) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (b) entropy
tract. The former would occur due to the (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (c) anuria
low level of erythropoietin hormone (c) (iii) (i) (iv) (i) (d) None of these
secreted by juxtaglomerular cells.
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
The later would be caused due to the Ans. (c)
elimination of calcium ions along with Ans. (d) The terms anuria, oligonuria, polynuria
phosphate ions during dialysis. Increased level of glucose in blood which and dysuria are used for absence of
Statements (A) and (B) are incorrect may be caused due to untreated urine, scanty urine, large amounts of
because dialysis helps in the removal of diabetes mellitus results in glycosuria. In urine and painful urination respectively.
nitrogenous waste and potassium ions this condition, glucose is present in the Deamination is the removal of an amino
from the body. urine. (—NH2 ) group frequently from an amino
Gout is a form of arthritis characterised acid by transaminase enzymes.
51 Match the items given in Column I by severe pain and tenderness in joints.
with those in Column II and select It is caused due to the accumulation of 53 If kidneys fail to reabsorb water,
the correct option given below uric acid crystals in joints. the effect on tissue would
[NEET 2018]
Renal calculi or kidney stones are small [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
masses of crystalline salts within the (a) remain unaffected
Column I Column II kidneys. These stones can be of calcium, (b) shrink and shrivel
uric acid, struvite (magnesium
1. Glycosuria (i) Accumulation of (c) absorb water from blood plasma
ammonium phosphate), etc.
uric acid in joints. (d) take more O 2 from blood
Glomerular nephritis is the inflammation
2. Gout (ii) Mass of of filtering unit, i.e. glomerulus of kidney. Ans. (b)
crystallised salts It is also known as Bright’s disease. It If kidney fails to reabsorb water the
within the kidney. may cause haematuria (blood in urine) concentration of urine will be low and
3. Renal (iii) Inflammation in and proteinuria (proteins in blood). urination will be more frequent, a
calculi glomeruli condition called polyuria as a result, the
4. Glomerular (iv) Presence of
52 A condition of failure of kidney to tissues of the body will be dehydrated
nephritis glucose in urine. form urine is called and shrink.
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
20
Locomotion
and Movement
TOPIC 1 (c) binds to troponin to remove the 05 Smooth muscles are
masking of active sites on actin for
Skeletal Muscle myosin
and its Contraction (a) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated

(d) prevents the formation of bonds
(b) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
between the myosin cross bridges
and the actin filament (c) involuntary, cylindrical, striated
01 During muscular contraction, which (d) voluntary, spindle-shaped,
of the following events occur? Ans. (c) uninucleate
[NEET 2021] Calcium plays a key regulatory role in
muscle contraction. Ca2 + ions bind to Ans. (a)
I.‘H’ zone disappears
troponin and changes its shape and Smooth muscles are involuntary,
II.‘A’ band widens position. This in turn, alter the shape and fusiform and non-striated.
III.‘I’ band reduces in width position of tropomyosin and hence, the These muscles are located in the inner
IV. Myosine hydrolyses ATP, active sites on F-actin are exposed. Due walls of hollow visceral organs of the
releasing the ADP and Pi to this, myosin cross-bridges are able to body like alimentary canal, reproductive
bind to these active sites and muscle tract, etc.
V. Z-lines attached to actins are
contraction occurs. They do not exhibit any striation and are
pulled inwards.
smooth in appearance. Their activities
Choose the correct answer from 03 Lack of relaxation between are under autonomic and hormonal
the options given below. successive stimuli in sustained control and thus they are also known as
(a) I, III, IV and V muscle contraction is known as involuntary muscles.
(b) I, II, III and IV [NEET 2016, Phase I] Hence, option (a) is correct.
(c) II, III, IV and V (a) fatigue (b) tetanus
(d) II, IV, V and I (c) tonus (d) spasm 06 The H-zone in the skeletal muscle
Ans. (a) Ans. (b) fibre is due to [NEET 2013]
Statements I, III, IV, and V are correct Sustained muscle contraction due to (a) the absence of myofibrils in the
and statement II is incorrect and can be repeated stimulus is known as tetanus. central portion of A-band
corrected as During muscular This results due to muscle fatigue. (b) the central gap between myosin
contraction by utilising energy from ATP filaments in the A-band
hydrolysis the myosin head binds to the 04 Name the ion responsible for (c) the central gap between actin
exposed active sites on actins to form a unmasking of active sites for filaments extending through myosin
cross bridge. myosin for cross-bridge activity filaments in the A-band
This pulls the attached actin filaments during muscle contraction. (d) extension of myosin filaments in the
towards the center of A band. This [NEET 2016, Phase II] central portion of the A-band
movement contricts ‘A’ band. (a) Calcium (b) Magnesium Ans. (c)
(c) Sodium (d) Potassium H-zone in skeletal muscle is due to the
02 Calcium is important in skeletal
Ans. (a) central gap between actin filaments
muscle contraction because it extending through myosin filaments in
[NEET 2018] Ca + + ions bind with Tpc unit of troponin
which is responsible for masking of the A-band. Alternate arrangement of
(a) detaches the myosin head from the dark and light bands gives the striated
active sites for myosin through
actin filament appearance to a skeletal muscle. At the
tropomyosin. The event initiates
(b) activates the myosin ATPase by centre of A-band, a comparatively less
cross-bridge activity during muscle
binding to it dark zone called H-zone is present.
contraction mechanism.
Locomotion and Movement 185
In the centre of H-zone, M-line is Ans. (b) Ans. (c)

present, formed by the threats that When Ca + ions combine with troponin Calcium is an essential element required
connect the myofilaments. then in consequence muscle contraction for the contraction of muscles. Release
will initiates. of calcium ions from sarcoplasmic
07 Which one of the following is the During contraction, the Z-lines come reticulum trigger the muscle contraction
correct pairing of a body part and closer together and the sarcomere process. In fact, calcium ions and ATP,
the kind of muscle tissue that becomes shorter. The length of A-band actin and myosin interact forming
remains constant. I-bands shortens and actomyosin, which causes the muscles
moves it? [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
H-zone narrows. to contract.
(a) Heart wall — Involuntary unstriated
muscle 11 What is sarcomere? 15 Intercostal muscles occur in
(b) Biceps of — Smooth muscle fibres [CBSE AIPMT 2001] [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
upper arm (a) Part between two H-lines (a) abdomen (b) thigh
(c) Abdominal — Smooth muscle (b) Part between two A-lines (c) ribs (d) diaphragm
wall (c) Part between two I-bands Ans. (c)
(d) Iris — Involuntary smooth (d) Part between two Z-lines
muscle Intercostal muscles, i.e. internal
Ans. (d) intercostal and external intercostal are
Ans. (d) Huxley reported the fine structure of attached with the ribs, these are the
Smooth muscles are plain, non-striated, striated muscle fibre or myofibril. Each main muscles for normal quite
involuntary or unstriped muscles due to myofibril is made up of A-bands (dark breathing. External intercostal muscle
the absence of striations. These occur in band anisotropic) and I-bands = isotropic and diaphragm contract during
the walls of hollow internal organs, in (light bands isotropic). These two bands inspiration and relax during expiration.
capsules of lymph glands, spleen, etc., in are made up of myosin and actin
iris and ciliary body of eyes, skin dermis, filament respectively. Each I-band is TOPIC 2
penis and other accessory genitalia, etc. divided into two equal halves by a thin,
fibrous and transverse zig-zag partition, Skeletal System
08 The contractile protein of skeletal called Z-band or Z-disc or Krause’s
muscle involving ATPase activity is membrane.
16 Match the List I with List II.
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] The part of the myofibril between two
[NEET 2021]
(a) myosin (b) a-actinin successive Z-lines functions as a
(c) troponin (d) tropomyosin contractile unit called sarcomere. List I List II
A. Scapula 1. Cartilaginous joints
Ans. (a) 12 The functional unit of contractile
The kinesin, myosin and dynein proteins B. Cranium 2. Flat bone
system in striated muscle is
of skeletal muscle involve ATPase C. Sternum 3. Fibrous joints
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
activity. This activity cause the D. Vertebral 4. Triangular flat bone
contraction of skeletal muscles, (a) myofibril (b) sarcomere
column
propelling action of cilia and flagella and (c) Z-lines (d) cross bridges
the intracellular transport of organelles. Ans. (b) Choose the correct answer from
Skeletal muscle is also called striated the options given below.
09 ATPase enzyme needed for muscle A B C D
muscle because the regular
contraction is located in arrangement of the myofilaments (a) 1 3 2 4
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] creates as repeating pattern of light and (b) 2 3 4 1
(a) actinin (b) troponin dark bands. Each repeating unit is a (c) 4 2 3 1
(c) myosin (d) actin sarcomere, the basic functional unit of (d) 4 3 2 1
Ans. (c) the muscle. Ans. (d)
During muscular contraction myosin (A)-(4), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)
13 Which of the following is the
cross bridges heads. Myosin is not only Scapula It is a flat, triangular shaped
an actin binding protein, it is also an contractile protein of a muscle?
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] bone. It is located at the upper thoracic
ATPase (an enzyme) which is activated region on the dorsal surface of the ribcage.
by Ca2 + and Mg 2 + ions. Hence, ATPase (a) Myosin (b) Tropomyosin
Cranium It is the part of the skull that
enzyme is located in myosin. (c) Actin (d) Tubulin
encloses the brain. They have
Ans. (a) immovable fibrous joint.
10 Which statement is correct for
muscle contraction? Myosin-II, a two-headed tailed variety Sternum It is the flat bone located in the
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
of myosin is involved in muscle middle of chest. Also referred as
contraction. breastbone.
(a) Length of H-zone decrease
Vertebral column It is a series of
(b) Length of A-band remains constant 14 Which ion is essential for muscle approximately 33 bones called
(c) Length of I-band increases contraction? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] vertebrae. They have cartilaginous type
(d) Length of two Z-line increases (a) Na (b) K (c) Ca (d) Cl joints designed for weight bearing.
17 Select the incorrectly matched pair (b) Each rib is a flat thin bone and all the The 11th and 12th ribs are attached to the
ribs are connected dorsally to the vertebral column and keep floating in the
from following. [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
thoracic vertebrae and ventrally to thoracic cavity, so are called floating
(a) Chondrocytes–Smooth muscle cells the sternum ribs.
(b) Neurons–Nerve cells (c) There are seven pairs of
1
(c) Fibroblast–Areolar tissue vertebrosternal, three pairs of 2
vertebrochondral and two pairs of Sternum
(d) Osteocytes–Bone cells 3
vertebral ribs
Ans. (a) (d) 8th, 9th and 10th pairs of ribs 4
True
The incorrectly match pair is option (a). It articulate directly with the sternum ribs 5 Ribs
can be corrected as 6
Ans. (c)
Chondrocytes are cartilage cells. The 7
The statement that there are seven pairs Vertebral
intercellular material of cartilage is 8 column
of vertebrosternal, three pairs of
solid, pliable and resists compression.
vertebrochondral and two pairs of False 9
Cells of this tissue are called ribs 10 Ribs and
vertebral ribs is correct.
chondrocytes which are enclosed in 11 rib cage
Rest statements are incorrect. Correct Floating 12
small cavities within the matrix ribs
information about the statements is as
secreted by them.
follows Vertebrosternal ribs are first
seven pairs of true ribs which are 21 Which of the following is not a
18 Match the following columns and attached dorsally to thoracic vertebrae
select the correct option. function of the skeletal system?
and ventrally to the sternum. [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] Vertebrochondral ribs (8th, 9th, 10th
(a) Production of erythrocytes
pairs) are false ribs which are not
Column I Column II (b) Storage of minerals
attached to sternum directly. They are
A. Floating 1. Located between attached to the seventh rib with the help (c) Production of body heat
ribs second and seventh of hyaline cartilage. (d) Locomotion
ribs Vertebral ribs are the last two pairs of Ans. (c)
B. Acromion 2. Head of the floating ribs which are attached to Production of body heat is the function
humerus vertebrae dorsally and are not attached of muscles. The contraction of muscle
ventrally. produce heat, which keeps the body
C. Scapula 3. Clavicle
warm during the winters.
D. Glenoid 4. Do not connect with 20 Out of ‘X’ pairs of ribs in humans
cavity the sternum
only ‘Y ’ pairs are true ribs. Select 22 An acromion process is
the option that correctly characteristically found in the
A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
represents values of X and Y and [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(b) 3 2 4 1 provides their explanation. (a) pelvic girdle of mammals

[NEET 2017] (b) pectoral girdle of mammals
(c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 2 4 1 3 (a) X = 12, Y = 7 True ribs are (c) skull of frog
attached dorsally to (d) sperm of mammals
Ans. (c) vertebral column and
The correct option is (c). It can be ventrally to the Ans. (b)
explaed as follows sternum. An acromion process is found in pectoral
11th and 12th pairs of ribs are not (b) X = 12, Y = 5 True ribs are girdle of mammals. Pectoral girdle
connected ventrally with sternum and are attached dorsally to consists of scapula and clavicle. The
therefore, called floating ribs. vertebral column and scapula consists of a sharp ridge, the
Acromion is a flat expanded process of sternum on the two spine and a triangular body. The end of
ends. the spine projects as a flattened and
spine of scapula. The lateral end of
clavicle articulates with acromion (c) X = 24, Y = 7 True ribs are dorsally expanded process called acromion.
process. Scapula is a flat triangular bone attached to vertebral
in the dorsal part of the thorax between column, but are free 23 What will happen if ligaments are
on ventral side.
2nd and the 7th rib. cut or broken? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
Glenoid cavity of scapula articulates with (d) X = 24, Y = 12 True ribs are dorsally (a) Bones will move freely at joints
attached to vertebral
head of the humerus to form the column, but are free (b) No movement at joint
shoulder joint. on ventral side. (c) Bone will become unfix
(d) Bone will become fixed
19 Select the correct option. Ans. (a)
[NEET (National) 2019] Ans. (c)
In the rib cage, the true ribs are those
(a) 11th and 12th pairs of ribs are which are attached to the sternum in the Ligaments are specialised connective
connected to the sternum with the front and vertebral column at back. tissues which connect bones together;
help of hyaline cartilage These are 7 in numbers. Although there hence, if they are cut or broken the bone
are total 12 ribs in the rib cage. will become unfixed.
24 Which one of the following is a skull Ans. (d) Ans. (c)

bone? [CBSE AIPMT 2000] Usually, there are 12 pairs of ribs, but Cervical vertebrae are seven in number,
(a) Atlas (b) Coracoid occasionally these may be 11, 13 or even constant in most of the mammals.
(c) Arytenoid (d) Pterygoid 14 pairs. The first seven pairs of ribs are Whale, camel, giraffe, etc. have same
known as true ribs. number of cervical vertebrae. However,
Ans. (d) Pairs 8, 9, 10 are false ribs, they are long neck in camel and giraffe is due to
Pterygoid is a small bone articulated with attached indirectly to sternum by means more length of vertebrae.
the palatine. In human it becomes the of cartilages. Last two pairs (11 and 12) do
pterygoid processes of the sphenoid bone. not reach to the sternum and are known 34 Extremities of long bones possess
as ‘floating ribs’. cartilage [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
25 Ligament is a [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(a) calcified (b) fibrous
(a) modified yellow elastic fibrous 30 Which is a part of pectoral girdle? (c) elastic (d) hyaline
tissue [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Ans. (d)
(b) inelastic white fibrous tissue (a) Glenoid cavity (b) Sternum
Hyaline cartilage is the most abundant
(c) modified white fibrous tissue (c) Ileum (d) Acetabulum
cartilage. It forms the cushions or pads
(d) None of the above Ans. (a) upon the articular surfaces at joints of
Ans. (b) A cavity known as glenoid cavity is long bones, known as articular cartilage.
Ligaments are made up of inelastic present at the tip of scapula and It forms the costal cartilage at the
white fibrous tissue and connect bones coracoid process, for articulation of ventral ends of ribs, and also helps to
at joints. It is also known as articular head of humerus. Pectoral girdle form the nose, larynx, trachea, bronchi
ligament, articular larua or fibrous consists of a membranous bone called and bronchial tubes.
ligament. clavicle and a large replacing bone called
shoulder blade or scapula coracoid. TOPIC 3
26 Tendon is made up of
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] 31 Long bones function in Joints
(a) adipose tissue [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(b) modified white fibrous tissue (a) support
(b) support, erythrocyte and leucocyte
35 Match the following joints with the
(c) areolar tissue
synthesis bones involved [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
(d) yellow fibrous connective tissue
(c) support and erythrocyte synthesis Column I
Ans. (b) Column II
(d) erythrocyte formation
The modified white fibres tissue form 1. Gliding (i) Between carpal
cords called tendons which connect Ans. (b) joint and metacarpal
muscles with the bones. In higher animals, movements and of thumb
locomotion depend on the association of
2. Hinge joint (ii) Between atlas
27 Total number of bones in the hind skeletal muscles and skeletal system and axis
limb of man is [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (bones and joints). Bones function to
provide support as well as produce 3. Pivot joint (iii) Between the
(a) 14 (b) 30 erythrocytes and leucocytes in the bone carpals
(c) 24 (d) 21 marrow. 4. Saddle (iv) Between
Ans. (b) joint humerus and ulna
1 femur + 1 fibula + 1 tibia + 1 patella + 7 32 A deltoid ridge occurs in
tarsals + 5 meta tarsals + 14 phalanges [CBSE AIPMT 1990] Select the correct option from the
make one hind limb of man. Total of 30 (a) radius following
bones. (b) ulna 1 2 3 4
(c) femur (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
28 The lower jaw in mammals is made (d) humerus (b) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
up of [CBSE AIPMT 1998] Ans. (d) (c) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(a) mandible (b) dentary Humerus is the bone of forelimb. It bears (d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(c) maxilla (d) angulars head, greater tuberosity and lesser Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) tuberosity. Proximal part of humerus
The correct matches are
bears a slight ridge, which is called as
Dentary is tooth bearing membrane bone 1. Gliding joint–(iii) Between the
deltoid ridge.
of lower jaw of the vertebrates-one on carpals
each side. 2. Hinge joint – (iv) Between humerus
33 Number of cervical vertebrae in
and ulna
29 The number of floating ribs, in the camel is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
3. Pivot joint – (ii) Between atlas and
human body, is [CBSE AIPMT 1995] (a) more than that of rabbit axis
(a) 6 pairs (b) 5 pairs (b) less than that of rabbit
4. Saddle joint – (i) Between carpal and
(c) 3 pairs (d) 2 pairs (c) same as that of whale metacarpal of thumb
(d) more than that of horse
36 The pivot joint between atlas and (c) Hinge joint Between humerus Ans. (b)
and pectoral
axis is a type of [NEET 2017] girdle In hinge joint, the convex surface of one
(a) fibrous joint (b) cartilaginous joint bone fits into the concave surface of
(d) Gliding joint Between carpals another bone, e.g. knee, elbow and
(c) synovial joint (d) saddle joint
interphalangeal joints.
Ans. (c) Ans. (d) Pivot joint, one bone is fixed and second
The joint between atlas and axis is a type Gliding joint is a type of synovial joint, articulated, e.g. atlas and axial of skull
of synovial joint. A considerable movement found between carpal bones and tarsal rotate with axis vertebra.
is allowed at all synovial joints. They are bones. Gliding joints primarily permit
surrounded by tubular articular capsule. Cartilaginous joint between surfaces of side-by-side and back-and-forth gliding
The capsule consists of two layers, i.e. skull bones. Pivot joint is found between movements, e.g. intercarpal joints and
outer fibrous capsule and inner synovial the atlas and axis. Hinge joint is found in intertarsal joints.
membrane, which secretes synovial fluid elbow, knee ankle and interphalangeal In ball and socket joint, ball of one
lubricates and providing nourishment to joints. bone articulates in socket of another
articular cartilage.
bone, e.g. head of humerus and
Concept Enhancer 39 The characteristics and an example glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle.
Fibrous joint They do not allow of a synovial joint in humans is
movement because the bones are held [NEET 2013] 41 Which of the following pairs, is
firmly by bundles of white fibrous tissue.
e.g. joint between the bones of skull. Characteristics Examples
correctly matched?
Cartilaginous joints They allow slight [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(a) Fluid cartilage Knee joints
movement; because of the elastic pads between two (a) Hinge joint — Between
of fibrocartilage present between the bones, limited vertebrae
ends of the bones taking part in the movements
joints, e.g. pubic symphysis of pubis. (b) Gliding joint — Between
(b) Fluid filled Skull bones zygapophyses of
Saddle joints This is the type of synovial between two the successive
joints. This type of joint is like ball and joints, provides vertebrae
socket joint, but not developed fully, e.g. cushion
(c) Cartilaginous — Skull bones
joint between carpal of hand. joint
(c) Fluid filled synovialJoint between
cavity between atlas and axis (d) Fibrous joint — Between
37 Which of the following joints would two bones phalanges
allow no movement? (d) Lymph filled Gliding joint
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] between two between Ans. (b)
(a) Fibrous joint bones, limited carpals Gliding joint is present between
(b) Cartilaginous joint movement zygapophyses of the successive
(c) Synovial joint vertebrae. This joint permits sliding
(d) Ball and socket joint Ans. (c) movements of two bones over each
Joint between atlas and axis is pivot other.
Ans. (a) joint, which is an example of synovial
Fibrous joints are immovable joints that joint characterised by the presence of a 42 The joint found between sternum
occur between the bones of the cranium fluid-filled synovial cavity between the and the ribs in humans is
and in the tooth sockets. They do not articulating surface of the two bones. [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
allow movement because the bones are Knee joint (hinge joint) is a synovial joint
held firmly together by bundles of strong (a) angular joint (b) fibrous joint
characterised by the presence of fluid
white collagen fibres. The immovable (c) cartilaginous joint (d) gliding joint
filled synovial cavity between the
joints are often known as the sutures. articulating surfaces of the two bones. Ans. (c)
The periosteum that covers the bones
Fluid cartilage between two bones Cartilaginous joints are found between
dips between them as a septum.
having limited movements is slightly the centra of vertebrae; at pubic
movable joint. symphysis and between ribs and
38 Select the correct matching of the sternum.
In freely movable joints fluid filled
type of the joint with the example between two joints provides cushion. In Fibrous joints are also called as sutures
in human skeletal system gliding joint, the articulating bones can or immovable joints because in these
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] slide upon one another. joints the adjoining bones cannot move
upon each other, e.g. coronal suture
Types of Joint Example between frontal and parietal bones of skull.
40 Elbow joint is an example of
(a) Cartilaginous Between frontal In gliding joints, two bones can slide
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
joint and parietal upon each other, e.g. joints between
(b) Pivot joint Between third and
(a) pivot joint
carpals in wrist.
fourth cervical (b) hinge joint
In angular joints one bone is movable on
vertebrae (c) gliding joint another bone in two planes side to side
(d) ball and socket joint and back and forth, e.g. wrist joints.
Ans. (b) Women have low oestrogen level when

TOPIC 4 they are transitioning through
The option (b) is correct match which is
Disorders of Bones as follows menopause. Hence, option (c) is correct.
and Muscles Gout is inflammation of joints due to
47 Select the correct statement with
accumulation of uric acid crystals.
Osteoporosis occurs due to decreased respect to locomotion in humans.
43 Chronic auto immune disorder levels of oestrogen in females. It is an [NEET 2013]
affecting neuro muscular junction age-related disorder characterised by (a) A decreased level of progesterone
decreased bone mass and increased causes osteoporosis in old people
leading to fatigue, weakening and
chances of fractures. (b) Accumulation of uric acid crystals in
paralysis of skeletal muscle is joints causes their inflammation
Tetany is rapid spasms (wild
called as [NEET 2021]
contractions) in muscle when there is low (c) The vertebral column has 10 thoracic
(a) arthritis Ca 2 + ions in the blood. vertebrae
(b) muscular dystrophy Muscular dystrophy is progressive (d) The joint between adjacent vertebrae
(c) myasthenia gravis degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly is a fibrous joint
(d) gout due to genetic disorder. Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) Inflammation of joints due to the
Myasthenia gravis is defined as an
45 Which of the following muscular accumulation of uric acid crystals is
autoimmune neuromuscular disorder disorders is inherited? gout. Fibrous joints are formed by the
that leads to fluctuating muscle [NEET (National) 2019] flat skull bones, which fuse end-to-end
weakness and fatigue. The cause of this (a) Muscular dystrophy with the help of dense fibrous
disease is circulating antibodies that will (b) Myasthenia gravis connective tissues in the form of
block acetylcholine receptors at the (c) Botulism sutures to form cranium. The vertebral
post-synaptic neuromuscular junctions. column is formed by 26 serially arranged
(d) Tetany units called vertebrae. The less
Ans. (a) secretion of progesterone causes
Muscular dystrophy is a disease abortion as it basically supports pregnancy.
Muscular dystrophy is an inherited
characterised by progressive
muscular disorder in which the skeletal
degeneration of muscle fibres without 48 Select the correct statement
muscles degenerate progressively. It is
the involvement of nervous system.
caused due to the absence of dystrophin regarding the specific disorder of
Gout is caused by two conditions that protein which helps to keep muscle cells
includes one which occur due to
muscular or skeletal system.
intact. [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
excessive formation of uric acid and
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune (a) Muscular dystrophy –Age related
another by the inability to excrete it.
neuromuscular disease that causes shortening of muscles
Uric acid deposits in the form of
paralysis of skeletal muscles. (b) Osteoporosis –Decrease in bone mass
monosodium salts. Arthritis is the
swelling and tenderness of one or more Botulism is a type of food poisoning and higher chances of fractures with
number of joints. It is caused by injury, caused by bacterium Clostridium advancing age
abnormal metabolism, and genetic makeup. botulinum. (c) Myasthenia gravis –Autoimmune
Tetany is an involuntary muscle disorder which inhibits sliding of
44 Match the following columns and contraction caused due to the low myosin filaments
select the correct option from the level of calcium in body. (d) Gout–Inflammation of joints due to
extra deposition of calcium
codes given below.
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
46 Osteoporosis, an age-related Ans. (b)
disease of skeletal system, may Osteoporosis is age related disease in
Column I Column II
occur due to [NEET 2016, Phase II] which bones loose minerals and fibres
A. Gout 1. Decreased levels (a) immune disorder affecting from the matrix causing decreased bone
of estrogen mass and higher chances of fractures
neuromuscular junction leading to
B. Osteoporosis 2. Low Ca2 + ions in fatigue with advancing age.
the blood
(b) high concentration of Ca + + and Na + Major causative factors of osteoporosis
C. Tetany 3. Accumulation of are imbalance of hormones like
uric acid
(c) decreased level of oestrogen
crystals (d) accumulation of uric acid leading to calcitonin of thyroid, parathormone of
inflammation of joints parathyroids, sex hormones and
D. Muscular 4. Autoimmune deficiencies of calcium and vitamins.
dystrophy disorder Ans. (c)
The disease may be classified as primary
Osteoporosis is caused by decreased type 1, primary type 2 or secondary.
Codes level of oestrogen. Oestrogen deficiency
A B C D The form of osteoporosis most common
causes both the early and late forms of
in women after menopause is referred to
(a) 2 1 3 4 osteoporosis in post-menopausal women.
as primary type 1 or postmenopausal
(b) 3 1 2 4 Osteoporosis is thinning or weaking of osteoperosis.
(c) 4 3 1 2 bones which makes them fragile and
Secondary osteoporosis may arise at any
(d) 1 2 3 4 more likely to break.
age and affect men and women equally.
21
Neural Control
and Coordination
TOPIC 1 wrapped around the nerve axon in a 05 When a neuron is in resting state,
spiral fashion. It is originated from
Structure of the Schwann cells in the peripheral nervous
i.e. not conducting any impulse, the
Nervous System system and oligodendroglial cells in the axonal membrane is
central nervous system. [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(a) equally permeable to both Na + and K +
01 Receptor sites for 03 Destruction of the anterior horn ions
neurotransmitters are present on (b) impermeable to both Na + and K + ions
cells of the spinal cord would result
[NEET 2017] (c) comparatively more permeable to K +
in loss of [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
ions and nearly impermeable to Na + ions
(a) membrances of synaptic vesicles
(a) sensory impulses (d) comparatively more permeable to Na +
(b) pre-synaptic membrane
(b) voluntary motor impulses ions and nearly impermeable to K + ions
(c) tips of axons
(c) commissural impulses
(d) post-synaptic membrane Ans. (c)
(d) integrating impulses
Ans. (d) Neurons are excitable cells because
Ans. (b) their membrane are in a polarised state.
The post-synaptic membrane of the Different types of selectively permeable
synapse of a neuron contains the Destruction of the anterior horn cells of
the spinal cord would result in loss of channels are present on the neural
receptors for neurotransmitters. membrane. When a neuron is not
voluntary motor impulses. It is because
Axon the anterior horn cells (also called conducting any impulse, or in the resting
anterior grey column), which is the front stage, the axonal membrane is
Axon comparatively more permeable to
terminal column of grey matter in the spinal cord
potassium ion (K + ) and nearly
Synaptic contains motor neurons that affect the
vesicles impermeable to sodium ion (Na + ).
axial muscles.
Pre-synaptic
06 During the propagation of a nerve
Synapse
membrane
04 How do parasympathetic neural
Synaptic cleft signals affect the working of the impulse, the action potential
Post-synaptic
heart? [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
results from the movement of
membrane [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
Receptors for (a) Reduce both heart rate and cardiac
neurotransmitter (a) K + ions from extracellular fluid to
Neurotransmitters output
intracellular fluid
Diagram showing axon terminal and (b) Heart rate is increased without
(b) Na + ions from intracellular fluid to
synapse affecting the cardiac output extracellular fluid
(c) Both heart rate and cardiac output (c) K + ions from intracellular fluid to
02 Myelin sheath is produced by increase extracellular fluid
[NEET 2017] (d) Heart rate decreases but cardiac (d) Na + ions from extracellular fluid to
(a) Schwann cells and Oligodendrocytes output increases intracellular fluid
(b) Astrocytes and Schwann cells Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
(c) Oligodendrocytes and Osteoclasts Parasympathetic neural signal reduces During the nerve impulse when a
(d) Osteoclasts and Astrocytes both heart rate and cardiac output, stimulus of adequate strength is applied
Ans. (a) through the post ganglionic fibres. to a polarised membrane, the
These fibres are very short, and are permeability of the membrane to Na + is
The myelin sheath is a greatly extended
cholinergic in nature. increased at the point of stimulation. As
and modified plasma membrane
Neural Control and Coordination 191
a result the sodium ion channels permit 10 Which of the following is regarded accelerator centre run parallel to the
the influx of Na + by diffusion into the spinal cord and enter the sino-atrial
as a unit of nervous tissue?
intracellular fluid from extracellular fluid. node. Stimulation by these nerves, which
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
are part of sympathetic nervous system
(a) Myelin sheath (b) Axons cause an increase in heartbeat.
07 During the transmission of nerve
(c) Dendrites (d) Neurons
impulse through a nerve fibre, the
potential on the inner side of the Ans. (d) 13 In humans, visceral organs are
plasma membrane has which type of The nervous tissue is made up of nerve innervated by [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
cells (the repeating units) also called (a) sympathetic nerves and are under
electric charge? [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
neurons. conscious control
(a) First negative, then positive and again
Each neuron has a cell body or cyton and (b) parasympathetic nerves and are
back to negative
two kinds of cell processes under conscious control
(b) First positive, then negative and
continue to be negative (a) Dendrons, come out from cyton. (c) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Axon, an elongated nerve fibre. (d) both sympathetic and
(c) First negative, then positive and
parasympathetic nerves but are not
continue to be positive
under conscious control
(d) First positive, then negative and again Dendrites
back to positive Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) Both sympathetic and parasympathetic
Nucleus nerve fibres innervate visceral organs
During the transmission of nerve Cell body and coordinate their activity
impulse through a nerve fibre, the
antagonistically, but this is not under
potential on the inner side of the
body's conscious control.
plasma membrane has first become
negative charged, then positive and
again negative by repolarisation.
Axon 14 Afferent nerve fibres carry
impulses from [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
08 Which one of the following pairs of (a) effector organs to CNS
structures distinguishes a nerve Nodes of (b) receptors to CNS
cell from other types of cell?
Ranvier Myelin Schw (c) CNS to receptors
sheaths cell ann
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (d) CNS to muscles
Neuron structure
(a) Perikaryon and dendrites Ans. (b)
(b) Vacuoles and fibres Afferent nerve fibres are formed of only
(c) Flagellum and medullary sheath 11 The junction between the axon of sensory nerve fibres, conduct nerve
(d) Nucleus and mitochondria one neuron and the dendrite of the impulses from sensory organs or
receptors to central nervous system to
Ans. (a) next is called [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
produce sensation, e.g. optic nerve.
A nerve cell consists of cell body (a) junction point (b) a synapse
(perikaryon) containing the nucleus, (c) a joint (d) constant bridge 15 One function of parasympathetic
Nissl granules, dendrites and an axon.
These are specialised cells. Ans. (b) nervous system is
The end to end position of the axon of [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
09 Which of the following statements one neuron and the dendrites of another (a) contraction of hair muscles
neuron is called the synapse. (b) stimulation of sweat glands
is correct about node of Ranvier?
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] Most of the neurons do not actually (c) acceleration of heartbeat
touch other neurons with which they (d) constriction of pupil
(a) Axolemma is discontinuous
communicate, instead there is a minute
(b) Myelin sheath is discontinuous space. This separating gap is called the Ans. (d)
(c) Both neurilemma and myelin sheath synaptic cleft. Parasympathetic nervous system
are discontinuous involves conservation of energy and
(d) Covered by myelin sheath 12 Sympathetic nervous system brings about relaxation, comfort,
pleasure etc, at the time of rest. Another
Ans. (b) induces [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
function of this system is that during
Neurons are the chief functional units of (a) heartbeat emergency or stress while SNS dilates
the nervous system. An ordinary neuron (b) secretion of digestive juices pupil for more light, PNS constricts the
has a soma or cyton and a long thread (c) secretion of saliva pupil to its normal condition.
and, called as axon which is enclosed in a Whereas, sympathetic nervous
multilayered myelin sheath. The myelin (d) All of the above
system involves expenditure of energy
sheath is interrupted at the spaces Ans. (a) and increases the defence system of
between Schwann cells to form gaps. Medulla of brain has two regions body against adverse conditions, so, it
These gaps are called nodes of Ranvier. affecting heart rate (a) cardiac inhibitory operates during stress, pain, fear and
These nodes and the myelin sheath centre, (b) cardiac accelerator centre.
create condition that speed up the nerve anger.
Sensory nerves originating from the
impulses.
TOPIC 2 constant body temperature of 37°C. The

hypothalamus contains a number of
21 A diagram showing axon terminal
and synapse is given. Identify
Physiology of the centres, which control body temperature.
correctly at least two of A-D
Nervous System Corpus callosum is the thick band of [NEET 2013]
nerve fibres that divide the cerebrum
and Reflex Arc into left and right hemispheres. C
B
Medulla oblongata is the component of
16 Which of the following is hindbrain. It receives and integrates
associated with decrease in signals from spinal cord and sends them
cardiac output? [NEET (Oct.) 2020] to cerebellum. Cerebrum is the large A
part of the brain and consists of two
(a) Sympathetic nerves
hemispheres.
(b) Parasympathetic neural signals D
(c) Pneumotaxic centre 19 Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a (a) A–Receptor, C–Synaptic vesicles
(d) Adrenal medullary hormones motor neuron occurs at (b) B–Synaptic connection, D–K +
Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 2014] (c) A–Neurotransmitter,
(a) the neuromuscular junction B–Synaptic cleft
Parasympathetic neural signals (a
component of autonomic nervous (b) the transverse tubules (d) C–Neurotransmitter, D–Ca 2 +
system) decreases the rate of heartbeat, (c) the myofibril Ans. (a)
speed of conduction of action potential (d) the sarcoplasmic reticulum A–Receptor, B–Synaptic cleft,
and thereby the cardiac output. C–Synaptic vesicles, D–Ca 2 + .
Ans. (a)
Stimulation of a muscle fibre by a motor
17 Which of the following statements 22 The human hindbrain comprises
neuron occurs at neuromuscular junction
is not correct? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] (the area of contact between a nerve and three parts, one of which is
(a) An action potential in an axon does muscle fibre). It is also called motor-end [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
not move backward because the plate. At neuromuscular junction a (a) spinal cord
segment behind is in a refractory neuron activates a muscle to contract (b) corpus callosum
phase during the excitation contraction (c) cerebellum
(b) Depolarisation of hair cells of cochlea coupling of vertebrate skeletal muscles. (d) hypothalamus
results in the opening of the
mechanically gated potassium-ion Ans. (c)
channels
20 Injury localised to the hypothalamus
The hindbrain generally has its anterior
(c) Rods are very sensitive and would most likely disrupt roof enlarged to form a pair of cerebellar
contribute to daylight vision [CBSE AIPMT 2014] hemispheres.
(d) In the knee-jerk reflex, stimulus is the (a) short term memory Its floor is thickened to form the pons
stretching of muscle and response is (b) co-ordination during locomotion anteriorly and the medulla oblongata
its contraction (c) executive function, such as decision posteriorly.
making
Ans. (c)
(d) regulation of body temperature 23 The nerve centres which control
Option (c) is not correct because rods
and cones are photoreceptor cells in our Ans. (d) the body temperature and the urge
eyes. The rod cells contain a purple The hypothalamus performs many for eating are contained in
pigment rhodopsin that is useful in night functions which are important for the [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
vision or scotopic vision. Daylight survival and enjoyment of life. It serves (a) hypothalamus
(photopic) vision and colour vision are as a link between ‘mind’ and ‘body’ and (b) pons
the functions of cones. between the nervous and endocrine (c) cerebellum
system. The hypothalamus is
(d) thalamus
18 Which part of the brain is responsible for hormone production.
Ans. (a)
responsible for thermoregulation? The hormone produced by this area
[NEET (National) 2019] govern body temperature thirst hunger, Hypothalamus is the part of the sides
sleep, circoction rhythm, mood sex drive and floor of the brain derived from the
(a) Hypothalamus
etc. This area of the brain also controls forebrain. It lies at the base of thalamus.
(b) Corpus callosum The hypothalamus contains a number of
the functioning of pituitary gland. Thus,
(c) Medulla oblongata centres, which control body temperature,
if any injury localised to the
(d) Cerebrum urge for eating and drinking. It also
hypothalamus it will disrupt the
contains several groups of neurosecretory
Ans. (a) complete regulation of body
cells, which secrete hormones called as
Hypothalamus is the thermoregulatory temperature and other activities. hypothalamic hormones.
centre in the brain and it maintains the
24 Which part of human brain is Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter 30 What used to be described as

concerned with the regulation of secreted from the nerve endings. Nissl’s granules in a nerve cell are
body temperature? Epinephrine and norepinephrine are now identified as
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
secreted from the medulla of adrenal [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
gland and these also act as
(a) Medulla oblongata neurotransmitter.
(a) ribosomes (b) mitochondria
(b) Cerebellum (c) cell metabolites (d) fat granules
(c) Cerebrum 27 One of the examples of the action Ans. (a)
(d) Hypothalamus of the autonomous nervous system Main cell body of neuron is called as
Ans. (d) is [CBSE AIPMT 2005] cyton or soma. It contains a large and
In human brain, hypothalamus is a (a) knee-jerk response centrally located nucleus, mitochondria,
centre for hunger, thirst, sweating, Golgi bodies, rough endoplasmic
(b) pupillary reflex reticulum, lysosomes, fat globules.
sleep, fatigue, temperature, anger, (c) swallowing of food
pleasure, love, hate and satisfaction. Besides these soma also contains Nissl’s
(d) peristalsis of the intestine granules or neurofibrils. These are
Medulla oblongata is the centre for masses of ribosomes and rough
heartbeat, respiration, digestion, blood Ans. (d)
endoplasmic reticulum and are engaged
pressure, involuntary functions, and Peristalsis of the intestine is related with
in the process of protein synthesis.
urination etc. Cerebellum regulates autonomous nervous system whereas,
posture and balance. knee-jerk response, pupillary reflex and
swallowing of food are related to reflex 31 Which cells do not form layer and
Cerebrum is the centre for intelligence,
emotion, will power, memory, action. remain structurally separate?
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
consciousness, imagination, etc.
28 Four healthy people in their (a) Epithelial cells
25 Which one of the following twenties got involved in injuries (b) Muscle cells
statements is correct? resulting in damage and death of a (c) Nerve cells
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] few cells of the following. Which of (d) Gland cells
(a) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, the cells are least likely to be Ans. (c)
but not vice versa replaced by new cells? Only nerve cells do not form layers, they
(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural [CBSE AIPMT 2005] also remain structurally separate from
activity and nervous system regulates (a) Osteocytes each other (though communicate with
endocrine glands each other through synapse).
(b) Malpighian layer of the skin
(c) Neither hormones control neural Nerve cells or neurons are the cells
activity nor the neurons control (c) Liver cells
specialised to conduct an
endocrine activity (d) Neurons
electrochemical current, nerve tissue is
(d) Endocrine glands regulate neural Ans. (d) made up of these cells and supporting
activity, but not vice versa Neuron cells are least likely to be cells.
Ans. (a) replaced by new cells. These cells are
The autonomous nervous system specilalised to conduct electrochemical 32 An action potential in the nerve
regulates the secretion of glands current. fibre is produced when positive and
whereas, the glands do not regulate the Nerve cells do not have the capability of negative charges on the outside
nervous system. division as they are restricted at and the inside of the axon
G0 -phase of the cell cycle.
membrane are reversed, because
26 Which one of the following do not [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
act as a neurotransmitter? 29 In the resting state of the neural
(a) more potassium ions enter the axon
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] membrane, diffusion due to as compared to sodium ions leaving it
(a) Acetylcholine (b) Epinephrine concentration gradients, if allowed, (b) more sodium ions enter the axon as
(c) Norepinephrine (d) Cortisone would drive [CBSE AIPMT 2004] compared to potassium ions leaving it
Ans. (d) (a) K + into the cell (c) all potassium ions leave the axon
(b) K + and Na + out of the cell (d) all sodium ions enter the axon
Cortisone does not act as a
neurtransmitter. Cortisone is a
(c) Na + into the cell
Ans. (b)
corticosteroid that is itself biologically (d) Na + out of the cell
When a nerve fibre is stimulated, its
inactive and is formed naturally in the Ans. (c) membrane becomes more permeable to
adrenal gland (adrenal cortex) from the In the resting nerve fibre, the cytoplasm sodium ions. Hence, more sodium ions
active hormone cortisol. Cortisol inside the axon has a high concentration enter the axon than potassium ions
promotes the synthesis and storage of of K + and a low concentration ofNa + in leaving it. As a result, the positive and
glucose and is important in the normal contrast to the fluid outside the axon. negative charges on the outside and
response to stress, suppresses Thus, if diffusion occurs then through inside of the membrane are reversed.
inflammation and regulates deposition concentration gradientNa + enters the The membrane with reversed polarity is
of fat in body. fibre. called depolarised.
33 Which cranial nerve has the highest Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
number of branches? Normally, the breathing process Inside diencephalon there is a narrow
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] (inspiration and expiration) is controlled cavity called 3rd ventricle of brain or
(a) Facial nerve (b) Trigeminal involuntarily by a breathing centre diacoel, which is connected anteriorly
located in the medulla oblongata. The with lateral ventricles (also called
(c) Vagus nerve (d) None of these
ventral portion of the breathing centre paracoel) of cerebral hemisphere (called
Ans. (c) (inspiratory centre) increases the rate 1st and 2nd ventricle) by a common
Vagus nerve has five branches and depth of inspiration while the dorsal aperture called foramen of Monro.
(a) Superior laryngeal nerve and lateral portions of the centre While it is connected posteriorly with 4th
(b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve (expiratory centre) inhibit inspiration and ventricle of medulla oblongata through a
stimulate expiration. narrow longitudinal canal called
(c) Cardiac nerve
iter/aqueduct of Sylvius.
(d) Pneumogastric nerve
(e) Depresser nerve
38 CNS is mostly made of
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
42 Which of the following cranial
(a) motor neurons and sensory neurons nerves can regulate heartbeat?
34 The Nissl’s granules of nerve cell [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
are made up of [CBSE AIPMT 1997] (b) sensory neurons and association
neurons (a) X (b) IX (c) VIII (d) VII
(a) ribosomes (b) protein
(c) association neurons Ans. (a)
(c) DNA (d) RNA
(d) motor neurons and association Xth cranial nerve is vagus or
Ans. (a) neurons pneumogastric nerve which originates
Nissl’s granules (or Nissl’s bodies) are Ans. (c) from lateral side of medulla oblongata
the groups of ribosomes and rough behind IX cranial nerve. It is a mixed
Central nervous system is mostly made
endoplasmic reticulum. These are nerve, its sensory fibres innervate to
up of association neurons.
actively involved in the synthesis of receptor present in the wall of visceral
proteins. organs. Whereas, its motor fibres
39 Ivan Pavlov performed experiments innervates to muscles in the wall of
35 The roof of the cranium of frog is on visceral organs-like heart, alimentary
formed by [CBSE AIPMT 1997] (a) simple reflexes canal, trachea, lungs, kidneys, genital
(b) conditioned reflexes tracts etc. It also regulates heartbeat.
(a) parasphenoid (b) alisphenoid
(c) frontoparietal (d) orbitosphenoid (c) cardiac reflexes
(d) origin of life TOPIC 3
Ans. (c)
Dorsal part of the cranium is formed of Ans. (b) Sensory Organs
two large and flat frontoparietals which Conditional reflexes are those responses
are articulated together by a mid dorsal which can be initiated to a stimulus 43 Match the following columns and
sagittal suture together and are collectively other than the one which normally
called frontoparietal. Endo-frontoparietal initiates that response. select the correct option from the
consists of a frontal bone (in front) and a Conditional reflexes were first codes given below.
parietal bone (behind). But now it has demonstrated by a Russian physiologist I [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
been proved that it is only the frontal Pavlov (1929). He conducted ‘Bell Column I Column II
bone, the parietals are not present in experiment on dog’. He rang a bell A. Rods and 1. Absence of
frog due to the absence of neck. every time he offered food to a dog, cones photoreceptor
finally he noticed that merely ringing bell cells
36 The sympathetic nerves, in can substitute sight or smell of food to B. Blind spot 2. Cones are
mammals arise from initiate salivation. densely packed
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] C. Fovea 3. Photoreceptor
(a) sacral nerves 40 Vagus nerve is cells
(b) cervical nerves [CBSE AIPMT 1992, 97] D. Iris 4. Visible coloured
(c) thoraco-lumbar nerves (a) X (b) IX portion of the eye
(d) III, VII, IX and X cranial nerves (c) VII (d) V
Codes
Ans. (c) Ans. (a) A B C D
Sympathetic nerves arise from Vagus nerve is Xth cranial nerve. It is (a) 3 1 2 4
thoracic and lumbar spinal segments. mixed in nature having both sensory and (b) 2 3 1 4
motor fibres. (c) 3 4 2 1
37 Respiratory centre is situated in
(d) 2 4 3 1
[CBSE AIPMT 1994, 99] 41 Third ventricle of brain is also
(a) cerebellum Ans. (a)
known as [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
(b) medulla oblongata The option (a) is correct match which is
(a) metacoel (b) rhinocoel
(c) hypothalamus as follows. Rods and cones are
(c) paracoel (d) diacoel photoreceptor cells of eye.
(d) cerebrum
Blind spot is the area where there is (b) Cornea is convex, transparent layer 49 Choose the correct statement.
absence of any photoreceptor cells in which is highly vascularised [NEET 2016, Phase II]
the eye. (c) Cornea consists of dense matrix of (a) Nociceptors respond to changes in
Fovea is the area in the eye where cones collagen and is the most sensitive pressure
are densely packed. portion of the eye
(b) Meissner’s corpuscles are
Iris is the visible coloured portion of the (d) Cornea is an external, transparent thermoreceptors
eye. and protective proteinaceous
(c) Photoreceptors in the human eye are
covering of the eyeball
depolarised during darkness and
44 Match the following columns and Ans. (c) become hyperpolarised in response
select the correct option. The statement that cornea consists of to the light stimulus
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] dense matrix of collagen and is the most (d) Receptors do not produce graded
sensitive portion of the eye is correct. potentials
Column I Column II
Rest statements are incorrect. The Ans. (c)
A. Organ of 1. Connects middle correct information about the The photosensitive compounds
Corti ear and pharynx statements is as follows
(Rhodopsin) in the human eye is
B. Cochlea 2. Coiled part of the The outer layer of the wall of eyeball, composed of opsin (a protein) and retinal
labyrinth sclera, consists of a dense connective (an aldehyde of vitamin–A, i.e. retinol).
C. Eustachian 3. Attached to the tissue containing mainly collagen and
some elastic fibre. Cornea is convex, It is present in the rod cells
tube oval window (Photoreceptors). Light induces
transparent layer which is
D. Stapes 4. Located on the non-vascularised. The cornea is the clear dissociation of retinol, from opsin thus
basilar part of eye’s protective covering. changing the structure of opsin. This
membrane creates potential differences in the
47 The transparent lens in the human photoreceptors and they become
A B C D
hyperpolarised.
(a) 3 1 4 2 eye is held in its place by
(b) 4 2 1 3 [NEET 2018] However, during darkness rhodopsin is
(a) smooth muscles attached to the iris resynthesised from opsin and retinine to
(c) 1 2 4 3
restore the dark vision and
(d) 2 3 1 4 (b) ligaments attached to the iris
photoreceptors are depolarised.
Ans. (b) (c) ligaments attached to the ciliary body
The correct form of other statements
(d) smooth muscles attached to the
Option (b) is correct because organ of are
ciliary body
Corti is located on the basilar (a) Nociceptors are sensory nerve
membrane. The coiled portion of the Ans. (c) cells that respond to potentially
labyrinth is called cochlea. The The lens in the human eye is held in place damaging chemical or mechanical
Eustachian tube connects the middle by the suspensory ligaments attached to stimuli and send them to brain and
ear cavity with the pharynx. The middle the ciliary body. The function of other spinal cord.
ear contains ossicle called stapes that is components are as follows (b) Meissner’s receptors are tactile
attached to the oval window of the The smooth muscles attached to the receptors receiving the stimuli of
cochlea. ciliary body helps to control the shape of pressure.
lens. (d) Receptors always produce graded
45 Which of the following receptors Smooth muscles of iris help in regulating potentials.
are specifically responsible for the diameter of pupil.
maintenance of the balance of Pactinate ligament attached to iris is 50 In mammalian eye, the ‘fovea’ is the
body and posture? involved in the drainage of aqueous center of the visual field, where
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] humor because it contains spaces [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(a) Basilar membrane and otoliths between the fibres.
(a) high density of cones occur, but has
(b) Hair cells and organ of Corti no rods
(c) Tectorial membrane and macula 48 Photosensitive compound in (b) the optic nerve leaves the eye
(d) Crista ampullaris and macula human eye is made up of (c) only rods are present
Ans. (d) (d) more rods than cones are found
(a) opsin and retinal
The inner ear contains crista ampullaris (b) opsin and retinol Ans. (a)
and macula as the specific receptors of At the posterior pole of the eye lateral to
the vestibular apparatus responsible for
(c) transducin and retinene
(d) guanosine and retinol the blind spot, there is a yellowish
maintenance of balance of the body and pigmented spot called macula lutea with
posture. Ans. (a) a central pit called the fovea. It is a
Photosensitive pigment rhodopsin in thinned-out portion of the retina where
46 Which of the following statements human eye is made up of opsin protein only the cones are densely packed. It is
is correct? [NEET (National) 2019] and retinal [aldehyde form of vitamin-A the point where the visual acuity
(a) Cornea consists of dense connective (retinol)]. These pigments are present in (resolution) is the highest.
tissue of elastin and can repair itself the rod cells of retina layer of eye.
51 Which one of the following (a) Eustachian tube (a) B—Tectorial membrane,
(b) Organ of Corti C—Perilymph, D— Secretory cells
statements is not correct?
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] (c) Vestibular apparatus (b) C—Endolymph, D—Sensory hair cells,
(d) Ear ossicles A— Serum
(a) Retinal is the light absorbing portion
Ans. (c) (c) D—Sensory hair cells, A—Endolymph,
of visual photopigments
B— Tectorial membrane
(b) In retina the rods have the The inner ear contains a complex system
called vestibular apparatus which is (d) A—Perilymph, B—Tectorial
photopigment rhodopsin, while cones
located above the cochlea. It has no role membrane, C— Endolymph
have three different photopigments
(c) Retinal is a derivative of vitamin-C in hearing but is influenced by gravity Ans. (d)
and movements. Its specific receptors Cochlea is the main hearing organ, which
(d) Rhodopsin is the purplish red protein
called crista and macula are responsible is connected with saccule by short
present in rods only
for maintenance of balance of the body ductus reunions leading from the
Ans. (c) and posture. saccule. It consists of three fluid filled
Retinal pigment of epithelium shields the chambers or canals the upper scala
retina from excess incoming light. It 54 The purplish red pigment rhodopsin vestibuli, lower scala tympani and middle
supplies omega-3 fatty acid and glucose contained in the rods type of scala media. Both scala vestibuli and
to the retina. The former is used for scala tympani are filled with perilymph
photoreceptor cells of the human
building photoreceptive by membranes (A) while scala media is filled with
the latter used for energy retinal is eyes is a derivative of
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
endolymph.(C) The tectorial membrane
supplied by the visual vitamin-A cycle. (B) overhangs the sensory hair in scala
(a) vitamin-C (b) vitamin-D media.
52 Parts A, B, C and D of the human (c) vitamin-A (d) vitamin-B
Perilymph (A)
eyes are shown in the diagram. Ans. (c)
Select the option, which gives There are two types of photoreceptor Tectorial (B)
correct identification along with its cells of retina, namely rods and cones. membrane
functions/characteristics The rods contain a purplish red protein
Endolymph (C)
[NEET 2013] called the rhodopsin (visual purple),
which is a derivative of vitamin-A. Basilar
membrane (D)
C
55 Cornea transplant in human is Organ of
Lens B almost never rejected. This is Corti
Iris Cochlea
because [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(a) its cells are least penetrable by
D 57 Which one of the following is the
A bacteria
correct difference between rod
(a) A–Retina–contains (b) it has no blood supply cells and cone cells of our retina?
photoreceptors–rods and cones (c) it is composed of enucleated cells [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(b) B–Blind spot–has only a few rods and (d) it is a non-living layer
cones Rod cells Cone cells
Ans. (b)
(c) C–Aqueous chamber–reflects the (a) Visual High Low
light, which does not pass through Cornea is a transparent portion that acuity
the lens forms the anterior one-sixth of the
(b) Visual Iodopsin Rhodopsin
(d) D–Choroidits anterior part forms eyeball. The cornea admits and helps to pigment
ciliary body focus light waves as they enter the eye. contained
It is avascular, i.e., has no blood supply
Ans. (a) (c) Overall Vision in Colour vision
therefore, cornea transplant in human is function poor light and detailed
A–Retina—Contains photoreceptors - almost never rejected. vision in bright
rods and cones. The daylight vision is light
function of cones and twilight vision is 56 Given below is a diagrammatic (d) Distribution More Evenly
related to rods. cross section of a single loop of concentrate distributed all
B–Blind spot—Photoreceptor cells are d in centre over retina
human cochlea. [CBSE AIPMT 2008] of retina
not present in this part.
C–Aqueous chamber contains a thin A B Ans. (a)
watery fluid called aqueous humour.
The rods contain the rhodopsin (visual
D–Sclera is the external layer of eye
C purple) pigment and enable the animals
having dense connective tissue.
D to see in darkness. Therefore, present in
A large number in nocturnal animals. The
53 Which part of the human ear plays cones contain the iodopsin (visual violet)
no role in hearing as such but is pigment and chiefly concerned with
otherwise very much required? Which one of the following distinction in colour and light vision
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] options correctly represents the during day time.
names of three different parts?
58 Bowman’s glands are located in the Ans. (c) (d) the external opening of the tympanic
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] Human eye is about 1 inch in diameter cavity which is covered by the
and is covered and protected by the tympanic membrane
(a) proximal end of uriniferous tubules
(b) anterior pituitary sclera, which is made up of tough Ans. (a)
(c) female reproductive system of connective tissue. The front of eye is ‘Fenestra ovalis’ is an oval aperture
cockroach transparent thus allows the light to enter through which tympanic cavity is
the eye. This portion of the eye’s outer connected with auditory capsule which
(d) olfactory epithelium of our nose
layer is called cornea. It lacks a blood houses the internal ear.
Ans. (d) supply.
Many olfactory glands (Bowman’s glands) It derives nutrients via aqueous humour 64 Cornea transplantation is
occur below the olfactory epithelium from cell body. Cornea not only allows outstandingly successful because
that secrete mucus over the epithelium light to enter the eye but also bend it as
[CBSE AIPMT 1996]
to keep it moist. well. This makes it a characteristic
feature of human eye, i.e. cornea. (a) cornea is easy to preserve
59 What is the intensity of sound in (b) cornea is not linked up with blood
61 When we migrate from dark to vascular and immune systems
normal conversation?
(c) the technique involved is very simple
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] light, we fail to see for some time
(d) cornea is easily available
(a) 10-20 dB (b) 35-60 dB but after a time visibility becomes
(c) 70-90 dB (d) 120-150 dB normal. It is an example of Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] Cornea is non-vascular, i.e. no blood
Ans. (b) supply so, its transplantation is
The intensity of sound in normal (a) accommodation
outstandingly successful.
conversation is around 35-60 dB. The (b) adaptation
word noise is orginated from the Latin (c) mutation
65 Retina is most sensitive at
word nausea and is defined as unwanted (d) photoperiodism [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
or unpleasant sound that causes
Ans. (b) (a) optic disc
discomfort.
It takes some time for rhodopsin to split (b) periphery
Intensity of some noise sources is as
into scotopsin and retinal (bleaching) and (c) macula lutea
follows
release of transmitter passing nerve (d) fovea centralis
Source Intensity (dB) impulse via bipolar and ganglion cells to
the optic nerves. This is a case of Ans. (d)
Breathing 10
adaptation. It differs from Retina is most sensitive at fovea
Broadcasting studio 20 accommodation which is a reflex centralis. It is with a depression, fovea
Trickling cl’ock 30 mechanism by which the focus of the centralis in its middle-N it is the area of
Library 30-35 eye change to make the images of most distinct day vision. Yellow spot or
distant and near objects sharp on the macula lutea or area centralis is a small
Normal conversation 35-60 retina. area on retina which lies opposite to
Telephone 60 optical axis of the lens. Only cones are
Office noise 60-80 62 In the chemistry of vision in present in this area so, it most sensitive
Alarm clock 70-80 mammals, the photosensitive to day light vision.
Traffic 50-90 substance is called
[CBSE AIPMT 1997] 66 Function of iris is to
Motor cycle 105 [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(a) sclerotin (b) retinal
Jet fly (over 1000') 100-110 (a) move lens forward and backward
(c) rhodopsin (d) melanin
Train whistle (50') 110 (b) refract light rays
Ans. (c)
Air craft (100') 110-120 (c) bring about movements of eyelids
Rods of the retina contain the
Commercial jet air 120-140 (d) alter the size of pupil
light-sensitive pigment rhodopsin which
craft (100') Ans. (d)
is formed by a combination of the
Space rocket 170-180 protein molecule called scotopsin and a Iris controls the amount of light that
(launching) small light absorbing molecule called reaches the photosensors at the back of
retinene (retinal). the eye. It consists of circular sphincters
60 Characteristic feature of human and radial dilators. The function of iris is
cornea is that [CBSE AIPMT 2001] 63 In frog, ‘fenestra ovalis’ is to alter the size of pupil.
[CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) it is secreted by conjunctiva and
glandular tissue (a) the opening in the auditory capsule 67 Light rays entering the eye are
(b) it is lacrimal gland which secretes tears which separates the middle ear from controlled by [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
internal ear (a) pupil
(c) blood circulation is absent in cornea
(b) the air-filled cavity of the middle ear (b) iris
(d) in old age it become hard and white
layer deposits on it which causes the (c) the communication between the
(c) cornea
cataract pharynx and the tympanic cavity
(d) lens
Ans. (a) in movement control and make use

Pupil is the black hole in the centre of
TOPIC 4 of neurotransmitter
the iris. It is the area through which Disorders of the Nervous [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
light enters the eyeball, i.e. pupil is the System and Sensory (a) acetylcholine (b) norepinephrine
aperture that controls the light (c) dopamine (d) GABA
entering into the eye. Organs/System
Ans. (c)
Abnormal release of neurotransmitter
68 Iris is part of [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
71 Snow blindness in Antarctic region dopamine leads to Parkinson's disease in
(a) sclerotic humans. It is caused by degeneration of
(b) choroid/uvula is due to [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
brain neuron that are involved in control
(a) inflammation of cornea due to high
(c) choroid and retina movement.
dose of UV-B radiation
(d) sclerotic and choroid
(b) high reflection of light from snow 74 Injury to vagus nerve in human is
Ans. (c) (c) damage to retina caused by infrared
Iris consists of two layers, outer one lies not likely to affect
rays [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
in continuation with choroid, while inner
(d) freezing of fluids in the eye by low
one is in continuation with retina. (a) tongue movements
temperature
(b) gastrointestinal movements
69 Sensitive pigmented layer of eye is Ans. (a) (c) pancreatic secretion
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] Snow blindness in Antarctic region is due (d) cardiac movements
(a) cornea to inflammation of cornea due to high
dose of UV-B radiation. It is a painful, Ans. (a)
(b) retina
temporary loss of vision due to Vagus nerve is a mixed cranial nerve
(c) sclerotic which is, controlling much of the gut,
overexposure to the sun’s UV rays. It also
(d) iris ventilatory system and heart. It does not
called ’photo keratitis’(photo = light,
Ans. (b) keratitis= inflammation of the cornea). affect tongue movements. Tongue
Retina consists of a pigmented layer and movement is controlled by
a nervous tissue layer, first there is the 72 In a man, abducens nerve is glossopharyngeal nerve.
photoreceptor layer containing injured. Which one of the following
photosensitive cells, the rods and cones. functions will be affected? 75 A person suffering from the
Rod cells are sensitive towards light and [CBSE AIPMT 2005] deficiency of the visual pigment
are used for vision in dim light, having no rhodopsin is advised to take more
(a) Movement of the eye ball
ability to detect colour, whereas cones [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(b) Swallowing
are used for bright light vision with the (a) radish and potato
ability to make coloured images of the (c) Movement of the tongue
(d) Movement of the neck (b) apple and grapes
object.
(c) carrot and ripe papaya
Next is the intermediate layer containing Ans. (a)
(d) guava and ripe banana
short sensory bipolar neurons. Bipolar Abducens (abducent) nerve is a cranial
cells inturn synapse with the retinal nerve which originates from the ventral Ans. (c)
ganglion cells, whose axons bundle surface of medulla oblongata. It Carrot and ripe papaya contain carotene
together as the optic nerve. innervates the lateral rectus muscle of from which vitamin-A is synthesised.
eyeball. It is a motor nerve and controls Vitamin-A is necessary for the formation
70 Acute vision is present in the movements of the eyeball. Hence, if of rhodopsin.
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] abducens nerve is injured in a man, The visual pigments in vertebrate eyes
(a) vulture (b) shark movement of eyeball will be affected. are located in the tips of specialised
(c) bat (d) frog sensory cells called rod cell and cone
Ans. (a) 73 Parkinson’s disease (characterised cells. Rod cells contain rhodopsin and
Acute vission is found in birds like by tremors and progressive rigidity are responsible for black and white
vulture. of limbs) is caused by degeneration vision.
of brain neurons that are involved
22
Chemical Coordination
and Integration
TOPIC 1 (c) follicle stimulating hormone and Ans. (b)
leutinizing hormone
Hormones and Their (d) prolactin and vasopressin
Chronic hypersecretion of Growth
Hormone (GH) leads to gigantism or
Chemical Nature Ans. (b) acromegally depending on the age of the
individual.
Neurohypophysis (pars nervosa) is also
01 Match the following columns and known as posterior pituitary which If its hypersecretion occurs before the
select the correct option from the stores and releases two hormones ossification of epiphyseal plates, it
codes given below. called oxytocin and vasopressin, which causes exaggerated and prolonged
growth in long bones. It results in
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] are actually synthesised by the
gigantism.
hypothalamus and are transported
Column I Column II In adults, hypersecretion of GH leads to
axonally to neurohypophysis.
A. Pituitary 1. Steroid accromegaly. No increase in height
hormone occurs because of the ossified
03 GnRH, a hypothalamic hormone, epiphyseal plate.
B. Epinephrine 2. Neuropeptides needed in reproduction, acts on
C. Endorphins 3. Peptides, [NEET 2017]
05 The amino acid, tryptophan is the
proteins (a) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates precursor for the synthesis of
D. Cortisol 4. Biogenic secretion of LH and oxytocin
amines (b) anterior pituitary gland and
stimulates secretion of LH and FSH (a) thyroxine and tri-iodothyronine
A B C D (c) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates (b) oestrogen and progesterone
(a) 4 1 2 3 secretion of oxytocin and FSH (c) cortisol and cortisone
(b) 3 4 2 1 (d) posterior pituitary gland and (d) melatonin and serotonin
(c) 4 3 1 2 stimulates secretion of LH and relaxin Ans. (d)
(d) 3 4 1 2 Ans. (b) Melatonin and serotonin are derivatives
Ans. (b) GnRH is a hypothalamic hormone. It of tryptophan amino acid while thyroxine
Option (b) is correct match which is as stimulates the anterior lobe of pituitary and tri-iodothyronine are iodinated
follows gland to secrete LH and FSH. tyrosine amino acid derivatives.
Pituitary hormones are chemically
peptides and proteins. 04 Hypersecretion of growth hormone 06 Which of the following pairs of
Epinephrine is a biogenic amine. in adults does not cause further hormones are not antagonistic
Endorphins are neuropeptides. increase in height because (having opposite effects) to each
Cortisol is a steroid hormone. [NEET 2017] other? [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(a) growth hormone becomes inactive in
(a) Insulin Glucagon
02 Hormones stored and released adults
(b) epiphyseal plates close after (b) Aldosterone Atrial Natriuretic
from neurohypophysis are Factor
adolescence
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(c) bones loose their sensitivity to growth (c) Relaxin Inhibin
(a) thyroid stimulating hormone and hormone in adults
oxytocin (d) muscle fibres do not grow in size after (d) Parathormone Calcitonin
(b) oxytocin and vasopressin birth
Ans. (c) 10 Identify the hormone with its 12 Which one of the following pairs of
Relaxin hormone which is secreted by correct matching of source and hormones are the examples of
posterior pituitary gland relaxes the function. [CBSE AIPMT 2014] those that can easily pass through
pubic symphysis during parturition while
inhibin decreases the secretion of FSH
(a) Oxytocin – Posterior pituitary, growth the cell membrane of the target
and maintenance of mammary glands cell and bind to a receptor inside it
from anterior pituitary.
(b) Melatonin – Pineal gland, regulates the (mostly in the nucleus)?
normal rhythm of sleepwake cycle [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
07 Name a peptide hormone which (c) Progesterone – Corpus luteum,
acts mainly on hepatocytes, (a) Insulin and glucagon
stimulation of growth and activities of
adipocytes and enhances cellular female secondary sex organs (b) Thyroxin and insulin
glucose uptake and utilisation. (d) Atrial natriuretic factor – Ventricular (c) Somatostatin and oxytocin
[NEET 2016, Phase II] wall increases the blood pressure (d) Cortisol and testosterone
(a) Insulin (b) Glucagon Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
(c) Secretin (d) Gastrin Cortisol and testosterone are lipid
Melatonin is a hormone present in
Ans. (a) animals, plants and microbes. In animals soluble hormones, which can directly
melatonin allows the regulation of pass through the cell membrane of the
Insulin is the peptide hormone which target cell and bind with interacellular
enhances the uptake of glucose molecules cicarcadian rhythms.
receptors.
by liver cells (hepatocytes) and fat cells Oxytocin is a neurohypophysial hormone
(adipocytes) for its cellular utilisation. which stimulates the muscle contraction
Such an activity of insulin brings down (smooth muscle) in the wall of uterus 13 What is correct to say about the
the level of glucose in the blood. during childbrith. hormone action in humans?
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
Progesterone is a female hormone
08 Which one of the following produced by the corpus luteum after (a) Glucagon is secreted byβ-cells of
hormones is not involved in sugar ovulation. islets of Langerhans and stimulates
This hormone maintain the wall of uterus glycogenolysis
metabolism? [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
throughout the pregnancy. (b) Secretion of thymosine is stimulated
(a) Cortisone (b) Aldosterone with ageing
(c) Insulin (d) Glucagon ANF stimulates the secretion of Na and
H 2O by the kidneys and helps in (c) In females, FSH first binds with
Ans. (b) regulating blood pressure. specific receptors on ovarian cell
membrane
Aldosterone is not involved in sugar
metabolism. It is a steroid hormone (d) FSH stimulates the secretion of
11 A person entering an empty room oestrogen and progesterone
(mineralocorticoid) produced by the suddenly finds a snake right in
outer section (zona glomerulosa) of the Ans. (c)
adrenal cortex in the adrenal gland. It
front on opening the door. Which
FSH hormone is one of the
plays a central role in the regulation of one of the following is likely to
gonadotropins secreted by anterior lobe
blood pressure mainly by acting on the happen in his neurohormonal of pituitary. It is a proteinaceous
distal tubules and collecting ducts of the control system? [CBSE AIPMT 2012] hormone, so binds with extra cellular or
nephron, increasing reabsorption of ions (a) Sympathetic nervous system is membrane bound receptors.
and water in the kidney, to cause the activated releasing epinephrine and
conservation of sodium, secretion of norepinephrine from adrenal medulla
potassium, increase in water retention
14 Which one of the following pairs is
(b) Neurotransmitters diffuse rapidly incorrectly matched?
and decrease in blood pressure and
across the cleft and transmit a nerve [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
blood volume.
impulse
(a) Glucagon — Beta cells (source)
(c) Hypothalamus activates the
09 Which one of the following parasympathetic division of brain
(b) Somatostatin — Delta cells (source)
hormones though synthesised (d) Sympathetic nervous system is (c) Corpus luteum— Relaxin (secretion)
elsewhere, is stored and released activated releasing epinephrine and (d) Insulin —Diabetes mellitus (disease)
by the master gland? norepinephrine from adrenal cortex Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Ans. (a) In pancreatic islets, alpha or A–cells
(a) Antidiuretic hormone
Epinephrine and nor-epinephrine are constitute about 15% of pancreatic islets
(b) Luteinising hormone cells and secrete glucagon. Its molecule
secreted by adrenal medulla (under the
(c) Prolactin consists of a single polypeptide chain of
control of sympathetic nervous system)
(d) Melanocyte stimulating hormone in response to stress of any kind or 29 amino acid residues. Glucagon
Ans. (a) during emergency situations. intensifies glycogenolysis, deamination
and gluconeogenesis and inhibits
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) or These are also called emergency
glycogenesis in liver cells. It also
vasopressin is a peptide hormone hormones. Thus, they would be released
intensifies lipolysis in adipose tissue.
synthesised in the hypothalamus, but when the person enter an empty room
Thus, it is a promoter of catabolic
stored and released from the posterior and suddenly finds a snake.
metabolism.
pituitary lobe.
Chemical Coordination and Integration 201
15 Foetal ejection reflex in human Ans. (d) 21 Withdrawl of which of the following
female is induced by Oxytocin hormone is secreted from the hormones is the immediate cause
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] posterior lobe of pituitary gland. of menstruation?
(a) pressure exerted by amniotic fluid It promotes contraction of uterine [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(b) release of oxytocin from pituitary muscle during parturition and (a) Oestrogen (b) FSH
contraction of myoepithelial cells of
(c) fully developed foetus and placenta (c) FSH-RH (d) Progesterone
lactating breast, sequeezing milk into
(d) differentiation of mammary glands the large ducts behind the nipple. Ans. (d)
Ans. (b) Because of its role oxytocin is called Menstruation is caused by the reduction
Oxytocin (child birth hormone) secreted birth hormone. of oestrogen and progesterone.
by neurohypophysis of pituitary gland Hormone level, (especially
stimulates contraction of uterus 18 Feeling the tremors of an progesterone) at the end of monthly
muscles. It stimulates labour pain for earthquake a scared resident of ovarian cycle. The first effect is
child birth. When secretion of decreased stimulation of the
seventh floor of a multistoryed
progesterone hormone declines it will endometrial cells by these two
result in making the end of pregnancy. building starts climbing down the hormones followed rapidly by involution
As the sensory impulse of increasing stairs rapidly. Which hormone of the endometrium itself to about 65%
labour pain reaches hypothalamus, initiated this action? of its previous thickness.
more and more oxytocin is released [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
from posterior pituitary under a (a) Thyroxin 22 Which hormone causes dilation of
positive feedback regulation, it dilates (b) Adrenaline blood vessels, increased oxygen
the cervix (vaginal stretching). (c) Glucagon consumption and glucogenesis?
(d) Gastrin [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
16 The blood calcium level is lowered (a) ACTH (b) Insulin
Ans. (b)
by the deficiency of (c) Adrenaline (d) Glucagon
Adrenaline hormone is responsible for
[CBSE AIPMT 2008, 1999]
this action, as adrenaline hormone is Ans. (c)
(a) parathormone (b) thyroxine known as 3F hormone, i.e. fright, flight Adrenaline (epinephrine) is a hormone
(c) calcitonin (d) Both (a) and (c) and fight. produced by adrenal medulla and is
Ans. (a) secreted in great amounts during
The chief cells of the parathyroid 19 In the human female, menstruation emotional states. It elevates the glucose
secrete parathormone. Its deficiency can be deferred by the level in blood stream (by glucogenesis)
causes the lowering of blood calcium administration of which is accompanied by increase in
level. This increases the excitability of oxygen consumption, body temperature,
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
nerves and muscles causing cramps and heat production. Adrenaline also causes
(a) LH only an increase in the flow of blood by
convulsions. This causes parathyroid
tetany characterised by sustained (b) combination of FSH and LH dilating the blood vessels.
contractions of the muscles of larynx, (c) combination of estrogen and Insulin regulates the glucose level in
face, hands and feet. progesterone blood.
Calcitonin is secreted when calcium (d) FSH only ACTH (Adreno Corticotropic Hormone) is
level is high in blood. It has an opposite Ans. (c) secreted by anterior pituitary and
action to that of parathyroid hormone stimulates the adrenal cortex.
When the production of progesterone
and lowers the calcium level by and estrogen hormone stops in blood Glucagon is a polypeptide hormone
suppressing release of calcium ions this leads to shedding of the lining of secreted by the alpha cells of islets of
from the bones. uterine endometrium. Therefore, by Langerhans of pancreas. It also acts to
Thyroxine is secreted from the thyroid supply of oestrogen and progesterone promote glycogenolysis.
gland. It regulates the metabolic rate of the menstruation can be deferred.
the body and thus, maintain basal 23 Sertoli cells are regulated by the
metabolic rate, stimulate protein 20 Compared to a bull a bullock is pituitary hormone known as
synthesis and therefore, promote [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
growth of the body tissues.
docile because of
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (a) FSH (b) GH
(c) prolactin (d) LH
17 In human adult females, oxytocin (a) higher levels of thyroxin
(b) higher levels of cortisone Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(c) lower levels of blood testosterone Sertoli cells are the cells that line the
(a) is secreted by anterior pituitary
(d) lower levels of seminiferous tubules in the testis. These
(b) stimulates growth of mammary cells protect the spermatids and convey
glands adrenaline/noradrenaline in its blood
nutrients to both the developing and
(c) stimulates pituitary to secrete Ans. (c) mature spermatozoa. Sertoli cells are
vasopressin Testes are degenerated due to which regulated by FSH (Follicle Stimulating
(d) causes strong uterine contractions testosterone level in blood is reduced. Hormone) as the FSH receptors are
during parturition This hormone promotes the growth of confined to the Sertoli cells.
many body tissues such as muscles.
FSH stimulates Sertoli cells to 27 Which one of the following 31 Adrenaline directly affects
produce androgen-binding protein hormones is a modified amino [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
and inhibin and together with (a) SA node
acid? [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
testosterone, promotes the (b) β-cells of Langerhans
proliferation of Sertoli cells. (a) Epinephrine
(b) Progesterone (c) dorsal root of spinal cord
(c) Prostaglandin (d) epithelial cells of stomach
24 A steroid hormone which regulates
glucose metabolism is (d) Oestrogen Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] Ans. (a) The hormone adrenaline (epinephrine) is
(a) cortisol secreted by adrenal medulla and directly
Epinephrine is synthesised from amino
affects SA node thereby increasing heart
(b) corticosterone acid tyrosine. While oestrogen and
rate. This hormone is responsible for the
(c) 11-deoxycorticosterone progesterone are modified steroids and
alarming reactions. It also increases
(d) cortisone prostaglandins are basically fat.
breathing and blood glucose level.
Ans. (a) 28 Mainly which type of hormones
Cortisol (a steroid hormone) is the control the menstrual cycle in 32 Which steroid is used for
principal glucocorticoid hormone of human beings? [CBSE AIPMT 2002] transformation? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
many mammals including humans (a) Cortisol (b) Cholesterol
(a) FSH
(corticosterone is more abundant in (c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone
(b) LH
some small mammals). It regulates the
glucose metabolism and promotes (c) FSH, LH, estrogen Ans. (b)
gluconeogenesis, especially during (d) Progesterone Cholesterol forms a major component of
starvation and raises blood pressure. Ans. (c) animal cell membranes. Liposomes
Cortisone is an inactive form of cortisol. (artificially created spheres surrounded
Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH),
by a phospholipid bilayer like a
Luteinising Hormone (LH) and estrogen
25 Chemically hormones are membrane) are used for transformation
all play an important role in controlling
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] (transgenics).
the menstrual cycle in human females.
(a) biogenic amines only
(b) proteins, steroids and biogenic 29 When both ovaries are removed 33 Secretion of progesterone by
amines from rat which hormone is corpus luteum is initiated by
decreased in blood? [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(c) proteins only
(d) steroids only [CBSE AIPMT 2002] (a) thyroxine (b) LH
(a) Oxytocin (c) MSH (d) testosterone
Ans. (b)
(b) Prolactin Ans. (b)
Chemically hormones are of different
nature like protein hormones (c) Estrogen LH (Luteinising Hormone), secreted by
(hypothalmic hormones), steroids (sex (d) Gonadotropic releasing factor anterior pituitary, stimulates the corpus
hormones) and biogenic amines (like luteum to secrete the hormone
Ans. (c) progesterone.
thyroxin hormone).
If both the ovaries are removed from rat
then the blood plasma level of oestrogen 34 Hormones thyroxine, adrenaline
26 Which of the following hormones is will be affected as it is produced by
not a secretion product of human theca interna cells of Graafian follicles.
and the pigment melanin are
placenta? [CBSE AIPMT 2004] Oestrogen regulates growth and formed from [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) Human chorionic gonadotropin development of female accessary (a) tryptophan (b) glycine
reproductive organs, secondary sexual (c) tyrosine (d) proline
(b) Prolactin characters and sexual behaviour.
(c) Oestrogen Ans. (c)
(d) Progesterone 30 Melanin protects from Tyrosine is the precursor of : (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] hormone epinephrine (i.e. adrenaline)
Ans. (b) and thyroid hormones, (b)
Prolactin is secreted by anterior pituitary
(a) UV-rays
(b) visible rays neurotransmitter dopamine, (c) melanin
gland (not human placenta) which (the black pigment of skin).
stimulates mammary gland development (c) infra-red rays
during pregnancy and lactation after (d) X-rays
child birth. Ans. (a) hormones stimulates the ‘let down’
Placenta is a connection between the Melanin is a protective pigment
uterine wall of mother and the foetus. It (release) of milk from the mother’s
synthesised from tyrosine. Melanocytes breasts when the baby is sucking?
helps in exchange of material between
under the influence of melanocyte [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
these two. Placenta secretes human
secreting hormone secrete melanin
chorionic gonadotropin, oestrogen and (a) Progesterone (b) Oxytocin
which protects the body from harmful
progesterone. (c) Prolactin (d) Relaxin
effects of UV rays.
Ans. (b) Ans. (a) Ans. (d)

Oxytocin induces contraction of the Cortisol is a glucocorticoid, secreted by Statement in option (d) is correct. Rest
mammary gland muscles, helps in the adrenal cortex. It is primarily meant for statements can be corrected as
flow of milk from mammary glands to carbohydrate metabolism, which Glucagon is associated with
mouth of the child, hence, called ‘milk increases the rate of gluconeogenesis hyperglycemia. Insulin acts on
ejection hormone’. (conversion of proteins in liver into hepatocytes and adipocytes and is
sugars) and decreases peripheral associated with hypoglycemia.
36 ADH or vasopressin is utilisation of glucose, thus it possess
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] anti-insulin effect. 42 Which of the following conditions
(a) enzyme that hydrolyses peptides will stimulate parathyroid gland to
(b) hormone secreted by pituitary that TOPIC 2 release parathyroid hormone?
promotes reabsorption of water from [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
glomerular filtrate Human Endocrine (a) Fall in active vitamin-D levels
(c) hormone that promotes System: Major Glands (b) Fall in blood Ca +2 levels
glycogenolysis
(d) energy rich compound connected (c) Fall in bone Ca +2 levels
with muscle contraction 40 Match the following columns and (d) Rise in blood Ca +2 levels
Ans. (b) select the correct option. Ans. (b)
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] The fall in blood Ca +2 levels is the
ADH or vasopressin is synthesised in
hypothalamus and stored and released Column I Column II condition which will stimulate
by neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of parathyroid gland to release parathyroid
A. Pituitary 1. Grave’s disease hormone. This hormone exerts its effects
pituitary gland. It controls the gland
permeability of wall of collecting tubules on bones and kidneys. When calcium
and DCT of renal tubules to water, which B. Thyroid 2. Diabetes levels are low, parathyroid hormone is
stimulates reabsorption of water so, it gland mellitus released by the parathyroid glands into
controls the osmoregulation. C. Adrenal 3. Diabetes the blood and causes the bones to
gland insipidus release calcium and increase levels in
37 Insulin is [CBSE AIPMT 1990] D. Pancreas 4. Addison’s the bloodstream.
(a) vitamin (b) lipid disease
(c) hormone (d) enzyme 43 Which of the following glucose
A B C D transporters is insulin-dependent?
Ans. (c) (a) 3 2 1 4 [NEET (National) 2019]
Insulin is earliest known hormone. It is (b) 3 1 4 2 (a) GLUT II (b) GLUT III
also called hypoglycemic or (c) 2 1 4 3 (c) GLUT IV (d) GLUT I
antidiabetic factor, as it decreases (d) 4 3 1 2
glucose level in blood and prevents Ans. (c)
occurrence of diabetes. It is secreted Ans. (b) GLUT IV is an insulin dependent glucose
by β-cells of the islets of Langerhans. The correct option is (b). It can be transporter. It helps in the transport of
explained as follows glucose into muscles and adipose cells
38 Addition of a trace of thyroxine or Grave’s disease occurs is due to excess under anabolic conditions. It permits the
iodine in water containing tadpoles secretion of thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). facilitated diffusion of circulating
Diabetes mellitus is due to glucose down its concentration gradient
will [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
hyposecretion of insulin fromβ-cells of into muscle and fat cells. On the other
(a) keep them in larval stage hand, GLUT I, II and III are insulin
pancreas.
(b) hasten their metamorphosis independent glucose transporters.
Diabetes insipidus is due to
(c) slow down their metamorphosis hyposecretion of ADH from posterior
(d) kill the tadpoles pituitary. Addison’s disease is due to 44 Artificial light, extended work-time
Ans. (b) hyposecretion of hormone from adrenal and reduced sleep-time disrupt the
cortex. activity of [NEET (National) 2019]
Thyroxine controls tissue differentiation
and metamorphosis of tadpole larva into (a) thymus gland (b) pineal gland
frog. Gundernatch (1912) proved that 41 Select the correct statement. (c) adrenal gland
metamorphosis of tadpole into adult [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(d) posterior pituitary gland
frog is controlled by thyroxine. Addition (a) Glucagon is associated with
of thyroxine in water will hasten the hypoglycemia Ans. (b)
metamorphosis. (b) Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and Artificial light, extended work time and
adipocytes reduced sleep time disrupt the activity
39 Which hormone possesses anti (c) Insulin is associated with of pineal gland. It is a small
-insulin effect? [CBSE AIPMT 1988] hyperglycemia pea-shaped gland in the brain. It
(a) Cortisol (b) Calcitonin (d) Glucocorticoids stimulate produces melatonin, which helps
(c) Oxytocin (d) Aldosterone gluconeogenesis maintain circadian rhythm and
regulate reproductive hormones.
45 Which of the following hormones (a) it is provided with a duct Ans. (c)
can play a significant role in (b) it only stores and releases hormones Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals,
osteoporosis? [NEET 2018] (c) it is under the regulation of which act as intracellular messengers and
hypothalamus are produced in trace amounts.
(a) Estrogen and parathyroid hormone
(d) it secretes enzymes Endocrine cells are present in different
(b) Progesterone and aldosterone parts of the gastrointestinal tract,
(c) Aldosterone and prolactin Ans. (b) e.g. gastrin, secretin, GIP.
(d) Parathyroid hormone and prolactin The posterior pituitary gland is not a Atrial wall of our heart secretes a
‘true’ endocrine gland because it only peptide hormone called ANF (Atrial
Ans. (a)
stores and releases two hormones– Natriuretic Factor), RH/IH are produced
Estrogen and parathyroid hormone can oxytocin and vasopressin, which are
play significant role in osteoporosis. It is by hypothalamus. Adenohypophysis is
actually synthesised by the hypothalamus not directly under neural control, it is
caused due to the deficiency of estrogen
and are transported to the posterior under the control of hypothalamic
and excessive activity of parathormones.
pituitary through hypophysial portal hormones, brought by portal system.
Estrogen helps to promote the activity
system. Hence option (b) is correct.
of osteoblast (helps in the formation of
bone cells) and inhibits osteoclast 50 Select the answer which correctly
(destruct the bones). On the other hand, 48 Fight or flight reactions cause matches the endocrine gland with
parathormone promotes the activation of [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
the hormone it secretes and its
mobilisation of calcium from bones into (a) the parathyroid glands, leading to function/deficiency symptom
blood hence causes demineralisation. increased metabolic rate [NEET 2013]
The other listed hormones also contribute (b) the kidney, leading to suppression of
to osteoporosis but their effects are reninangiotensin-aldosterone Function/
Endocrine
insignificant or very less. e.g., low level pathway gland
Hormone deficiency
of progesterone and aldosterone causes (c) the adrenal medulla, leading to symptoms
bone loss whereas raised level of prolactin increased secretion of epinephrine (a) Anterior Oxytocin Stimulates
have been linked with osteoporosis. and norepinephrine pituitary uterus
(d) the pancreas leading to a reduction in contraction
46 Which of the following structures the blood sugar levels during child
or regions is incorrectly paired with birth
Ans. (c) (b) Posterior Growth Oversecretion
its function? [NEET 2018]
Fight or flight reaction is a physiological pituitary Hormone stimulates
(a) Hypothalamus Production of
reaction that occurs in response to (GH) abnormal
releasing hormones growth
and regulation of emergency. Emergency hormone is
temperature, hunger secreted by adrenal medulla of adrenal (c) Thyroid Thyroxine Lack of iodine
gland. Adrenal medulla secretes gland in diet results
and thirst. in goitre
(b) Limbic system Consists of fibre epinephrine and nor-epinephrine
(d) Corpus Testoster Stimulates
tracts that commonly called catecholamines luteum one spermatogene
interconnect hormones which stimulates sweating, sis
different regions of heartbeat and breathing rate.
brain; controls These hormones also causes dilation of Ans. (c)
movement. coronary artery (supplying blood to heart Lack of iodine in diet results in goitre.
(c) Medulla Controls respiration muscles) a bronchioles (for increasing Oxytocin is produced by
oblongata and cardiovascular inspiratory volume) and pupil (for better neurohypophysis, which stimulates
reflexes. vision). uterus contraction during child birth.
(d) Corpus Band of fibres Anterior pituitary secretes Growth
callosum connecting left and 49 Which of the following statement is Hormones (GH) its over secretion
right cerebral stimulates abnormal growth.
hemispheres.
correct in relation to the endocrine
Testosterone is secreted by Leydig cells
system? [NEET 2013]
Ans. (b) of testes in males.
(a) Adenohypophysis is under direct
Limbic system consists of four major neural regulation of the
components namely hippocampus, hypothalamus
51 Match the source gland with its
amygdala, septal nuclei and mammilary (b) Organs in the body like respective hormone as well as the
bodies. It controls the emotional gastrointestinal tract, heart, kidney function. [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
behaviour, food habits and sex behaviour and liver do not produce any
of an organism. It is not involved in Source
hormones Hormone Function
controlling movements. gland
(c) Non-nutrient chemicals produced by
The rest three options are correctly the body in trace amount that act as (a) Posterior Vasopressin Stimulates
paired with their functions. intercellular messenger are known as pituitary resorption of
water in the
hormones
47 The posterior pituitary gland is not distal tubules
(d) Releasing and inhibitory hormones in the nephron
a ‘true’ endocrine gland because are produced by the pituitary gland
(b) Corpus Oestrogen Supports 53 Which one of the following pairs of 57 Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone
luteum pregnancy
organs includes only the endocrine (MSH) is produced by
(c) Thyroid Thyroxine Regulates
glands? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
blood calcium
level (a) Parathyroid and adrenal (a) anterior pituitary
(b) Pancreas and parathyroid (b) posterior pituitary
(d) Anterior Oxytocin Contraction of
pituitary uterus muscles (c) Thymus and testes (c) pars intermedia of pituitary
during child (d) Adrenal and ovary (d) parathyroid
birth
Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) The endocrine glands have no ducts The intermediate lobe (pars
intermedium) of the pituitary gland
The pituitary gland is located in a bony and their secretions get absorbed into
secretes MSH which causes dispersal of
cavity called sella tursica and is the immediate surrounding blood
pigment granules in the pigment cells
attached to hypothalamus by a stalk. It is circulation to reach the specific
divided anatomically into an (melanocytes) which give colour to the
organs to initiate a particular skin.
adenohypophysis and a neurohypophysis. metabolic change, e.g. thyroid,
The neurohypophysis latter is also called In the frogs and tadpoles, MSH is
parathyroid, adrenal, thymus.
pars nervosa or posterior pituitary. responsible for the generalised
It stores and releases two hormone blackening of the skin.
54 A person is having problems with
called oxytocin and vasopressin, which
are actually synthesised by the calcium and phosphorus 58 A common scent-producing gland
hypothalamus and are transported metabolism in his body. Which one among mammals is
axonally to neurohypophysis. of the following glands may not be [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney functioning properly? (a) anal gland
and stimulates reabsorption of water [CBSE AIPMT 2007] (b) prostate gland
and electrolytes by the distal tubules in
the nephron and thereby reducing the
(a) Parathyroid (b) Parotid (c) adrenal gland
loss of water through urine (diuresis). (c) Pancreas (d) Thyroid (d) Bartholin’s gland
Hence, it is also called as Anti-Diuretic Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Hormone (ADH).
The parathormone secreted by Scent or musk glands are located
52 Given ahead is an incomplete table parathyroid gland regulates the calcium around the face, feet or anus of many
about certain hormones, their and phosphate balance between the mammals. These secrete pheromones
blood and other tissues. which may be involved in defence,
source glands and one major effect
of each on the body in humans. recognition and territorial behaviour.
Identify the correct option for the 59 The gonadotropic hormones are
accumulation and release centre of
three blanks A, B and C.
neurohormones? produced by [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] (a) interstitial cells of testes
Gland Secretion Effect on body (a) Posterior pituitary lobe (b) adrenal cortex
A Oestrogen Maintenance of (b) Intermediate lobe of the pituitary (c) adenohypophysis of pituitary
secondary sexual (c) Hypothalamus (d) posterior part of thyroid
characters (d) Anterior pituitary lobe Ans. (c)
Alpha cells B Raises blood The gonadotropic hormones (FSH and
of islets of sugar level Ans. (c)
ICSH = LH) are secreted by anterior lobe
Langerhans Almost all hormonal secretion by the
of the pituitary (adenohypophysis).
Anterior C Over secretion pituitary gland are controlled by
hormonal signal from hypothalamus. Gonadotropic Hormone (GTH) controls
pituitary leads to
gigantism The neurohormones are secreted and the function of gonads (ovary in
accumulated by hypothalamus. females and testes in males).
A B C
Placenta Insulin Vasopressin 60 The hormone which regulates the
(a) 56 Melatonin is secreted by
(b) Ovary Insulin Calcitonin [CBSE AIPMT 2000] basal metabolism in our body is
(c) Placenta Glucagon Calcitonin (a) skin (b) thymus secreted from [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(d) Ovary Glucagon Growth (c) pituitary (d) pineal gland (a) pituitary (b) thyroid
hormone (c) adrenal cortex (d) pancreas
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
The pineal gland (epiphysis) secretes
Hypersecretion of growth hormone Thyroxine (T4 ) and tri-iodothyronin (T3 )
the hormone melatonin. It regulates
(somatotropic hormone) during adulthood hormones are secreted by the thyroid
causes acromegaly. It is characterised by the working of gonads by inhibiting
follicular cells. These hormones
bossing of frontal bone, prominent cheek, gonadotropins and their effects. Its
maintain the Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)
coarse hair, hirsutism, enlarged hands production is inhibited by exposure of of the body.
and feet. animal to light.
61 Occurrence of Leydig’s cells and (a) alpha cells of pancreas (a) deficiency of iodine in diet
their secretion is (b) the cells of rostral adenohypophysis (b) low secretion of growth hormone
[CBSE AIPMT 1998, 93, 91] (c) the cells of bone marrow (c) cancer of the thyroid gland
(a) ovary and oestrogen (d) juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney (d) over secretion of pars distalis
(b) liver and cholesterol
(c) pancreas and glucagon Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
(d) testis and testosterone The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney Hypothyroidism during pregnancy
produce peptide hormone called causes defective development and
Ans. (d) erythropoietin which stimulates maturation of the growing foetus leading
The endocrine part of testis is formed of (erythropoiesis). It stimulates the stem to stunted growth. Low secretion of GH
groups of cells, called interstitial cells or cells of the bone marrow to increase red results in stunted growth resulting in
Leydig’s cells, scattered in connective blood cell production. pituitary dwarfism.
tissue between the sperm producing Pars distalis or anterior pituitary
seminiferous tubules of the testis. 65 Match the following hormones with produces growth hormone. Prolactin
These cells are stimulated to produce (PRL), Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
the respective disease.
male sex hormones, called androgens by (TSH), Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
ICSH of anterior pituitary. Testosterone (ACTH), Lutenising Hormone (LH) and
is main androgen and it is a steroid A. Insulin (i) Addison's disease Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH).
hormone. B. Thyroxin (ii) Diabetes insipidus
68 Toxic agents present in food which
C. Corticoids (iii) Acromegaly
62 Which of the following endocrine interfere with thyroxin synthesis
gland stores its secretion in the D. Growth (iv) Goitre lead to the development of
hormone
extracellular space before [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(v) Diabetes mellitus (a) toxic goitre (b) cretinism
discharging into the blood?
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] Select the correct option. (c) simple goitre (d) thyrotoxicosis
(a) Pancreas A B C D Ans. (c)
(b) Adrenal (a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) Toxic agents in food which interfere with
(c) Testis (b) (v) (iv) (i) (iii) thyroxin synthesis will lead to simple
(d) Thyroid (c) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) goitre. Thyrotoxicosis and toxic goitre
(d) (v) (i) (ii) (iii) are under the category of
Ans. (d) hyperthyroidism.
Thyroid gland secretes thyroxine. Ans. (b)
Thyroxine hormones are stored in the (A)–(v), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii) 69 A health disorder that results from
lumen of the follicle, the extracellular The deficiency of insulin causes
space. diabetes mellitus which is characterised
the deficiency of thyroxin in adults
by high blood sugar levels. Excess and characterised by
production of thyroid hormone, [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
63 MSH of pars intermedia of middle
pituitary is responsible for thyroxine causes goitre, deficiency of I. a low metabolic rate
[CBSE AIPMT 1988]
corticoids causes Addison’s disease or II. increase in body weight
adrenal insufficiency. Hypersecretion of
(a) darkening of skin in lower vertebrates growth hormones causes acromegaly in
III. tendency to retain water in
(b) light colouration of skin in lower adults. It is characterised by enlarged tissues is
vertebrates hands and feet of affected person. (a) hypothyroidism (b) simple goitre
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) myxoedema (d) cretinism
(d) darkening of skin in human beings 66 Graves’ disease is caused due to Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) [NEET 2016, Phase II]
Myxoedema (Gulls disease) occurs due to
MSH controls the synthesis and (a) hyposecretion of thyroid gland the deficiency of thyroxine in adults, it
dispersal of melanin granules in the (b) hypersecretion of thyroid gland causes low BMR (by 30-40%), low body
chromatophores in the skin of fishes, (c) hyposecretion of adrenal gland temperature, tendency to retain water in
amphibians and some reptiles (d) hypersecretion of adrenal gland tissues, reduced heart rate, pulse rate,
(poikilothermal animals) so, it causes blood pressure and cardiac output, low
darkening of skin. It is non-functional in Ans. (b) sugar and iodine level in blood, muscular
man. Graves’ disease or hyperthyroidism is weakness and oedema (accumulation of
caused due to the secretion of excessive interstitial fluid that causes the facial
TOPIC 3 amount of thyroid hormone by the
thyroid gland, i.e. hyperthyroidism.
tissues to swell and look fluffy).
Decrease secretion of thyroxine
Hormones and hormone from thyroid gland causes
Related Disorders 67 A pregnant female delivers a baby, hypothyroidism. Simple goitre is caused
who suffers from stunted growth, by lower intake of iodine through diet.
64 Erythropoietin hormone which mental retardation low intelligence Cretinism occurs due to hyposecretion
quotient and abnormal skin. This is of thyroxine during the growth years or
stimulates RBC formation is
birth.
produced by [NEET 2021] the result of [NEET 2013]
70 Which one of the following pairs (a) Iodine-131 (b) Carbon-14 75 How does steroid hormone
correctly matches a hormone with (c) Uranium-238 (d) Phosphorus-32 influence the cellular activities?
a disease resulting from its Ans. (a) [NEET (National) 2019]
deficiency? [CBSE AIPMT 2004] Radioactive iodine, i.e. Iodine-131 is (a) Binding to DNA and forming a
(a) Luteinising hormone − Failure of administered to patients suffering from gene-hormone complex
ovulation thyroid cancer for its detection. (b) Activating cyclic AMP located on the
(b) Insulin − Diabetes insipidus cell membrane
(c) Thyroxine − Tetany TOPIC 4 (c) Using aquaporin channels as second
messenger
(d) Parathyroid hormone − Diabetes
mellitus
Mechanism of (d) Changing the permeability of the cell
Ans. (a)
Hormonal Control membrane
Ans. (a)
Ovulation occurs under the influence of
74 Identify A, B and C in the Steroid hormones are able to bind to
LH and FSH of anterior pituitary gland.
diagrammatic representation of DNA and form a gene-hormone complex.
Disease Deficiency the mechanism of hormone action. These hormones can easily cross the
lipid bilayer of the cell and do not require
Diabetes mellitus Insulin A
secondary messengers for the same.
B
Tetany Parathormone Steroid hormones bind to intracellular
Diabetes insipidus ADH receptors in the nucleus to form
Response 1 hormone receptor complex which in turn
interact with the genome.
71 Acromegaly is caused by C cAMP pathway, secondary messengers
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
and change in cell membrane
(a) excess of STH Physiological responses permeability is required in case of
(b) excess of thyroxin proteinaceous hormones which cannot
(c) deficiency of thyroxin Select the correct option from the pass through lipid bilayer on their own.
(d) excess of adrenaline following
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] 76 According to the accepted concept
Ans. (a)
(a) A – Steroid hormone; of hormone action, if receptor
Hypersecretion of growth hormone
B–Hormone-receptor complex, molecules are removed from target
(somatotropic hormone) during
C – Protein organs, then the target organ will
adulthood causes acromegaly. It is
(b) A–Protein hormone, B –Receptor; [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
characterised by bossing of frontal
C –Cyclic AMP (a) not respond to the hormone
bone, prominent cheek, coarse hair,
(c) A – Steroid hormone; B-Receptor, (b) continue to respond to hormone
hirsutism, enlarged hands and feet.
C-Second messenger without any difference
72 Diabetes is due to (d) A – Protein hormone; B – Cyclic AMP, (c) continue to respond to the hormone
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] C – Homone-receptor complex but in the opposite way
(a) iodine deficiency Ans. (b) (d) continue to respond to the hormone
(b) hormonal deficiency In the given mechanism of hormone but will require higher concentration
(c) Na + deficiency action, the labels are Ans. (a)
(d) enzyme deficiency A–Protein hormone Hormones are released in normal blood
Ans. (b) B–Receptor circulation but each hormone stimulates
Diabetes mellitus occurs due to the C–Cyclic AMP only a specific target organ to initiate a
deficiency of hormone insulin which is specific response. It is because of the
Hormones which interact with
presence of specific receptor protein
secreted by islets of Langerhans of membrane bound receptors do not enter
only in the specific target cell. If these
pancreas. It is a peptide hormone. the target cell. These bind with
receptor molecules are removed from
membrane proteins (receptors) and
73 Which of the following radioactive target organs, the organ will not respond
generate second messengers which in
to hormone.
isotope is used in the detection of turn regulate cellular metabolism, e.g.
thyroid cancer? FSH on ovarian cell membrane.
[CBSE AIPMT 1995, 2002]
23
Reproduction
in Organisms
TOPIC 1 Some species have cone-like structures Parthenocarpy is the development of
called strobili that produce and house seedless fruits. Parthenogenesis can
Asexual Reproduction the plants spores for reproduction. be defined as the development of an egg
into a complete individual without
01 Genera like Selaginella and Salvinia 04 Which of the following statements fertilisation.
produces two kinds of spores. is incorrect? [NEET (National) 2019] Leaves
Such plants are known as (a) Claviceps is a source of many
[NEET 2021] alkaloids and LSD
(a) homosorus (b) heterosorus (b) Conidia are produced exogenously
and ascospores endogenously Offset
(c) homosporous (d) heterosporous
(c) Yeasts have filamentous bodies with
Ans. (d) long thread-like hyphae
Heterosporous plants are the ones that (d) Morels and truffles are edible
produce two diverse sorts of spores, i.e. delicacies
Adventitious
microspores and the megaspores. The Ans. (c) roots
microspores and megaspores germinate
The statement ‘‘ yeasts have filamentous Offset of water hyacinth (Eichhornia)
and give rise to male and female
gametophyte in these plants and are bodies with long thread-like hyphae” is
retained on the parent sporophytes for incorrect. Correct information about the
statement is as follows.
variable periods, e.g. Selaginella and statements is not correct?
Salvinia. Yeast is a unicellular sac fungus which
lacks filamentous structures or hyphae. [NEET 2016, Phase II]
However, they may form short (a) Offspring produced by the asexual
02 Vegetative propagule in Agave is temporary filamentous structure called reproduction are called clone
termed as [NEET (Oct.) 2020] pseudomycelium. Rest statements are (b) Microscopic, motile asexual
(a) rhizome (b) bulbil correct. reproductive structures are called
(c) offset (d) eye zoospores
Ans. (b) 05 Offsets are produced by (c) In potato, banana and ginger, the
[NEET 2018] plantlets arise from the internodes
Vegetative propagule in Agave is bulbil. It present in the modified stem
develops as a small bud on the axial leaf (a) parthenocarpy
(b) mitotic divisions (d) Water hyacinth, growing in the
and after falling on the soil, it develop standing water, drains oxygen from
into new plants. (c) meiotic divisions
water that leads to the death of
(d) parthenogenesis fishes
03 Strobili or cones are found in Ans. (b)
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] Ans. (c)
Offsets are produced by mitotic Statement (c) is incorrect as in potato,
(a) Pteris (b) Marchantia divisions. They are one internode long banana and ginger new plantlets always
(c) Equisetum (d) Salvinia runners that occur in some aquatic arise from the nodes of the modified
Ans. (c) plants. Breaking of offsets helps in stem.
vegetative propagation. They give rise to
Strobili or cones are found in Equisetum. Internodes are the area between the two
Equisetum species have rhizomes that new plants, e.g. Eichhornia. Meiotic
nodes.
grow deep below the grounds surface. divisions occur in only germ cells.
Reproduction in Organisms 209
07 Which of the following pairs is not Ans. (c) Ans. (b)

correctly match? Tuber is oval or spherical swollen Epimorphosis is the replacement of a
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] underground modified stem lacking lost organ of the body by proliferating
adventitious roots. new cells from the surface of the wound
Mode of reproduction Example or injured part.
It possesses a number of spirally
(a) Offset Water hyacinth arranged depression called eyes. Each Morphogenesis (Gr. morphe=form and
(b) Rhizome Banana eye represents node and consists of 1-3 genesis=origin) is the growth, shaping
axillary buds in the axils of small scally and arrangement of body parts
(c) Binary fission Sargassum leaves. according to genetically predefined
(d) Conidia Penicillium patterns. The extent direction and rate
11 Vegetative propagtion in Pistia of morphogenesis depend on genetic
Ans. (c) controls and environmental factors.
occurs by [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
The plant body Sargassum is a diploid
(a) stolon (b) offset
sporophyte. It does not multiply 15 A population of genetically identical
asexually by means of spores. Instead it
(c) runner (d) sucker
individuals, obtained from asexual
reproduce by vegetative means, Ans. (b) reproduction is [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
i.e. fragmentation which is the only Vegetative propagation in Pistia occurs
known method of vegetative (a) callus
by offset. Offsets are branches
reproduction in the free floating species originated from the mainstem and upper (b) clone
of Sargassum. portion of each branche is curved (c) deme
bearing a group of leaves while lower (d) aggregate
08 Which one of the following is portion bearing roots. Each branch when Ans. (b)
correctly matched? separate can grow independently
Clone refers to the population of
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] forming a new plant.
genetically identical individuals obtained
(a) Onion – Bulb from asexual reproduction or produced
(b) Ginger – Sucker 12 Vegetative propagation in mint vegetatively from single organism. An
(c) Chlamydomonas – Conidia occurs by [CBSE AIPMT 2009] individual member of a clone is called
(d) Yeast – Zoospores (a) offset (b) rhizome ramete.
(c) sucker (d) runner
Ans. (a) 16 Vegetative reproduction of Agave
The correctly matched pair is Ans. (c)
occurs through [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
onion-bulb. Onion is a simple tunicated Vegetative propagation in mint occurs
layered bulb while ginger is a straggling by sucker. These develop from the (a) rhizome (b) stolon
rhizome having uniparous cyme nodes of underground stem and comes (c) bulbils (d) sucker
branching with sympodial axis. While up obliquely above the ground in the Ans. (c)
yeast reproduces by budding and form of shoots. It also takes place in Vegetative propagation of Agave occurs
Chlamydomonas by zoospores. Chrysanthemum. by bulbils. These are condensed axillary
bud capable of giving rise to shoots, i.e.
09 Which one of the following is 13 In which one pair both the plants independent plant.
correctly matched? can be vegetatively propagated by
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] leaf pieces?
(a) Onion – Bulb
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
TOPIC 2
(a) Agave and Kalanchoe
(b) Ginger – Sucker (b) Bryophyllum and Kalanchoe Sexual Reproduction
(c) Chlamydomonas – Conidia (c) Asparagus and Bryophyllum
(d) Yeast – Zoospores (d) Chrysanthemum and Agave 17 Which of the following plant is
Ans. (a) monoecious? [NEET 2021]
Ans. (b)
Onion is a simple tunicated layered bulb (a) Carica papaya
Marginal notches in Kalanchoe and
while ginger is a straggling rhizome Bryophyllum possess adventitious buds (b) Chara
having uniparous cyme branching with in their leaves for vegetative propagation. (c) Marchantia polymorpha
sympodial axis. (d) Cycas circinalis
14 During regeneration modification Ans. (b)
10 The ‘Eyes’ of the potato tuber are
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
of an organ to other organ is known When male and female reproductive
as [CBSE AIPMT 2001] structures are present on same plant it
(a) flower buds
(a) morphogenesis is called monoecious condition, whereas
(b) shoot buds when both reproductive structures are
(c) axillary buds (b) epimorphosis
present on different plants then this
(d) root buds (c) morphallaxis
condition is called dioecious.
(d) acretopmaruy growth
Chara is monoecious. It has oogonium 20 Match column I with column II and Anisogametes are found in
(female organ) and antheridium (male Chlamydomonas in which one gamete
select the correct option using
organ) on the same plant. is larger and non-motile and the other
the codes given below one is motile and smaller. Oogamy is
Other options are incorrect because [NEET 2016, Phase II] the fusion of non-motile egg with
Carica papaya (papayas) Marchantia motile sperm. The gametes, differ
polymorphaemel and Cycas circinalis Column I Column II
both morphologically as well as
(gymnosperm) are all dioecious plants. A. Pistils fused 1. Gametogenesis physiologically. It occurs in
together Chlamydomonas, Fucus, Chara, Volvox,
18 Which one of the following flowers B. Formation of 2. Pistillate etc.
only once in its lifetime? gametes
[NEET 2018] C. Hyphae of higher 3. Syncarpous 22 Product of sexual reproduction
(a) Mango ascomycetes generally generates [NEET 2013]
(b) Jackfruit D. Unisexual female 4. Dikaryotic (a) longer viability of seeds
(c) Bamboo species flower (b) prolonged dormancy
(d) Papaya (c) new genetic combination leading to
Codes variation
Ans. (c)
A B C D (d) large biomass
Bamboo plants are perennial, (a) 4 3 2 1
monocarpic plants. They flower only Ans. (c)
(b) 2 1 4 3
once in their lifetime, usually after Sexual reproduction leads to new
(c) 1 2 4 3
50–100 years. They produce large genetic combination leading to variation
(d) 3 1 4 2 in new products.
number of fruits and die. Mango,
Jackfruit and Papaya are polycarpic Ans. (d) Longer viability of seeds, prolonged
plants, i.e. they flower repeatedly at (a) Pistils fused together — Syncarpous dormancy and large biomass are not
regular intervals every year. (b) Formation of gametes — Gametogenesis related to sexual reproduction.
(c) Hyphae of higher ascomycetes —
19 Which one of the following Dikaryotic 23 Why is vivipary an undesirable
generates new genetic (d) Unisexual female flower—Pistillate character for annual crop plants?
combinations leading to variation? [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
Concept Enhancer Always remember,
[NEET 2016, Phase II] in Biology the latin word ‘ Syn’’ signifies (a) It reduces the vigour of the plant
(a) Vegetative reproduction togetherness or fusion. (b) It adversely affects the fertility of the
plant
(b) Parthenogenesis
21 Select the wrong statement. (c) The seeds exhibit long dormancy
(c) Sexual reproduction
[NEET 2013] (d) The seeds cannot be stored under
(d) Nuclear polyembryony normal conditions for the next
(a) Isogametes are similar in structure,
Ans. (c) function and behaviour season
The sexual reproduction brings about (b) Anisogametes differ either in Ans. (d)
variation through genetic structure, function and behaviour Vivipary is the condition when seeds
recombinations. First of all genetic (c) In oomycetes female gamete is germinate on the plant. It is an
recombination occurs in smaller and motile, while male undesirable character for annual crop
non–homologous chromosomes during gamete is larger and non-motile plants because germinated seeds
crossing over of pachytene stage in (d) Chlamydomonas exhibits both cannot be stored under normal
meiotic cell division. isogamy and anisogamy and Fucus conditions for the next season.
Secondly, the random union of gametes shows oogamy
also contributes in forming new Ans. (c) 24 In oogamy, fertilisation involves
combinations of characters. Other [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Oomycetes include water moulds,
options (a), (b) and (d) do not contribute in white rusts and downy mildews. In (a) a small non-motile female gamete
the formation of progenies with new these, female gamete is larger and and a large motile male gamete
variations. non-motile, whereas, male gamete is (b) a large non-motile female gamete
Vegetative reproduction occurs smaller and motile. Isogametes are and a small motile male gamete
through vegetative parts of organisms found in algae like Ulothrix, (c) a large non-motile female gamete
(plants). Parthenogenesis is formation of Chlamydomonas, Spirogyra, etc., and a small non-motile male gamete
new individual without fertilisation (e.g. which are similar in structure, (d) a large motile female gamete and a
frog). function and behaviour. small non-motile gamete
Reproduction in Organisms 211
Ans. (b) Ageing is progressive deterioration in Ans. (a)

In oogamous type of sexual activity of cell, tissues, organs, etc. Syngamy refers to the fusion of male and
reproduction, the female gamete female gametes or compatible gametes.
(ovum/egg) is big, Passive while male 26 A perennial plant differs from It is also known as fertilisation.
gametes (spermatozoids) are smaller, biennial in [CBSE AIPMT 1995] In seed plants, fertilisation/syngamy
active and motile. (a) having underground perennating occurs with the help of pollen tube and is
structure known as siphonogamy.
25 The process of series of changes (b) having asexual reproductive structures
from larva to adult after embryonic (c) being tree species 28 New banana plants develop from
development is called (d) not dying after seasonal production [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] of flowers (a) rhizome
(a) regeneration Ans. (d) (b) sucker
(b) metamorphosis Perennial plants have life span of more (c) stolon
(c) growth than two years, these may be herbs, (d) seed
(d) ageing shrubs or trees. Biennials are those plants Ans. (b)
Ans. (b) which complete their life cycle in two
New banana plants develop through
years. These plants are usually herbs.
Metamorphosis (meta=change, sucker, Sucker is the sub-aerial
morphe=form) is a process by which an modification of stem which originates
animal under goes a comparatively rapid 27 Syngamy means [CBSE AIPMT 1991] from the basal and underground portion
change from larval to adult form. (a) fusion of gametes of main stem. It grows obliquely upwards
Regeneration is regrowth of the part of (b) fusion of cytoplasms giving rise to leafy shoot or a new plant.
body which has been removed due to the It also occurs in mint, Chrysanthemum, etc.
(c) fusion of two similar spores
injury or other causes. Growth is an
(d) fusion of two dissimilar spores
increase in dry mass of an organism.
24
Sexual Reproduction
in Flowering Plants
TOPIC 1 02 Diadelphous stamens are found in The megaspore will undergo three
successive mitotic divisions to form
Pre-fertilisation [NEET 2021]
eight nucleated embryo sac. Two nuclei
Structures and Events (a) China rose
generated in the first mitotic division in
(b) Citrus the megaspore will move to opposite
(c) Pea poles. These nuclei divided and redivide
01 The term used for transfer of (d) China rose and Citrus at their ends to form eight nucleated
pollen grains from anthers of one stage. Thus, each end have four nuclei,
Ans. (c)
plant to stigma of a different plant out of which at micropylar end towards,
Diadelphous condition is a condition of
which, during pollination, brings three nuclei differentiate into two
arrangement of filaments and stamen in synergids and one egg cell, while at the
genetically different types of pollen a flower, e.g. Pea. In this condition, chalazal end, three nuclei differentiate
grains to stigma is [NEET 2021] filaments of nine different stamens are as antipodal cells.
(a) xenogamy connected into one unit and the tenth
posterior stamen remains out of the The remaining two cells, one at
(b) geitonogamy micropylar end and other at chalazal end
(c) chasmogamy bundle as a stand part.
The androecium of pea flower is migrate the center and fuse.
(d) cleistogamy diadelphous because the filaments of Hence, a typical angiosperm embryo sac
Ans. (a) the anther are united in two bundles. In at maturity is 7 celled and 8 nucleated
Xenogamy is a cross pollination in which the case of pea, out of ten, nine stamens structure.
pollen grains are transferred from anther form a staminal tube while one is free.
of one flower to the stigma of another Thus, the correct answer is 'Pea' which 04 In some members of which of the
flower in order to get fertilised. This is exhibit diadelphous condition. following pairs of families, pollen
the only type of cross pollination which China rose of Malvaceae family possess grains retain their viability for
during pollination brings genetically numerous stamens. The filaments of months after release? [NEET 2021]
different types of pollen grains to the stamens are united in one group thus
stigma, e.g. Sunflower. forming a staminal tube around the style. (a) Poaceae; Rosaceae
Other options can be explained as: Such stamens are called monadelphous. (b) Poaceae: Leguminosae
Geitonogamy is a type of self-pollination The polyadelphous stamen is seen in (c) Poaceae: Solanaceae
in which pollens are transferred from the Citrus, these have many small bunches (d) Rosaceae : Leguminosae
anther of one flower to the stigma of of the fused stamen. Ans. (d)
another flower of the same plant, e.g.
In some members of Rosaceae,
Corn. 03 A typical angiosperm embryo sac at Leguminosae and Solanaceae pollen
Chasmogamy is the condition in which maturity is [NEET 2021] grains maintain viability for a month due
bisexual flowers have exposed anthers (a) 8-nucleate and 7-celled to sporopollenin.
and stigma. Both self-pollination and
(b) 7-nucleate and 8-celled The outer wall or exine of pollen grains
cross pollination can occur in these
(c) 7-nucleate and 7-celled contains sporopollenin. It is one of the
flowers, e.g. Catharanthus.
(d) 8-nucleate and 8-celled most resistant organic compounds
Cleistogamy occurs in flowers that do known. It protects pollen grains from
not open, their anther and stigma lie Ans. (a) external factors such as temperature,
close to each other thus, production of In dicotyledons, at the time of acid, alkali, etc. because of
seeds is a result of autogamy, e.g. fertilisation, the female gametophyte sporopollenin, pollen grains are
Arachis hypogaea. develops from a single megaspore. preserved as fossils.
Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 213
05 Which of the following is incorrect gametophyte which consists of an egg 11 Which of the following has proved
for wind pollinated plants? cell (n). This egg cell or female gamete is helpful in preserving pollen as
the part of next generation which form
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] fossils? [NEET 2018]
zygote after syngamy. Likewise an
(a) Well exposed stamens and stigma (a) Oil content
anther (2n) is a male reproductive
(b) Many ovules in each ovary structure of a plant. As the anther (b) Cellulosic intine
(c) Flowers are small and not brightly mature and dehyrate, it form pollen (c) Pollenkitt
coloured grains via microsporogenesis. These (d) Sporopollenin
(d) Pollen grains are light and non-sticky pollen grains represents the male
Ans. (d)
Ans. (b) gametophyte comprising of male
Sporopollenin has proved helpful in
Option (b) is incorrect because wind gametes (n). So in this way there occurs
preserving pollen as fossils. The
pollinated plants have single ovule in two generations one with the other.
covering of pollen grain, sporoderm is
each ovary. In case of wind pollination or
consist of two layers, viz., exine and
anemophily, many pollens are produced 08 What type of pollination takes
intine. Exine is made of a highly
because anemophily is highly wasteful place in Vallisneria? resistant fatty substance called
and non-directional process. [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
sporpollenin.
These pollens are also light-weighed, (a) Pollination occurs in submerged It could not be degraded by any enzyme.
small, dusty and dry. To catch the condition by water It is not affected by high temperature,
wind-borne pollens, stigma is exposed
(b) Flowers emerge above surface of strong acid or strong alkali. Thus, it keeps
and hairy. Flowers are small and
water and pollination occurs by the pollen grains well-preserved as fossils.
inconspicuous, colourless and
nectarless. insects Pollenkitt is a yellowish, viscous, sticky
(c) Flowers emerge above water surface and oily layer that covers exine of some
06 In water hyacinth and water lily, and pollen is carried by wind insect pollinated pollen grains. Intine of
pollination takes place by (d) Male flowers are carried by water pollen grains is made up of pectin and
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] currents to female flowers at the cellulose.
surface of water Vacuole
(a) water currents only Tube cell
(b) wind and water Ans. (d) Exine
(c) insects and water Vallisneria is a water pollinated plant. In Tube
Intine
(d) insects or wind Vallisneria, the female flowers reach the Nucleus
surface of water by the long stalk and
Ans. (d) the male flowers or pollen grains are Germ pore Generative
In water hyacinth and water lily, the released on to the surface of water. They cell
flowers emerge above the level of water are carried passively by water currents
and are thus pollinated by insects or wind. to female flowers at surface of water. A mature pollen grain of an angiosperm
Water lily and water hyacinth are in the
water but their stem part which is above 09 In which of the following, both
the thalamus is not in water. The pollen 12 Winged pollen grains are present in
autogamy and geitonogamy are [NEET 2018]
grains are in the upper part of thalamus
so pollination cannot be done by water. prevented? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
(a) mango (b) Cycas
That is why it done by insects or wind. (a) Wheat (b) Papaya (c) mustard (d) Pinus
(c) Castor (d) Maize
Ans. (d)
07 The plant part which consists of Ans. (b)
Winged pollen grains are present in
two generations, one within the Autogamy and geitonogamy both are Pinus. These wings are spirally arranged
other [NEET (Sep.) 2020] prevented in papaya plant. In papaya, microsporophylls that arise from the
I. Pollen grains inside the anther. male and female flowers are present on lateral side and help in pollination.
different plants that is each plant is The sperms (pollen grains) of Cycas are
II. Germinated pollen grain with two
either male or female (dioecy). top-shaped. The pollen grains of mango
male gametes.
are spheroidal, while that of mustard
III. Seed inside the fruit. 10 Pollen grains can be stored for are prolate to subspheroidal.
IV. Embryo sac inside the ovule. several years in liquid nitrogen Microspore Prothallial cells
(a) I, II and III (b) III and IV having temperature of [NEET 2018] Central cell
(c) I and IV (d) Only I (a) −196 °C (b) −80°C
Ans. (c) (c) −120°C (d) −160°C
The plant part which consists of two Ans. (a)
generations one within the other are
Pollen grains can be stored for several Wings
pollen grains inside the anther and Tetrad of
years in liquid nitrogen having a Single microspore
embryo sac inside the ovule. microspores
temperature of −196° C. Pollen grains can with air filled wings
This can be explained as : be later used in plant breeding
In an ovule or megasporangia (2n) there Pinus : Pollen grain
programmes.
occurs an embryo sac or female
Concept Enhancer In Pinus, the Ans. (d) Parietal cell

pollination is anemophilus. Pollen Tapetum is the inner layer of Megaspore
remains suspended in the air for a long mother cell
microsporangium (anther) which
time due to wings. It appears as yellow provides nourishment to developing
dust. This is popularly called as pollen grain after meiotic cell division. Linear tetrad
phenomenon of ‘sulphur shower’. of megaspores
17 Proximal end of the filament of Degenerating
13 Attractants and rewards are megaspores
stamen is attached to the Functional
required for [NEET 2017] [NEET 2016, Phase I] megaspore
(a) anemophily (b) entomophily (a) connective
(c) hydrophily (d) cleistogamy (i) One egg cell with 2 synergids
(b) placenta forming an egg apparatus.
Ans. (b) (c) thalamus or petal (ii) There are 3 antipodal cells.
Attractant and rewards are required (d) anther (iii) There are two central cells which
for entomophily (insect pollination). Ans. (c) are seen as secondary nucleus (2n).
Flowers produce specific odour and
A typical stamen consist of anther and Egg does not have filiform apparatus. It
nectar to attract the insect for is the synergids which have special
filament. The proximal end of filament
effective pollination. Entomophilous cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip
is attached to thalamus or petal of the
flowers are large with bright colours. which is called filiform apparatus. This
flower whereas distal end bears
anther. guides pollen tube into the synergids.
14 A dioecious flowering plant
prevents both [NEET 2017]
18 Which of the following statements 20 Pollination in water hyacinth and
(a) autogamy and xenogamy
is not correct? [NEET 2016, Phase I] water lily is brought about by the
(b) autogamy and geitonogamy
(a) Insects that consume pollen or nectar agency of [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(c) geitonogamy and xenogamy without bringing about pollination are
(d) cleistogamy and xenogamy (a) water
called pollen nectar robbers (b) insects or wind
Ans. (b) (b) Pollen germination and pollen tube
(c) birds
Dioecious flowering plants contain growth are regulated by chemical
components of pollen interacting (d) bats
unisexual flower. In dioecious condition
with those of the pistil Ans. (b)
two types of unisexual flowers occur on
(c) Some reptiles have also been Water hyacinth has single spike of 8-15
different plants.
reported as pollinators in some plant conspicuous attractive flowers which
Hence, it does not favour autogamy species
and geitonogamy because autogamy attract bees and other insects. These
(d) Pollen grains of many species can insects pollinate them. This plant is an
takes place in bisexual flowers and germinate on the stigma of a flower, aquatic weed.
geitonogamy takes place between but only one pollen tube of the same
different flower of the same plant. Water lily is also an aquatic plant with
species grows into the style
large conspicuous coloured flowers.
15 Functional megaspore in an Ans. (d) Most of the species are bee pollinated
angiosperm develops into Pollen grains of different species are except few species where wind
[NEET 2017] incompatible, so they fail to germinate. pollination occurs. Insect pollinated
Only the pollen of the same species flowers have coloured petals, big size
(a) ovule (b) endosperm
germinate and can form pollen tube and they offer fragrance and nectar to
(c) embryo sac (d) embryo attract insects which bring about
which grows and finally dispatches male
Ans. (c) gamete to embryo sac. pollination in them.
In angiosperms, functional megaspore
develops into an embryo sac. The 19 In majority of angiosperms 21 The ovule of an angiosperm is
functional megaspore is the first cell [NEET 2016, Phase II] technically equivalent to
of female gametophyte. (a) egg has a filiform apparatus [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(b) there are numerous antipodal cells (a) megasporangium
16 Which one of the following (b) megasporophyII
(c) reduction division occurs in the
statements is not true? megaspore mother cells (c) megaspore mother cell
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (d) megaspore
(d) a small central cell is present in the
(a) Exine of pollen grains is made up of embryo sac Ans. (a)
sporopollenin
Ans. (c) Ovule of an Angiosperm is equivalent to
(b) Pollen grains of many species cause megasporangium which consists of
In most of the angiosperms megaspore
severe allergies 2 synergids, 1 egg, 3 antipodal cells and a
mother cell (2n) divides meiotically to
(c) Stored pollen in liquid nitrogen can be produce 4 cells. Out of these secondary nucleus.
used in the crop breeding 3 degenerate and one remains which Megaspore mother cell (2n) gives rise
programmes forms functional megaspore. This to ovule. Megasporophylls are sterile
(d) Tapetum helps in the dehiscence of divides mitotically and forms embryo sac structures on which ovules may be
anther which contains following structures. present.
Synergids (n)
(d) fertilisation of a flower by the pollen 29 Which one of the following
Egg apparatus from a flower of another plant statement is correct? [NEET 2013]
Egg cell (n) belonging to a distant population
(a) Hard outer layer of pollen is called
Vacuole Ans. (a) intine
Geitonogamy is a type of self pollination. (b) Sporogenous tissue is haploid
Secondary
In other word geitonogamy is transfer of (c) Endothecium produces the
nucleus (2n)
pollen grain from the anther of one microspores
Antipodal
flower to the stigma of another flower of (d) Tapetum nourishes the developing
cells (n) either same or genetically similar plant. pollen
Structure of an ovule Ans. (d)
26 Pollen tablets are available in the
Tapetum is the innermost layer of
22 Male gametophyte in angiosperms market for [CBSE AIPMT 14]
microsporangium. It nourishes the
produces [CBSE AIPMT 2015] (a) in vitro fertilisation pollen grains. The inner wall of pollen
(a) two sperms and a vegetative cell (b) breeding programmes grain is called intine. Endothecium is the
(b) single sperm and a vegetative cell (c) supplementing food wall around the microsporangium, which
(d) ex situ conservation provide protection and help in
(c) single sperm and two vegetative cells
dehiscence of anther to release the
(d) three sperms Ans. (c) pollen. Sporogenous tissue is diploid. It
Ans. (a) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients. They undergoes meiotic division to form
are taken as tablets and syrups to microspore tetrads.
Pollen grain or male gametophyte in
improve health. Pollen consumption has
angiosperms contain one generative
been claimed to enhance the 30 Advantage of cleistogamy is
cell. The generative cell further divides
performance of athletes and race
mitotically to form two male gametes [NEET 2013]
horses.
(sperms). So, a mature male (a) higher genetic variability
gametophyte in angiosperms contains (b) more vigorous offspring
two sperms and one vegetative cell. 27 Function of filiform apparatus is to
[CBSE AIPMT 2014, 2008] (c) no dependence on pollinators
(a) recognise the suitable pollen at (d) vivipary
23 Filiform apparatus is characteristic
stigma Ans. (c)
feature of [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(b) stimulate division of generative cell In cleistogamous flowers, anthers and
(a) generative cell (b) nucellar embryo
(c) produce nectar stigma lie close to each other. When
(c) aleurone cell (d) synergids (d) guide the entry of pollen tube anthers dehisces in the flower buds,
Ans. (d) Ans. (d) pollen grains come in contact with the
Filiform apparatus are finger-like stigma to effect pollination. Thus, these
Filiform apparatus of synergids secrete
projections present at the micropylar flowers produce assured seed set even
some chemotropically active
end of synergids of embryo sac. in the absence of pollinators.
substances, which direct the pollen tube
towards micropyle of ovule. The higher genetic variability and more
24 In angiosperms, microsporogenesis vigorous offsprings are produced due to
and megasporogenesis 28 Megasporangium is equivalent to variations obtained by sexual
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] [NEET 2013] reproduction. Vivipary relates to the
(a) occur in anther (a) embryo sac birth of young babies from mammals.
(b) form gametes without further divisions (b) fruit
(c) involve meiosis (c) nucellus
31 Both, autogamy and geitonogamy
(d) occur in ovule (d) ovule are prevented in [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
Ans. (c) (a) papaya
Ans. (d) (b) cucumber
Both event microsporogenesis and Megasporangium is equivalent to an
megasporogenesis involve the process (c) castor
ovule. An ovule generally has a single
of meiosis which results in the formation (d) maize
embryo sac formed from a megaspore
of haploid gametes from the microspore through reduction division. It is a small Ans. (a)
or megaspore mother cells. structure attached to the placenta by Autogamy involves pollination within the
means of a stalk called funicle. same flower, while geitonogamy involves
25 Geitonogamy involves Each has one or two protective transfer of pollen grains from the anther
[CBSE AIPMT 2014, 10, 94] envelopes called integuments. Nucellus of one flower to the stigma of another
(a) fertilisation of a flower by the pollen is a mass of cells enclosed with in the flower of the same plant.
from, another flower of the same plant integuments. ovule forms Megaspore Both the processes are prevented in
(b) fertilisation of a flower by the pollen Mother Cell (MMC) by meiosis which
papaya because it is a dioecious plant
from the same flower further forms megaspore.
(i.e. male and female sex organs are born
(c) fertilisation of a flower by the pollen Megaspore nucleus forms embryo sac. on separate plants) and it always needs
from a flower of another plant in the Fruits develop from the ovary of flower, cross-pollination.
same population other floral parts degenerate and fall off.
32 An organic substance that can Ans. (b) Ans. (c)

withstand environmental extremes Wind pollination (anemophily) is quite Pollen exine is resistant to enzyme
and cannot be degraded by any common in grasses. Anemophilous acition. The pollen wall is consisted of
flowers are small and inconspicuous two layers, the outer exine and inner
enzyme is [CBSE AIPMT 2012, 1994] intine. The exine is chiefly made up of
with long and versatile stamens.
(a) cuticle sporopollenin, which is derived by the
Pollen grains are dry, powdery, light
(b) sporopollenin oxidative polymerisation of carotenoids.
and non-sticky, e.g. maize, wheat,
(c) lignin sugarcane, bamboo, Pinus and papaya. Sporopollenin is one of the most
(d) cellulose resistant biological materials known.
Exine is thin in beginning but become
Ans. (b) 36 In which one of the following very thick with maturity.
Sporopollenin is a fatty substance pollination is autogamous?
present in the exine of pollen grains. It is [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
40 Unisexuality of flowers prevents
resistant to microbial and chemical (a) Xenogamy (b) Chasmogamy [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
decomposition and can withstand the (c) Cleistogamy (d) Geitonogamy
extreme environmental conditions. Due (a) autogamy, but not geitonogamy
to the presence of sporopollenin, pollen Ans. (c) (b) both geitonogamy and xenogamy
grains are well preserved during Bisexual flowers which remains always (c) geitonogamy, but not xenogamy
fossilisation. closed are called cleistogamous and (d) autogamy and geitonogamy
such condition of flowers is called
33 Even in absence of pollinating cleistogamy. In such flowers, the Ans. (a)
agents seed-setting is assured in anthers and stigma lie close to each Unisexuality of flowers prevents
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] other. When anthers dehisces in the autogamy, but not geitonogamy.
flowers buds, pollen grains come in Autogamy also called self-pollination
(a) Commelina (b) Zostera
contact with stigma to affect pollination. involves the transfer of pollen grains of
(c) Salvia (d) fig one flower to the stigma of same flower.
Thus, cleistogamous flowers are
Ans. (a) invariably autogamous. Self-pollination occurs only in bisexual or
Commelina benghalensis bears aerial, hermaphrodite flowers.
chasmogamous (stigma and anthers 37 Wind pollinated flowers are Geitonogamy involves the transfer of
exposed to pollinating agents), insect [CBSE AIPMT 2010] pollen grains from a male flower to stigma
pollinated flowers and underground (a) small, brightly coloured, producing of female flower of same plant. Thus,
cleistogamous flowers. Cleistogamous large number of pollen grains geitonogamy operates only in monoecious
flowers are bisexual flowers which never plants, i.e. plants having male and female
(b) small, producing large number of dry
open, i.e. always remain closed. In such flowers on different places.
pollen grains
flowers the anthers and stigma lie very Allogamy or xenogamy also known as
(c) large, producing abundant nectar and
close to each other. When anthers dehisce cross-pollination involves the transfer of
pollen
in the flower buds, pollen grains come in pollen grains of male flower to the
(d) small, producing nectar and dry pollen
contact with the stigma of the same stigma of genetically different female
flower, i.e. autogamy occurs. So, these Ans. (b) flower. It takes place via various
flowers produce assured seed set, even in Pollination taking place by means of agencies like wind, water, insects, etc.
the absence of pollinators. wind is known as anemophily, e.g. Zea
mays, Cannabis, Pinus, etc. 41 Which one of the following pairs of
34 Filiform apparatus is a Anemophilous flowers are small and plant structures has haploid
characteristic feature of produces large number of pollen grains number of chromosomes?
which are dry, powdery light and non-sticky. [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(a) egg (b) synergid (a) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal
38 Which one of the following plants is cells
(c) zygote (d) suspensor
monoecious? [CBSE AIPMT 2009] (b) Egg cell and antipodal cells
Ans. (b) (a) Marchantia (b) Pinus (c) Nucellus and antipodal cells
The synergid cell wall forms a highly (c) Cycas (d) Papaya (d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus
thickened structure called the filiform
apparatus at the micropylar end, Ans. (b) Ans. (b)
consisting of numerous finger-like Pinus is monoecious as it bear male cone Egg cell and antipodal cells have haploid
projections into the synergid cytoplasm. as well as female cone on same tree, (but number of chromosomes. In
It is believed to play a major role in pollen on separate branches). angiosperms a single diploid megaspore
tube guidance and reception. Marchantia, Cycas and papaya are mother cell matures within an ovule.
dioecious plants. Through meiosis it gives rise to four
35 Wind pollination is common in megaspores (haploid). In most plants
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] 39 Which one of the following is only one of these megaspore survive.
(a) lilies resistant to enzyme action? This functional megaspore divides three
(b) grasses [CBSE AIPMT 2008] times by mitosis and produces eight
haploid nuclei enclosed within a 7-celled
(c) orchids (a) Cork (b) Wood fibre
embryo sac.
(d) legumes (c) Pollen exine (d) Leaf cuticle
One nucleus is located near the opening 45 What would be the number of 48 An ovule which becomes curved so
of embryo sac in egg cell. chromosomes in the cells of the that the nucellus and embryo sac
Two nuclei are located in a single cell in aleuron layer in a plant species with lie at right angles to the funicle is
the middle of embryo sac and are called 8 chromosomes in its synergids? [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
polar nuclei, two nuclei are contained in [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
cells called synergids that flank the egg (a) hemitropous
(a) 24 (b) 32
cell and other three nuclei are resided in (b) campylotropous
(c) 8 (d) 16
the cells called antipodals, located at the (c) anatropous
end of embryo sac opposite the egg cell. Ans. (a) (d) orthotropous
Synergids are two, short-lived, haploid
cells lying close to the egg in mature Ans. (a)
42 Male gametes in angiosperms are
embryo sac of flowering plant ovule. In hemitropous type, the ovule becomes
formed by the division of curved and nucellus and embryo sac lie
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
While the endosperm is a triploid tissue
formed after triple fusion. at right angles to the funicle, e.g.
(a) microspore Ranunculaceae and Primulaceae.
Thus, if the synergids have 8
(b) generative cell Nucellus Embryo sac
chromosomes, the aleurone layer (part
(c) vegetative cell of endosperm) will have just triple of that
(d) microspore mother cell of chromosomes in the synergids, i.e. 24 Micropyle
chromosomes. Chalaza
Ans. (b)
Male gametes in angiosperms are
formed by the division of generative cell. 46 Which one of the following
Funicle
Before pollination the pollen grain represents an ovule, where the
cytoplasm divides in generative cell and embryo sac becomes horse
vegetative cell. The generative cell shoe-shaped and the funiculus and
divides to form two male gametes.
49 In a flowering plant, archesporium
micropyle are close to each other? gives rise to [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] (a) only tapetum and sporogenous cells
43 Which one of the following is
(a) Amphitropous (b) only the wall of the sporangium
surrounded by a callose wall?
(b) Circinotropous (c) both wall and the sporogenous cells
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(c) Atropous (d) wall and the tapetum
(a) Microspore mother cell
(d) Anatropous
(b) Male gamete Ans. (c)
(c) Egg Ans. (a) The archesporial cells divide periclinally,
(d) Pollen grain In an amphitropous ovule, the embryo cutting off primary parietal layer
sac becomes horse-shoe shaped and (forming wall later on) towards the outer
Ans. (a) the funiculus and micropyle are close to side and primary sporogenous cells
The wall of the pollen mother cell each other. This type of ovule is found in towards the inner side. The cells of the
(microspore mother cell) is deposited by Alismaceae, Butomaceae families. primary parietal layes divide by
callose (β-1, 3-glucan). Callose plays a successive periclinal and anticlinal
significant role in reproductive biology of Embryo
sac division to form concentric layers of
angiosperms. It acts as a temporary wall Nucellus pollen sac wall.
to prevent the product of meiosis from
cohesion and fusion and its dissolution
results in the release of free spores. Chalaza 50 Which type of association is found
in between entomophilous flower
Integuments Raphe
44 The arrangement of the nuclei in a Funicle and pollinating agent?
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
normal embryo sac in the dicot Amphitropous ovule
plants is [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism
(c) Cooperation (d) Co-evolution
(a) 3 +2 + 3
(b) 2 + 3 + 3 47 Anthesis is a phenomenon which Ans. (a)
(c) 3 + 3 + 2 refers to [CBSE AIPMT 2004] A plant and its pollinator have a
(d) 2 + 4 + 2 (a) reception of pollen by stigma mutualistic relationship. The plant uses
(b) formation of pollen its pollinator to ensure cross-pollination
Ans. (a) while pollinator uses the plant as food.
(c) development of anther
In angiosperms (dicots), the Polygonum
type of embryo sac is most common. In
(d) opening of flower bud
51 In angiosperms all the four
this embryo sac, the arrangement of the Ans. (d) microspores of tetrad are covered
nuclei is3 + 2 + 3, i.e. 3 in antipodal cells, Anthesis is the opening of floral buds.
2 as polar nuclei (which later fuse and by a layer which is formed by
Reception of pollen by stigma is called
form a diploid secondary nucleus) and 3 [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
pollination. Formation of pollen is called
in egg apparatus (2 in synergids and 1 in microsporogenesis. (a) pectocellulose (b) callose
egg cell). (c) cellulose (d) sporopollenin
Ans. (b) (b) red sweet scented flower with Ans. (a)
The deposition of callose starts in pollen nectaries Orthotropous or atropous is the erect
mother cell as it enters meiosis and is (c) bright red flower into thick ovule in which the body of ovule lies
complete by the end of first meiotic inflorescence straight and upright over the funicle.
division. By the time tetrad are formed, (d) white flowers with fragrance Hilum, chalaza and micropyle occur on
the common callose wall dissolves, even Ans. (b) one straight line, e.g.
then all the four microspores lie within a family–Polygonaceae and Piperaceae.
Ornithophily is an allogamy performed by
common callose wall. birds, such as long beaked small birds
(sun birds, humming birds), crow, parrot, 60 Number of meiotic divisions
52 What is the direction of micropyle bulbul, etc. Ornithophilous flowers are required to produce 200/400 seeds
in anatropous ovule? large and showy cup-shaped with of pea would be [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] abundant nectar or edible part, e.g. (a) 200/400 (b) 400/800
Bombax, Agave, etc. (c) 300/600 (d) 250/500
(a) Upward (b) Downward
(c) Right (d) Left Ans. (d)
56 How many pollen grains will be
Ans. (b) formed after meiotic division in 10 200 seeds of pea would be produced
Body of the anaptropus ovule gets from 200 pollen grains and 200 embryo
microspore mother cells? sacs. 200 pollen grains will be formed by
inverted and micropyle is on lower side [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(downward). Further micropyle and 50 microspore mother cells, while 200
(a) 10 (b) 20 embryo sacs will be formed by 200
funiculus lie side by side and micropyle is
(c) 40 (d) 80 megaspore mother cells. Similarly 400
close to hilum.
Ans. (c) seeds of pea would be produced from
400 pollen grains and 400 embryo sacs.
53 Anemophily type of pollination is One microspore mother cell form four
400 pollen grains will be formed by 100
found in [CBSE AIPMT 2001] pollen grains after meiotic division, so,
Microspore Mother Cell (MMC) and 400
10 microspore mother cells will form 40
(a) Salvia (b) bottle brush embryo sacs fromed by 400 Megaspore
pollen grains through dividing
(c) Vallisneria (d) coconut Mother Cell (MMC). Thus, number of
meiotically.
meiotic divisions required to produce
Ans. (d) 200/400 seeds would be 250/500.
Pollination through air is known as 57 In an angiosperm, how many
anemophily e.g. coconut. microspore mother cells are 61 Meiosis is best observed in dividing
In Salvia, the pollination is taken place by required to produce 100 pollen [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
insects (entomophily). grains? [CBSE AIPMT 1995] (a) cells of apical meristem
In Vallisneria, the pollination occurs (a) 25 (b) 50 (b) cells of lateral meristem
through water (hydrophily). (c) 75 (d) 100 (c) microspores and anther wall
In bottle brush (Callistemon) the (d) microsporocytes
Ans. (a)
pollination occurs through birds
(ornithophily). In angiosperms, each Microspore Ans. (d)
Mother Cell (MMC) undergoes meiosis to Microsporocytes or microspore mother
54 Eight nucleate embryo sacs are produce four microspores which develop cells are diploid cells formed from
into pollen grains. Thus, to produce 100 sporogenous cells in the anther. The
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
pollen grains, 25 micropore mother cells pollen/microspore mother cells undergo
(a) always tetrasporic are required. meiosis and form tetrads of microspores
(b) always monosporic or pollen grains. The wall of pollen
(c) always bisporic 58 Chief pollinators of agricultural mother cell degenerates and pollen or
(d) sometimes monosporic, sometimes crops are [CBSE AIPMT 1994] microspores separate.
bisporic and sometimes tetrasporic (a) butterflies (b) bees
Ans. (d) (c) moths (d) beetles 62 Point out the odd one
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
Megaspore is a haploid structure which Ans. (b)
divides and gives rise to embryo sac (a) nucellus (b) embryo sac
Bees are considered the most common
which is also called as female (c) micropyle (d) pollen grain
pollinators which pollinate about 80% of
gametophyte. the total insect pollinated flowers. Ans. (d)
Eight-nucleate embryo sacs may be Nucellus is the parenchymatous
monosporic (e.g. Polygonum) or bisporic 59 Ovule is straight with funiculus, nutritive tissue of ovule, micropyle is the
(e.g. Allium) or tetrasporic (e.g. Adoxa). embryo sac, chalaza and micropyle pore present in the integuments at one
end of ovule and embryo sac represents
lying on one straight line. It is
55 Flowers showing ornithophily show the female gametophyte. Thus, nucellus,
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
few characteristic like micropyle and embryo sac are part of
(a) orthotropous ovule, whereas, pollen grain/microspore
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(b) anatropous represents the immature male
(a) blue flower with nectaries at base of gametophyte.
(c) campylotropous
corolla
(d) amphitropous
63 Pollination occurs in Ans. (c) Concept Enhancer Syngamy results in

[CBSE AIPMT 1991] Microspore or pollen grain is an the formation of diploid (2n) zygote.
immature male gametophyte and thus, Triple fusion involves three nuclei, i.e.
(a) bryophytes and angiosperms
represents the first cell of gametophytic one of male gamete and two polar nuclei.
(b) pteridophytes and angiosperms
generation in angiosperms. Microspores It gives rise to a triploid (3n) endosperm.
(c) angiosperms and gymnosperms
(d) angiosperms and fungi are generally rounded, small,
uninucleate haploid cells produced as a Pollen grains
Ans. (c) result of meiosis in microspore mother Stigma
Pollination is the transfer of pollen Pollen tubes

cell inside the microsporangia. The
grains from anther to stigma of same or process of formation of microspore
different flower. It is a characteristic inside the pollen sacs of anthers is
features of higher plants, Conducting
known as microsporogenesis. tissue
i.e. angiosperm and but also found in
few gymnosperms. 67 Male gametophyte of angiosperms Ovary
Ovule
is shed as [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
64 Embryo sac occurs in
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(a) four-celled pollen grain Antipodals
(b) three-celled pollen grain Pollen tube
(a) embryo
(b) axis part of embryo (c) microspore mother cell Secondary
nucleus (Polar nuclei)
(c) ovule
(d) anther Male
gametes Pollen tube tip
(d) endosperm Ans. (b) Obturator
Ans. (c) In angiosperms, pollen grains are

generally shed from the anther at
Embryo sac occurs in ovule. Megaspore Fertilisation in an angiosperm
2-celled stage, i.e. one generative cell
mother cell is developed inside the through porogamy
and one vegetative cell. But, in some
nucellus of the ovule and by a meiotic
angiosperms, the generative cell divides
division it forms four megaspores, out of
which three degenerate. The functional prior to the dehiscence of anther and 69 Double fertilisation is exhibited by
megaspore divides mitotically to form shed at 3-celled stage, i.e. one [NEET 2017]
embryo sac. vegetative cell and two male gametes. (a) gymnosperms (b) algae
Double fertilisation was discovered by
(c) fungi (d) angiosperms
65 Female gametophyte of Nawaschin (1898) in Fritillaria and Lilium.
It was confirmed by Guignard (1899). Ans. (d)
angiosperms is represented by
Double fertilisation is the characteristic
[CBSE AIPMT 1990]
feature of angiosperms. In this type of
(a) ovule TOPIC 2 fertilisation one male gamete fuses with
(b) megaspore mother cell an egg and forms zygote. The second
(c) embryo sac Double Fertilisation male gamete fuses with diploid secondary
(d) nucellus nucleus of central cell to form a triploid
68 Double fertilisation is [NEET 2018] primary endosperm nucleus.
Ans. (c)
(a) fusion of two male gametes with one
In angiosperms, female gametophyte is egg
represented by embryo sac. Embryo sac
70 Through which cell of the embryo
(b) fusion of one male gamete with two sac, does the pollen tube enter the
is produced by the functional megaspore polar nuclei
formed through meiosis of megaspore embryo sac [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(c) fusion of two male gametes of pollen
mother cell in ovule. (a) egg cell
tube with two different eggs
The common type of embryo sac is (d) syngamy and triple fusion (b) persistant synergid
monosporic Polygonum type, it is (c) degenerated synergid
7-celled and 8-nucleate structure Ans. (d)
(d) central cell
covered by a thin membrane formed of Double fertilisation is the fusion of two
megaspore wall. male gametes to two different cells of Ans. (c)
the same female gametophyte. It Egg apparatus is present towards the
66 Male gametophyte of consists of following two events micropylar end of an ovule. Egg
angiosperms/monocots is (i) Syngamy Fusion of the egg apparatus has two lateral synergid cells
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] nucleus with one male gamete is and one centrally located egg cell.
called syngamy. During entry of pollen tube within the
(a) microsporangium
(ii) Triple fusion It is the fusion of ovule synergid cells become disintegrate
(b) nucellus
second male gamete and central and provide path for entry of pollen
(c) microspore
cell. tube within the chamber of embryo sac.
(d) stamen
71 In angiosperms pollen tubes It was confirmed by Guignard (1899). 78 Total number of meiotic divisions
Syngamy (one male gamete fuse with
liberate their male gametes into required for forming 100
egg cell to form zygote) and triple fusion
the [CBSE AIPMT 2002] (second male gamete fuses nucleus to zygotes/100 grains of wheat are
(a) central cell (b) antipodal cell with two polar nuclei or secondary [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
(c) egg cell (d) synergid nucleus to form triploid primary (a) 100 (b) 75
endosperm nucleus occurs (c) 125 (d) 50
Ans. (d) simultaneously in angiosperms and this
The contents of the pollen tube are is called double fertilisation. Ans. (c)
discharged in the synergid from where Total number of meiotic divisions
the first male gamete is transferred to 75 Double fertilisation is fusion of required for forming 100 zygote/100
the egg cell, while the other male grains of wheat are 125. Zygote is the
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
gamete moves to the central cell fusion product of pollen grains and egg.
(a) two eggs
through cytoplasmic current. 100 zygotes require 100 pollen grains and
(b) two eggs and polar nuclei with pollen 100 embryo sacs. 100 pollen grains are
nuclei produced from 25 microspore mother
72 Double fertilisation leading to
(c) one male gamete with egg and other cells while 100 embryo sacs are formed
initiation of endosperm in with synergid from 100 functional megaspores which
angiosperms require (d) one male gamete with egg and other as a result being produced by 100
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] with secondary nucleus megaspore mother cells, since three,
(a) fusion of one polar nucleus and the Ans. (d) out of four megaspores degenerate in
second male gamete only each case.
Double fertilisation deals with the fusion
(b) fusion of two polar nuclei and the
of one male gamete with egg to form
second male gamete
zygote and the other male gamete with
(c) fusion of four or more polar nuclei secondary nucleus to form Primary
TOPIC 3
and the second male gamete only
(d) all of the above kinds of fusion in
Endosperm Nucleus (PEN). Post-fertilisation:
different angiosperms 76 Entry of pollen tube through Structures and Events
Ans. (b) micropyle is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
In angiosperms the endosperm is a (a) chalazogamy (b) mesogamy 79 In some plants thalamus
special tissue which is formed as a result (c) porogamy (d) pseudogamy contributes to fruit formation. Such
of triple fusion. In triple fusion the fruits are termed as
Ans. (c)
second male gamete fuses with [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
secondary nucleus (diploid nucleus Porogamy refers to the most common
(a) false fruits
formed by fusion of two polar nuclei) to method by which the pollen tube enters
the ovule through micropyle, e.g. lily. (b) aggregate fruits
form triploid primary endosperm
When pollen tube enters through (c) true fruits
nucleus.
chalaza, it is known as chalazogamy and (d) parthenocarpic fruit
73 Fertilisation involving carrying of when it enters laterally through
integuments, then such process is Ans. (a)
male gametes by pollen tube is known as mesogamy. A fruit in which floral parts other than
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] ovary, like thalamus, base of sepals,
(a) porogamy (b) siphonogamy 77 Generative cell was destroyed by petals, etc., fuse with pericarp and
(c) chalazogamy (d) syngonogamy laser but a normal pollen tube was contribute in fruit formation is called
false fruit or pseudocarp. Apple,
Ans. (b) still formed because mulberry and strawberry are false fruits.
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
In angiosperms, the male gametes are
carried by the pollen tube and such type (a) vegetative cell is not damaged 80 Which one of the following
of fertilisation or fusion of male and (b) contents of killed generative cell statements regarding
female gametes or syngamy is called stimulate pollen growth
siphonogamy. It was discovered by
post-fertilisation development in
(c) laser beam stimulates growth of
Strasburger (1884). pollen tube flowering plants is incorrect?
(d) the region of emergence of pollen
74 Double fertilisation and triple tube is not harmed (a) Zygote develops into embryo
fusion were discovered by (b) Central cell develops into endosperm
Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 1993, 88] (c) Ovules develop into embryo sac
Pollen grain or microspore divides
(a) Hofmeister mitotically forming a larger tube or (d) Ovary develops into fruit
(b) Nawaschin and Guignard vegetative cell and a small generative Ans. (c)
(c) Leeuwenhoek cell. Since, vegetative cell gives rise to
pollen tube and generative cell divides to The statement that “ovules develop into
(d) Strasburger embryo sac’’ is incorrect. Correct
form two male gametes, thus if a
Ans. (b) generative cell is destroyed by laser, a information about the statement is as
normal pollen tube will still form through follows. During post-fertilisation event,
Double fertilisation was discovered by
the vegetative cell which is undestroyed. ovule develops into seed.
Nawaschin (1898) in Fritilaria and Lilium.
On the other hand, embryo sac is a Ans. (b) 88 Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise
multicellular structure which is derived The grain of wheat, maize or rice is a from [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
from the megaspore. Rest statements caryopsis. The embryo in such grains lies
regarding post-fertilisation development (a) synergids
laterally near the base of the grain. The
in flowering plants are correct. (b) maternal sporophytic tissue in ovule
embryo consists of an upper large, shield
shaped cotyledon known as scutellum. (c) antipodal cells
81 Seed formation without The scutellum is closely pressed against (d) diploid egg
fertilisation in flowering plants the endosperm and helps in the Ans. (b)
involves the process of translocation of nutrients from Apomictic embryos in Citrus arise from
[NEET 2016, Phase I] endosperm to the growing embryo at the maternal sporophytic tissue (e.g.
time of germination and seedling nucellus or integuments) in ovule.
(a) budding
(b) somatic hybridisation growth. Apomixis is the formation of new
(c) apomixis individuals directly through asexual
(d) sporulation
85 Coconut water from a tender reproduction without involving the
coconut is [CBSE AIPMT 2015] formation and fusion of gametes.
Ans. (c)
(a) immature embryo
Apomixis is a special mechanism found
(b) free nuclear endosperm 89 Endosperm is consumed by
in flowering plants to produce seeds developing embryo in the seed of
without fertilisation. It is a type of (c) innermost layers of the seed coat
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
asexual reproduction which mimics the (d) degenerated nucellus
(a) coconut (b) castor
sexual reproduction and is commonly Ans. (b)
found in Citrus varieties. (c) pea (d) maize
The coconut water from tender coconut
that we are familiar with, is nothing but Ans. (c)
82 The coconut water from tender free nuclear endosperm (made up of Endosperm is consumed by developing
coconut represents thousands of nuclei) and the surrounding embryo is the seeds of pea (Pisum
[NEET 2016, Phase I] white kernel is the cellular endosperm. sativum). These seed are called
(a) fleshy mesocarp In the most common type of endosperm non-endospermic seeds. Other
(b) free-nuclear proembryo development, the Primary Endosperm examples are gram, beans, orchids, etc.
(c) free-nuclear endosperm Nucleus (PEN) undergoes successive
(d) endocarp nuclear divisions to give rise to free 90 The scutellum observed in a grain
nuclei. This stage of endosperm of wheat or maize is comparable to
Ans. (c)
development is called free-nuclear which part of the seed in other
Coconut milk represents free-nuclear endosperm.
endosperm where the division of primary monocotyledons?
endosperm nucleus is not followed by [CBSE AIPMT 2010, 06]
86 Non-albuminous seed is produced (a) Cotyledon
formation of cell walls (cytokinesis) thus
all nucleus remain free in liquid form. It is in [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(b) Endosperm
rich in plant hormone cytokinin. (a) maize (b) castor (c) Aleurone layer
(c) wheat (d) pea (d) Plumule
83 Cotyledon of maize grain is called Ans. (d)
[NEET 2016, Phase I] Ans. (a)
Non-albuminous or non-endospermic In wheat or maize (family–Poaceae), the
(a) coleorhiza (b) coleoptile
seeds are those in which cotyledons are scutellum is thought to be a modified
(c) scutellum (d) plumule
usually smaller and less developed like in cotyledon or seed leaf.
Ans. (c) pea. Such seeds are seen when most or
Large, shield shaped cotyledon of grass all of the endosperm is used up much
91 In angiosperms, triple fusion is
family is called scutellum. Coleorhiza is a before germination.
sheath protecting the root of required for the formation of
germinating grass. [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
87 Nucellar polyembryony is reported
Coleoptile is a sheath covering emerging (a) embryo (b) endosperm
in species of [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
shoot. Plumule is rudimentary shoot of (c) seed coat (d) fruit wall
(a) Gossypium (b) Triticum
an embryo plant. Ans. (b)
(c) Brassica (d) Citrus
In angiosperms, triple fusion is required
84 The wheat grain has an embryo Ans. (d) for the formation of endosperm. Triple
with one large, shield-shaped Nucellar polyembryony is reported in fusion refers to the vegetative
cotyledon known as species of Citrus. Occurrence of more fertilisation, i.e. the fusion of nucleus of
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] than one embryo in a seed is referred to a male gamete with the two polar nuclei
as polyembryony. In many Citrus and or the diploid secondary (fusion) nucleus.
(a) epiblast
mango varieties, some of the nucellar Triple fusion converts central cell into
(b) coleorrhiza cells surrounding the embryo sac start triploid primary endosperm cell which
(c) scutellum dividing, protrude into the embryo sac forms the endosperm, a nutritive tissue.
(d) coleoptile and develop into the embryos.
92 Study of formation, growth and It is of two type-haploid and diploid. In Ans. (a)
former, embryo develops from haploid
development of new individual Nucellus embryony occurs in
egg and in latter case, a diploid egg crassinucellate ovules (e.g. Citrus,
from an egg is [CBSE AIPMT 1993] develops into embryo. Opuntia). On the other hand
(a) apomixis Parthenocarpy is the development of integumentary embryony occurs in
(b) embryology seedless fruits from an unfertilised egg tenuinucellate ovules (e.g. Euonymus).
(c) embryogeny of the flower.
(d) cytology Syngamy is the fusion of male and 98 Formation of gametophyte directly
Ans. (b) female gamete during sexual from sporophyte without meiosis is
reproduction in plants.
Embryology (Gr. en – in; bryo – swell; (a) apospory [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
logos – study) is the study of formation Autogamy is a type of self-pollination in
which a flower is pollinated by its own (b) apogamy
growth and development of embryo. It (c) parthenogenesis
includes sporogenesis, fertilisation and pollen.
(d) amphimixis
embryogeny, i.e. the overall process
starting from formation of gametes, 95 Which one of the following fruits is Ans. (a)
fertilisation, zygote and embryo formation parthenocarpic? [CBSE AIPMT 2015] Apospory is the formation of
and development of new individual. (a) Brinjal (b) Apple gametophyte directly from sporophyte
(c) Jackfruit (d) Banana without forming spores and meiosis. The
93 Nucellus embryo is gametophytes formed through apospory
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (d) are usually diploid. Apospory leads to
(a) amphimictic haploid Parthenocarpy is a process of polyploidy and hence, new species in
developing fruits without involving bryophytes and pteridophytes.
(b) amphimictic diploid
fertilisation/seed formation. Therefore,
(c) apomictic haploid the seedless varieties of economically 99 Prothallus (gametophyte) gives rise
(d) apomictic diploid important fruits like orange, banana, to fern plant (sporophyte) without
Ans. (c) watermelon, lemon, etc. are produced
using this technique. This technique fertilisation. It is
Nucellus embryo is apomictic haploid. [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
involves inducing fruit formation by the
Nucellus is a parenchymatous, haploid (a) apospory (b) apogamy
application of plant growth hormones
nutritive tissue of the ovule of
such as auxins. (c) parthenocarpy (d) parthenogenesis
phanerogams. The phenomenon of
formation of embryo or new individual Ans. (b)
directly through asexual reproduction or 96 In a type of apomixis known as
Apogamy refers to the development of
adventitiously from a cell other than egg, adventive embryony, embryos sporophyte from gametophyte without
i.e. nucellus, integuments, etc., is known develop directly from the fertilisation.
as apomixis. Nucellus embryo is thus, [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
In fern plant, prothallus (gametophyte)
known as apomictic embryo. (a) nucellus or integuments gives rise to main plant body
(b) zygote (sporophyte) directly from somatic cell
TOPIC 4 (c) synergids or antipodals in an embryo without forming gametes. Sporophyte
Special Mechanism sac thus formed is haploid in nature.
of Reproduction (d) accessory embryo sac in the ovule
100 Development of an organism from
Ans. (a)
female gamete/egg without
94 In some plants, the female gamete Apomixis does not involve gamete
formation and fertilisation as found in involving fertilisation is
develops into embryo without [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
amphimixis. Adventive embryo
fertilisation. This phenomenon is formation is a type of apomixis in which (a) adventitive embryony
known as [NEET (National) 2019] embryos are formed from diploid (b) polyembryony
(a) parthenocarpy integumental or nuceller cells. (c) parthenocarpy
(b) syngamy (d) parthenogenesis
(c) parthenogenesis 97 Adventive embryony in Citrus is Ans. (d)
(d) autogamy due to [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
Parthenogenesis can be defined as
Ans. (c) (a) nucellus formation of embryo from an unfertilised
Parthenogenesis is the process by which (b) integuments egg or female gamete. Parthenogenetic
the female gamete develops into embryo (c) zygotic embryo plants are homozygous so, they have
without fertilisation. (d) fertilised egg more importance in plant breeding and
genetics.
25
Human Reproduction
TOPIC 1 (b) Seminiferous tubules→ Vasa 03 Which of the following depicts the
efferentia → Epididymis→ Inguinal
Human Reproductive canal → Urethra
correct pathway of transport of
System sperms? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(c) Testis → Epididymis→ Vasa
(a) Rete testis→ Efferent ductules→
efferentia → Vas deferens→ Epididymis→ Vas deferens
01 Match the following columns and Ejaculatory duct → Inguinal canal→
(b) Rete testis→ Epididymis→ Efferent
select the correct option. Urethra → Urethral meatus ductules → Vas deferens
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] (d) Testis → Epididymis→ Vasa (c) Rete testis→ Vas deferens→
efferentia → Rete testis→ Inguinal Efferent ductules→ Epididymis
Column I Column II canal → Urethra (d) Efferent ductules → Rete testis→
A. Placenta 1. Androgens Vas deferens→ Epididymis
Ans. (a)
B. Zona pellucida 2. Human Chorinoic The correct sequence of sperm
Gonadotropin (hCG)
Ans. (a)
transport in male reproductive system is The sperms are produced in the
C. Bulbourethral 3. Layer of the ovum seminiferous tubules → Rete testis → seminiferous tubules. The rete testis is
glands Vasa efferentia → Epididymis→ Vas connected to these tubules at one end
D. Leydig cells 4. Lubrication of the deferens → Ejaculatory duct → Urethra and transfers sperms to vasa efferentia
penis → Urethral meatus. The pathway of (small tubular structures between rete
sperm transport is shown in the diagram testis and epididymis).
A B C D below
The sperms reach to epididymis through
(a) 1 4 2 3 vasa efferentia where they are
(b) 3 2 4 1 temporarily stored for maturation and
(c) 2 3 4 1 then transferred to seminal vesicle
(d) 4 3 1 2 through vas deferens.
Ans. (c) Ejaculatory
Thus, the correct route is
The correct option is (c). It can be duct (6) Rete testis→ Efferent ductules→
explained as follows. Urethra (7) Vas Epididymis→ vas deferens.
Placenta secretes human chorionic deferens (5)
gonadotropin (hCG). Epididymis (4) 04 The shared terminal duct of the
Zona pellucida is a primary egg Urethral reproductive and urinary system in
membrane secreted by the secondary meatus (8)
the human male is
oocyte. The secretions of Bulbourethral [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
glands help in lubrication of the penis.
Vasa efferentia (3) (a) urethra (b) ureter
Leydig cells synthesise and secrete
testicular hormones called androgens. (c) vas deferens (d) vasa efferentia
Seminiferous Ans. (a)
02 Select the correct sequence for tubules In the human male, urethra provides an
(1) Rete testis (2)
transport of sperm cells in male exit for urine from the urinary bladder as
reproductive system. well as semen from vasa differentia
[NEET (National) 2019] during ejaculation. Thus, it is also known
as urogenital duct.
(a) Seminiferous tubules→ Rete testis
In males, it is about 8 inches (20 cm) long
→ Vasa efferentia → Epididymis→
Enlarged view of testis and opens at the end of the penis.
Vas deferens→ Ejaculatory duct →
Urethra → Urethral meatus
Vas deferens and vasa efferentia are the (a) C–Infundibulum, D–Fimbriae, E–Cervix 10 Vasa efferentia are the ductules
male sex accessory ducts. (b) D–Oviducal funnel, E–Uterus, F–Cervix leading from [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
Ureters are the tubes that carry urine (c) A–Perimetrium, B–Myometrium,
(a) testicular lobules to rete testis
from the kidney to urinary bladder. C–Fallopian tube
(b) rete testis to vas deferens
(d) B–Endometrium, C–Infundibulum,
05 The Leydig cells as found in the D–Fimbriae (c) vas deferens to epididymis
human body are the secretory (d) epididymis to urethra
Ans. (a)
source of [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
The Fallopian tube is about 10-12 cm long Ans. (b)
(a) progesterone (b) intestinal mucus and extends from the periphery of each Rete testis is connected to epididymis
(c) glucagon (d) androgens ovary to the uterus. The part closer to by 12-20 fine tubules called vasa efferentia
the ovary is funnel shaped and is called or ductuli efferens. These collect sperms
Ans. (d) from inside the testis and transfer them
infundibulum. The edges of the
Interstitial cells or cells of Leydig are infundibulum possess finger-like to the epididymis. Vasa deferens arises
present in the connective tissue lying in projections called fimbriae, which help from caudal epididymis, conducts
between seminiferous tubules. These in collection of the ovum after ovulation. sperms from epididymis to urethra.
cells secrete oestradiol-steroid The uterus opens into vagina through a
androgens, e.g. testosterone. narrow cervix. 11 Seminal plasma in human males is
Androgens stimulate male characters,
rich in [CBSE AIPMT 2010, 09]
influence male sexual behaviour (libido)
and regulate the development,
08 The testes in humans are situated (a) fructose and calcium
maturation and functions of male outside the abdominal cavity inside (b) glucose and calcium
accessory sex organs. a pouch called scrotum. The (c) DNA and testosterone
purpose served is for (d) ribose and potassium
06 If for some reason, the vasa [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
efferentia in the human Ans. (a)
(a) escaping any possible compression
reproductive system get blocked, Seminal plasma is composed of the fluid
by the visceral organs and sperms from the vas deferens
the gametes will not be transported (b) providing more space for the growth (about 10% of the total), fluid from the
from [CBSE AIPMT 2011] of epididymis seminal vesicles (almost 60 percent),
(a) epididymis to vas deferens (c) providing a secondary sexual feature fluid from the prostate gland (about 30
(b) ovary to uterus for exhibiting the male sex percent) and small amount of mucous
(c) vagina to uterus (d) maintaining the scrotal temperature glands, especially the bulbourethral
(d) testes to epididymis lower than the internal body glands.
temperature
Ans. (d) 12 The part of Fallopian tube closest
Vasa efferentia (ductuli efference) are Ans. (d)
to the ovary is [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
10-20 fine tubules which connect rete The testes in humans are situated
testis with an epididymis (ductus outside the abdominal cavity in scrotal (a) isthmus (b) infundibulum
epididymis). The latter is a pair of ducts sacs. This is because the temperature of (c) cervix (d) ampulla
from each testis which is formed by scrotal sacs is 2-2.5°C which is less than Ans. (b)
union of its vasa efferentia. If the vasa internal body temperature. The Fallopian tubes, uterus and vagina
efferentia get blocked, the sperms will constitute the female accessory ducts.
not be transported from testes to 09 Sertoli cells are found in Each Fallopian tube extends from the
epididymis. [CBSE AIPMT 2010] periphery of each ovary to the uterus.
(a) ovaries and secrete progesterone The part closer to the ovary is
07 The figure given below depicts a (b) adrenal cortex and secrete funnel-shaped infundibulum, which help
diagrammatic sectional view of the adrenaline in collection of the ovum after ovulation.
female reproductive system of (c) seminiferous tubules and provide
humans. Which one set of three nutrition to germ cells 13 Given below is a diagrammatic
parts out of A-F have been (d) pancreas and secrete cholecystokinin sketch of a portion of human male
correctly identified? reproductive system. Select the
The epithelium of seminiferous tubule is
correct set of the names of the
made up of two types of cells, i.e. Sertoli parts labelled A, B, C, D.
cells and spermatogenic cells. Sertoli [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
cells are elongated and pyramidal which
partially envelope the spermatogenic A
A C cells. These nourish spermatozoa, act as
nurse cells for differentiating B
B E D
spermatozoa. These secrete a
C
F glycoprotein hormone, called inhibin
which is involved in the negative feed D
back control of sperm production.
Human Reproduction 225
A B C D (b) Secondary spermatocyte, first polar Ans. (d)

(a) Ureter Prostate Seminal Bulbourethral
body, ovum High level of oestrogen will send positive
vesicle gland (c) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte, feedback to anterior pituitary for release
(b) Vas Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral spermatid of ovum from Graafian follicle. FSH, LH
deferens vesicle gland (d) Primary spermatocyte, secondary and oestrogen are at peak level during
(c) Vas Seminal Bulboure- Prostate spermatocyte, second polar body mid of menstrual cycle (28 day cycle). LH
deferens vesicle thral gland surge leads to ovulation.
Ans. (b)
(d) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
vesicle gland Out of the given the option, the haploid 19 Meiotic division of the secondary
cells are secondary spermatocyte, first oocyte completed
Ans. (b) polar body, ovum, secondary oocyte, [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Option (b) is correct, A = Vas deferens. spermatids and second polar body.
(a) at the time of copulation
B = Seminal vesicle,C = Prostrate and The diploid cells are primary oocyte and (b) after zygote formation
D = Bulbourethral gland. primary spermatocyte. Thus, option (b) is
(c) at the time of fusion of a sperm with
correct.
an ovum
14 Bartholin’s glands are situated (d) prior to ovulation
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] 17 Match the following columns and
(a) on either side of vagina in humans select the correct option from the Ans. (c)
(b) on either side of vas deference in codes given belows Meiotic division of secondary oocyte is
humans [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
completed after the entry of sperm in
secondary oocyte which lead to the
(c) on the sides of the head of some
Column I Column II formation of a large ovum and a tiny IInd
amphibians
polar body.
(d) at the reduced tail end of birds A. Ovary 1. Human chorionic
gonadotropin
Ans. (a) 20 No new follicles develop in the
Bartholin’s glands (Bulbovestibular B. Placenta 2. oestrogen and
progesterone
luteal phase of the menstrual cycle
glands) are one pair, small sized glands because [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
find just behind the labia minora, one on C. Corpus 3. Androgens
luteum (a) follicles do not remain in the ovary
either sides of vaginal orifice. These
after ovulation
lubricate the vagina during mating and D. Leydig 4. Progesterone (b) FSH levels are high in the luteal
parturition by secretion of mucus. cells only
phase
(c) LH levels are high in the luteal phase
15 Location and secretion of Leydig’s Codes
(d) both FSH and LH levels are low in the
cells are [CBSE AIPMT 1991] A B C D
luteal phase
(a) liver — cholesterol (a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 2 3 4 Ans. (d)
(b) ovary — estrogen
(c) 1 3 2 4 No new follicles develop in the luteal
(c) testis — testosterone phase of menstrual cycle. It is because
(d) 2 1 4 3
(d) pancreas — glucagon during this phase, Luteinising Hormone
Ans. (c) Ans. (d) (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone
The option (d) is the correct match which (FSH) levels decrease. Instead, the
The endocrine part of testis is formed of
is as follows already ruptured follicle closes after
groups of cells, called interstitial cells or
Ovary produces oestrogen and releasing the egg and forms a corpus
Leydig’s cells, scattered in connective
luteum during luteal phase, which
tissue between the sperm producing progesterone.
produces progesterone.
seminiferous tubules of the testis. Placenta produces Human Chorionic
These cells are stimulated to produce Gonadotropin (hCG).
male sex hormones, called androgens 21 What is the fate of the male
Corpus luteum produces progesterone gametes discharged in the
by ICSH of anterior pituitary. only.
Testosterone is main androgen and is synergid? [NEET (National) 2019]
Leydig cells produce androgens.
a steroid hormone. (a) All fuse with the egg
(b) One fuses with the egg, other(s)
18 Which of the following hormone fuse(s) with synergid nucleus
TOPIC 2 levels will cause release of ovum (c) One fuses with the egg and other
Gametogenesis, Menstrual (ovulation) from the Graafian fuses with central cell nuclei
Cycle and its Hormonal Control follicle? [NEET (Sep.) 2020] (d) One fuses with the egg other(s)
(a) High concentration of progesterone degenerate (s) in the synergid
16 Select the correct option of haploid (b) Low concentration of LH Ans. (c)
cells from the following groups. (c) Low concentration of FSH Out of the male gametes discharged in
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] the synergid, one fuses with the egg and
(d) High concentration of oestrogen
(a) Primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, other fuses with central cell nuclei. The
spermatid fusion between male gamete and egg is
called syngamy or true fertilisation Column I Column II 27 Identify the correct statement on
which forms zygote (2)n. The fusion 1. Proliferative i. Breakdown of ‘inhibin’. [NEET 2016, Phase I]
between male gamete and central cell phase endometrial
nuclei is called triple fusion and it results (a) Is produced by granulosa cells in
lining
in the formation of a triploid primary ovary and inhibits the secretion of
2. Secretory ii. Follicular FSH
endosperm nucleus (3)n. phase phase
(b) Is produced by granulosa cells in
22 Extrusion of second polar body 3. Menstruation iii. Luteal phase ovary and inhibits the secretion of LH
from egg nucleus occurs (c) Is produced by nurse cells in testes
1 2 3
[NEET (National) 2019] and inhibits the secretion of LH
(a) ii iii i
(a) after fertilisation (d) Inhibits the secretion of LH, FSH and
(b) i iii ii
(b) before the entry of sperm into ovum prolactin
(c) iii ii i
(c) simultaneously with first cleavage Ans. (a)
(d) iii i ii
(d) after the entry of sperm but before Inhibin is produced by granulosa cells of
fertilisation Ans. (a)
ovarian follicles in the ovary and has
Ans. (d) During proliferative phase, the follicles negative feedback effect on the
start growing in size under the influence secretion of FSH.
Extrusion of second polar body from egg of Follicle stimulating Hormone (FSH).
nucleus occurs after the entry of sperm Hence, this phase is also called follicular
but before fertilisation. The entry of phase.
28 Changes in GnRH pulse frequency
sperm into female egg causes the in females is controlled by
breakdown of Metaphase Promoting During secretory phase, corpus luteum
secretes progesterone that helps to circulating levels of
Factor (MPF) and turns on Anaphase [NEET 2016, Phase I]
Promoting Factor (APF). Hence, the thicken the endometrial lining. Due to
secondary oocyte completes its meiotic the persistence of corpus luteum, this (a) oestrogen and inhibin
division after fertilisation and is said to phase is also called luteal phase. (b) progesterone only
be activated. Menstruation or bleeding occurs due to (c) progesterone and inhibin
the breakdown of endometrial lining in
(d) oestrogen and progesterone
23 The difference between the absence of pregnancy. During this
phase, corpus luteum regresses and Ans. (d)
spermiogenesis and spermiation is progesterone level decreases. High levels of oestrogen and
[NEET 2018]
progesterone give negative feedback to
(a) In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa from 25 A temporary endocrine gland in the hypothalamus for the release of GnRH.
Sertoli cells are released into the Thus, inhibiting the gonadotropin
cavity of seminiferous tubules, while human body is [NEET 2017]
release.
in spermiation spermatozoa are (a) pineal gland
formed (b) corpus cardiacum 29 Which of the following layers in an
(b) In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are (c) corpus luteum antral follicle is acellular?
formed, while in spermiation (d) corpus allatum [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
spermatids are formed
(c) In spermiogenesis, spermatids are Ans. (c) (a) Granulosa (b) Theca interna
formed, while in spermiation Corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine (c) Stroma (d) Zona pellucida
spermatozoa are formed gland in the human body. It secretes Ans. (d)
(d) In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are small amount of estradiol and significant
Follicles that form an antrum during
formed, while in spermiation amount of progesterone hormone. In the
maturation are called antral follicle or
spermatozoa are released from absence of fertilisation, the corpus
Graafian follicle.
Sertoli cells into the cavity of luteum degenerates.
During the development of the follicle, a
seminiferous tubules glycoprotein polymer capsule called the
Ans. (d)
26 Select the incorrect statement. zona pellucida which is acellular, forms
[NEET 2016, Phase I] around the oocyte, separating it from
Spermiogenesis is the process of
(a) LH and FSH triggers ovulation in ovary the surrounding granulosa cells.
transformation of spermatids (n) into
spermatozoa (n) or sperms. It involves (b) LH and FSH decrease gradually during This layer remains with the oocyte after
the differentiation phase in which one the follicular phase ovulation, and contains enzymes that
spermatid develops into one (c) LH triggers secretion of androgens catalyse with sperm to allow
spermatozoan. from the Leydig cells penetration.
(d) FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells which
Spermiation involves the release of
sperms from seminiferous tubules
help in spermiogenesis 30 Which of the following events in
through Sertoli cells. Ans. (b) not associated with ovulation in
In follicular phase of menstrual cycle, LH human female? [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
24 Match the items given in Column I and FSH increase gradually and (a) Decrease in oestradiol
with those in Column II and select stimulate follicular development as well (b) Full development of Graafian follicle
the correct option given below. as secretion of oestrogens by the (c) Release of secondary oocyte
[NEET 2018]
growing follicles. (d) LH surge
Ans. (a) Ans. (a) These sperm lysins contain a lytic

Oestradiol levels fall after ovulation and Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of enzyme hyaluronidase (that dissolves
before menstruation while, its levels progesterone. the hyaluronic acid polymers in the
peak prior to ovulation. Oestradiol are intercellular spaces, which holds the
Progesterone is secreted by corpus
not associated with ovulation. Decrease granulosa cells of corona radiata
luteum and is essential for the
in oestradiol level result in the cessation together) corona penetrating enzyme
maintenance of endometrium. This
of menstruation. and acrosin.
endometrium is responsible for
implanation of the festilised ovum, i.e.
31 The main function of mammalian pregnancy. 36 Which one of the following is the
corpus luteum is to produce FSH Stimulates gonadal activity and also most likely reason of not occurring
[CBSE AIPMT 2014, 1995 ] called as gonadotrophins. regular menstruation cycle in
(a) oestrogen only Oxytocin Stimulates contraction in females? [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
(b) progesterone uterus during childbirth. (a) Fertilisation of the ovum
(c) human chorionic gonadotropin Vasopressin Stimulate resorption of (b) Maintenance of the hypertrophical
(d) relaxin only water and electrolytes by the distal endometrial lining
tubules, also called as Antidiuretic (c) Maintenance of high concentration of
Ans. (b)
Hormone (ADH). sex-hormones in the blood stream
The main function of mammalian corpus
(d) Retention of well-developed corpus
luteum is the secretion of progesterone
which is essential for the maintenance
34 Which one of the following luteum
of endometrium. Endometrium is statements is false in respect of Ans. (a)
necessary for implantation of the viability of mammalian sperm? If fertilisation occurs and foetus is
fertilised ovum and other events of [CBSE AIPMT 2012] implanted in the endometrium, the
pregnancy. (a) Sperm is viable for only up to 24 hrs trophoblast cells of the developing
Corpus luteum also secretes some (b) Survival of sperm depends on the pH placenta secrete a hormone human
amount of estrogen to maintain of the medium and is more active in Chorionic Gonadotrophic (hCG). This
pregnancy. alkaline medium hormone like LH maintains the corpus
hCG (human Chorionic Gonadotropin) is (c) Viability of sperm is determined by its luteum and the secretion of
secreted by placenta for maintaining the motility progesterone and estradiol by it. These
corpus luteum. (d) Sperms must be concentrated in a two hormones check the breakdown of
thick suspension the endometrium of the uterus. The
Relaxin is secreted by corpus luteum
absence of menstrual bleeding is the
during the end of gestation period. Ans. (a) earliest sign of pregnancy.
Viability of a sperm means the capability
32 What is the correct sequence of of a sperm, to fertilise an egg.
sperm formation? [NEET 2013]
Sperms are viable for 24 h to 48 h, correct matching of the events
(a) Spermatid, Spermatocyte, whereas the ovum is viable for only 24 h.
Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa occurring during menstrual cycle?
(b) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Spermatozoa, Spermatid 35 Which one of the following
statements about human sperm is (a) Ovulation LH and FSH attain
(c) Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, peak level and
Spermatocyte, Spermatid correct? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] sharp fall in the
(d) Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, (a) Acrosome has a conical pointed secretion of
Spermatid, Spermatozoa structure used for piercing and progesterone
Ans. (d) penetrating the egg, resulting in (b) Proliferative Rapid regeneration
fertilisation phase of
Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte →
(b) The sperm lysins in the acrosome myometrium and
Spermatid→ Spermatozoa maturation of
dissolve the egg envelope facilitating
Spermatogonia is present on the inside fertilisation Graafian
wall of seminiferous tubule which undergo follicle
(c) Acrosome serves as a sensory
mitotic division and increase their number. (c) Development Secretory phase and
structure leading the sperm towards
Spermatocytes are some of the of corpus increased secretion
the ovum
spermatogonia, which periodically luteum of
(d) Acrosome serves no particular progesterone
undergo meiosis. The secondary
function
spermatocytes undergo the second (d) Menstruation Breakdown of
meiotic division to produce four, equal Ans. (b) myometrium and
haploid spermatids. The spermatids are Penetration of human sperm is a ovum not fertilised
transformed into spermatozoa (sperm). chemical mechanism. In this, acrosome
of sperm undergoes acrosomal reaction Ans. (b)
33 Menstrual flow occurs due to lack and releases certain sperm lysins, which In secretory phase during ovulation, the
of [CBSE AIPMT 2012] dissolve the egg envelope locally and follicle breaks and collapes under the
(a) progesterone (b) FSH make the path for the penetration of continuous influence of Luteinising
(c) oxytocin (d) vasopressin sperm. Sperm lysins are acidic proteins. Hormone (LH).
It begins to enlarge and forms a (b) Estrogen secretion further decreases Ans. (b)
yellowish structure, called the corpus (c) Primary follicle starts developing The middle piece of human sperm
luteum. The corpus luteum plays an (d) Progesterone secretion rapidly contains mitochondria which are coiled
important role in the preparation of the declines around an axial filament called
endometrium for the implantation of the
Ans. (b) mitochondrial spiral. These provide
fertilised egg by secreting oestrogens
and progesterone. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, energy for the movement of sperm.
the estrogen secretion does not Acrosome Centriole
38 Which one of the following decrease further, while corpus luteum Nucleus Mitochondria
will disintegrate. Primary follicle starts
statement is incorrect about
2.5mm
developing and progesterone secretion
menstruation? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] rapidly declines.
(a) During normal menstruation about 40
Head Tail
mL blood is lost 42 Ovulation in the human female Middle
piece
(b) The menstrual fluid can easily clot
normally takes place during the
(c) At menopause in the female, there is Neck
especially abrupt increase in
menstrual cycle
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
gonadotropic hormones 45 After ovulation, Graafian follicle
(d) The beginning of the cycle of (a) at the mid secretory phase
regresses into [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
menstruation is called menarche (b) just before the end of the secretory
phase (a) corpus luteum
Ans. (b) (c) at the beginning of the proliferative (b) corpus callosum
During normal menstruation phase (c) corpus albicans
approximately 40 mL of blood and an (d) at the end of the proliferative phase (d) corpus artesia
additional 35 mL of serous fluid are lost.
The menstrual fluid is normally Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
non-clotting because a fibrinolysin is Ovulation takes place under the Just after ovulation, LH (secreted by
released alongwith necrotic endometrial influence of LH and FSH. It normally anterior lobe of pituitary gland)
material. takes place at the end of proliferative ie, stimulates remaining ovarian follicles to
14th day or mid way during menstrual develop into corpus luteum.
39 At the end of first meiotic division, cycle. The LH surge stimulates The corpus luteum plays an important
male germ cell differentiates into completion of reduction division of role in the preparation of the
oocyte. Following ovulation, the Graafian
[CBSE AIPMT 2008, 1994] endometrium for the implantation of the
follicle changes to corpus luteum.
(a) secondary spermatocyte fertilised egg by secreting oestrogens
(b) primary spermatocyte and progesterone.
43 Which set is similar?
(c) spermatogonium [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(d) spermatid 46 In 28 days human ovarian cycle,
(a) Corpus luteum — Graafian follicle
ovulation occurs on
Ans. (a) (b) Sebum — Sweat
First meiotic division takes place in (c) Bundle of His — Pacemaker
(a) 1 day
diploid primary spermatocyte and it (d) Vit-B 7 — Niacin
forms two haploid cells called (b) 5 day
Ans. (a) (c) 14 day
secondary spermatocytes.
Corpus luteum is temporary endocrine (d) 28 day
tissue developing from ruptured
40 Which part of ovary in mammals Graafian follicle. Ans. (c)
acts as an endocrine gland after Sebum is an oily lipid containing The first phase (proliferative phase) of
ovulation? [CBSE AIPMT 2007] secretion of mammalian sebaceous menstrual cycle ends on 14th day, the
(a) Graafian follicle (b) Stroma glands. ovarian follicles rupture and ovulation
(c) Germinal epithelium Sweat is an aqueous secretion of occurs.
(d) Vitelline membrane mammalian sweat glands.
Bundle of His is a part of conducting 47 Fertilisins are emitted by
Ans. (a)
system of heart and pace-maker is [CBSE AIPMT 1997, 91]
During ovulation, the mature follicle or
responsible for initiation of heart beat in (a) immature eggs
Graafian follicle bursts and the ovum is
right auricle SA node. (b) mature eggs
released. This is named as corpus
luteum which serves as a temporary Vitamin-B 5 is also known as niacin. (c) sperms
endocrine gland by releasing (d) polar bodies
progesterone and oestrogen. 44 Middle piece of mammalian sperm Ans. (b)
possesses [CBSE AIPMT 1999, 91] Eggs secrete the chemical fertilisin,
41 If mammalian ovum fails to get (a) mitochondria and centriole which is made up of glycoprotein. It
fertilised, which one of the (b) mitochondria only interacts with the antifertilisin (protein
following is unlikely? (c) centriole only on sperm surface) of a sperm of same
(a) Corpus luteum will disintegrate (d) nucleus and mitochondria species.
48 Human eggs are Ans. (a) A sperm comes in contact with zona
[CBSE AIPMT 1997, 89] In most of the organisms including pellucida layer of ovum and induces
human female the ovulation, i.e., release changes that blocks further entry of
(a) alecithal
of ovum from ovary occurs at secondary other sperms.
(b) microlecithal
(c) mesolecithal oocyte stage in which meiosis-I has been It ensures entry of only one sperm inside
completed and first polar body has been the ovum for fertilisation.
(d) macrolecithal
released.
Ans. (a) 56 Fertilisation in humans is
The eggs almost free of yolk are called 53 There is no DNA in practically feasible only if
alecithal, e.g. human eggs (ova). In such [CBSE AIPMT 2009] [NEET 2016, Phase I]
eggs the cleavage pattern is holoblastic (a) an enucleated ovum (a) the ovum and sperms are transported
(Gr. holo-whole; blastos-germ) that is the (b) mature RBCs simultaneously to ampullary - isthmic
cleavage extends completely through (c) a mature spermatozoan junction of the Fallopian tube
the egg. (d) hair root (b) the ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic
49 Ovulation occurs under the Ans. (a)
junction of the cervix
influence of [CBSE AIPMT 1994] The chromatin material inside the nucleus
(c) the sperms are transported into
is composed of DNA, some proteins and
(a) LH cervix within 48 hrs of release of
RNA. Infact it is basically DNA—protein
(b) FSH ovum in uterus
complex. Thus, in an enucleated ovum,
(c) oestrogen (d) the sperms are transported into
DNA will be absent. The mature RBCs,
(d) progesterone vagina just after the release of ovum
mature spermatozoan and root hair are
in Fallopian tube
Ans. (a) nucleated which contain DNA.
Ans. (a)
The Luteinising Hormone (LH) of anterior
pituitary regulates the ovulation from TOPIC 3 Fertilisation in humans, is practically
feasible only if the sperms and ovum are
the Graafian follicle. This LH surge
causes ovulation to occur.
Fertilisation and transported simultaneously at
Implantation ampullary-isthmic junction of Fallopian
tube.
50 In telolecithal egg the yolk is found
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] 54 Receptors for sperm binding in 57 Ectopic pregnancies are referred
(a) all over the egg (b) on one side mammals are present on to as [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(c) both the sides (d) at centre (a) corona radiata [NEET 2021] (a) pregnancies with genetic abnormality
Ans. (b) (b) vitelline membrane (b) implantation of embryo at site other
Yolk is concentrated towards vegetal (c) perivitelline space than uterus
pole. The nucleus and major part of (d) zona pellucida (c) implantation of defective embryo in
cytoplasm is displaced to animal pole as the uterus
in mesolecithal and macrolecithal eggs 55 Capacitation occurs in [NEET 2017] (d) pregnancies terminated due to the
of vertebrates. (a) rete testis hormonal imbalance
(b) epididymis Ans. (b)
51 Freshly released human egg has (c) vas deferens Ectopic pregnancy develops when an
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(d) female reproductive tract embryo implants somewhere other than
(a) one Y-chromosome the uterus, such as in one of Fallopian
(b) one X-chromosome Ans. (d) tube. It is also known as eccysis or tubal
(c) two X-chromosomes Capacitation is a process, where the pregnancy.
(d) Both (a) and (b) spermatozoa acquire the capacity to
fertilise the eggs. It occurs in female
Ans. (c) 58 In human females, meiosis-II is not
reproductive tract.
Human female is homozygous, i.e. completed until [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Concept Enhancer
produces same kind of gametes that (a) puberty
Capacitation involves following changes
carry X-chromosome while human male (b) fertilisation
(i) Dilution of inhibitory factors of (c) uterine implantation
is heterozygous, i.e. produces unlike semen.
gametes that carries either
(d) birth
(ii) Removal of cholestrol vesicles
X-chromosome or Y-chromosome. covering sperm head and acrosome. Ans. (b)
(iii) Increase in the permeability of In human females, meiosis II is not
52 Egg is liberated from ovary in acrosome. completed until fertilisation. Secondary
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] oocyte is arrested in metaphase II stage
(a) secondary oocyte stage Ans. (d) until sperm cell contacts plasma
(b) primary oocyte stage Receptors for sperm binding are present membrane of the oocyte and completes
on zona pellucida layer of ovum in meiosis II resulting in release of ovum.
(c) oogonial stage
mammals.
(d) mature ovum stage
59 Select the correct option Ans. (b) 65 Blastopore is

describing gonadotropin activity in Patterns of cleavage are based on [CBSE AIPMT 2000, 1992]
a normal pregnant female amount of yolk and its distribution in the (a) opening of neural tube
[CBSE AIPMT 2014, 12] eggs. Any change in amount and (b) opening of gastrocoel
distribution of yolk directly affects the (c) future anterior end of embryo
(a) High level of FSH and LH stimulates
pattern of cleavage.
the thickening of endometrium (d) found in blastula
(b) High level of FSH and LH facilitate As holoblastic cleavage is found in
microlecithal, mesolecithal or Ans. (b)
implantation of the embryo
telolecithal types of eggs. Meroblastic Blastopore is the opening of gastrocoel.
(c) High level of hCG stimulates the Gastrulation is a process of migration and
cleavage is found in macrolecithal and
synthesis of estrogen and rearrangement of cells which are already
highly telolecithal eggs of reptiles, birds
progesterone present in blastula, a new cavity is formed
and monotreme mammals.
(d) High level of hCG stimulates the named archenteron or gastrocoel which
thickening of endometrium open outside through blastopore.
62 Gray crescent is the area
Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
hCG (human Chorionic Gonadotrophin) (a) at the point of entry of sperm into 66 What is true about cleavage in
secretion occurs about 48-72 hours after ovum fertilised egg of human?
implantation. Its level increases and (b) just opposite to the site of entry of [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
excess of hCG leaks into urine which is sperm into ovum (a) Meroblastic
the indication of pregnancy. (c) at the animal pole (b) Starts when egg reaches uterus
This hormone like LH stimulates the (d) at the vegetal pole (c) Starts in Fallopian tube
corpus luteum to secrete high levels of
Ans. (b) (d) It is identical to normal mitosis
progesterone and some estrogen to
maintain pregnancy. There steroids are The gray crescent area is the area Ans. (c)
required to maintain the development of just opposite to the entry of sperm into In human, cleavage occurs in the
placenta, initiate the development of ovum. Fallopian tube (oviduct) during the
mammary glands and inhibit ovulation. movement of zygote towards uterus.
63 What is true for cleavage?
60 Which one of the following [CBSE AIPMT 2002] 67 Acrosome reaction in sperm is
statements about morula in (a) Size of embryo increases triggered by [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
humans is correct? (b) Size of cells decreases (a) capacitation
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] (c) Size of cells increases (b) release of lysin
(a) It has almost equal quantity of (d) Size of embryo decreases (c) influx of Na +
cytoplasm as an uncleaved zygote but
Ans. (b) (d) release of fertilisin
much more DNA
(b) It has far less cytoplasm as well as Cleavage is a succession of rapid cell Ans. (d)
less DNA than in an uncleaved zygote division during which the cells undergo
Ovum secretes a chemical substance,
the S phase (DNA synthesis) and
(c) It has more or less equal quantity of called fertilisin which has number of
M-phase (mitosis) of the cell cycle but
cytoplasm and DNA spermophilic sites on its surface where
often virtually skip theG1 and G2 -phases.
(d) It has more cytoplasm and more DNA the sperm of species specific type can
Cleavage simply divides the cytoplasm of
than an uchleaved zygote be bound by their antifertilisin site. This
larger cells into smaller cells, called
fertilisin-antifertilisin reaction triggers
Ans. (a) blastomeres.
acrosome reaction The main aim of this
Cleavage divisions are mitotic division, in reaction is to thin out the number of
which the single-celled zygote is 64 Cleavage in mammalian egg is sperms to reduce the chances of
converted into a multicellular morula. [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
polyspermy.
But during cleavage divisions, there is no (a) equal holoblastic
growth of resultant daughter cells (b) unequal holoblastic 68 Extrusion of second polar body
/blastomeres. So, the DNA content will (c) superficial meroblastic
increase, but there is no increase or from egg nucleus occurs
(d) discoidal meroblastic [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
insignificant increase in amount of
protoplasm. Ans. (b) (a) after entry of sperm but before
The progressive division of cells during completion of fertilisation
61 A change in the amount of yolk and embryonic growth is called cleavage. It (b) after completion of fertilisation
its distribution in the egg will is not accompanied by increase in the (c) before entry of sperm
overall size of embryo. (d) without any relation of sperm entry
affect. [CBSE AIPMT 2009, 95, 93]
(a) formation of zygote The first cleavage occurs in human Ans. (a)
zygote about 30 hours after fertilisation. The sperm entry stimulates the
(b) pattern of cleavage It is holoblastic (complete) and gives rise
(c) number of blastomeres produced secondary oocyte to undergo Meiotic II
to the blastomeres-one of which is division, which produces the ovum and
(d) fertilisation slightly larger than the other. second polar body.
69 Termination of gastrulation is Germ cell (2n) 75 In human beings, at the end of 12

indicated by [CBSE AIPMT 1993] Multiplicative weeks (first trimester) of
phase
(a) obliteration of blastocoel pregnancy, the following is
Spermatogonia
(b) obliteration of archenteron Growth phase observed. [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(c) closure of blastopore Maturation Primary (a) Eyelids and eyelashes are formed
phase Meiosis -I spermatocyte (2n)
(d) closure of neural tube (b) Most of the major organ systems are
Secondary
Meiosis -II formed
Ans. (a) spermatocyte (n)
Spermatid (n) (c) The head is covered with fine hair
Termination of gastrulation is indicated
(d) Movement of the foetus
by obliteration of blastocoel. Sperm
Ans. (b)
Spermatogenesis
70 Meroblastic cleavage is a type of In human beings, at the end of 12 weeks
division [CBSE AIPMT 1992] (first trimester), most of the major organ
TOPIC 4 systems are formed, e.g. the limbs and
(a) horizontal
(b) partial/parietal Embryogenesis, Parturition external genital organs gets
well-developed.
(c) total and Lactation
(d) spiral 76 Select the correct sequence of
Ans. (b)
73 Which of the following secretes the events [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
In meroblastic cleavage zygote divides
hormone, relaxin, during the later
(a) Gametogenesis→ Gamete transfer
partially. This type of cleavage is found in phase of pregnancy? [NEET 2021] → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell division
mesolecithal and centrolecithal eggs like (a) Graafian follicle (b) Corpus luteum (Cleavage) → Cell differentiation→
eggs of reptiles, birds, insects and (c) Foetus (d) Uterus Organogenesis
egg-laying mammals. (b) Gametogenesis→ Gamete transfer
Ans. (b)
→ Syngamy → Zygote → Cell divison
71 During cleavage, what is true about Corpus luteum is formed in ovary after (Cleavage) → Organogenesis→ Cell
the ovulation and degenerates if differentiation
cells? [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
pregnancy does not occur.
(a) Nucleocytoplasmic ratio remains (c) Gametogenesis→ Syngamy →
In later phase of pregnancy the corpus Gamete transfer→ Zygote → Cell
unchanged luteum secretes relaxin hormone.Relaxin division (Cleavage)→ Cell
(b) Size does not increase dilates the cervix and helps in differentiation→ Organogenesis
(c) There is less consumption of oxygen parturition. Graafian follicle, uterus and (d) Gametogenesis→ Gamete transfer
(d) The division is like meiosis foetus has no role in relaxin secretion. → Syngamy → Zygote → Cell
Ans. (b) differentiation→ Cell division
Cleavage is the rapid mitotic cell division
74 Which of these is not an important (Cleavage) → Organogenesis
of the zygote upto the completion of component of initiation of Ans. (a)
blastula stage. Cleavage differs from the parturition in humans? [NEET 2021] The correct sequence of events are
ordinary mitosis in following respects: (a) Increase in oestrogen and
Gametogenesis (i.e. production of
(a) Interphase are short and do not progesterone ratio
gametes) → Gamete transfer (i.e.
involve growth. (b) Synthesis of prostaglandins movement of gamete at the site of
(b) Divisions are very rapid, nuclear (c) Release of oxytocin fertilisation) → Syngamy (i.e. the fusion
cytoplasmic ratio increases with (d) Release of prolactin of gametes) → Zygote (i.e. a eukaryotic
each division. cell formed by fertilisation of gametes)
Ans. (d)
(c) There is a decrease in the size of → Cell division (cleavage) → Cell
Prolactin hormone is not important for
blastomeres (cells resulting from differentiation (i.e the process where a
initiation of parturition because it is
cleavage), but size and shape of the cell changes from one cell type to
released after the parturition in order to
embryo do not change. another) → Organogenesis (i.e. the
secrete the milk from the mammary
process of formation of three germ
gland. Parturition is usually initiated by
72 How many sperms are formed from layers).
the release of oxytocin hormone from
a secondary spermatocyte? the maternal pituitary.
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] 77 Which of the following hormones is
This hormone increases the
(a) 4 (b) 8 concentration of uterine muscles. responsible for both the milk ejection
(c) 2 (d) 1 Prostaglandins are synthesised and reflex and the foetal ejection
released in response to the oxytocin reflex? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
Ans. (c) hormone which induces stronger (a) Oestrogen
As it is clear from the figure that each contraction resulting in expulsion of baby.
secondary spermatocyte, after second (b) Prolactin
During parturition there is an increase in
meiosis give rise to two spermatids, oestrogen and progesterone ratio in the (c) Oxytocin
each of which develops into sperm. female body. (d) Relaxin
Ans. (c) 80 Hormones secreted by the Ans. (b)

Oxytocin hormone is responsible for placenta to maintain pregnancy are The correct match are
both, the milk ejection reflex and foetal [NEET 2018] (a) Mona pubis–Female external genitalia
ejection reflex. It is a peptide hormone (b) Antrum–Graafian follicle
(a) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
normally produced in the hypothalamus (c) Trophectoderm–Embryo
(b) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin
and released by the posterior pituitary development
gland. (c) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin
(d) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, (d) Nebenkern–Sperm
glucocorticoids Concept Enhancer Nebenkern is a
78 Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, mitochondrial structure present in the
secreted by mother during the Ans. (a) sperm of certain insects.
initial days of lactation is very The hormones secreted by the placenta
essential to impart immunity to the to maintain pregnancy are hCG, hPL,
progestogens and estrogens. Placenta is
82 Several hormones like hCG, hPL,
new born infants because it the intimate connection between the oestrogen, progesterone are
contains [NEET (National) 2019] foetus and uterine wall of the mother to produced by [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(a) monocytes exchange the materials. It has endocrine (a) ovary (b) placenta
(b) macrophages function and secretes the following
hormones
(c) Fallopian tube (d) pituitary
(c) immunoglobulin A
(i) Human Chorionic Gonadotropins Ans. (b)
(d) natural killer cells
(hCG) It stimulates and maintains Several hormones like–hCG, hPL,
Ans. (c) the corpus luteum to secrete oestrogen, progesterone are produced
Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted progesterone until the end of by placenta. It is a structural and
by mother during the initial days of pregnancy. functional connectivity between the
lactation is very essential to impart (ii) Human Placental Lactogen (hPL) It developing embryo (foetus) and the
immunity to the newborn infants is also known Human Chorionic maternal body. It is connected to embryo
because it contains immunoglobulin A. Somatomam- motropin (HCS), it through an umblical cord which helps in
The type of immunity provided by stimulates the growth of mammary transport of substances to and from the
colostrum is natural passive immunity. glands during pregnancy. embryo. Placenta also acts as an
As IgA is secreted in mother’s milk, it is (iii) Progesterone and estrogen endocrine tissue by producing the above
also called secretory immunoglobulin. support foetal growth, maintain mentioned hormones.
Monocytes are a type of white blood cell pregnancy, inhibit uterine contractions,
having simple oval nucleus. etc. 83 Which one of the following is not
Macrophages are cells of the immune On the other hand, the sources of other the function of placenta? It
system. These cells can engulf bacteria, hormones are as follows [NEET 2013]
fungi, viruses and parasites.
Oxytocin Secreted by posterior lobe of (a) facilitates supply of oxygen and
Natural killer cells are lymphocytes and pituitary gland during foetal ejection nutrients to embryo
are a component of innate immune reflex. Glucocorticoid Secreted by
system. (b) secretes oestrogen
adrenal gland of foetus to induce foetal
(c) facilitates removal of carbon dioxide
ejection reflex.
79 The amnion of mammalian embryo and waste material from embryo
Relaxin Secreted by corpus luteum to (d) secretes oxytocin during parturition
is derived from [NEET 2018] increase flexibility of pubis symphysis.
(a) mesoderm and trophoblast Prolactin Secreted by anterior lobe of Ans. (d)
(b) endoderm and mesoderm pituitary, helps in the secretion of milk. Pituitary secretes oxytocin during
(c) ectoderm and mesoderm parturition. The functions of placenta
81 Match column I with column II and are supply of oxygen and nutrients to
(d) ectoderm and endoderm
embryo. It aslo secretes estrogen,
Ans. (c) select the correct option using the facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and
Amnion of mammalian embryo is derived codes given below. waste materials from embryo.
from ectoderm and mesoderm. It is one [NEET 2016, Phase II]
of the extraembryonic membrane which 84 Signals for parturition originate
Column I Column II
is formed by the amniogenic cells of from [CBSE AIPMT 2012, 10]
ectodermal origin on inner side and A. Mons pubis 1. Embryo formation
somatopleuric extraembryonic (a) both placenta as well as fully
B. Antrum 2. Sperm developed foetus
mesoderm on outer side. This
membrane acts as a shock absorber for C. Trophecto 3. Female external (b) oxytocin released from maternal
the foetus, regulates foetal body derm genitalia pituitary
temperature and prevents desiccation. D. Nebenkern 4. Graafian follicle (c) placenta only
The origin of other extraembryonic (d) fully developed foetus only
Codes
membranes is as follows A B C D Ans. (a)
Chorion Trophoectoderm and (a) 3 4 2 1 The process of delivery of the foetus
mesoderm. (b) 3 4 1 2 (childbirth) is called parturition which is
Allantois and Yolk sac Outer (c) 3 1 4 2 induced by a complex neuroendocrine
mesoderm and inner endoderm. (d) 1 4 3 2 mechanism.
The signals for parturition originate from Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
the fully developed foetus and the Amnion is an extra embryonic membrane Extra-embryonic membranes are
placenta which induce mild uterine that surrounds embryo in reptiles, birds formed outside the embryo from the
contractions called foetal ejection and mammals. It provides a kind of trophoblast in amniotes (reptiles, birds
reflex. private aquarium to the embryo and and mammals) and perform specific
This triggers release of oxytocin from protects it from mechanical shock and function. These are yolk sac, amnion,
maternal pituitary. Oxytocin causes desiccation. allantois and chorion.
stronger uterine contractions which in Chorion (serosa) is the outermost extra
turn stimulate further secretion of embryonic membrane in reptiles, birds 89 Gonads develop from embryonic
oxytocin. The stimulatory reflex between and mammals. It surrounds the whole [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
the uterine contraction and oxytocin embryonic system of embryo.
secretion continues resulting in stronger
(a) ectoderm (b) endoderm
Yolk sac contains yolk in reptiles and (c) mesoderm (d) Both (b) and (c)
and stronger contractions. This leads to
birds. In mammals yolk sac is also know
expulsion of the baby out of the uterus Ans. (c)
umbilical vesicle. It is connected to
through the birth canal, i.e. parturition.
enteron of embryo by a slender yolk stalk. Gonads develop from mesoderm. Beside
gonads mesoderm also forms muscles,
85 The first movements of the foetus connective tissue, dermis of skin, bones
87 During embryonic development,
and appearance of hair on its head and cartilages, peritoneal layers,
the establishment of polarity along
are usually observed during which coelom, circulatory system (heart, blood
anterior/ posterior, dorsal/ventral vessels, blood, lymphatic system),
month of pregancy?
or medial/lateral axis is called kidneys, ureters and adrenal cortex.
(a) Fourth month (b) Fifth month (a) anamorphosis 90 Cells become variable in
(c) Sixth month (d) Third month (b) pattern formation morphology and function in
Ans. (b) (c) organiser phenomena different regions of the embryo.
During development of foetus in human (d) axis formation The process is [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
by week 20, hair begin to grow including (a) differentiation
Ans. (d)
eyebrows and eyelashes, fingerprints
Embryonic axis are formed very early in (b) metamorphosis
develop. Fingernails and toe nails grow.
Firm hand grip. Between 16 and 20 development and sometimes by the (c) organisation
weeks the first movements of the polarity of the egg. (d) rearrangement
foetus are observed. Ans. (a)
88 Extra-embryonic membranes of
After formation of three primary germ
86 Which extra-embryonic membrane the mammalian embryo are derived layers (i.e., ectoderm, mesoderm and
in humans prevents desiccation of from [CBSE AIPMT 1994] endoderm), cells of these three layers
the embryo inside the uterus? (a) inner cell mass become variable in morphology, shape,
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] (b) trophoblast size and more specified to form organs
(a) Chorion (b) Allantois (c) formative cells so as to meet out the future functional
(c) Yolk sac (d) Amnion needs of the foetus, this process is
(d) follicle cells called differentiation.
26
Reproductive Health
TOPIC 1 Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
Birth Control Measures (A)-(1),(B)-(3),(C)-(2),(D)-(4) Option (c) is correct as Intrauterine
Devices (IUDs) increase phagocytosis of
and Amniocentesis Vaults is a rubber dome, which fits over
the vaginal vault or cervix. They prevents sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions
the entry of sperm into the uterus. released suppress sperm motility and
01 Which one of the following is an IUDs are the devices which are inserted fertilising capacity of sperms.
example of hormone releasing IUD? by the doctors or trained nurses into the Other statements can be corrected as
[NEET 2021] uterus of female. These IUDs increase IUDs can be removed as these are a
(a) Cu-T (b) LNG-20 phagocytosis of sperm in uterus. reversible contraception method.
(c) Cu-7 (d) Multiload-375 Vasectomy Surgical removal of the small IUDs are inserted by doctors or expert
Ans. (b) part of vas deferens. It is a form of male nurses in the uterus through vagina.
birth control that inhibits to transport of
Levonorgestrel hormone is released IUDs do not affect gametogenesis.
male gamete.
from LNG-20. It is highly effective for
contraception. The risk of unwanted Tubectomy Surgical removal of the small 05 Select the hormone- releasing
part of Fallopian tube to prevent the
pregnancy is lower with LNG-20 because Intra-Uterine Devices.
it causes endometrial atrophy and alter sperm from reaching the egg to fertilise it.
the stroma to inhibit the process of (a) Multiload 375, Progestasert
implantation. 03 Progestogens alone or in
(b) Progestasert, LNG-20
Lippes loop is an IUD impregnated with combination with oestrogens can
(c) Lippes Loop, Multiload 375
barium sulphate. IUDs like CuT and be used as a contraceptive in the
multiload-375 release copper that (d) Vaults, LNG-20
form of [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
suppress the motility of sperm thus Ans. (b)
(a) implants only
reducing its fertilising capacity. Thus, Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone
Lippes loop, CuT and multiload-375 are (b) injections only
(c) pills, injections and implants releasing Intrauterine Devices (IUDs).
not hormone releasing IUDs. These devices release small quantities
(d) pills only
of hormone which suppresses
02 Match the List-I with List-II. Ans. (c) endometrial changes, cause an ovulation
List I List II Progesteronse alone or in combination and insufficient luteal activity.
with oestrogens can be used as a
A. Vaults 1.
Entry of sperm through contraceptive in the form of pills, 06 Which of the following
cervix is blocked
injections and implants under the skin. contraceptive methods do involve
B. IUDs 2. Removal of vas
They inhibit ovulation and implantation a role of hormone?
deferens
of the zygote as well as alter the quality [NEET (National) 2019]
C. Vasectomy 3. Phagocytosis of sperms of cervical mucus to prevent/retard
within the uterus (a) Barrier method, Lactational
entry of sperms. amenorrhea, Pills
D. Tubectomy 4. Removal of Fallopian
tube (b) Cu-T, Pills, Emergency
04 Which of the following is a correct contraceptives
Choose the correct answer from statement? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] (c) Pills, Emergency contraceptives,
the options given below. (a) IUDs once inserted need not be Barrier methods
[NEET 2021] replaced (d) Lactational amenorrhea, Pills,
A B C D (b) IUDs are generally inserted by the Emergency contraceptives
(a) 4 2 1 3 user herself
Ans. (d)
(b) 1 3 2 4 (c) IUDs increase phagocytosis of
Lactational amenorrhea, pills and
sperms in the uterus
(c) 2 4 3 1 emergency contraceptives provide
(d) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
(d) 3 1 4 2 contraception due to the role of hormones.
Reproductive Health 235
In lactational amenorrhoea, high 09 In context of amniocentesis, which cervix hostile to the sperms. Hence,
prolactin level during active lactation option (a) is correct.
period decreases the gonadotropin level
of the following statement is
Concept Enhancer Lippes loop is a
in the blood. incorrect? [NEET 2016, Phase I]
non-medicated IUD whereas Cu-7 and
Pills usually contain progesterone or (a) It is used for prenatal Multiload-375 are copper releasing IUDs.
progesterogen- oestrogen combinations sex-determination
which prevent ovulation. Emergency (b) It can be used for detection of down 12 Tubectomy is a method of
contraceptives also contain syndrome
progesterone and estradiol preparation.
sterilisation in which
Other contraceptive methods include (c) It can be used for detection of cleft [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
Intrauterine Devices (IUDs) which release palate (a) small part of the Fallopian tube is
copper and destroys the sperms. On the (d) It is usually done when a woman is removed or tied up
other hand, barrier method represents a between 14-16 weeks pregnant (b) ovaries are removed surgically
physical method of contraception. Also, (c) small part of vas deferens is removed
copper-T (Cu-T) acts by releasing copper Ans. (c)
or tied up
and not any hormone. Cleft palate is a developmental
abnormality which may occur in the (d) uterus is removed surgically
07 The function of copper ions in developing foetus and so it can be Ans. (a)
copper releasing IUD’s is detected by sonography, not by Tubectomy is a type of sterilisation.
[NEET 2017] amniocentesis. During this procedure female’s, Fallopian
(a) they suppress sperm motility and Amniocentesis is being misused for tubes are cut and tied up to block entry
fertilising capacity of sperms foetal sex-determination test so it is of sperms into the ovary. In females, this
(b) they inhibit gametogenesis banned in India. is permanent birth control.
(c) they make uterus unsuitable for
implantation 10 Which of the following is incorrect 13 Which of the following is a
(d) they inhibit ovulation regarding vasectomy? hormone releasing Intrauterine
[NEET 2016, Phase II] Device (IUD)? [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
Ans. (a)
(a) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid (a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG-20
An intra uterine device is a small, often
T-shaped birth control device that is
(b) No sperm occurs in epididymis (c) Cervical cap (d) Vault
inserted into a woman’s uterus to (c) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied Ans. (b)
prevent pregnancy. The copper (d) Irreversible sterility
LNG-20 is a hormone releasing IUD, that
releasing IUD’s primarily work by Ans. (b) makes the uterus unsuitable for
disrupting sperm motility and damaging implantation and cervix hostile to sperm.
Epididymis is an accessory duct present
sperm. Copper acts as a spermicide. It Intra uterine devices are plastic or metal
in the male reproductive system.
can also alter the endometrial lining, objects which are inserted by the
preventing implantation. doctors into the uterus through vagina.
Vas Deferens These are available as:
08 Which of the following approaches cut and tied Non-medicated IUDs (i.e. lippes loop)
does not give the defined action of
Copper relasing IUDs (e.g. multiload 375)
contraceptive? [NEET 2016, Phase I]
Hormone releasing (e.g. progestasert).
(a) Intra uterine Increase Cervical caps and vaults are made up of
devices phagocytosis of rubber and are inserted into the female
sperms, suppress Vasectomy reproductive tract to cover the cervix
sperm motility
Sperms produced by testes are sent before coitus. They prevent conception.
and fertilising
capacity of here by vasa efferentia and are
sperms temporarily stored here. These sperms 14 Which of the following cannot be
do not reach to seminal vesicle when vas detected in a developing foetus by
(b) Hormonal Prevent/ retard
deferens is cut and tied in vasectomy.
contraceptives entry of sperms, amniocentesis? [NEET 2013]
prevent ovulation
and fertilisation 11 Which of the following is (a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
hormone-releasing IUD? (b) Sex of the foetus
(c) Vasectomy Prevents
spermatogenesis [NEET 2016, Phase II] (c) Down’s syndrome
(d) Barrier Prevent (a) LNG-20 (b) Multiload-375 (d) Jaundice
methods fertilisation (c) Lippes loop (d) Cu-7 Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) Amniocentesis is a foetal sex
Ans. (c) determination test based on the
Hormone releasing IUD (Intra Uterine
In vasectomy, a small part of the vas chromosomal pattern in the amniotic
Devices) is LNG-20. The IUD’s are ideal
deferens is removed or tied up through a fluid surrounding the developing
contraceptive methods used by females
small incision on the scrotum in males. embryo. Jaundice is a condition not
to prevent pregnancy. The hormone
Vasectomy blocks the gamete transport based on chromosomal pattern. It is a
releasing IUD’s make the uterus
and does not affect spermatogenesis. disease related to liver dysfunctions.
unsuitable for implantation and the
15 One of the legal methods of birth (c) transfer of embryo into the uterus of Ans. (a)
a surrogate mother
control is [NEET 2013] Option I and III are correct as. Intra
(d) detecting any genetic abnormality uterine devices like copper-T are
(a) abortion by taking an appropriate
medicine Ans. (d) effective contraceptives for birth
(b) by abstaining from coitus from day control. It suppresses sperm motility and
Amniocentesis is a technique for the
10-17 of the menstrual cycle the fertilising capacity of the sperm.
diagnosis of congenital abnormalities
(c) by having coitus at the time of day Medical termination of pregnancy or
before birth. By karyotypic studies of
break induced abortion is voluntary or
somatic cells, abnormalities due to the
intentional termination of pregnancy
(d) by a premature ejaculation during changes in chromosome number like
before full term of foetus. It is
coitus Down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome,
comparatively safe up to 12 weeks (the
Klinefelter’s syndrome, etc, can be
Ans. (b) first trimester) of pregnancy.
determined.
One of the legal method of birth control It can be used as a pre-natal diagnostic
is periodic abstinence in which couples technique. These days, amniocentesis is
21 Given below are four methods
abstain from coitus from day 10 to 17 of being misused also. Mothers even get their (A-D) and their modes of action
the menstrual cycle. Abortion by taking normal foetus aborted if it is a female. (i-iv) in achieving contraception.
medicine is not a legal method. A day
break coitus may increase the chances
Select their correct matching from
of contraception. 19 Cu ions released from the four option that follow.
copper-releasing Intra Uterine [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
16 What is the figure given below Devices (IUDs) Method Mode of Action
showing in particular? [CBSE AIPMT 2010, 2000]
A. The pill (i) Prevents sperms
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] (a) make uterus unsuitable for
reaching cervix
implantation
(b) increase phagocytosis of sperms B. Condom (ii) Prevents
implantation
(c) suppress sperm motility
(d) prevent ovulation C. Vasectomy (iii) Prevents
ovulation
Ans. (c) D. Copper-T (iv) Semen contains
(a) Ovarian cancer (b) Uterine cancer Intra Uterine Device (IUD) is a small no sperms
(c) Tubectomy (d) Vasectomy device made up of copper, plastic or
stainless steel. It is inserted by a doctor A B C D
Ans. (c) and experts nurses into the uterus (a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
The figure depicts tubectomy The through vagina and can be left these for (b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
process of cutting and ligating both the long periods. This device needs to be (c) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
oviducts or Fallopian tubes of female is replaced after 3-5 yrs when Cu release (d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
called tubectomy. It is very reliable become scanty due to calcium
method of birth control, the approximate deposition. It supress the sperm mobility Ans. (c)
failure rate of which is less than 1%. and fertilising capacity of sperms. The contraceptive pills are hormones
either in combination or progesterone
17 Which one of the following is the 20 Consider the statement given only that primarily prevent release of
most widely accepted method of below regarding contraception and egg. It is convenient and highly effective,
contraception in India, at present? significant non-contraceptive health
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
answer as directed thereafter
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
benefits such as protection against
(a) Cervical caps ovarian and endometrial cancers.
1. Medical Termination of
(b) Tubectomy Condom is thin rubber sheath for penis
Pregnancy (MTP) during first that collects semen. It is easy to use,
(c) Diaphragms
trimester is generally safe. effective and inexpensive.
(d) IUDs (Intra Uterine Devices)
2. Generally chances of conception Vasectomy is the cutting and tying off
Ans. (d) are nil until mother breast-feeds the ductus deference so, that sperm
At present, the most widely accepted the infant up to two years. connot enter the ejaculate.
method of contraception in India is IUDs Copper-T is small plastic device placed
3. Intra uterine devices like
(Intra Uterine Devices). These devices in the uterus that prevent fertilisation or
are effective and popular. These devices copper-T are effective
implantation.
are inserted by doctors and expert contraceptives.
nurses in the uterus through vagina. 4. Contraception pills may be taken 22 In a population, unrestricted
upto one week after coitus to reproductive capacity is called
18 The permissible use of the prevent contraception. [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
technique amniocentesis is for Which two of the above (a) biotic potential
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
statements are correct? (b) fertility
(a) detecting sex of the unborn foetus
(a) 1, 3 (b) 1, 2 (c) carrying capacity
(b) artificial insemination
(c) 2, 3 (d) 3, 4 (d) birth rate
Ans. (a) The cells and the fluid sample may also Choose the correct answer from
be tested for products of faulty genes the options given below
The biotic potential or innate capacity to
(e.g. high level ofα-fetiprotein, i.e. AFP)
increase of a population refers to the (a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV
indicated high risk of birth defects.
maximum rate of increase in the (c) II and III (d) I and III
population that can possibly occur under
ideal conditions (unlimited resources, no 26 Human population growth in India Ans. (c)
hindrances). [CBSE AIPMT 1996] Veneral disease or sexually transmitted
(a) tends to follow a sigmoid curve as in disease is defined as a medical condition
23 Progesterone, which is the most case of many other animal species that can be passed from one person to
(b) tends to reach zero population another via sexual contact, transfusion of
important component of oral blood from infected person and by
contraceptive pils, prevents growth as in case of some animal
infected mother to foetus.
species
pregnancy by [CBSE AIPMT 2000] Thus, option (c) is correct.
(c) can be reduced by permitting natural
(a) preventing the formation of egg calamities and enforcing birth control
(b) preventing the cleavage of the measures 29 Which of the following STDs are
fertilised egg (d) can be regulated by following the not curable? [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(c) creating unfavourable chemical National programme of family (a) Genital herpes, hepatitis-B, HIV
environment for the sperms to planning infection
survive in the famale reproductive
Ans. (d) (b) Chlamydiasis, Syphilis, genital warts
tract
(c) HIV, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis
(d) blocking ovulation Though India is very crowded and over
populated country but still human (d) Gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis,
Ans. (d) population can be regulated by following hepatitis-B
Most contraceptive pills contain the the National programme of family Ans. (a)
hormones oestrogen and progesterone. planning. Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes
Progesterone, alongwith oestrogen, and HIV infections other sexually
disturbs the normal menstrual cycle to 27 In India, human population is transmitted diseases are completely
prevent ovulation. It inhibits the pituitary curable if detected early and treated
from secreting FSH and LH, which leads
heavily weighed towards the
younger age groups as a result of properly. Diseases or infections which
to blocking of ovulation. are transmitted through sexual
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
intercourse are collectively called
24 Tablets to prevent contraception (a) short life span of many individuals
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) or
and low birth rate
contain [CBSE AIPMT 1999] Venereal Diseased (VD) or Reproductive
(b) long life span of many individuals and Tract Infections (RTI).
(a) progesterone (b) FSH low birth rate
(c) LH (d) Both (b) and (c) (c) short life span of many individuals
30 Select the option including all
Ans. (a) and high birth rate
(d) long life span of many individuals and
sexually transmitted diseases.
Contraceptive pills for women contain [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
female sex hormones oestrogen and high birth rate
(a) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
progesterone. These prevent Ans. (c)
development of eggs and ovulation by (b) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
In India human population is heavily (c) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
inhibiting secretion of FSH.
weighed towards the younger age group (d) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
Some pills contain progesterone only in as a result of high birth rate and short
such cases, ovulation may occur but life span of individuals. Ans. (d)
cervical mucus is thickness preventing Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes are
the entry of sperm. sexually transmitted diseases.
TOPIC 2 Gonorrhoea is caused by a bacterium
25 Amniocentesis is a process to Sexually Transmitted Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It is a sexually
[CBSE AIPMT 1997] transmitted disease (STD) that can infect
(a) determine any disease in heart Diseases both men and women. It can cause
(b) determine any hereditary disease in infections in the genitals, rectum and
the embryo 28 Veneral diseases can spread throat.
(c) know about the disease of brain through [NEET 2021] Syphilis is caused by a bacterium
(d) All of the above I. Using sterile needles. Treponema pallidum. It starts as painless
sore typically on the genitals, rectum or
Ans. (b) II. Transfusion of blood from mouth. Genital herpes is caused by a
Cells of amniotic fluid are cultured to infected person. virus Type-II Herpes simplex virus.
increase their number and to obtain III. Infected mother to foetus. It causes herpetic sores, which are
dividing cells. The chromosomes of the IV. Kissing. painful bilsters (fluid-filled bumps) that
dividing cells can be examined for can break open and ooze fluid.
abnormalities. V. Inheritance.
31 Which of the following sexually (a) GIFT and ZIFT 36 A childless couple can be assisted
transmitted diseases do not (b) ICSI and ZIFT to have a child through a technique
specifically affect reproductive (c) GIFT and ICSI called GIFT. The full form of this
organs? [NEET (Odisha) 2019] (d) ZIFT and IUT technique is [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(a) Genital warts and Hepatitis-B Ans. (d) (a) Gamete Inseminated Fallopian
(b) Syphilis and Genital herpes Option (d) is the correct answer because Transfer
(c) AIDS and Hepatitis-B the techniques by which the embryos are (b) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
(d) Chlamydiasis and AIDS transferred to assist those females who (c) Gamete Internal Fertilisation and
cannot conceive are ZIFT and IUT, i.e. Transfer
Ans. (c) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer and Intra (d) Germ Cell Internal Fallopian Transfer
AIDS and Hepatitis-B are sexually Uterine Transfer respectively, both are
transmitted diseases which do not Embryo Transfer (ET) methods. Option Ans. (b)
specifically affect reproductive organs. (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect because in The full form of GIFT is “Gamete Intra
AIDS affects the overall immune system GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer), Fallopian Transfer”.
of the individual and Hepatitis-B affects gamete is transferred into the Fallopian This method is used in females who
the liver. These are called STD because tube of female who cannot produce ova. cannot produce ova but can provide
these spread through unsafe sex or ICSI is Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection suitable environment for fertilisation and
unprotected sex. in which sperm is directly injected into further development of embryo in the
the ovum. oviducts. In such cases, ovum from the
32 Match the following sexually donar female is surgically removed and
transmitted diseases (column I) 34 In case of a couple, where the male is then introduced into the Fallopian
with their causative agent (column II) is having a very low sperm count, tube of such females. Such women then
accept sperms from her husband during
and select the correct option. which technique will be suitable for copulation.
[NEET 2017] fertilisation? [NEET 2017]
Column I Column II (a) Intrauterine Transfer 37 Assisted reproductive technology,

(b) Gamete Intracytoplasmic Fallopian IVF involves transfer of
(A) Gonorrhea 1. HIV
Transfer [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(B) Syphilis 2. Neisseria (c) Artificial Insemination (a) ovum into the Fallopian tube
(C) Genital Warts 3. Treponema (d) Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (b) zygote into the Fallopian tube
(D) AIDS 4. Human (c) zygote into the uterus
Papilloma Virus Ans. (c)
Assisted Reproductive Technologies (d) embryo with 16 balastomeres into the
Codes (ARTs) is a general term referred to the Fallopian tube
A B C D method used to achieve pregnancy by Ans. (b)
(a) 2 3 4 1 artificial means or partial artificial means
In vitro fertilisation is a process in which
and is primarily used in infertility
(b) 3 4 1 2 an egg is fertilised by sperm outside the
treatment. Artificial insemination is a
(c) 4 2 3 1 woman’s womb and the zygote up to 8
type of ARTs.
(d) 4 3 2 1 celled stage is implanted into the Fallopian
tube. IVF is a major treatment for
Ans. (a) 35 Embryo with more than 16 infertility. The process involves
blastomeres formed due to in vitro hormonally controlled ovulatory process,
Column I Column II
fertilisation is transferred into removing ova from the woman’s ovaries
(A) Gonorrhea 1. HIV [NEET 2016, Phase II] and letting sperm fertilise them in fluid
(B) Syphilis 2. Neisseria (a) uterus (b) Fallopian tube medium.
(C) Genital Warts 3. Treponema (c) fimbriae (d) cervix The Zygote or the embryo up to 8-celled
stage is then transferred into the
(D) AIDS 4. Human
Papilloma Virus Ans. (a) patient’s Fallopian tube with the intent to
Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres be successful. When the zygote is more
formed due to in vitro fertilisation is than 8 blastomere stage it is placed directly
into the uterus to establish pregnancy.
TOPIC 3 transferred into the uterus to complete
its further development.
Infertility and Assisted Concept Enhancer Intra Uterine 38 Artificial insemination means
Reproductive Technologies Transfer or IUT is an assisted [NEET 2013]
reproductive technology to solve the (a) transfer of sperms of a healthy donor
infertility problems. to a test-tube containing ova
33 In which of the following (b) transfer of sperms of husband to a
In this process, the implantation of
techniques, the embryos are test-tube containing ova
embryo takes place in the uterus where
transferred to assist those females (c) artificial introduction of sperms of a
it develops into a foetus which forms a
who cannot conceive? healthy donor into the vagina
child. On completion of gestation, the
(d) introduction of sperms of healthy
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] mother will give birth to a normal child. donor directly into the ovary
Ans. (c) Second trimester abortions are much In India it is all due to the reproductive
Artificial Insemination (AI) means more riskier. and child health care programmes
artificial introduction of sperms of a operating throughout the country
healthy male donor into the vagina of 41 In vitro fertilisation is a technique
female. Infertility due to the inability of that involves transfer of which one 43 Test-tube baby means a baby born
the male to inseminate the female or due of the following into the Fallopian when [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
to very low sperm counts in the tube? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] (a) the ovum is fertilised externally and
ejaculates can be corrected by artificial
(a) Embryo only, up to 8 cell stage there after implanted in the uterus
insemination.
(b) Either zygote or early embryo up to 8 (b) it develops from a non-fertilised egg
39 The test-tube baby programme cell stage (c) it is developed in a test-tube
(c) Embryo of 32 cell stage (d) it is developed through tissue culture
employs which one of the following
(d) Zygote only method
techniques? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(a) Intra cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
(b) Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI) In vitro fertilisation (IVF) or test-tube Patrick Stepote and Robert Edward first
(c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) baby technique involves fertilising one or time developed test-tube baby
(d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) more eggs outside the body and then technique in 1978. In certain cases,
transferring the fertilised eggs known as where normal fertilisation is not
Ans. (d) pre-embryos back into the uterus. possible, ovum from the female and the
The test-tube baby programme employs Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) is sperm from the male are mated in vitro.
the technique of in vitro fertilisation (IVF) an example of IVF. In this, the zygote or The zygote, later on is implanted in the
and Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer early embryos up to 8 blastomeres are uterus where further development into
(ZIFT) technique. ZIFT is a method used transferred into the Fallopian tube. If the baby take place.
to treat infertility in which an egg embryo has more than 8 blastomeres
fertilised in vitro (outside the body) is then it is transferred into uterus this is 44 Test-tube baby is one who
placed into a women’s Fallopian tube known as IUT. [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(oviduct).
(a) is born out of artificial insemination
It is an assisted reproductive procedure 42 Certain characteristic demographic (b) has undergone development in a
similar to IVF and embryo transfer, the
features of developing countries test-tube
difference being that zygote proembryo
is transferred into the Fallopian tube are [CBSE AIPMT 2004] (c) is born out of the technique of
fertilisation in vitro
instead of the uterus. Because the (a) high fertility, low or rapidly falling
fertilised egg (zygote) is directly (d) has been developed without
mortality rate, rapid population
transferred into the tubes the procedure fertilisation
growth and a very young age distribution
is also referred to as tubal embryo Ans. (c)
(b) high fertility, high density rapidly
transfer. Test-tube baby technique is a recent
rising mortality rate and a very young
solution to infertility. In this technique in
40 Medical Termination of Pregnancy age distribution
vitro fertilisation is done in which after
(MTP) is considered safe up to how (c) high infant mortality, low fertility viewing through a pencil thin laproscope
uneven population growth and a very a ripe egg is removed from a woman
many weeks of pregnancy? young age distribution
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] ovary.
(d) high mortality high density uneven The egg is kept in laboratory culture dish
(a) Eight weeks (b) Twelve weeks
population growth and a very old age and mixed with sperm from future
(c) Eighteen weeks (d) Six weeks
distribution father.
Ans. (b) The fertilised egg undergoes cleavage in
Ans. (a)
Intentional or voluntary termination of the laboratory dish and when it reaches
The characteristic demographic
pregnancy before full term is called the 8-celled stage, it is transferred into
features of developing countries is high
Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) the mothers uterus for implantation. A
fertility, low or rapidly falling mortality
or induced abortion. MTPs are considered normal baby can be born to such a
rate, rapid population growth and a very
relatively safe during the first trimester, mother.
young age distribution.
i.e. upto 12 weeks of pregnancy.
27
Principles of Inheritance
and Variation
58.
TOPIC 1 03 How many true breeding pea plant Ans. (c)

Mendelism varieties did Mendel select as pairs, The production of gametes by the
which were similar except in one parents, the formation of zygotes, the
01 The production of gametes by the character with contrasting traits? F1 and F2 plants can be understood
from a diagram called Punnett square.
parents, formation of zygote, the F1 [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
It was developed by a British
and F2 plants, can be understood (a) 2 (b) 14 (c) 8 (d) 4
geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett. It is a
from a diagram called [NEET 2021] Ans. (b) graphical representation to calculate
(a) Bullet square (b) Punch square Mendel (father of genetics) selected 14 the probability of all possible genotypes
(c) Punnett square (d) Net squ are true-breeding pea plant varieties, in of offspring in a genetic cross.
pairs, which were similar except for one
Ans. (c) character with contrasting traits. A true
06 In a marriage between male with
Punnett square is a tool that helps to breeding line refers to the plant that has
show all possible allelic combinations of undergone continuous self-pollination blood group A and female with
gametes in a cross of parents with and showed stable trait inheritance and blood group B, the progeny had
known genotypes in order to predict the expression for several generations. either blood group AB or B. What
probability of their offspring possessing
could be the possible genotype of
certain sets of alleles. For a cross 04 Identify the wrong statement with
involving two genes, a Punnett square is parents? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
reference to the gene ‘I’ that
still a good strategy. (a) IAi (Male) : IBIB (Female)
controls ABO blood groups.
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] (b) IAIA (Male) : IBIB (Female)
02 The number of contrasting
(a) A person will have only two of the (c) IAIA (Male) : IBi (Female)
characters studied by Mendel for his
three alleles (d) IAi (Male) : IBi (Female)
experiments was [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(a) 14 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 7 (b) WhenIA and IB are present together, Ans. (a)
they express same type of sugar The possible genotype of parents having
Ans. (d)
(c) Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar progeny with either blood group AB or B
Mendel conducted breeding experiments is IAi (male): IBIB(female)
on garden pea by selecting seven pairs (d) The gene (I) has three alleles
of contrasting characters. Luckily all Ans. (b) IA i ´ IB IB
these characters were related as A B
When I and I are present together, they
dominant and recessive and none of
express same type of sugar is wrong
them showed linakge. The seven pairs of
statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ I AI B I AI B I Bi I Bi
contrasting characters in pea plant were
that controls ABO blood group because Blood Blood Blood Blood
Characters of pea plant IA and IB are completely dominant overIO , group group group group
Contrasting Trait but whenIA and IB are present together, AB AB B B
Character they both express their own types of sugar
Dominant Recessive and thus behaving as codominant alleles.
Stem height Tall Dwarf 07 In Antirrhinum (Snapdragon), a red
Flower colour Violet White 05 The production of gametes by the flower was crossed with a white
Flower position Axial Terminal parents, the formation of zygotes, the flower and in F1 -generation, pink
Pod shape Full Constricted F1 andF2 plants, can be understood flowers were obtained.
Pod colour Green Yellow using [NEET (Odisha) 2019] When pink flowers were selfed, the
Seed shape Round Wrinkled (a) piediagram (b) apyramiddiagram F2 -generation showed white, red
Seed colour Yellow Green (c) Punnett square (d) Venn diagram and pink flowers.Choose the
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 241
incorrect statement from the (c) Franklin Stahl coined the term (a) 1856 - 1863
following [NEET (National) 2019]
‘linkage’ (b) 1840 - 1850
(d) Transduction was discovered by S. (c) 1857 - 1869
(a) Pink colour in F 1 is due to incomplete
Altman. (d) 1870 - 1877
dominance
1 2 1 Ans. (b)
(b) Ratio of F2 is (Red) : (Pink) : (White) Ans. (a)
4 4 4 Punnett Square is a checker-board used Mendel was a great Mathematician and
(c) Law of segregation does not apply in to show the result of a cross between was Austrian Monk. He became
this experiment two organisms. The checker board was interested in genetics and conducted
(d) This experiment does not follow the devised by a British geneticist, Regnald experiments in pea plant (Pisum
principle of dominance Punnett (1927). It depicts both genotypes sativum). He hybridised the contrasting
and phenotypes of the progeny. characters of the plant and conducted
Ans. (c)
Franklin Stahl with Matthew Meselson his experiments for more than 10 years
The statement that ‘law of segregation
does not apply in this experiment’ is proved thesemi-conservativereplicationof between 1856-1863; this experimental
incorrect because the law of segregation DNA.Spliceosome is formed during data was published in 1865.
applies universally. The reappearence of post-transcriptional changes in
parental (red and white) flowers in the eukaryotes. It is a complex, formed 12 Among the following characters,
F2 -generation also confirms, that law of between 5′ end (GU) and 3′ end (AG) of which one was not considered by
segregation applies in this experiment. intron to remove it.
Mendel in his experiments on pea?
Rest statements are correct. Transduction is a method of sexual [NEET 2017]
reproduction in bacteria. It involves the
(a) Stem – Tall or Dwarf
08 A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If transfer of foreign genes by means of
(b) Trichomes – Glandular or
the frequency of dominant allele A viruses. It was discovered by Zinder and
Non-glandular
is 0.4, then what will be the his teacher Lederberg (1952) in
(c) Seed – Green or Yellow
Salmonella typhimurium.
frequency of homozygous dominant, (d) Pod – Inflated or Constricted
heterozygous and homozygous 10 Which of the following Ans. (b)
recessive individuals in the characteristics represents Trichomes are the epidermal tissues
population? [NEET (National) 2019] ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in structure. When epidermal cells become
(a) 0.16(AA); 0.24(Aa); 0.36 (aa) humans? [NEET 2018] glandular hair, it is called trichome. This
(b) 0.16(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.36 (aa) character was not amongst the seven
1. Dominance characters of pea, which mendel
(c) 0.16(AA); 0.36(Aa); 0.48 (aa)
2. Codominance selected for his hybridisation
(d) 0.36(AA); 0.48(Aa); 0.16 (aa)
3. Multiple allele experiments.
Ans. (b)
4. Incomplete dominance
The frequency of homozygous dominant,
heterozygous and homozygous
5. Polygenic inheritance
recessive individuals would be 0.16 (AA); (a) 2, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Glandular (b) Stellate
0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa). The frequencies are (c) 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5
calculated as follows: Ans. (b)
Frequency of dominant allele (p) = 0.4 Dominance, codominance and multiple
(given)
alleles are the characteristics that
Frequency of recessive allele (q) represent ‘inheritance of blood groups’ in
= 1 − 0.4 = 0.6 (c) Urticating (d) Stinging
humans. ABO blood groups are
Frequency of homozygous dominant Different types of trichomes
determined by the gene I. There are
individuals (AA) = p2 = (0.4) = 0.16 multi ple (three) alleles; I A , I B and I 0 of
Frequency of heterozygous individual this gene. AlleleI A and I B are dominant 13 The genotypes of a husband and
(Aa) = 2pq over I 0 . However, whenI A and I B alleles wife are I AI B and I Ai. Among the
= 2 (0.4) (0.6) = 0.48 are present together, they show blood types of their children, how
Frequency of homozygous recessive codominance. many different genotypes and
individual (aa) Therefore, option (b) is correct. phenotypes are possible?
= q2 = (0.6)2 = 0.36 [NEET 2017]
11 Which one from those given below (a) 3 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
09 Select the correct statement. is the period of Mendel’s
[NEET 2018] (b) 3 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
hybridisation experiments? (c) 4 genotypes ; 3 phenotypes
(a) Spliceosomes take part in translation
[NEET 2017]
(b) Punnett square was developed by a (d) 4 genotypes ; 4 phenotypes
British scientist
Ans. (c) Code Ans. (d)

A cross between two individuals, one A B C D A gene shows codominance when both
with AB blood group and other with A (a) 2 3 4 1 alleles in heterozygous condition,
blood group will produce four genotypes (b) 4 1 2 3 express their traits independently
and three phenotypes. (c) 4 3 1 2 instead of showing dominant-recessive
(d) 2 1 4 3 relationship and such alleles are called
Parents Male Female codominant alleles.
Ans. (a)
Phenotype AB A
Dominance—Expression of only one 18 In his classic experiments on pea
Genotype IA IB IA i allele in a heterozygous organism. plants, Mendel did not use
Gametes IA ,IB IA ,i Codominance—Side by side full expression [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
of both alleles. F1 resembles both (a) seed colour (b) pod length
X parents.
(c) seed shape (d) flower position
IA IB Pleiotropy – Single gene can exhibit
multiple phenotypic expression, e.g. Ans. (b)
IA IA IA IA IB Pod length was not considered by
Phenylketonuria.
(A) (AB)
Polygenic inheritance—Many genes Mendel in his experiments. For his
i IA i IB i govern a single character, e.g. Human experiments, Mendel choose seven
(A) (B) skin colour. characters of pea plants which are
1. Seed colour
Offsprings Genotypes 4(IAIA , IAIB, IA i, IB i)
16 A tall true breeding garden pea 2. Seed shape
Phenotypes3 (A, B, AB) 3. Flower colour
plant is crossed with a dwarf true
breeding garden pea plant. When 4. Pod colour
14 A true breeding plant is 5. Pod shape
[NEET 2016, Phase II] the F 1 plants were selfed the
6. Flower position and
(a) one that is able to breed on its own resulting genotypes were in the
7. Plant height
(b) produced due to cross-pollination ratio of [NEET 2016, Phase I]
among unrelated plants (a) 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall heterozygous : Tall 19 A pleiotropic gene
(c) near homozygous and produces homozygous : Dwarf [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
offspring of its own kind (b) 3 : 1 :: Tall : Dwarf (a) is expressed only in primitive plants
(d) always homozygous recessive in its (c) 3 : 1 :: Dwarf : Tall (b) is a gene evolved during Pliocene
genetic constitution (d) 1 : 2 : 1 :: Tall homozygous : Tall (c) controls a trait only in combination
Ans. (c) heterozygous : Dwarf with another gene
A true breeding plant (pureline) has Ans. (d) (d) controls multiple traits in an individual
homozygous genes for a character (e.g. Parents – TT × tt Ans. (d)
TT for tall or tt for dwarf). It always (Tall) Tt (Dwarf)
produces offsprings which are true Pleiotropic gene is a gene that controls
F1-generation (Heterozygous tall) multiple traits is an individual. It is also
(pure) for its characters.
K-Pollen → On selfing called polyphenic gene, e.g.
T t phenylketonuria causing multiple
15 Match the terms in column I with Egg TT Tt adverse effects due to the mutation in a
their description in column II and (Tall) (Tall) single gene coding for enzyme
choose the correct option. T F2 -genera phenylalanine hydroxylase.
[NEET 2016, Phase I] Tt tt tion
(Tall) (Dwarf) 20 Fruit colour in squash is an
Column I Column II
t example of [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
A. Dominance 1. Many genes Phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1 [Tall : Dwarf] (a) recessive epistasis
govern a single
character Genotypic ratio ⇒1 : 2 : 1 (b) dominant epistasis
[Homozygous tall : Heterozygous tall : (c) complementary genes
B. Codominance 2. In a heterozygous Dwarf] (d) inhibitory genes
organism only one
allele expresses Ans. (b)
itself 17 A gene showing codominance has
Fruit colour in squash is an example of
[CBSE AIPMT 2015]
C. Pleiotropy 3. In a heterozygous dominant epistasis in which the
organism both (a) one allele dominant on the other dominant gene (epistatic gene) masks
alleles express (b) alleles tightly linked on the same the effect of other gene (recessive
themselves fully chromosome hypostatic gene).
(c) alleles that are recessive to each other Squash fruit appear white due to the
D. Polygenic 4. A single gene
inheritance influences many (d) Both alleles independently expressed epistatic effect of ‘W’ allele (white colour)
characters in the heterozygote over ‘G’ allele (green colour).
21 If two persons with ‘AB’ blood group (a) codominance (c) Alleles do not show any blending and
(b) dihybrid cross both the characters recover as such
marry and have sufficiently large
(c) monohybrid cross with complete in F2 -generation
number of children, these children (d) Factors occur in pairs
dominance
could be classified as ‘A’ blood
(d) monohybrid cross with incomplete Ans. (c)
group : ‘AB’ blood group : ‘B’ blood dominance Out of the following statement (c) is
group in 1 : 2 : 1 ratio. Modern
Ans. (d) incorrect because the law of dominance
technique of protein does not occur universally. After Mendel
Monohybrid cross with incomplete
electrophoresis reveals presence dominance shows both genotypic and several cases were recorded by
of both ‘A’ and ‘B’ type proteins in phenotypic ratio as same (1 : 2 : 1). scientists, where a clear deviation from
‘AB’ blood group individuals. This is AA aa law of dominance was seen.
Parents
an example of [NEET 2013] Red White Such a deviation may be seen in the form
of incomplete dominance or blending
(a) codominance
A a Gametes inheritance and co-dominance.
(b) incomplete dominance
Where, F1 hybrids exhibited a mixture or
(c) partial dominance Aa F1-Generation blending of character of two parents, the
(d) complete dominance Pink case is considered as that of incomplete
Ans. (a) dominance or blending inheritance. It
A a Gametes simply means that two genes of
In codominance both alleles of a pair
allelomorphic pair are not related as
express themselves fully in F1 hybrid. It is a
contrary to the situation seen in Aa A dominant or recessive, but each of them
A Pink a expresses itself partially. In the case of 4
incomplete dominance, where traits AA aa
Red White F2-generation O’clock plant, when plants with red
express themselves only partially. This is Aa flowers are crossed with plants having
not the example of partial dominance or Pink white flower, the F1 hybrids bear pink
complete dominance Gen
flower. When these pink flowers are self
AB → IAIB → Antigen A Genotypic ratio – 1 (AA) : 2 (Aa) : 1 (aa) pollinated, they develop red, pink and
Genotype
+ Antigen B → Codominance Phenotypic ratio – 1 (Red) : 2 (Pink) : 1(white) white flowers in the ratio of 1 : 2 : 1
respectively.
22 Which Mendelian idea is depicted 23 ABO blood groups in humans are
by a cross in which the controlled by the gene I. It has 25 The genotype of a plant showing
F1 -generation resembles both the three alleles − I A , I B and i. Since the dominant phenotype can be
parents? [NEET 2013]
there are three different alleles, six determined by [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) Incomplete dominance different genotypes are possible. (a) test cross
(b) Law of dominance How many phenotypes can occur? (b) dihybrid cross
(c) Inheritance of one gene [CBSE AIPMT 2010] (c) pedigree analysis
(d) Codominance (a) Three (b) One (d) back cross
Ans. (d) (c) Four (d) Two Ans. (a)
In codominance, both alleles of a pair Ans. (c) In genetics, a test cross, first introduced
express themselves fully in F1 hybrid, so, by Gregor J Mendel, is used to determine
The ABO blood group system has at least
it resembles both the parents. In if an individual exhibiting a dominant
6 genotypes. On the basis of presence or
incomplete dominance, the two genes of trait is homozygous or heterozygous for
absence of antigens and antibodies, four
allelomorphic pair are not related as that trait. More simply, test cross
blood groups (phenotypes) have been
dominant or recessive, but each of them determines the genotype of an individual
differentiated—A, B, AB and O blood
express itself partially. Law of with a dominant phenotype. In some
groups. In ABO blood group system,
dominance states that when a cross is sources, the test cross is defined as
inheritance of grouping is controlled by a
made between two homozygous being a type of back cross between the
single autosomal gene on chromosome 9
individuals considering contrasting trait recessive homozygote andF1-generation.
with three major alleles A, B and O (
of simple character then the trait that
IA , IB and IO ).
appear in F1 hybrids is called dominant. 26 In pea plants, yellow seeds are
Inheritance of one gene is based on dominant to green. If a
crossing between single traits. 24 Which one of the following cannot
be explained on the basis of heterozygous yellow seeded plant
23 F2 -generation in a Mendelian cross Mendel’s Law of Dominance? is crossed with a green seeded
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] plant, what ratio of yellow and
showed that both genotypic and green seeded plants would you
(a) The discrete unit controlling a
phenotypic ratios are same as 1 : 2 particular character is called a factor expect in F1 -generation?
: 1. It represents a case of (b) Out of one pair of factors one is [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] dominant, and the other recessive (a) 50 : 50 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 1 : 3 (d) 3 : 1
Ans. (a) (c) crossing theF1 hybrid with a double 32 Phenotype of an organism is the
recessive genotype
In the given cross the ratio is 50 : 50 of result of
yellow and green seeded plants in (d) crossing between two genotypes with [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
F 1 -generation. dominant trait
(a) mutations and linkages
(yellow) (green) Ans. (c) (b) cytoplasmic effects and nutrition
Yy yy The test cross involves the crossing of F1 (c) environmental changes and sexual
hybrid with a double recessive genotypic dimorphism
Y y y y parent. By test cross, the heterozygosity (d) genotype and environmental
and homozygosity of the organism can interactions
be tested.
Yy Yy yy yy Thus, the offspring will be 100%
Ans. (d)
Yellow Green dominant, if the individual which crossed Phenotype is the observable
50% 50% with recessive parent, i.e. (tt) was characteristics or the total appearance
homozygous dominant and ratio will be of an organism. It is determined by its
27 A common test to find the 50% dominant and 50% recessive if the genes, the relationships between the
genotype of a hybrid is by individual was heterozygous dominant. alleles and by the interaction during
In dihybrid test cross, ratio will be 1:1:1:1. development between its genetic
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
constitution (genotype) and the
(a) crossing of one F2 progeny with male
parent
30 How many different kinds of environment.
(b) crossing of one F2 progeny with gametes will be produced by a
female parent plant having the genotype 33 In order to find out the different
(c) studying the sexual behaviour of AABbCC ? types of gametes produced by a
F1-progenies [CBSE AIPMT 2006] pea plant having the genotype
(d) crossing of one F1 progeny with male (a) Three (b) Four AaBb, it should be crossed to a
parent (c) Nine (d) Two plant with the genotype
Ans. (d)
Test cross, i.e. crossing of F1-progeny to The types of gametes produced by a (a) aaBB
the recessive parent is used to find the plant depend upon the number of (b) AaBb
genotype of the progeny. heterozygous pair. (c) AABB
Number of types of gametes = 2n (d) aabb
28 A human male produces sperms n = number of heterozygous pair21 = 2 Ans. (d)
with the genotypes AB, Ab, aB and The gametes are – ABC and AbC. In the given question AaBb should be
ab pertaining to two diallelic crossed with aabb. Scientists perform
characters in equal proportions. 31 In Mendel’s experiments with test cross to find out the different types
What is the corresponding garden pea, round seed shape (RR) of gametes or the genotype of an
genotype of this person? was dominant over wrinkled seeds unknown individual. Test cross is
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (rr), yellow cotyledon (YY) was performed always between the F1
(a) AaBb (b) AaBB heterozygous plants and pure recessive
dominant over green cotyledon (yy).
(c) AABb (d) AABB (homozygous) parent plant. So, in the
What are the expected phenotypes given case AaBb should be crossed with
Ans. (a) in the F2 -generation of the cross aabb.
The corresponding genotype of person RRYY × rryy ? [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
will be AaBb. (a) Only round seeds with green 34 In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant
A a cotyledons over yellow fruit (r) and tallness (T)
(b) Only wrinkled seeds with yellow is dominant over shortness (t). If a
cotyledons plant with RRTt genotype is
B AB aB
(c) Only wrinkled seeds with green
crossed with a plant that is rrtt
cotyledons
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(d) Round seeds with yellow cotyledons
b Ab ab Genotype and wrinkled seeds with yellow (a) 25% will be tall with red fruit
of gametes cotyledons (b) 50% will be tall with red fruit
(c) 75% will be tall with red fruit
Ans. (d)
(d) all of the offspring will tall with red
29 Test cross involves [CBSE AIPMT When a cross (dihybrid) is made between fruit
2006] plants bearing round yellow (RRYY) and
wrinkled green (rryy) seeds, all the plants Ans. (a)
(a) crossing between two genotypes with
in F1-generation are with yellow round In the given experimnet 50% will be tall
recessive trait
seeds (showing the genotype RrYy). The with red fruits. It can be explanied as
(b) crossing between two F1 hybrids phenotype in F2 will be as follows
RRTt rrtt Ans. (b) 40 In his experiment, Mendel obtained

(red tall) (yellow dwarf) As a result of studies by S Blixt, it is now wrinkled pea. The wrinkling was due
known that Mendel’s seven selected to deposition of sugar instead of
characters are located on four
starch. This happened due to the
chromosomes. Of these, two characters
RT Rt rt rt Gametes are located on chromosome number 1, enzyme [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
three of chromosome number 4 and one (a) amylase
each on chromosome number 5 and 7. (b) invertase
+ rt rt F1 -generation
(c) diastase
RT RrTt RrTt 38 Which one of the following traits of (d) absence of starch-branching enzyme
Rt Rrtt Rrtt garden pea studied by Mendel was Ans. (d)
a recessive feature? In round seeds (RR/Rr) Starch-Branching
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] Enzyme-1 (SBE-1) is found but is absent
Conclusion : (a) Green pod colour from wrinkled seeds. In rr seeds, a small
1. All plants are red. (b) Round seed shape DNA segment interferes with SBE-1
2. 50% are red tall. (c) Axial flower position activity so that starch is not formed and
3. 50% are red dwarf. (d) Green seed colour free sugar gets accumulated. Resulting
high osmotic pressure in rr seeds leads
35 A male human is heterozygous for Ans. (d) to shrinkage and wrinkling.
autosomal genes A and B and is Green seed colour was a recessive
also hemizygous for haemophilic character in Mendel’s experiment. When 41 Which of these do not follow
a pair of contrasting characters are independent assortment?
gene h. What proportion of his crossed together thenF1-generation has [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
sperms will be abh? only one type of character. This (a) Genes on non-homologous
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] expressed character is known as chromosomes and absence of linkage
1 1 dominant character while the character
(a) (b) (b) Genes on homologous chromosomes
8 32 which could not express inF1-generation
is known as recessive character. In pea (c) Linked genes on same chromosome
1 1 plants, tallness, round seed, yellow seed, (d) Unlinked genes on same chromosome
(c) (d)
16 4 purple flower, green pod, inflated pod Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) and axial flower are dominant over Genes which are ‘linked’ and are situated
dwarfness, wrinkled seed, green seed, on same chromosome, cannot ‘separate’
The genotype of human male in question white flower, yellow pod, constricted
must be Aa Bb Xh Y. during gametes formation and hence,
pod and terminal flower respectively. cannot assort independently.
Hence 2 × 2 × 2 = 8 types of gametes
would be formed. AB Xh , ABY, aB Xh . 39 A plant of F1 -generation has
aBY, Ab Xh , AbY, ab Xh , abY. 42 Two non-allelic genes produce the
genotype ‘AABbCC’. On selfing of new phenotype when present
Hence, 1/8 proportion of his sperms
this plant, the phenotypic ratio in together but fail to do so
would be abh.
F2 -generation will be independently, it is called
[CBSE AIPMT 2002]
36 Two crosses between the same (a) epistasis [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
pair of genotypes or phenotypes in (a) 3 : 1
(b) polygene
(b) 1 : 1
which the sources of the gametes (c) non-complementary gene
(c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
are reversed in one cross, is known (d) 27 : 9 : 9 : 9 : 3 : 3 : 3 : 1
(d) complementary gene
as [CBSE AIPMT 2003] Ans. (d)
Ans. (a)
(a) dihybrid cross (b) reverse cross In complementary genes, two separate
Since, AABbCC contains only one
(c) test cross (d) reciprocal cross pair of genes interact to produce the
heterozygous allelic pair ‘Bb’, the cross phenotype in such a way that neither of
Ans. (d) would behave as monohybrid cross the dominant genes is expressive unless
Since genotypes/phenotypes of both leading to 3 : 1 phenotypic ratio in F2 . the other one is absent.
parents are same—only sources of AABbCC AABbCC F1 -generation
gametes are reversed, these crosses 43 Ratio of complementary genes is
are called reciprocal crosses. [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
ABC AbC ABC AbC Gametes
37 The genes controlling the seven (a) 9 : 3 : 4
Selfing
pea characters studied by Mendel (b) 12 : 3 : 1
are now known to be located on (c) 9 : 3 : 3 : 4
ABC AbC
(d) 9 : 7
how many different chromosomes? ABC AABBCC AABbCC F2 -generation
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
AbC AABbCC
Ans. (d)
AAbbCC
(a) Five (b) Four In case of complementary genes, the
(c) Seven (d) Six Phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1. ratio of 9 : 7 is obtained in
F2 -generation. This was first discovered (a) He would have mapped the AABB × aabb — Parents
by Bateson and Punnett. chromosome AB ↓ ab — Gametes
Complementary genes are those genes (b) He would have discovered blending or AaBb — F1-generation
which express themself when present incomplete dominance Selfing — F2 -generation
together. None of these two get (c) He would not have discovered the law
1BB — 1 AABB
expressed yourself when present alone. of independent assortment
1 AA 2 Bb — 2 AABb
(d) He would have discovered sex-linkage
44 Which one of the following 1 bb — 1 Aabb
Ans. (c) 1 BB — 2AaBB
characters studied by Mendel in If Mendel would have studied seven
garden pea was found to be 2 Aa 2Bb — 4AaBb
traits in 12 chromosomes instead of 14
1 bb — 2Aabb
dominant? [CBSE AIPMT 2000] he would not have discovered
independent assortment. 1 BB — 1 aaBB
(a) Green seed colour
1 aa 2Bb — 2aaBb
(b) Terminal flower position
(c) Green pod colour 48 When a single gene influences 1bb — aabb
(d) Wrinkled seed more than one traits it is called So, the ratio of AABB, AABb, AaBB and
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] AaBb will be 1 : 2 : 2 : 4.
Ans. (c)
(a) pleiotropy (b) epistasis
Green pod colour was a dominant (c) pseudodominance 51 A cross between pure tall pea plant
character in Mendel’s garden pea
experiment.
(d) None of these with green pods and dwarf pea
Ans. (a) plant with yellow pods will produce
45 Hybridisation between Tt × tt gives Pleiotropy is the condition in which a dwarf F2 plants out of 16
single gene influences more than one [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
rise to the progeny of ratio
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] traits, e.g. gene for single cell (a) 9 (b) 3
produces anaemia as well as (c) 4 (d) 1
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1 : 2 : 1
resistance to malaria. Ans. (c)
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 4 : 1
This is an example of dihybrid cross
Ans. (a) 49 Alleles that produce independent because two characters are being studied
Offsprings with genotypes Tt effects in their heterozygous simultaneously in which dwarfness is a
(heterozygous tall) and tt (homozygous condition are called recessive characters, so in
dwarf) are produced in the ratio of 1 : 1. F2 -generation 4 plants will be dwarf out
[CBSE AIPMT 1996]
of 16.
46 How many types of genetically (a) codominant alleles
different gametes will be produced (b) epistatic alleles
52 A child of blood group O cannot
by a heterozygous plant having (c) complementary alleles
have parents of blood groups
(d) supplementary alleles
genotype AABbCc? [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] Ans. (a) (a) AB and AB/O
(a) Two (b) Four Codominant alleles produce (b) A and B
(c) Six (d) Nine independent effects in their (c) B and B
heterozygous condition. Both the (d) O and O
Ans. (b)
genes produce their independent
First pair AA is homozygous hence, it will Ans. (a)
contribute only one type of gene to
effect.
Blood group of the child is determined by
gametes, Bb will yield two types of allelic genes, i.e. I A I B and I O in which I A
gametes—B and b similarly, Cc will yield 50 In a dihybrid cross AABB × aabb,
and I B are dominant over I O , so if one of
two types of gametes—C and c. Hence, F2 progeny of AABB, AABb, AaBB the parent either mother or father is of
1 × 2 × 2 = 4 types of gametes would be and AaBb occurs in the ratio of blood group AB, then she or he will have
produced having the genotypes [CBSE AIPMT 1994] both genes, i.e I A and I B and child of
ABC, ABc, AbC and Abc. (a) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (b) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 such parent cannot have blood group O.
(c) 1 : 2 : 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 2 : 2 : 4
47 If Mendel had studied the seven 53 Which of the following is suitable
traits using a plant with 12 Ans. (d)
In a dihybrid cross the genotypic ratio
for experiment on linkage?
chromosomes instead of 14, in [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
can be represented as
what way would his interpretation follows—assuming a cross between (a) aaBB × aaBB (b) AABB × aabb
have been different? AABB and aabb (c) AaBb × AaBb (d) AAbb × AaBB
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
Ans. (b) 57 Segregation of Mendelian factors 61 The allele which is unable to

AABB × aabb is suitable for experiment (no linkage, no crossing over) express its effect in the presence
on linkage. Linkage may be defined as occurs during [CBSE AIPMT 1992] of another is called
the tendency of two genes of the same [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
chromosome to remain together in the
(a) anaphase-I
(b) anaphase-II (a) codominant
process of inheritance.
(c) diplotene (b) supplementary
54 Mendel studied inheritance of seven (d) metaphase-I (c) complementary
pairs of traits in pea which can have Ans. (a) (d) recessive
21 possible combinations. If you are At the end of anaphase-I, two groups of Ans. (d)
told that in one of these chromosomes (one at each pole) are In heterozygous condition where both
combinations, independent produced. Each such group is having half the contrasting alleles are present only
the original number of chromosomes one allele is able to express, called
assortment is not observed in later present in the parent nucleus. So, dominant, while other which remain
studies, your reaction will be anaphase-I results in the reduction of suppressed is called recessive.
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] chromosome number to half and
(a) independent assortment principle segregation of Mendelian factors. 62 The contrasting pairs of factors in
may be wrong
Mendelian crosses are called
(b) Mendel might not have studied all the 58 An allele is dominant if it is
combinations (a) multiple alleles [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
expressed in
(c) it is impossible (b) allelomorphs
[CBSE AIPMT 1992, 2002]
(d) later studies may be wrong (c) alloloci
(a) both homozygous and heterozygous
states (d) paramorphs
Ans. (b)
Mendel’s law of independent assortment (b) second generation Ans. (b)
is applicable to only those genes which (c) heterozygous combination Two allelomorphs are the different
are located on different chromosomes, (d) homozygous combination forms of a gene which are responsible
so if in one of the combination for different expression of same
Ans. (a) characters, e.g. for colour of flower is R
independent assortment is not observed
that means Mendel might not have Dominant allele expresses itself both in and r.
studied all the combinations. homozygous and in heterozygous states.
63 First geneticist/father of genetics
55 A polygenic inheritance in human 59 A gene pair hides the effect of was [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
beings is another. The phenomenon is (a) De Vries
[CBSE AIPMT 1992, 95, 99]
[CBSE AIPMT 1993, 99, 2006, 07] (b) Mendel
(a) epistasis (b) dominance (c) Darwin
(a) skin colour
(c) mutation (d) None of these (d) Morgan
(b) phenylketonuria
(c) colour blindness Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
(d) sickle-cell anaemia Epistasis is the phenomenon by which Mendel for his great contribution in
a gene suppresses the phenotypic genetics is now known as father of
Ans. (a)
expression of a non-allelic gene. genetics.
Human skin colour is controlled by
polygenic effect atleast by three
separate genes. Skin colour is
60 RR (red) Antirrhinum is crossed 64 Mendel’s last law is
determined by cumulative genes and with WW (white) one. Offspring RW [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
this hypothesis was designed by are pink. This is an example of (a) segregation
Devenport and Devenport in 1910. [CBSE AIPMT 1991] (b) dominance
(a) dominant-recessive (c) independent assortment
56 An organism with two identical (b) incomplete dominance (d) polygenic inheritance
alleles is [CBSE AIPMT 1992] (c) hybrid
Ans. (c)
(a) dominant (d) supplementary genes
Mendel’s law of independent assortment
(b) hybrid Ans. (b) is related with inheritance of two or
(c) heterozygous The pink colour of the offspring is an more genes at one time. The distribution
(d) homozygous example of incomplete dominance. In of genes in the gametes and in the
Ans. (d) which the expression of the characters progeny of subsequent generation is
in F1 individual is intermediate of the independent of each other.
An organism with two identical alleles
factors as found in homozygous state.
is homozygous, e.g. rr, tt, RR, TT, etc.
65 A dihybrid condition is (c) His knowledge of Biology (d) Non-sister chromatids of

[CBSE AIPMT 1991] (d) Consideration of one character at one non-homologous chromosomes at
time pachytene stage of prophase I
(a) tt Rr (b) Tt rr
(c) tt rr (d) Tt Rr Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
Ans. (d) Mendel took one trait at a time for his Crossing over takes place between
experiments, this contributed a lot to his non-sister chromatids of homologous
Dihybrid condition means simultaneous
success. chromosomes at pachytene stage of
transmission of two pairs of genes. So,
prophase-I. This stage of prophase-I in
dihybrid condition is TtRr.
meiosis is characterised by the
66 Blue eye colour is recessive to TOPIC 2 appearance of recombination nodules,

the site at which crossing over occurs
brown eye colour. A brown eyed Chromosomal Theory of between non-sister chromatids of the
man whose mother was blue eyed Inheritance and Linkage homologous chromosomes.
marries a blue eyed women. The
children shall be [CBSE AIPMT 1991] 72 What map unit (Centimorgan) is
69 Chromosomal theory of inheritance adopted in the construction of
(a) both blue eyed and brown eyed 1 : 1
was proposed by [NEET (Oct.) 2020] genetic maps?
(b) all brown eyed
(a) Sutton and Boveri [NEET (National) 2019]
(c) all blue eyed
(b) Bateson and Punnett (a) A unit of distance between two
(d) blue eyed and brown eyed 3 : 1
(c) TH Morgan expressed genes representing 100%
Ans. (a) (d) Watson and Crick cross over
A brown eyed man, whose mother was (b) A unit of distance between genes on
blue eyed must have the genotype Bb Ans. (a) chromosomes, representing 1% cross
where B represents brown eye colour Chromosomal theory of inheritance was over
and b represents blue eye colour. When proposed by Sutton and Boveri (c) A unit of distance between genes on
a man of such genotype will marry to a independently in 1902. chromosomes, representing 50%
blue eyed woman, the children shall be The two workers found a close similarity cross over
(brown eye) (blue eye) between the transmission of hereditary (d) A unit of distance between two
Bb bb Parents traits and behaviour of chromosomes expressed genes representing 10%
while passing from one generation to the cross over
B b b b Gametes
next through gametes. Ans. (b)
70 Experimental verification of the In the construction of genetic maps,
map unit or centimorgan is a unit or
chromosomal theory of inheritance distance between genes on
Bb Bb bb bb Genotype
was done by [NEET (Sep.) 2020] chromosomes, representing 1%
(blue eyed of (a) Sutton (b) Boveri crossover.
(brown eyed
children)
progenies (c) Morgan (d) Mendel i. e. 1 map unit = 1% crossover
children)
Ans. (c) Hence, the genetic distance between
Experimental verification of the genes is based on average number of
67 Multiple alleles control inheritance cross over frequency between them.
chromosomal theory of inheritance was
done by Thomas Hunt Morgan. Sutton
(a) phenylketonuria and Boveri proposed chromosomal 73 The frequency of recombination
(b) colour blindness theory of inheritance but it was between gene pairs on the same
(c) sickle-cell anaemia experimentally verified by TH Morgan. chromosome as a measure of the
(d) blood groups According to this theory, genes are the
distance between genes was
units of heredity and are found in the
Ans. (d) explained by [NEET (National) 2019]
chromosomes.
Multiple alleles control inheritance of (a) Gregor J Mendel
blood groups in human. A, B, O blood 71 Crossing over takes place between (b) Alfred Sturtevant
group system is found in humans where
the allele I A for A antigen is codominant
which chromatids and in which stage (c) Sutton-Boveri
with the allele I B for the B antigen. of the cell cycle? (d) TH Morgan
Both I A and I B are completely dominant [NEET (Odisha) 2019] Ans. (b)
to the allele I O . (a) Non-sister chromatids of Alfred Sturtevant was the first to explain
Hierarchy of dominance relationships is non-homologous chromosomes at the concept of chromosomal mapping. It
symbolised as (I A = I B ) > I O . zygotene stage of prophase I is drawn on the basis of recombination
(b) Non-sister chromatids of frequency between gene pairs on the
homologous chromosomes at same chromosome. This frequency is
68 Which contribute to the success of pachytene stage of prophase I directly proportional to the distance
Mendel? [CBSE AIPMT 1988] (c) Non-sister chromatids of between these two genes.
(a) Qualitative analysis of data homologous chromosomes at It can be used to determine the exact
(b) Observation of distinct inherited traits zygotene stage of prophase I location of a gene on the chromosome.
74 In a test cross involving F1 dihybrid (a) The genes may be on different (b) segregation in the expected 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
chromosomes ratio
flies, more parental-type offspring (b) The genes are tightly linked (c) segregation in 3 : 1 ratio
were produced than the (c) The genes show independent (d) higher number of the parental types
recombinant type offspring. This assortment
Ans. (d)
indicates [NEET 2016, Phase I] (d) If the genes are present on the same
chromosome, they undergo more Higher number of the parental types
(a) chromosomes failed to separate formed when RRYY and rryy genotypes
during meiosis than one crossovers in every meiosis
are hybridised giving the condition that R
(b) the two genes are linked and present Ans. (b) and Y genes are closely linked.
on the same chromosome Out of the given statements (b) is incorrect Law of independent assortment does
(c) both of the characters are controlled because the tightly linked genes on not applicable when the gene of
by more than one gene chromosomes show 100% parental types different character occupy the same
(d) the two genes are located on two and 0% recombinants. Two genes that homologous chromosome i.e. are linked
different chromosomes undergo independent assortment gene.
Ans. (b) indicated by a recombinant frequency of
50% are either on non- homologous 80 In which mode of inheritance do
When two genes in a dihybrid cross are
chromosomes or located far apart in a
situated on the same chromosome, the
single chromosome.
you expect more maternal
proportion of parental gene combinations influence among the offspring?
are much higher than the non-parental As the distance between two genes
[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
or recombinant type as linked genes are increases, crossover frequency
increases. More recombinant gametes, (a) Autosomal
inherited together in offspring.
fewer parental gametes. (b) Cytoplasmic
75 The mechanism that causes a gene (c) Y-linked
to move from one linkage group to 78 Select the correct statement from (d) X-linked
another is called the ones given below with respect
Ans. (b)
[NEET 2016, Phase II] to dihybrid cross.
The more maternal influence can be
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) inversion (b) duplication expected in the cytoplasmic inheritance,
(c) translocation (d) crossing over (a) Tightly linked genes on the same i.e. the inheritance of genes contained in
chromosome show higher the cytoplasm of a cell, rather than the
Ans. (c) recombinations nucleus.
Translocation is the process causing a (b) Genes far apart on the same The reason is that the female
gene to move from one linkage group to chromosome show very few reproductive cell or the egg has a large
another. It is the separation of a recombinations amount of cytoplasm containing many
chromosome segment and its union to a (c) Genes loosely linked on the same such organelles which contain their own
non-homologous chromosome. It is of chromosome show similar genes and can reproduce independently,
two types–simple and reciprocal. In recombinations as the tightly linked e.g. mitochondria and chloroplast and
simple translocation one chromosome ones which are consequently incorporated
shows deletion or deficiency while a (d) Tightly linked genes on the same into the cytoplasm of all the cells of the
nonhomologous chromosome comes to chromosome show very few embryo.
have an additional segment. In reciprocal recombinations
translocation two non- homologous The male reproductive cells (sperm or
chromosomes exchange segments Ans. (d) pollen) consist almost solely of a
between themselves to create new Morgan and his group found that when nucleus. Cytoplasmic organelles are
linkagegroupsinboththechromosomes. genes were grouped on the same thus, not inherited from the male parent.
Hence, option (c) is correct. chromosome, some genes were very This is why, the cytoplasmic inheritance
tightly linked (showed very low is also called maternal inheritance.
76 The term “linkage” was coined by recombination), while others were A gene located in the X-chromosome is
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] loosely linked (showed higher said to be X-linked and its inheritance is
(a) TH Morgan (b) T Boveri recombination). called X-linked inheritance. In this, a
(c) G Mendel (d) W Sutton Recombination is a process of male transmits his X-chromosome only
rearrangement of genes during meiosis to his daughters while a female
Ans. (a) so that a gamete contains a haploid transmits one of her X-chromosomes to
The term linkage was coined by TH genotype with a new gene combination. the offspring of both sexes.
Morgan. He carried out several dihybrid
crosses in Drosophila to study genes that 79 Two genes R and Y are located very 81 The recessive genes located on
were sex-linked. He described the physical close on the chromosomal linkage X-chromosome in humans are
association of genes on a chromosome.
map of maize plant. When RRYY always [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
77 Which of the following statements and rryy genotypes are hybridised, (a) lethal
is not true of two genes that show then F2 segregation will show (b) sublethal
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (c) expressed in males
50% recombination frequency?
[NEET 2013] (a) higher number of the recombinant (d) expressed in females
types
Ans. (c) 85 The linkage map of X-chromosome 88 Genetic map is one that
The recessive genes located on of fruit fly has 66 units, with yellow [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
X-chromosome in humans are always body gene (y) at one end and (a) shows the stages during the cell
expressed in males because a female division
may be homozygous or heterozygous
bobbed hair (b) gene at the other
(b) shows the distribution of various
while male is always hemizygous (i.e. end. The recombination frequency
species in a region
only one allele is present). Haemophilia, between these two genes (y and b) (c) establishes sites of the genes on a
colour blindness are some human diseases should be [CBSE AIPMT 2003] chromosome
which are frequently found in males. (a) ≤ 50% (b) 100% (d) establishes the various stages in
(c) 66% (d) > 50% gene evolution
82 Extranuclear inheritance is a
consequence of presence of genes Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
in [CBSE AIPMT 2004] The actual distance between two genes Genetic map is a diagram which shows
is said to be equivalent to the the relative position of genes on a
(a) mitochondria and chloroplasts percentage of crossing over between chromosome. Strutevant in 1911
(b) endoplasmic reticulum and these two genes. Since, the two genes prepared the first genetic map of two
mitochondria lie at the ends of the chromosome, there chromosomes of fruit fly.
(c) ribosomes and chloroplast are 100% chances of their segregation
(d) lysosomes and ribosomes during crossing over. 89 Genes for cytoplasmic male
Ans. (a) sterility in plants are generally
Extranuclear or extrachromosomal or 86 When a cluster of genes show located in [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
cytoplasmic or organellar inheritance is linkage behaviour they (a) nuclear genome
a consequence of presence of genes in [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
(b) cytosol
mitochondria and chloroplast. (a) do not show independent assortment (c) chloroplast genome
Extrachromosomal units function either (b) induce cell division (d) mitochondrial genome
independently or in collaboration with (c) do not show a chromosome map
nuclear genetic system. (d) show recombination during meiosis
Ans. (d)
Mitochondria are originated from
83 Lack of independent assortment of Ans. (a) pre-existing mitochondria. These are
two genes A and B in fruit fly Linked genes do not show independent semi-autonomous, living, organelles
Drosophila is due to assortment because they are located on present in all eukaryotic cells. These
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
the same chromosome. But genes which contain DNA (mtDNA). The available
are located on the same chromosomes evidences show that the genes located
(a) repulsion (b) recombination (called linked genes) do not assort in mtDNA control the cytoplasmic male
(c) linkage (d) crossing over independently. Such type of genes are sterility.
Ans. (c) called linked genes and this
TH Morgan (1910) explained the lack of phenomenon is called as linkage. 90 There are three genes a, b, c,
independent assortment in Drosophila percentage of crossing over
due to the linkage. When genes closely 87 In recent years, DNA sequences between a and b is 20%, b and c is
present adhere or link together in a (nucleotide sequence) of mtDNA 28% and a and c is 8%. What is the
group and transmitted as a single unit, and Y-chromosomes were sequence of genes on
the phenomenon is called linkage. It chromosome? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
stops the process of independent considered for the study of human
(a) b, a, c (b) a, b, c
assortment. Incomplete linkage is evolution, because
(c) a, c, b (d) None of these
broken down due to the crossing over. [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
(a) their structure is known in greater Ans. (a)
84 Pattern baldness, moustaches and detail According to the given question the
beard in human males are (b) they can be studied from the samples sequence of gene son chromosome are
examples of [CBSE AIPMT 2003] of fossil remains b, a, c. 8%
20%
(a) sex differentiating traits (c) they are small and therefore, easy to
study
(b) sex determining traits b a c
(d) they are uniparental in origin and do
(c) sex linked traits
not take part in recombination 28%
(d) sex limited traits
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) 91 A and B genes are linked. What
Wilson and Sarich choose mitochondrial
Sex limited traits are those which are
DNA (mtDNA) for the study of maternal shall be the genotype of progeny in
limited to one sex only. Moustaches, a cross between AB/ab and ab/ab?
line inheritance. While Y-chromosomes
beard are found in human males only. It [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
were considered for the study of human
was suggested on the basis of statistical
evolution particularly male domain. It is (a) AAbb and aabb
analysis that premature baldness is
possible because they are uniparental in (b) AaBb and aabb
controlled by a dominant gene, which
origin and do not take part in (c) AABB and aabb
expresses only in the presence of a
recombination.
certain level of male hormone (androgen). (d) None of these
Ans. (b) Ans. (d) specific gametes while female produces

Linked genes occur on the same Chromosome mapping is based on two only one type of gametes, i.e. female
chromosome and do not separate during genetic principles specific. As male produces two types of
inheritance (complete linkage). gametes in equal proportion. There is an
(a) The frequency of crossing over
equal opportunity to getting a male or
AB ab × ab ab between two genes is directly
female offspring.
proportional to the distance
between them in the chromosome. 99 After crossing two plants, the
ab ab (b) Genes are arranged in a linear order progenies are found to be male
+ in the chromosome.
AB AaBb AaBb sterile. This phenomenon is found
50 map unit distance between the genes
ab aabb aabb is quite enough to change the cis
to be maternally inherited and is
arrangment of dominant genes into trans. due to some genes which are
Genotype is AaBb and aabb present in
So, there is no fixed linkage present. [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) nucleus (b) chloroplast
92 Extranuclear inheritance occurs in 96 Two linked genes a and b show (c) mitochondria (d) cytoplasm
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
20% recombination. The Ans. (c)
(a) Killer Paramecium
individuals of a dihybrid cross Factors responsible for cytoplasmic
(b) Killer Amoeba
between ++/++ × ab/ab shall show male sterility are located in
(c) Euglena
(d) Hydra
gametes [CBSE AIPMT 1989] mitochondrial DNA. Mitochondria are
(a) ++80 : ab : 20 found only in eukaryotic cells.
Ans. (a) They contain a single circular double
(b) ++50 : ab : 50
Extranuclear inheritance or cytoplasmic stranded DNA molecule (mtDNA) and
(c) ++ 40 : ab 40 : + a 10 : + b : 10
inheritance is the inheritance of the mitochondria of female parent are
characters of only one parent (generally (d) ++ 30 : ab 30 : + a 20 : + b : 20
transferred to progeny during fertilisation.
the female parent). e.g. some strains of Ans. (c)
Paramecium called killer strain. The gametes of a dihybrid cross 100 When two genetic loci produce
between ++/++ × ab/ab will be identical phenotypes in cis and
93 Crossing over in diploid organism is ++ 40 : ab40 : +a10 : + b : 10 trans position, they are considered
responsible for [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
to be [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(a) dominance of genes 97 Crossing over in diploid organism is (a) pseudoalleles (b) different genes
(b) linkage between genes responsible for [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (c)multiplealleles (d)partsofsamegene
(c) segregation of alleles
(a) dominance of genes Ans. (a)
(d) recombination of linked alleles
(b) linkage between genes
Pseudoalleles are closely placed genes
Ans. (d) (c) segregation of alleles producing related phenotypic effect
Crossing over in diploid organism is (d) recombination of linked alleles which is distinguishable only through a
responsible for recombination of linked rare crossing over, e.g. dominant star and
alleles. Ans. (d)
recessive asteroid eye traits in Drosophila.
The genes present on the same
94 The polytene chromosomes were chromosome do not always remain 101 Genes located on Y-chromosome
together. These usually get separated
discovered for the first time in and recombine with genes present on are [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] (a) mutant genes (b) sex-linked genes
homologous chromosomes to form new
(a) Drosophila combinations (recombinants). (c) autosomal genes (d) holandric genes
(b) Chironomus Ans. (d)
(c) Musca nebulo 98 A fruit fly heterozygous for Holandric genes are those that occur on
(d) Musca domestica sex-linked genes, is mated with the Y-chromosome only they are not
Ans. (b) normal female fruit fly. Male expressed in females. These genes are
specific chromosome will enter directly transmitted from father to son.
Polytene chromosomes were first time
Hairy ears (hypertrichosis) in man is
discovered by the Italian cytologist egg cell in the proportion inherited through genes on
EG Balbiani (1881) in the salivary gland [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Y-chromosomes.
cells of Chironomus larva. (a) 1 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 3 : 1 (d) 7 : 1
95 Two dominant non-allelic genes are Ans. (a) 102 Mr. Kapoor has Bb autosomal gene
50 map units apart. The linkage is Genes which are present on sex pair and d allele sex-linked. What
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] chromosomes are called sex linked shall be proportion of Bd in
(a) cis type genes. Male Drosophila contains XY sex sperms? [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(b) trans type chromosome, while female contains (a) 0 (b) 1/2 (c) 1/4 (d) 1/8
XX-chromosomes. During gamete
(c) complete Ans. (c)
formation male produces 50% male
(d) absent/incomplete specific gametes and 50% female Mr. Kapoor will have the genotype Bb, d,
so 1/4th of the sperms will have Bd.
103 When a certain character is besides autosomes and females wrinkled. Bb heterozygotes form round
have a pair of X-chromosome. seeds so that B seems to be dominant
inherited only through female
2. XX-XY method of allele. However, Bb seeds have starch
parent, it probably represents grains of intermediate size, showing
sex-determination-(iv) Female
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] incomplete dominance.
homogamety as seen in human
(a) multiple plastid inheritance beings.
(b) cytoplasmic inheritance 3. Karyotype-45 (i) Turner’s syndrome
(c) incomplete dominance with 45+XO. conditions correctly describes the
(d) Mendelian nuclear inheritance 4. ZW-ZZ method of manner of determining the sex in
Ans. (b) sex-determination-(ii) Female the given example?
The amount of nuclear hereditary heterogamety as seen in birds. [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
material contributed by the two sexes is (a) XO type of sex chromosomes
almost equal but the cytoplasm in egg is 106 Select the incorrect statement. determine male sex in grasshopper
always much more than that of the [NEET (National) 2019] (b) XO condition in humans as found in
sperm, so when a certain character is (a) In male grasshoppers, 50% of sperms Turner syndrome, determines female
inherited only through female parent it have no sex-chromosome sex
represents cytoplasmic inheritance. (b) In domesticated fowls, sex of (c) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX)
progeny depends on the type of produce male in Drosophila
104 Out of 8 ascospores formed in sperm rather than egg (d) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ)
Neurospora the arrangement is 2a (c) Human males have one of their sex determine female sex in birds
: 4a : 2a showing [CBSE AIPMT 1992] chromosomes much shorter than the Ans. (a)
other
(a) no crossing over Grasshopper is an example of XO type of
(d) Male fruitfly is heterogametic sex determination in which the males
(b) some meiosis
(c) second generation division Ans. (b) have only one X-chromosome besides
(d) first generation division The statement ‘‘in domesticated fowls, the autosomes, whereas females have a
sex depends on the type of sperm rather pair of X-chromosomes.
Ans. (c)
than egg’’ is incorrect. The correct form
In Neurospora after crossing over of statement is, in domesticated fowls, 109 In Drosophila, the sex is determined
between the gene and centromere, the sex of progeny depends on the type of by [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
paired arrangement of ascospores is AA egg rather than type of sperm. In fowls,
aaaa AA or 2a : 4a : 2a. This is known as (a) the ratio of pairs of X-chromosomes
the females are heterogametic and to the pairs of autosomes
second division segregation.
produce two type of eggs containing (b) whether the egg is fertilised or
either (A+Z) or (A+W) chromosomes. The
TOPIC 3 males are homogametic and produce
develops parthenogenetically
(c) the ratio of number of
Sex-Determination only one type of sperm containing (A+Z) X-chromosomes to the set of
chromosomes. Rest statements are autosomes
correct.
105 Match the items of Column I with (d) X and Y-chromosomes
Column II. [NEET (Odisha) 2019] Ans. (a)
107 Which one of the following pairs is
Column I Column II wrongly matched? [NEET 2018] Calvin Bridges demonstrated that in
(a) XO type – Grasshopper Drosophila, the sex is determined by
1. XX-XO method of i. Turner’s
sex-determination syndrome sex-determination ratio of the number of X-chromosomes
(b) ABO blood grouping – Codominance to the sets of autosomes. According to
2. XX-XY method of ii. Female genic balance theory of
sex-determination heterogamety (c) Starch synthesis in – Multiple alleles
pea sex-determination, Y-chromosome of
3. Karyotype-45 iii. Grasshopper Drosophila does not important for the
(d) TH Morgan – Linkage
4. ZW-ZZ method of iv. Female determination of sex.
sex- determination homogamety
Ans. (c) 110 Drosophila flies with XXY genotype
Select the correct option from the In the given pairs, option (c) is wrongly are females, but human beings with
following matched. Starch synthesis in pea is an such genotype are abnormal males.
1 2 3 4 example of pleiotropy. A pleiotropic gene It shows that [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) is a single gene which produces many or (a) Y-chromosome is essential for sex
(b) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) multiple unrelated phenotypes. Rest of determination in Drosophila
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) the pairs are correctly matched. (b) Y-chromosome is female
(d) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) Concept Enhancer The gene for starch determinating in Drosophila
synthesis in pea seeds has two alleles B (c) Y-chromosome is male determining
Ans. (c) and b. In BB genotype, large starch in human beings
The correct matches are grains are produced. After maturation (d) Y-chromosome has no role in sex
1. XX-XO method of sex-determination the seeds are round. In bb homozygous determination either in Drosophila or
is seen in (iii) Grasshopper, where condition, smaller starch grains are in human beings
males have only one X-chromosome produced and mature seeds are
Ans. (c) 113 An individual exhibiting both male

In human beings, the presence of a and female sexual characteristics TOPIC 4
Y-chromosome is required for the in the body is known as
development of a male sex phenotype. [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
Mutations
X-chromosomes present in any number
(XXX, XXXX) in the absence of a
(a) hermaphrodite (b) intersex
(c) gynandromorph (d) bisexual
117 Now-a-days, it is possible to detect
Y-chromosome gives rise to female.
the mutated gene causing cancer
Presence of even a single Ans. (c)
by allowing radioactive probe to
Y-chromosome confers maleness. In Gynandromorph is typically male in
Drosophila, Y-chromosome plays no hybridise its complimentary DNA in
certain portions of the body and typically
significant role in sex determination. In female in others. a clone of cells, followed by its
Drosophila male determines were The cases of gynandromorphism has detection using autoradiography
located on autosomes. One X and two been reported in man. Drosophila, because [NEET 2021]
autosomes produce male while two X (X,
silkworm, bees, butterflies, beetles, etc (a) mutated gene partially appears on a
X) and two autosomes produce female.
photographic film
114 Sex is determined in human beings (b) mutated gene completely and clearly
111 Foetal sex can be determined by appears on a photographic film
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
examining cells from the amniotic (c) mutated gene does not appear on a
(a) by ovum
fluid by looking for photographic film as the probe has no
(b) at the time of fertilisation
[CBSE AIPMT 1997] complementarity with it
(c) 40 days after fertilisation
(a) Barr bodies (b) autosomes (d) mutated gene does not appear on
(d) seventh to eight week when genitals photographic film as the probe has
(c) chiasmata (d) kinetochore
differentiate in foetus complementarity with it
Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
Females have XX-chromosome, Ans. (c)
In human beings male produces two Autoradiography is an imaging technique
presence of Barr body indicates female
types of sperms. 50% of them carry that uses radioactive sources contained
child while absence indicates male.
X-chromosome and 50% have within the exposed sample.
Amniotic fluid contains living cells flaked
Y-chromosome. Sex in human beings is
off from the skin of baby or amnion The single-stranded DNA or RNA,
determined at the time of fertilisation
(derived from zygote and identical to tagged with a radioactive molecule
because sex of baby depends upon
foetus cells). (probe) is allowed to hybridise to its
which sperm fertilises the ovum.
The non-dividing cells are examined. One complementary DNA in a clone of cells
X-chromosome always appears in the followed by detection using
115 Diploid chromosome number in autoradiography. The clone having the
active state. If another is present, it is
seen in a resting state as tightly coiled humans is [CBSE AIPMT 1989] mutated gene will hence not appear on
dark staining body (Barr body). (a) 46 (b) 44 (c) 48 (d) 42 the photographic film, because the
probe will not have complementarity
Ans. (a)
112 Genetic identity of a human male is with the mutated gene.
There are 23 pairs of chromosomes in
determined by [CBSE AIPMT 1997] humans in which 22 pairs of autosome 118 Under which of the following
(a) autosome (b) nucleolus and one pair of sex chromosome is conditions will there be no change
(c) sex chromosome present thus, total number of diploid
chromosome is 23 pairs = 46
in the reading frame of following
(d) cell organelles mRNA?
chromosomes.
Ans. (c) 5′AACAGCGGUGCUAUU3’
Genetic identity of a human male is 116 A family of five daughters only is [NEET (National) 2019]
determined by sex chromosomes. expecting sixth issue. The chance (a) Deletion of G from 5th position
As sex of a child is determined at the of its beings a son is (b) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th
time of fertilization. If male gamete [CBSE AIPMT 1988] positions, respectively
containing X-chromosome fertilizes (a) Zero (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 100% (c) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th
the ovum, the child would be female, if positions
Y-chromosome does it, the child Ans. (c) (d) Insertion of G at 5th position
would be male. Chances of a baby to be either boy or girl
Ans. (c)
Father Mother is always 50%. because in human beings
XY XX Parents there are 22 pairs of autosome and one The reading frame of given mRNA will not
pair of sex chromosome. Female is change even after the deletion of GGU
X Y X X Gametes from 7th, 8th and 9th positions.
homozygous while male is heterozygous
and genetically responsible for sex of the However, the amino acid glycine will not
child. Sperms are of two types, i.e. be formed at third position in this case
sperms having X-chromosome which is being coded by GGU. In rest of
Fertilisation the cases, insertion or deletion of one or
responsible for producing a girl and
XX XX XY XY two nucleotide bases would result in the
sperms having Y-chromosome
Daughters Sons responsible for producing a boy. complete alteration in the reading frame
of mRNA.
119 A cell at telophase stage is Ans. (d) 125 Change in the sequence of
observed by a student in a plant Out of the given statements (d) is nucleotide in DNA is called as
brought from the field. He tells his incorrect because baldness is not a [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
sex-limited trait. (a) mutagen (b) mutation
teacher that this cell is not like
other cells at telophase stage. (c) recombination (d) translation
122 In a mutational event, when
There is no formation of cell plate adenine is replaced by guanine, it is Ans. (b)
and thus the cell is containing more the case of [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Change in the sequence of nucleotide in
number of chromosomes as DNA is called as mutation. The point
(a) frameshift mutation mutations involve minor changes in the
compared to other dividing cells. (b) transcription genetic material, while macro mutations
This would result in (c) transition involve large segments of
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (d) transversion chromosomes. ‘Frameshift mutations’
(a) polyploidy includes the addition or deletion of
Ans. (c)
(b) somaclonal variation nucleotide (not involving 3 base pairs) so
In case of transition, purine base is
(c) polyteny that the reading frame of the RNA is
replaced by another purine (e.g.
(d) aneuploidy shifted to left or right during translation.
A 3 G) and pyrimidine is replaced by
Ans. (a) another pyrimidine (e.g.C 3 T) and 126 Male XX and female XY sometime
vice versa. In case of transversion purine
Polyploid cells have a chromosome
is replaced by a pyrimidine and vice
occur due to [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
number that is more than double the (a) deletion
versa.
haploid number, e.g. Triticum aestivum
(b) transfer of segments in X and
(wheat) is a hexaploid (6n). Y-chromosomes
123 One of the parents of a cross has
mutation in its mitochondria. In (c) aneuploidy
120 Point mutation involves (d) hormonal imbalance
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] that cross, that parent is taken as a
male. During segregation of Ans. (d)
(a) insertion
F2 -progenies that mutation is Hormonal inbalance may lead to
(b) change in single base pair
found in [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
development of male characters in
(c) duplication female or vice versa. Deletion is the
(d) deletion (a) one-third of the progenies removal of one or few nitrogenous bases
Ans. (b) (b) none of the progenies from a nucleotide chain. Aneuploidy is a
(c) all of the progenies chromosomal aberration in which
The point mutations involve alterations
(d) fifty per cent of the progenies certain chromosomes are present in
in the structure of gene by altering the
extra copies or certain are deficient in
structure of DNA, i.e. change in single Ans. (b) number.
base pair. In the present case the male parent (not
Point mutations are of two types, female) had mutation in mitochondria, 127 During organ differentiation in
i.e. base pair substitution and frameshift there are negligible chances of the Drosophila, an organ is modified to
substitution. mutation being inherited.
another organ (such as wings may
Insertion is the addition of one or more It is the female reproductive cell which
nitrogenous bases to a nucleotide chain. usually carries more cytoplasm and
be replaced by legs). Genes
Duplication is the presence of one block cytoplasmic organelles than the male responsible for such
of genes more than once in a haploid cell and hence, naturally would be metamorphosis are called
component. expected to influence non-Mendelian [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
Deletion is the removal of one or more traits. (a) double dominant genes
nitrogenous bases from a nucleotide chain. (b) plastid genes
124 Which of the following discoveries (c) complementary genes
121 Select the incorrect statement resulted in a Nobel Prize? (d) homeotic genes
from the following [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
Ans. (d)
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] (a) Recombination of linked genes
Homeotic genes are control genes which
(a) linkage is an exception to the (b) Genetic engineering
either by getting expressed or by
principle of independent assortment (c) X-rays induce sex-linked recessive remaining silent during development,
in heredity lethal mutations influence the differentiation of organs.
(b) galactosemia is an inborn error of (d) Cytoplasmic inheritance
These have been found in insects, one
metabolism
Ans. (c) nematode and some plants. A DNA
(c) small population size results in sequence called homeobox, present in
HJ Muller was awarded Nobel Prize in
random genetic drift in a population these genes, is involved in specification
1946 for his discovery of the production
(d) baldness is a sex limited trait of organs.
of mutations by X-ray radiation.
A mutation that causes a body part to (a) Guanine (b) Adenine This results into the formation of
develop in appropriate position in an (c) 5-bromouracil (d) 5-methylcytosine mis-sense protein which is formed due
organism, is called homeotic mutation, to the mutation in the first base of first
Ans. (d)
e.g. in Drosophila, such mutation may codon and thus called missense
cause legs to develop on the head in 5-methylcytosine residues occur at the mutation.
place of antennae. position of each hot spot. The term ‘hot
spots’ was used by Benzer for the sites 135 Different mutations referrable to
128 Mutation generally produces which are more mutable than other
sites.
the same locus of chromosome
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] give rise to [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) recessive genes (b) lethal genes (a) pseudoalleles (b) polygenes
132 Loss of an X-chromosome in a
(c) polygenes (d) dominant genes (c) oncogenes (d) multiple alleles
particular cell, during its
Ans. (a) development, results into Ans. (d)
Mutations generally produce recessive [CBSE AIPMT 1998] The phenomenon of multiple allelism is
genes. Mutation is a sudden heritable the simultaneous occurrence of more
change in the characteristics of an (a) diploid individual
(b) triploid individual than two alleles (multiple alleles) at a
organism. The individual which shows given gene locus. Any mutation
these heritable changes is known as (c) gynandromorphs occurring within a gene (at the same
mutant. (d) Both (a) and (b) locus) will give rise to a new form or new
Ans. (c) allele of that gene.
129 Which of the following is the main
Gynandromorphs are those individuals in
category of mutation? which one part of the body is female 136 HJ Muller was awarded Nobel Prize
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] for his [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
while another part is male. It occurs due
(a) Somatic mutation to the irregularity in mitosis at the first (a) discovery that chemicals can induce
(b) Genetic mutation cleavage of the zygote. gene mutations
(c) Zygotic mutation One of the X-chromosomes of an XX (b) discovery that ionizing radiations can
(d) All of these (female) zygote lags in the spindle, one induce gene mutations
Ans. (b) daughter nucleus receives only one (c) work on gene mapping in Drosophila
Mutation is a sudden heritable change in X-chromosomes, while the other (d) efforts to prevent the use of nuclear
genes structure of an organism. The receives two X-chromosomes. A mosaic weapons
term genetic mutation covers somatic body pattern is thus established which is Ans. (a)
mutation as well as germinal mutation known as gynandromorph. HJ Muller was awarded Nobel Prize for
(occurring during reproduction). discovering that ionizing radiations can
133 The formation of multivalents at induce gene mutations.
130 Albinism is known to be due to an meiosis in diploid organism is due
autosomal recessive mutation. The to [CBSE AIPMT 1998] 137 The most striking example of point
first child of a couple with normal (a) monosomy (b) inversion mutation is found in a disease
skin pigmentation was an albino. (c) deletion called [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
What is the probability that their (d) reciprocal translocation (a) thalassemia
second child will also be an albino? Ans. (d) (b) night blindness
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] (c) Down’s syndrome
The formation of multivalents at meiosis
(a) 100% (b) 25% in diploid organism is due to the (d) sickle-cell anaemia
(c) 50% (d) 75% reciprocal translocation. Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
Sickle-cell anaemia is an example of
Since, albinism is a recessive character, 134 A mutation at one base of the first point mutation. It is a genetic disease
a child will be albino only if it is codon of a gene produces a reported from negroes due to a
homozygous for albinism genes. Since, non-functional protein. Such a molecular mutation of gene Hb A on
parents have normal skin, it means they chromosome 11 which producesβ-chain
are heterozygous.
mutation is referred as
[CBSE AIPMT 1997]
of adult haemoglobin.
As a result of cross between two In this disease nucleotide triplet CTC is
heterozygous parents, 25% of the (a) frameshift mutation
changed to CAC, these changes takes
children will be homozygous recessive. (b) mis-sense mutation
place at a particular point of chromosome,
The nature of the second child is not (c) non-sense mutation so they are called as point mutation.
affected in any way by the nature of the (d) reverse mutation
first child because both are independent Ans. (b) 138 Out of A==T, G≡≡C pairing, bases
events.
If mutation at one base of the first codon of DNA may exist in alternate
of a gene takes place then all the valency state owing to
131 Which base is responsible for
subsequent codons will be out of
hotspots for spontaneous point arrangement called
register (genetic code).
mutations? [CBSE AIPMT 1998] [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(a) analogue substitution Ans. (c) Thalassemia is an autosomal recessive

(b) tautomerisational mutation The genotype of both male and female, disorder. Thalassemia are of two types
(c) frameshift mutation heterozygous for sickle-cell anaemia depending upon which protein chain of
(d) point mutation gene can be represented as Hb A Hb S haemoglobin gets synthesised or not
Thus, synthesised in a defective manner.
Ans. (b)
Parents HbA HbS × HbA HbS Haemophilia is an X- linked disorder in
Tautomerisation occurs through which the clotting time is delayed.
A S A
rearrangement of electrons and protons Gametes Hb Hb Hb HbS
of the molecules.
F1 progeny 144 In which genetic condition, each
Due to this the purines and pyrimidines
in DNA and RNA may exist in several
cell in the affected person, has
HbA HbA HbA HbS HbA HbS HbS HbS
alternate forms or tautomers. unaffected unaffected unaffected affected three sex chromosomes XXY?
and and [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
carrier carrier
139 A normal green male maize is (a) Thalassemia
Thus, the percentage of diseased (b) Klinefelter’s syndrome
crossed with albino female. The
progeny will be 25%
progeny is albino because (c) Phenylketonuria
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] (d) Turner’s syndrome
142 The best example for pleiotropy is
(a) trait for albinism is dominant [NEET (Oct.) 2020] Ans. (b)
(b) the albinos have biochemical to destroy (a) skin colour Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic
plastids derived from green male condition in which each cell in the
(b) phenylketonuria
(c) plastids are inherited from female affected person has three sex
parent (c) colour blindness
(d) ABO blood group chromosomes XXY.
(d) green plastids of male must have
mutated Ans. (b) It is caused due to the presence of an
additional copy of X-chromosome
Ans. (c) The best example for pleiotropy is resulting into a karyotype of 47, XXY.
Besides nucleus some genes are also phenylketonuria which occurs in
Such individuals are sterile.
present in the cytoplasm of the female humans. In pleiotropy, a single gene can
parent, these genes are called exhibit multiple phenotypic expressions.
This gene is called pleiotropic gene. In 145 What is the genetic disorder in
plasmogenes.
phenylketonuria, a single gene mutation which an individual has an overall
In the given example the progeny is
albino because of inheritance of plastids
that codes for enzyme phenylalanine masculine development
hydroxylase is seen. This manifests itself gynaecomastia and is sterile ?
from female parent.
through phenotypic expression [NEET (National) 2019]
characterised by mental retardation and
140 Haploids are able to express both (a) Klinefelter’s syndrome
a reduction in hair and skin
recessive and dominant pigmentation. (b) Edward syndrome
alleles/mutations because there (c) Down’s syndrome
are [CBSE AIPMT 1988] 143 Select the correct match. (d) Turner’s syndrome
(a) many alleles for each gene [NEET (Sep.) 2020] Ans. (a)
(b) two alleles for each gene (a) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal In Klinefelter’s syndrome, individual has
(c) only one allele for each gene in the dominant trait overall masculine development,
individual (b) Sickle-cell – Autosomal gynaecomastia and is sterile. This
(d) only one allele in a gene anaemia recessive trait, condition is represented as 44 + X (47)
Ans. (c) chromosome-11 due to the presence of an extra
(c) Thalassemia – X-linked X-chromosome in males.
In haploids there is only one allele for
each gene in the individual, that’s why Edward syndrome is 18 trisomy and it
(d) Haemophilia – Y-linked
haploids are better for mutation work causes severe developmental delay.
because in them all mutations whether Down’s syndrome is 21-trisomy and it is
Ans. (b)
dominant or recessive are expressed. identified as Mongolism due to the short
Option (b) is correct whereas option
stature of affected individual.
(a),(c) and (d) are incorrect because
TOPIC 5 Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
Turner’s syndrome is characterised by a
missing X-chromosome in females. It
Genetic Disorders recessive disorder.Due to this disorder,
causes sterility in females.
enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase is not
synthesised. This enzyme is required for
141 In a cross between a male and conversion of phenylalanine (PA) into 146 Thalassemia and sickle-cell
female, both heterozygous for tyrosine. If enzyme production stops, anaemia are caused due to a
sickle-cell anaemia gene, what the concentration of PA in body tissues problem in globin molecule
percentage of the progeny will be increases,this accumulated PA gets synthesis. Select the correct
diseased? converted into phenyl pyruvic acid which
[NEET 2021]
is responsible for damaging the brain. statement. [NEET 2017]
(a) 50% (b) 75% (c) 25% (d) 100%
Normal woman Colourblind man
(a) Both are due to a qualitative defect in In this, characters from father are c
global chain synthesis transmitted to daughter and from Parents X X X Y
(b) Both are due to a quantitative defect mother to son.
in globin chain synthesis
Gametes X X X
c
Y
(c) Thalassemia is due to less synthesis Father Mother Ova Sperms
of globin molecules
(d) Sickle-cells anaemia is due to a c
Son Daughter X Y
quantitative problem of globin
molecules X XX
c
XY
Ans. (c)
c
X XX XY
Thalassemia is a autosomal recessive 149 Pick out the correct statements.
disease, which occurs due to mutation in [NEET 2016, Phase I] Offsprings : 2 Carrier girls; 2 Normal boys
genes. This results in reduced rate of
synthesis of the globin chains of I. Haemophilia is a sex-linked Thus, there is zero probability of son
haemoglobin. Anaemia is the main recessive disease. being colourblind. Hence, option (a) is
feature of this disease. There are two II. Down's syndrome is due to correct.
forms of Thalassemia, i.e. α-thalassemia aneuploidy.
(production of affected α-globin chain, 151 In the following human pedigree,
III. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal
which is governed by genes on 16th the filled symbols represent the
chromosome), andβ-thalassemia
recessive gene disorder.
affected individuals. Identify the
(production of affected β-chain, which is IV. Sickle-cell anaemia is an X -
type of given pedigree.
governed by a gene on 11th linked recessive gene disorder. [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
chromosomes). (a) II and IV are correct
I.
Concept Enhancer Thalassemia differs (b) I, III and IV are correct
from sickle-cell anaemia in that the (c) I, II and III are correct II.
former is a quantitative problem of (d) I and IV are correct
synthesising few globin molecules, while
the later is a qualitative problem of Ans. (c) III.
synthesising an incorrectly functioning Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal
globin. recessive gene disorder in which IV.
sickle-celled RBCs are formed instead of
147 A disease caused by an autosomal normal ones. They carry very less (a) Autosomal dominant
primary non-disjunction is content of O2 as their haemoglobin is (b) X-linked recessive
[NEET 2017] malformed. The person suffering from (c) Autosomal recessive
(a) down’s syndrome this disease show symptoms of (d) X-linked dominant
(b) klinefelter’s syndrome anaemia.
Ans. (c)
(c) turner’s syndrome The given pedigree shows the autosomal
(d) sickle-cell anemia 150 If a colourblind man marries a
recessive disorder.
woman who is homozygous for
Ans. (a) In this disorder, the individual inherit two
normal colour vision, the mutated genes, one from each parent.
Non-disjunction is the failure of
chromosomes to disjoin or separate and
probability of their son being This disorder is usually passed on by two
move away to opposite poles. colourblind is [NEET 2016, Phase II] carriers. Health is rarely affected, but
Non-disjunction of 21st chromosome (a) 0 (b) 0.5 individual have one mutated gene
during oogenesis is the cause of down’s (c) 0.75 (d) 1 (recessive gene) and one normal gene
(dominant gene) for the condition.
syndrome. It occurs due to the presence Ans. (a)
of an additional copy of chromosome no. The carriers have a 25% chance of
21 (trisomy of 21st chromosome) is If a colourblind man marries a woman having an unaffected child with normal
humans. who is homozygous for normal colour genes, 50% chance of having an
vision, the probability of their son unaffected child who also is a carrier and
being colourblind is zero. Colour a 25% chance of having an affected child
148 Which of the following most blindness is a recessive sex-linked trait with recessive genes.
appropriately describes in which the eye fails to distinguish
haemophilia? [NEET 2016, Phase I] between red and green colour. In 152 A colourblind man marries a
(a) X-linked recessive gene disorder females, colour blindness appears only woman with normal sight who has
(b) Chromosomal disorder when both sex chromosomes carry no history of colour blindness in her
recessive gene (Xc Xc ). However, in
(c) Dominant gene disorder family. What is the probability of
human males, the defect appears due to
(d) Recessive gene disorder single recessive gene(Xc Y) because Y their grandson being colour blind?
Ans. (a) chromosome does not carry gene for [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Haemophilia is X-linked recessive gene colour vision. (a) 0.5 (b) 1

disorder. It is a blood clotting disorder This disease shows criss-cross (c) Nil (d) 0.25
and shows criss-cross inheritance. inheritance.
Ans. (d) So in both the above cases the result Turner syndrome is a chromosomal
When a colourblind man (X CY ) marries to shows 50% of grand sons will be condition that affects the development
a woman with normal sight (XX) who has colourblind which in terms of over all in females.
no family history of colour blindness, all progenies (son + daughters) comes as The most common feature of Turner
of their sons will be normal pure and all 25% thus confirming the probability as syndrome is short stature, which
of their daughters will be carriers as 0.25. become evident by the age of 5. An early
shown below loss of ovarian function is also very
Normal woman Colourblind man 153 A man whose father was colour common.
XX XY blind marries a woman, who had a The ovaries develop normally at first, but
+ colour blind mother and normal egg cells usually die prematurely and
father. What percentage of male most ovarian tissue degenerates before
XC Y birth.
+ children of this couple will be
colour blind? [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
155 If both parents are carriers for
X XXC XY (a) 25% (b) 0% thalassaemia, which is an
(c) 50% (d) 75%
autosomal recessive disorder, what
Ans. (a) are the chances of pregnancy
X XXC XY
As colour blindness is a sex-linked resulting in an affected child?
All carrier All normal
recessive genetic disorder, for it is [NEET 2013]
daughters son present at X-chromosome. Thus,
(a) No chance
according the gene to the situation given
in the question, a man whose father was (b) 50%
So in the next generation, the children of
colour blind (will be, i.e. XY normal) (c) 25%
all of their son will be normal in all
conditions (except the case in which the marries a woman whose mother was (d) 100%
wife involved is not carrier neither colourblind and father was normal ( i.e. Ans. (c)
colourblind). For carrier daughters. this woman will be a carrier) according to
the cross given below In the given question since both parents
(i) If they many to a normal man 50%of carry a haemoglobinopathy trait of
their grandsons will become Xc Xc X (XY) thalassemia the risk is 25% for each
colourblind as pregnancy for an affected child.
Carrier woman Normal man
c Xc X, Xc X, Xc Y, Xc Y R r
XX XY
50% carrier 50% colourblind r RR Rr
+ daughter son
X Y Thus, when marriage will happen r Rr rr
+ between a normal man and a carrier
woman, in that case percentage of a RR–Unaffected (25%)
X XX XY male child to be colourblind is 25% (this Rr–Carrier (50%)
can be easily observed from the cross rr–Affected (25%)
XC XcX XcY given below)
So, the chances of pregnancy resulting
X Xc X XY in an affected child is 25%.
Colourblind
son
156 The incorrect statement with
(ii) If carrier daughter marries to a X X, Xc X, XY, Xc Y regard to haemophilia is
colourblind man 50% of their Normal Carrier Normal Colourblind [NEET 2013]
grandson will be colourblind along daughter daughter son son (a) it is a sex-linked disease
with 50% of the grand daughter
while rest 50% of the grand (b) it is a recessive disease
25% each
daughters will be carriers as (c) it is a dominant disease
Carrier woman Colourblind man 154 A human female with Turner’s (d) a single protein involved in the
clotting of blood is affected
XXc XcY syndrome [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
Ans. (c)
+ (a) has 45 chromosomes with XO
(b) has one additional X-chromosome Out of the following statement (c) is
Xc Y incorrect because haemophilia is a sex
(c) exhibits male characters
+ linked recessive disease. In this disease,
(d) is able to produce children with a single protein that is a part of the
X XXc XY normal husband
Carrier Normal cascade of protein involved in the
Ans. (a) clotting of blood is affected.
X c XcXc XcY A human female with Turner syndrome The heterozygous female for
Colourblind Colourblind has the absence of one of the haemophilia may transmit the disease to
X-chromosome, i.e. 45 with XO (or 44 + sons.
Daughters Son
XO).
157 A normal-visioned man whose (a) Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn 161 A man and a woman, who do not
father was colour blind, marries a error of metabolism like phenylketonuria show any apparent signs of a
woman whose father was also (b) Inheritance of a condition like certain inherited disease, have
colour blind. They have their first phenylketonuria as an autosomal seven children (2 daughters and 5
recessive trait
child as a daughter. What are the sons). Three of the sons suffer
(c) The pedigree chart is wrong as this is
chances that this child would be from the given disease but none of
not possible
colour blind? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(d) Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked the daughters are affected. Which
(a) 100% (b) 0% disease like haemophilia of the following mode of
(c) 25% (d) 50% Ans. (d) inheritance do you suggest for this
Ans. (b)
In the given pedigree chart, squares are
disease ? [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
Colour blindness is an X-linked disease. representing males and circles females. (a) Autosomal dominant
So, woman whose father was colour In F1-generation, 1-male and 1-female are (b) Sex-linked dominant
blind will be carrier for the disease. diseased and in next generation only (c) Sex-limited recessive
XY × XcY Parents male is diseased. This shows the (d) Sex-linked recessive
(normal man) (carrier woman) inheritance of a recessive sex-linked Ans. (d)
disease like haemophilia.
In given problem, disease is the result of
X Y Xc X Gametes 160 Which one of the following sex-linked recessive genes. As neither
man nor woman shows signs of disease
condition in humans is correctly it means woman would be carrier for
matched with its chromosomal disease. In their children none of the
XXc XX XcY XY F1-Generation abnormality/linkage? daughters suffer from disease, while the
(carrier (normal (colourblind (normal [CBSE AIPMT 2008] sons were sufferred, it means daughters
daughter) daughter) son) son) are also carrier (i.e. X-linked recessive).
(a) Klinefelter’s syndrome— 44
So, possibility of a colour blind daughter autosomes + XXY Suppose, genotype of man = X Y
(i.e., X cX c in F1-generation is 0%. (b) Colour blindness — Y-linked Genotype of woman = X d X
(c) Erythroblastosis foetalis— X-linked (d-disease causing gene)
158 Which one of the following symbols (d) Down syndrome— 44 autosomes + XO Man Woman
and its representation, used in XY Xd X
Ans. (a)
human pedigree analysis is Klinefelter’s syndrome is represented by X Y Xd X
correct? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] 44 autosomes + XXY. When an abnormal
egg with XX chromosome is fertilised by
a sperm carrying Y-chromosome a X Xd XX XdY X Y
(a) = Mating between relatives
zygote having XXY sex chromosomes is (carrier but (normal (diseased (normal
(b) = Unaffected male normal in son) son)
formed. appearance daughter)
(c) = Unaffected female The resulting young one is an abnormal daughter)
(d) = Male affected sterile male. For each delivery the probability for each
The 44 autosome + XO condition is due combination is 25%.
Ans. (a)
to Turner’s syndrome. Such females are So, among seven children 2 normal
The given symbol show the correct sterile and have short stature, webbed daughter, 3 diseased sons and 2 normal
representation in human pedigree neck, broad shield-shaped chest, etc. sons are possible.
analysis Down’s syndrome is due to the trisomy of
= Mating between relatives. 21st pair of chromosome. 162 Haemophilia is more commonly
It is characterised by moderate mental seen in human males than in
159 Study the pedigree chart given retardation, large tongue, short stature,
human females because
below. stubby fingers, an enlarged liver and
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
spleen.
(a) this disease is due to an X-linked
Colour blindness is an X-linked disease.
dominant mutation
The person suffering from this disease
(b) a greater proportion of girls die in
can’t differentiate between red and
infancy
green colours.
(c) this disease is due to an X-linked
Erythroblastosis foetalis is caused due
recessive mutation
to Rh factor in a child born due to
(d) this disease is due to a Y-linked
What does it show? marriage between Rh + man and Rh −
recessive mutation
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] woman.
Ans. (c) (normal woman) × (normal man) Ans. (b)

c
Haemophilia, a hereditary (recessive X X XY Cholchicum autumnale provides an
X-linked) disease is caused due to fault alkaloid called colchicine which is used
in genes controlling the factor VIII and IX, c
in plant breeding for doubling the
located on X-chromosome. The male X X X Y chromosome number. Treatment with
carries only one X-chromosome, other 0.1% colchicine inhibits spindle
sex chromosome carries no genes for formation so that chromatids fail to
blood clotting, so the condition is usually separate during anaphase.
seen only in males where only one faulty
chromosome is needed. c c 168 Which of the following is the
X X X Y XX XY
While a female with one faulty (carrier (colourblind (normal (normal example of sex-linked disease?
X-chromosome will be carrier. So, in daughter) son) daughter) son) [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
females two faulty X-chromosomes are (a) AIDS (b) Colour blindness
needed to cause the disease. ∴50% of the sons would be colour blind.
Refer Ans 32. (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea
Ans. (b)
163 A woman with normal vision, but 165 Down’s syndrome is caused by an
whose father was colour blind, Colour blindness and haemophilia are well
extra copy of chromosome number known examples of sex-linked diseases.
marries a colour blind man. 21. What percentage of offspring
Suppose that the fourth child of produced by an affected mother 169 Pleiotropic gene is
this couple was a boy. This boy and a normal father would be [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] (a) haemophilia
affected by this disorder?
(a) must have normal colour vision [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (b) thalassemia
(b) will be partially colour blind since he is (c) sickle-cell anaemia
(a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 100% (d) 75%
heterozygous for the colour blind
(d) colour blindness
mutant allele Ans. (a)
(c) must be colour blind In the given question 50% of offsprings Ans. (c)
(d) may be colour blind or may be of would be affected by this disorder The ability of a gene to affect an
normal vision because Down’s syndrome is the result organism in many ways is called
Ans. (d) of trisomy, in which chromosome pair pleiotropy (Gr. Pleion – more) and that
number 21st contains an extra copy of gene is called as pleiotropic gene, e.g.
A woman, whose father was colour blind, chromosome (2A + 1). Affected mother individuals heterozygous for the
will be carrier for colour blind trait. will produce 50% normal egg cells and sickle-cell anaemia(Hb A Hb S ) are
Marriage of this woman with a colour rest 50% eggs are of abnormal type. resistant to malaria.
blind man will result into following
possibilities. 166 Which one of the following 170 Number of Barr bodies in XXXX
(carrier (colourblind conditions though harmful in itself, female [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
woman) man) is also a potential saviour from a (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
x X x Y mosquito borne infectious disease? Ans. (c)
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
The number of Barr bodies in XXXX
xY XY
(a) Pernicious anaemia female are 3. Barr body is a
x x x X
(b) Leukaemia condensed mass of chromatin found in
(colourblind (carrier (normal
daughter) daughter) (colourblind son) (c) Thalassemia the nuclei of placental mammals which
son) (d) Sickle-cell anaemia contain one or more X-chromosomes, so
named after its discoverer Murray Barr.
Ans. (d) The number of Barr bodies is one less
Sickle-cell anaemia is a genetic disorder than the number of X-chromosomes
164 A normal woman whose father was in which abnormal haemoglobin is present.
colour blind is married to a normal formed because valine replaces
man. The sons would be glutamic acid at the sixth position in 171 Haemophilic man marries a normal
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] β-chain of haemoglobin, but the persons woman. Their offspring will be
(a) 75% colour blind having this disease do not suffer from
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(b) 50% colour blind malaria as the parasite fails to thrive in
sickle-shaped RBCs. (a) all boys haemophilic
(c) all normal (b) all normal
(d) all colour blind (c) all girls haemophilic
167 If a diploid cell is treated with
Ans. (b) colchicine then it becomes (d) all haemophilic
The genotype of normal woman with [CBSE AIPMT 2002] Ans. (b)
colour blind father = XX c (a) triploid (b) tetraploid Haemophilia is also a sex-linked
The genotype of normal man = XY (c) diploid (d) monoploid recessive disease (like colour blindness).
None of the children would suffer from Results Ans. (d)

haemophilia, though girls would be (a) 50% sons are colour blinds and HF Klinefelter first described this
carriers of the disease. haemophilic. condition in 1942. The chromosome number
h (b) 50% sons are haemophilic only. is 2n = 47 with the formula 44A + XXY.
X Y ´ XX
(c) 50% daughters are carrier for Phenotypically these individuals are
(haemophilic man) (normal woman) Parents
colour blindness and haemophilia. males, but they can show some female
(d) 50% daughters are carrier for secondary sexual characteristics and are
haemophilia only. usually sterile.
X Y
h X Gametes
Fertilisation 176 A woman with albinic father
173 Mental retardation in man,
associated with sex chromosomal marries an albinic man. The
abnormality is usually due to proportion of her progeny is
+ X X [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
h h
h X X X X (a) reduction in X-complement (a) 2 normal : 1 albinic
X (Carrier) (Carrier)
(b) increase in X-complement (b) all normal
(c) moderate increase in Y-complement (c) all albinic
Y XY XY
(d) large increase in Y-complement (d) 1 normal : 1 albinic
Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
Results : All daughters are carrier while
Sterile males with undeveloped testes, Daughter of an albinic father will be
all sons are normal.
mental retardation, etc. are due to carrier of this disease, when such
increase in their X-complement which woman gets married to an albinic man,
172 A woman with two genes (one on 50% of her progeny will be normal and
takes place in a disorder called.
each X-chromosome) for Klinefelter’s syndrome. These are 50% will be albinic.
haemophilia and one gene for formed by union of an XX egg and a
colour blindness on the normal Y sperm or normal X egg and 177 A colourblind woman marries a
X-chromosomes marries a normal abnormal XY sperm. The individual thus normal visioned male. In the
man. How will the progeny be? has 47 chromosomes (44 + XXY). offspring [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] (a) both son and daughter are colour
(a) All sons and daughters haemophilic 174 A man with a certain disease blind
and colour blind marries a normal woman. They (b) all daughters are colour blind
(b) Haemophilic and colour blind have eight children (3 daughters (c) all sons are normal
daughters and 5 sons). All the daughters (d) all sons are colour blind
(c) 50% haemophilic colour blind sons suffer from their father’s disease
and 50% haemophilic sons Ans. (d)
but none of the sons are affected. When a colour blind woman marries a
(d) 50% haemophilic daughters and 50%
colour blind daughters
Which of the following mode of normal visioned male, daughters will be
inheritance do you suggest for this carrier for this disease and all sons will
Ans. (c) be colour blind, this can be represented
disease? [CBSE AIPMT 1996, 2002]
Haemophilia and colour blindness both as follows
are recessive X-linked traits. They
(a) Sex-linked recessive
(b) Sex-linked dominant XcXc XY Parents
express in males when present in single
copy (heterozygous) but in females they (c) Autosome dominant
express only when present in (d) Sex-limited recessive Xc Xc X Y Gametes
homozygous condition. Ans. (b)
X X
hc h
XY Daughters have 2 X-chromosomes one
(Woman) (Man) Parents of them is from father and other comes
from mother, in this case all the XcX XcY XcX XcY Progenies
daughters are suffering from the fathers (carrier (colourblind (carrier (colourblind
daughter) son) daughter) son)
hc h disease hence, X-chromosome of father
X X XY Gametes
must be carrying a dominant trait, i.e.
inheritance pattern is sex-linked dominant. 178 Of both normal parents, the chance
X Y of a male child becoming colour
+ 175 A person with 47 chromosomes blind are [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
hc hc hc
X X X X Y due to an additional Y-chromosome (a) no
h h h suffers from a condition called (b) possible only when all the four grand
X X X X Y [CBSE AIPMT 1996, 97] parents had normal vision
(a) Down’s syndrome (c) possible only when father’s mother
(b) Super female was colour blind
(c) Turner’s syndrome (d) possible only when mother’s father
(d) Klinefelter’s syndrome was colour blind
Ans. (d) 181 A colourblind mother and normal Ans. (d)

Colour blindness is a X-linked recessive father would have Phenylketonuria was discovered by the
disease and the chance of a male child [CBSE AIPMT 1992, 99, 2006] Norwegian physician A Fooling in 1934,
becoming colour blind of a normal (a) colour blind sons and normal/carrier an autosomal recessive mutation of
parents is only when mother’s father was daughters gene on chromosome 12.
colour blind. (b) colour blind sons and daughters Phenylketonuria results when there is a
This is criss-cross inheritance in which (c) all colour blind deficiency of liver enzyme phenylalanine
genes are transferred to a child from his (d) all normal hydroxylase that converts phenylalanine
maternal grandfather through his Ans. (a) into tyrosine. Increased phenylalanine in
mother. the blood interferes with brain
A colourblind mother and normal father development, muscles and cartilage of
would have colour blind sons and carrier the legs may be defective and the
179 Of a normal couple, half the sons daughters. Daughters will be normal patients cannot walk properly.
are haemophilic while half the phenotypically but they will be carrier
daughters are carriers. The gene is genotypically.
185 Haemophilia is more common in
located on [CBSE AIPMT 1993] (colour blind (normal males because it is a
mother) father)
(a) X-chromosome of father Xc Xc X Y [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
(b) Y-chromosome of father (a) recessive character carried by
(c) one X-chromosome of mother Y-chromosome
(d) both the X-chromosomes of mother (b) dominant character carried by
Ans. (c) Y-chromosome
XcX XcX XcY XcY (c) dominant trait carried by
Haemophilia is a sex-linked disease. (Carrier (Colour blind X-chromosome
Gene of this disease is located on daughters) sons)
(d) recessive trait carried by
X-chromosome. In the given case where 182 Down’s syndrome is due to X-chromosome
half the sons are haemophilic and half [CBSE AIPMT 1992, 2000, 02, 03]
the daughters are carriers this is Ans. (d)
possible only when the gene responsible (a) crossing over Haemophilia is a disorder, which is
for haemophilia is located on one (b) linkage sex-linked (X-chromosome) recessive
X-chromosome of mother. (c) sex-linked inheritance condition. Males have only one
(carrier (normal (d) non-disjunction of chromosomes X-chromosome, so this disease appears
mother) father) in them more then female as they have
Ans. (d)
Xh X X Y Parents 2X-chromosomes.
Non-disjunction of 21st chromosome
during oogenesis is the cause of Down’s
syndrome. It is also called mongolian 186 Both husband and wife have
syndrome. normal vision though their fathers
XhX XX XhY XY Progenies were colour blind. The probability
(carrier (normal (haemophilic (normal
183 A colourblind girl is rare because of their daughter becoming colour-
daughter) daughter) son) son)
Daughters she will be born only when blind is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
50% = Carrier, 50% = Normal [CBSE AIPMT 1991] (a) 0% (b) 25% (c) 50% (d) 75%
Sons (a) her mother and maternal grandfather Ans. (a)
were colourblind
50% = Haemophilic, 50% = Normal In this case when the fathers of both
(b) her father and maternal grandfather
husband and wife were colour blind and
were colourblind
180 In human beings 45 they have normal vision, husband have
(c) her mother is colour blind and father normal vision while wife is carrier of this
chromosomes/single X/XO has normal vision disease. Daughter of such parents will be
abnormality causes (d) parents have normal vision but grand carrier but there is no chance of her to
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] parents were colourblind be colour blind.
(a) Down’s syndrome Ans. (b)
(b) Klinefelter’s syndrome For a girl to be colourblind, the genotype 187 In Down’s syndrome of a male
(c) Turner’s syndrome of her father should be X CY and of her child, the sex complement is
(d) Edward’s syndrome mother either X C X or X C X C , where X C [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
Ans. (c) represents colour blind gene. (a) XO (b) XY (c) XX (d) XXY
In the given options this is only possible
In human beings 45 chromosomes/XO Ans. (b)
when her father and maternal
abnormality causes Turner’s syndrome. XY is the sex complement of a male child
grandfather were colour blind.
Henery H Turner first described this with Down’s syndrome. The cause of
condition in 1938. Chromosomal formula Down’s syndrome is non-disjunction of
184 Which one is a hereditary disease?
is 44+ XO. 21st chromosome during oogenesis. This
[CBSE AIPMT 1990]
Phenotypically these individuals are chromosomal abnormality is related with
(a) Cataract (b) Leprosy
females but ovaries are rudimentary and autosome so, the sex complement of a
always sterile. (c) Blindness (d) Phenylketonuria male child in this syndrome will be XY.
28
Molecular Basis
of Inheritance
TOPIC 1 Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
The Genetic Material- Prokaryotes utilize one RNA Chargaff rule - In DNA there is always
polymerase for transcription of all equality in quantity between the bases A
DNA and RNA and T and between the bases G and C.
types of RNA. The enzyme RNA
polymerase is needed for RNA According to Chargaff rule
01 Which one of the following formation from DNA, i.e. DNA (A)+(G)+(C)+(T)=100%
statements about histones is dependent RNA polymerase. It occurs A=30% therefore T is also 30%
wrong? [NEET 2021] in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells. Therefore G+C =100% – 60% = 40%
(a) Histones are organised to form a unit RNA polymerase is the only enzyme Hence, G =20% and C=20%
of which, has the capability to catalyse
8 molecules. all initiation, elongation and
05 Complete the flow chart on central
(b) The pH of histones is slightly acidic termination in prokaryotes.
dogma [NEET 2021]
(c) Histones are rich in amino acids
lysine and arginine 03 Which of the following RNAs is not (a) (a)-Replication: (b)-Transcription;
(d) Histones carry positive charge in the (c)-Transduction: (d)-Protein
required for the synthesis of
side chain (b) (a)-Translation: (b)-Replication;
protein ? [NEET 2021]
(c)-Transcription: (d)-Transduction
Ans. (b) (a) mRNA (b) tRNA (c) (a)-Replication: (b)-Transcription;
Statement in option (a), (c) and (d) are (c) rRNA (d) siRNA (c)-Translation (d)-Protein
correct. Histone proteins are composed
Ans. (d) (d) (a)-Transduction; (b)-Translation
of basic amino acid. These proteins
attach to the DNA to form the siRNA mainly protect the cell from (c)-Replication; (d)-Protein
nucleosome. Histones are organised to exogenous mRNA attacks. It degrades Ans. (c)
form a unit of eight molecules called as the growing mRNA and stop gene
Central dogma of molecular biology was
histone octamer. expression. It is highly specific and proposed by Francis Crick which states
Histones are rich in basic amino acid reduces the synthesis of particular that the genetic information flows from
residues lysine and arginine. It carries proteins by reducing the translation of DNA → RNA → Protein.
positive charges in their side chains and specific messenger RNAs. Hence, siRNA Here, a, b, c and d are
negatively charge DNA wrap around it. is not required for protein synthesis but
a-Replication, b-Transcription,
Statement in option (b) is incorrect and is used to reduce its synthesis.
c-Translation, d-Protein
can be corrected as Whereas rRNA, mRNA and tRNA are
The pH of histones is slightly basic. required for synthesis of protein.
06 E. coli has only 4.6 × 10 6 base pairs
02 Which is the ‘‘only enzyme’’ that has 04 lf adenine makes 30% of the DNA and completes the process of
“capability” to catalyse initiation, molecule, what will be the replicaton within 18 minutes, then
elongation and termination in the percentage of thymine, guanine the average rate of polymerisation
process of transcription in and cytosine in it? [NEET 2021] is approximately [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
prokaryotes? [NEET 2021] (a) T : 20, G : 30, C : 20 (a) 2000 bp/s (b) 3000 bp/s
(a) DNA-dependent DNA polymerase (b) T : 20, G : 20, C : 30 (c) 4000 bp/s (d) 1000 bp/s
(b) DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (c) T : 30, G : 20, C : 20 Ans. (c)
(c) DNA ligase (d) T : 20, G : 25, C : 25 . × 10 6 base pairs.
E.coli has 46
(d) DNase
It completes replication process in 18 Ans. (d) Ans. (b)

minutes i.e. 18 × 60 seconds. In a DNA polynucleotide chain, a The distance between two consecutive
4.6 × 10 6 bp nitrogenous base is linked to the hydroxy base pairs is 0.34 nm (0.34 × 10 −9 m). The
Rate of polymerisation =
18 × 60 s ( OH) of 1′ C pentose sugar. It is length of DNA double helix in a typical
. × 10 5 46 × 10 4
46 represented in the structure given below mammalian cell can be calculated by
= = multiplying the total number of bp with
18 × 6 108 NH2 distance between the two consecutive
460000 bp, i.e.6.6 × 10 9 bp × 0.34 × 10 −9 m/bp
= = 42591 bp/s N
108 N = 2.2metres (the length of DNA). Thus,
O
or approximately 4000 bp/sec option (b) is correct.
5' N N
Thus, the correct option is (c). HO P O O
4' 1' Nitrogenous 13 In RNAi, the genes are silenced
O– base using
07 Name the enzyme that facilitates 3' 2' [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
opening of DNA helix during Phosphate (a) dsRNA
OH H
transcription. [NEET (Sep.) 2020] (b) ssDNA
Deoxyribose
(a) DNA helicase sugar (c) ssRNA
(b) DNA polymerase (d) dsDNA
(c) RNA polymerase 10 The term ‘Nuclein’ for the genetic Ans. (a)
(d) DNA ligase material was used by In RNAi, the genes are silenced using
Ans. (c) [NEET (Oct.) 2020] dsRNA. RNA interference (RNAi) takes
The correct option is (c) because (a) Franklin (b) Meischer place in all eukaryotic organisms as a
RNA polymerase facilitate opening of (c) Chargaff (d) Mendel method of cellular defence. This
DNA helix during transcription. RNA method involves silencing of a specific
Ans. (b)
polymerase is the main transcription mRNA due to a complementary dsRNA
enzyme. Transcription begins when RNA The nucleic acid was first reported by molecule that binds to and prevents
polymerase binds to a promoter Friedrich Miescher in 1869 from the translation of the mRNA (silencing).
sequence near the beginning of a gene. nuclei of pus cells and was named
DNA helicases function in other cellular nuclein.
14 What initiation and termination
processes where double-stranded DNA factors are involved in transcription
must be separated, including DNA repair 11 Which of the following statements
and transcription. is correct? in eukaryotes? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
DNA ligases helps in joining breaks in the (a) σ and ρ, respectively
(a) Adenine pairs with thymine
phosphodiester backbone of DNA that (b) α and β, respectively
through one H-bond
occur during replication. DNA (c) β and γ, respectively
(b) Adenine pairs with thymine through
polymerase does not function during (d) α and σ, respectively
three H-bonds
transcription.
(c) Adenine does not pair with thymine Ans. (a)
08 Who coined the term ‘Kinetin’? (d) Adenine pairs with thymine through This question is not correct because out
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
two H-bonds of the given initiation and termination
Ans. (d) factors, none is involved in transcription
(a) Skoog and Miller
in eukaryotes. Only option (a) gives
(b) Darwin The statement in option (d) is correct
initiation and termination factors which
(c) Went because
are involved in transcription. These
(d) Kurosawa Adenine pairs with thymine through two factors (σ and ρ) initiate and terminate
H-bonds, i.e. A = T and the cytosine pairs transcription in prokaryotes (not in
Ans. (a) with guanine by three hydrogen bonds . eukaryotes). Initiation and termination
The term kinetin was coined by Skoog Between the G-C base pairs there are 3 factors involved in transcription in
and Miller in 1955. Chemically kinetin is hydrogen bonds which makes this bond eukaryotes are General Transcription
6-furfuryl aminopurine. It was the first pair stronger than the A-T base pair. Factors (TF IIA - TF II H) and
cytokinin to be discovered from the Transcription Termination Factor-1
degraded auto claved herring sperm 12 If the distance between two (TTF-1), respectively.
DNA. Kinetin does not occur naturally.
consecutive base pairs is 0.34 nm
and the total number of base pairs 15 Which scientist experimentally
09 In the polynucleotide chain of DNA,
of a DNA double helix in a typical proved that DNA is the sole genetic
a nitrogenous base is linked to
mammalian cell is 6.6 × 10 9 bp , material in bacteriophage?
the –OH of [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
then the length of the DNA is
(a) 2′ C pentose sugar (a) Beadle and Tatum
approximately [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(b) 3′ C pentose sugar
(a) 2.5 meters (b) 2.2 meters (b) Meselson and Stahl
(c) 5′ C pentose sugar
(c) Hershey and Chase
(d) 1′ C pentose sugar (c) 2.7 meters (d) 2.0 meters
(d) Jacob and Monod
Molecular Basis of Inheritance 265
Ans. (c) 18 Purines found both in DNA and RNA 20 The final proof for DNA as the
Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952) are [NEET (National) 2019] genetic material came from the
experimentally proved that DNA is the (a) adenine and guanine experiments of [NEET 2017]
sole genetic material in bacteriophage.
(b) guanine and cytosine (a) Griffith
On the other hand, Beadle and Tatum
(c) cytosine and thymine (b) Hershey and Chase
(1940s) experimentally showed one
gene-one enzyme hypothesis using (d) adenine and thymine (c) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty
Neurospora. Meselson and Stahl first Ans. (a) (d) Hargobind Khorana
showed that DNA replicates Adenine and guanine are the purines Ans. (b)
semiconservatively through experiments which are found both in DNA and RNA. The final proof that DNA is the genetic
on E.coli. Jacob and Monod were first to Cytosine and thymine are the pyrimidines material came from the experiments of
explain lac operon. which are found in DNA. In case of RNA, Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase (1952).
thymine is replaced by uracil. Griffith’s experiment proved the
16 What will be the sequence of mRNA existance of genetic material while
produced by the following stretch 19 The experimental proof for Avery, MacLeod and McCarty worked to
of DNA? semiconservative replication of determine the biochemical nature of
transforming principle.
3'ATGCATGCATGCATG5' DNA was first shown in a
[NEET 2018] Concept Enhancer Hershey and Chase
TEMPLATE STRAND during their experiment, grew viruses in
(a) plant (b) bacterium
5'TACGTACGTACGTAC3' CODING two mediums, one containing 32 P and
(c) fungus (d) virus other 35 S, when these were allowed to
STRAND [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
Ans. (b) infect bacteria, they observed that
(a) 3' - AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 5'
The experimental proof for viruses containing 32 P DNA were
(b) 5' - UACGUACGUACGUAC 3' radioactive while those with 35 S protein
(c) 3' - UACGUACGUACGUAC 5' semiconservative replication of DNA was
first shown in a bacterium, Escherichia were not radioactive. Hence, DNA not
(d) 5' - AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3' protein coat entered bacterial cells from
coli. It was discovered by Meselson and
Ans. (b) Stahl (1958). viruses.
The mRNA will be complementary to the
DNA strand, but in RNA, uracil will be 21 The association of histone H1 with
present in place of thymine. If the a nucleosome indicates [NEET 2017]
15N
template strand is 3′ - A T G C A T G C A T (a) transcription is occurring
G C A T G - 5 then the base sequence of (b) DNA replication is occurring
mRNA for the given DNA strand will be 5′ (c) the DNA is condensed into chromatin
- U A C G U A C G U A C G U A C - 3’. fibre
(d) the DNA double helix is exposed
17 Which of the following nucleic acids Parent DNA molecule
is present in an organism having Ans. (c)
70S ribosomes only? The association of H 1 histone with
14N
nucleosome indicates that DNA remains
in its condensed form.
(a) Single-stranded DNA with protein 15N
coat Concept Enhancer In eukaryotes, DNA
packaging is carried out with the help of
(b) Double-stranded circular naked DNA
histone proteins. Nucleosome is the unit
(c) Double-stranded DNA enclosed in of compaction. Its core consists of four
nuclear membrane First replication pairs of histones (H2 A, H2 B, H3 and H4 ).
(d) Double-stranded circular DNA with The linker DNA, consisting of H 1 histone
14N 14N
histone proteins 15N
connects two adjacent nucleosomes.
Ans. (b) 14N
15N They together constitute
Double-stranded circular naked DNA chromatosome. It gives rise to a
type of nucleic acid is present in an chromatin fibre after further
organism having 70S ribosomes. condensation.
These are present in prokaryotic
organisms or cells. All prokaryotic cells
have a single double-stranded (double
helix), circular DNA molecule for their Interpretation of results of experiment H1 Histone
genetic material. This DNA is attached to of Meselson and Stahl (1958) to prove
the inner cell membrane where the DNA semi-conservative replication of DNA
In this mode of replication, one strand of DNA
replicating machinery is located. The
DNA is ‘‘naked’’, it does not have proteins parent DNA is conserved in the progeny
Octamer of Histones
associated with it as eukaryotic DNA while the second is freshly synthesised.
does. Meselson and Stahl proved this by using A nucleosome
heavy isotope of Nitrogen (N15 ).
22 Spliceosomes are not found in cells 25 A complex of ribosomes attached (iv) It should be able to express itself in
the form of ‘Mendelian characters’.
of [NEET 2017] to a single strand of RNA is known
(a) plants as [NEET 2016, Phase I]
28 Which of the following r RNAs act
(b) fungi (a) polymer
(c) animals (b) polypeptide as structural RNA as well as
(d) bacteria (c) okazaki fragment ribozyme in bacteria?
Ans. (d) (d) polysome
(a) 5 srRNA (b) 18 srRNA
Spliceosome is a large molecular Ans. (d)
(c) 23 srRNA (d) 5⋅8 srRNA
complex found in nucleus of eukaryotic In prokaryotes, several ribosomes may
cells of plants, animals and fungi, etc. It attach to single mRNA and form a chain Ans. (c)
is assembled from snRNAs and protein called polyribosomes or polysomes. Bacterial cells use their 23 srRNA as an
complexes that plays an important role enzyme during protein synthesis. This is
in splicing of introns. Spliceosome is 26 DNA-dependent RNA polymerase the only non-proteinaceous enzyme
absent in cells of bacteria. catalyses transcription on one known so far.
strand of the DNA which is called
23 DNA replication in bacteria occurs 29 Taylor conducted the experiments
the [NEET 2016, Phase II]
[NEET 2017] to prove semiconservative mode of
(a) template strand (b) coding strand
(a) during S-phase chromosome replication on
(c) alpha strand (d) anti strand
(b) within nucleolus [NEET 2016, Phase II]
Ans. (a) (a)
(c) prior to fission Vinca rosea
(d) just before transcription DNA dependent RNA polymerase (b) Vicia faba
catalyses transcription on one strand of (c) Drosophila melanogaster
Ans. (c) the DNA called a template strand. A
(d) E. coli
Bacteria lack a cell nucleus. Due to their template can be considered as one of
primitive nature they lack a well marked those strands of DNA which decodes its Ans. (b)
S-phase. In bacteria DNA replication information directly through RNA The use of radioactive thymidine to
occurs before fission. polymerase. detect the semiconservative mode of
Concept Enhancer: Bacterial cell cycle This information is then restored within replication of newly synthesised DNA in
is divided into the B, C and D periods. The the RNA molecule and transferred the chromosomes was performed on
outside the nucleus for protein synthesis Vicia faba by Taylor and colleagues in
B period extends from the end of cell
within the cytoplasm. 1958. This experiment proved that the
division to the beginning of DNA
DNA in chromosomes replicates
replication. DNA replication occurs
27 A molecule that can act as a semiconservatively. Hence, the option (b)
during the C period. The D period refers is correct.
to the stage between the end of DNA genetic material must fulfill the
replication and the division of bacterial traits given below, except 30 The equivalent of a structural gene
cell into two daughter cells. [NEET 2016, Phase II]
is [NEET 2016, Phase II]
B period C period D period (a) it should be able to express itself in
the form of ‘Mendelian characters’ (a) muton (b) cistron
Cell (b) it should be able to generate its
(c) operon (d) recon
Chromosome
replication division replica Ans. (b)
Bacterial cell cycle (c) it should be unstable structurally and Cistron is the segment of DNA which
chemically determines the synthesis of complete
24 Which of the following RNAs should (d) it should provide the scope for slow polypeptide. Thus, it is considered as
changes that are required for equivalent to a structural gene.
be most abundant in animals cell? Therefore, option (b) is correct and
[NEET 2017] evolution
others are incorrect.
(a) rRNA (b) tRNA Ans. (c) Concept Enhancer Eukaryotic structural
(c) mRNA (d) miRNA A molecule that can act as a genetic gene is monocistronic whereas
Ans. (a) material must be unstable structurally prokaryotic structural gene is
and chemically. polycistronic.
There are three main types of RNA, i.e.
rRNA, tRNA and mRNA. rRNA is the most The criteria that a molecule must fulfil to Muton Smallest unit of DNA in which
act as a genetic material are as following mutation occurs.
abundant form of RNA; because it is
responsible for coding and protein (i) It should be able to replicate. Operon Functional unit of genomic DNA
synthesis in the cell and associated with (ii) It should be chemically and containing a cluster of genes under
ribosomes. mRNA provides the template structurally stable. control of single promoter.
for translation. tRNA brings amino acids (iii) It should provide the scope for slow Recon Smallest unit of DNA for
and reads the genetic code. changes, i.e. mutations which are recombination.
required for evolution.
31 Which one of the following is not Ans. (c) Ans. (d)

applicable to RNA? Transformation was discovered by F The primary transcript from a typical
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] Griffith [1928]. He isolated the DNA as eukaryotic gene contains introns as well
(a) Complementary base pairing genetic material that inherit the genetic as exons. During RNA splicing, introns
information between two generations by are removed and exons are joined in a
(b) 5′ phosphoryl and 3′ hydroxyl ends
using two strain of Pneumococcus defined order, to produce functional
(c) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases bacteria which infect mice. i.e. a type III RNA.
(d) Chargaff’s rule S(smooth) and type II R (rough) strain.
Ans. (d) 38 What are the structures called that
Chargaff’s rule is not applicable to RNA. 34 Removal of RNA polymerase-III give an appearance as ‘beads on
He is the generalisations formulated from nucleoplasm will affect the string’ in the chromosomes when
about DNA structure. The rule states synthesis of [CBSE AIPMT 2012] viewed under electron
that DNA from any cell of all organisms (a) tRNA (b) hnRNA
should have a 1 : 1 ratio (base pair rule) of
microscope? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(c) mRNA (d) rRNA (a) Genes (b) Nucleotides
pyrimidine and purine bases, i.e. the
amount of guanine is equal to cytosine Ans. (a) (c) Nucleosomes (d) Base pairs
and the amount of adenine is equal to RNA polymerase III transcribes tRNA, Ans. (c)
thymine. Further complementary base therefore tRNA synthesis will be
Nucleosome appear as "beads-on-string"
pairing is sometimes, visible in RNA as affected. RNA polymerase-II synthesises
in the chromosones. Nucleosome is
well (in doubled stranded RNAs of mRNA while, RNA polymerase-I
sub-microscopic sub-unit of chromatin
viruses) hence option (a) is not taken into synthesis rRNA in eukaryotes.
which is formed by wrapping of DNA over
consideration.
a core of histone proteins. The term was
35 Which one of the following is not a coined by Oudet, et. al [1975). It is oblate
32 Identify the correct order of part of a transcription unit in DNA? structure with a length of 10 nm and a
organisation of genetic material [CBSE AIPMT 2012] thickness of 5-5.7 nm. Its core is called
from largest to smallest. (a) The inducer nu-body. The latter is formed of four
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] (b) A terminator pairs of histone molecules-H2 A, H2 B, H3
(a) Chromosome, gene, genome, and H4 . DNA makes 1.75 turns over the
(c) A promoter
nucleotide octamer to form a nucleosome.
(d) The structural gene
(b) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, Two adjacent nucleosomes are
gene Ans. (a) connected by a short segment of
(c) Genome, chromosome, gene, Transcription unit consists of unbound DNA called linker DNA. A fifth
nucleotide promoter, structural gene and type of histone called H1 is attached
(d) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, terminator. The inducer over the linker DNA.
gene (lactose/allolactose) is not a
component of transcription unit. 39 Whose experiments cracked the
Ans. (c)
The correct order of organisation of
DNA and discovered unequivocally
genetic material from largest to smallest
36 Ribosomal RNA is actively that a genetic code is a triplet?
is as follows synthesised in [CBSE AIPMT 2012] [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Genome, chromosome, gene, (a) lysosomes (a) Nirenberg and Matthaei
nucleotide. (b) nucleolus (b) Hershey and Chase
Genome It is the total genetic material (c) nucleoplasm (c) Morgan and Sturtevant
of an individual. (d) ribosomes (d) Beadle and Tatum
Chromosome It is a packed and Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
organised structure containing most of
Nucleolus is the centre for synthesis of The existence of triplet code was simply
the DNA of a living organism.
ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Ribosomal an assumption till 1961, when Nirenberg
Gene It is a segment of DNA that proteins migrate to the nucleolus from and Matthaei proved its existence by
encodes for a protein. their assembly sites in the cytoplasm experiments. They were able to
Nucleotide It is one of the structural and are packaged into ribonucleoproteins. synthesise artificial mRNA, which
components, or building blocks, of DNA These return to the cytoplasm where contained only one nitrogenous base, i.e.
and RNA. they become mature ribosome particles. uracil. This synthetic poly U sequence
was then placed in a cell free system
33 Transformation was discovered by 37 Removal of introns and joining of containing protein synthesising enzymes
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] exons in a defined order during (extracted from bacterium E. coli) and
20 amino acids together with necessary
(a) Meselson and Stahl transcription is called ATP. During the process, a small
(b) Hershey and Chase [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
polypeptide molecule was produced,
(c) Griffith (a) looping (b) inducing which was formed by the linking of
(d) Watson and Crick (c) slicing (d) splicing phenylalanine.
This suggested that UUU is the code for 43 Molecular basis of organ saddle like structure at that point.
phenyl alanine. Nirenberg got Nobel differentiation depends on the What is that sequence called?
Prize for his contributions. modulation in transcription by [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (a) CAAT box (b) GGTT box
40 Polysome is formed by (a) RNA polymerase (c) AAAT box (d) TATA box
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(b) ribosome Ans. (d)
(a) several ribosomes attached to a
(c) transcription factor TATA box is present in eukaryotic
single mRNA
(d) anticodon promoter region. It has a resemblance
(b) many ribosomes attached to a strand
of endoplasmic reticulum Ans. (c) with Pribnow box of prokaryotes. TATA
box was identified by Dr. Hogness and
(c) a ribosome with several subunits Transcription factor is molecular basis so, it is also called as Hogness box. It is a
(d) ribosomes attached to each other in a of organ differentiation. 7 bp long region located 20 bp upstream
linear arrangement to the start point.
Ans. (a)
44 Telomere repetitive DNA During the process of transcription the
sequences control the function of RNA polymerase (a holoenzyme which
The group of ribosomes together with has a core unit and a sigma factor for
the single mRNA molecules, they are eukaryotic chromosomes because
proper initiation of transcription) binds
translating is called polysome. They are they [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
to TATA box due to which DNA assumes
formed by several ribosomes attached (a) act as replicons a saddle like structure at this place.
to a single mRNA. (b) are RNA transcription initiator
In eukaryotic cells the ribosomes are (c) help chromosome pairing 48 Telomerase is an enzyme which is a
attached to rough endoplasmic (d) prevent chromosome loss [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
reticulum by ribophorin protein. Electron (a) repetitive DNA
Ans. (d)
microscopy reveals that membranes of (b) RNA
homogenised endoplasmic reticulum
Telomeres, i.e. the ends of
chromosome, have repetitive DNA (c) simple protein
disrupt to form closed vesicles called (d) ribonucleoprotein
microsomes. Microsomes derived from
sequences and are stable and
rough endoplasmic reticulum are
resistant to exonuclease digestion Ans. (d)
studied with ribosomes and are called hence, prevent chromosome loss. Ends of an eukaryotic chromosome are
rough ribosomes. known as telomeres.
45 Which one of the following makes Telomerase, which is a special
41 The Okazaki fragments in DNA use of RNA as a template to ribonucleoprotein molecule (enzymatic
in nature) is responsible for the
chain growth [CBSE AIPMT 2007] synthesise DNA? synthesis of these telomeres.
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(a) result in transcription
(b) polymerise in the 3′ to 5′ direction and (a) Reverse transcriptase 49 During replication of a bacterial
forms replication fork (b) DNA dependant RNA polymerase chromosome DNA synthesis starts
(c) prove semi-conservative nature of (c) DNA polymerase from a replication origin site and
DNA replication (d) RNA polymerase [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(d) polymerise in the 5′ to 3′ direction and (a) RNA primers are involved
Ans. (a)
explain 3′ to 5′ DNA replication
In 1970 H Temin and D Baltimore (b) is facilitated by telomerase
Ans. (a) independently discovered the enzyme (c) moves in one direction of the site
The Okazaki fragments in DNA chain reverse transcriptase. This enzyme uses (d) moves in bi-directional way
growth polymerise in the 5′ to 3′ RNA as template for the synthesis of
cDNA (complementary DNA). Ans. (a)
direction. The replicated DNA results in
The events for initiation of DNA
transcription.
replication in prokaryotes may be
46 Which one of the following classified into (a) pre-priming (occurring
42 The length of DNA molecule greatly hydrolyses internal phosphodiester only at the origin); (b) priming (recurring
exceeds the dimensions of the bonds in a polynucleotide chain? with the initiation of each Okazaki
nucleus in eukaryotic cells. How is [CBSE AIPMT 2005] fragment during elongation phase.
(a) Lipase (b) Exonuclease Unwinding of DNA is followed by the
this DNA accommodated? synthesis of RNA primers by RNA
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (c) Endonuclease (d) Protease primase.
(a) Deletion of non-essential genes Ans. (c)
(b) Super-coiling in nucleosomes Endonuclease hydrolyses internal 50 The telomeres of eukaryotic
(c) DNAse digestion phosphodiester bonds in a chromosomes consist of short
(d) Through elimination of repetitive DNA polynucleotide chain. sequences of [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Ans. (b) (a) thymine rich repeats
47 During transcription holoenzyme (b) cytosine rich repeats
In eukaryotic cells, DNA is
accommodated by super-coiling in RNA polymerase binds to a DNA (c) adenine rich repeats
nucleosomes. sequence and the DNA assumes a (d) guanine rich repeats
Ans. (d) 54 Chromosomes in a bacterial cell Ans. (c)

Telomeres have been shown to have can be 1-3 in number and Total DNA [100] = A + T + C + G
unique structures that include short [CBSE AIPMT 2003] A = 20% (given)
nucleotide sequences present as (a) can be either circular or linear, but A = T (base pairing rule)
tandemly repeated units. In eukaryotes never both within the same cell
the telomeres terminate with a 100 = 20 + 20 + C + G
(b) can be circular as well as linear within C + G = 100 – 40 = 60
single-stranded DNA [12-16 nucleotides the same cell
long) rich in guanine. C = G = 30 (C = G)
(c) are always circular
51 During transcription, the nucleotide (d) are always linear
59 Sequence of which of the following
sequence of the DNA strand that is Ans. (c) is used to know the phylogeny?
being coded is ATACG, then the Bacterial chromosomes are circular DNA [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
nucleotide sequence in the mRNA molecules. (a) mRNA (b) rRNA
would be [CBSE AIPMT 2004] (c) tRNA (d) DNA
55 Exon part of mRNAs have code for
(a) TATGC (b) TCTGG [CBSE AIPMT 2002] Ans. (b)
(c) UAUGC (d) UATGG The genes for rRNAs tend to be highly
(a) protein (b) lipid
Ans. (c) (c) carbohydrate (d) phospholipid conserved and, are therefore, often
If DNA has ATACG nucleotide sequence employed for phylogenetic studies.
then the mRNA would contain UAUGC
Ans. (a)
sequence. The formation of mRNA from Exon part of mRNA consists of codons 60 In which direction mRNA is
DNA is termed as transcription. This for protein synthesis. Exon is the stretch synthesised on DNA template?
process takes place in the nucleus of bases which codes for amino acids, [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(eukaryotes) or in the cytoplasm while the non-coding stretches of bases
(a) 5′ → 3′ (b) 3′ → 5′
(prokaryotes). are called intron.
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Any of above
The base sequence of mRNA is
complementary copy of the template 56 Which of the following reunites the Ans. (a)
DNA strand. exon segments after RNA splicing? 5′→ 3′ is the direction of synthesis of
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] mRNA on DNA template.
52 Which form of RNA has a structure (a) RNA polymerase (b) RNA primase
resembling clover leaf? (c) RNA ligase (d) RNA protease
61 Gene and cistron words are
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] sometimes used synonymously
Ans. (c)
(a) rRNA (b) hnRNA because [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
RNA ligase reunites the exon segments
(c) mRNA (d) tRNA (a) one cistron contains many genes
after RNA splicing.
Ans. (d) (b) one gene contains many cistrons
The basic plan of the structure of 57 Which statements is correct for (c) one gene contains one cistron
tRNA assumes the pattern of a clover bacterial transduction? (d) one gene contains no cistron
leaf. The structures of different tRNAs [CBSE AIPMT 2002] Ans. (c)
for almost all amino acids are now (a) Transfer of some genes from one Cistron is generally accepted as a
available and all of these fit the clover bacteria to another bacteria through synonym for gene. Gene (Gr. genos =
leaf model. The tRNA structure can be virus birth, race) is the basic unit of heredity. It
decomposed into its primary structure is a sequence of nucleotides on a
(b) Transfer of genes from one bacteria
and its secondary structure (usually chromosome that encodes a polypeptide
to another bacteria by conjugation
seen as clover leaf structure) and or RNA molecule and so, determines the
tertiary structure. (c) Bacteria obtained its DNA directly nature of individual’s inherited traits.
(d) Bacteria obtained DNA from other Cistron is a segment of DNA that codes
53 During transcription, the DNA site external source for one polypeptide.
at which RNA polymerase binds is Ans. (a)
called [CBSE AIPMT 2003] Transduction involves the picking up of
62 E. coli about to replicate was
(a) receptor (b) enhancer DNA by bacteriophage from one placed in a medium containing
(c) promoter (d) regulator bacterial cell and carrying it to another radioactive thymidine for five
where, the DNA fragment may get minutes. Then it was made to
Ans. (c)
incorporated into the bacterial host’s replicate in a normal medium.
Promoter is the nucleotide sequence genome.
to which RNA polymerase binds and Which of the following observation
initiates transcription. Formation of a 58 In a DNA percentage of thymine is shall be correct? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
single stranded linear chain of (a) Both the strands of DNA will be
complementary RNA (mRNA) on the
20. What is the percentage of
radioactive
template strand of DNA in nucleus guanine? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(b) One strand radioactive
(eukaryotes) or in cytoplasm (a) 20% (b) 40% (c) Each strand half radioactive
(prokaryotes) is known as transcription. (c) 30% (d) 60%
(d) None is radioactive
Ans. (b) 65 One of the similarities between 68 Genes are packaged into a
E. coli after 5 Both strands of DNA DNA and RNA is that both bacterial chromosome by
minutes from a contain radioactive
thymidine thymidine
radioactive (a) are polymers of nucleotides (a) histones
medium Replication (b) are capable of replicating (b) basic protein
(semi-conservative) (c) acidic protein
(c) have similar sugars
(d) have similar pyrimidine bases (d) actin
Ans. (a) Ans. (b)
Normal Normal
DNA strand Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms.
DNA strand DNA Composition RNA Composition
(new (new Polyamines (basic proteins) like
strand) Old strand Old strand strand) Deoxyribose sugar. Ribose sugar. spermidine and cadaverine (instead of
containing containing Adenine, guanine Adenine, guanine histones) are associated with DNA
radioactive radioactive (both purine) and (both purine) and packaging in bacteria.
thymidine thymidine cytosine, thymine uracil, cytosine
Since, DNA replication is (both pyrimidine), (both pyrimidine) 69 The hereditary material present in
semiconservative, the newly synthesised nitrogenous bases. nitrogenous bases.
the bacterium E. coli is
strand of DNA would be normal while the Phosphate Phosphate [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
strand obtained from parent molecule molecules. molecules. (a) single stranded RNA
would be radioactive. In the given It is polymer of It is also polymer
expreiment
(b) double stranded RNA
nucleotides. of nucleotides. (c) single stranded DNA
It is capable to It is formed from (d) double stranded DNA
63 Due to discovery of which of the replicate in all DNA by the
following in 1980’s the evolution cases because it process of Ans. (d)
was termed as RNA world? functions as transcription only Bacterial chromosome is single, circular
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] heredity material. in few cases (RNA double stranded DNA molecule.
viruses) it
(a) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA synthesise functions as
proteins heredity material. 70 An enzyme that joins the ends of
(b) In some viruses, RNA is genetic two strands of nucleic acid is a
material [CBSE AIPMT 1996, 2002]
(c) Some RNAs have enzymatic property 66 The Pneumococcus experiment (a) polymerase (b) synthetase
(d) RNA is not found in all cells proves that [CBSE AIPMT 1999] (c) helicase (d) ligase
Ans. (c) (a) DNA is the genetic material
Ans. (d)
(b) RNA sometime controls the
Ribozymes are catalytically active RNA Ligase enzyme joins the ends of two
production of DNA and proteins
molecules discovered in 1980’s. These strands of nucleic acid.
are self-splicing introns indicating their (c) bacteria undergo binary fission
possible role as intermediates in the (d) bacteria do not reproduce sexually
71 Okazaki fragments are seen during
evolution of biological systems from Ans. (a) [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
abiotic substances.
The Pneumococcus experiment proves (a) transcription (b) translation
that DNA is the genetic material as (c) replication (d) transduction
64 During replication of DNA, its two Frederick Griffith (1928) found that
strands separate. Each of these ‘something’ passed from heat-killed Ans. (c)
serves as a template for the encapsulated forms of Pneumococcus to During DNA replication in lagging strand
formation of new strands. Such live non-capsulated forms which caused DNA fragments are formed in small
them to develop capsules and become pieces these are called Okazaki
type of replication is called fragments.
virulent. Avery et al, (1944) found this
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
transforming agent (hence, genetic
(a) non-conservative material) to be DNA. 72 In split genes, the coding sequence
(b) semi-conservative
are called [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(c) flexible 67 DNA elements, which can switch
(d) conservative (a) introns (b) operons
their position, are called (c) exons (d) cistrons
Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
Ans. (c)
Since, each daughter DNA molecule (a) exons (b) introns
contains one strand of the parent DNA In split genes coding region is called
(c) cistrons (d) transposons
double helix (only one strand synthesised exons. In higher organisms (eukaryotes)
afresh) the process of replication is Ans. (d) gene is not continuous, within a single
called semi-conservative. Mathew Transposons are genetic elements gene there may be four or five silent
Meselson and Franklin Stahl in 1958 varying from 750 base pairs to 40 kilo regions. These regions are called introns
proved experimentally that DNA base pairs in length and can move from a (which do not transcribe mRNA). The
replication is semi-conservative. site in one genome to another site in the remaining part is called as exons
same or in a different genome. (transcribe mRNA).
73 Protein helping in opening of DNA Ans. (c) 82 Escherichia coli fully labelled with
double helix in front of replications Unwinding of DNA helix is caused by N 15 is allowed to grow in N 14
fork is enzyme helicase. medium. The two strands of DNA
(a) DNA gyrase molecule of the first generation
(b) DNA polymerase-I
78 Who proved that DNA is basic
bacteria have [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(c) DNA ligase
genetic material?
(a) different density and do not resemble
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(d) topoisomeras parent DNA
(a) Griffith (b) different density but resemble parent
Ans. (a) (b) Watson DNA
DNA gyrase helps in opening of DNA (c) Boveri and Sutton (c) same density and resemble parent DNA
double helix in front of replication fork. (d) Hershey and Chase (d) same density but do not resemble
Ans. (d) parent DNA
74 Reverse transcriptase is
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] Hershey and Chase [1952] proved that Ans. (b)
DNA is basic genetic material. When E. coli fully labelled withN15 is
(a) RNA dependent RNA polymerase
(b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase allowed to grow inN14 medium, then after
79 Nucleotide arrangement in DNA first generation of replication one of the
(c) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
can be seen by two strands would haveN15 and the other
(d) RNA dependent DNA polymerase strand would haveN14 . The resulting
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
Ans. (d) (a) X-ray crystallography molecule would have a density which is
Reverse transcriptase is RNA dependent intermediate betweenN15 DNA and N14
(b) electron microscope DNA.
DNA polymerase. H Temin and D (c) ultracentrifuge
Baltimore discovered reverse These two molecules of DNA will be
(d) light microscope similar but not same in density.
transcription. Reverse transcriptase has
modified central dogma of molecular Ans. (a)
biology as RNA → DNA → RNA → Protein. Astbury by his X-ray diffraction studies 83 In RNA, thymine is replaced by
suggested 3-D configuration for DNA [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
75 Nucleosome core is made of molecules which was confirmed by (a) adenine
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] Wilkins and Franklin in 1952 and then in (b) guanine
(a) H1, H2A, H2B and H3 1953 Watson and Crick designed the (c) cytosine
(b) H1, H2A, H2B and H4 model of DNA molecule.
(d) Uracil
(c) H1, H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
80 The transforming principle of Ans. (d)
(d) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4
Pneumococcus as found out by DNA consists of nitrogenous bases,
Ans. (d) Avery, Mac Leod and McCarty was adenine, guanine, cytosine and thymine,
A nucleosome is an octamer of histone [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
whereas in RNA thymine is replaced by
proteins and has a core of 8 molecules of uracil. The other nitrogeneous bases, i.e.
(a) mRNA adenine, guanine, cytosine are present
histone proteins (two each of H2A, H2B,
(b) DNA both in RNA and DNA.
H3 and H4] wrapped by two turns of DNA.
(c) protein
(d) polysaccharide 84 A nucleotide is formed of
76 A DNA with unequal nitrogen bases
would most probably be Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] Avery, MacLeod and McCarty [1944] (a) purine, pyrimidine and phosphate
(a) single stranded showed the significance of DNA in (b) purine, sugar and phosphate
(b) double stranded hereditary transmission in bacteria (c) nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate
Pneumococcus. They discovered the (d) pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate
(c) triple stranded biochemical nature of gene.
(d) four stranded Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) 81 Experimental material in the study Nucleotide is the basic unit of nucleic
A single stranded DNA do not possess its of DNA replication has been acids (DNA and RNA). It is composed of
complementary base pairs so it would [CBSE AIPMT 1992] nucleoside (nitrogeneous base +
have unequal nitrogen bases. pentose sugar) and phosphate group.
(a) Escherichia coli
(b) Neurospora crassa 85 The process of transfer of genetic
77 During DNA replication, the strands (c) Pneumococcus
separate by information from DNA to
(d) Drosophila melanogaster
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] RNA/formation of RNA from DNA is
Ans. (a) [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(a) DNA polymerase
(b) topoisomerase Meselson and Stahl [1958] proved (a) transversion
experimentally that in E. coli DNA is (b) transcription
(c) unwindase/helicase
replicated by semi-conservative
(d) gyrase (c) translation
manner.
(d) translocation
Ans. (b) Ans. (d) Ans. (b)

The transfer of genetic information from According to Chargaff’s rule, molar Statement in option (b) is correct and
DNA to RNA (mRNA) is known as amount of adenine is equal to that of other statements can be corrected as
transcription. Both the strands of DNA thymine and cytosine equals to guanine, A heterogeneous nuclear RNA orhnRNA
do not transcribe RNA but only one of A + G = T + C. So, a segment of DNA with is a primary mRNA transcript that is
them does it which is called as template 120 adenine base and 120 cytosine base localised in the nucleus. Capping is a
strand. will have same number of each thymine process in which at the 5′ end of hnRNA,
and guanine base (as, A = T and C = G), a cap of 7-methly guanosine is added.
86 Which is not consistent with i.e. 120 thymine bases, 120 guanine The template strand is a transcription
double helical structure of DNA? bases, thus a total of 480 nucleotides. unit is coped to a mRNA.
[CBSE AIPMT 1990] Split gene arrangement is
(a) A==T, C≡≡G TOPIC 2 characteristic of eukaryotes.
(b) Density of DNA decreases on heating
(c) A + T/C + G is not constant
Genetic Code and 92 What is the role of RNA
(d) Both (a) and (b) Gene Expression polymerase-III in the process of
transcription in eukaryotes?
Ans. (c) [NEET 2021]
90 Statement I The condon ‘AUG’
According to Erwin Chargaff, the base (a) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and
ratio A + T/G + C may vary from one codes for methionine and
5.8S)
species to another, but is constant for a phenylalanine.
(b) TranscribestRNA (5s rRNA and
given species. It is rarely equal to one Statement II ‘AAA’ and ‘AAG’ both snRNA)
and varies from 0.4 and 1.9.
codons code for the amino acid (c) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
lysine. (d) Transcribes only snRNAs
87 DNA replication is
[CBSE AIPMT 1989] In the light of the above Ans. (b)
(a) conservative and discontinuous statements, choose the correct In eukaryotes, at least three classes of
(b) semi-conservative and answer from the options given RNA polymerases (Pol I-III) are required
semidiscontinuous for the cellular RNA synthesis. In
below. [NEET 2021]
eukaryote cells, RNA polymerase III
(c) semi-conservative and discontinuous (a) Both statement I and statement II are (also called Pol III) transcribes DNA to
(d) conservative true synthesise ribosomal 5S rRNA, tRNA
Ans. (b) (b) Both statement I and statement ll are and other small RNAs. The genes
false transcribed by RNA Pol III fall in the
DNA replication is semi-conservative
(c) Statement I is true, but statement Il is category of "housekeeping" genes
that means DNA formed after replication
false whose expression is required in all cell
contains one strand of its parent DNA
(d) Statement I is false, but statement II types and most environmental
and this was proved by Meselson and
is true conditions.
Stahl [1958].
During replication the strand formed in Ans. (d)
93 Identify the statement which is
leading strand is continuous, while the Statement I is false, but statement II is
true and can be corrected as
incorrect. [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
strand formed in lagging strand is
(a) Sulphur is an integral part of
discontinuous in the small pieces The codon AUG only codes for
cysteine
(Okazaki fragments). methionine. As the codons are universal.
From bacteria to mammals AUG only (b) Glycine is an example of lipids
codes for methionine. (c) Lecithin contains phosphorus atom
88 Which one contains four pyrimidine in its structure
bases? [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Some amino acids are coded by more
than one codon, hence the code is (d) Tyrosine possesses aromatic ring in
(a) GATCAATGC (b) GCUAGACAA degenerate. AAA and AAG both codons its structure
(c) UAGCGGUAA (d) TGCCTAACG code for the amino acid lysine. Ans. (b)
Ans. (a) Statement (b) is incorrect. It can be
Pyrimidines are 6-membered nitrogen 91 Identify the correct statement. corrected as Glycine is an example of
bases that contain nitrogen at 1 and 3 [NEET 2021] amino acid. It is a neutral amino acid
positions, e.g. cytosine (C), thymine (T), (a) In capping, methyl guanosine that contains only one amino group and
uracil (U). triphosphate is added to the 3 end of one carboxylic group with non-cyclic
hnRNA hydrocarbon chain.
89 A segment of DNA has 120 adenine (b) RNA polymerase binds with Rho
factor to terminate the process of 94 The first phase of translation is
and 120 cytosine bases. The total transcription in bacteria [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
number of nucleotides present in (c) The coding strand in a transcription (a) recognition of DNA molecule
the segment is [CBSE AIPMT 1991] unit is copied to an mRNA (b) aminoacylation of tRNA
(a) 120 (b) 240 (d) Split gene arrangement is (c) recognition of an anti-codon
(c) 60 (d) 480 characteristic of prokaryotes
(d) binding of mRNA to ribosome
Ans. (b) (c) Universal, Ambiguous, Degenerate 100 Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs)
The first phase of translation is (d) Degenerate, Non-overlapping, refers to [NEET (National) 2019]
aminoacylation of tRNA, i.e. activation of Non-ambiguous
(a) polypeptide expression
amino acids and the formation of AA-tRNA Ans. (d) (b) DNA polymorphism
complex. In the presence of an enzyme
The correct combination of salient (c) novel DNA sequences
tRNA synthetase, the amino acid (AA) features of Genetic code is degenerate,
molecule is activated and then each (d) genes expressed as RNA
Non-overlapping, Non-ambiguous.
amino acid is attached to the specific Ans. (d)
These are explained as one codon codes
tRNA molecule at 3’ / CCA end to form for only one amino acid, hence genetic Expressed Sequence Tags (EST) refers
aminoacyl- tRNA complex. The reaction
code is unambiguous and specific. Some to the genes expressed as RNA. These
needs ATP. This process is thus called
amino acids are coded by more than one are the DNA sequences that are
charging of tRNA or aminoacylation of
codon, hence the code is degenerate. expressed as mRNA for protein
tRNA. The codon is read in mRNA in a synthesis.
contiguous fashion. There are no
95 The specific palindromic sequence punctuations and overlapping.
which is recognised by EcoRI is 101 AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] the coding strand of a gene. What
98 Which of the following features of will be the corresponding sequence
(a) 5'- GGAACC- 3'
genetic code does allow bacteria to of the transcribed mRNA?
(b) 5' - CTTAAG - 3' 3' - CCTTGG - 5'
3' - GAATTC - 5' produce human insulin by [NEET 2018]
(c) 5' - GGATCC - 3' recombinant DNA technology? (a) ACCUAUGCGAU
(d) 5' - GAATTC - 3' 3'- CCTAGG - 5' [NEET (National) 2019]
(b) AGGTUTCGCAT
3' - CTTAAG - 5' (a) Genetic code is redundant (c) AGGUAUCGCAU
Ans. (d) (b) Genetic code is nearly universal (d) UCCAUAGCGUA
The correct option is (d) because the
(c) Genetic code is specific
Ans. (c)
specific palindromic sequence which is (d) Genetic code is not ambiguous
Coding strand is the one that codes for
recognised by EcoRI is 5′-GAATTC-3′ Ans. (b) mRNA. It has same nucleotide sequence
3′-CTTAAG-5′. Bacteria is able to produce human as that of mRNA except thymine (T) is
A palindromic sequence is a sequence insulin because genetic code is nearly replaced by uracil (U) in mRNA. Hence,
made up of nucleic acids within double universal in all organisms. For example, the corresponding sequence of
helix of DNA or RNA that is the same when the codon AGG specifies amino acid transcribed mRNA by template or
read from 5’ to 3’ on one strand and 3’ to Arginine in bacteria, animals and plants. non-coding strand (complementary to
5’ on the other, complementary strand. But there are also some exceptions to RNA) is AGGUAUCGCAU.
it, e.g. in mitochondria, stop codon
96 The sequence that controls the UGA specifies amino acid tryptophan.
copy number of the linked DNA in 102 If there are 999 bases in an RNA
the vector, is termed that codes for a protein with 333
99 Match the following RNA
(a) Ori site amino acids and the base at
polymerases with their transcribed
(b) palindromic sequence position 901 is deleted such that
products
(c) recognition site the length of the RNA becomes 998
(d) selectable marker 1. RNA polymerase I i. tRNA bases, how many codons will be
Ans. (a) 2. RNA polymerase II ii. rRNA altered ? [NEET 2017]
The sequence that controls the copy 3. RNA polymerase III iii. hnRNA (a) 1
number of linked DNA in the vector is (b) 11
called as Ori site. Origin of replication is a Select the correct option from the (c) 33
sequence from where replication starts following [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
and any foreign DNA is linked to this region. (d) 333
1 2 3
Ori site is also responsible for controlling Ans. (c)
(a) (i) (iii) (ii)
copy number of linked DNA. 33 codons will be altered if the 901st
(b) (i) (ii) (iii)
Therefore, if any person wants to base is deleted and RNA has only 998
produce many copies of the target DNA
(c) (ii) (iii) (i)
bases instead of 999 bases.
he/she should clone in a vector whose (d) (iii) (ii) (i)
Total bases present in RNA = 999
Ori site supports high copy number. Ans. (c)
Bases left after deletion of 901st base in
The correct matches are RNA
97 From the following, identify the
correct combination of salient 1. RNA polymerse I (ii) rRNAs (28S,18S = 999 − 901
features of Genetic code. transcribes and 5.8S) = 98
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] 2. RNA polymerase (iii) hn RNA Number of codon present in98 = 33
II
(a) Universal, Non-ambiguous, (Approximately as three codons code for
Overlapping 3. RNA polymerase (i) tRNA
III one amino acid).
(b) Degenerate, Overlapping, Commaless
103 Which one of the following is the Ans. (a) based on their experiments conducted
The general features of genetic code are on Neurospora crassa. They were
starter codon? [NEET 2016, Phase I]
awarded by Nobel Prize in 1958.
(a) UGA (b) UAA (i) The genetic code is written in linear
(c) UAG (d) AUG form, using the ribonucleotide
bases that compose mRNA 109 A sequential expression of a set of
Ans. (d) molecule as letters. human genes occurs when a
AUG is the start codon. It also codes for (ii) Each word of codon consists of steroid molecule binds to the
amino acid called methionine which is three letters, i.e., the codon is [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
the first amino acid in a polypeptide triplet. (a) transfer RNA (b) messenger RNA
chain. UAA, UAG and UGA are stop
(iii) The genetic code inside the cell (c) DNA sequence (d) ribosome
codons and are meant for termination of
medium is said to be non-ambiguous.
polypeptide chain during protein Ans. (c)
synthesis. (iv) The code is degenerate, i.e. a given
The steroid hormone receptor protein
amino acid can be specified by
complex activate transcription of target
more than one codons.
104 The diagram shows an important gene by binding to sepecific DNA
(v) The codon contains ‘start’ and ‘stop’
concept in the genetic implication sequence.
signals.
of DNA. Fill in the blanks A to C.
(vi) The code is said to be commaless.
[NEET 2013] 110 One gene-one enzyme hypothesis
(vii) The code is non-overlapping.
B
was postulated by
A
DNA mRNA Protein [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
107 Which one of the following pairs of
(a) R Franklin
Proposed by codons is correctly matched with
(b) Hershey and Chase
C their function or the signal for the (c) A Garrod
particular amino acid? (d) Beadle and Tatum
(a) A–transcription, B–replication, [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
C–James Watson Ans. (d)
(a) GUU, GCU — Alanine
(b) A–translation, B–transcription, ‘One gene-one enzyme’ hypothesis was
(b) UAG, UGA — Stop
C–Erwin Chargaff given by Beadle and Tatum [1948] which
(c) AUG, ACG — Start/methionine states that particular gene controls the
(c) A–transcription, B–translation,
(d) UUA, UCA — Leucine synthesis of specific enzyme. Later, it
C–Francis Crick
(d) A–translation, B–extension, Ans. (b) was modified to ‘one gene-one
C–Rosalind Franklin The group of nucleotides that specifies polypeptide hypothesis’ by Yanofsky, et.
one amino acid is a code word or codon. al, [1965).
Ans. (c)
The nucleotides of mRNA are arranged
Central dogma is as a linear sequence of codons, each 111 Amino acid sequence, in protein
Translation
Transcription
DNA → mRNA → Protein codon consisting of three successive synthesis is decided by the
A B
nitrogenous bases. sequence of [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
Francis Crick
→
C
Three codons UAG, UAA and UGA are the (a) tRNA (b) mRNA
termination codons. They do not code (c) cDNA (d) rRNA
for any of the amino acids.
105 If one strand of DNA has the Ans. (b)
In most organisms AUG codon is the
nitrogenous base sequence as start or initiation codon, i.e. the In the process of protein synthesis, the
ATCTG, what would be the polypeptide chain starts either with messenger RNA (mRNA) is responsible for
complementary RNA strand methionine or N-formylmethionine. carrying the genetic code transcribed from
DNA to specialised sites within the cell
sequence? [CBSE AIPMT 2012] Leucine — UUA, UUG, CUU, CUC,
(called ribosomes) where the information
(a) TTAGU (b) UAGAC CUA, CUG.
is translated into protein. The sequence of
(c) AACTG (d) ATCGU Alanine — GUC, GCC, GCA, GCG. amino acids in a particular protein is
Ans. (b) GUU — Valine determined by the sequence of
UCA — Serine. nucleotides in mRNA. Sequence of tRNA,
If one strand of DNA has the
cDNA or rRNA do not decide the amino
nitrogenous base sequence as ATCTG,
108 One gene-one enzyme relationship acid sequence in protein synthesis.
the complementary sequence of
mRNA will be UAGAC. was established for the first time in
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] 112 After a mutation at genetic locus
106 What is not true for genetic code? (a) Neurospora crassa the character of an organism
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] (b) Salmonella typhimurium changes due to the change in
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(a) A codon in mRNA is read in a (c) Escherichia coli
non-contiguous fashion (d) Diplococcus pneumoniae (a) protein structure
(b) It is nearly universal (b) DNA replication
Ans. (a)
(c) It is degenerate (c) protein synthesis pattern
One gene-one enzyme relationship was
(d) It is unambiguous (d) RNA transcription pattern
initially proposed by Beadle and Tatum
Ans. (a) 116 Degeneration of a genetic code is Ans. (b)

Normally, genetic information flows attributed to the A variety of proteins are synthesised on
from DNA → mRNA → protein. Hence, [CBSE AIPMT 2003] ribosomes. However, these have
any change in nucleotides due to the (a) entire codon different destinations. David Sabatini
mutation, would result in change in the and G. Blobel proposed ‘signal sequence’
(b) third member of a codon
structure of protein/enzyme which hypothesis according to which a short
might result in some change in the (c) first member of a codon amino acid sequence at the amino
organism. (d) second member of a codon terminus of a newly synthesised
Ans. (b) polypeptide directs a protein to its
113 The following ratio is generally appropriate sequence.
It has seen variously that one tRNA
constant for a given species molecule codes for more than one amino
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] acid molecules. This is possible due to 120 The transfer RNA molecule in 3D
(a) A + G /C + T the improper pairing of third codon with appears [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(b) T + C/G + A the first anticodon of tRNA. (a) L-shaped (b) E-shaped
(c) G + C/ A + T (c) Y-shaped (d) S-shaped
(d) A + C/ T + G 117 During translation initiation in
Ans. (a)
prokaryotes, a GTP molecule is
Ans. (c) Kim et al, (1973) suggested L shaped
needed in [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
model of tRNA by X-ray diffraction while
The base ratio A + T / G + C may vary
(a) association of 30S, mRNA with formyl studying phenyl alanine tRNA of yeast. L
from one species to another, but is met tRNA
constant for a given species. It is shape structure of tRNA is a
(b) association of 50S subunit of 3-dimentional (3D) structure of 20 Å
rarely equal to one and varies between ribosome with initiation complex thickness.
0.4 and 1.9.
(c) formation of formyl met tRNA
(d) binding of 30S subunit of ribosome 121 Which is not involved in protein
114 In the genetic code dictionary, how with mRNA synthesis? [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
many codons are used to code for
Ans. (a) (a) Transcription (b) Initiation
all the 20 essential amino acids?
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] During the process of translation an (c) Elongation (d) Termination
initial complex is formed between
(a) 61 mRNA, 30S ribosomal sub-unit and
Ans. (a)
(b) 60 methionyl tRNA. This complex is formed Transcription is the synthesis of RNA on
(c) 20 due to the association of IF1 , IF2 , IF3 DNA template. It is not involved in
(d) 64 initiation factors and GTP molecule. protein synthesis (translation).
Ans. (a) 122 In DNA when AGCT occurs, their

118 Which one of the following triplet
Out of 64 codons three (UAA, UAG, UGA) association is as per which of the
are chain terminating codons the codes, is correctly matched with its
translating mechanism is not able to specificity for an amino acid in following pair? [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
read these codons and 61 codons are protein synthesis or as ‘start’ or (a) ACGT
used to code all the 20 essential amino ‘stop’ codon? [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (b) AGCT
acids. (c) ATGC
(a) UGU—Leucine (b) UAC—Tyrosine
(d) All of these
(c) UCG—Start (d) UUU—Stop
115 What would happen if in a gene Ans. (c)
encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino Ans. (b)
In DNA AGCT is associated with pair
acids, 25th codon (UAU) is mutated UGU → Cistine
ATGC because in a DNA molecule, the
to UAA? [CBSE AIPMT 2003] UAC → Tyrosine purine adenine in either chain is
(a) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will UCG → Serine associated with the pyrimidine
be formed UUU → Phenylalanine thymidine on the other. Similarly, purine
(b) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will UAG, UGA, UAA → Stop codons guanine in either chain is associated with
be formed UAG → Start codon. pyrimidine cytosine on the other.
(c) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will
be formed 119 ‘Signal hypothesis’ for the 123 Protein synthesis in an animal cell
(d) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino biosynthesis of secretory type of takes place [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
acids will be formed (a) only in the cytoplasm
proteins was proposed by
Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 2000] (b) in the nucleolus as well as in the
UAA is the ‘stop’ codon hence, cytoplasm
(a) Camillo Golgi
polypeptide chain will not grow after 24th (c) in the cytoplasm as well as in
(b) Blobel and Sabatini
amino acid. In the absence of new mitochondria
(c) Baltimore (d) only on ribosomes attached to a
initiating codon rest of codons will not
be able to translate. (d) Sheeler and Bianchi nucleus
Ans. (c) Ans. (b) 132 The process of translation is

Protein synthesis is a complex process it Transcription is the process of synthesis [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
essentially involves DNA for the of mRNA on DNA template by the (a) ribosome synthesis
synthesis of mRNA (transcription) which complementary bases. As thymine is
(b) protein synthesis
contains information for the synthesis of replaced by uracil in RNA so, the
proteins (translation). The process of sequence of bases will be UAAGCUAC. (c) DNA synthesis
translation takes place on ribosomes (d) RNA synthesis
which are found in cytoplasm (in 128 Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of Ans. (b)
attached form on ER) and in bases in an exposed position of Translation is the process of protein
mitochondria (in the free form). [CBSE AIPMT 1995] synthesis in which the triplet base
124 The RNA that picks up specific (a) mRNA (b) rRNA sequences of mRNA molecules is
(c) tRNA (d) sRNA converted into a specific sequences of
amino acid from amino acid pool in amino acids in a polypeptide chain, this
the cytoplasm to ribosome during Ans. (c) occurs on ribosomes.
protein synthesis is called tRNA possess anticodon stem which
[CBSE AIPMT 1997] includes five paired bases. The 133 Because most of the amino acids
(a) mRNA (b) tRNA anticodon loop consists of 7 unpaired
bases. The third, fourth and fifth of
are represented by more than one
(c) rRNA (d) RNA codon, the genetic code is
which form anticodon. This anticodon
Ans. (b) permits temporary complementary [CBSE AIPMT 1993, 2002]
tRNA (soluble RNA = sRNA) is a 70-75 pairing with three bases on mRNA. (a) overlapping (b) wobbling
nucleotide long molecule. 80% of this (c) degenerate (d) generate
RNA is double helical, one end of this 129 DNA template sequence of
molecule has G and other C—C—A Ans. (c)
CTGATAGC is transcribed over Degeneracy means lack of specificity.
sequences.
mRNA as [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Presence of more than one meaningful
The clover leaf model [2D) oftRNA was
given by R Holley [1968] and Kim et al, (a) GUCTUTCG codons for an amino acid is called
[1973] suggested ‘L’ shaped model (3D) of (b) GACUAUCG degeneracy, e.g. methionine and
tRNA by X-ray diffraction while studying (c) GAUTATUG tryptophan has single code for each. The
phenyl alaninetRNA of yeast. (d) UACTATCU maximum number of codons for an
Each amino acid had its own specific amino acid is six, e.g. serine, arginine
Ans. (b)
tRNA molecule which transfers it from and leucine. Degeneracy provides a
cytoplasm to the ribosome. During transcription complementary protection against mutation.
mRNA is formed on DNA template in
125 The codons causing chain which T is replaced by U. So, the 134 Khorana first deciphered the triplet
termination are [CBSE AIPMT 1997] sequence will be GACUAUCG.
codons of [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(a) TAG, TAA, TGA (b) GAT, AAT, AGT (a) serine and isoleucine
(c) AGT, TAG, UGA (d) UAA, UAG, UGA
130 The number of base substitution
(b) threonine and histidine
possible in amino acid codons is
Ans. (d) [CBSE AIPMT 1994] (c) tyrosine and tryptophan
UAA, UAG and UGA act as stop codons (a) 261 (b) 264 (d) phenylalanine and methionine
(terminator codons) because these are (c) 535 (d) 549 Ans. (b)
not translated into amino acid. UAA is
called ochre, UAG as amber and UGA as Ans. (d) Dr. Hargobind Khorana deciphered first
There are 64 codons out of which 61 triplet codon of threonine and histidine.
opal.
codes for amino acid. Each codon
126 The translation termination triplet possess 3 bases which can undergo 135 In the genetic dictionary, there are
is [CBSE AIPMT 1996] transition and transversion, so the 64 codons as [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
number of base substitution possible in (a) 64 amino acids are to be coded
(a) UAU (b) UAA
amino acid codons is 61 × 32 = 549. (b) 64 types of tRNAs are present
(c) UAC (d) UGC
(c) there are 44 non-sense codons and
Ans. (b) 131 Initiation codon of protein 20 sense codons
Termination codons are three in number synthesis (in eukaryotes) is (d) genetic code is triplet
they are UAA (ochre) UAG (amber) and [CBSE AIPMT 1993, 94, 99, 2000]
UGA (opal). Ans. (d)
(a) GUA (b) GCA
(c) CCA (d) AUG It has been found that a sequence of 3
127 If the sequence of bases in DNA is consecutive bases in a DNA molecule
ATTCGATG, then the sequence of Ans. (d) codes for one specific amino acid. So,
bases in its transcript will be At 5′ end of mRNA where protein genetic code is a triplet code and there
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] synthesis starts codon AUG is present. are 64 triplets which are called codons
(a) CAUCGAAU (b) UAAGCUAC So, AUG is called as initiating or starting (4 × 4 × 4 = 64) of nitrogen bases for
(c) GUAGCUUA (d) AUUCGAUG codon or start signal. protein synthesis.
136 Genetic code consists of binds to operator gene and stops its 141 Which of the following is required
functioning. z, y and a are the three
[CBSE AIPMT 1988]
structural genes in the lac operon of E. as inducer(s) for the expression of
(a) adenine and guanine coli. z gene producesβ-galactosidase for lac operon? [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(b) cytosine and uracil hydrolysing galactoside. y gene (a) galactose
(c) cytosine and guanine produces permease for allowing the (b) lactose
(d) All of the above entry of lactose from outside.
(c) lactose and galactose
A gene produces transacetylase which
Ans. (d) (d) glucose
helps to transfer an acetyl group from
The sequence of nitrogen bases on the acetyl Co-A to beta- galactoside. Ans. (b)
mRNA which store information for Lac operon is an inducible operon.
linking the amino acids in a definite 139 Select the correct match. Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme
sequence during synthesis of proteins is [NEET 2018] β-galactosidase and it also regulates
called genetic code. These nitrogen (a) Matthew Meselson : Pisum sativum switching on and off of the operon.
bases include adenine, guanine, cytosine and F. Stahl Hence, it is termed as inducer.
and uracil (b) Alfred Hershey and : TMV
Martha Chase 142 Which one of the following is
(c) Alec Jeffreys : Streptococcus wrongly matched?
TOPIC 3 pneumoniae [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
Regulation of (d) Francois Jacob : Lac operon (a) Transcription – Writing information
and Jacques
Gene Expression Monod
from DNA to t RNA
(b) Translation–Using information in
Ans. (d) mRNA to make protein
137 In the process of transcription in Jacob and Monod (1916) discovered the (c) Repressor protein – Binds to operator
eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I lac operon. An operon is a part of to stop enzyme synthesis
transcribes [NEET (Odisha) 2019] genetic material or DNA which acts as a (d) Operon – Structural genes, operator
(a) mRNA with additional processing, single regulated unit. It possesses one or and promoter
capping and tailing more structural genes, an operator Ans. (a)
(b) tRNA, 5 srRNA and snRNAs gene, a promoter gene, a regulator gene,
a repressor gene and an inducer or Statement (a) is wrongly matched
(c) rRNAs-28 S, 18 S and 5.8 S because transcription is a process of
corepressor.
(d) precursor of mRNA, hnRNA mRNA synthesis from a DNA template. It
Matthew Meselson and F Stahl
Ans. (c) involves three main events, i.e. initiation
discovered the semi-conservative mode
(binding of RNA polymerase to as DNA),
In the process of transcription (i.e. of DNA replication in E. coli. Alfred elongation (development of a short
copying of genetic information from one Hershey and Martha Chase useT2 stretch of DNA) and termination
strand of the DNA into RNA) in Bacteiriophage in their experiments to (recognition of the transcription
eukaryotes, the RNA polymerase I infect E. coli and proved that DNA is the termination sequence and the release of
transcribes rRNA - 28S, 18S and 5.8S. On genetic material. Alec Jeffreys (1984) RNA polymerase).
the other hand, tRNA, 5srRNA and invented the DNA fingerprinting
snRNAs are transcribed by RNA technique. This technique determines
polymerase III. RNA polymerase II 143 Which enzyme/s will be produced
nucleotide sequences of certain areas of
transcribes precursor of mRNA, hnRNA. DNA which are unique to each individual. in a cell in which there is a
non-sense mutation in the lac
138 Match the following genes of the 140 All of the following are parts of an Y-gene? [NEET 2013]
Lac operon with their respective operon except [NEET 2018] (a) β-galactosidase
products [NEET (National) 2019] (a) an enhancer (b) Lactose permease
A. i gene (i) β-galactosidase (b) structural genes (c) Transacetylase
B. z gene (ii) Permease (c) an operator (d) Lactose permease and
transacetylase
C. a gene (iii) Repressor (d) a promoter
D. y gene (iv) Transacetylase Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Select the correct option. β-galactosidase is a structural gene,
Except enhancer, all the given
A B C D which carry codes for the synthesis of
components are parts of an operon.
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv) protein. Mutation in the lac Y gene of E.
Enhancer sequences are present in
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) eukaryotes that, when bound by specific coli needs residues of cytoplasmic
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) proteins or transcription factors, enzymeβ-galactosidase. Lactose
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) enhance the transcription of an permease is a membrane protein, which
associated gene. is a major facilitator superfamily.
Ans. (b) Transacetylase is an enzyme transferring
(A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(iv), (D)–(ii) On the other hand, operon is a regulatory
acetyl groups from one compound to
unit of DNA containing a cluster of genes
In a Lac operon, i gene is a regulator another.
gene which produces a repressor that in prokaryotes.
144 Select the two statements out of Ans. (c) Ans. (d)
the four (I-IV) given below about lac Lac operon refers to the DNA sequence The switching on and off of an operator
operon. in the genome of the bacterium E. coli is controlled by respressor protein which
encoding enzymes involved in lactose is coded by the regulator gene R.
I. Glucose or galactose may bind uptake and metabolism.
with the repressor and inactivate
151 The wild type E. coli cells are
it. 147 In E. coli, during lactose growing in normal medium with
II. In the absence of lactose, the metabolism repressor binds to glucose. They are transferred to a
repressor binds with the [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
medium containing only lactose as
operator region. (a) regulator gene (b) operator gene sugar. Which of the following
III. The z-gene codes for permease. (c) structural gene (d) promoter gene changes takes place?
IV. This was elucidated by Francois Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
Jacob and Jacques Monod. In Lac operon, the repressor protein (a) The lac operon is repressed
The correct statements are combines with the operator gene to (b) All operons are induced
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] express its functioning. (c) The lac operon is induced
(a) I and III (b) I and III (d) E. coli cells stop dividing
(c) II and IV (d) I and II 148 Jacob and Monod studied lactose
metabolism in E. coli and proposed Ans. (c)
Ans. (c) Inducible genes are the genes which
Statement II and IV are true about lac Operon concept. Operon concept
remain inactive or repressed in a cell and
operon. In prokaryotes, a hypothesis was applicable for [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
can be activated when a certain
given in 1961 to explain the protein (a) all prokaryotes substrate is to be metabolised. It has
synthesis regulation. This hypothesis (b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes been seen when lactose is added to the
was given by F Jacob and J Monod and
(c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes medium of E.coli the operon is induced
for this they were awarded Nobel Prize in
1965, the hypothesis was known by the (d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans and synthesis of enzymes required for
name of Operon Model. Ans. (b) degradation of lactose to glucose and
The operator gene is the segment of galactose starts.
Jacob and Monod’s operon concept is
DNA, which exercise a control over basically a theory of gene expression in
transcriptions. In the absence of prokaryotes— though it is of some value 152 In Escherichia coli lac Operon is
lactose, the repressor binds with the in the explanation of eukaryotic gene induced by [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
operator gene. expression. (a) lactose
(b) promoter gene
145 Differentiation of organs and 149 In negative operon (c) β-galactosidase
tissues in a developing organism is [CBSE AIPMT 2001] (d) I-gene
associated with [CBSE AIPMT 2007] (a) co-repressor binds with repressor
(a) developmental mutations Ans. (a)
(b) co-repressor does not bind with
(b) differential expression of genes repressor In E. coli lac operon is induced by adding
(c) co-repressor binds with inducer lactose sugar to the culture.
(c) lethal mutations
(d) deletion of genes (d) cAMP has negative effect on lac
operon 153 Binding of specific protein on
Ans. (b) regulatory DNA sequence can be
Ans. (a)
Differentiation of organs and tissues in a studied by means of
developing organism is associated with In negative operon co-repressor binds
[CBSE AIPMT 1993]
differential expression of genes. In with repressor to form repressor
regulation of gene expression the co-repressor complex which further (a) ultra centrifugation
chromosomal proteins play important binds with operator. Since, the product (b) electron microscope
role. of the regulator (the repressor) acts by (c) light microscope
The chromosomal proteins are of two shutting off the transcription of (d) X-rays crystallography
types, histones and non-histones. The structural genes, it is referred to as a
Ans. (d)
regulation of gene expression involves negative control system.
an interaction between histones and X-ray crystallography is an important
non-histones. 150 Genes that are involved in turning technique in molecular biology to
analyse the structure and orientation of
on or off the transcription of a set
146 What does ‘lac’ refer to in what we molecules. It is used to find out 3-D
of structural genes are called positions of atoms in the molecules of
call the lac operon? [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] DNA, RNA and proteins, binding of
(a) polymorphic genes specific protein on regulatory DNA
(a) Lac insect (b) operator genes sequences, 3-D structure of
(b) The number, 1,00,000 (c) reductant genes haemoglobin, insulin, DNA, proteins,
(c) Lactose (d) regulatory genes collagen fibre, muscle and actin protein.
(d) Lactase
binds to DNA by inserting itself between 159 DNA fingerprinting refers to

TOPIC 4 the basepairs (intercalation). The DNA [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
fragments when exposed to ultraviolet
Human Genome Project light appear as orange colour bands, due
(a) molecular analysis or profiles of DNA
samples
and DNA Fingerprinting to the large increase in fluorescence of
(b) analysis of DNA samples using
the ethidium bromide upon binding to
imprinting device
the DNA.
154 DNA fingerprinting involves (c) techniques used for molecular
identifying differences in some 156 Which is the basis of genetic analysis of different specimens of
DNA
specific regions in DNA sequence, mapping of human genome as well
(d) techniques used for identification of
called as [NEET 2021] as DNA fingerprinting? finger-prints of individuals
(a) satellite DNA [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
Ans. (a)
(b) repetitive DNA (a) Polymorphism in DNA sequence
(b) Single nucleotide polymorphism DNA fingerprinting refers to molecular
(c) single nucleotides
analysis of DNA samples. Alec Jeffreys
(d) polymorphic DNA (c) Polymorphism in hnRNA sequence [1985, 86] discovered this technique for
Ans. (b) (d) Polymorphism in RNA sequence the first time.
Repetitive DNA are DNA sequences that Ans. (a)
are repeated in the genome. These Polymorphism in DNA sequence is the 160 Nucleus of a donor embryonal
sequences do not code for protein. One basis of genetic mapping of human cell/somatic cell is transferred to
class termed highly repetitive DNA genome as well as DNA fingerprinting. an enucleated egg cell. Then after
consists of short sequences, 5-100 Polymorphism simply means variation at the formation of organism, what
nucleotides, repeated thousands of genetic level which arises due to mutations. shall be true? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
times in a single stretch and includes
satellite DNA. 157 Which of the following is not (a) Organism will have extra-nuclear
genes of the donor cell
Other options can be explained as: required for any of the techniques
(b) Organism will have extra-nuclear
The density of DNA is a function of its of DNA fingerprinting available at genes of recipient cell
base and sequence, and satellite DNA present? [NEET 2016, Phase I] (c) Organism will have extra-nuclear
with its highly repetitive DNA has a
(a) Zinc finger analysis genes of both donor and recipient cell
reduced or a characteristic density
(b) Restriction enzymes (d) Organism will have nuclear genes of
compared to the rest of the genome.
(c) DNA-DNA hybridisation recipient cell
Single nucleotide polymorphisms,
frequently called SNPs (pronounced (d) Polymerase chain reaction Ans. (b)
‘snips’), are the most common type of Ans. (a) The organism will have extranuclear
genetic variation among people. Each A zinc finger is a small protein structural genes of recipient cell. Since, the
SNP represents a difference in a single motif that is characterised by the recipient cell has already been
DNA building block, called a nucleotide. coordination of one or more Zn ions in enucleated (its nucleus is removed), the
DNA polymorphisms are the different order to stabilise the folds. organism developing from it would have
DNA sequences among individuals, the nuclear genes of donor cell.
groups, or populations. Polymorphism at 158 Satellite DNA is important because
the DNA level includes a wide range of 161 The basis for DNA fingerprinting is
it [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
variations from single base pair change, [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
(a) codes for proteins needed in cell
many base pairs, and repeated (a) occurrence of Restriction Fragment
cycle
sequences. DNA polymorphisms are Length Polymorphism (RFLP)
endless, and more discoveries continue (b) shows high degree of polymorphism
(b) phenotypic differences between
at a rapid rate. These are called as in population and also the same
individuals
polymorphic DNA. degree of polymorphism in an
individual, which is heritable from (c) availability of cloned DNA
parents to children (d) knowledge of human karyotype
155 DNA strands on a gel stained with
(c) does not code for proteins and is Ans. (a)
ethidium bromide when viewed
same in all members of the The basis of DNA fingerprinting is the
under UV radiation, appear as population
[NEET 2021] occurrence of restriction fragment
(d) codes for enzymes needed for DNA length polymorphism which are
(a) yellow bands replication distributed throughout human genome.
(b) bright orange bands DNA fingerprinting was developed by a
Ans. (b)
(c) dark red bands British geneticist Prof. Alec Jeffreys in
Satellite DNA forms the minor peak after
(d) bright blue bands centrifugation of DNA. These are 1984.
Ans. (b) repetitive DNA sequences that do not The chromosomes of every human cell
code for any protein. They show high contain short, highly repeated 15
To make the DNA visible in the gel,
degree of polymorphism and heritable nucleotide segments called
ethidium bromide is added to the gel
from parents to children, thus form the ‘mini-satellites’ or variable number
solution and the buffer. This positively
basis of DNA fingerprinting. tendem repeats scattered through their
charged polycyclic aromatic compound
DNA.
29
Evolution
TOPIC 1 directionless. These are the sudden, Ans. (b)
heritable changes in the genetic material
Origin of Life and these variations constitute the raw
The earliest organisms that appeared on
earth were anaerobic chemoautotrophs.
material for evolution. He also proposed
Chemoautotrophs were the first
01 After about how many years of that mutations play a key role in speciation
autotrophic organisms. They were
formation of earth, life appeared on and used the term saltation for single
unable to perform photolysis of water
step large mutations.
this planet? [NEET (Oct.) 2020] and never released oxygen, e.g. sulphur
(a) 500 billion years bacteria.
04 According to Hugo de Vries, the
(b) 50 million years
mechanism of evolution is 06 Which of the following is the
(c) 500 million years [NEET 2018]
(d) 50 billion years correct sequence of events in the
(a) phenotypic variations
origin of life? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
Ans. (c) (b) saltation
During the course of evolution, earth (c) multiple step mutations
I. Formation of protobionts.
probably formed about 4.5 billion years (d) minor mutations II. Synthesis of organic monomers.
ago. After its formation, life appeared III. Synthesis of organic polymers.
about 500 million years ago in oceans. Ans. (b)
The first living forms were believed to be IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic
According to Hugo de Vries, the
heterotrophs and used to derive mechanism of evolution is saltation. systems.
nutrition from external sources. (a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, III, II, IV
Hugo de Vries (1901) proposed mutation
theory of evolution and stated that (c) II, III, I, IV (d) II, III, IV, I
02 From his experiments, SL Miller evolution is a jerky process in which new
produced amino acids by mixing Ans. (c)
species are evolved due to discontinous
the following in a closed flask. sudden variations or saltation. These are The sequential manner of events of
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] the single step large mutations origin of life is as follows
(a) CH3 ,H2 ,NH4 and water vapour at 800°C occurring in population. II. Synthesis of organic monomers.
(b) CH4 ,H2 ,NH3 and water vapour at 600°C ↓
(c) CH3 ,H2 ,NH3 and water vapour at 600°C 05 Following are the two statements III. Synthesis of organic polymers.
(d) CH4 ,H2 ,NH3 and water vapour at 800°C regarding the origin of life ↓
[NEET 2016, Phase I] I. Formation of protobionts.
Ans. (d)
I. The earliest organisms that ↓
The correct option is (d) because in 1953,
SL Miller, created electric discharge in a appeared on the earth were IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic
closed flask containing CH 4 , H 2 , NH 3 and non-green and presumably systems.
water vapours at 800°C. anaerobes. Thus, option (c) is correct.
II. The first autotrophic organisms
03 Variations caused by mutation, as were the chemoautotrophs that 07 Which one of the following is
proposed by Hugo de Vries are never released oxygen. incorrect about the characteristics
Of the above statements which of protobionts (coacervates and
(a) random and directionless microspheres) as envisaged in the
(b) small and directional one of the following options is
correct? abiogenic origin of life?
(c) small and directionless [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(d) random and directional (a) II is correct but I is false
(b) Both I and II are correct (a) They were able to reproduce
Ans. (a) (b) They could separate combinations of
(c) Both I and II are false
Hugo de Vries proposed that the variations molecules from the surroundings
(d) I is correct but II is false
caused by mutation are random and
Evolution 281
(c) They were partially isolated from the 09 The concept of chemical evolution (c) Microbes appeared from unsterilised
surroundings organic matter
is based on [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(d) They could maintain an internal (d) Meat was not spoiled, when heated
environment (a) crystalisation of chemicals and kept sealed in a vessel
(b) interaction of water, air and clay
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
under intense heat
Homeostasis is keeping the internal (c) effect of solar radiation on chemicals Pasteur performed experiments in which
environment of the body constant. It is he took sterilised (by boiling) yeast and
(d) possible origin of life by combination
necessary for normal life processes. sugar solution in a long naked flask, then
of chemicals under suitable
Microspheres are molecular aggregates he bent the neck of the flask like a neck
environmental conditions
of proteinoids. Oparin and Sydney Fox of swan. After one month he observed
held that large organic molecules Ans. (d) that no life appeared in flask solution
synthesised abiotically on primitive earth The concept of chemical evolution is because the curved flask neck acts as a
formed large colloidal aggregates due to based on possible origin of life by filter. He later on broke down the neck
the intermolecular attraction. combination of chemicals under suitable and observed the solution. He found that
These colloidal particles were called environmental conditions. many microorganisms were originated in
coacervates. Oparin called giant solution.
nucleoproteinoid molecules as 10 Evolutionary history of an organism
protobionts. These reproduce either by is known as [CBSE AIPMT 2006] 13 According to Oparin, which one of
budding or binary fission but do not (a) ancestry the following was not present in
exhibit homeostasis. the primitive atmosphere of the
(b) palaeontology
(c) ontogeny earth? [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
08 Which one of the following pair of (a) Methane (b) Oxygen
(d) phylogeny
items correctly belongs to the (c) Hydrogen (d) Water vapour
category of organs mentioned Ans. (d)
Phylogeny (Gr. Phylon − tribe or race; Ans. (b)
against it? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
geneia = origin) is the origin and According to Oparin the atmosphere of
(a) Thorn of — Analogous diversification of any taxon or the primitive earth was reducing because H
Bougainvillea and organs evolutionary history of its origin and atoms were most numerous end most
tendrils of Cucurbita diversification. It is usually represented reactive. Large quantities ofH2 , N 2 ,
(b) Nictitating — Vestigial as a diagrammatic phylogenetic tree water vapour, CO2 , CH4 and NH3 were
membrane and blind organs (that traces putative evolutionary present, but free oxygen was not
spot in human eye relationships), i.e., dendrogram. present in significant amount.
(c) Nephridia of — Excretory Palaentology is the study of fossils.
earthworm and organs Ontogeny is the whole course of an 14 Identify the correct sequence in
Malpighian tubules of individual’s development and life history. which the following substances
cockroach have appeared during the course of
(d) Wings of honey bee — Homologou
11 Which one of the following amino
acid was not found to be evolution of life on earth
and wings of crow s organs
[CBSE AIPMT 1996]
synthesised in Miller’s experiment?
Ans. (c) [CBSE AIPMT 2006] (a) glucose, amino acids, nucleic acids,
proteins
In annelids like Nereis, earthworm, leech, (a) Aspartic acid (b) Glutamic acid
etc., the tubular coiled structures called (b) ammonia, amino acids, proteins,
(c) Alanine (d) Glycine nucleic acids
nephridia are excretory organs. In
phylum–Arthropoda, insects centipedes, Ans. (b) (c) water, amino acids, nucleic acids,
millipedes and arachnides possess Miller and Urey were the two scientists enzymes
Malpighian tubules as their principal who recreated the conditions of (d) amino acids, ammonia, phosphates,
excretory organ. Analogous organs have primitive earth in laboratory and nucleic acids
almost similar appearance and perform abiotically synthesised amino acids and
Ans. (b)
the same function but develop in totally bases. They synthesised glycine,
different groups and are totally different aspartic acid and alanine in abundant Primitive atmosphere was reducing type
in their basic structure and quantities while, glutamic acid could not (without free oxygen). Hydrogen atoms
developmental origin, e.g. wings of be synthesised in their experiment. combined with oxygen forming water
butterfly, birds, bats. and with nitrogen, forming ammonia.
Water and ammonia were probably the
The homologous organs have common 12 Which one of the following first compound molecules on primitive
origin, perform different type of experiments suggests that earth. The primitive atmosphere
functions and have different simplest living organisms could not contained gases like CO2 , CO, N,H2 , etc.
appearance, e.g. thorns of Bougainvillea have originated spontaneously from and methane (CH4 ) was the first organic
and tendrils of Cucurbita. compound formed in primitive
non-living matter?
Vestigial organs are useless remnants, [CBSE AIPMT 2005] atmosphere.
which might have been large and In the primitive atmosphere, electric
(a) Larvae could appear in decaying
functional in the ancestors, e.g. discharge, ATP and solar energy
organic matter
nictitating membrane, vermiform provided the source of energy for
appendix, etc. (b) Microbes did not appear in stored
meat polymerization reactions of organic
synthesis which lead to the synthesis of 18 Evolution is [CBSE AIPMT 1989] Ans. (a)
amino acids, that joined to form (A)-(4), (B)-(3), (C)-(2), (D)-(1)
(a) progressive development of a race
polypeptides and proteins. Simple sugar
(b) history and development of race Adaptive radiation is a change that occur
units combined to form polysaccharides;
along with variations in organism by adapting according to the
fatty acids and glycerol to form fats;
environment, e.g. Darwin finches.
sugars, nitrogenous bases and (c) history of race
phosphates combined into nucleotides Convergent evolution is a process where
(d) development of race
which polymerised into nucleic acids in distant species develop similar structures,
the ancient oceans. Ans. (b) e.g. wings of butterfly and birds.
Evolution is defined as history and Divergent evolution is a process by
15 The first organisms were development of race with variations. The which an inbreeding species diverges
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] term ‘evolution’ in Biology means gradual into two descendant species, e.g. bones
(a) chemoautotrophs changes. It is an excellent working of forelimbs in man and whales.
(b) chemoheterotrophs hypothesis to approach the problems of Evolution by anthropogenic action
diversity of organisms. means evolution occurring due to human
(c) autotrophs
activities, e.g. selection of resistant
(d) eukaryotes varieties due to excessive use of
19 First life on earth was
Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 2001] herbicides and pesticides.
The first cells were almost certainly (a) cyanobacteria
heterotrophs, obtaining energy and
21 Embryological support for
(b) chemoheterotrophs
nutrients from organic molecules in their evolution was proposed by
(c) autotrophs [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
environment. The prokaryotes evolved (d) photoautotrophs
before the eukaryotes, the earliest (a) Ernst Heckel
prokaryotes must have been Ans. (b) (b) Karl Ernst von Baer
chemoheterotrophs. First living beings were formed in the (c) Charles Darwin
environment of sea having abundant (d) Alfred Wallace
16 Which was absent in the organic molecules. They absorbed the
Ans. (a)
atmosphere at the time of origin of organic materials for the sake of
life? [CBSE AIPMT 1991] nutrition and hence, were Embryological support for evolution was
chemoheterotrophs. proposed by Ernst Haeckel. He proposed
(a) NH3 (b) H2 biogenetic law in year 1864. According to
(c) O 2 (d) CH4 this law ‘structure of ancient origin
Ans. (c) TOPIC 2 develops earlier than structure of newer
origin. In other words, it states
The atmosphere of earth at the time of
origin of life was without free oxygen
Evidences of Evolution “Ontogeny repeats phylogeny”, i.e.
development of structures in an
atoms. The primitive atmosphere chiefly organism follow the same sequence as
consisted of methane, ammonia, water 20 Match the List-I with List-II. they evolved in his ancestors.
vapour, hydrogen gas, nitrogen gas, and
List-I List-II
some carbon monoxide. 22 The phenomenon of evolution of
Hydrogen atoms were most numerous A. Adaptive 1. Selection of different species in a given
and most reactive in primitive radiation resistant radiation
varieties due to
geographical area starting from a
atmosphere. They combined with all excessive use of point and spreading to other
available oxygen atoms and formed herbicides and habitats is called [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
water. pesticides (a) saltation
B. Convergent 2. Bones of forelimbs (b) co-evolution
17 ‘Origin of species’ was written by evolution in man and whale
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
(c) natural selection
C. Divergent 3. Wings of butterfly (d) adaptive radiation
(a) Oparin evolution and bird
(b) Weismann Ans. (d)
D. Evolution by 4. Darwin Finches
(c) Lamarck anthropogeni The process of evolution of different
(d) Darwin c action species in a given geographical area
starting from a point and literally
Ans. (d) radiating to other areas of geography
Darwin and Wallace published a joint (habitats) is called adaptive radiation.
paper titled ‘Origin of species’ in 1858.
[NEET 2021] 23 Embryological support for
Later in 1859, Darwin published his
detailed theory in his book titled ‘Origin A B C D evolution was disapproved by
of species by means of Natural (a) 4 3 2 1 [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
selection’. (b) 3 2 1 4 (a) Alfred Wallace
According to Darwin, variations are (c) 2 1 4 3 (b) Charles Darwin
progressive factors for evolution. (d) 1 4 3 2 (c) Oparin
(d) Karl Ernst von Baer
Evolution 283
Ans. (d) Ans. (d) but are different in functions. Structural

Embryological support for evolution was In Australia, marsupials and placental homology is seen in brain, heart and
disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer. He mammals have evolved to share many forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah.
observed the pattern of embryonic similar characteristics. This type of Eyes of Octopus, bat and man are
development in different species. evolution is referred to as convergent examples of analogous organs which
evolution. show convergent evolution. Therefore,
24 Which of the following refer to Convergent evolution is the independent option (d) is incorrect.
correct example(s) of organisms evolution of similar features in species
which have evolved due to changes of different lineages. For example, a 29 The similarity of bone structure in
number of marsupials, each different the forelimbs of many vertebrates is
in environment brought about by from the other evolved from an ancestral
anthropogenic action? an example of [NEET 2018]
stock, but all within the Australian island
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] continent. Also, marsupials in Australia (a) convergent evolution
I. Darwin‘s Finches of Galapagos resemble placental mammals in the rest (b) analogy
islands. of the world, they evolved in isolation (c) homology
after Australia separated from other (d) adaptive radiation
II. Herbicide resistant weeds. continents.
III. Drug resistant eukaryotes. Ans. (c)
IV. Man-created breeds of The similarity of bone structure in the
27 In a species, the weight of newborn
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an
domesticated animals like dogs. ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the example of homology. The homologous
(a) I and III (b) II, III and IV newborn with an average weight organs have the same fundamental
(c) Only IV (d) Only I between 3 to 3.3 kg survive structure but are adapted to perform
Ans. (b) whereas 99% of the infants born different functions, e.g. forelimbs of
The correct option is (b) because with weights from 2 to 2.5 kg or 4.5 man, cheetah, whale and bat.
Herbicide resistant weeds, drug to 5 kg die. Which type of selection Analogous organs show convergent
resistant eukaryotes and man-created evolution. These organs have similar
process is taking place?
breeds of domesticated animals like functions but are different in their
dogs are examples of structural details and origin.
(a) Stabilising selection Development of different functional
evolution by anthropogenic action.
Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands (b) Disruptive selection structures from a common ancestral
are examples of natural selection, (c) Cyclical selection form is called adaptive radiation.
adaptive radiation and founder’s effect. (d) Directional selection
Ans. (a)
30 Analogous structures are a result
25 Flippers of penguins and dolphins of [NEET 2016, Phase I]
The given data represents stabilising
are examples of [NEET (Sep.) 2020] selection. It eliminates individuals from (a) convergent evolution
(a) convergent evolution both ends of a phenotypic distribution (b) shared ancestry
(b) industrial melanism and hence maintains the same (c) stabilising selection
(c) natural selection distribution average. In the given (d) divergent evolution
(d) adaptive radiation situation, most of the newborn of
Ans. (a)
average weight 3-3.3 kg survive. Babies
Ans. (a) Analogous structures are a result of
having more or less weight had low
Flippers of penguins and dolphins are survival rate. Disruptive selection convergent evolution. When organisms
examples of convergent evolution.They favours both extremes of continuous with completely different organisation,
have similar function (helps in swimming) variation. Directional selection favours living in the same habitat come to
but different origin so, they are also one extreme of continuous variation. possess superficial resemblance, this is
called analogous organs. Penguin and Cyclical selection is regarded as a known as convergent evolution.
dolphins are not closely related to each source of polymorphism.
other but evolved similar traits (flippers) 31 Which of the following structures is
which represent convergent evolution. 28 Among the following sets of homologous to the wing of a bird?
Hence analogous organs are a result of [NEET 2016, Phase I]
convergent evolution.
examples for divergent evolution,
select the incorrect option. : (a) Wing of a moth
26 In Australia, marsupials and [NEET 2018] (b) Hind limb of rabbit
placental mammals have evolved to (a) Brain of bat, man and cheetah (c) Flipper of whale
(b) Heart of bat, man and cheetah (d) Dorsal fin of a shark
share many similar characteristics.
This type of evolution may be (c) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah Ans. (c)
referred to as [NEET (Odisha) 2019] (d) Eye of Octopus, bat and man Wings of bird and flipper of whale are
Ans. (d) modified fore limbs of the two
(a) adaptive radiation
organisms so have same origin wings
(b) divergent evolution Divergent evolution results in
help in flying and flippers help in
(c) cyclical evolution homologous structures. These organs
swimming, but this perform the different
have the same fundamental structure
(d) convergent evolution functions.
32 The wings of a bird and the wings Wings of bat are skin folds stretched 37 Evolution of different species in a
mainly between elongated fingers but
of an insect are [CBSE AIPMT 2015] given area starting from a point and
the wing of birds are feathers covering
(a) homologous structures and represent all along the arm. They look similar spreading to other geographical
divergent evolution because they have a common use for areas is known as
(b) analogous structures and represent flying, but their origin is not common. [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
convergent evolution
(a) adaptive radiation
(c) phylogenetic structures and 35 The eyes of Octopus and eyes of (b) natural selection
represent divergent evolution
cat show different patterns of (c) migration
(d) homologous structures and represent
structure, yet they perform similar (d) divergent evolution
convergent evolution
function. This is an example of Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) [NEET 2013]
The diversification of an ancestral group
The wings of a bird and the wings of an (a) homologous organs that have evolved into two or more species in different
insect are analogous structures and due to convergent evolution habitats is called divergent evolution.
represent convergent evolution. (b) homologous organs that have evolved When this involves large number of
Analogous organs have the same due to divergent evolution species to occupy different ritches, this
function and are superficially alike only. (c) analogous organs that have evolved is called adaptive radiation. Adaptive
However their fundamental structures due to convergent evolution radiation is the process of evolution of
are quite different in morphology, different species in a given geographical
(d) analogous organs that have evolved
anatomy and embryonic origin. Analogy area starting from a species of animals
is an example of convergent evolution. due to divergent evolution or plants and literally radiating to other
Ans. (c) areas of geography (habitats). Darwin’s
33 Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in The analogous organs are not finches represent one of best examples
anatomically similar structures though of this phenomenon.
walking forelimbs of whale used in
swimming and forelimbs of bats they perform similar functions. Hence,
analogous structures are a result of 38 Which one of the following options
used in flying are an example of convergent evolution, i.e. different gives one correct example each of
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
structures evolving for the same convergent evolution and divergent
(a) analogous organs function and hence, having similarity.
(b) adaptive radiation evolution? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
Therefore, the eyes of Octopus and eyes
(c) homologous organs of cat are examples of analogous organs, Convergent Divergent
(d) convergent evolution though they are different in structure evolution evolution
Ans. (c) but similar in function. Homologous (a) Eyes of Octopus Bones of
organs develop along different and mammals forelimbs of
Homologous organs are those organs
directions due to the adaptations to vertebrates
which have a common fundamental
various needs. This is divergent (b) Thorns of Wings of
anatomical plan and similar embryonic
evolution and the structures are Bougainvillea and butterflies and
origin but perform varied functions.
homologous. tendrils of birds
Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking,
forelimbs of whale used in swimming Cucurbita
and forelimbs of bats used in flying are 36 The process by which organisms (c) Bones of Wings of butterfly
the example for homologous organs. All with different evolutionary history forelimbs of and birds
are the examples of modified forelimbs, evolve similar phenotypic vertebrates
with the same type of bones. They have adaptations in response to a (d) Thorns of Eyes of Octopus
become different due to the adaptations Bougainvillea and and mammals
common environmental challenge, tendrils of
to different habitat.
is called [NEET 2013] Cucurbita
34 Which one of the following are (a) natural selection
(b) convergent evolution Ans. (a)
analogous structures?
(c) non-random evolution Convergent evolution involves the
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
independent development of similar
(a) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon (d) adaptive radiation
structures in organisms that are not
(b) Gills of prawn and lungs of man Ans. (b) directly related. It is represented by
(c) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Convergent evolution occurs in analogous organs, e.g. eyes of Octopus
Cucurbita unrelated group of organisms. It is the and mammals, wings of insects and
(d) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse development of similar functional birds. In divergent evolution, same basic
structures but in unrelated groups. The organ becomes adapted by specialisation
Ans. (a) to perform different functions.
process of evolution of different species
Analogous organs are the structures of in a given geographical area starting It is represented by homologous organs,
different species having similar or from a point and literally radiating to e.g. Bones of forelimbs of vertebrates
corresponding functions but different other areas of geography is called (like seal’s flipper, bat’s wing, cat’s paw
structure. They do not belong to the adaptive radiation. Natural selection is horse’s front leg and human hand),
same evolutionary origin. the basis of evolution. thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of
Cucurbita.
Evolution 285
39 Peripatus is a connecting link The analogous organs have almost 45 The finches of Galapagos islands
similar appearance and perform the
between [CBSE AIPMT 2009] provide an evidence in favour of
same function but these develop in
(a) Ctenophora and Platyhelminthes [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
totally different groups and are totally
(b) Mollusca and Echinodermata different in their basic structure and (a) special creation
(c) Annelida and Arthropoda developmental origin. The phyllode of (b) evolution due to mutation
(d) Coelenterata and Porifera Ruscus or cladode of Asparagus are (c) retrogressive evolution
analogous to leaves of other plants. (d) biogeographical evolution
Ans. (c)
The vestigial or rudimentary organs Ans. (d)
Peripatus is connecting link between are useless remnants of structures or
Annelida and Arthropoda. It is a living
organs, which might have been large Darwin’s finches of Galapagos islands
fossil that has similarities to both had common ancestors later on
and functional in ancestors, e.g. cutin
arthropods (such as absence of external whose beaks modified according to
covered stomata on the stem of cacti
segmentation, unjoined legs, the their feeding habits. These provide
presence of cuticle, etc) and annelides plants.
evidence of geographical distribution.
(internal segmentation, eyes and
segmentally arranged nephridia etc.). 42 Which one of the following
46 An important evidence in favour of
statements is correct?
40 Darwin’s finches are an excellent [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
organic evolution is the occurrence
example of [CBSE AIPMT 2010, 08] (a) Stem cells are specialised cells of [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(a) adaptive radiation (b) There is no evidence of the existence (a) analogous and vestigial organs
(b) seasonal migration of gills during embryogenesis of (b) homologous organs only
(c) brood parasitism mammals (c) homologous and analogous organs
(c) All plant and animal cells are (d) homologous and vestigial organs
(d) connecting links
totipotent
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
(d) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny
Adaptive radiation represents evolution An important evidence in favour of
Ans. (d) organic evolution is the occurrence of
of new forms in several directions from
the common ancestral type. In 1831, Recapitulation theory or Biogenetic law homologous and vestigial organs.
Darwin got an opportunity to travel by states that ontogeny (development of Homologous organs are those which
HMS Beagle for a voyage of world embryo) is recapitulation of phylogeny have the common origin and are built on
exploration. Beagle sailed to the (ancestral sequence). the same fundamental pattern but they
Galapagos Islands, here Darwin found a perform different functions and have
living laboratory of evolution. 43 What is common to whale, seal and different appearances, e.g. whale’s
The common birds of Galapagos Islands, shark? [CBSE AIPMT 2007] flipper, bat’s wings, cat’s paws, horse’s
the finches were markedly different (a) Seasonal migration front legs, bird’s wings, ox’s front legs
from the finches of main land. The (b) Thick subcutaneous fat and human hands.
closely related species of finches had (c) Convergent evolution Vestigial organs in animals are those
beaks of different shapes and sizes and having no function now, in them, but had
(d) Homeothermy
adapted for feeding on completely important functions in their ancestors.
different diet showing adaptive radiation. Ans. (c)
Analogous organs are quite different
The transitional fossil forms which show Distantly related animals (as whale, seal in fundamental structure and
characteristic of two different groups of and shark) inhabiting similar habitats embryonic origin but perform the
living animals are called connecting often develop similar morphological same function. The study of
links, e.g. Archaeopteryx, Seymouria, etc. features that make them look similar.
analogous organs illustrates the
This is termed adaptive convergence of
occurrence of convergent evolution.
41 Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril convergent evolution.
of Cucurbita are examples of 47 Which of the following is the
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] 44 When two species of different
geneology come to resemble each relatively most accurate method
(a) analogous organs
(b) homologous organs other as a result of adaptation, the for dating of fossils?
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(c) vestigial organs phenomenon is termed
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (a) Radio-carbon method
(d) retrogressive evolution
(a) divergent evolution (b) Potassium-argon method
Ans. (b) (c) Electron-spin resonance method
(b) micro-evolution
Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of (d) Uranium-lead method
Cucurbita are homologous organs. These (c) co-evolution
are modified branches and are axillary in (d) convergent evolution Ans. (c)
position. It means axillary branches in Ans. (d) Electron spin resonance method is the
Bougainvillea are modified into thorns most accurate method for dating of
In convergent evolution lineages show
for protection from burrowing animals fossils. It measures number of charges
similar morphology under the
and in Cucurbita they are modified into occupying deep traps in crystal band
influence of similar environmental
tendrils for climbing. gap.
factors.
48 Using imprints from a plate with Ans. (d) 53 Which one of the following
complete medium and carrying Chimpanzee is more closely related to describes correctly the
bacterial colonies, you can select man than other hominoids. It is evidenced homologous structures?
by chromosome banding pattern, DNA
streptomycin resistant mutants extracted from sex chromosomes,
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
and prove that such mutations do (a) Organs appearing only in embryonic
autosomes and mitochondria. Molecular
not originate as adaptation. These stage and disappearing later in the
clock based on mitochondrial DNA are
adult
imprints need to be used used to date recent events because this
DNA mutates 5-10 times faster than (b) Organs with anatomical similarities,
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
nuclear DNA. Some similarities between but performing different functions
(a) on plates with and without (c) Organs with anatomical
streptomycin human and chimpanzee are
dissimilarities, but performing same
(b) on plates with minimal medium (a) DNA matching shows human
functions
(c) only on plates with streptomycin similarity with chimpanzee.
(d) Organs that have no function now, but
(d) only on plates without streptomycin (b) There is little difference in banding had an important function in
pattern in chromosomes 3 and 6 in ancestors
Ans. (c) human and chimpanzee.
Plates having streptomycin allow to (c) Serum test indicates maximum Ans. (b)
propagate only those bacteria which are homology between human and Homologous structures are similar in
resistant to the antibiotic. While those chimpanzee. origin but similar or dissimilar in
plates in which streptomycin is absent, function, such as pectoral fins of fish
both resistant and non-resistant 51 Age of fossils in the past was and forelimbs of horse are similar in
bacteria can grow normally. generally determined by structure but different in functions.
radio-carbon method and other
49 Presence of gills in the tadpole of 54 Which of the following pair is
methods involving radioactive
frog indicates that elements found in the rocks. More homologous organ?
precise methods, which were used
(a) fishes were amphibian in the past (a) Wings of birds and locust
recently and led to the revision of
(b) fishes evolved from frog-like (b) Wings of birds (sparrow) and pectoral
ancestors the evolutionary periods for
fins of fish
(c) frogs will have gills in future different groups of organisms,
(c) Wings of bat and butterfly
(d) frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
include [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(d) Legs of frog and cockroach
(a) study of carbohydrates/proteins in
Ans. (d) fossils Ans. (b)
According to biogenetic law of Ernst (b) study of the conditions of Homologous organs are the organs
Haeckel (1866) ontogeny repeats fossilisation which have the same origin and similar
phylogeny. Ontogeny is the life history of (c) Electron Spin Resonance (ESR) and basic structure but may differ in external
an organism while, phylogeny is the fossil DNA appearance and function, wings of birds
evolutionary history of the race of that (d) study of carbohydrates/proteins in and pectoral fins of fish are examples of
organism. In other words we can say an rocks the same. Analogous organs are those
organism repeats its ancestral history organs which are anatomically different
during its development. Ans. (c) but functionally same.
Hence, resemblance of amphibian to fish Electron Spin Resonance (ESR)
is seen in most systems of the body as measures number of charges occupying 55 According to fossils discovered up
both are cold blooded, both respire by deep traps in crystal band gap. The basic
principle of ESR is same as those for
to present time origin and
gills (as tadpole of frog), both usually lay
eggs in water leading to the conclusion luminescence, i.e. electrons become evolution of man was started from
trapped and stored as a result of ionising [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
that amphibians have originated from
fishes. radiations e.g. dating of tooth enamel. (a) France (b) Java
(c) Africa (d) China
50 What kind of evidence suggested 52 Convergent evolution is illustrated Ans. (c)
that man is more closely related by [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
The first Hominid (ancestor from whom
with chimpanzee than with other (a) dogfish and whale humans evolved) arose at a time when a
hominoid apes? [CBSE AIPMT 2004] (b) rat and dog change in weather led to the reduction in
(c) bacterium and protozoan the size of the African forests favouring
(a) Evidence from DNA from sex
(d) starfish and cuttle fish bipedalism.
chromosomes only
(b) Comparison of chromosomes Ans. (a)
morphology only 56 Sequence of which of the following
Convergent evolution is the acquisition
(c) Evidence from fossil remains and the of same or similar characters by
is used to know the phylogeny?
fossil mitochondrial DNA alone [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
distantly related lines of descent.
(d) Evidence from DNA extracted from Dogfish (pisces) and whale (mammals) (a) mRNA (b) rRNA
sex chromosomes, autosomes and have acquired aquatic characters (c) tRNA (d) DNA
mitochondria though distantly related.
Evolution 287
Ans. (b) the South America, he found that similar 64 The homologous organs are those
The genes for rRNAs tend to be highly species replaced each other. He thought
that show similarity in
conserved and are, therefore, often that related species could have been
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
employed for phylogenetic studies. modified according the environment.
(a) size
His views got confirmed on Galapagos
islands (small group of Volcanic islands (b) origin
57 Reason of diversity in living being is (c) function
of the Western coasts of South
(a) mutation [CBSE AIPMT 2001] America). Darwin found different (d) appearance
(b) gradual change modified forms of finches which seemed Ans. (b)
(c) long term evolutionary change to have descended from mainland
finches as a result of the natural Homologous structures are those which
(d) short term evolutionary change selection. have the same embryonic origin and basic
Ans. (c) structure, though they may or may not
perform the same function.
Though mutation provides the source of 61 Which one of the following pair has
variation, the diversity in living beings is homologous organs? 65 Homologous organs are
due to the natural selection of variations [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
and consequent evolutionary change (a) Pectoral fins of a fish and forelimbs of
over a long period of time. (a) wings of insects and bat
a horse
(b) gills of fish and lungs of rabbit
(b) Wings of a bat and wings of
58 Similarities in organisms with cockroach (c) pectoral fins of fish and fore limbs of
horse
different genotype indicates (c) Air sac of fish and lungs of frog
(d) wings of grasshopper and crow
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] (d) Wings of a bird and wings of a
(a) micro-evolution butterfly Ans. (c)
(b) macro-evolution Ans. (a) Homologous structures are similar in
(c) convergent evolution origin but similar or dissimilar in
Homologous organs are those organs
(d) divergent evolution function, as pectoral fins of fish and
which are originally and anatomically
forelimbs of horse are similar in
Ans. (c) similar but functionally different.
structure but different in function.
Increase in resemblance over time of The forelimbs of vertebrates are built on
different evolutionary lineages (in one or same pentadactyl plan, though they may
have different functions, e.g. in birds
66 Evolutionary convergence is
more phenotypic characters) thereby development of
increasing their phenetic similarities is these are modified for flying.
called convergence or convergent
62 The age of the fossil of (a) common set of characters in group of
evolution.
Dryopithecus on the geological time different ancestry
scale is (b) dissimilar characters in closely
59 Half-life period of C 14 is about [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
related groups
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] (a) 5 × 106 yr back
(c) common set of characters in closely
(a) 500 yr (b) 5730 yr (b) 25 × 106 yr back related groups
(c) 50 yr (d) 5 × 104 yr (c) 50 × 106 yr back (d) random mating
Ans. (b) (d) 75 × 106 yr back
Ans. (a)
C 14 takes about 5730 year for half the Ans. (b) Convergent evolution or adaptive
material to decay. Dryopithecus lived about 20-25 million convergence refers to the development
years ago. Dryopithecus had the of similar adaptive functional structures
60 Darwin’s finches provide an combined characters of great apes, old in unrelated groups of organisms, e.g.
excellent evidence in favour of world monkeys and man. The main wings of insect, bird and bat; Australian
structural characteristics of marsupials and placental mammals.
evolution. This evidence comes
Dryopithecus are broad jaws, large
from the field of canines, semi-erect walking, 5 cusped
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
67 Study of fossils is
molars and absence of brow ridges. [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
(a) Biogeography (b) Anatomy
63 Which one of the following is a (a) palaeontology
(c) Embryology (d) Palaeontology
(b) herpetology
Ans. (a) living fossil? [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(c) saurology
Biogeography is the study of the (a) Pinus longifolia (b) Dalbergia sissoo
(d) organic evolution
geographical distribution of life forms on (c) Mirabilis jalapa (d) Ginkgo biloba
earth. Darwin undertook a voyage on the Ans. (a)
Ans. (d)
ship HMS Beagle. The ship traversed the Palaeontology is the study of fossils
Ginkgo biloba is believed to be the oldest (remains or impressions of ancient
Southern hemisphere where life is most
living seed plant. Its fossils have been forms) and their distribution in rocks of
abundant and varied.
found in rocks as old as Triassic. It still various ages. Study of animal fossils is
Along the way, Darwin found different survives with little change over this long
forms of life very different from those in known as plaeozoology and study of
period of time while other members of plant fossils is known as palaeobotany.
England. As he sailed southward along its group have become extinct.
68 Humming birds and hawk illustrate movement of alleles into and out of a 74 Select the correct statement from
population.
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] the following given options.
(a) convergent evolution [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(b) homology
72 In the case of peppered moth (a) Darwinian variations are small and
(c) adaptive radiation
(Biston betularia), the directionless
(d) parallel evolution
black-coloured form became (b) Fitness is the end result of the ability
dominant over the light-coloured to adapt and gets selected by nature
Ans. (c) (c) All mammals except whales and
form in England during industrial
Adaptive radiation or divergent evolution camels have seven cervical vertebrae
revolution. This is an example of
refers to the formation of different (d) Mutations are random and directional
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
structures from a common ancestral
form, e.g. wings of humming birds and (a) natural selection whereby the darker Ans. (b)
hawk, fore limbs of horse, bat and forms were selected Fitness (survival of the fittest) is a result
human beings. (b) appearance of the darker coloured of selection and proliferation of only
individuals due to very poor sunlight those organisms which were most
(c) protective mimicry suitably adapted to the environment and
TOPIC 3 (d) inheritance of darker colour get selected by nature.
character acquired due to the darker
Theories of Evolution environment 75 De Vries gave his mutation theory
Ans. (a) on organic evolution while working
69 Genetic drift operates in on [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
The given case is an example of natural
[NEET 2016, Phase II] (a) Pisum sativum
selection. As a result of struggle for
(a) small isolated population existence only those organisms could (b) Drosophila melanogaster
(b) large isolated population survive, which have favourable (c) Oenothera lamarckiana
(c) non-reproductive population variations to adapt to the environmental (d) Althea rosea
(d) slow reproductive population conditions. With so many variations in
Ans. (c)
population of species the struggle for
Ans. (a) existence results in survival of the Hugo de Vries (1848-1935) proposed
The genetic drift is a drastic change in fittest. mutation theory for the formation of new
allele frequency when population size is species. He came to conclude this
The survival of the fittest is the result of theory while working on Oenothera
very small. Its effects are more marked selection and proliferation of only those
in a small isolated population. lamarckiana evening primrose.
organisms, which were most suitably According to him, new species are not
adapted to the environment and most formed by continuous variations but by
70 Industrial melanism is an example successful in mating, i.e. natural sudden appearance of variations which
of [CBSE AIPMT 2015] selection. he assigned as mutations. He stated that
(a) Neo Darwinism (b) Natural selection these mutations are heritable and
(c) Mutation (d) Neo Lamarckism 73 Which one of following scientists persist in successive generations.
name is correctly matched with the
Ans. (b) 76 Which one of the following
theory put forth by him?
Within a period of years in industrial or phenomena supports Darwin’s
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
polluted areas, the dark species has concept of natural selection in
almost replaced the light species. This is (a) Weismann–Theory of continuity of
germplasm organic evolution?
called industrial melanism because of its
(b) Pasteur–Inheritance of acquired [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
association with the sooty atmosphere
of industry. It is an example of natural characters (a) Development of transgenic animals
selection. (c) De vries–Natural selection (b) Production of ‘Dolly’, the sheep by
(d) Mendel–Theory of pangenesis cloning
(c) Prevalence of pesticide resistant
71 Variation in gene frequencies within Ans. (a) insects
populations can occur by chance The correct theory is the Weismam (d) Development of organs from ‘stem
rather than by natural selection. Theory of continuity of germplasm. Rest cells’ for organ transplantation
This is referred to as [NEET 2013] of the theories were proposed by
Ans. (c)
(a) genetic flow Scientist Theory
According to Darwin’s concept of
(b) genetic drift Pasteur–Germ theory of disease natural selection the organisms which
(c) random mating Charles Darwin–Theory of natural are provided with favourable variations
(d) genetic load selection would survive because, they are the
Lamarck–Inheritance of accquired fittest to face their surrounding, while
Ans. (b) the organisms which are unfit for
characters
Genetic drift is a random change in allele surrounding variations are destroyed.
Hugo de Vries–Mutation theory
frequencies over the generations. It is Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects
brought by chance alone. Gene flow or Mendel–Laws of inheritance is due to the adaptability of these
gene migration is the physical Darwin–Theory of pangenesis insects for the changes in environment
(due to use of pesticides).
Evolution 289
77 Darwin in his ‘Natural Selection (a) Variations, natural selection, (b) Size of organs increase with ageing
overproduction, constancy of (c) Development of organs is due to will
Theory’ did not believe in any role
population size power
of which one of the following in (b) Overproduction, variations, (d) There should be some physical basis
organic evolution? constancy of population size, natural of inheritance
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] selection
(a) Discontinuous variations (c) Variations, constancy of population Ans. (d)
(b) Parasites and predators as natural size, overproduction, natural According to both the views, something
enemies selection is passed from parent to offspring which
(c) Survival of the fittest (d) Overproduction, constancy of causes development of specific
(d) Struggle for existence population size, variations, natural characters, i.e. all that has been
selection acquired by the organism during its life
Ans. (a) time is preserved by generation and
Ans. (b)
Natural theory of Darwin did not believe transmitted to offsprings in form of
in any role of discontinuous variations. Though living organisms tend to multiply
geometrically, the number of individuals pangenes is or gemmules.
Darwin called the variations as ‘sports’.
While, Hugo de Vries used the term of a species tend to remain constant
mutation to these variations. These over a long period of time. Out of 84 The presence of gill slits, in the
variations are sudden heritable changes heterogenous population (due to the embryos of all vertebrates,
which can occur in any stage of variation) best adapted individuals are supports the theory of
development. selected by nature. [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(a) biogenesis
78 In a random mating population in 81 Genetic drift operates in (b) recapitulation
equilibrium, which of the following [CBSE AIPMT 2002] (c) metamorphosis
brings about a change in gene (a) small isolated population (d) organic evolution
frequency in a non-directional (b) large isolated population
Ans. (a)
manner? [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (c) fast reproductive population
‘The theory of recapitulation’ or
(a) Migration (b) Mutation (d) slow reproductive population
‘Biogenetic law’, propounded by Haeckel
(c) Random drift (d) Selection Ans. (a) states that an individual organism in its
Ans. (b) Genetic drift refers to changes in allele development (ontogeny) tends to repeat
frequencies of a gene pool due to the stages passed through by its
Given certain conditions, the allele
frequencies remain constant from chance. Though it operates both in large ancestors (phylogeny). During the life
generation to generation. Under these and small populations, it is expected to history of frog, tadpole larva resembles
conditions, a population would be in be significant only in small populations, fishes, the ancestors of Amphibia. The
equilibrium and there will be no where alleles may become extinct or get presence of gill clefts in vertebrate
evolutionary change. However, many fixed by chance alone. embryo provides a strong evidence in
evolutionary changes usually occur support of organic evolution.
following the appearance of new alleles 82 Reason of diversity in living being
and source of this is mutation. is [CBSE AIPMT 2001] 85 Which one does not favour
(a) mutation Lamarckian concept of inheritance
79 Random genetic drift in a of acquired characters?
(b) gradual change
population probably results from [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(c) long term evolutionary change
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] (a) Lack of pigment in cave dwellers
(d) short term evolutionary change
(a) large population size (b) Absence of limbs in snakes
(b) highly genetically variable individuals Ans. (c) (c) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic
(c) interbreeding within this population Though mutation provides the source of birds
(d) constant low mutation rate variation, the diversity in living beings is (d) Melanization of peppered moth in
due to the natural selection of variations industrial areas
Ans. (b) and consequent evolutionary change
Genetic drift or Sewall Wright effect is over a long periods of time. Ans. (d)
statically significant change in Lamarck believed in direct influence of
population gene frequencies resulting by 83 Darwin’s theory of pangenesis environment on the individual.
chance and not from natural selection, shows similarity with theory of Lamarckian postulate of use and disuse
emigration or immigration. In simple of organs is supported by rudimentary
words, random loss of alleles is known as inheritance of acquired characters
eyes of cave dwellers, webbed feet of
genetic drift. then what will be correct according
swimming bird, elongated limbless body
to it? [CBSE AIPMT 2001] of snake, vestigial organs of living
80 Which one of the following (a) Useful organs become strong and animals, etc. Biston betularia (peppered
sequences was proposed by developed while useless organs moth) shows industrial melanism and
Darwin and Wallace for organic become extinct. These organs help in demonstrates natural selection.
struggle for survival
evolution? [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
86 Frequency of a character increases 89 Basic principles of embryonic Ans. (d)

when it is [CBSE AIPMT 1994] development were pronounced by The factor that leads to Founder effect
(a) recessive (b) dominant [CBSE AIPMT 1990] in a population is genetic drift. It is the
(a) Von Baer (b) Weismann change in the frequency of an existing
(c) inheritable (d) adaptable
gene variant (allele) in a population due to
(c) Haeckel (d) Morgan
Ans. (d) random sampling of organisms. Genetic
According to Darwin, the variations are Ans. (a) drift can cause big losses of genetic
continuous and those which are helpful The basic laws or principles of variation for small population. The
in the adaptations of an organism embryonic development were given by Founder effect is when a few individuals
towards its surrounding would be passed von Baer in 1828. According to his theory in a population colonize a new location
on to the next generation. In the during embryonic development that is separated from the old population.
offsprings, these modifications become generalised features brain, spinal cord This also greatly reduces the population
more pronounced if they are exposed to etc. appeared earlier than special size, as well as reduces the genetic
similar stress of the environment as features like hair. Haeckel (1866) variability of the population.
faced by their parents. propounded ‘The theory of recapitulation Other options can be explained as
or Biogenetic law’. Natural selection is the process through
87 Theory of natural selection dwells which populations of living organisms
on [CBSE AIPMT 1993] 90 ‘Continuity of germplasm’ theory adapt and change.
(a) role of environment in evolution was given by [CBSE AIPMT 1989] Genetic recombination, in genetics,
(b) natural selection acting on favourable (a) De Vries (b) Weismann primary mechanism through which
variations variation is introduced into populations.
(c) Darwin (d) Lamarck
(c) changes in gene complex resulting in Mutation is sudden heritable change.
Ans. (b)
heritable variations
August Weismann, a German scientist 93 A population of a species invades a
(d) None of the above
formulated his famous ‘Theory of
Ans. (b)
new area. Which of the following
continuity of germplasm’ in 1886, on
According to Darwin’s theory of natural experimenting with mice. His theory conditions will lead to adaptive
selection, in the struggle for existence, states that inheritance in multicellular radiation? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
only those individuals survive which organisms takes place by means of germ (a) Area with large number of habitats
possess the most useful variations. cells i.e. egg and sperm cells only. having very low food supply
Useful variations present in the surviving (b) Area with a single type of vacant
individuals are passed on to the next 91 Theory of inheritance of acquired habitat
generation. Next generation repeats the characters was given by (c) Area with many types of vacant
process of development of variations [CBSE AIPMT 1989] habitats
and natural selection. (a) Wallace (b) Lamarck (d) Area with many habitats occupied by
(c) Darwin (d) De Vries a large number of species
88 Weismann cut off tails of mice
Ans. (b) Ans. (c)
generation after generation but
Jean Baptiste de Lamarck (1744–1829) Option (c) is correct.
tails neither disappeared nor was the greatest of French naturalists, The adaptive radiation occurs when a
shortened showing that who for the first time suggested a population of a species invades a new
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] complete theory of evolution. area. It is because it provides organisms
(a) Darwin was correct Lamarckian theory is also known as of a population a new habitat with plenty
(b) tail is an essential organ ‘Theory of inheritance of acquired of niche spaces. Darwin’s finches
characters’ or ‘Theory of use and disuse represent one of the best examples of
(c) mutation theory is wrong
of organs’. this phenomenon.
(d) Lamarckism was wrong in inheritance
of acquired characters
TOPIC 4 94 Which of the following represents
Ans. (d)
order of ‘Horse’? [NEET 2017]
Lamarckian theory of inheritance of Speciation and Isolation (a) Equidae
acquired characters was discarded by
Weismann, while experimenting on mice. (b) Perissodactyla
He cut the tails of mice for 80 generations 92 The factor that leads to Founder (c) Caballus
but no single mouse was born without tail. effect in a population is [NEET 2021] (d) Ferus
Weismann formulated his famous (a) natural selection Ans. (b)
‘Theory of continuity of germplasm’, (b) genetic recombination Order being the higher taxon of
according to which only those
(c) mutation classification exhibit the few similar
characters, whatever be their origin and
(d) genetic drift characters of families. The order of
nature, that could affect germplasm are
horse is perissodactyla.
heritable and others are not.
Evolution 291
Concept Enhancer The order Ans. (b) 100 One of the important
perissodactyla includes odd toed Darwin stated that the organic evolution consequences of geographical
mammals. For example, Equus asinus
is due to the interspecific competition. It isolation is [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(donkey), Rhinoceros indicus (the great
is the competition between members of (a) no change in the isolated fauna
one horned rhinoceros).
different species. Intraspecific
(b) preventing speciation
competition occurs amongst members
95 In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the of the same species for obtaining
(c) speciation through reproductive
frequency of heterozygous isolation
optimum amounts of their food, shelter,
individual is represented by (d) random creation of new species
mate, water, light, etc.
[NEET 2016, Phase II] Closely related species if compete Ans. (c)
(a) p 2 (b) 2pq cannot cause evolution. Reduced Speciation is the formation of new
(c) pq (d) q 2 feeding efficiency in one species due to species and the development of species
the presence of interfering species is diversity occurs when gene flow within
Ans. (b) the common pool is interrupted by an
due to the struggle for existence.
Hardy-Weinberg principle states that isolating mechanism. The isolation can
the allele frequencies in a population occur through geographical separation
are stable and remain constant from 98 Adaptive radiation refers to
of population, known as allopatric
generation to generation. This can be [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
speciation.
expressed by the equation : (a) adaptations due to geographical
p2 + 2pq + q 2 = 1 isolation
101 Which one of the following is not a
or (p + q) 2 = 1 (b) evolution of different species from a
common ancestor living fossil? [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
where, p2 represents frequency (a) King crab (b) Sphenodon
(c) migration of members of a species to
of homozygous dominant genotype,2pq (c) Archaeopteryx (d) Peripatus
different geographical areas
represents the frequency of
heterozygous genotype andq 2 (d) power of adaptation in an individual to Ans. (c)
represents the frequency of a variety of environments
Archaeopteryx lithographica is not a
homozygous recessive genotype. Ans. (b) living fossil. It is a fossil bird that lived in
Hence, option (b) is correct. Adaptive radiation is the development of Jurassis period about 180 million years
different functional structures from a ago. Its fossil displays the characters of
96 The tendency of population to common ancestral form. both reptiles (e.g. long tail, bones non
remain in genetic equilibrium may be pneumatic, claw, presence of weak
99 Industrial melanism as observed in sternum, free caudal vertebra, etc) and
disturbed by [NEET 2013]
peppered moth proves that birds (e.g. presence of feathers,
(a) random mating modified jaws, etc).
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(b) lack of migration
(a) the true black melanic forms arise by
(c) lack of mutations a recurring random mutation 102 Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era
(d) lack of random mating (b) the melanic form of the moth has no is characterised by
Ans. (d) selective advantage over lighter form [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, in industrial area (a) radiation of reptiles and origin of
allele frequencies in a population are (c) the lighter form moth has no mammal-like reptiles
stable and is constant from generation selective advantage either in polluted (b) dinosaurs become extinct and
to generation only if the following industrial area or non-polluted area angiosperms appear
conditions are met (c) flowering plants and first dinosaurs
(d) melanism is a pollution generated
(i) There is no mutation, no gene flow appear
feature
and all mating is random. (d) gymnosperms are dominant plants
Ans. (a) and first birds appear
(ii) All genotypes reproduce equally
well (i.e., no natural selection). But Industrial melanism is a term used to Ans. (d)
all there conditions are rarely met in describe the evolutionary process in
Jurassic period is the second geological
nature. which darker individuals come to period of Mesozoic era. In this period,
predominate over lighter individuals the gymnosperms were dominant and
97 According to Darwin, the organic since the industrial revolution as a result the plants included ferns, cycads,
evolution is due to [NEET 2013] of natural selection. In 1848 a black form Ginkgo, bushes and conifers. Among
of the moth was recorded in Manchester animals, important invertebrates
(a) intraspecific competition
and by 1895, 98% of the peppered moth included ammonites, corals,
(b) interspecific competition
population in Manchester was black. This brachiopods, bivalves and echinoids.
(c) competition within closely related
black ‘melanic’ form arose by a recurring Reptiles dominated the vertebrates and
species
random mutation, but its phenotypic the first flying reptiles the pterosaurs
(d) reduced feeding efficiency in one appeared.
appearance had a strong selective
species due to the presence of
advantage in industrial areas. The first primitive bird, Archaeopteryx,
interfering species
also made its appearance.
103 Industrial melanism is an example (a) these species have been extinct from 110 The earliest fossil form in the
other regions phylogeny of horse is
(b) continental separation [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(a) defensive adaptation of skin against
(c) there is no terrestrial route to these (a) Merychippus
ultraviolet radiations
places (b) Mesohippus
(b) drug resistance
(d) retrogressive evolution (c) Eohippus
(c) darkening of skin due to smoke from
industries Ans. (b) (d) Equus principles
(d) protective resemblance with the Seas separating the continents form Ans. (c)
surroundings barriers to free intercontinental
Hoofed animals like-horse originated in
movement causing evolution of
Ans. (c) Ecoene epoch in North America. First
organisms independently in these
Industrial melanism is an example of horse-like animals from which the
continents leading to endemism.
directional selection. Changing modern horse Equus evolved was
Endemic species are those species
environment leading to changes in the Hyracotherium (old) name Eohippus). The
which are found in a restricted area of
phenotypic/genotypic constitution of a fossil record is most complete in horse.
the world.
population.
107 Genetic drift operates only in 111 Two geographical regions
104 In which condition the gene ratio [CBSE AIPMT 1998] separated by high mountains are
remains constant for any species? (a) smaller populations [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] (b) larger populations (a) Oriental and Australian
(a) Sexual selection (c) Mendelian populations (b) Palaearctic and Oriental
(b) Random mating (d) island populations (c) Nearctic and Palaearctic
(c) Mutation (d) Neotropical and Ethiopian
Ans. (a)
(d) Gene flow Ans. (b)
Genetic drift may be of significance in
Ans. (b) small populations only, where alleles Dr. PL Scalater (1858) proposed first time
According to Hardy–Weinberg theorem, may easily get extinct by chance alone. the division of the world into six realms
the mixing of alleles at meiosis and their or biogeographic regions according to
subsequent recombination will not alter 108 In general, in the developmental the distribution of birds. In 1876 AR
the frequencies of alleles in the future history of a mammalian heart, it is Wallace, adopted it for all the animals,
generations provided the mating within observed that it passes through a these regions include i.e. Palaearctic,
the population is random. Ethiopian, Oriental, Australian, Nearctic
two-chambered fish-like heart, and Neotropical. Palaearctic and
three-chambered frog-like heart Oriental realms are separated by high
105 In which era reptiles were
and finally to four-chambered mountain ranges, i.e. Himalayas.
dominant? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
stage. To which hypothesis can this
(a) Coenozoic era 112 Genetic drift is change of
above cited statement be
(b) Mesozoic era [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
approximated? [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(c) Palaeozoic era (a) gene frequency in same generation
(a) Hardy-Weinberg law
(d) Archaeozoic era (b) appearance of recessive genes
(b) Lamarck’s principle
Ans. (b) (c) Biogenetic law (c) gene frequency from one generation
Mesozoic era began about 24.8 crore (d) Mendelian to next
year ago and lasted for about 18.3 crore (d) None of the above
year. It is also known as the ‘Age of Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
reptiles’. Biogenetic law was propounded by Ernst
Haeckel in 1866. According to this, Genetic drift is defined as any random
Main events in of this era are as follows: change, either directed or undirected in
during its development an animal passes
(i) Gymnosperms dominate gene frequency in a population.
through ancestral adult stages.
landscape, first dinosaurs and
mammals. 113 Correct order is [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
109 ‘Golden age of dinosaurs’/Age of
(ii) Gymnosperms continue as (a) Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic →
dominant plants, dinosaures reptiles was [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Coenozoic
dominant, first birds. (a) Mesozoic
(b) Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic →
(iii) Flowering plants (angiosperms) (b) Coenozoic
Proterozoic
appear, dinosaurs and many groups (c) Palaeozoic (c) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
of organisms become extinct at (d) Psychozoic (d) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic →
end of period.
Ans. (a) Proterozoic
106 Occurrence of endemic species in Mesozoic era is the age of reptiles. Ans. (c)
During this era, the dinosaurs achieved Era is a division of geological time that
South-America and Australia is due an enormous size and were most includes one or more periods. It follows
to [CBSE AIPMT 2001] abundant, Mesozoic era is also known as the order–Palaeozoic, Mesozoic and
golden age of dinosaurs.
Evolution 293
Coenozoic. Palaeozoic and Mesozoic Neanderthal men lived in Asia between Australopithecus was first ape man
eras are sub-divided into periods but 1,00,000 and 40,000 years back. Other found in African Pliocene era rocks
Coenozoic is divided into periods and statements are corrected as follows present 5 mya.
epochs. Mesozoic era is the Age of Agriculture came around 10,000 years Homo habilis were believed to be
reptiles, and Coenozoic era is called as present in East Africa 2 mya in Pliocene
back
‘Age of mammals and birds’. era.
About 15 mya , primates called
Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were Homo erectus appeared nearly 1.5 mya
114 Parallelism is [CBSE AIPMT 1990] with cranial capacity of 800-1300 cc.
existing. They were hairy and walked like
(a) adaptive divergence gorillas and chimpanzees. Thus, the correct sequence is
(b) adaptive divergence of widely Ramapithecus → Australopithecus→
Homo habilis probably did not eat meat
separated species Homo habilis → Homo erectus
while Homo erectus probably ate meat.
(c) adaptive convergence of widely
different species 119 What was the most significant
(d) adaptive convergence of closely
117 Match the hominids with their
correct brain size trend in the evolution of modern
related groups
[NEET (National) 2019] man (Homo sapiens) from his
Ans. (d) ancestors? [CBSE AIPMT 2012, 11]
A. Homo habilis (i) 900 cc
When convergent evolution is found in (a) Shortening of jaws
closely related species, it is called B. Homo neanderthalensis
‘Parallel evolution’ (or parallelism), e.g. (ii) 1350 cc (b) Binocular vision
development of running habit in deer [2 C. Homo erectus (iii) 650-800 cc (c) Increasing brain capacity
toed) and horse (1 toed) with two vestigial D. Homo sapiens (iv) 1400 cc (d) Upright posture
splint bones.
Select the correct option. Ans. (c)
A B C D The most significant trend in the
TOPIC 5 (a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) evolution of modern man is the
Human Evolution (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) increased brain capacity from the
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) ancestors. The first human being was
(d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) the hominid, called Homo habilis. The
115 A hominid fossil discovered in Java brain capacities were between 650-800
Ans. (b)
in 1891, now extinct having cranial cc. They probably did not eat meat.
(A)–(iii) (B)–(iv), (C)–(i) (D)–(ii)
capacity of about 900 cc was Fossils discovered in Java in 1891
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] The brain capacity of Homo habilis or the revealed the next stage, i.e. Homo
(a) Homo erectus tool maker was 650-800 cc. Homo erectus. Homo erectus had a large brain
neanderthalensis, who existed in the late and probably ate meat.
(b) Neanderthal man
Pleistocene period had the brain size of
(c) Homo sapiens The Neanderthal man with a brain size of
about 1400 cc. Homo erectus were the
(d) Australopithecus 1400 cc lived in near east and central
first to walk upright and stand erect.
Asia between 1,00,00-40,000 year back.
Ans. (a) Their brain size was about 900 cc. Homo
They used hides to protect their body
A Hominid fossil discovered in Java in sapiens or the living modern man has the
and burried their dead. Homo sapiens
1891 now extinct having cranial capacity brain size of about 1350 cc, which is
arose in Africa and moved across
of about lesser than their immediate ancestors,
continents and developed into distinct
900 cc was Homo erectus. It probably ate Cro-Magnon man.
races. During ice age between
meat.
75,000-10,000 years back modern Homo
118 The chronological order of human sapiens arose.
116 Which of the following statements evolution from early to the recent
is correct about the origin and is 120 The extinct human who lived
evolution of men? (a) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → 100000 to 40000 years ago, in
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] Homo habilis → Homo erectus
Europe, Asia and parts of Africa,
(a) Agriculture came around 50,000 (b) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus →
years back Homo habilis → Homo erectus with short stature, heavy eye
(b) The Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus (c) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → brows, retreating fore heads, large
primates existing 15 million years ago, Australopithecus→ Homo erectus jaws with heavy teeth, stocky
walked like men (d) Australopithecus→ Homo habilis → bodies, a lumbering gait and
(c) Homo habilis probably ate meat Ramapithecus → Homo erectus stooped posture was
(d) Neanderthal men lived in Asia Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
between 1,00,000 and 40,000 years
The fossils of Ramapithecus was (a) Homo habilis
back
discovered by Edward Levis from (b) Neanderthal human
Ans. (d) Pliocene rocks of Shivalik hills in India. (c) Cro-magnon humans
Statement (d) is correct about the origin They were present in Pliocene era nearly
and evolution of men. (d) Ramapithecus
14-15 million years ago (mya).
Ans. (b) continents. The greater the difference Ans. (a)

Neanderthal man with a brain size of between the mtDNAs of two peoples, the Banding patterns of human
1400cc lived in near East and Central longer ago that mtDNAs diverged from a chromosome number 3 and 6 are
Asia, Europe and North Africa between common source. remarkably similar to that of chimpanzee
100000 to 40000 years back. It had By using bioinformatics, they concluded indicating common origin for both.
slightly prognathus face, sloping that the divergence of mtDNA of
forehead, eye brow ridges, smaller or no Africans from common source began 126 Homo sapiens evolved during
chin, large receding jaws, thick-boned just 200000 year ago, much too late to
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
skull and high domed head. They used represent the dispersal ofHomo erectus.
hides to protect their body and buried Thus, there are greater variation in Asia (a) Pleistocene (b) Oligocene
their dead. than in Africa. (c) Pliocene (d) Miocene
Ans. (a)
121 Among the human ancestors the 123 In recent years, DNA sequences The family–Hominidae includes humans
brain size was more than 1000 cc in (nucleotide sequence) of mtDNA of today. These are the most intelligent
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] and Y-chromosomes were of the hominoids. They are distinguished
(a) Homo neanderthalensis considered for the study of human from the other families of hominoids in
evolution, because that they are bipedal, i.e. they walk
(b) Homo erectus
upright on two legs. Hominids appeared
(c) Ramapithecus [CBSE AIPMT 2003]
during Pliocene but modern human
(d) Homo habilis (a) they can be studied from the samples (Homo sapiens) are believed to have
of fossil remains arisen about 1,50,000 year back during
Ans. (a) (b) they are small and, therefore, easy to Pleistocene.
The cranial capacity of Homo study
neanderthalensis was about 1450 cc, (c) they are uniparental in origin and do
roughly to that of modern man. 127 Which one of the following features
not take part in recombination
is closely related with the evolution
(d) their structure is known in greater
122 There are two opposing views detail of humans? [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
about origin of modern man. (a) Loss of tail
Ans. (c)
According to one view Homo (b) Shortening of jaws
Wilson and Sarich choose mitochondrial
erectus in Asia were the ancestors DNA (mtDNA) for the study of maternal
(c) Binocular vision
of modern man. A study of line inheritance. While, Y-chromosomes (d) Flat nails
variation of DNA however, were considered for the study of human Ans. (b)
suggested African origin of modern evolution particularly male domain. It is Evolution of modern man is
possible because they are uniparental in accompanied by the reduction in length
man. What kind of observation on origin and do not take part in
DNA variation could suggest this? of jaw bones and teeth lines becoming
recombination. semi-circular instead of U-shaped.
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(a) Greater variation in Asia than in Africa 124 Which of the following is correct
(b) Greater variation in Africa than in Asia
128 Which of the following primate is
order of evolutionary history of the closest relative of humans?
(c) Similar variation in Africa and Asia
man? [CBSE AIPMT 2001] [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(d) Variation only in Asia and no variation
(a) Peking man, Homo sapiens, (a) Rhesus monkey (b) Orangutan
in Africa
Neanderthal, Cro-magnon (c) Gorilla (d) Gibbon
Ans. (a) (b) Peking man, Neanderthal, Homo
There are two models about origin of sapiens, Cro-magnon Ans. (c)
modern man (Homo sapiens sapiens), i.e. (c) Peking man, Heidalberg man, Chimpanzees and gorillas are our closest
(a) Multiregional model According to Neanderthal, Cro-magnon relatives of humans among the living
this view, modern humans evolved (d) Peking man, Neanderthal, Homo primates.
in many parts of the world from sapiens, Heidalberg man
regional descendants of 129 Which is not a vestigial part in
Ans. (c)
Homo erectus who dispersed from humans? [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
Africa between 1 and 2 million years Peking man→ Heidalberg man →
Neanderthal man→ Cro-magnon man is (a) Segmental muscles of abdomen
ago.
the correct order/sequence of evolution (b) Finger nails
(b) Monogenesis model According to man. (c) Third molar
this view only African descendants
of Homo erectus gave rise to (d) Coccyx
modern humans.
125 Which of following is closest Ans. (b)
In late 1980s Rebecca Cann and other
relative of man? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
Finger nails are not a vestigeal part in
geneticists supported this view on the (a) Chimpanzee humans. Structures or organs which are
basis of DNA of living humans. They (b) Gorilla present in an organism in a diminished
compared the mitochondrial DNA (c) Orangutan size but no longer useful are called
(mtDNA) of a multiathenic sample of (d) Gibbon vestigial organ.
more than 100 people representing four
Evolution 295
About 90 vestigial organs have been is most closely related to great apes ear pinna and third molar (wisdom tooth),
reported from human body. These (chimpanzee and gorilla). mammary gland in males, coccyx (caudal
include coccyx (tail bone), third molar vertebrae), vermiform appendix etc.
(wisdom tooth) and segmental muscles 132 Which one of the following
of abdomen. statements about fossil human 134 Which one of the following is
species is correct ? regarded as the direct ancestor of
130 Which one of the following [CBSE AIPMT 1997] modern man? [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
statements is correct? (a) Homo erectus
(a) Fossils of Homo neanderthalensis
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
have been found recently in South (b) Ramapithecus
(a) Cro-magnon man’s fossil has been
America (c) Homo habilis
found in Ethiopia
(b) Homo erectus is the ancestor of man (b) Neanderthal man and Cro-magnon (d) Cro-magnon man
(c) Neanderthal man is the direct man did exist for sometime together Ans. (d)
ancestor of Homo sapiens (c) Australopithecus fossils have been Homo sapiens sapiens is the modern
(d) Australopithecus is the real ancestor found in Australia man evolved about 25000 years ago. The
of modern man direct ancestor of the living man was the
(d) Homo erectus was preceded by Homo
Ans. (b) Cro-magnon (Homo sapiens fossilis),
habilis discovered in 1868 from Cro-magnon
Homo erectus (0.25–1.7 million years,
Ans. (d) rocks of France by ‘Mac Gregor’ from
middle Pleistocene man) is known as
Homo erectus was a large hominid. It had Holocene epoch. Cro-magnon was
erect man, who walked erect over legs.
a length of about 150 to 170 cm (5 to 5.5 emerged about 34000 years ago. It is
Homo sapiens (late Pleistocene man, 5
feet) with a low but distinct forehead believed that Cro-magnon man was
lakh year) is parent species to which
strong browridge and a brain capacity of somewhat more intelligent and cultured
modern man belongs. It evolved from
about 1000 cc. Homo erectus was social than the man of today.
Homo erectus in Africa. Homo sapiens
sapiens is the modern man, evolved and living in tribes of 20 to 50 people and
about 25000 year back but spread to thus had a successful and complex 135 Which one is irrelevant to evolution
various parts of the world about culture. It became widespread of man? [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
10000–11000 year ago. throughout the tropical and temperate (a) Perfection of hand for tool making
old world. (b) Change of diet from hard nuts/roots to
131 Common origin of man and soft food
chimpanzee is best shown by 133 Which one of the following sets (c) Increased ability to communicate or
[CBSE AIPMT 1997] includes only the vestigial develop community behaviour
(a) banding pattern in chromosomes structures in man? (d) Loss of tail
number 3 and 6 [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
Ans. (d)
(b) cranial capacity (a) Body hair olecranon process, coccyx,
patella Evolution simply means an orderly
(c) binocular vision change from one condition to another. It
(d) dental formula (b) Wisdom teeth, mammary glands,
is often called descent with
coccyx, patella
Ans. (a) modification. Tail provides an evidence
(c) Coccyx, nictitating membrane, of atavism or reversion, i.e.
A comparative study of the banding of vermiform appendix, ear muscles reappearance of certain ancestral
chromosomes of man and the great apes (d) Coccyx, body hair, ear ossicles, characters which had disappeared or
has shown that the total amount of DNA vermiform appendix were reduced. Tail is absent in man, but
in human diploid cells and that of apes is
Ans. (c) occasionally early embryo of man
more or less similar. The banding pattern
Vestigial organs are non-functional, possesses an external tail (vestigial tail
of human chromosome numbers 3 and 6
degenerate and rudimentary organs that vertebrae). In adults the tail is
are compared with those of particular
correspond to fully developed and represented by a string of caudal
autosomes in the chimpanzee, which
functional organs of related organisms, vertebrae, which constitute the coccyx
shows a common origin. More over,
e.g. nictitating membranes, muscles of (tail bone).
blood protein test also proves that man
30
Human Health
and Diseases
TOPIC 1 These bacteria infect the alveoli leading 03 Match the following diseases with
to several problems in respiration.
Common Human Diseases Ringworm is a fungal disease.
the causative organism and select
the correct option.
Trichophyton, Microsporum are
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
01 Match the List I with List II. responsible for this disease, resulting in
[NEET 2021] appearance of dry scaly lesions on Column I Column II
various parts as the symptoms of this
disease. A. Typhoid 1. Wuchereria
List I List II
B. Pneumonia 2. Plasmodium
A. Filariasis 1. Haemophilus 02 Match the following columns and
influenzae C. Filariasis 3. Salmonella
select the correct option from the D. Malaria 4. Haemophilus
B. Amoebiasis 2. Trichophyton codes given below.
C. Pneumonia 3. Wuchereria [NEET (Oct.) 2020] A B C D
bancrofti (a) 3 4 1 2
Column I Column II
D. Ringworm 4. Entamoeba (b) 2 1 3 4
histolytica A. Typhoid 1. Haemophilus (c) 4 1 2 3
influenzae
(d) 1 3 2 4
B. Malaria 2. Wuchereria
Choose the correct answer from bancrofti Ans. (a)
the options given below. Typhoid is caused by bacterium
C. Pneumonia 3. Plasmodium vivax Salmonella typhi. Typhoid fever is a type
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 2 D. Filariasis 4. Salmonella typhi of enteric fever. It spreads by drinking
(b) 3 4 1 2 water contaminated with the faeces of
Codes an infected person. Fever that starts low
(c) 1 2 4 3
A B C D and increases daily, possibly reaching as
(d) 2 3 1 4 high as 104.9 F (40.5 C), muscle aches,
(a) 4 3 1 2
Ans. (b) sweating, loss of appetite and weight
(b) 3 4 2 1 loss, abdominal pain and diarrhoea or
(A)-(3), (B)-(4), (C )-(1) ,(D)-(2)
(c) 1 3 2 4 constipation are the symptoms of
Filariasis or elephantiasis is caused by (d) 1 2 4 3 typhoid.
filarial worm known as Wuchereria
bancrofti. It affect the lymphatic vessels Ans. (a) Pneumonia is caused by bacterium
of lower limbs resulting in gross Option (a) is the correct match which is Haemophilus influenzae. It is a small,
deformities. as follows Gram-negative, facultative anaerobic
Amoebiasis is a protozoan disease Typhoid is caused Salmonella typhi. organism which causes infection in the
caused by Entamoeba histolytica which Malaria is caused by Plasmodium vivax. upper respiratory tract. The bacteria are
parasite the large intestine causing usually transmitted by droplets in the air
Pneumonia is caused by Haemophilus
constipation, abdominal pain, etc. from a sneeze, cough or close
influenzae.
Pneumonia is a bacterial disease caused conversation with an infected person.
Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria
by, Haemophilus influenzae and Filariasis is a parasitic disease caused by
bancrofti.
Sterptococcus pneumoniae bacteria. infectious worms called Wuchereria.
Human Health and Diseases 297
These spread by blood-feeding insects Ans. (c) Syphilis — Treponema pallidum

such as black flies and mosquitoes. (bacterium)
Elephantiasis is a helminthic disease
Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by Wuchereria bancrofti. The Influenza — Influenza virus
caused by Plasmodium parasite. It’s infestation is transmitted by female Blastomycosis Blastomyces
typically transmitted through the bite of Culex mosquitoes from one individual to dermatitidis (fungus)
—
an infected Anopheles mosquito. the others. The worms live in the
Infected mosquitoes carry the lymphatic system.
Plasmodium species. After bite, the 10 Infection of Ascaris usually occurs
Ascariasis is caused by Ascaris
parasite is released into the bloodstream lumbricoides. It is an endoparasite of by [NEET 2013]
where it matures and begin to infect (a) drinking water containing egg of
the small intestine of human beings.
RBCs resulting in symptoms that occur Ascaris
Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba
in cycles that last two to three days at a (b) eating imperfectly cooked pork
histolytica. It lives in the large intestine
time. (c) tse-tse fly
of humans. Ringworm is a fungal skin
disease. (d) mosquito bite
04 The infectious stage of Plasmodium
that enters the human body is Ans. (a)
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
07 Which of the following sets of Infection of Ascaris occurs in a healthy
(a) sporozoites diseases is caused by bacteria? person due to the contaminated water,
[NEET 2016, Phase II] vegetables, (raw or uncooked) fruits, etc.
(b) female gametocytes Mosquitos bite causes malaria due to the
(a) Cholera and tetanus
(c) male gametocytes entry to Plasmodium parasite into the
(b) Typhoid and smallpox
(d) trophozoites blood by mosquito. Eating imperfectly
(c) Tetanus and mumps
Ans. (a) cooked pork causes trichinosis disease
(d) Herpes and influenza (parasitic disease). Tse-tse fly causes
The infectious stage of Plasmodium that
Ans. (a) trypanosomiasis, an infection of the
enters the human body is sporozoites,
Cholera and tetanus are diseases central nervous system.
present in salivary gland of Anopheles
mosquito. The sporozoites grow and caused by bacteria. Cholera is caused
multiply in the liver to become by a bacterium Vibrio cholerae and 11 Widal test is carried out to test
merozoites. These merozoites invade tetanus is caused by a bacterium [CBSE AIPMT 2012, 10]
the erythrocytes (RBCs) to form Clostridium tetani. Mumps, influenza, (a) malaria
trophozoites, schizonts and herpes and smallpox are viral diseases. (b) diabetes mellitus
gametocytes, during which the symptoms Typhoid is a bacterial disease but it is (c) HIV/AIDS
of malaria are produced. not paired with a bacterial disease. (d) typhoid fever
Hence, option (a) is correct.
05 Identify the correct pair representing Ans. (d)
the causative agent of typhoid fever 08 Asthma may be attributed to Widal test is one of the most reliable
[NEET 2016, Phase I] diagnostic tests for typhoid fever in
and the confirmatory test for developing countries since its
(a) allergic reaction of the mast cells in
typhoid. [NEET (National) 2019] introduction (over 100 years ago). This
the lungs
(a) Streptococcus pneumoniae / Widal test demonstrates the presence of
(b) inflammation of the trachea
test somatic (O) and flagellar (H) agglutinins
(c) accumulation of fluid in the lungs to Salmonella typhi in the patients blood
(b) Salmonella typhi / Anthrone test
(c) Salmonella typhi / Widal test (d) bacterial infection of the lungs serum using suspensions of O and H
(d) Plasmodium vivax / UTI test Ans. (a) antigens. Antigens of S. paratyphi A and
S. paratyphi B are included in most
Ans. (c) Asthma is an allergic reaction
commercial kits.
characterised by spasm of bronchi
Typhoid fever is caused by the bacterium
muscles because of effect of histamine
Salmonella typhi and widal test is the 12 Common cold differs from
released by mast cells.
confirmatory test for typhoid, which is
pneumonia in, that
based on antigen antibody reaction.
09 Which of the following diseases is [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
Typhoid fever or enteric fever has the (a) pneumonia is a communicable
incubation period of 1 to 2 weeks and it is caused by a protozoan?
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] disease, whereas the common cold is
usually transmitted through a nutritional deficiency disease
contaminated food and water. (a) Syphilis (b) pneumonia can be prevented by a live
(b) Influenza attenuated bacterial vaccine,
06 In which disease does mosquito (c) Babesiosis whereas the common cold has no
transmitted pathogen cause (d) Blastomycosis effective vaccine
chronic inflammation of lymphatic (c) pneumonia is caused by a virus, while
Ans. (c)
vessels? [NEET 2018]
the common cold is caused by the
Babesiosis is a malaria-like parasitic bacterium Haemophilus influenzae
(a) Ringworm disease disease caused by infection with Babesia (d) pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli
(b) Ascariasis bigemina, a genus of protozoa whereas the common cold affects
(c) Elephantiasis piroplasms. nose and respiratory passage but not
(d) Amoebiasis the lungs
Ans. (d) (a) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv) Ans. (b)

Pneumonia is caused by the bacteria (b) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(iii) Both sickle-cell anaemia and
Diplococcus pneumoniae which infects (c) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iii), D–(iv) Huntington’s chorea are congenital
the alveoli of lungs. It generally spreads (d) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(i) genetic disorders.
through the sputum of patient. Fever, Sickle-cell anaemia was first reported
cold and difficulty in breathing are some Ans. (d)
by James Herrick (1904). In this disease
common symptoms of pneumonia. It can Amoebiasis is caused by Entamoeba
the patient’s haemoglobin level reduced
be treated by the antibiotics. histolytica. Prevention of infection is
to half of the normal and the RBCs
Common cold is caused by a variety of entirely a matter of hygiene, both
become sickle-shaped. A single
viruses, most commonly by rhinovirus personal as well as municipal. Their
mutation in a gene cause sickle-cell
(RNA virus). It spreads through droplet prevention include use of properly
anaemia.
infection. It affects the upper respiratory cooked food and sterilized water.
Huntington’s chorea is caused by
tract but not the lungs. Nasal and Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium
bronchial irritation, sneezing and autosomal mutation which is
diphtheriae. The symptoms are fever,
coughing are some common symptoms dominant. The gene is present on
sore throat, severe damage to heart,
of cold. chromosome number 4.
nerve cell and adrenal glands. The
vaccine DPT is used for diphtheria, 18 Which one of the following is not
13 Ringworm in humans is caused by
pertussis and tetanus.
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] correctly matched?
Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae, a [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(a) bacteria (b) fungi
Gram negative bacterium. It spreads by (a) Glossina palpalis — Sleeping sickness
(c) nematodes (d) viruses
faecal contamination. The dehydration
(b) Culex pipiens — Filariasis
Ans. (b) and loss of mineral salts can cause
(c) Aedes aegypti — Yellow fever
Ringworm refers to fungal infections death. It is treated by use of oral
occurring on the surface of the skin. rehydration therapy. (d) Anopheles culicifacies
Although the world is full of yeasts, — Leishmaniasis
Syphilis is caused by Treponema
moulds and fungi, only a few cause skin pallidum, a spirochaete and spread by Ans. (d)
problems. These agents are called the
sexual contact and is STD. Leishmaniasis or kala-azar is caused by
dermatophytes. Some common
dermatophytic fungi are Trichophyton a protozoan, Leishmania donovani. It is
rubrum, T. tensurans, T. interdigitale, T. 16 Sickle-cell anaemia has not been spread by sand fly. It is also known as
dum-dum fever. It’s control includes
mentagrophytes, Microsporum, Canis, eliminated from the African
Albugo candids and Epidermophyton eradication of vector, and use of
population because antibiotics.
floccosum.
[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
14 Which of the following is a pair of (a) it is controlled by recessive genes 19 Salmonella is related with
viral diseases? [CBSE AIPMT 2009] (b) it is not a fatal disease [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(a) Ringworm, AIDS (c) it provides immunity against malaria (a) typhoid (b) polio
(b) Common cold, AIDS (d) it is controlled by dominant genes (c) TB (d) tetanus
(c) Dysentery, common cold Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
(d) Typhoid, tuberculosis Sickle-cell anaemia (in which RBCs Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever.
become sickle-shaped and stiff) is a The incubation period is about two
Ans. (b) weeks. The patient first suffers from
genetic disorder that is autosomal and
Common cold and AIDS are viral high fever of 40°C and continual
linked to a recessive allele. It has not
diseases, occur due to the rhino virus headache. Polio, TB and tetanus are
been eliminated from the African
and Human Immunodeficiency Virus caused by polio virus, Mycobacterium
(HIV) respectively. Viral diseases can not population because it provides immunity
tuberculosis and Clostridium tetani
be treated by the use of antibiotics. against malaria. People who are
respectively. Polio is being eradicated by
heterozygous for sickle cell allele are
polio vaccine. TB and tetanus can be
15 Match the disease in column I with much less susceptible for falciparum cured by antibiotics.
malaria which is one of the main causes
the appropriate items
of illness and death in them. Thus, the 20 Which of these is most infectious
(pathogen/prevention/ treatment) sickle cell allele is maintained at high
in column II levels in populations where falciparum
disease? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
malaria is common. (a) Hepatitis-B (b) AIDS
Column I Column II (c) Cough and cold (d) Malaria
A. Amoebiasis (i) Treponema 17 Both sickle-cell anaemia and Ans. (a)
pallidum Huntington’s chorea are Hepatitis may be transmitted via blood
B. Diphtheria (ii) Use only sterilised [CBSE AIPMT 2006] transfusions, contaminated equipment,
food and water unsterile needles (of drug addicts), or
(a) bacteria-related diseases
C. Cholera (iii) DPT vaccine any body secretion like saliva, sweat,
(b) congenital disorders
D. Syphilis (iv) Use oral semen, breast milk, urine, faeces.
(c) pollutant-induced disorders Infection to healthy persons is prevented
rehydration
therapy (d) virus-related diseases by proper vaccinations of hepatitis
specially hepatitis-B.
21 Bovine spongiform encephalopathy Ans. (b) (c) poisons released by virus into the
To apply Koch’s postulates, we have to host tissues
is a bovine disease. To which of the
culture the suspected causal organism (d) excessive immune response by the
following human diseases it is host’s body
in vitro. Mycobacterium leprae cannot be
related? [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
cultured in vitro. Hence, Koch’s Ans. (a)
(a) Kala-azar postulates are not applicable to leprosy
(b) Encephalitis Toxins released from Corynebacterium
because its incubation period is 2-5
diphtheriae cause diphtheria. Actually,
(c) Cerebral spondylitis years.
bacterial cells do not contain gene for
(d) Creutzfeldt Jacob disease Cholera is caused by Vibrio cholerae.
toxin production, i.e. a phage carries the
Ans. (d) TB is caused by Mycobacterium gene for it. Only those lysogenised cell of
Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy tuberculosis. C. diphtheriae which carryβ-phage, can
(BSE) is a fatal brain disease known to Diphtheria is caused by Mycobacterium produce the toxin and cause diphtheria.
exists in beef and other dairy cattle in diphtheriae.
UK, also known as mad cow disease. It is 27 Which of the following disease is
believed to be caused by prions. 24 Typhoid fever is caused by now considered nearly eradicated
Creutzfeldt-Jacob Disease (CJD) is a [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
from India? [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
slow degenerative disease among (a) Giardia (b) Salmonella (a) Smallpox (b) Polio myelitis
human affecting central nervous system (c) Shigella (d) Escherichia (c) Plague (d) Kala-azar
with dysfunction and degeneration of
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
the brain. Some scientists have
suggested that a few people in Britain Salmonella typhi causes typhoid fever in Small-pox is an acute highly
might have contracted CJD by eating human beings. It is characterised by communicable viral disease. It is caused
BSE-infected beef. constant fever due to the infection of by virus named Variola virus. Now, it is
intestine. Giardia is a flagellate eradicated from world including India by
protozoan, lamblia species of this
22 A patient suffering from cholera is the mass polio vaccination compaign
protozoan causes disease giardiasis, a undertaken by government of India.
given saline drip because prolonged diarrhoeal disease of humans.
[CBSE AIPMT 1996, 2000]
Bacterial genus Shigella causes 28 Which of the following pair of
(a) Cl − ions are important component of
shigellosis or bacillary dysentery.
blood plasma diseases is caused by virus?
(b) Na + ions help to retain water in the Escherichia coli is a facultative [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
body anaerobes, found in the intestine of
(a) Rabies, mumps
(c) Na + ions are important in transport of human beings.
(b) Cholera, tuberculosis
substances across membrane (c) Typhoid, tetanus
(d) Cl − ions help in the formation of HCl in 25 Botulism caused by Clostridium
(d) AIDS, syphilis
stomach for digestion botulinum affects the
Ans. (b)
(a) spleen Rabies (hydrophobia) is caused by a virus
Severe diarrhoea, vomiting, watery named as rabies virus. It is a lethal
(b) intestine
stools are the chief symptoms of disease. Mumps is an infectious disease
cholera. All these lead to dehydration. (c) lymph glands
(d) neuromuscular junction causing fever, difficulty in opening the
The toxin secreted by Vibrio cholerae mouth and painful swelling of the parotid
causes a continuous activation of Ans. (d) glands which lie just below the lobe of
adenylate cyclase of intestinal epithelial Clostridium botulinum bacterium causes the ear. It is caused by a paramyxovirus.
cells. food poisoning (botulism). Clostridium is
The resultant high concentration of an obligate anaerobic 29 In which one of the following pairs
cAMP triggers continual secretion of endospore-forming Gram positive, of diseases both are caused by
Cl − , HCO3− and water into the lumen of rod-shaped bacterium. This bacterium
the intestine. Administration of saline
viruses? [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
produces an exotoxin which is highly
not only supports the sodium–potassium toxic for the synaptic ends of the nerves (a) Tetanus and typhoid
pump through which water in cell is where it blocks the release of (b) Whooping cough and sleeping
restored, but glucose is also symported acetylcholine. Later is a chemical sickness
along with sodium. necessary for the transmission of nerve (c) Syphilis and AIDS
impulse across the synapses. (d) Measles and rabies
23 Koch’s postulates are not Ans. (d)
applicable to [CBSE AIPMT 1999] 26 Diphtheria is caused by Measles and rabies are viral diseases.
[CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) cholera Disease Pathogen
(b) leprosy (a) poisons released by living bacterial
cells into the host tissue Measles Rubeola virus
(c) TB (b) poisons released from dead bacterial Rabies Rabies virus.
(d) diphtheria cells into the host tissue
30 If all ponds and puddles are 34 Malignant tertian malarial is caused Ans. (b)
destroyed, the organism likely to be by [CBSE AIPMT 1991] Trypanosoma gambiense is the causative
destroyed is [CBSE AIPMT 1993] (a) Plasmodium falciparum agent of African sleeping sickness. Its
(a) Leishmania (b) Trypanosoma (b) P. vivax primary host is man and the secondary
(intermediate) host or vector is tse-tse
(c) Ascaris (d) Plasmodium (c) P. ovale
fly (Glossina palpalis).
Ans. (d) (d) P. malariae
Anopheles is the host of malarial parasite Ans. (a) 38 The infective state of malarial
Plasmodium is known to occur most Malignant tertian malaria is caused by parasite Plasmodium that enters
favourably in stagnant water, ditches, the malarial parasite, Plasmodium human body is [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
ponds, moist and damp places. falciparum, whereas, P. vivax causes
(a) merozoite
Destruction of all the ponds and puddles, tertian malaria and benign tertian
i.e. the breeding places of larva and malaria; P. ovale causes mild tertian (b) sporozoite
pupae will cause destruction in the malaria and P. malariae causes Quartan (c) trophozoite
number of Anopheles and Plasmodium. malaria. (d) minuta form
Ans. (b)
31 Give the correct matching of 35 In hot summer and cold winter, the
Sporozoites are small, spindle-shaped,
causative agent/germ and disease number of malaria cases as well as
uninucleate organisms present in the
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] Anopheles declines, reappearance salivary glands of the mosquito.
(a) Anopheles — malaria of malaria in humid warm conditions Sporozoites represent the infective
(b) Leishmania — sleeping sickness is due to [CBSE AIPMT 1990] stage, which along with saliva inoculates
(c) Glossina — kala-azar (a) surviving malarial parasites in human into the blood stream of human and
(d) Wuchereria — filariasis carriers undergo schizogony.
(b) surviving sporozoites in surviving
Ans. (d)
mosquitoes 39 Malaria fever coincides with
Wuchereria bancrofti causes filariasis or
(c) monkeys liberation of [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
elephantiasis.
(d) mosquito larvae in permanent waters (a) cryptomerozoites
32 The part of life cycle of malarial Ans. (d) (b) metacryptomerozoites
parasite Plasmodium vivax, that is The reappearance of malaria in humid (c) merozoites
passed in female Anopheles is warm conditions is due to the mosquito (d) trophozoites
[CBSE AIPMT 1992] larvae in permanent waters.
Ans. (c)
(a) sexual cycle 36 Amoebiasis is prevented by Merozoites are the progeny of
(b) pre-erythrocytic schisogony [CBSE AIPMT 1990] sporozoites, formed in the liver of
(c) exo-erythrocytic schisogony (a) eating balanced food human. These are produced several days
(d) post-erythrocytic schisogony after the initial infection, which enter the
(b) eating plenty of fruits
blood stream and infect erythrocytes.
Ans. (a) (c) drinking boiled water
Sexual phase in the life cycle of (d) using mosquito nets
Plasmodium occurs in the gut of
mosquito. Sexual phase involves the
Ans. (c) TOPIC 2
Amoebiasis or amoebic dysentery is
gametocytes, megagametocytes
caused by protozoan parasite Immunity
(female) and microgametocytes (male)
Entamoeba histolytica that resides in the
which reach the stomach of female
upper part of large intestine. It spreads
Anopheles mosquito by sucking human
through contaminated water and food
40 The Adenosine deaminase
blood. deficiency results into [NEET 2021]
containing adult form (trophozoite) or
cyst of Entamoeba. Trophozoite (a) dysfunction of immune system
33 Who discovered Plasmodium in damages intestinal wall by enzyme (b) Parkinson’s disease
RBCs of human beings? histolysin, reaches blood capillaries and (c) digestive disorder
[CBSE AIPMT 1991] feed on RBCs, bacteria, tissue debris,
(d) Addison’s disease
(a) Ronald Ross (b) Mendel resulting in abdominal pain, acidic
(c) Laveran (d) Stephen motions with mucus and blood. The Ans. (a)
disease can be prevented by drinking Adenosine deaminase is an enzyme. The
Ans. (c) boiled and clean water and intake of deficiency of this particular enzyme
In 1880, Charles Laveran discovered fresh and hygienic food. results in severe combined immuno
Plasmodium, the causative agent of deficiency (SCID).
malaria in RBCs of human beings. In 37 The vector for sleeping sickness is During the deficiency of adenosine
1897, Ronald Ross discovered oocytes [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
of Plasmodium in the stomach of deaminase the patient lacks functional
(a) house fly (b) tse-tse fly T- lymphocytes and thus the immune
mosquito.
(c) sand fly (d) fruit fly system does not work properly.
41 The yellowish fluid ‘colostrum’ Ans. (c) 47 Which of the following is not an
secreted by mammary glands of Innate immunity is non-specific type of autoimmune disease? [NEET 2018]
mother during the initial days of defence that is present at the time of (a) Alzheimer’s disease
birth because it has natural killer cells (b) Rheumatoid arthritis
lactation has abundant antibodies
which can phagocytose and destroy
(IgA) to protect the infant. This type (c) Psoriasis
microbes (cellular barriers). Other forms
of immunity is called as of innate immunity are physical barriers, (d) Vitiligo
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] physiological and cytokine barriers. Ans. (a)
(a) passive immunity Alzheimer’s disease is not an
(b) active immunity 44 Which of the following diseases is automimmune disease. It is caused due
(c) acquired immunity an autoimmune disorder? to the destruction of vast number of
(d) autoimmunity [NEET (Odisha) 2019] neurons in the Hippocampus. It occurs
(a) Myasthenia gravis due to a combination of genetic factors,
Ans. (a) environmental or lifestyle factors and
Passive immunity is when readymade
(b) Arthritis
the ageing process. There is loss of
antibodies are directly given to protect (c) Osteoporosis
neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
the body against foreign agents. (d) Gout Individuals with this disease have trouble
For example, the yellowish fluid Ans. (a) remembering recent events.
colostrum secreted by mother during Myasthenia gravis is a chronic Rheumatoid arthritis, vitiligo and
the initial days of lactation has abundant autoimmune neuromuscular disorder psoriasis all are autoimmune
antibodies (IgA) to protect the infant. that causes weakness in the skeletal diseases. In rheumatoid arthritis,
Also the foetus receives some muscles. This is responsible for antibodies are produced against the
antibodies from their mother through breathing and moving parts of the body synovial membrane and cartilage.
the placenta during pregnancy. including the arms and legs. Vitiligo causes white patches on skin
while psoriasis causes itch-skin.
42 Identify the wrong statement with
45 Concanavalin A is
reference to immunity. [NEET (National) 2019] 48 MALT constitutes about .................
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(a) an essential oil per cent of the lymphoid tissue in
(a) When readymade antibodies are
(b) a lectin human body. [NEET 2017]
directly given, it is called ‘passive
immunity’ (c) a pigment (a) 50% (b) 20%
(b) Active immunity is quick and gives full (d) an alkaloid (c) 70% (d) 10%
response Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
(c) Foetus receives some antibodies Concanavalin A is a lectin or a MALT is mucosa associated lymphoid
from mother, it is an example for carbohydrate binding protein. It is a tissue located within the linning of the
passive immunity T-cell mitogen that can activate the major tracts including respiratory,
(d) When exposed to antigen (living or immune system, recruit lymphocytes digestive and urinogenital tracts. It is
dead) antibodies are produced in the and elicit cytokine production. It can also nearly 50% of the total lymphoid tissue
host’s body. It is called ‘active induce programmed cell death via in the human body.
immunity’ mitochondria-mediated apoptosis.
49 Transplantation of tissues/organs
Ans. (b) 46 Which of the following immune fails often due to non-acceptance
The statement in option is (b) incorrect responses is responsible for by the patient’s body. Which type of
because active immunity is slow and immune-response is responsible
takes time to give its full effective rejection of kidney graft?
response in comparison to passive [NEET (National) 2019] for such rejections ? [NEET 2017]
immunity where pre-formed antibodies (a) Humoral immune response (a) Autoimmune response
are administered. (b) Inflammatory immune response (b) Cell-mediated immune response
(c) Cell-mediated immune response (c) Hormonal immune response
43 Humans have acquired immune (d) Auto-immune response (d) Physiological immune response
system that produces antibodies to
Ans. (c) Ans. (b)
neutralise pathogens. Still innate
Cell-mediated immune response is Transplantation of tissue/organs may
immune system is present at the responsible for the rejection of kidney fail, when that tissue is rejected by the
time of birth because it graft. Cell-mediated immune response is recipient’s immune system leading to its
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] conferred by sensitised T-lymphocytes destruction. Tissue rejection is a
(a) is very specific and uses different and here, antibodies are not produced. function of cell-mediated immune
macrophages T-cells confer a long term memory and response that involves T-cells.These
(b) produces memory cells for mounting they are able to discriminate between cells have the ability to distinguish
fast secondary response self and non-self. These cells sometimes between self and non-self. After the
(c) has natural killer cells which can consider graft as non-self and attack the recognition of non-self tissue, the killer
phagocytose and destroy microbes same which causes its rejection. T-cells induces apoptosis of the target
(d) provides passive immunity tissue.
50 In higher vertebrates, the immune 53 Grafted kidney may be rejected in a (c) Antibodies are protein molecules,
each of which has four light chains
system can distinguish self-cells patient due to [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(d) Rejection of a kidney graft is the
and non-self. If this property is lost (a) humoral immune response function of B-lymphocytes
due to genetic abnormality and it (b) cell-mediated immune response
(c) passive immune response Ans. (a)
attacks self-cells, then it leads to
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (d) innate immune response In artificially acquired passive immunity,
preformed antibody in an immune serum
(a) graft rejection Ans. (b) of some other animal is introduced into
(b) auto-immune disease Grafted kidney may be rejected in a the body. As the antivenum used to treat
(c) active immunity patient due to the cell-mediated immune snake bites. In this case, the body does
(d) allergic response response that is mediated by not produce any antibodies. Antibody is a
Ans. (b) T-lymphocytes. The body is able to protein molecule having two light chain
differentiate ‘self’ and ‘non-self’. and two heavy chain. B-cells recognise
In auto-immune disease, the immune Therefore, tissue matching, blood group and bind antigens and may differentiate
cells are unable to distinguish between matching are essential before to memory cell or plasma cells (produce
self-cells and non-self cells and attack undertaking any graft/transplant and antibody). T-cells causes transplant
self-cells which may lead to even after this the patient has to take rejection.
auto-immune disorders like interstitial immuno-suppressants all his/her life.
lung disease in humans.
57 In which one of the following
54 Which of the following options the two examples are
51 Antivenom injection contains
immunoglobulins does constitute correctly matched with their
preformed antibodies while polio
the largest percentage in human particular type of immunity?
drops that are administered into
milk? [CBSE AIPMT 2015] [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
the body contain
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (a) IgD (b) IgM Type of
(c) IgA (d) IgG Examples
immunity
(a) harvested antibodies
(b) gamma globulin Ans. (c) (a) Polymorphonuclear Cellular
(c) attenuated pathogens All types of immunoglobulin are found in leukocytes and barriers
human milk. Out of these secretory IgA, monocytes
(d) activated pathogens
a type of immunoglobulin that protects (b) Anti-tetanus and Active
Ans. (c) the ears, nose, throat and the anti-snake bite immunity
Oral polio vaccine consists of attenuated gastrointestinal tract, is found in largest injections
pathogens. Attenuated pathogens are amount. (c) Saliva in mouth and Physical
living microorganisms or viruses tears in eyes barriers
cultured under adverse condition, 55 The cell-mediated immunity inside (d) Mucus coating of Physiological
leading to loss of their virulance. But the human body is carried out by epithelium lining the barriers
these organisms have the ability to [NEET 2013] urinogenital tract
induce protective immunity. The oral and the HCl in
(a) T-lymphocytes (b) B-lymphocytes stomach
vaccine of polio contains three live polio
(c) thrombocytes (d) erythrocytes
strains in attenuated forms.
Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
52 If you suspect major deficiency of T-lymphocyte receptors can recognise Phagocytosis is an important feature of
antibodies in a person, to which of only antigen that bound to cell cellular innate immunity, performed by
membrane proteins. These lymphocytes cells called phagocytes that engulf or eat
the following would you look for pathogens or foreign particles. Common
mediate CMI (Cell Mediated Immunity).
confirmatory evidence? B-lymphocytes are the major effector examples of these phagocytes are
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] monocytes, macrophages, neutrophil
molecules of humoral immunity.
(a) Fibrinogin in plasma Erythrocytes are red blood cells. granulocytes (often referred to as
(b) Serum albumins Thrombocytes or platelets secrete polymorphonuclear leukocytes or PMN
(c) Haemocytes factors that are involved in vascular or PML, because of the varying shapes of
(d) Serum globulins repair. nucleus), tissue dendritic cells, mast
cells etc. Anti-tetanus and anti snake
Ans. (d) bite injections are examples of passive
Globulin is one of the protein found in immunity.
statements is correct with respect
serum and it includes proteins, enzymes,
complement and immunoglobulins to immunity? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
58 Consider the following four
(antibody). (a) Preformed antibodies need to be
statements (I-IV) regarding kidney
injected to treat the bite by a viper
That’s why, if major deficiency of transplant and select the two
snake
antibodies is suspected in a person, the correct ones out of these.
(b) The antibodies against smallpox
globulins in serum is tested as the
pathogen are produced by I. Even if a kidney transplant is
confirmatory evidence.
T-lymphocytes proper the recipient may need to
take immuno-suppresants for a 61 The letter T in T-lymphocyte refers body fluid, and various body secretions
long time. (saliva, tears) prevent growth of many
to [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
disease causing micro-organisms.
II. The cell-mediated immune (a) thyroid (b) thalamus
Skin is the physical barrier of the body.
response is responsible for the (c) tonsil (d) thymus
Its outer tough layer the stratum
graft rejection. Ans. (d) corneum prevents the entry of
III. The B-lymphocytes are T-refers to thymus which is bacteria and viruses.
responsible for rejection of the haemopoietic as well as an endocrine
graft. gland. Thymus is the ‘seedbed’ of thymic 64 If you suspect major deficiency of
IV. The acceptance or rejection of a lymphocytes (T-lymphocytes). Certain antibodies in a person, to which of
kidney transplant depends on stem cells, originating in yolk sac and
the following would you look for
liver in early embryo, but only in bone
specific interferons. marrow in late embryo, migrate into the confirmatory evidence?
The two correct statements are thymus and proliferate to form a large [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] number of lymphocytes. (a) Serum albumins
(a) II and III (b) III and IV Thyroid is an endocrine gland. (b) Serum globulins
(c) I and III (d) I and II Thalamus is the part of fore brain in (c) Fibrinogen in plasma
Ans. (d) vertebrate lies above the hypothalamus. (d) Haemocytes
Tonsil is a mass of lymphoid tissue, Ans. (b)
Both statements I and II are correct.
several of which are situated at the Antibodies also called immunoglobulins
back of the mouth and throat in higher constitute the gamma globulin which
59 A person likely to develop tetanus vertebrates. are the part of blood proteins. These are
is immunised by administering secreted by activated B-cells or plasma
(a) dead germs [CBSE AIPMT 2009] 62 Use of anti-histamines and steroids cells.
(b) preformed antibodies give a quick relief from
(c) wide spectrum antibiotics [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
65 Increased asthmatic attacks in
(d) weakened germs (a) allergy
certain seasons are related to
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
Ans. (b) (b) nausea
(c) cough (a) hot and humid environment
In passive immunity, the antibodies are (b) eating fruits preserved in tin
produced in some other organisms (e.g.
(d) headache
containers
horse, rabbit, mouse) in response to the Ans. (a) (c) inhalation of seasonal pollen
given antigen. These antibodies are then Allergy is the hypersensitive reaction of (d) low temperature
injected into the human body at the time a person to some foreign substances
of need. This is known as inoculation, coming in contact with or entering the Ans. (c)
e.g. persons infected by tetanus body. The common allergns are dust, Asthma is a respiratory disorder. It is
(Clostridium tetani), rabies virus and pollen mould, spores, fabricates, caused by foreign allergens and dust
Salmonella the sufficient amount of bacteria, etc. During allergic reaction, particles present in the air passing
antibodies, are given to enhance passive there is increased release of histamine through the respiratory system, the
immunity at the time of need. from mast cells. Use of anti-histamines pollen grains present in air can cause
and steroids give a quick relief from asthmatic attacks in certain seasons as
60 Globulins contained in human blood allergy. are produced in large number in that
particular seasons.
plasma are primarily involved in
63 To which type of barriers under
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] 66 What is true about T-lymphocytes
(a) defence mechanisms of body
innate immunity, do the saliva in
in mammals? [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(b) osmotic balance of body fluids the mouth and the tears from the
(a) They scavenge damaged cells and
(c) oxygen transport in the blood eyes, belong? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] cellular debris
(d) clotting of blood (a) Cytokine barriers (b) These are produced in thyroid
(b) Cellular barriers (c) There are three main types–cytotoxic
Ans. (a)
(c) Physiological barriers T-cells, helper T-cells and suppressor
Globulins are soluble in salt solutions of (d) Physical barriers T-cells
strong acids and bases and insoluble in (d) These originate in lymphoid tissues
pure water and moderately Ans. (c)
concentrated salt solutions. These are Innate immunity (inborn) is the Ans. (c)
coagulated by heat. Globulins contained resistance to infection, which an The function of T-cells is to provide
in human blood plasma are primarily individual possesses by virtue of his/her immunity (cellular type) and not to
involved in defense mechanisms of the genetic and constitutional make up. scavenge damaged cells and cell debris.
body. Some examples are i.e. Rabies Thus it comprises all those defence These are produced in bone marrow and
immune globulin, RhO(D) immune elements with which an individual is born get matured in thymus gland. Hence, the
and, which are always available to only true statement is that there are
globulin, specific immune globulin,
protect a living body. Physiological three types of T-cells, i.e. cytotoxic,
tetanus immune globulin, etc.
barriers like body temperature, pH of the helper and suppressor.
67 The term ‘antibiotic’ was coined by Ans. (b) Symptoms of hay fever includes
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] Interferons are proteins produced by a closure of bronchial tubes that results
(a) Selman Waksman cell infected by a virus and provide in difficulty in normal breathing, skin
(b) Alexander Fleming protection to other healthy cells against rashes and eosinophilia.
(c) Edward Jenner infection by viruses. Measles is also viral
(d) Louis Pasteur
disease. It is caused by paramyxo virus 74 Cells involved in immune
(RNA virus). Interferon was discovered in mechanism are [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
Ans. (a) 1957 by Issacs and Lindenmann. (a) erythrocytes (b) lymphocytes
The term ‘antibiotics’ was first time used Typhoid and tetanus are bacterial (c) eosinophils (d) thrombocytes
by SA Waksman in 1945. Antibiotics are diseases and malaria is a protozoan
the substances which are produced by disease. Ans. (b)
microorganisms such as fungi or Lymphocytes are agranulocytes and
bacteria. These substances are harmful 71 Passive immunity was discovered they play a key role in immunological
to the growth of other microorganisms, reactions. Lymphocytes are of two types
by [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
example of some of the antibiotics are (i) B-lymphocytes–function in the
penicillin, streptomycin, (a) Edward Jenner
form of immunity called antibody
chloramphenicol, etc. (b) Emil von Behring mediated immunity (humoral
(c) Robert Koch immunity).
68 Interferons are synthesised in (d) Louis Pasteur (ii) T-lymphocytes–function in
response to [CBSE AIPMT 2001] Ans. (a) cell-mediated immunity (cellular
(a) Mycoplasma (b) bacteria Passive immunity was first discovered immunity).
(c) viruses (d) fungi by Edward Jenner against chickenpox.
In passive immunity readymade 75 Small proteins produced by
Ans. (c)
antibodies (γ-globulins) obtained from vertebrate cells naturally in
Cells infected by virus produce
interferons (an antiviral protein) which is human or animal serum, who already had response to viral infections and
antiviral. It spreads to neighbouring cells recovered from an infectious disease, which inhibit multiplication of
are injected into human body to develop
and makes them resistant to virus viruses are called
infections by inhibiting viral growth. immunity.
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
It is used against measeles, rubella,
(a) immunoglobulins
69 Small proteins produced by mumps, diphtheria, tetanus, snake
(b) interferons
venom, scarlet fever, rabies and
vertebrate cells naturally in Salmonella and many other bacterial (c) antitoxins
response to viral infections and infection. (d) lipoproteins
which inhibit mutliplication of Ans. (b)
viruses are called 72 Hypersensitivity to an allergen is Interferons (INFs) are a group of three
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] associated with [CBSE AIPMT 1996] vertebrate glycoproteins (α, β, γ). Out of
(a) immunoglobulins (a) aberrant functioning of the immune these, two (α and β) are produced within
(b) interferons mechanism virally infected cells. Interferon act as
(c) antitoxins antiviral protein by inducing synthesis of
(b) increase in ambient temperature
(d) lipoproteins the enzymes which inhibit the viral
(c) age of the individual production cycle.
Ans. (b) (d) food habits So, interferons are inhibitors of virus
Interferons (INFs) are a group of three Ans. (a) particles.
vertebrate glycoproteins (α, β, γ). Out of
Allergy is hypersensitivity or
these, two (α and β) are produced within
inappropriate over reaction or aberrant 76 The antibodies are
viral infected cells. Interferon induces,
functioning of the immune system. [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
among adjacent cells, as antiviral state
by inducing synthesis of the enzymes (a) germs
which inhibit the viral production cycle. 73 Which of the following diseases is (b) carbohydrates
Thus, inhibiting multiplication of virus in due to an allergic reaction? (c) proteins
the body. [CBSE AIPMT 1995] (d) lipids
(a) Goitre (b) Skin cancer Ans. (c)
70 If a person shows production of (c) Hay fever (d) Enteric fever Antibodies are glycoproteins and are
interferons in his body, the Ans. (c) secreted by mature vertebrate plasma
chances are that he has got an Allergy also known as hypersensitivity, is cells which are modified form of B-cells.
infection of [CBSE AIPMT 1997] an inappropriate over-reaction of the These selectively bind to epitopes of
(a) typhoid immune system. Hay fever is an allergic antigens and clumping them
(b) measles reaction, antigens for such response are (agglutination) prior to phagocytic
pollens grains, dust and SPM in the engulfment.
(c) tetanus
(d) malaria polluted air.
77 In mammals, histamine is secreted There are different type of ELISA test, (b) When the infected retro virus enters
that includes host cells
Direct ELISA (c) When HIV damages large number of
(a) fibroblasts (b) histocytes helper T-lymphocytes
Indirect ELISA
(c) lymphocytes (d) mast cells (d) When the viral DNA is produced by
Sandwich ELISA
Ans. (d) reverse transcriptase
Histamine is a potent vasodilator formed 80 Which of the following statements Ans. (c)
by decarboxylation of the amino acid T-lymphocyte receptors can recognise
is not true for cancer cells in
histidine and released by mast cells in only antigen that bound to cell
response to appropriate antigens. relation to mutations?
[NEET 2016, Phase I] membrane proteins. These lymphocytes
Mast cells are especially prevalent in the mediate CMI (cell mediated immunity).
connective tissue of the skin, respiratory (a) Mutations destroy telomerase
B-lymphocytes are the major effector
tract and in surrounding blood vessels. inhibitor
molecules of humoral immunity.
(b) Mutations inactivate the cell control Erythrocytes are red blood cells.
78 Interferons are [CBSE AIPMT 1996] (c) Mutations inhibit production of Thrombocytes or platelets secrete
telomerase factors, that are involved in vascular
(a) antiviral proteins
(d) Mutations in proto-oncogenes repair.
(b) antibacterial proteins accelerate the cell cycle
(c) anticancer proteins
(d) complex proteins Ans. (c) 83 Which one of the following is not a
Cancerous cells have high telomerase property of cancerous cells,
Ans. (a) activity. The maintenance of telomere whereas the remaining three are?
Interferons (IFNs) are anti-viral, stability is required for the long term [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
regulatory glycoproteins, produced in proliferation of tumors. This makes (a) They compete with normal cells for
virus infected cells for defence. They are telomerase a target not only for cancer vital nutrients
non-antigenic protein of molecular diagnosis but also for the development (b) They do not remain confined in the
weight 20000 daltons; discovered by of novel anti-cancer therapeutic agents, area of formation
Issacs and Lindemann (1957). These IFNs e.g. telomerase inhibitors are used in (c) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
induce formation of certain enzymes cancer treatment.
that suppress viral multiplication in host (d) They show contact inhibition
cell and protect host from further viral 81 Which of the following is correct Ans. (d)
reinfection. Contact inhibition involves major
regarding AIDS causative agent
histocompatibility complex and is the
HIV? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
natural process of arresting cell growth
TOPIC 3 (a) HIV is enveloped virus containing one when two or more cells come in contact
molecule of single-stranded RNA and with each other. It is a property of
Cancer and AIDS one molecule of reverse normal cells. Cancer cells divide in
transcriptase uncontrolled manner and do not show
(b) HIV is enveloped virus that contains contact inhibition.
79 For effective treatment of the
disease, early diagnosis and two identical molecules of
single-stranded RNA and two 84 A certain patient is suspected to be
understanding its pathophysiology suffering from acquired immuno
molecules of reverse transcriptase
is very important. Which of the deficiency syndrome. Which
(c) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
following molecular diagnostic diagnostic technique will you
(d) HIV does not escape but attacks the
technique is very useful for early recommend for its detection?
acquired immune response
detection? [NEET 2021] [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Ans. (b)
(a) Western Blotting Technique (a) MRI (b) Ultra sound
(b) Southern Blotting Technique Statement (b) is correct. The correct
form of other statements are (c) WIDAL (d) ELISA
(c) ELISA Technique
(a) HIV is a virus containing ssRNA and Ans. (d)
(d) Hybridisation Technique reverse transcriptase enzyme ELISA (Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent
Ans. (c) enveloped by protein coat. Assay), also known as an Enzyme
ELISA stands for Enzyme Linked (c) HIV is enveloped retrovirus. Immuno Assay (EIA), is a biochemical
Immunosorbent Assay. (d) HIV escapes the immune cells and technique used mainly in immunology to
It is a technique to detect the presence of attacks helper T-cells of immune detect the presence of an antibody or an
antigens in biological samples. It is a very system. antigen in a sample.
effective molecular diagnostic technique It is a useful tool for determining serum
used for early detection. In this tectnique 82 At which stage of HIV infection antibody concentrations (such as with
the antibodies in the sample binds to the does one usually show symptoms the HIV test). The ELISA was the first
specific antigen for the disease which is screening test widely used for HIV
of AIDS? [CBSE AIPMT 2014, 11]
because of its high sensitivity as it
to be detected.
(a) Within 15 days of sexual contact with detects antibodies at very low
an infected person concentrations.
85 Which one of the following Ans. (d) 91 Human Immunodeficiency Virus

statements is correct with respect Carcinoma is a malignant or metastatic (HIV) has a protein coat and a
to AIDS? [CBSE AIPMT 2010] tumour. It can extend to the genetic material which is
neighbouring cells, this process is called [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) The HIV can be transmitted through
as metastasis. These tumours are
eating food together with an infected (a) single stranded DNA
generally located in epithelial tissue and
person (b) single stranded RNA
glands.
(b) Drug addicts are least susceptible to (c) double stranded RNA
HIV infection e.g. Breast cancer, skin cancer, stomach
cancer, lungs cancer, pancreas cancer, (d) double stranded DNA
(c) AIDS patients are being fully cured
etc. Ans. (b)
cent per cent with proper care and
nutrition AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency
(d) The causative HIV retrovirus enters 88 ELISA is used to detect viruses Syndrome) was first reported in USA in
helper T-lymphocytes thus, reducing where the key reagent is 1981. It is caused by HIV (Human
their numbers [CBSE AIPMT 2003] Immunodeficiency Virus). HIV is the
(a) DNA probe member of retroviruses.
Ans. (d)
In AIDS patients, the virus attacks on
(b) RNase Later are so named because they
CD4 + T - cells (helper T-lymphocytes (c) alkaline phosphatase contain an enzyme reverse
responsible for the coordination of the (d) catalase transcriptase, which mediates the
entire immune system), infecting and formation of DNA from RNA. The genetic
Ans. (c)
killing them until none of them are left in material of HIV is single stranded RNA
The Enzyme Linked Immuno Sorbent
blood. Without these crucial immune (ssRNA).
Assay (ELISA), also known as the Enzyme
system cells, the body cannot fight Immuno Assay (EIA) has become a widely
against invading bacteria or viruses used serological technique for, 92 Hybridoma cells are
which leads to weaker immune system detection of AIDS in the blood serum of [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
and gradually the body of the HIV HIV infected person. The enzymes used (a) product of spore formation in
positive persons become house of for labelling in ELISA include horse bacteria
infections leading to multiple problems. radish peroxidase, alkaline phosphatase, (b) hybrid cells resulting from myeloma
β-galactosidase, lactoperoxidase, etc. cells
86 Which one of the following (c) nervous cells of frog
statements is correct? 89 Cancerous cells can easily be (d) only cells having oncogenes
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
destroyed by radiation due to Ans. (b)
(a) Patients, who had undergone surgery [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
are given cannabinoids to relieve pain A myeloma is a type of cancer
(a) rapid cell division associated with abnormal production of
(b) Benign tumours show the property of
(b) lack of nutrition irregular antibodies. It occurs in
metastasis
(c) Heroin accelerates body functions
(c) fast mutation antibody-producing cells that have lost
(d) Malignant tumours may exhibit (d) lack of oxygen their normal control. Clones of the hybrid
metastasis Ans. (a) cell resulting from artificial fusion of a
The ability of radiations to kill cells is normal antibody producing B-cell with
Ans. (d)
highest in the tissue with highest myeloma cell are called hybridomas.
Malignant tumour first grows slowly. No
symptoms are noticed. This stage is number of dividing cells. Tumour cells
called the latent stage. The tumour later proliferate rapidly. Hence, tumours are 93 Which of the following symptoms
grows quickly. The cancer cells go killed more rapidly by radiations. indicate radiation sickness ?
beyond adjacent tissue and enter the [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
blood and lymph. Once this happens, 90 Reason of lung cancer is (a) Red and ulcerated skin
they migrate to many other sites in the [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(b) Nausea and anaemia
body, where the cancer cells continue to (a) coal mining
divide. It is called as metastasis. Only (c) Nausea and loss of hair
(b) calcium fluoride (d) Ulcerated skin, nausea and loss of
malignant tumours are properly
designated as cancer. (c) cement factory hair
(d) bauxite mining
Ans. (d)
87 Carcinoma refers to Ans. (c)
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
Even lower doses of radiations cause
Cancer is an uncontrolled growth and serious damages like skin burns, nausea,
(a) malignant tumours of the colon division of certain body tissues. Lung loss of hairs and nails, change in blood
(b) benign tumours of the connective cancer is a cancer of epithelial tissue of cell count, prolonged exposure causes
tissue lungs. It is mainly (95%) caused by formation of tumours, cancer. High dose
(c) malignant tumours of the connective smoking and can be found in both male (lethal radiation exposer) may cause
tissue and female. It may also occur in the
instant death.
(d) malignant tumours of the skin or people working in cement factory.
mucous membrane
94 Which of the following will be toxins that are derived from plant 100 Which one of the following fungi
sources, e.g. castor beans. These toxins
curable in next two decades? contains hallucinogens?
inhibits protein synthesis in body leading
to cell death.
(a) tuberculosis (b) cancer (a) Morchella esculenta
(c) polio myelitis (d) None of these 97 Coca alkaloid or cocaine is (b) Amanita muscaria
(c) Neurospora sp.
Ans. (b) obtained from [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
(d) Ustilago sp.
Cancer may be curable in next two (a) Papaver somniferum
decades. The completion of the human (b) Atropa belladonna Ans. (b)
genome is causing profound changes in Amanite muscaria, is a fungus which is
(c) Erythroxylum coca
thinking and direction of biomedical known for its hallucinogenic
research. Cancer is caused by (d) Datura
properties.
malfunctioning of genes, either through Ans. (c)
activation of cancer causing oncogens Coca alkaloid or cocaine is obtained
(proto-oncogenes) or through
101 Cirrhosis of liver is caused by the
from coca plant Erythroxylum coca,
inactivation of tumor suppressor genes. chronic intake of
native to
By comparing the active genes in the South America. It interferes with the (a) opium [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
tumor to that of normal cells, the genes transport of the neurotransmitter (b) alcohol
causing the cancer can be determined. dopamine. (c) tobacco (chewing)
Side by side there is a huge progress in (d) cocaine
the field of genetic engineering and 98 Drug called ‘Heroin’ is synthesised
biotechnology. All these aspects give us Ans. (b)
by [NEET (National) 2019] The chronic intake of alcohol may be
hope that cancer may be curable in next
two decades. (a) acetylation of morphine fatal for the individual. On intake, a part
(b) glycosylation of morphine of alcohol is changed to acetaldehyde
95 Retroviruses are implicated as a (c) nitration of morphine which causes hangover. Acetaldehyde
(d) methylation of morphine stimulates formation of fat which is
cause for cancer in humans deposited on artery walls (causing
because they [CBSE AIPMT 1996] Ans. (a) coronary ailments) and in the liver
(a) carry gene for reverse Drug ‘Heroin’ is synthesised by the (causing fatty liver syndrome). Gradually,
transcriptase acetylation of morphine. the liver hardens and dries up as its cells
(b) may carry cellular protooncogenes in Chemically heroin is diacetymorphine are replaced by fibrous tissue.
their genome and commonly it is called smack. It is an This kind of liver degeneration is called
(c) may carry v-oncogenes in their opium derivative which is used as liver cirrhosis (Laennec’s cirrhosis).
genome medicine. Excessive use of it causes Excessive use of alcohol may also lead
(d) carry single stranded RNA as their addiction. liver failure, liver cell carcinoma, etc.
genetic material
Ans. (b) 99 Which is the particular type of drug 102 Select the correct statement from
Retroviruses are implicated as a cause
that is obtained from the plant the ones given below.
of cancer in humans because they may whose one flowering branch is [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
carry cellular proto-onchogenes in their shown below? [CBSE AIPMT 2014] (a) Barbiturates when given to criminals
genome, when these proto-oncogenes make them tell the truth
gets converted into oncogenes due to (b) Morphine is often given to persons
some physical, chemical or biological who have under gone surgery as a
agents they cause cancer. pain killer
(c) Chewing tobacco lowers blood
pressure and heart rate
TOPIC 4 (d) Cocaine is given to patients after
Drugs and Alcohol Abuse surgery as it stimulates recovery
Ans. (b)
(a) Hallucinogen Serturner, a pharmacist isolated the
96 ldentify the incorrect pair.
(b) Depressant active principle of opium in 1806 and
[NEET 2021]
(c) Stimulant named it morphine. Morphine is a
(a) Alkaloids - Codeine phenanthrene opioid receptor , its main
(d) Pain-killer
(b) Toxin - Abrin effect is binding to and activating the
(c) Lectins - Concanavalin-A Ans. (a) µ-opioid receptors in the central nervous
(d) Drugs - Ricin The plant shown in the picture is Datura system. In clinical settings, morphine
which produce natural hallucinogens. exerts its principal pharmacological
Ans. (d) This kind of drug induce behavioural effect on the central nervous system
Match pair in option (d) is incorrect and abnormalities by changing thoughts, and gastrointestinal tract. Its primary
can be corrected as: feelings perceptions without any actual actions of therapeutic value are
Ricin and abrin are potent biological sensory stimulus. analgesic and sedation at low doses.
103 Which one of the following is the produces feelings of calmness, Ans. (b)
correct statement regarding the relaxation and drowsiness? Acetylcholine is rapidly acting excitatory
particular psychotropic drug [CBSE AIPMT 2005] small sized neurotransmitter. Nicotine
(a) Valium (b) Morphine and acetylcholine both have same
specified? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
receptors and so the both have the same
(a) Hashish causes alter thought (c) Hashish (d) Amphetamines
effect
perceptions and hallucinations Ans. (a)
(b) Opium stimulates nervous system Valium depresses brain activity and 109 The alkaloid ajmalicine is obtaine
and causes hallucinations produces feeling of calmness, relaxation from [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(c) Morphine leads to delusions and and drowsiness. It indirectly affects
disturbed emotions (a) Atropa (b) Papaver
central nervous system on long term
(d) Barbiturates cause relaxation and usage. (c) Curcuma (d) Sarpgandha
temporary euphoria Ans. (d)
Ans. (a) 106 Which one of the following pairs is Ajmalicine is obtained from Sarpgandha.
Charas is the dried resinous extract from not correctly matched? Its botanical name is Rauwolfia
the flowering tops and leaves of [CBSE AIPMT 2004] serpentina family—Apocyanaceae.
Cannabis sativa. In some countries, it is (a) Streptomyces — Antibiotic
called hashish. It is a hallucinogen, which (b) Serratia — Drug addiction 110 Opiate narcotic is
alters a person’s thoughts, feelings and (c) Spirulina — Single cell protein [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
perceptions. (a) bhang (b) charas
(d) Rhizobium — Biofertiliser
(c) heroin (d) nicotine
104 A person showing unpredictable Ans. (b)
Serratia is a harmful human pathogen Ans. (c)
moods, outbursts of emotion,
which has been known to cause urinary Opium is derived from unripe seed pods
quarrelsome behaviour and of the poppy plant Papaver somniferum.
tract infections, wound infections,
conflicts with others is suffering pneumonia. Opium has an analgesic effect and may
from [CBSE AIPMT 2006] also reduce anxiety and tension, lowers
(a) schizophrenia 107 Which of the following is an opiate the blood pressure and breathing rate.
(b) Borderline Personality Disorder (BPD) Opium and its derivatives including
narcotic? [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
morphine, codeine and heroin are
(c) mood disorders (a) Barbiturates (b) Morphine among the drugs collectively known as
(d) addictive disorders (c) Amphetamines (d) LSD narcotic drugs.
Ans. (a) Ans. (b) Narcotics induce addiction if used
Schizophrenia is a group of severe Narcotics are a group of pain killers repeatedly and heroin is most dangerous
mental disorders that have common which includes heroin, morphine, codein narcotic.
symptoms as hallucinations, delusions, and methadone. All of these drugs are
blunted emotions, disordered thinking. It derived from opium. Later is a gummy 111 Analgesic drugs [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
can be caused by excessive dopamine resin like substance found in unripe pods (a) form tissues (b) relieve pain
production, alternation of neuropeptide of poppy plants.
and decreased frontal lobe activities. (c) relieve fatigue (d) cause pain
Recovery is possible with regular use of Ans. (b)
chloropromazine along with pychosocial 108 Nicotine acts as a stimulant,
Analgesic drugs are those drugs which
therapy. because it nimics the effect of relieve us from pain. It acts on the
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
peripheral and central nervous system
105 Which one of the following (a) thyroxine (b) acetylcholine which reversibly eliminate sensation of
depresses brain activity and (c) testosterone (d) dopamine pain.
31
Strategies for
Enhancement
in Food Production
TOPIC 1 which reduces fertility and even continuous inbreeding among cattle
productivity in animals. This problem is causes inbreeding depression. It
Animal Husbandry usually overcome by outbreeding. decreases the fertility and even
productivity of an animal.
01 Which of the following is not a step 03 By which method was a new breed It can be overcome by applying
in Multiple Ovulation Embryo ‘Hisardale’ of sheep formed by outbreeding in which mating is done
using Bikaneri ewes and Marino between different breeds or individuals
Transfer Technology (MOET)? of the same breed but having no
[NEET 2021] rams? [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
common ancestors. Outbreeding
(a) Cow is administered hormone having (a) Mutational breeding includes outcrossing, cross-breeding
LH like activity for super ovulation (b) Cross breeding and interspecific hybridisation.
(b) Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time (c) Inbreeding
(c) Cow is fertilised by artificial 05 Mad cow disease in cattle is caused
(d) Outcrossing
insemination
Ans. (b)
by an organism which has
(d) Fertilised eggs are transferred to [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
surrogate mothers at 8-32 cell stage Hisardale is a new breed of sheep
developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri
(a) inert crystalline structure
Ans. (a) ewes and Marino rams. In (b) abnormally folded protein
Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer cross-breeding, superior male of one (c) free RNA without protein coat
Technology (MOET) is a programme for breed is mated with superior female of (d) free DNA without protein coat
herd improvement. another breed.
In this method, cow is administered Ans. (b)
hormone, having FSH (not LH) like 04 Select the incorrect statement Mad cow disease in cattle is caused by
activity to induce follicular maturation prions which are abnormally folded
and super ovulation.
regarding inbreeding. proteins. It is also known as Bovine
Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE). It is a
(a) Inbreeding helps in the elimination of progressive neurological disorder of
02 Inbreeding depression is
deleterious alleles from the cattle.
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
population
(a) reduced motility and immunity due to
close inbreeding. (b) Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a 06 Which of the following statements
(b) decreased productivity due to mating pureline in any animal about methanogens is not correct?
of superior male and inferior female (c) Continued inbreeding reduces [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
(c) decrease in body mass of progeny fertility and leads to inbreeding (a) They can be used to produce biogas
due to continued close inbreeding depression (b) They are found in the rumen of cattle
(d) reduced fertility and productivity due (d) Inbreeding depression cannot be
and their excreta
to continued close inbreeding overcome by outcrossing
(c) They grow aerobically and breakdown
Ans. (d) Ans. (d) cellulose rich food
Inbreeding depression is continued The incorrect statement regarding (d) They produce methane gas
inbreeding, especially close breeding inbreeding is the option (d). It is because
Ans. (c) 12 In cloning of cattle a fertilised egg

Statement (c) is incorrect. Correct Peak shifts in is taken out of the mother’s womb
information about the statement is as one direction
and [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
follows
(a) in the eight cell stage, cells are
Certain bacteria, which grow separated and cultured until small
anaerobically on cellulosic material, embryos are formed which are
produce large amount of methane along implanted into the womb of other
with CO 2 and H 2 . These bacteria are cows
collectively called methanogens and one (b) in the eight cell stage the individual
such example is Methanobacterium. Diagrammatic
representation of the cells are separated under electrical
Rest statements are correct. field for further development in
culture media
07 Homozygous purelines in cattle can 09 Interspecific hybridisation is the (c) from this up to eight identical twins
be obtained by [NEET 2017] mating of [NEET 2016, Phase II] can be produced
(a) mating of related individuals of same (a) animals within same breed without (d) the egg is divided into 4 pairs of cells
breed having common ancestors which are implanted into the womb of
(b) mating of unrelated individuals of (b) two different related species other cows
same breed (c) superior males and females of
Ans. (a)
(c) mating of individuals of different different breeds
During cloning of a cattle a fertilised egg
breed (d) more closely related individuals
is taken out of the mother’s womb and in
(d) mating of individuals of different within same breed for
the eight cell stage, cells are separated
species 4-6 generations
and cultured until small embryos are
Ans. (a) Ans. (b) formed which are implanted into the
When closely related species of same The interspecific hybridisation is the womb of other cows.
organisms are crossed continuously for mating or cross between two different
few successive generations, it results in related species belonging to same genus. 13 Compared to a bull a bullock is
accumulation of recessive characters, docile because of
thus homozygous purelines are 10 Among the following edible fishes, [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
obtained. which one is a marine fish having (a) higher levels of cortisone
rich source of omega-3 fatty acids? (b) lower levels of blood testosterone
08 Artificial selection to obtain cows [NEET 2016, Phase II] (c) lower levels of
yielding high milk output
(a) Mystus (b) Mangur adrenaline/noradrenaline in its blood
represents [NEET 2017]
(c) Mrigala (d) Mackerel (d) higher levels of thyroxine
(a) stabilising selection as it stabilises
this character in the population Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
(b) directional as it pushes the mean of Mackerel is a marine fish having rich Compared to a bull a bullock is docile
the character in one direction quantity of omega-3 fatty acid. because of lower levels of blood
(c) disruptive as it splits the population testosterone.
into two, one yielding higher output 11 Outbreeding is an important A bullock is a castrated bull. Bulls are
and the other lower output castrated to make them more meek and
strategy of animal husbandry docile.
(d) stabilising followed by disruptive as because it [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
stabilises the population of produce Castration is the removal or destruction
(a) help in accumulation of superior of one or both testicles and results in
higher yielding cows
genes
sterility, decreased sexual desire and
Ans. (b) (b) is useful in producing purelines of inhibition of secondary sex
The directional selection leads to animals
characteristics. It is performed for the
change in the phenotypic characters of a (c) is useful in overcoming inbreeding purpose of improving the quality of meat
population in one direction. In the case depression
and decreasing the aggressiveness of
of artificial selection, it is intentionally (d) exposes harmful recessive genes that farm animals; in pet animals it prevents
done to increase the milk production, so are eliminated by selection
directional selection operates. unwanted mating behaviour,
Ans. (c) reproduction and wandering.
Phenotypes favoured
by artificial selection The breeding of stocks or individuals
Medium sized that are not closely related is called 14 Which one of the following is a viral
Number of individuals
Individuals outbreeding. It is an important strategy disease of poultry?

with phenotype
are favoured
of animal husbandry because it is useful [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
in overcoming inbreeding depression.
(a) Coryza
Inbreeding depression is the condition in (b) New castle disease
which the fertility and the productivity of
(c) Pasteurellosis
animals is reduced due to the continuous
breeding in same species. (d) Salmonellosis
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 311
Ans. (b) Ans. (a) 23 The silkworm silk is the product of
New castle disease is a viral disease of In superovulation, a high milk yielding [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
poultry. It is a highly contagious zoonotic cow is induced to shed 4-6 eggs every (a) cuticle of the larva
bird disease affecting many domestic 6-8 weeks (instead of 20-21 days). (b) cuticle of the adult
and wild avian species. Its effects are The superovulated donor is artificially (c) salivary gland of the larva
most notable in domestic poultry due to inseminated with semen from a quality
their high susceptibility and the potential (d) salivary gland of the adult
bull. the embryos developing from the
for severe impacts of an epidemic on the eggs so fertilised are flushed out. These Ans. (c)
poultry industries. It is endemic to many good quality embryos are now Caterpillar larva of Bombyx mori secretes
countries. transferred to surrogate mother for liquid silk from its salivary glands.
delivery.
15 Which one of the following pair is
mismatched? [CBSE AIPMT 2007] 19 Pebrine is a disease of TOPIC 2
(a) Pila globosa — Pearl [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(b) Apis indica — Honey (a) honeybee (b) fish Plant Breeding
(c) Kenia lacca — Lac (c) silkworm (d) lac insect
(d) Bombyx mori — Silk Ans. (c) 24 Which of the following is not an
Ans. (a) Pebrine disease is one of the most objective of biofortification in
Out of the following the option (a) is damaging disease of silkworm. It is crops? [NEET 2021]
mismatched because pearl is obtained caused by Nosema bombycis nageli. The
(a) Improve protein content
from pearl oyster (Pinctada vulgaris) other diseases of silk worm are Flacherie
which is an infectious viral disease (b) Improve resistance to diseases
while, honey from Apis indica, lac from
Kenia lacca and silk from Bombyx mori. marked by body flaccidity and digestive (c) Improve vitamin content
disorders. (d) Improve micronutrient and mineral
16 The world’s highly prized wool Muscaridine, which is a fungal disease content
yielding ‘Pashmina’ breed is caused by Spicaria or Botrytis. Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] Biofortification is the method developed
(a) goat 20 Pasteurisation of milk involve to produce crops with high level of
(b) sheep heating for [CBSE AIPMT 1996] vitamins, proteins and minerals to
(c) goat-sheep cross (a) 60 min at about 90°C improve public health.
(d) Kashmir sheep–Afghan sheep cross (b) 30 min at about 50°C Improving resistance to disease is not the
(c) 30 min at about 65°C objective of biofortification hence option (b)
Ans. (a) is correct.
Pashmina refers to a type of Kashmir (d) 60 min at 100°C
wool and textiles made from it. This wool Ans. (c) 25 Match the List -I with List - II.
comes from a special breed of goat Pasteurisation of milk involves heating
indigenous to high altitudes of the of milk at 60-70°C for about 30 min so as List-I List-II
Himalayan mountains. The Himalayan to kill the pathogens. A. Protoplast fusion 1. Totipotency
mountain goat, sheds its winter coat
B. Plant tissue 2. Pomato
every spring and the fleece is caught on culture
thorn bushes. One goat sheds 21 The earliest animal to have been
approximately 3-8 ounces of the wool domesticated by man was most C. Meristem culture 3. Somaclones
fibre. likely the [CBSE AIPMT 1996] D. Micropropagation 4. Virus free
plants
(a) horse (b) cow
17 Honey is [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(c) dog (d) pig
(a) acidic Choose tho correct answer from
Ans. (c) the options given below.
(b) neutral
Dog was one of the earliest animals to be [NEET 2021]
(c) alkaline
domesticated by man. A B C D
(d) basic after some days
(a) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (a) 22 The long-term prospects for a truly (b) 2 1 4 3
Honey is acidic as its pH is 2.5-4.0.Honey human civilisation depend in a large (c) 3 4 1 2
is a byproduct of bee keeping. It is sweet measure on [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
in taste and white to black in colour. (d) 4 3 2 1
Smell of honey varies according to juices (a) the ability of humanity to moderate its
Ans. (b)
collected from different flowers. fecundity
(A)-(2), (B)-(1), (C)-(4), (D)-(3)
(b) increasing the food production
18 High milk yielding varieties of cows (c) colonisation of under populated areas Pomato is the potato and tomato hybrid.
Pomato can be formed by somatic
are obtained by [CBSE AIPMT 1997] (d) control of human diseases
hybridisation.
(a) super ovulation Ans. (d) The mechanism by which two separate
(b) artificial insemination The long term prospects for a truly species of plant protoplasts fuse
(c) use of surrogate mother human civilisation depend on a large together to form hybrid is known as
(d) All of the above measure on control of human disease. somatic hybridisation.
Totipotency is the basis of tissue 28 Which of the following is true for Ans. (b)
culture. Cells from growing root tips or Statement that inbreeding selects
Golden rice? [NEET 2018]
shoot tips or any other growing part can harmful recessive genes that reduce
be grown in nutrient medium under (a) It is pest resistant, with a gene from
Bacillus thuringiensis fertility and productivity is incorrect.
sterilised condition. Afterwards, these The correct information regarding the
cells divides and grow into a mass of (b) It is drought tolerant, developed statement is as follows
tissue called callus. using Agrobacterium vector
Inbreeding does not select harmful
Meristem culture is one of the most (c) It has yellow grains, because of a recessive genes. It exposes harmful
widely used methods for virus gene introduced from a primitive recessive genes that are eliminated by
elimination from infected plants and variety of rice selection and thus reduces fertility and
production of virus-free plants. Apical productivity. This is called inbreeding
(d) It is vitamin-A enriched, with a gene
meristem culture is a proven means of depression.
from daffodil
clonal propagation and also for
Statements in other options are correct.
eliminating viruses from infected plants. Ans. (d)
The plants raised through Statement that Golden rice is vitamin-A
enriched, with a gene from daffodil is
31 A system of rotating crops with
micropropagation are called somaclones
because they are genetically identical to true. Golden rice is genetically legume or grass pasture to improve
the original plant from which they were engineered variety of rice to soil structure and fertility is called
grown. It helps in producing plants that biosynthesiseβ-carotene which is a [NEET 2016, Phase I]
are disease and pest resistant. precursor of vitamin-A. It contains psy (a) contour farming
gene (phytoene synthase) which is derived (b) strip farming
26 Mutations in plant cells can be from daffodil. Other statements are not
(c) shifting agriculture
true for golden rice. The correct
induced by [NEET 2021]
information about the statements is as (d) ley farming
(a) kinetin follows The grains of golden rice appear Ans. (d)
(b) infrared rays yellow due to high level ofβ-carotene in Ley farming is a system of rotating crops
(c) gamma rays it. Golden rice is neither drought tolerant with legumes or grass pasture in order to
(d) zeatin nor pest resistant. improve soil structure and fertility and
also to disrupt pest and disease life
Ans. (c) 29 What triggers activation of protoxin cycles.
Mutation is defined as the process by to active Bt toxin of Bacillus
which genetic changes are created via 32 In plant breeding programmes, the
thuringiensis in bollworm?
changes in the sequences of bases entire collection (of plants/seeds)
present within genes. This results in the
formation of a new trait or character not (a) Moist surface of midgut having all the diverse alleles for all
found in the parental type. (b) Alkaline pH of gut genes in a given crop is called
(c) Acidic pH of stomach [NEET 2013]
Thus, it is possible to induce mutations
with the help of various chemicals or (d) Body temperature (a) selection of superior recombinants
radiations such as gamma radiations (b) cross-hybridisation among the
Ans. (b) selected parents
artificially and then selecting and using
Alkaline pH of gut triggers activation of (c) evaluation and selection of parents
plants with desirable traits as a source in
protoxin to active Bt toxin of Bacillus
breeding. This process is termed as (d) germplasm collection
thuringiensis in bollworm. The inactive
mutational breeding.
protoxins contain toxic insecticidal Ans. (d)
protein crystals. It is called germplasm collection.
27 In mung bean, resistance to yellow When the alkaline pH of insect gut Selection of superior recombinants
mosaic, virus and powdery mildew solubilises the crystals, the activated means selection of the best plant from
were brought about by toxin binds to the epithelial cells of the the whole lot by visual examination and
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] midgut and creates pores. It causes the collecting their seeds for growing in
(a) mutation breeding cell to swell and burst, eventually field. Cross hybridisation is the method
causing the death of insect. of combining the characters of different
(b) biofortification
plants together. The selection and
(c) tissue culture 30 Select the incorrect statement. evaluation are the main steps of
(d) hybridisation and selection [NEET (National) 2019] hybridisation.
Ans. (a) (a) Inbreeding is essential to evolve
In mung bean, resistance to yellow purelines in any animal 33 Consider the following four
mosaic virus and powdery mildew were (b) Inbreeding selects harmful recessive statements (I-IV) and select the
induced by mutation breeding. Mutation genes that reduce fertility and option which includes all the
breeding is the process of exposing productivity correct ones only.
seeds to chemicals or radiation in order (c) Inbreeding helps in accumulation of
superior genes and elimination of I. Single cell Spirulina can produce
to generate mutants with desirable traits
to be bred with other cultivars. undesirable genes large quantities of food rich in
(d) Inbreeding increases homozygosity protein, minerals, vitamins, etc.
II. Body weight-wise the Which of the above statements I. spray with Bordeaux mixture.
microorganism Methylophilus are correct? II. control of the insect vector of
methylotrophus may be able to (a) II, III and IV the disease pathogen.
produce several times more (b) III and IV III. use of only disease-free seeds.
proteins than the cows per day. (c) II and III IV. use of varieties resistant to the
III. Common button mushrooms are (d) I and II disease.
a very rich source of vitamin-C. Ans. (c) Which two of the above measures
IV. A rice variety has been Out of the given statements (II) and (III) can control the disease?
developed which is very rich in are correct as organic farming is the [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
calcium. [CBSE AIPMT 2012] form of agriculture that relies on
(a) III and IV (b) I and IV
(a) Statements III and IV techniques such as crop rotation, green
(c) II and III (d) I and II
manure, compost and biological pest
(b) Statements I, III and IV
control to maintain soil productivity and Ans. (b)
(c) Statements II, III and IV control pest on a farm. Organic farming Bacterial blight of chickpea is caused by
(d) Statements I and II excludes or strictly limits the use of bacterium Xanthomonas campestris. The
Ans. (d) manufactured fertilisers, pesticides stems and the leaves of infected plant
(which include herbicides, insecticides give blighted or burnt up appearance.
Out of the given statements (I) and (II) are
and fungicides), plant growth regulators
correct as single cell Spirulina can Control measures includes roguing,
such as hormones, food additives and
produce large quantities of food rich in 3-year crop rotation, disease-free
genetically modified organisms.
protein, minerals, vitamins, etc. And seeds, spray of copper fungicides
body weight-wise the microorganism (Bordeaux mixture) and antibiotics
Methylophilus methy lotrophus may be 37 Breeding of crops with high levels
besides sowing disease resistant
able to produce several times more of minerals, vitamins and proteins
varieties.
proteins than cows per day. is called [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) somatic hybridisation 40 Farmers in a particular region were
34 ‘Jaya’ and ‘Ratna’ developed for (b) biofortification concerned that pre-mature
green revolution in India are the (c) biomagnification yellowing of leaves of a pulse crop
varieties of [CBSE AIPMT 2011] (d) micropropagation might cause decrease in the yield.
(a) maize (b) rice Ans. (b) Which treatment could be most
(c) wheat (d) bajra Breeding of crops with higher levels of beneficial to obtain maximum seed
Ans. (b) vitamins and minerals or higher protein yield? [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
‘Jaya’ and ‘Ratna’ are better yielding and healthier fats is called (a) Frequent irrigation of the crop
semi-dwarf varieties of rice developed in biofortification. This is the most (b) Treatment of the plants with
India for green revolution. practical aspect to improve the health of cytokinins along with a small dose of
the people. nitrogenous fertiliser
35 ‘Himgiri’ developed by hybridisation (c) Removal of all yellow leaves and
and selection for disease 38 Which one of the following is linked spraying the remaining green leaves
resistance against rust pathogens to the discovery of Bordeaux with 2,4,5-trichlorophenoxy acetic
mixture as a popular fungicide? acid
is a variety of [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] (d) Application of iron and magnesium to
(a) chilli (b) maize promote synthesis of chlorophyll
(c) sugarcane (d) wheat (a) Loose smut of wheat
(b) Black rust of wheat Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) (c) Bacterial leaf blight of rice If a pulse crop possesses premature
‘Himgiri’ is a variety of wheat. It is (d) Downy mildew of grapes yellowing of leaves and decrease in yield
resistant to leaf and stripe rust, hill bunt an application of magnesium and iron to
diseases. Ans. (d)
promote synthesis of chlorophyll may
Bordeaux mixture is the first inorganic
become most beneficial to overcome
36 Consider the following statements fungicide which was developed by RMA
the problem and to obtain maximum
(I-IV) about organic farming. Millardet (1882) against downy mildew
seed yield.
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] (Plasmopara viticola) of grape-vine at the
University of Bordeaux. It consists of Magnesium is an important part of ring
I. Utilises genetically modified structure of chlorophyll molecule and its
copper (II) sulphate (CuSO 4 ) slaked lime
crops like Bt cotton. and water. deficiency causes chlorosis and
II. Uses only naturally produced premature leaf abscission.
inputs like compost. 39 Consider the following four In iron deficiency also, the leaves
III. Does not use pesticides and measures (1-4) that could be taken become chlorotic because iron is
urea. to successfully grow chickpea in an required for the synthesis of some of the
chlorophyll protein complexes in the
IV. Produces vegetables rich in area where bacterial blight disease
chloroplast.
vitamins and minerals. is common
41 In maize, hybrid vigour is exploited Ans. (a) plants because germinated seeds
Triticale is the first man-made cereal cannot be stored under normal
crop. It has been obtained by crossing conditions for the next season.
(a) inducing mutations
(b) bombarding the protoplast with DNA wheat (Triticum sp.) with rye (Secale
cerele). 48 Which of the following is generally
(c) crossing of two inbred parental lines
Triticum turgidum × Secale cerele used for induced mutagenesis in
(d) harvesting seeds from the most
productive plants
AA BB RR crop plants? [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(a) X-rays
Ans. (c) Gametes AB R (b) UV (260 nm)
Hybrid vigour has been commercially
ABR (c) Gamma rays (from cobalt 60)
exploited in different commercial crops
like maize, sorghum, bajra, tomato, Colchicine (d) Alpha particles
sugarbeet. Hybridisation or crossing of (chromosome doubling) Ans. (c)
two unrelated individuals or parental AA BB RR Cobalt 60 is the synthetic radioactive
lines leads to hybrid vigour or heterosis. Triticale isotope of cobalt. Gamma rays are
It refers to the superiority of the hybrid (allohexaploid)
produced when an unstable atomic
over its parents. The changes in the nucleus like cobalt-60 releases energy to
progeny or hybrid can be seen with gain stability. Sharbati Sonora and Pusa
45 Three crops that contribute
naked eyes. The main steps include, i.e. Lerma are the two important varieties of
selection of parents, selfing of parents, maximum to global food grain
wheat that are produced by gamma rays
emasculation, bagging, crossing of production are [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
treatment of Sonora-64 and Lerma
desired and selected parents and finally (a) wheat, rice and maize Rojo-64 which are Mexican dwarf wheat
seed setting and harvesting. (b) wheat, maize and sorghum varieties.
(c) rice, maize and sorghum
42 Golden rice is a transgenic crop of (d) wheat, rice and barley 49 India’s wheat yield revolution in the
the future with the following 1960s was possible primarily due to
Ans. (a)
improved trait [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Wheat, rice and maize belong to family–
Poaceae or Gramineae. The main fruit (a) hybrid seeds
(a) high lysine (essential amino acid) type of these crops is caryopsis in which (b) increased chlorophyll content
content fruit wall is fused with seed coat. These (c) mutations resulting in plant height
(b) insect resistance crops are cultivated in all over the world reduction
(c) high protein content and are contributed maximum in global (d) quantitative trait mutations
(d) high vitamin-A content food grain production.
Ans. (c)
Ans. (d) 46 The name of Norman Borlaug is India’s wheat yield revolution in 1960s
Generally seeds of rice do not have associated with [CBSE AIPMT 2005] was possible primarily due to the
vitamin-A, but golden rice which is (a) Green revolution mutations resulting in plant height
developed through genetic engineering (b) Yellow revolution reduction. In 1963, ICAR introduced many
has the high vitamin-A content. (c) White revolution dwarf selections from CIMMYT, including
those developed by Norman Borlaug
(d) Blue revolution
43 Crop plants grown in monoculture using Norin-10 as the source of dwarfing
Ans. (a) genes.
are [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
Norman Borlaug is associated with
(a) low in yield green revolution. The green revolution 50 Which of the following crops have
(b) free from intraspecific competition means an increase in the production of been brought to India from New
(c) characterised by poor root system crops particularly cereals, such as world? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(d) highly prone to pests wheat, rice and maize. (a) Cashewnut, potato, rubber
Ans. (d) (b) Mango, tea
47 Why is vivipary an undesirable (c) Tea, rubber, mango
The crop plants grown in monoculture
are highly prone to pests and thus, it character for annual crop plants? (d) Coffee
[CBSE AIPMT 2005]
carries the risk of an entire crop being Ans. (a)
destroyed with the appearance of a (a) It reduces the vigour of plant
(b) The seeds cannot be stored under Cashewnut, potato, rubber are crops
single pest species or disease.
normal conditions for the next season that have been brought to India from
New World.
44 Triticale, the first man-made cereal (c) The seeds exhibit long dormancy
crop, has been obtained by (d) It adversely affects the fertility of the
plant 51 What is the best pH of the soil for
crossing wheat with cultivation of plants?
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(a) rye (b) pearl millet Vivipary is the condition when seeds are
(a) 3.4–5.4 (b) 6.5–7.5
(c) sugarcane (d) barley germinated on the plant. It is an
(c) 4.5–8.5 (d) 5.5–6.5
undesirable character for annual crop
Ans. (c) hybridisation, two or more plants of (a) three belong to Poaceae (Gramineae),
Most cultivated soils have pH ranges unlike genotype are crossed together to one to Leguminosae, one to
between 4.5-8.5. However most plants get offsprings with new desirable Solanaceae
grow best in soils with a neutral or combinations of characters, as a result (b) four belong to Poaceae, one to
slightly acidic pH. of genetic recombination. Leguminosae
(c) four belong to Poaceae, one to
52 Before the European invaders 56 The reason why vegetatively Solanaceae
which vegetable was/were absent reproducing crop plants are best (d) All five belong to Poaceae
in India? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
suited for maintaining hybrid vigour Ans. (c)
is that [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
Top five crops of today are
(a) Potato and tomato
(a) they can be easily propagated wheat-Triticum aestivum (Poaceae),
(b) Simla mirch and brinjal
(b) they have a longer life span corn–Zea mays (Poaceae), rice–Oryza
(c) Maize and chichinda
(c) they are more resistant to disease sativa (Poaceae), potato–Solanum
(d) Bitter gourd tuberosum (Solanaceae) and
(d) once a desired hybrid is produced,
Ans. (a) there are no chances of losing it barley–Hordeum vulgare (Poaceae).
Potato and tomato originated in the Ans. (d)
New World. They were absent in India 60 Most of our crop plants are
Vegetative reproduction is the process
previously. [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
of multiplication in a small part or
portion of the plant body which (a) autopolyploid in origin
53 Which statement is correct about functions as a propagule and develops (b) allopolyploid in origin
centre of origin of plants? into a new individual. (c) mixed genotypic in origin
[CBSE AIPMT 2001] Thus, vegetative reproduction does not (d) heterozygous in origin
(a) More diversity in varieties involve meiosis; hence, recombination
Ans. (a)
(b) Frequency of dominant gene is more and no loss of heterozygosity.
(c) Climatic conditions more favourable
Most of our crop plants are
autopolyploid in origin.
(d) None of the above 57 Which one among the following
Ans. (a) chemicals is used for causing 61 Haploid plants are preferred over
The centres of origin of plants are more defoliation of forest trees? diploids for mutation study
appropriately called the centres of [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
because in haploids
diversity. These are the areas of (a) Amo-1618 [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
maximum diversity of these species. (b) Phosphon-D (a) recessive mutation express
(c) Malic hydrazide immediately
54 One of the most important reason (d) 2, 4-D (b) induction of mutations is easier
why wild plants should thrive is that
Ans. (d) (c) culturing is easier
these are good sources of (d) dominant mutation express
[CBSE AIPMT 2000]
2, 4-D (2, 4 dichlorophenoxy acetic acid)
is an auxin hormone. It over stimulates immediately
(a) unsaturated edible oils the growth activities of the cells of the Ans. (a)
(b) highly nutritive animals feed root due to which roots get destroyed
Haploid plants are preferred over
(c) genes for resistance to diseases and and thus plants finally destroyed. 2, 4-D
diploids for mutation study because of
pests is used as a defoliant for broad leaves
their clear/obvious expression. In nature
(d) rare and highly sought after fruits of dicots (mainly weeds).
mutations are generally recessive. In
medical importance
case of a diploid it is difficult to trace out
Ans. (c) 58 Which plant will loss its economic the recessive mutation as its dominant
Wild plants have to survive without value, if its fruits are produced by gene is present on other chromosome.
getting any protection and for this, they induced parthenocarpy?
evolve various strategies/characters [CBSE AIPMT 1997] 62 In crop improvement programme,
which are exploited by plant breeders (a) Grape haploids are important because
like diseases resistance. (b) Pomegranate they [CBSE AIPMT 1989]
(c) Orange (a) require one half of nutrients
55 The new varieties of plants are (d) Banana (b) are helpful in study of meiosis
produced by [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
Ans. (b) (c) grow better under adverse conditions
(a) selection and hybridisation (d) form perfect homozygous
Testa is the edible part in pomegranate.
(b) selection and introduction
It is not formed if fruits are produced by Ans. (d)
(c) mutation and selection parthenocarpy (no seeds will be formed).
(d) introduction and mutation Haploids are important in crop
improvement programme because they
Ans. (a) 59 Of the world’s top five crops (in produce a pureline and form perfect
The new varieties of plants are produced terms of annual production) homozygous.
by selection and hybridisation. In [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
(a) plant breeding culture. In infected plants, virus

TOPIC 3 (b) irradiation concentration decreases as they
Plant Tissue Culture (c) genetic engineering approach the apical meristem.
(d) tissue culture It is because the cells of apical meristem
Ans. (d) undergo rapid mitotic divisions and virus
63 To obtain virus-free healthy plants cannot divide so fast and thus it cannot
Somaclones are obtained by tissue
from a diseased one by tissue keep pace with the fast dividing
culture. The plant regenerated from cell
meristematic cells.
culture technique, which part/parts and tissue cultures shows heritable
variation for both qualitative and So, apical meristems are generally virus
of the diseased plant will be taken? free or they contain very low
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] quantitative traits. Plant breeding is the
branch of biology, which is concerned concentration of virus. Before meristem
(a) Apical meristem only culture, viruses associated with
with developing varieties superior to
(b) Palisade parenchyma existing ones. meristem are eliminated by in vitro heat
(c) Both apical and axillary meristems Irradiation means exposure to any form treatment (thermotherapy). Morel and
(d) Epidermis only of radiation. Maetin (1952) successfully obtained virus
free Dahlia plants through meristem
Ans. (c) Genetic engineering is defined as the
culture of infected plants.
Both apical and axillary meristems are manipulation of genes by man.
free of virus for the healthy plant 66 Haploid plant cultures are got from
cultivation because of strong interferon 65 In order to obtain virus-free plants
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
activity in this region. through tissue culture the best
(a) leaves
These tissues form a protective method is [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(b) root tip
impermeable covering around (a) meristem culture
themselves, which is non-penetrable by (c) pollen grain
(b) protoplast culture
any pathogen. Hence, these tissue are (d) buds
(c) embryo rescue
used in the production of disease free Ans. (c)
plants by tissue culture.
(d) anther culture
Haploid plant cultures are obtained from
Ans. (a) pollen grains as they are haploid while
64 Somaclones are obtained by Virus free plants can be developed by leaves, root tip and buds are diploid.
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] using meristem as explant in tissue
32
Microbes in
Human Walfare
TOPIC 1 Ans. (a) 04 Match the following columns and
Microbes in (A)-(3) ,(B)-(1),(C)-(4),(D)-(2) select the correct option.
Household Products Citric acid is a principal organic acid [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
present in citrus fruits. To meet the
Column I Column II
increasing demand, it is produced from
01 Yeast is used in the production of carbohydrate feedstock by fermentation A. Clostridium 1. Cyclosporin-A
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] with the fungus Aspergillus niger. butylicum
(a) citric acid and lactic acid Acetobacter aceti uses sugars and B. Trichoderma 2. Butyric acid
(b) lipase and pectinase alcohols for its carbon source and turns polysporum
(c) bread and beer them into their acetic acid.
C. Monascus 3. Citric acid
(d) cheese and butter Clostridium butyricum are Gram-positive purpureus
bacteria that helps in the production of
Ans. (c) D. Aspergillus niger 4. Blood
butyric acid.
Saccharomyces cerevisiae is known as cholesterol
Lactobacillus is a genus of lowering
baker’s yeast and Saccharomyces
Gram-positive, facultative an aerobic, agent
ellipsoidens is called wine yeast. These
rod-shaped, non-spore forming
are used in baking and brewing industry
bacteria. They convert sugars to lactic
respectively. A B C D
acid.
(a) 2 1 4 3
TOPIC 2 03 Cyclosporin*A used as (b) 1 2 4 3
Microbes in (c) 4 3 2 1
immunosuppression agent, is
(d) 3 4 2 1
Industrial Products produced from [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
Ans. (a)
(a) Monascus purpureus
02 Match the List-I with List-II. (b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae The correct match is option (a). It can be
[NEET 2021] explained as follows
(c) Penicillium notatum
Butyric acid is produced by Clostridium
List-I List-II (d) Trichoderma polysporum
butylicum. It is a strictly anaerobic
A. Aspergillus niger 1. Acetic Acid Ans. (d) endosporeforming Gram-positive
B. Acetobacter aceti 2. Lactic Acid Bioactive molecule, cyclosporin-A is bacteria.
used as an immunosuppressive agent in Cyclosporin A is produced by the fungus
C. Clostridium 3. Citric Acid organ transplant patients. It is produced Trichoderma polysporum that is used as
butylicum
by the fungus Trichoderma polysporum. an immunosuppressive agent in organ
D. Lactobacillus 4. Butyric Acid Monascus purpureus is a yeast which transplant patients.
helps to produce statins (blood Statins produced by the yeast Monascus
Choose the correct answer from cholesterol lowering agent). purpureus have been commercialised as
the options given below. Saccharomyces cerevisae is a yeast blood cholesterol lowering agent.
A B C D AB C D which produces ethanol. Penicillium Citric acid is produced by fungus
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 2 3 4 notatum is a yeast which produces Aspergillus niger.
pencillin (an antibiotics).
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 2 1 3
05 Match the following organisms with Ans. (c) B. Monascus 4. Production of

purpureus blood-cholesterol
the products they produce Butyric acid is produced by fermentive lowering agents
[NEET (National) 2019] activity of the bacteria called Clostridium
butylicum. It does not produce lipase. C. Trichoderma 1. Production of
A. Lactobacillus (i) Cheese Lipase is obtained from Candida polysporum immuno
albicans. suppressive
B. Saccharomyces (ii) Curd agents
cerevisiae
08 Match column I with column II and D. Propionibacteriu 2. Ripening of Swiss
C. Aspergillus niger (iii) Citric acid m shermanii cheese
select the correct option using the
D. Acetobacter aceti (iv) Bread codes given below
(v) Acetic acid [NEET 2016, Phase II] 10 The most abundant prokaryotes
helpful to human in making curd
Select the correct option. Column I Column II
from milk and in production of
A B C D A. Citric acid 1. Trichoderma antibiotics are the ones
(a) (ii) (iv) (iii) (v) B. Cyclosporin 2. Clostridium categorised as [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(b) (iii) (iv) (v) (i)
C. Statins 3. Aspergillus (a) cyanobacteria
(c) (ii) (i) (iii) (v)
D. Butyric acid 4. Monascus (b) archaebacteria
(d) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(c) chemosynthetic autotrophs
Ans. (a) Codes
(d) heterotrophic bacteria
(A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(iii), (D)–(v) A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 Ans. (d)
Lactobacillus bacteria helps in the
production of curd. The yeast, (b) 3 1 4 2 Heterotrophic bacteria are most
Saccharomyces cerevisiae helps in bread (c) 1 4 2 3 abundant in nature. Many of them have a
making. The fungus, Aspergillus Niger is (d) 3 4 1 2 significant impact on human affairs.
used for citric acid production. The These are helpful in making curd from
Ans. (b) milk (e.g. Lactobacillus sp.), production
bacteria Acetobacter aceti is used in the
production of acetic acid. The correct match are of antibiotics (e.g. Streptomyces sp.) and
(a) Citric acid — Aspergillus fixing nitrogen in legume roots (e.g.
(b) Cyclosporin — Trichoderma Rhizobium sp).
06 Which of the following is correctly
(c) Statins — Monascus
matched for the product produced 11 Monascus purpureus is a yeast used
(d) Butyric acid — Clostridium
by them? [NEET 2017]
commercially in the production of
Thus option (b) is correct.
(a) Acetobacter aceti: Antibiotics [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(b) Methanobacterium : Lactic acid (a) ethanol
09 Match the following list of microbes
(c) Penicillium notatum : Acetic acid (b) streptokinase for removing clots
and their importance.
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae : Ethanol [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
from the blood vessels
Ans. (d) (c) citric acid
A. Saccharomyces 1. Production of
Acetobacter aceti produces acetic acid. cerevisiae immuno (d) blood cholesterol lowering statins
Methanobacterium produces methane. suppressive agents Ans. (d)
Penicillium notatum produces penicillin. B. Monascus 2. Ripening of Swiss Monascus purpureus is a yeast used in
Saccharomyces cerevsiae produces purpureus cheese the production of statins which are
ethanol. C. Trichoderma 3. Commercial blood cholesterol lowering agents.
polysporum production of ethanol
07 Which of the following is wrongly D. Propionibacteriu 4. Production of
12 A patient brought to a hospital with
matched in the given table? m sharmanii blood-cholesterol myocardial infarction is normally
[NEET 2016, Phase I] lowering agents immediately given
Codes [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
Microbe Product Application
A B C D (a) penicillin
(a) Monascus Statins Lowering of (b) streptokinase
(a) 3 4 1 2
purpureus blood
cholesterol (b) 4 3 2 1 (c) cyclosporin-A
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) statins
(b) Streptoco- Streptoki- Removal of (d) 3 1 4 2
ccus nase clot from Ans. (b)
blood vessel Ans. (a) Streptokinase (SK), a protein secreted by
Correct match is several species of Streptococci can bind
(c) Clostridium Lipase Removal of oil
butylicum stains and activate human plasminogen. It is
Column I Column II
used as an effective and inexpensive
(d) Trichoderma Cyclosporin–AImmunosuppr A. Saccharomyces 3. Commercial thrombolysis medication in some cases
polysporum ess-ive drug cerevisae production of of myocardial infarction and pulmonary
ethanol embolism.
Microbes in Human Welfare 319
13 Ethanol is commercially produced (i) Broad spectrum antibiotics They Codes

have ability to act on several A B C D
through a particular species of
pathogenic species differing from (a) 3 5 4 1
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
each others in structure and (b) 2 1 3 4
(a) Clostridium (b) Trichoderma composition of cell wall.
(c) Aspergillus (d) Saccharomyces (c) 2 3 4 5
(ii) Specific antibiotics They act on a (d) 2 4 5 3
Ans. (d) few similar type of pathogens.
Ethanol is commercially produced
Ans. (d)
through a particular species of yeast 17 Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) Option (d) is the correct match which is
called as Saccharomyces cerevisiae. is used in the industrial production as follows
Dragonflies help to get rid of Aphids and
14 The most common substrate used mosquitoes.
(a) citric acid (b) tetracycline Baccillus thuringiensis acts as biocontrol
in distilleries for the production of
(c) ethanol (d) butanol agent for lepidopteran and plant pests.
ethanol is [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Ans. (c) Glomus is a fungus which forms
(a) soya meal (b) ground gram mycorrhiza to absorb phosphorus from
(c) molasses (d) corn meal Yeast contains an enzyme zymase which
soil.
catalyse the fermentation of sugar to
Ans. (c) Baculoviruses are used in narrow
form ethyl alcohol (ethanol) and CO2 .
spectrum insecticidal applications.
Molasses is a viscous byproduct of the
processing of sugarcane, grapes or 18 Which one of the following 20 A biocontrol agent to be a part of
sugarbeets in sugar. It is the most microorganisms is used for
common substrate used in distilleries for
an integrated pest management
production of citric acid in should be [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
the production of ethanol. It can be used
as the base material for fermentation
industries? [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) species-specific and symbiotic
into rum. In Australia, molasses is (a) Penicillium citrinum
(b) free-living and broad spectrum
fermented to produce ethanol for use as (b) Aspergillus niger (c) narrow spectrum and symbiotic
an alternative fuel in motor vehicles. (c) Rhizopus nigricans (d) species-specific and inactive on
(d) Lactobacillus bulgaricus non-target organisms
15 Which of the microrganism is used
for production of citric acid in Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
industries? [CBSE AIPMT 1998] Citric acid is commercially prepared is by A biocontrol agent to be a part of an
fermentation of sugar with A. niger. Integrated Pest Management (IPM)
(a) Lactobacillus bulgaris
Citric acid has an extraordinary range of programme should be species-specific
(b) Penicillium citrinum
uses. It gives tartness and flavour to the and inactive or have no negative impacts
(c) Aspergillus niger foods. It is an antioxidant and pH adjuster on non-target organisms like plants,
(d) Rhizopus nigricans in many foods and dairy products, it often mammals, birds, fish and even on other
Ans. (c) serves as an emulsifier. non-target insects. It should kill only
Aspergillus niger is the microorganism targeted insects/pests (organisms).
used for production of citric acid in
industries. Citric acid has an
TOPIC 3 21 Which of the following can be used
extraordinary range of uses. Microbes as as a biocontrol agent in the
It gives tartness and flavour to the treatment of plant disease?
foods. It is an antioxidant and pH
Biocontrol Agents [NEET (National) 2019]
adjuster in many foods and dairy (a) Chlorella (b) Anabaena
products, it often serves as an 19 Match the following columns and (c) Lactobacillus (d) Trichoderma
emulsifier. select the correct option from the
Ans. (d)
codes given below.
16 Which one thing is not true about [NEET (Oct.) 2020] Trichoderma can be used as a biocontrol
antibiotics? [CBSE AIPMT 1996] agent in the treatment of plant disease.
Column I Column II It is a filamentous soil fungus having
(a) The term ‘antibiotic’ was coined by
A. Dragonflies 1. Biocontrol agents of mycoparasitic activity. On the other
Selman Waksman in 1942
several plant hand, Anabaena helps in
(b) first antibiotic was discovered by pathogens nitrogen-fixation, Lactobacillus helps in
Alexander Flemming
B. Bacillus 2. Get rid of Aphids and the production of organic acid, e.g. lactic
(c) Each antibiotic is effective only thuringiensis mosquitoes acid and Chlorella is a single cell protein
against one particular kind of germ which acts as food supplement.
(d) Some persons can be allergic to a C. Glomus 3. Narrow spectrum
Insecticidal
particular antibiotic applications 22 Select the correct group of
Ans. (c) D. Baculoviruses 4. Biocontrol agents of biocontrol agents.
The statement (c) is wrong regarding to lepidopteran plant [NEET (National) 2019]
antibiotics because antibiotics are pests (a) Trichoderma, Baculovirus, Bacillus
divided into two categories depending 5. Absorb phosphorus thuringiensis
upon their effect from soil (b) Oscillatoria, Rhizobium, Trichoderma
(c) Nostoc, Azospirillum, biocontrol agents against fungal 27 Which of the following is not used
Nucleopolyhedrovirus diseases of plants. The various
as a biopesticide?
(d) Bacillus thuringiensis, Tobacco mechanisms include antibiosis,
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
mosaic virus, Aphids parasitism, inducing host-plant
resistance and competition. (a) Bacillus thuringiensis
Ans. (a) (b) Trichoderma harzianum
Most biocontrol agents are from the
The correct group of biocontrol agents is (c) Nuclear Polyhedrosis Virus (NPV)
species T. harzianum, T. viride and
Trichoderma, Baculovirus and Bacillus (d) Xanthomonas campestris
T. hamatum. The biocontrol agent
thuringiensis. Baculovirus are pathogens
generally grows in its natural habitat on Ans. (d)
that attack insects and other
the root surface and so, affects root
arthropods. Most of Baculoviruses used The bacterium Xanthomonas campestris
disease in particular but can also be
as biocontrol agent belong to the genus is the causative agent of plant disease,
effective against foliar diseases.
Nucleopolyhedrovirus. black rot of cabbage.
Trichoderma is extensively used against Bacillus thuringiensis, T. harzianum and
pathogenic fungi which causes soil
25 The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
NPV are biopesticides.
borne diseases. is widely used in contemporary
Bacillus thuringiensis secretes toxin biology as a/an 28 Main objective of production/use of
crystals which kill the insect larvae. On [CBSE AIPMT 2009] herbicide resistant GM crops is to
the other hand, Rhizobium, Nostoc, (a) indicator of water pollution [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
Azospirillum and Oscillatoria are used as (b) insecticide (a) eliminate weeds from the field
biofertilisers. Tobacco mosaic virus is a (c) agent for production of dairy products without the use of manual labour
pathogen and aphids are pests that harm
crop plants. (d) source of industrial enzyme (b) eliminate weeds from the field
without the use of herbicides
Ans. (b)
(c) encourage eco-friendly herbicides
23 Which one of the following is an Bacillus thuringiensis is used as an
(d) reduce herbicide accumulation in
example of carrying out biological insecticide. It is a Gram-positive, soil
food particles for health safety
control of pests/diseases using dwelling bacterium, also occurs naturally
in the gut of caterpillars of various types Ans. (d)
microbes? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
of moths and butterflies. The main objective of production/use of
(a) Trichoderma sp. against certain plant
During sporulation, B. thuringiensis herbicide resistant Genetically Modified
pathogens
forms crystals of proteinaceous (GM) crops is to reduce herbicide
(b) Nucleopolyhedrovirus against white accumulation in food articles for health
insecticidalδ-endotoxins (cry toxins),
rust in Brassica safety.
which are encoded by cry genes.
(c) Bt cotton to increase cotton yield
It was determined that the cry genes are The chemical substances, which are
(d) Lady bird beetle against aphids in used to kill or repel pest are called
mustard harbored in the plasmids of B.
thuringiensis strains. Cry toxins have pesticides. The chemical substance
Ans. (c) specific activities against species of the which are used to destroy weeds are
Out of the given statement ‘c’ is correct order–Lepidoptera (moths and called herbicides.
example because Bt cotton is butterflies), Diptera (flies and
Genetically Modified (GM) cotton which 29 Cry-I endotoxins obtained from
mosquitoes) and Coleoptera (beetles).
has an incorporated gene extracted Bacillus thuringiensis are effective
Thus, B. thuringiensis serves as an
from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis. against [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
important reservoir of cry toxins and cry
This gene codes for Bt toxin in plant (a) mosquitoes (b) flies
genes for the production of biological
tissues which is harmful only to a small (c) nematodes (d) bollworms
fraction of insects, most notably the insecticides and insect resistant
larvae of lepidopterans, moths, genetically modified crops. Ans. (b)
butterflies, beetles, flies, etc, and Cry-I endotoxins obtained from Bacillus
harmless to other forms of life. So, it is 26 What is true about Bt toxin? thuringiensis are effective against flies
used as biological control of [CBSE AIPMT 2009] (insects). The cry gene of Bacillus
pests/diseases. (a) The inactive protoxin gets converted thuringiensis produces a protein, which
into active form in the insect gut forms crystalline inclusion in the
24 A common biocontrol agent for the (b) Bt protein exists as active toxin in the bacterial spores. These crystal proteins
control of plant diseases is Bacillus are responsible for the insecticidal
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] (c) The activated toxin enters the ovaries activities of the bacterial strains.
(a) Baculovirus of the pest to sterilise it and thus,
prevent its multiplication 30 Which one of the following proved
(b) Bacillus thuringiensis effective for biological control of
(d) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins
(c) Glomus nemato diseases in plants?
(d) Trichoderma Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
Ans. (d) Bacillus thuringiensis toxin is an inactive
(a) Pisolithus tinctorius
protoxin, which gets converted into
Trichoderma is a genus of fungi that is (b) Pseudomyces lilacinus
active form in the insect gut. It works as
present in all soils. Several strains of (c) Gliocladium virens
Trichoderma have been developed as an insecticide.
(d) Paecilomyces lilacinus
Ans. (d) Ans. (b) Ans. (d)

Paecilomyces lilacinus has proved Insect hormones, i.e. pheromones, are The major difficulties in the biological
effective for biological control of third generation pesticides. control of insects pests is that the
nematodal disease in plants. It is easily Pheromones are the chemical predator develops a preference to other
produced in vitro. It attack the eggs of substances which when released into an diets and may itself become a pest.
several nematode species and highly animal’s surroundings, influence the Biological control is mainly refers to the
effective treatment of plant matter, e.g. behaviour or development of other introduction of living organisms which
seed tuber. individuals of the same species. destroy other harmful organisms.
Inorganic substances, oils, plant
31 Which one of the following proved extracts used as insecticides are called
effective for biological control of first generation pesticides and synthetic TOPIC 4
organic compounds as second
nematode diseases in plants? generation pesticides.
Microbes in Biofuels
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] and Sewage Treatment
(a) Glicoladium virens 34 What is agent orange?
(b) Paecilomces lalacinus [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(c) Pisolithus tinctorius (a) A biodegradable insecticide 37 Which of the following in sewage
(d) Pseudomonas cepacia (b) A weedicide containing dioxin treatment removes suspended
Ans. (b) (c) Colour used in fluorescent lamp solids ? [NEET 2017]
Paecilomyces lilacinus is a fungus which (d) A hazardous chemical used in (a) Tertiary treatment
principally infects eggs of root knot luminous paints (b) Secondary treatment
nematode (Meloidogyne sp.) and cyst Ans. (b) (c) Primary treatment
nematodes (Gobodera and Heterodera sp.) (d) Sludge treatment
Agent orange is a weedicide containing
It has been considered to have greatest dioxin. It is so, called because of Ans. (c)
potential for application as a biocontrol distinctive orange stripe on its In sewage treatment, suspended solids
agent in sub-tropical and tropical packaging, combines equal parts of 2, are removed during primary treatment. It
agricultural soils. 4-D and 2, 4, 5-T was later on found to is also known as physical treatment.
contain a highly poisonous chemical It consists of shredding, churning,
32 The most likely reason for the dioxin as impurity. screening and sedimentation.
development of resistance against Sequential filtration removes floating
pesticides in insect damaging a 35 Suppression of reproduction of one and large suspended solids.
crop is [CBSE AIPMT 2004] type of organism by utilising some
(a) random mutations features of its biology or physiology 38 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
(b) genetic recombinations to destroy it or by use of another may not be a good index for
(c) directed mutations organism is known as pollution in water bodies receiving
(d) acquired heritable changes [CBSE AIPMT 1996] effluents from [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(a) competition (a) domestic sewage
Ans. (a)
(b) predation (b) dairy industry
The most likely reason for the
(c) biological control (c) petroleum industry
development of resistance against
(d) physiological control (d) sugar industry
pesticides in insect damaging a crop is
random mutations, because Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
environmental stress, i.e. pesticides Biological control is the suppression of Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) is not
does not cause direct changes in reproduction of one type of organism by a good index for checking the pollution
genome, instead, it simply selects rather utilising some features of its biology or levels of water bodies receiving
persisting mutations which result in physiology to destroy it or by use of effluents from petroleum industry. This
phenotypes that are better adapted to another organism. is because such effluents contain waste
the new environment in certain which is non-biodegradable.
pesticides. 36 One of the major difficulties in the
biological control of insect pests is 39 What gases are produced in
33 Biological control component is the [CBSE AIPMT 1995] anaerobic sludge digesters?
central to advanced agricultural (a) practical difficulty of introducing the [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
production. Which of the following predator to specific areas (a) Methane and CO 2 only
is used as a third generation (b) method is less effective as compared (b) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2
with the use of insecticides (c) Methane, hydrogen sulphide and CO2
pesticide? [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(c) predator does not always survive (d) Hydrogen sulphide and CO 2
(a) Pathogens when transferred to a new
(b) Pheromones environment
Ans. (b)
(c) Insect repellents (d) the predator develops a preference to Methane, hydrogen sulphide andCO 2 are
(d) Insect hormone analogues other diets and may itself become a gases that are produced in anaerobic
pest sludge digesters. These gases are
produced during biogas production by Decomposition of organic matter occurs Ans. (d)
the activity of bacteria called by one of the three methods-water During biogas formation, digestion of
methanogens. hyacinth pond, trickling filter method cellulose is slow (rate-limiting) and most
and activated sludge method. After of the lignin is not decomposed. After
40 During sewage treatment, biogases decomposition the treated water is cellulose lignin is the most abundant
are produced, which include sterilised through chlorination and plant polymer. It forms 20 to 30% of the
[NEET 2013]
recycled. wood of the tree. Lignin is a complex
(a) methane, hydrogen sulphide and polymeric molecule, made up of phenyl
44 Select the correct statement from propanoid units. Cellulose is a large
carbon dioxide
the following [CBSE AIPMT 2010] chained polymer of glucose molecules
(b) methane, oxygen and hydrogen
sulphide (a) Biogas is produced by the activity of which are linked with each other by
aerobic bacteria on animal waste glycosidic bonds. Hemicellulose are
(c) hydrogen sulphide, methane and
(b) Methanobacterium is an aerobic branched polymers of glucose, xylose,
sulphur dioxide
bacterium found in rumen of cattle galactose, mannose and arabinose.
(d) hydrogen sulphide, nitrogen and
methane (c) Biogas, commonly called gobar gas, is
pure methane
Ans. (a) (d) Activated sludge-sediment in TOPIC 5
During sewage treatment biogas is
produced which include methane,
settlement tanks of sewage
treatment plant is a right source of
Microbes as Biofertilisers
hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. aerobic bacteria
Biogas is a mixture of gases (mainly
methane) produced by the microbial Ans. (d) 47 Among the following pairs of
activity and which may be used as fuel. Out of the following statements (d) is microbes, which pair has both the
correct because activated sludge is a microbes that can be used as
41 Which of the following is mainly process dealing with the treatment of
biofertilisers? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
sewage and industrial waste waters.
produced by the activity of Atmospheric air or pure oxygen is (a) Aspergillus and Rhizopus
anaerobic bacteria on sewage? introduced to a mixture of primary (b) Rhizobium and Rhizopus
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] treated or screened sewage (or (c) Cyanobacteria and Rhizobium
(a) Propane (b) Mustard gas industrial waste water) combined with (d) Aspergillus and Cyanobacteria
(c) Marsh gas (d) Laughing gas organisms to develop a biological flock,
which reduces the organic content of Ans. (c)
Ans. (c) the sewage. Sediment in settlement Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich
Marsh gas (methane) is mainly produced tanks of sewage treatment plant is a rich the nutrient quality of the soil.
by the activity of anaerobic bacteria on source of aerobic bacteria because small For example, Cyanobacteria and
sewage. amounts are used as inoculum in Rhizobium. Aspergillus and Rhizopus are
secondary treatment or biological not used as biofertilisers.
42 Organisms called methanogens are treatment stage of sewage treatment.
most abundant in a 48 Which one of the following
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] 45 Which one of the following is being
microbes forms symbiotic
(a) cattle yard (b) polluted stream utilised as a source of bio-diesel in
the Indian countryside? association with plants and helps
(c) hot spring (d) sulphur rock them in their nutrition?
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
Ans. (a) (a) Euphorbia (b) Beet root
Organisms called Methanogens are most (c) Sugarcane (d) Pongamia (a) Azotobacter (b) Aspergillus
abundant in a cattle yard. Methanogens (c) Glomus (d) Trichoderma
are present in the gut of several Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
ruminants animals such as cows and Euphorbia is being utilised as a source of
buffaloes and they are responsible for biodiesel in the Indian countryside. Several species of Glomus, including
the production of methane (biogas) from Some plants like Euphorbia, Asclepias, G. aggregatum, are cultured and sold as
the dung of these animals. Capiafera accumulate hydrocarbons in mycorrhizal inoculant for agricultrural
the form of latex which are used as soils. Being endomycorrhiza, it helps the
biodiesel. plants in the absorption of nutrients
43 Secondary sewage treatment is
especially phosphorus from soil.
mainly a [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
46 During anaerobic digestion of
(a) mechanical process organic waste, such as in 49 A nitrogen-fixing microbe associated
(b) chemical process producing biogas, which one of the with Azolla in rice fields is
(c) biological process following is left undegraded? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
(d) physical process [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (a) Spirulina (b) Anabaena
Ans. (c) (a) Hemicellulose (c) Frankia (d) Tolypothrix
In secondary or biological treatment of (b) Cellulose Ans. (b)
municipal waste, the organic matter is (c) Lipids Anabaena azollae is a free-living nitrogen
decomposed with the help of microbes. (d) Lignin fixing blue-green alga or
cyanobacterium but it may also live When it is added to the soil, it multiplies (c) Crotalaria juncea and Alhagi
symbiotically in the leaf cavities of in millions and can supply 20-40 kg of comelorum
Azolla, an aquatic, free floating, nitrogen per hectare per season. (d) Calotropis procera and Phyllanthus
freshwater pteridophyte (fern). This niruri
cyanobacterium has nitrogenase 54 Which one of the following is not
enzyme, therefore can fix nitrogen. If
Ans. (c)
used in organic farming?
this fern is grown in paddy (rice) fields, a Crotalaria juncea (sunnhemp) and Alhagi
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
remarkable 50% increase in yield can be camelorum are among the plants which
(a) Oscillatoria (b) Snail are used as green manures in India.
noticed.
(c) Glomus (d) Earthworm These green manures help the soil
50 An organism used as a biofertiliser Ans. (b) through increasement of area, water
holding capacities and fertility.
for raising soyabean crop is Except snail, all these are used in
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] organic farming-
58 The aquatic fern, which is an
(a) Azospirillum (b) Rhizobium Glomus – Endomycorrhiza
excellent biofertiliser is
(c) Nostoc (d) Azotobacter Oscillatoria – BGA
[CBSE AIPMT 2001, 1999]
Earthworm – Vermicompost
Ans. (b) (a) Azolla (b) Pteridium
Rhizobium leguminosarum is a symbiotic 55 Which one of the following (c) Salvinia (d) Marselia
bacteria found in root nodules of statements is correct? Ans. (a)
legume. This bacterium has nitrogen [CBSE AIPMT 2007] Azolla leaves harbour Anabaena colonies
fixing nif gene. Soyabean is a legume.
(a) Extensive use of chemical fertilisers which fix atmospheric nitrogen. The
Thus, Rhizobium is used as a biofertiliser
may lead to eutrophication of nearby nitrogen rich Azolla is used as
for raising soyabean crop.
water bodies biofertiliser.
(b) Both Azotobacter and Rhizobium fix
51 Which one of the following is not a atmospheric nitrogen in root nodules 59 Farmers have reported over 50%
biofertiliser? [CBSE AIPMT 2011] of plants higher yields of rice by sing which
(a) Rhizobium (b) Nostoc (c) Cyanobacteria such as Anabaena and of the following biofertiliser?
(c) Mycorrhiza (d) Agrobacterium Nostoc are important mobilisers of [CBSE AIPMT 2000, 99, 98]
phosphates and potassium for plant (a) Mycorrhiza
Ans. (d)
nutrition in soil
Out of the following only Agrobacterium (b) Azolla pinnata
(d) At present it is not possible to grow
is not a biofertiliser. It is a maize without chemical fertilisers
(c) Cyanobacteria
Gram-negative bacterium that causes (d) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
tumours in plants. It is well known for its Ans. (a)
Ans. (b)
ability to transfer DNA between itself Out of the following statement (a) is
and plants, and for this reason it has correct as eutrophication is caused by Anabaena azollae, a cyanobacterium
become an important tool for genetic run off water from fertilised fields, living in the cavities of fern Azolla, fixes
engineering. sub-urban lawns, feed lots and atmospheric nitrogen and releases it
detergent rich sewage. It is phenomenon into the leaf cavity of the fern. Farmers
A tumefaciens causes crown-gall
of nutrient enrichment of a water body. have reported over 50% higher yields by
disease in plants. It has Ti-plasmid.
using Azolla pinnata.
52 The free-living, anaerobic 56 A free-living nitrogen-fixing
nitrogen-fixer is [CBSE AIPMT 2010] cyanobacterium which can also
non-symbiotic biofertiliser?
(a) Beijerinckia (b) Rhodospirillum form symbiotic association with [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(c) Rhizobium (d) Azotobacter the water fern Azolla is
(a) VAM
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Ans. (b) (b) Azotobacter
(a) Tolypothrix (b) Chlorella
Rhodospirillum is a free-living, anaerobic, (c) Anabaena
(c) Nostoc (d) Anabaena
nitrogen fixer. Both Beijerinckia and (d) Rhizobium
Azotobacter are free-living, Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
nitrogen-fixing, aerobic microbes. Anabaena is a free-living nitrogen fixing
Free-living (non-symbiotic) bacteria like
Rhizobium is a symbiotic, nitrogen fixer. cyanobacterium which can form
Azotobacter and Bacillus polymyxa fix
symbiotic association with water fern
atmospheric nitrogen and make it
53 The common nitrogen-fixer in Azolla. available to crop plants. VAM (Vasicular
paddy fields is [CBSE AIPMT 2010] Arbuscular Mycorrhizae) is an
(a) Rhizobium (b) Azospirillum 57 Which of the following plants are endosymbiosis between fungi and roots
(c) Oscillatoria (d) Frankia used as green manure in crop fields of higher plants.
and in sandy soils? Anabaena is a cyanobacterium
Ans. (b) (blue-green algae) which live solitary or
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
Azospirillum is a nitrogen fixing in association with other plant and can
(a) Saccharum munja and Lantana
bacterium in paddy fields. It is very fix atmosphericN2 .
camara
useful soil and root bacterium. It is an Rhizobium bacterium makes symbiotic
(b) Dichanthium annulatum and Azolla
associative symbiotic N 2 -fixing bacteria. association with leguminous plants.
nilotica
33
Biotechnology:
Principles and Processes
TOPIC 1 an E.coli strain, it will not be able to Select the correct option.
confer ampicillin resistance to the host
Tools of Recombinant cell.
A B C D
(a) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
DNA Technology (b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
02 A specific recognition sequence (c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
01 Plasmid pBR322 has Pst I identified by endonucleases to (d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
restriction enzyme site within gene make cuts at specific positions
Ans. (b)
ampR that confers ampicillin within the DNA is [NEET 2021]
Option (b) is correct match which is as
resistance. If this enzyme is used (a) degenerate primer sequence follows
for inserting a gene for (b) Okazaki sequences Bioreactors are used for the industrial
β-galactoside production and the (c) palindromic nucleotide sequence scale production of products.
(d) poly(A) tail sequence Electrophoresis helps in the separation
recombinant plasmid is inserted in of DNA fragments based on their size.
an E.coli strain [NEET 2021] Ans. (c)
PCR helps to amplify or generate large
(a) it will not be able to confer ampicillin Palindromic nucleotide sequence is a number of copies of nucleic acids.
resistance to the host cell specific recognition sequence in a ELISA helps in the detection of pathogens
(b) the transformed cells will have the double-standard DNA and RNA molecules based on the principle of antigen-antibody
ability to resist ampicillin as well as that is identified by endonucleases to interaction.
produce β-galactoside make cuts at specific positions. The
sequence is the same when one strand is 04 First discovered restriction
(c) it will lead to lysis of host cell
read from left to right and the other
(d) it will be able to produce a novel endonuclease that always cuts DNA
strand is read from right to left.
protein with dual ability molecule at a particular point by
Ans. (a) 03 Match the following techniques or recognising a specific sequence of
In plasmid vector pBR322, two unique instruments with their usage. six base pairs is [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
restriction sites PstI arid PvuI are [NEET (Oct.) 2020] (a) Eco RI
located within the amp R gene and (b) Adenosine deaminase
BamHl, SaII, etc., are located within the Column I Column II
(c) Thermostable DNA polymerase
tet R gene. The presence of restriction A. Bioreactor (i) Separation of DNA (d) Hind II
sites within the marker genes tet R and fragments
amp R permits an easy selection for cells Ans. (d)
B. Electroph-or (ii) Production of large
transformed with the I recombinant Hind II was the first discovered
esis quantities of products
pBR322. When restriction enzyme endonuclease. It was isolated by Smith
BamHl or SaII is used, the DNA insert is C. PCR (iii) Detection of Wilcox and Kelley (1968) from
placed within the gene tet R making it pathogen, based on Haemophilus influenzae bacterium. It
non-functional. antigen-antibody always cuts bacterium. DNA at particular
reaction point by recognising a specific sequence
If this enzyme is used for inserting a
D. ELISA (iv) Amplification of of six base pairs. It is known as the
gene for β-galactoside production and
nucleic acids recognition sequence for Hind II and
the recombinant plasmid is inserted in reads as 5’-GTC GAC-3’, 3’-CAG CTG-5’.
Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 325
05 Choose the correct pair from the Ans. (a) 10 Following statements describe the
following. [NEET (Sep.) 2020] To facilitate cloning into a vector, the characteristics of the enzyme
vector requires a selectable marker, Restriction Endonuclease. Identify
(a) Polymerases Break the DNA into which helps in identifying and
fragments
eliminating non-transformants and
the incorrect statement.
(b) Nucleases Separate the two [NEET (National) 2019]
selectively permitting the growth of the
strands of DNA transformants. (a) The enzyme binds DNA at specific
(c) Exonucleases Make cuts at specific sites and cuts only one of the two
positions within DNA strands
08 The two antibiotic resistant genes
(b) The enzyme cuts the
(d) Ligases Join the two DNA on vector pBR322 are for
molecules sugar-phosphate backbone at
specific sites on each strand
(a) Ampicillin and Tetracycline (c) The enzyme recognises a specific
Ans. (d)
(b) Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol palindromic nucleotide sequence in
The correct pair is option (d). Rest option
(c) Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline the DNA
can be corrected as
(d) Tetracycline and Kanamycin (d) The enzyme cuts DNA molecule at
The main function of DNA polymerase is identified position within the DNA
to synthesise DNA from Ans. (a)
deoxyribonucleotides, the building The two antibiotic resistance gene on Ans. (a)
blocks of DNA. E.coli cloning vector pBR322 are for The statement about restriction
Nucleases hydrolyse the phosphodiester ampicillin and tetracycline. Cloning enzymes that the enzyme binds DNA at
bonds of DNA and RNA. vectors are DNA molecules that carry a specific sites and cuts only one of the
Exonucleases are a broad class of foreign DNA segment and replicate two strands is incorrect.
enzymes that cleave off nucleotides one inside host cell. Plasmid in E.coli is a These enzymes cut both the strands of
at a time from the 3’ or 5’ ends of DNA cloning vector. DNA helix at specific sites in their sugar
and RNA chains. phosphate backbone. The sequences
09 Match the following enzymes with being recognised by restriction enzymes
06 Identify the wrong statement with their functions are called palindromic sequences which
have same reading frame in both 5’→ 3’
regard to restriction enzymes. Column I Column II and 3’→ 5’ directions. Rest statements
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
1. Restriction i. Joins the DNA are correct.
(a) They cut the strand of DNA at endonuclease fragments
palindromic sites 11 Which of the following is commonly
(b) They are useful in genetic engineering 2. Restriction ii. Extends primers on
exonuclease genomic DNA used as a vector for introducing a
(c) Sticky ends can be joined by using template DNA fragment in human
DNA ligases
(d) Each restriction enzyme functions by
3. DNA ligase iii. Cuts DNA at lymphocytes? [NEET 2018]
specific position (a) λ phage (b) Ti-plasmid
inspecting the length of a DNA
sequence 4. Taq iv. Removes (c) Retrovirus (d) pBR 322
polymerase nucleotides from
Ans. (c) the ends of DNA Ans. (c)
Statement in option (c) is incorrect. It Usually a retrovirus is used as a vector
can be explained as follows. Select the correct option from the for introducing a DNA fragment in human
following. cells. They are used as vector in gene
Restriction endonucleases make cuts at [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
therapy to introduce the desired gene so
specific positions within the DNA known 1 2 3 4 as to replace the functioning of a
as palindromic sites. They function by (a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) defected gene,. e.g. Severe Combined
inspecting the length of a DNA
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Immune Deficiency (SCID) is caused due
sequence. They are used in genetic
engineering to form recombinant
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) to defect in the gene for the enzyme
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) adenosine deaminase.
molecules of DNA.
Ans. (b) In gene therapy against it, lymphocytes
DNA ligases join the DNA fragments.
are extracted from the bone marrow of
The correct matches are
the patient. These are grown in a culture
07 A selectable marker is used to outside the body. A functional ADA
1. Restriction (iii) Cuts DNA at
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] cDNA, using a retroviral vector, is then
endonuclease specific site
(a) help in eliminating the introduced into these lymphocytes.
non-transformants, so that the 2. Restriction (iv) Removes
exonuclease nucleotides from These are reinjected into the patient’s
transformants can be regenerated the ends of DNA bone marrow.
(b) identify the gene for a desired trait in λ-phage allows cloning of DNA
3. DNA ligase (i) Joins the DNA
an alien organism fragments upto
fragments
(c) select a suitable vector for 23 Kb lengths. Ti-plasmid is usually used
transformation in a specific crop 4. Taq polymerase (ii) Extends primars for plants. pBR-322 is an artificial
on genomic DNA cloning vector, usually used for bacteria.
(d) mark a gene on a chromosome for
template.
isolation using restriction enzyme
12 A gene, whose expression helps to bacterial cells and some yeasts. 18 The cutting of DNA at specific
Discovery of plasmid has led to the
identify transformed cells is known locations became possible with the
revolution in biotechnological research.
as [NEET 2017] discovery of [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(a) selectable marker 15 Which of the following is a (a) restriction enzymes
(b) vector (b) probes
restriction endonuclease?
(c) plasmid [NEET 2016, Phase I] (c) selectable markers
(d) structural gene (a) Protease (b) DNase I (d) ligases
Ans. (a) (c) RNase (d) Hind II Ans. (a)
A gene whose expression helps to Ans. (d) Restriction enzymes are DNA cutting
identify transformed cell is known as enzymes found in bacteria. A restriction
Hind II is a restriction endonuclease. enzyme recognises and cuts DNA only at
selectable marker. Usually, the genes
encoding resistance to antibiotics, such Restriction endonucleases are enzymes a particular sequence of nucleotides.
as tetracycline, amphicillin, etc. are used for cutting of DNA at specific For example, the bacterium Haemophilus
useful selectable markers for, e.g. E. locations. aegyptius produces an enzyme named
coli. Concept Enhancer Plasmid pBR 322 HindII was the first restriction Hae III that cuts DNA wherever, it
has two resistance genes; ampicillin endonuclease isolated by Smith Wilcox encounters the sequence.
resistance (amp R ) and tetracyclin and Kelley in 1968. It was found that it 5′–G G C C–3′
resistance (tet R ). These are considered always cut DNA molecules at a particular 3′–C C G G–5′
as useful selectable markers. point by recognising a specific sequence
of six base pairs. 19 The DNA molecule to which the
13 The DNA fragments separated on gene of interest is integrated for
an agarose gel can be visualised 16 Which of the following restriction cloning is called [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
after staining with [NEET 2017] enzymes produces blunt ends? (a) transformer (b) vector
(a) bromophenol blue [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(c) template (d) carrier
(b) acetocarmine (a) Sal I (b) Eco RV
(c) Xho (d) Hind III Ans. (b)
(c) aniline blue
The DNA molecule to which the gene of
(d) ethidium bromide Ans. (b) interest is integrated for cloning is called
Ans. (d) Eco RV is a type II restriction vector. It is a DNA molecule used as a
The DNA fragments separated on an endonuclease isolated from strains of E. vehicle to artificially carry foreign
agarose gel can be visualised after coli. It creates blunt ends. The enzyme genetic material into another cell, where
staining with ethidium bromide. It is recognises the palindromic 6-base DNA it can be replicated and/for expressed. A
intercalating agent and a fluorescent sequence and makes a cut at vertical vector containing foreign DNA is termed
agent. The stained DNA fragments are line. The blunt ends are formed as as recombinant DNA.
seen as bright orange coloured bands ↓
under UV-light. 5′ G – A – T – A – T – C3′ 20 Which vector can clone only a small
Thinking process Intercalation is the 3′ C – T – A – T – A – G 5′ fragment of DNA?
insertion of molecules between the [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
↑
planar bases of DNA. This process is (a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
Coverage site
used as a method for analysing DNA. (b) Yeast artificial chromosome
Intercalation occurs, when ligands of an ↓ Eco RV
5 ′ G − A − T  A − T − C 3′ (c) Plasmid
appropriate size and chemical nature fit
 (d) Cosmid
themselves in between base pairs of 3′ C − T − A   T − A − G 5′
DNA. These ligands are mostly Ans. (c)
Blunt ends
polycyclic, aromatic and planar and Plasmid is a small fragment of DNA
therefore often make good nucleic acid (about 10 Kbp size) that is physically
stains. Intensively studied DNA 17 A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by separate from and can replicate freely of
intercalator include ethidium bromide, the same restriction endonuclease chromosomal DNA within a cell. It can
proflavine, etc. can be joined to form a clone small DNA fragments.
recombinant plasmid using Cosmid—45 Kbp
14 Which of the following is not a [NEET 2016, Phase II] BAC—300-350 Kbp
feature of the plasmids? (a) Eco RI (b) Taq polymerase YAC—1 Mbp/1,000 Kbp-2,500 Kbp)
[NEET 2016, Phase I] (c) polymerase-III (d) ligase
(a) Circular structure 21 Commonly used vectors for human
Ans. (d)
(b) Transferable genome sequencing are
DNA ligases (genetic gum) are used in
(c) Single-stranded [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
recombinant DNA technology to join two
(d) Independent replication individual fragments of double-stranded (a) T-DNA
Ans. (c) DNA by forming phosphodiester (b) BAC and YAC
Plasmid is extrachromosomal, double bonds between them to produce a (c) Expression vectors
stranded, circular DNA, found in recombinant DNA (plasmid). (d) T/A cloning vectors
Ans. (b) (c) Hind III, Eco RI–selectable markers The tRNA is synthesised in the nucleus
Commonly used vector for human genome (d) ampR, tetR–antibiotic resistance on a DNA tempelate. Only 0.025% of
sequencing are BAC (Bacterial Artificial genes total DNA content codes for tRNA.
Chromosome) and YAC. BAC is a DNA Ans. (d)
construct, based on a functional fertility 27 Given below is a sample of portion
ampR and tet R are the antibiotic
plasmid (F plasmid) used for transforming
resistant genes. Ori represents the site
of DNA strand giving the base
and cloning in bacteria (E. coli) and YAC are sequence on the opposite strands.
of origin of replication, rop represents
genetically engineered chromosomes
the proteins that take part in the What is so, special shown in it?
derived from the DNA of the yeast,
replication of plasmid. Hind III, Eco RI are [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(Saccharomyces cerevisiae) which is then
the recognition sites of restriction 5′— GAATTC — 3′
ligated into a bacterial plasma. endonucleases.
3′ — CTTAAG — 5′
22 The colonies of recombinant 24 A single strand of nucleic acid (a) Replication completed
bacteria appear white in contrast (b) Deletion mutation
tagged with a radioactive molecule
to blue colonies of (c) Start codon at the 5′ end
is called [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
non-recombinant bacteria because (d) Palindromic sequence of base pairs
(a) vector
of [NEET 2013] (b) selectable marker Ans. (d)
(a) Non-recombinant bacteria containing (c) plasmid Palindromic DNA is a base sequence of
β-galactosidase (d) probe DNA, which reads the same forward or
(b) Insertional inactivation of backward. It has similar sequence in
α-galactosidase in non-recombinant Ans. (d) both the strands. Different types of
bacteria Probes are 15-30 bases long radioactive palindromic sequences are recognised
(c) Insertional inactivation of labelled oligonucleotides (RNA or DNA) by restriction endonucleases.
α-galactosidase in recombinant used to detect complementary
bacteria nucleotide sequences, used for disease 28 There is a restriction endonuclease
(d) Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in diagnosis, etc. called Eco RI. What does ‘co’ part in
recombinant bacteria it stand for? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Ans. (c)
25 For transformation, microparticles
(a) Colon (b) Coelom
coated with DNA to be bombarded
The colonies of recombinant bacteria (c) Coenzyme (d) Coli
appear white in contrast to blue colonies with gene gun are made up of
of non-recombinant bacteria because of
insertional inactivation of alpha (a) silver or platinum Restriction endonuclease recognises a
galactosidase in recombinant bacteria. (b) platinum or zinc particular palindromic sequence and
Alpha galactosidase is a glycoside degrades the same. It was so, called
(c) silicon or platinum
hydrolase enzyme that hydrolyse the because it restricted the growth of
(d) gold or tungsten
terminal alpha galactosyl moieties from bacteriophage in the bacterium
glycolipids and glycoprotein. It is Ans. (d) (e.g. E. coli). The convention for naming
encoded by the GLA gene. Biolistics or gene gun is a direct or these enzymes is the first letter of the
β-galactosidase is an exoglycosidase, vectorless way used to introduce alien name comes from the bacterial genus;
which hydrolyses theβ-glycosidic bond DNA into host cells. In this method of the second two letters come from the
formed between a galactose and its gene transfer, high velocity species, and the fourth letter from
organic moiety. micro-particles of gold or tungsten, strain, e.g. Eco RI comes from
coated with DNA are bombarded on the Escherichia coli RY13. Roman numbers
plant cells. following the names indicate the order in
23 The given figure is the which the enzymes were isolated.
diagrammatic representation of 26 Which one of the following is a
the E. coli vector pBR322. Which case of wrong matching? 29 Which one of the following is used
one of the given options correctly [CBSE AIPMT 2012] as vector for cloning genes into
identifies its certain component(s)? (a) Somatic hybridisation–Fusion of two higher organisms?
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] diverse cells [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
Eco RI Cla I Hind III (b) Vector DNA – Site for tRNA synthesis (a) Baculovirus
Pvu I (c) Micropropagation – In vitro production (b) Salmonella typhimurium
Bam HI of plants in large numbers (c) Rhizopus nigricans
Pst I
ampR tetR (d) Callus – Unorganised mass of cells (d) Retrovirus
pBR322 Sal I produced in tissue culture
ori rop Ans. (d)
Ans. (b)
Retroviruses are RNA containing animal
Out of the following the statement (b) is viruses that replicate through a DNA
Pvu II wrong because a vector is a DNA intermediate. Retroviruses in animals
molecule used as a vehicle to transfer have the ability to transform normal cells
(a) ori–original restriction enzyme foreign genetic material into desired into cancerous cells. A better
(b) rop–reduced osmotic pressure cell.
understanding of the act of delivering Ans. (c) (a) Bacteriophage transforms in wild
genes by pathogen in these eukaryotic The uptake of foreign DNA or transgenes (b) It is not mutated
hosts has generated knowledge to by plant cells is called transformation. (c) Both strains have similar cistrons
transform these tools of pathogen into
A variety of techniques have been used (d) Both strains have different cistrons
useful vectors for delivering genes of
to introduce transgenes into plant cells,
interest of humans. Retroviruses have Ans. (d)
these can be grouped into the following
been disarmed and are now used to two categories (i) Agrobacterium- The possible reason is that both strains
deliver desirable genes into animal cells. mediated and (ii) direct gene transfers. have different cistron because the
Agrobacterium tumefaciens mediated enzymes required for lysing E. coli could
30 Restriction endonucleases are transformation eliminates the need for not be synthesised by the mutant strain.
enzymes which regeneration from tissue explants. Two different strains had cistrons for
[CBSE AIPMT 2010, 06, 02, 01, 98, 95] synthesising different enzymes which
33 Restriction endonucleases acted together.
(a) make cuts at specific positions within
the DNA molecule [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
(a) are present in mammalian cells for
36 In bacteria, plasmid is
(b) recognise a specific nucleotide [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
sequence for binding of DNA ligase degradation of DNA when the cell dies
(b) are used in genetic engineering for (a) extrachromosomal material
(c) restrict the action of the enzyme DNA (b) main DNA
ligating two DNA molecules
polymerase
(c) are used for in vitro DNA synthesis (c) non-functional DNA
(d) remove nucleotides from the ends of
(d) are synthesised by bacteria as part of (d) repetitive gene
the DNA molecule
their defense mechanism Ans. (a)
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d) Plasmid is a piece of circular DNA
Restriction endonuclease recognises a
Restriction endonucleases are found in molecule (mostly in bacteria but in yeast
specific DNA base sequence
bacteria and are synthesised by bacteria also) which is not part of the normal
(recognition sequence or recognition
as a part of their defense mechanism. chromosomal DNA of a cell, and is
site, restriction sequence or restriction
They function in restricting the capable of replicating independently.
site) and cleaves both the strands of
multiplication of viruses in bacterial cells
DNA at or near that site. The enzyme 37 Plasmid is [CBSE AIPMT 2000, 01]
by cutting up the genetic material of
cuts the DNA, generating restriction
invading virus. (a) fragment of DNA which acts as vector
fragments with overhanging ends or
blunt ends. (b) fragment which joins two genes
34 Manipulation of DNA in genetic (c) mRNA which acts as carrier
engineering became possible due (d) autotrophic fragment
31 The linking of antibiotic resistance to the discovery of
gene with the plasmid vector Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
became possible with A plasmid is a piece of DNA, mostly in
(a) restriction endonuclease
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] bacteria (but also in yeast) not forming a
(b) DNA ligase part of normal chromosomal DNA of a
(a) DNA polymerase (c) transcriptase cell, but capable of replicating
(b) exonucleases (d) primase independently of it. These often act as
(c) DNA ligase vehicles for gene transfer.
Ans. (a)
(d) endonucleases
Manipulation of DNA in genetic 38 Plasmids are suitable vectors for
Ans. (c) engineering became possible due to the gene cloning becauseu
The linking of antibiotic resistance gene discovery of restriction endonuclease. [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
with the plasmid vector became possible These are isolated from bacterial cells,
(a) these are small circular DNA
with the enzyme DNA ligase, which acts and are tools for molecular biologists.
molecules which can integrate with
on cut DNA molecules and joins their Several hundred restriction enzymes are host chromosomal DNA
ends. This makes a new combination of now known, each with a specific (b) these are small circular DNA
circular autonomously replication DNA sequence requirement dictating where it molecules with their own replication
created in vitro and is known as will cut DNA. Therefore, digesting DNA origin site
recombinant DNA. with a restriction enzyme creates a
(c) these can shuttle between
characteristic set of fragments, which
prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells
32 Which one of the following is can be isolated by electrophoresis and
subsequently analysed. (d) these often carry antibiotic
commonly used in transfer of resistance genes
foreign DNA into crop plants? Ans. (b)
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
35 A mutant strain of T4 -bacteriophage
Plasmids replicate autonomously. These
(a) Trichoderma harzianum R-II, fails to lyse the E. coli but when
carry a signal situated at their replication
(b) Meloidogyne incognita two strains R-II x and R-II y are mixed origin which determines how many
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens then they lyse the E. coli. What may copies are to be made and this number
(d) Penicillium expansum be the possible reason? can be artificially increased for cloning a
[CBSE AIPMT 2002] given gene.
39 The process of replication in (a) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella Following are the applications of PCR
plasmid DNA, other than initiation, (b) Escherichia and Agrobacterium The amplification of gene fragments
(c) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter (Gene amplification).
is controlled by [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(d) Rhizobium and Diplococcus The modification of DNA fragments.
(a) mitochondrial gene
Ans. (b) The sensitive detection of pathogenic
(b) bacterial gene microorganisms, if desired followed by
(c) plasmid gene The most important tool in genetic an accurate genotyping. (Molecular
(d) None of the above engineering of plants has been the Ti diagnosis)
plasmid of soil bacterium, Agrobacterium
Ans. (b) DNA analysis of archaeological
tumefaciens. E. coli has also been
specimens.
The process of replication in plasmid extensively used for genetic engineering
DNA, other than initiation, is controlled in animals, like in production of humulin, Proof-reading PCR (PR-PCR) is designed
by bacterial gene. somatotropin, etc. to detect known mutations within
genomic DNA.
40 Which of the following is related to
genetic engineering? TOPIC 2 46 During the purification process for
recombinant DNA technology,
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] Processes of Recombinant addition of chilled ethanol
(a) Mutation (b) Plasmid DNA Technology
(c) Plastid (d) Heterosis precipitates out [NEET 2021]
(a) RNA (b) DNA
Ans. (b) 44 During the process of gene (c) histones (d) polysaccharides
Plasmids are used as vectors in genetic amplification using PCR, if very
engineering. high temperature is not maintained Ans. (b)
in the beginning, then which of the The role of chilled ethanol and
41 Recombinant DNA is obtained by following steps of PCR will be monovalent cation is to remove the
cleaving the pro-DNA by solvation (solvent interface of any
affected first? [NEET 2021]
chemical compound or biomolecule)
(a) primase [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (a) Annealing (b) Extension shell surrounding the DNA and
(b) exonucleases (c) Denaturation (d) Ligation permitting the precipitation of the DNA
(c) ligase in pellet form.
Ans. (c)
(d) restriction endonuclease Ethanol has a lower dielectric constant
Denaturation is first step of PCR that than water, making it to promote ionic
Ans. (d) involves seperation of double-stranded bond formation the Na + (from the salt)
Recombinant DNA is obtained by DNA. The DNA is subjected to heating at and the PO −3 (from the DNA backbone),
cleaving the pro-DNA by restriction high temperature (95ºC). This leads to further, causing the DNA to precipitate.
endonucleases. They can cleave DNA at breaking of hydrogen bonds between
specific base sequences called nucleotides and formation of
restriction sites. single-stranded DNA. Thus, if high
47 Which of the íollowing is a correct
temperature is not maintained, sequence of steps in a PCR
42 Genetic engineering is possible, denaturation will be affected. (Polymerase Chain Reaction) ?
Annealing is second step of PCR which [NEET 2021]
because [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(a) the phenomenon of transduction in involves annealing of primer to DNA (a) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
bacteria is well understood strands. In this step, DNA must be (b) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
cooled to 50ºC. (c) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(b) we can see DNA by electron
microscope Extension, is third step in which taq (d) Annealing, Denaturation, Extension
(c) We can cut DNA at specific sites by polymerase enzyme extends the primers
thus, completing replication of rest of Ans. (a)
endonucleases like DNAs-I
DNA. Ligation is the binding of amplified PCR stands for Polymerase Chain
(d) restriction endonucleases purified
sequence of interest. Reaction. It is a technique in which
from bacteria can be used in vitro
multiple copies of gene of interest is
Ans. (d) 45 Which of the following is not an synthesised using two sets of primers
Genetic engineering is the manipulation application of PCR (Polymerase and the enzyme DNA polymerase. The
of genetic material of an organism using Chain Reaction)? [NEET 2021] correct sequence of steps in a PCR
enzyme restriction endonuclease. (Polymerase Chain Reaction) are
(a) Molecular diagnosis
Nathans and Smith (1970) isolated the Denaturation In which the
(b) Gene amplification
first restriction endonuclease. Jackson, double-stranded template DNA is heated
Symons and Paul Berg (1972) (c) Purification of isolated protein at 95°C to separate it into two single
successfully generated recombinant (d) Detection of gene mutation strands.
DNA molecules in vitro. Ans. (c) Annealing In which the temperature is
lowered to 50°C which enables the DNA
Polymerase Chain Reaction or PCR, is a
43 Two bacteria found to be very technique to make many copies of a
primers to attach to the template DNA.
useful in genetic engineering specific DNA region in vitro (in a test tube Extension/Extending In which the
experiments are [CBSE AIPMT 1998] rather than an organism). temperature is raised and the new
strand of DNA is made by the taq (c) to impart disease-resistance to the in visible light without staining.So, they
polymerase enzyme. host plant are stained with ethidium bromide and
These three stages are repeated 20-40 (d) as selectable markers made observable through UV radiation
times, doubling the number of DNA as bright orange coloured bands.The
Ans. (d) bands are cut out of agarose gel and
copies each time.
In recombinant DNA technology, extracted. The purified DNA fragments
antibiotics are used as selectable are then used in constructing
48 Select the correct statement from markers, which help in identifying and recombinant DNAs by attaching them to
the following. [NEET (Oct.) 2020] eliminating non-transformants and cloning vectors.
(a) Gel electrophoresis is used for selectively permitting the growth of the
amplification of a DNA segment transformants. Normally, the genes 53 Given below are four statements
(b) The polymerase enzyme joins the encoding resistance to antibiotics such pertaining to separation of DNA
gene of interest and the vector DNA as chloramphenicol, ampicillin,
fragments using gel
(c) Restriction enzyme digestions are tetracycline or kanamycin, etc., are
considered useful selectable markers electrophoresis. Identify the
performed by incubating purified DNA
molecules with the restriction for E.coli. incorrect statements.
enzymes of optimum conditions 1. DNA is negatively charged
(d) PCR is used for isolation and 51 Match the following columns and molecule and so it is loaded on
separation of gene of interest select the correct option. gel towards the anode terminal.
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
Ans. (c) 2. DNA fragments travel along the
Statement in option (c) is correct as Column I Column II surface of the gel whose
restriction enzyme digestions are A. Bt cotton 1. Gene therapy concentration does not affect
performed by incubating purified DNA B.Adenosine deaminase 2. Cellular movement of DNA.
molecules with the restriction enzymes deficiency defence 3. Smaller the size of DNA
of optimum conditions. Other statements C. RNAi 3. Detection of fragment larger is the distance
are incorrect and can be corrected as HIV infection it travels through it.
Gel eletrophoresis is used for separation D. PCR 4. Bacillus
and isolation of DNA fragments.
4. Pure DNA can be visualised
thuringiensis
directly by exposing
The polymerase enzyme uses DNA
templates to catalyse polymerisation of A B C D UV-radiation.
deoxynucleotides. (a) 3 2 1 4 Select the correct option from the
PCR is Polymerase Chain Reaction, it is (b) 2 3 4 1 following [NEET Odisha) 2019]
used for amplification of a DNA (c) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
segment. (d) 4 1 2 3 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d) Ans. (d)
49 In a mixture, DNA fragments are
The correct option is (d). It can be Statements (1), (2) and (4) are incorrect
separated by [NEET (Oct.) 2020] explained as follows. because DNA fragments are negatively
(a) bioprocess engineering In Bt cotton the specific Bt toxin gene charged molecules they can be
(b) restriction digestion was isolated from Bacillus thuringiensis. separated by forcing them to move
(c) electrophoresis The first clinical gene therapy was given towards the anode under an electric field
(d) polymerase chain reaction in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with adenosine through a medium/matrix. The
deaminase (ADA) deficiency. concentration of gel does affect the
Ans. (c) resolution of DNA separation.
Electrophoresis is a technique used for RNAi (RNA interference) takes place in all
eukaryotic organisms as a method of The separated DNA fragments can be
the separation of substances of visualised only after staining the DNA
different ionic properties. It is used in cellular defence.
PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV with a compound known as ethidium
RDT to separate the DNA fragments that bromide followed by exposure to UV
are being cut by restriction in suspected AIDS patients.
radiation. Only statement 3 is correct.
endonuclease. In this technique, DNA The DNA fragments spearate (resolve)
fragments are loaded on agarose gel and 52 In gel electrophoresis, separated according to their size through sieving
then electric field is applied. Due to DNA fragments can be visualised effect provided by the agarose gel.
negatively charged, DNA fragments move with the help of [NEET (Sep.) 2020] Hence, the smaller the fragment size,
towards anodes (+ ve charge). the farther it moves.
(a) ethidium bromide in UV radiation
The smaller fragments move farther
away as compared to larger fragments (b) acetocarmine in UV radiation 54 The correct order of steps in
and thus, these get separated. (c) ethidium bromide in infrared radiation Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(d) acetocarmine in bright blue light [NEET 2018]
50 In recombinant DNA technology Ans. (a) (a) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
antibiotics are used In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA (b) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
[NEET Oct.) 2020]
fragments can be visualised with the (c) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(a) to keep medium bacteria-free help of ethidium bromide in UV radiation (d) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(b) to detect alien DNA because DNA fragments cannot be seen
Ans. (d) 56 What is the criterion for DNA 59 Stirred-tank bioreactors have been
The Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) fragments movement on agarose designed for [NEET 2016, Phase II]
involves three basic steps; denaturation, gel during gel electrophoresis? (a) purification of product
annealing and extension. In the [NEET 2017] (b) addition of preservatives to the
denaturation step, DNA is heated at high product
(a) The larger the fragment size, the
temperature (94° C to 96° C) to separate
farther it moves (c) availability of oxygen throughout the
the two strands. In the next step
(b) The smaller the fragment size, the process
(annealing), the two oligo-nucleotide
primers anneal to each single-stranded farther it moves (d) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the
template DNA. (c) Positively charged fragments move to culture vessel
farther end Ans. (c)
This step is carried out at a lower
temperature (d) Negatively charged fragments do not
A stirred tank bioreactor is usually
(40° C to 60° C). The final step is move cylindrical, possessing a stirrer which
extension, wherein Taq DNA Ans. (b) facilitates even mixing of the reactor
polymerase synthesises the Gel electrophoresis is used for the contents and oxygen availability through
DNA region between the primers, using separation of molecules of similar out the bioreactor.
dNTPs (deoxynucleoside triphosphates) electric charge on the basis of their size.
and Mg 2 + ions. Hence, smaller the DNA fragment size
Motor
Region to be amplified the farther it moves. Acid/base
for pH control Foam beaker
Thinking Process Agarose gel matrix
5¢ 3¢
3¢ 5¢ dsDNA functions as sieve. Smaller DNA Flat bladed
Heat Denaturation fragments easily move and larger Steam for impeller
fragments take time to move in gel sterilisation Culture
5¢ 3¢
broth
3¢ 5¢ matrix.
Primers
5¢ 3¢ Annealing
3¢ 5¢ of primers 57 The Taq polymerase enzyme is Sterile air
DNA polymerase obtained from [NEET 2016, Phase I] (a) Simple stirred-tank bioreactor
(Taq polymerase)
+ deoxynucleotides (a) Thiobacillus ferroxidans The bioreactor has an agitator system,
5¢
3¢
3¢
(b) Bacillus subtilis an oxygen delivery system, foam control,
5¢
Extension
(c) Pseudomonas subtilis pH and temperature control systems.
5¢ 3¢ of primers
5¢ Hence, option (c) is correct.
3¢ (d) Thermus aquaticus
30 cycles Increased
Ans. (d)
surface
Amplified Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA area for
(~1 billion times)
polymerase obtained from Thermus oxygen Gas
entrainment
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) : Each cycle aquaticus. Thermus aquaticus is a
has three steps : (i) Denaturation; (ii) bacterium that lives in hot springs and
Primer annealing; and (iii) Extension of hydrothermal vents. Bubbles\
primers dramatically
58 Which of the following is not a increase the
component of downstream oxygen transfer
area
55 The process of separation and processing? [NEET 2016, Phase II] (b) Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor through
purification of expressed protein (a) Separation which sterile air bubbles are sparged
before marketing is called (b) Purification
[NEET 2017] (c) Preservation 60 An analysis of chromosomal DNA
(a) upstream processing (d) Expression using the Southern hybridisation
(b) downstream processing
Ans. (d) technique does not use
(c) bioprocessing
Downstream process is the process of [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(d) postproduction processing.
separation and purification of products (a) electrophoresis (b) blotting
Ans. (b) synthesised in bioreactors. After the (c) autoradiography (d) PCR
The process of separation and completion of biosynthetic stage, the
product has to be subjected through a Ans. (d)
purification of expressed protein before
marketing is called downstream series of processes before it is ready for Southern hybridisation is a technique
processing. marketing as a finished product. used in molecular biology for detection
The processes include separation and of a specific DNA sequence in DNA
In this process, a whole range of
purification, collectively referred to as samples in which except PCR we use all
biochemical separation and purification
downstream processing. The product is three methods such as electrophoresis,
techniques are used such as drying,
then formulated with suitable blotting and autoradiography. PCR is the
chromatography, solvent extraction and
preservatives. Hence, option (d) is method used for the amplification of
distillation. After purification quality
incorrect and all other options are DNA sample. In vitro clonal propagation
control testings are done.
correct. is characterised by PCR and RAPD.
61 In vitro clonal propagation in plants Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is also Ans. (d)
useful in genetic fingerprinting as it can The most common type of aerobic
is characterised by
amplify the DNA sample even if available bioreactor in use today is the
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
in a very small amount. stirred-tank bioreactor, which may
(a) PCR and RAPD
feature a specific internal configuration
(b) Northern blotting 64 Which one is a true statement designed to provide a specific
(c) electrophoresis and HPLC regarding DNA polymerase used in circulation pattern. The stirred tank
(d) microscopy PCR? [CBSE AIPMT 2012] bioreactor have been designed for
Ans. (a) (a) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in availability of oxygen through out the
recipient cells processes.
RAPD (Random Amplified Polymorphic
DNA) is a type of PCR reaction, but the (b) It serves as a selectable marker
segments of DNA that are amplified are (c) It is isolated from a virus 67 Polyethylene glycol method is used
random. Often, PCR is used to amplify a (d) It remains active at high temperature for [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
known DNA sequence like in vitro clonal Ans. (d) (a) biodiesel production
propagation in plants. (b) seedless fruit production
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is used
(c) energy production from sewage
to amplify a DNA segment or to
62 DNA fragments generated by the synthesise in vitro the multiple copies of (d) gene transfer without a vector
restriction endonucleases in a gene (or DNA) of interest, using two sets Ans. (d)
chemical reaction can be of primers and the enzyme DNA Polyethylene glycol method is used for
separated by [NEET 2013] polymerase. This enzyme is isolated gene transfer without a vector.
from a bacterium Thermus aquaticus and Introduction of DNA into plant cells
(a) centrifugation
it remains active during the high without the involvement of a biological
(b) polymerase chain reaction temperature but high temperature
(c) electrophoresis agent and leading to stable
induced denaturation of double stranded transformation is known as direct gene
(d) restriction mapping DNA. transfer. There are various methods for
Ans. (c) direct direct gene transfer, one of which
65 Agarose extracted from sea weeds is chemical method.
DNA fragments generated by the
restriction endonucleases in a chemical
is used in [CBSE AIPMT 2011] Certain chemicals, e.g. PEG
reaction can be separated by (a) spectrophotometry (Polyethylene Glycol), polyvinyl alcohol
electrophoresis. The polymerase chain (b) tissue culture and calcium phosphate enhance the
reaction is simply DNA replication in a (c) PCR uptake of DNA by plant protoplast. PEG
test-tube. Restriction mapping is the (d) gel electrophoresis and calcium phosphate are thought to
process of obtaining structural precipitate the DNA onto the outer
Ans. (d) surface of plasmalemma and the
information on a piece of DNA by the use
For gel electrophoresis the commonly precipitate is taken up by the
of restriction enzymes,
used matrix is agarose which is a natural endocytosis.
e.g. endonucleases that recognise
polymer extracted from seaweeds (e.g.
specific 4-8 base regions of DNA.
Gelidium, Gracilaria, Gigartina, etc.). Gel 68 Gel electrophoresis is used for
electrophoresis is a technique to [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
63 PCR and restriction fragment separate fragments of DNA. Since, DNA (a) construction of recombinant DNA by
length polymorphism are the fragments are negatively charged joining with cloning vectors
methods for [CBSE AIPMT 2012] molecules they can be separated by
(b) isolation of DNA molecules
(a) study of enzymes forcing them to move towards the anode
under an electric field through a (c) cutting of DNA into fragments
(b) genetic transformation (d) separation of DNA fragments
medium/matrix.
(c) DNA sequencing according to their size
(d) genetic fingerprinting 66 Stirred-tank bioreactors have been Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) designed for When genomic DNA extracted from any
PCR and RFLP are methods used for [CBSE AIPMT 2010] tissue of a plant or animal species is
genetic fingerprinting. As Restriction (a) addition of preservatives to the digested with a restriction enzyme, it is
Fragment Length Polymorphism (RFLP) is product cleaved into segments. The segments of
the basis of genetic (or DNA) (b) purification of the product different sizes can be separated through
fingerprinting and is useful in identifying (c) ensuring anaerobic conditions in the gel electrophoresis. Gel electrophoresis
individuals from their semen, blood or culture vessel involves movement of fragments or
tissues or any other DNA sample and (d) availability of oxygen throughout the molecules from a well created on one
resolution of parent hood disputes. process edge of the gel.
34
Biotechnology and
Its Applications
TOPIC 1 02 RNA interference is used for which 04 If an agricultural field is liberally
Applications of of the following purposes in the irrigated for a prolonged period of
Biotechnology field of biotechnology? time, it is likely to face problem of
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
in Agriculture (a) to develop a plant tolerant to abiotic (a) metal toxicity (b) alkalinity
stresses (c) acidity (d) salinity
01 Match the organism with its use in (b) to develop a pest resistant plant
against infestation by nematode Ans. (d)
biotechnology. [NEET (Sep.) 2020] Salinity of soil is a problem faced by
(c) to enhance the mineral usage by the
Column I Column II plant farmers if they liberally irrigate
A. Bacillus 1. Cloning vector (d) to reduce post harvest losses agricultural field for a prolonged period
thuringiensis of time.
Ans. (b) Irrigation salinity is the accumulation of
B. Thermus 2. Construction of RNA interference is used to develop a
aquaticus first rDNA salts in the topsoil under irrigation. It is
pest resistant plant against infestation caused by over irrigation of agricultural
molecule
by nematode. RNA interference takes land, inefficient water use, poor drainage
C. Agrobacterium 3. DNA polymerase place in all eukaryotic organisms as a
tumefaciens and the irrigation of unsuitable and leaky
method of cellular defence. This method soils.
D. Salmonella 4. Cry proteins involves silencing of a specific mRNA
typhimurium due to a complementarydsRNA 05 Which part of the tobacco plant is
molecule that binds to and prevents
Select the correct option. infected by Meloidegyne
translation of the mRNA (silencing).
A B C D incognitia? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(a) 4 3 1 2 03 Bt cotton variety that was (a) Leaf (b) Stem

(b) 3 2 4 1 developed by the introduction of (c) Root (d) Flower
(c) 3 4 1 2 toxin gene of Bacillus thuringiensis Ans. (c)
(d) 2 4 3 1 (Bt) is resistant to Meloidegyne incognitia is a nematode,
Ans. (a) [NEET (Sep.) 2020] which infects roots of tobacco plant and
(a) fungal diseases results in root knot disease.
The correct option is (a). It can be
explained as follows (b) plant nematodes 06 Golden rice is a genetically modified
Bacillus thuringiensis is a source of Cry (c) insect predators crop plant where the incorporated
proteins. (d) insect pests gene is meant for biosynthesis of
Thermus aquaticus is a source of
thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq
polymerase) used in PCR. The correct option is (d). It can be (a) vitamin-B (b) vitamin-C
explained as follows (c) omega 3 (d) vitamin-A
Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a cloning
vector. Bt cotton is resistant to cotton bollworm
Ans. (d)
(insect pest). cry I Ac and cry II Ab genes
The construction of 1st recombinant Golden rice is a variety of rice produced
have been introduced in cotton to
DNA molecule was performed using through genetic engineering to
protect it from cotton bollworm. This
native plasmid of Salmonella biosynthesiseβ-carotene, a precursor of
makes Bt cotton as biopestic.
typhimurium. vitamin-A, in the edible parts of rice.
07 The introduction of tDNA into 10 The process of RNA interference (c) high yield and production of toxic
protein crystals which kill dipteran
plants involves [CBSE AIPMT 2015] has been used in the development of
pests
(a) infection of the plant by plants resistant to (d) high yield and resistance to bollworms
Agrobacterium tumefaciens [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
(b) altering the pH of soil, heat-shocking (a) nematodes (b) fungi Ans. (c)
the plants (c) viruses (d) insects Bacillus thuringiensis forms crystals
(c) exposing the plants to cold for a brief containing a toxic insecticidal protein. Bt
period Ans. (a) toxin protein exists as inactive protein
(d) allowing the plant roots to stand in The process of RNA interference (RNAi) but once an insect ingests the inactive
water has been used in the development of toxin, it is converted into an active form
plants resistant to nematodes like of toxin due to the alkaline pH of the gut,
Ans. (a) Meloidogyne incognitia, which infects the which solubulise the crystals.
Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen roots of tobacco plants and causes a The activated toxin binds to the surface
of several dicot plants is able to deliver great reduction in yield. RNA of midgut epithelial cells and creates
a piece of DNA known as tDNA to interference takes place in all eukaryotic pores that cause cell swelling and lysis
transform normal plant cells into a organisms as a method of cellular and eventually cause death of the insect.
tumour and direct these tumour cells to defense. This method involves silencing Specific Bt toxin genes were isolated
produce the chemicals required by the of a specific mRNA due to a from B. thuringiensis and incorporated
pathogen. complementary dsRNA molecule that into the several plants such as cotton.
binds to and prevents translation of the
The toxin is coded by a gene named cry.
08 Which of the following Bt crops is mRNA (silencing).
There are a number of them, e.g. the
being grown in India by the proteins encoded by the genes cry I Ac
farmers? [NEET 2013]
11 Continuous addition of sugars in and cry II Ab control the cotton
‘fed batch’ fermentation is done to bollworms, that of cry I Ab control corn
(a) Maize (b) Cotton
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] borers.
(c) Brinjal (d) Soyabean
(a) produce methane
Ans. (b) (b) obtain antibiotics 14 A transgenic food crop which may
In India Bt cotton is grown by farmers (c) purify enzymes help in solving the problem of night
extensively. Bt toxin is produced by a (d) degrade sewage blindness in developing countries is
bacterium called Bacillus thuringiensis [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(Bt). Examples of Bt crops are Bt cotton, Ans. (c)
Continuous addition of sugars in fed (a) Bt soyabean
Bt corn, rice, tomato, potato and
soyabean, etc. batch fermentation is done to purify (b) golden rice
enzymes. A fed batch is a (c) flavr savr tomatoes
09 Consumption of which one of the biotechnological batch process which is (d) starlink maize
based on feeding of a growth limiting
following foods can prevent the Ans. (b)
nutrient substrate to a culture.
kind of blindness associated with Vitamin-A deficiency causes night
vitamin-A deficiency? blindness among children. Vitamin-A
12 The Genetically Modified (GM) deficiency often occurs where rice is the
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
brinjal in India has been developed staple food since, rice grain does not
(a) Flavr savr tomato for [CBSE AIPMT 2010] contain β-carotene. Three transgenes
(b) Canolla
(a) insect-resistance providing phytoene synthase, phytoene
(c) Golden rice desaturase, beta carotene desaturase
(b) enhancing self life
(d) Bt brinjal and lycopene cyclase activities were
(c) enhancing mineral content
Ans. (c) transferred into rice by Agrobacterium
(d) drought-resistance mediated transformation. The resulting
Golden rice is a variety of Oryza sativa
Ans. (a) transgenic rice popularly called goldern
(rice) produced through genetic
The genetically modified brinjal or Bt rice contains good quantities of
engineering to biosynthesise
brinjal has the same cry lac gene from β-carotene.
beta-carotene, a precursor of vitamin-A
in the edible part of rice Bacillus thuringiensis as cotton. The Flavr savr is genetically modified
(i.e. endosperm). The research that led gene is supposed to make the plant tomato, which remains fresh and
to golden rice was conducted with the tolerant to the shoot and fruit borer retain their flavour much longer than
goal of helping children who suffer from insect, which attacks it throughout its normal tomato due to the blocking of
vitamin-A deficiency. Because many life cycle. synthesis of fruit softening enzyme
children in countries where there is a polygalacturonase.
dietary deficiency in vitamin-A rely on 13 Some of the characteristics of Bt
rice as a staple food, the genetic cotton are [CBSE AIPMT 2010] 15 Introduction of food plants
modification of rice to produce the developed by genetic engineering
vitamin-A precursor beta-carotene is
(a) long fibre and resistance to aphids
(b) medium yield, long fibre and is not desirable because
seen as a simple and less expensive
alternative to vitamin supplements. resistance to beetle pests (a) economy of developing countries may
suffer
Biotechnology and Its Applications 335
(b) these products are less tasty as Ans. (c) responsible for assessing the safety of
compared to the already existing Statement I, III and IV are correct. introducing genetically modified
products organisms for public use. GEAC comes
Insulin consists of two short polypeptide
(c) this method is costly under the Ministry of Environment and
chains A and B which are linked together
(d) there is danger of introduction Forests (MOE & F) while the Review
by disulphide bridges. In mammals
viruses and toxins with introduced Committee on Genetic Manipulation
insulin is synthesised as pro hormone
crop (RCGM) comes under Department of
which contain an extra stretch called the
C, peptide also called pro-insulin. Biotechnology.
Ans. (a)
C-peptide is removed during maturation The Council of Scientific and Industrial
It is difficult for developing countries to Research (CSIR) is the largest research
into insulin and is not present in mature
keep up and maintain genetically and development organisation in India.
insulin.
engineered crops. Therefore, introduction The Indian Council of Medical Research
of food plants by genetic engineering is Statement II is incorrect and be
corrected as (ICMR) is the apex body in India for the
not desirable for developing countries. formulation, coordination and promotion
It is challenging to produce insulin by
of biomedical research.
using rDNA techniques because it is
Note The name of GEAC is changed to
TOPIC 2 difficult to assemble insulin into its
mature form using rDNA technique. Genetic Engineering Appraisal
Applications of Thus, C- peptide is absent in insulin Committee from Genetic Engineering
Approval Committee in 2010.
Biotechnology in Medicine produced by rDNA technology.
18 Which of the following statements 20. The two polypeptides of human

16 When gene targetting involving is not correct? [NEET (Sep.) 2020] insulin are linked together by
gene amplification is attempted in (a) The proinsulin has an extra peptide [NEET 2016, Phase I]
an individual’s tissue to treat called C-peptide (a) phosphodiester bonds
disease, it is known as [NEET 2021] (b) The functional insulin has A and B (b) covalent bonds
(a) biopiracy chains linked together by hydrogen (c) disulphide bridges
(b) gene therapy bonds (d) hydrogen bonds
(c) molecular diagnosis (c) Genetically engineered insulin is
produced in E-coli Ans. (c)
(d) safety testing
(d) In man, insulin is synthesised as a In humans, insulin is produced byβ-cells
Ans. (b) proinsulin of pancreas. It is synthesised as
Gene therapy is a type of treatment prohormone in which two polypeptides
Ans. (b) are synthesised with an extra stretch of
designed to modify the expression of an
individual's genes or to correct abnormal Statement in option (b) is incorrect 'C' polypeptide. During maturation extra
genes to treat a disease. Gene because stretch of 'C' polypeptide is separated
amplification is common in cancer cells, Insulin is composed of two peptide and two polypeptide chains (A and B) are
and some amplified genes may cause chains referred to as the A chain and B linked together by disulphide linkages
cancer cells to grow or become resistant chain. A and B chains are linked together (bridges).
to anticancer drugs. The presence of by two disulphide bonds, and an
gene amplification can have a additional disulphide is formed within 21 Which kind of therapy was given in
prognostic and a diagnostic value and the A chain. Insulin molecules have a
1990 to a four-year-old girl with
can help in orienting therapy in specific tendency to form dimers in solution due
to hydrogen-bonding between the Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)
tumour types.
C-termini of B chains. deficiency? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
17 With regard to insulin choose the (a) Gene therapy

19 In India, the organisation (b) Chemotherapy
correct options.
responsible for assessing the (c) Immunotherapy
I. C-peptide is not present in safety of introducing genetically (d) Radiation therapy
mature insulin.
modified organisms for public use Ans. (a)
II. The insulin produced by r DNA is [NEET 2018]
technology has C-peptide. The first clinical gene therapy was given
(a) Research Committee on Genetic in 1990 to a 4 years old girl with
III. The pro-insulin has C-peptide. Manipulation (RCGM) Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency.
IV. A-peptide and B-peptide of (b) Council for Scientific and Industrial ADA deficiency is a disorder caused due
insulin are interconnected by Research (CSIR) to the deletion of the gene for adenosine
disulphide bridges. (c) Indian Council of Medical Research deaminase. Gene threapy is the
(ICMR) technique of genetic engineering that
(d) Genetic Engineering Appraisal allows correction of a gene defect that
the options given below. Committee (GEAC) has been diagnosed in child/embryo. In
[NEET 2021]
Ans. (d) this therapy a normal healthy functional
(a) II and IV (b) II and III gene is inserted and the faulty gene is
In India, Genetic Engineering Approval
(c) I, III and IV (d) I and IV Committee, i.e., GEAC (NCERT) is replaced.
22 The first human hormone produced Ans. (a) 28 Exploitation of bioresources of a

by recombinant DNA technology is Severe Combined Immuno Deficiency nation by multinational companies
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] (SCID) caused by Adenosine Deaminase without authorisation from the
(a) insulin (b) estrogen Deficiency (ADA) is the first genetic
disorder to be treated with gene therapy.
concerned country is referred to as
(c) thyroxin (d) progesterone [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
T-cell directed gene transfer was useful
Ans. (a) in the treatment of ADA-SCID, whereas (a) bioweapon (b) biopiracy
The first human hormone produced by the retroviral- mediated gene transfer to (c) bioethics (d) biowar
recombinant DNA technology is insulin. haematopoietic stem cells was
insufficient for achievement of clinical Ans. (b)
It is peptide hormone, which controls the
level of blood sugar. It is formed by benefits. Exploitation of bioresources of a nation
joining of two polypeptide chain by by multinational companies without
disulphide bonds. 26 ELISA is used to detect viruses authorisation from concerned country is
referred to as biopiracy. For example, a
where the key reagent is
23 Human insulin is being patent granted in USA covers the entire
commercially produced from a basmati rice germplasm of our country.
(a) alkaline phosphatase
transgenic species of (b) catalase
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] 29 Exploration of molecular, genetic
(c) DNA probe
(a) Rhizobium (b) Saccharomyces and species level diversity for novel
(d) RNase
(c) Escherichia (d) Mycobacterium products of economic importance
Ans. (a) is known as [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
Ans. (c) Alkaline phosphate is the key reagent
In 1983 an American company Eli Lily (a) biopiracy (b) bioenergetics
used during detection of virus in ELISA
produced the first genetically test. The test work by detecting (c) bioremediation (d) bioprospecting
engineered insulin by first synthesising antibodies/substances or protein which Ans. (d)
two DNA sequences corresponding toα are produced in blood when virus is Exploration of molecular, genetic and
and β insulin chains. The two DNA present. The reagents are used to species level diversity for novel products
sequences or genes were made to fuse provide antibody-antigen complex in a of economic importance is known as
with plasmids of Escherichia coli and specialised ELISA plate. bioprospecting. Biopiracy refers to
later allowed to form insulin chains.
illegal use of bioresources.
Bioremediation is use of organisms to
24 Production of a human protein in TOPIC 3 clean up contamination during waste
bacteria by genetic engineering is
possible because
Transgenic Organisms treatment. Bioenergetics deals with
energy metabolism in living organisms.
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] and Ethical Issuees
(a) bacterial cell can carry out the RNA 30 A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented
splicing reactions by a foreign company, though such
(b) the human chromosome can 27 The laws and rules to prevent
unauthorised exploitation of varieties have been present in India
replicate in bacterial cell
(c) the mechanism of gene regulation is bioresources are termed as for a long time. This is related to
[NEET 2018]
identical in humans and bacteria (a) biopatenting [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
(d) the genetic code is universal (a) Lerma Rojo
(b) bioethics
(b) Sharbati Sonora
Ans. (d) (c) bioengineering (c) Co-667
Production of human protein in bacteria (d) biopiracy
by genetic engineering is possible (d) Basmati
because the genetic code is universal as Ans. (b) Ans. (d)
a codon codes for the same amino acid Bioethics are sets of laws and rules to In 1997, an American company got patent
in all the organisms. prevent unauthorised exploitation of rights on Basmati rice through the US
bioresources. Patent and Trademark office. This ‘new’
25 The genetic defect-Adenosine Biopiracy is the use of bioresources by variety of Basmati had actually been
Deaminase (ADA) deficinecy may multinational companies and other derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
be cured permanently by organisations without proper This ‘new’ variety was produced by
[CBSE AIPMT 2009] authorisation from the countries and crossing Indian Basmati with semi-dwarf
(a) periodic infusion of genetically people concerned without varieties.
engineered lymphocytes having compensatory payment. Biopatenting is Lerma Rojo and Sharbati Sonora are high
functional ADA cDNA patent granted on biological products, yielding varieties of wheat. Co-667 is a
(b) administering adenosine deaminase organisms processes or bioresources. variety of soyabean.
activators Bioengineering is the application of the
(c) introducing bone marrow cells life sciences, physical sciences, 31 Use of bioresources by
producing ADA into cells at early mathematics and engineering principles
multinational companies and
embryonic stages to define and solve problems in biology,
medicine, health care and other fields. organisations without authorisation
(d) enzyme replacement therapy
Biotechnology and Its Applications 337
from the concerned country and its Toxicity testing in such animals will allow Reporter genes or screenable genes are
people is called [NEET 2018]
us to obtain results in less time. a number of marker genes which are
commonly used in plant transformation,
(a) biodegradation e.g. cat, lux, npt II, gus, etc.
34 An improved variety of transgenic
(b) biopiracy
basmati rice [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(c) bio-infringement
(a) does not require chemical fertilisers
37 The Ti plasmid, is often used for
(d) bioexploitation and growth hormones making transgenic plants. This
Ans. (b) (b) gives high yield and is rich in plasmid is found in
Biopiracy is referred to the use of vitamin-A [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
bioresources by multinational (c) is completely resistant to all insect (a) Azotobacter
companies and other organisations pests and diseases of paddy (b) Rhizobium of the roots of leguminous
without proper authorisation from the (d) gives high yield but has no plants
countries and people concerned without characteristic aroma
compensatory payment. Bio-infringement (c) Agrobacterium
is the commission of a prohibited act Ans. (b) (d) Yeast as a 2 µm plasmid
with respect to a patented invention Golden rice (transgenic basmati rice) is a Ans. (c)
without permission from the patent variety of Oryza sativa produced through
holder. Bio-exploitation means taking genetic engineering to biosynthesise A segment (T-DNA) of tumour-inducing
advantage of biological resources of beta-carotene, a precursor of plasmid (T1 ) can be transformed from the
other country without permission. provitamin-A in the edible parts of rice. bacterium Agrobacterium to plant cells
Biodegradation is biological breakdown of The research that led to golden rice was at a wound site. This Ti-plasmid is often
organic material by bacteria, fungi, etc. conducted with the goal of helping for developing transgenic plants.
children who suffer from vitamin-A
32 Maximum number of existing deficiency in poor countries. Golden rice 38 Producing a giant mouse in the
transgenic animals is of has been bred to be especially laboratory was possible through
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
disease-resistant, resulting in better [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
crop yields.
(a) fish (b) mice (a) gene mutation
(c) cow (d) pig 35 Transgenic plants are the ones (b) gene manipulation
Ans. (b) [CBSE AIPMT 2009] (c) gene synthesis
(a) generated by introducing foreign DNA (d) gene duplication
Over 95% of all existing transgenic
animals are mice. Animals that have into a cell and regenerating a plant Ans. (b)
their DNA manipulated to possess and from that cell Transgenic mice (of much larger size
express an extra (foreign) gene are (b) produced after protoplast fusion in than the normal) have been produced in
known as transgenic animals, e.g. rats, artificial medium the laboratory by gene manipulation
rabbits, pig, sheep, cows, fish, etc. (c) grown in artificial medium after (transfer of genes to fertilised eggs as
hybridisation in the field well as to stem cells).
33 Genetic engineering has been (d) produced by a somatic embryo in 39 The first successfully cloned
successfully used for producing artificial medium
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
mammals (animal) that gained
Ans. (a) worldwide publicity was
(a) transgenic mice for testing safety of
The plants obtained through genetic [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
polio vaccine before use in humans engineering contain a gene or genes
(b) transgenic models for studying new (a) Molly (a sheep) (b) Polly (a sheep)
usually from an unrelated organism,
treatments for certain cardiac such genes are called transgenes and (c) Chance (a bull) (d) Dolly (a sheep)
diseases the plants containing transgenes are Ans. (d)
(c) transgenic cow-Rosie which produces known as transgenic plants. These Dolly (a sheep) was the first successfully
high fat milk for making ghee plants are often called as genetically cloned mammal that gained worldwide
(d) animals like bulls for farm work as modified or GM crops, e.g. Flavr savr publicity.
they have super power tomatoes, golden rice. Plants are made
transgenic for identification, expressing 40 The transgenic animals are those
Ans. (a) the gene activity in time, to produce which have [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
Genetic engineering has been several chemicals like fatty acids,
successfully used for producing sugars, cellulose, rubber, etc. (a) foreign DNA in some of its cells
transgenic mice which are being (b) foreign DNA in all its cells
developed for use in testing the safety of 36 In transgenics, expression of (c) foreign RNA in all its cells
vaccines before they are used on transgene in target tissue is (d) DNA and RNA both in the cells
humans. Transgenic mice are being used determined by [CBSE AIPMT 2004] Ans. (b)
for testing toxicity of drugs. Transgenic (a) enhancer (b) transgene
animals are made to carry genes, which Transgenic animals have foreign DNA in
(c) promoter (d) reporter all its cells. The animals which carry
make them more sensitive to toxic
substances than non-transgenic Ans. (d) foreign genes are called transgenic
animals. The foreign genes are inserted
animals. In transgenics, expression of transgene into the genome of animals using
They are then exposed to the toxic in target tissue is determined by recombinant DNA technology or gene
substances and the effects studied. reporter. manipulation.
35
Organisms and
Population
TOPIC 1 Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
Ecology Keystone species of an ecosystem is a
species that exerts an important
Xeric environment is characterised by
low atmospheric humidity. This
regulatory effect on other species in environment is found in deserts.
01 Niche is [NEET 2018] the community, i.e. contributes to
(a) the range of temperature that the ecosystems properties. It maintains
higher species diversity in a community 07 Study of inter-relationships
organism needs to live between living organisms and
by reducing the densities of strong
(b) the physical space where an competitors. their environment is
organism lives [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(c) all the biological factors in the 04 Niche of a species in an
(a) Ecology
organism’s environment ecosystem refers to its
(d) the functional role played by an [CBSE AIPMT 1996] (b) Ecosystem
organism where it lives (a) function at its place of occurrence (c) Phytogeography
(b) place of its occurrence (d) Ethology
Ans. (d)
Niche is an ecological component of (c) competitive ability Ans. (a)
habitat which is delimited by (d) centre of origin Study of inter relationship between
functioning of an organism. A species Ans. (a) living organisms and their environment
may live in more than one niche in Niche word is used for the functional is called as Ecology. Ecology may be
diferent stages of its life cycle. role of species or population that it called environmental biology.
plays in its ecosystem.
02 Which one of the following pairs is 08 The sum total of the population of
mismatched? [CBSE AIPMT 2005] 05 Tropical forests occur in India the same kind of organisms
(a) Savanna — Acacia trees [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
constitute [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
(b) Prairie — Epiphytes (a) Jammu and Kashmir
(a) colony
(c) Tundra — Permafrost (b) Rajasthan
(c) Kerala and Assam (b) genus
(d) Coniferous forest — Evergreen
trees (d) The forests do not occur in India (c) community
Ans. (c) (d) species
Ans. (b)
Prairies contain tall grasses and shrubs Tropical forest occur in India in Assam, Ans. (d)
Western Ghats and Western Himalayas. Species is a group of organisms similar
(a) Savanna —Acacia trees
Major vegetation made of sal (Shorea in structure, function and behaviour.
(b) Tundra —Permafrost robusta), shrubs, grasslands and desert
(c) Coniferous forest—Evergreen trees community in the regions of decreasing
rainfall. 09 What is true for individuals of
03 Keystone species in an ecosystem same species?
are those which [CBSE AIPMT 1997] 06 Xeric environment is characterised [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
by [CBSE AIPMT 1994] (a) Live in same niche
(a) are present in maximum number
(b) are most frequent (a) precipitation (b) Live in same habitat
(c) attain a large biomass (b) low atmospheric humidity (c) Interbreeding
(d) contribute to ecosystem properties (c) extreme of temperature (d) Live in different habitats
(d) high rate of vapourisation
Organisms and Population 339
Ans. (c) TOPIC 2 factors. What do (i), (ii) and (iii)

According to the biological concept of
Ecological Factors represent respectively?
species. Species is a group of [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
organisms which can interbreed freely (ii)
in nature and produce fertile offsprings. 13. Match the organisms in Column I
with habitats in Column II (i)
Internal level
10 Which part of the world has high [NEET (Odisha) 2019] (iii)
density of organisms?
[CBSE AIPMT 1999] Column I Column II
(a) Deciduous forests 1. Halophiles i. Hot springs
(b) Grasslands External level
2. Thermoacidophiles ii. Aquatic
(c) Savannas environment (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) Tropical rain forests
3. Methanogens iii. Guts of (a) Conformer Regulator Partial
Ans. (d) ruminants regulator
The tropical rain forests are most 4. Cyanobacteria iv. Salty area (b) Regulator Partial Conformer
diverse and highly dense with maximum regulator
productivity (approximately 12000 kcal/
m2 /yr). Select the correct option from the (c) Partial regulator Conformer
regulator
following
11 An association of individuals of 1 2 3 4 (d) Regulator Conformer Partial
regulator
different species living in the (a) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
same habitat and having (b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Ans. (d)
functional interactions is (c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
In the given diagrammatic
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] (d) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) representation of response of
(a) ecological niche Ans. (a) organisms to abiotic factors
(b) biotic community The correct match of organisms with (i) Regulator Some organisms are
(c) ecosystem their habitats are able to maintain homeostasis by
(d) population Halophiles live in salty areas physiological (sometimes
behavioural also) means which
Ans. (b) Thermoacidophiles live in hot springs
ensures constant body
An association of individuals of Methanogens live in guts of ruminants temperature, constant osmotic
different species living in the same Cyanobacteria live in aquatic concentration, etc. They are
habitat and having functional environment known as regulators.
interaction is called biotic community (ii) Conformer Most animals and
(biocoenosis). The biotic community is 14 It is much easier for a small plants cannot maintain a constant
dominated by one of the character. It animal to run uphill than for a large internal environment. Their body
determines the nature of community. It temperature changes with the
can be biotic or abiotic.
animal, because
[NEET 2016, Phase I] ambient temperature. These
animals and plants are simply
12 Competition for light, nutrients (a) smaller animals have a higher
called conformer.
metabolic rate
and space is most severe (iii) Partial regulator During the course
(b) small animals have a lower O 2
between [CBSE AIPMT 1988] of evolution, the costs and
requirement benefits of maintaining a constant
(a) closely related organisms growing (c) the efficiency of muscles in large internal environment are taken
in different niches animals is less than in the small into consideration. Some species
(b) closely related organisms growing animals have evolved the ability to regulate
in the same area/niche (d) it is easier to carry a small body but only over a limited range of
(c) distantly related organisms weight environmental conditions, beyond
growing in the same habitat which they simply conform. They
Ans. (a) are partial regulators.
(d) distantly related organisms
growing in different niches Basal metabolic rate is inversely
proportional to body size. So, smaller 16 Consider the following four
Ans. (b) animals have a higher metabolic rate,
Niche word was used for the first time thus have quick and more energy statements (I-IV) about certain
by Joseph Grinnel (1917). Niche means required to go up the hills. desert animals such as kangaroo
functional role of an organism in an rat.
ecosystem. Competition becomes most 15 The figure given below is a I. They have dark colour and high
severe between the closely related diagrammatic representation of
organisms which share same niche.
rate of reproduction and
response of organisms to abiotic excrete solid urine.
II. They do not drink water, (c) Chernozems — Richest soil in the these make gaseous exchange possible
breathe at a slow rate to world for submerged roots. These are found
(d) Black soil — Rich in calcium in plants growing in marshes or saline
conserve water and have their
carbonate swamps.
body covered with thick hairs.
III. They feed on dry seeds and do Ans. (d) 22 Temperature changes in the
not require drinking water. Black soil is dark or dark brown in environment affect most of the
IV. They excrete very colour. It is formed from basaltic rock
animals which are
under semi-arid condition. Black soil is
concentrated urine and do not [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
logically known as regur or black cotton
use water to regulate body soil. Black soil is deficient in nitrogen (a) homeothermic
temperature. and phosphorus and rich in potash and (b) aquatic
Which two of the above lime and not in calcium carbonate. (c) poikilothermic
statements for such animals are (d) desert living
true? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
19 In which one of the following Ans. (c)
(a) III and I (b) I and II
habitats does the diurnal
Poikilothermy (cold bloodedness) is a
(c) III and II (d) II and III temperature of soil surface vary condition of any animal whose body
most? [CBSE AIPMT 2004] temperature fluctuates considerably
Ans. (c)
(a) Shrubland (b) Forest with that of its environment.
Kangaroo rat feeds on dry seeds. It Homeothermy, on the other hand, is the
seldom drinks water. The requirement (c) Desert (d) Grassland
quality of maintaining a constant body
of water is met by food (10%) and Ans. (c) temperature.
metabolic water (90%). Water loss is Deserts have a very hot days and very
prevented by living in burrows during cold nights. Due to the bare plant cover, 23 Extremities, tail and ear are
the day, concentration of urine and the soil of desert is much more exposed relatively shorter in animals living
solidification of faeces. It has a thick to these fluctuations as compared to
coat to minimise evaporative in cooler regions as compared to
that of other areas. During day time, the
desiccation. those inhabiting warmer zones.
soil becomes hot and in night it
frequently, becomes cool. This is [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
17. Annual migration does not occur (a) Bergman’s rule
in the case of [CBSE AIPMT 2006] 20 Diffuse porous woods are (b) Jordan’s rule
(a) salmon (b) siberian crane characteristic of plants growing in (c) Gloger’s rule
(c) salamander (d) arctic fern [CBSE AIPMT 2003] (d) Allen’s rule
Ans. (c) (a) temperate climate Ans. (d)
(b) tropics According to Allen’s rule, extremities,
Salamander is semiterrestrial lizard-like
tailed amphibian that lives under (c) alpine region tail and ear are relatively shorter in
stones, logs and inside cervices. They (d) cold winter regions animals living in cooler regions as
show hibernation not annual migration. compared to those inhabiting warmer
Ans. (b)
Salmon are anadromous, i.e. they zones.
In tropics, there is no sharp distinction
spend their adult lives at sea but return between the seasons, hence, there is
to freshwater to spawn. The pacific
24 Desert plants are generally
not much difference in the activity of [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
species is legandry : after migrating cambium. In a diffused porous wood,
down stream as a smolt a sockeye (a) viviparous (b) succulent
the large sized vessels are distributed
salmon ranges many hundreds of mile through spring wood and autumn wood, (c) herbaceous (d) heterophyllus
over the pacific for nearly four year and e.g. Syzygium cumini. Ans. (b)
then returns to spawn in the head
waters of its parent stream. Desert plants are generally succulents
21 Special kinds of roots called or fleshy xerophytes, They are referred
Migration is characteristic feature of
pneumatophores are as drought resisting xerophytes, e.g.
birds. Arctic tern travels about 1100 Opuntia, Bryophyllum, Euphorbia,
miles during winter and returns back characteristics of the plants
Mesembryanthemum (ice plant).
during summer. growing in [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
(a) sandy soils 25 Sunken stomata is the characteristic
18 In which one of the following pair (b) saline soils feature of [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
is the specific characteristic of (c) marshy places and salt lakes (a) hydrophyte (b) mesophyte
soil not correctly matched? (d) dryland regions (c) xerophyte (d) halophyte
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Ans. (c) Ans. (c)
(a) Laterite — Contains aluminium Pneumatophores are specialised roots
compound Sunken stomata is the characteristic
which grow vertically upwards into the feature of xerophytes, these stomata
(b) Terra rossa — Most suitable for air from roots embedded in the mud. are found generally on the lower
roses Since, they are loosely constructed, surface of leaves.
26 Which of the following does not (c) rich in iron, calcium and magnesium Ans. (b)
have stomata? [CBSE AIPMT 1995] (d) recent formation The principle of competitive exclusion
(a) Hydrophytes Ans. (b) was postulated by Soviet ecologist G F
Gause. It states that if two species are
(b) Mesophytes Dark colour of soil is due to
competing with one another for the
(c) Xerophytes accumulation of leached organic
same limited resources, then one of the
(d) Submerged hydrophytes substances and organic matter which
species will be able to use that resource
serves as a reservoir of nutrients and
Ans. (d) more efficiently than the other and the
water in the soil, aids in reducing
former will, therefore, eventually
Sub-merged hydrophytes are those compacting and surface crusting and
eliminate the latter locally.
plants which live completely inside the increases water infiltration into the soil.
water, so there is no need of
transpiration that’s why these plants do
35 In which of the following plant
31 River water deposits sunken stomata are found?
not have stomata, e.g. Utricularia,
Ceratophyllum. [CBSE AIPMT 1992] [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(a) loamy soil (b) alluvial soil (a) Nerium (b) Hydrilla
27 Animals that can tolerate a (c) laterite soil (d) sandy soil (c) Mango (d) Guava
narrow range of salinity are
Ans. (b) Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
River water deposits are found in Presence of sunken stomata is an
(a) stenohaline (b) euryhaline adaptive feature of xerophytic plants.
alluvial soil. It is rich in nutrients and
(c) anadromous (d) catadromous may contain heavy metals. These soils These stomata are partially covered by
Ans. (a) are formed when streams and rivers hairs and cuticle. Sunken stomata are
Animals that can tolerate only a small slow their velocity and suspended soil found in Nerium to check the
range of salinity are stenohaline. particles gets deposited on the river transpiration.
bed. Mango is a mesophytic plant.
28 Soil best suited for plant growth is Hydrilla is a hydrophytic plant.
[CBSE AIPMT 1993] 32 Deep black soil is productive due Guava is also a mesophytic plant.
(a) clay (b) loamy to high proportion of
(c) sandy (d) gravel [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
Ans. (b) (a) sand and zinc TOPIC 3

(b) gravel and calcium
Loamy soil containing about 1 part clay,
(c) clay and humus
Population
2 parts silt and 2 parts sand (20% clay,
40% silt and 40% sand) is best for plant (d) silt and earthworm
growth because it possesses good
36 Inspite of interspecific
Ans. (c) competition in nature, which
aeration, sufficient nutritive salts and
good water retaining capacity. Black soil is productive due to the high mechanism the competing
proportion of clay and humus, because
most of the minerals are present in it.
species might have evolved for
29 Soil particles determine its their survival ?
(a) texture [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
33 CAM helps the plants in [NEET 2021]
(b) field capacity [CBSE AIPMT 2011] (a) Resource partitioning
(c) water holding capacity (a) secondary growth (b) Competitive release
(d) soil flora (b) disease resistance (c) Mutualism
Ans. (a) (c) reproduction (d) Predation
Soil particles determine its texture. The (d) conserving water Ans. (a)
behaviour of water in the ground is Resource partitioning is the
Ans. (d)
influenced by the type of soil present. phenomenon where division of limited
Soils are classified according to their CAM plants are mostly succulent
xerophytes. The stomata in these resources occurs by species to help
particle size as follows: avoid interspecific competition in an
plants remain closed during the day.
(i) Gravel – 2 mm – 75 mm ecological niche. If two species
This helps to check the transpiration. In
(ii) Sand – 0.05 mm – 2 mm this way, water is conserved. compete for the same resource, they
(iii) Silt – 0.002 mm – 0.05 mm could avoid competition by choosing,
for instance, different times for feeding
(iv) Clay – less than 0.002 mm 34 Two different species cannot live
or different foraging patterns. Thus, we
for long duration in the same can say inspite of interspecific
30 A fertile agricultural soil appears
niche or habitat. This law is competition in nature, competing
dark coloured at the surface as [CBSE AIPMT 2002] species evolved a mechanism called
compared to soil one metre down. resource partitioning for their survival.
(a) Allen’s law
The reason for colour of top soil is Other options can be explained as:
[CBSE AIPMT 1992]
(b) Gause’s hypothesis
(c) Dollo’s rule Competitive release occurs when one
(a) more moisture or two species competing for the same
(d) Weismann’s theory
(b) rich in organic matter resource disappears, thereby allowing
the remaining competitor to utilize the destroyed or inhibited, and other 41 According to Alexander von
resource more fully than it could in the remains unaffected. Hence, it is Humboldt [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
presence of the first species. represented as Species A (−); Species B
(a) species richness decreases with
Mutualism is the interaction that confers (0).
increasing area of exploration
benefits on both the interacting species.
(b) species richness increases with
Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic 39 Match the items in Column I with
relationship between a fungus and
increasing area, but only up to
those in Column II. limit
photosynthesising algae or cyanobacteria. [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
Both the species benefit in mutualism and (c) there is no relationship between
both lose in competition in their Column I Column II species richness and area
interactions with each other. In both explored
A. Herbivores-Plants (i) Commensalism
parasitism and predation only one (d) species richness goes on
species benefits (parasite and predator, B. Mycorrhiza-Plants (ii) Mutualism increasing with increasing area of
respectively) and the interaction. exploration
C. Sheep-Cattle (iii) Predation
Ans. (b)
37 In the exponential growth D. Orchid-Tree (iv) Competition
Alexander von Humboldt was a German
equation N t = N 0 e rt , e represents naturalist and geographer. He proposed
[NEET 2021] Select the correct option. that within a region, species richness
(a) the base of number logarithms A B C D increases with increasing explored
(b) the base of exponential logarithms (a) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii) area, but only up to a limit.
(c) the base of natural logarithms (b) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i) Accordingly, the relation between
(d) the base of geometric logarithms (c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv) species richness and area for a wide
(d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii) variety of taxa turn out to be
Ans. (c)
rectangular hyperbola. The relationship
When resources in the habitat are Ans. (b)
appears as a straight line on logarithmic
unlimited, each species has the ability Option (b) is correct match, which is as scale and described by the equation :
to realise fully its innate potential to follows log S = log C = Z log A
grow in number, as Darwin observed The relationship between herbivores Where, S–Species richness, A–Area
while developing his theory of natural and plants is prey-predator type in which
selection. Then the population grows in Z–Regression coefficient,
herbivores are predators and plants are
an exponential or geometric fashion. C–Y-Intercept.
the prey.
The integral form of the exponential In mycorrhiza plants association, both 42 Which of the following is not an
growth can be represented by equation species are benefited and thus it attribute of a population?
as represents mutualism. The sheep and [NEET (Sep.) 2020]
N t = N 0ert cattle show competition for common (a) Natality
where, resources like food, i.e. grass.
(b) Mortality
N t = Population density after timet Orchid are epiphytes which grow on (c) Species interaction
N 0 = Population density at time zero trees and derive nutrients from it. In (d) Sex ratio
r = intrinsic rate of natural increase this process, trees are neither harmed
nor helped. Thus, it is type Ans. (c)
e = the base of natural logarithms.
commensalism relationship. Species interaction is not an attribute
In exponential growth, a population's of a population. Rest Natality (Birth
per capita (per individual) growth rate 40 The impact of immigration on rate), Mortality (Death rate) and Sex radio
stays the same regardless of population
population density is are population attributes.
size, making the population grow faster
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
and faster as it gets larger. 43 Secondary metabolites such as
(a) negative
nicotine, strychnine and caffeine
38 Amensalism can be represented (b) Both positive and negative
are produced by plants for their
as [NEET 2021]
(c) neutralised by natality
[NEET (Sep.) 2020]
(d) positive
(a) species A (−) : species B (0) (a) growth response
(b) species A (+) : species B (+) Ans. (d) (b) defence action
(c) species A (−) : species B (−) Population density is the member of (c) effect on reproduction
(d) species A (+) : species B (0) individuals present per unit area or
(d) nutritive value
volume at a given time. It is calculated
Ans. (a) by the formula D = N /S, whereD = Ans. (b)
Amensalism is the relationship between Density, N = Total number of individuals A wide variety of chemical substances
two organisms, where one is hurt. and S = Number of units of space. Since (i.e. secondary metabolites) that we
A prime example of amensalism is immigration increases the number of extract from plants on a commercial
penicillin killing bacteria. The bread individuals in an area, population scale (nicotine, caffeine, quinine,
mould Penicillium secretes penicillin density increase. Thus, immigration has strychnine, opium, etc) are produced by
that ultimately kills bacteria. In this them (plants) as defence against
positive impact on population density.
contact between two organisms, one is grazers and browsers.
44 Between which among the (c) Fungal component of lichens is A B C D

following, the relationship is not called phycobiont (a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
an example of commensalism? (d) Lichens are not good pollution (b) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] indicators (c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(a) Orchid and the tree on which it Ans. (a) (d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
grows (a) Statement (a) is correct. Lichens Ans. (c)
(b) Cattle egret and grazing cattle do not grow in polluted area. Rest A)–(ii), (B)–(iii) , (C)–(iv) (D)–(i)
statements are incorrect. Saprophytes are decomposers which
(c) Sea anemone and clown fish
The correct forms of the help in the decomposition of dead
(d) Female wasp and fig species
statements are as follows organic material, e.g. Agaricus. Parasites
Ans. (d) (b) Algal component of lichens is are the entitites which live on other living
Among the given examples, relationship called phycobiont. plants or animals and derive nutrition
between wasp and fig species does not from them, e.g. tapeworm in humans.
(c) Fungal component of lichens is Lichens represent symbiotic
show commensalism. In this called mycobiont.
relationship, one species derives the association between algae and fungi.
(d) Lichens are good pollution Mycorrhiza is symbiotic association of
benefit and other neither harmed nor
indicators. fungi and plant roots.
benefitted.
Wasp and fig tree show mutualism.
Here fig flower is pollinated by wasp and
47 Pinus seed cannot germinate and 49 Which one of the following plants
wasp lays its egg into fruit and leaves establish without fungal shows a very close relationship
them there for development. association. This is because with a species of moth, where
Other options show examples of [NEET (National) 2019] none of the two can complete its
commensalism. (a) it has obligate association with life cycle without the other?
mycorrhizae [NEET 2018]
45 Carnivorous animals-lions and (b) it has very hard seed coat (a) Banana (b) Yucca
leopards, occupy the same niche (c) its seeds contain inhibitors that (c) Hydrilla (d) Viola
but lions predate mostly larger prevent germination
(d) its embryo is immature Ans. (b)
animals and leopards take smaller
Yucca gloriosa has developed an
ones. This mechanism of Ans. (a)
obligate symbiotic relationship with
competition is referred to as Pinus has an obligate association with
Pronuba yuccasella moth. The moth
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] mycorrhizae due to which the Pinus
cannot complete its life cycle with the
seeds are unable to germinate and
(a) character displacement association of Yucca flowers and in turn
establish in the absence of fungal
(b) altruism partner. Yucca has no other pollinator.
(c) resource partitioning Hydrilla is a hydrophilous plant while
Fungus or mycorrhizae help the Pinus
(d) competitive exclusion Viola is an entomophilous plant.
roots to absorb water and minerals by
Bananas are usually parthenocarpic
Ans. (c) increasing their surface area. In turn,
fruits. Therefore, they do not require
Carnivorous animals, lions and leopard, the fungus derives food from the plant.
pollination.
occupy the same niche but lion Concept Enhancer The female moth
predates mostly larger animals and 48 Match Column I with Column II. visits the Yucca flowers at night and
leopard takes smaller ones. This is collects pollen in the form of balls. The
Column I Column II
called resource partitioning. It is a moth, then inserts its ovipositor into
mechanism in which there is the A. Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic ovary of the flower to lay eggs. The
division of limited resources by species association of temperature of the ovary is suitable for
to help avoid competition in an fungi with plant
hatching of Pronuba’s eggs and works
ecological niche. In any environment, roots
as an incubator. After that, it climbs to
organisms compete for limited the top of the style and pushes the
B. Parasite (ii) Decomposition of
resources, so organisms and different dead organic pollen ball into stylar canal. Thus,
species have to find ways to coexist materials pollination occurs. Some seeds are
with one another. That is why lions eaten by larvae which escape after
predate mostly larger animals and C. Lichens (iii) Living on living
piercing the ovary wall.
leopards take smaller ones. plants or animals
D. Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic 50 Natality refers to [NEET 2018]
46 Which of the following statements association of
algae and fungi (a) number of individuals leaving the
is correct? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
habitat
(a) Lichens do not grow in polluted (b) birth rate
areas
the option given below: (c) death rate
(b) Algal component of lichens is [NEET (National) 2019] (d) number of individuals entering a
called mycobiont habitat
Ans. (b) Whereas, the equal number of and obtained in turn, nutrients from
Natality is birth rate. It refers to the reproductive and pre-reproductive plants. Concept Enhancer
number of births during a given period individuals represents a stable Amensalism is an interaction between
in the population that are added to the population and the age pyramid is different species, in which one species
initial density. bell-shaped. is harmed and other is neither
Death rate is termed as mortality. It Less number of pre-reproductive benefitted nor harmed, e.g. Penicillium.
refers to the number of deaths in the individuals than reproductive
Antibiosis It is an antagonistic
population during a given period. individuals represents declining
association between two or more
Immigration is the number of population and age pyramid appears
organism, in which one is adversely
individuals of the same species that urn-shaped. The similar case is seen
when reproductive individuals are less affected, e.g. antibiosis includes the
have come into the habitat, on the relationship between antibiotic and
other hand emigration is the number of than the post-reproductive individuals.
bacteria.
individuals of the population who left
53 Asymptote in a logistic growth Fungistasis inhibits the growth of fungi.
the habitat.
curve is obtained, when 55 Gause’s principle of competitive
51 Which one of the following [NEET 2017]
population interactions is widely exclusion states that
(a) The value of ‘r’ approaches zero
used in medical science for the (b) K = N
(a) Competition for the same
production of antibiotics? (c) K > N
resources excludes species
[NEET 2018] (d) K < N having different food preferences
(a) Parasitism (b) Mutualism Ans. (b) (b) No two species can occupy the
(c) Commensalism (d) Amensalism When K = N in a logististics growth same niche indefinitely for the
Ans. (d) curve, it is asymptote. same limiting resources
Amensalism is widely used in medical It means a population growing in a (c) Larger organisms exclude smaller
science for the production of habitat with limited resources show ones through competition
antibiotics. initially a lag phase, followed by phase (d) More abundant species will
It involves, the secretion of chemicals of acceleration and deceleration and exclude the less abundant species
called allochemics by one microbial finally an asymptote, i.e. when the through competition
group to harm other microbes, e.g., population density (N ) reaches the
carrying capacity (K ) Ans. (b)
Penicillium secretes chemicals to
Gause’s principle of competitive
Population density (N)
inhibit the growth of Staphylococcus exclusion states that no two species

bacteria. These chemicals can be used K
can occupy the same niche indefinitely
in medical science for the production of
for the same limiting resources
antibiotics. On the other hand, no such
dN
chemicals are secreted in parasitism, = rN K–N
mutualism and commensalism.
dt K 56 When does the growth rate of a
population following the logistic
52 In a growing population of a Time (t)
model equal zero? The logistic
country, [NEET 2018] model is given as dN/dt = rN(l-N/K)
(a) reproductive and Population growth curve is logistic, [NEET 2016, Phase I]
pre-reproductive individuals are when responses are limiting the (a) when N nears the carrying
equal in number growth, capacity of the habitat
(b) reproductive individuals are less here K is carrying capacity andN is (b) when N/K equals zero
than the post-reproductive population density. (c) when death rate is greater than
individuals birth rate
(c) pre-reproductive individuals are 54 Mycorrhizae are the example of (d) when N/K is exactly one
more than the reproductive [NEET 2017] Ans. (d)
individuals (a) fungistasis (b) amensalism In logistic growth model population
(d) pre-reproductive individuals are (c) antibiosis (d) mutualism growth equation is described as
less than the reproductive K −N
= rN 
Ans. (d) dN
individuals 
Mutualism is an association of two dt  K 
Ans. (c) species in, which both species are where,N = Population density at time t
In a growing population, younger benefitted. r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase
population (or pre-reproductive Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic relationship K = Carrying capacity
individuals) size is larger than that of between fungal hyphae and roots of N K −N
reproductive individuals. Such higher plants. The fungus helps in when, = 1 then =0
population is represented by a K K
mineral nutrition absorption for the
triangular-shaped age pyramid. dN
plants with, which they are associated Therefore, =0
dt
57 The principle of competitive 60 In which of the following Ans. (b)

exclusion was stated by interactions both partners are This type of mutualism to called
[NEET 2016, Phase II] adversely affected? symbiosis. In this type, the sea
(a) C Darwin [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
anemone grows on the back of the
hermit crab. It protects the crab with
(b) GF Gause (a) Competition (b) Predation the help of its nematocysts. In
(c) MacArthur (c) Parasitism (d) Mutualism ectoparasitism an ectoparasite live on
(d) Verhulst and Pearl the outside of host, e.g. human body
Ans. (a)
Ans. (b) louse. In this interaction, the parasite
Competition is a negative interaction
gets the benefit at the expense of the
The principle of competitive exclusion that occurs among organisms
host. Commensalism is an association
is stated by GF Gause. He studied the whenever two or more organisms between organisms in which one or both
effects of interspecific competition require the same limited resource. the species are benefitted and neither
between two closely related species. species is harmed. In amensalism one
Population Interactions
He stated that two species competing species is harmed, whereas the other is
Species A Species B Name of Interaction
for the same food resource cannot unaffected.
coexist at the same place as highest + + Mutualism
degree of competitiveness exists − − Competition 63 What type of human population is
between them. + − Predation represented by the following age
+ − Parasitism pyramid?
58 If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial
interaction, ‘–’ sign to detrimental
and ‘0’ sign to neutral interaction, 61 A biologist studied the population Post-reproductive
then the population interaction of rats in a barn. He found that
represented by ‘+’ ‘–’ refers to the average natality was 250,
[NEET 2016, Phase II] average mortality 240,
immigration 20 and emigration Reproductive
(a) mutualism
(b) amensalism 30. The net increase in population
(c) commensalism is [NEET 2013]
(a) 10 (b) 15 Pre-reproductive
(d) parasitism
(c) 05 (d) zero [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Ans. (d)
Ans. (d) (a) Vanishing population
Parasitism is a relationship between
two living organisms of different A population has birth rates and death (b) Stable population
species in which one organism, i.e. rates. The rates are expressed as (c) Declining population
parasite obtains its food directly from change in numbers (increase or (d) Expanding population
the host. In this relationship the decrease) with respect to members of
the population. Ans. (c)
parasite is benefitted (+) and the host is
Immigration An age pyramid is a graphic
harmed (–). So, this type of population
representation of proportion of various
interaction is represented by ‘+’ ‘–’. + age groups of a population with
+ – pre-reproductive at the base,
59 Which of the following is correct Natality Density Mortality
reproductive in the middle and post
for r-selected species? reproductive at the top. For human
[NEET 2016, Phase II] population, the age pyramids show age
Emigration
(a) Large number of progeny with distribution of males and females in a
small size In this case, the net increases in combined diagram. The shape of the
population will be zero. Because Birth age pyramids reflects the growth status
(b) Large number of progeny with of the population. In a declining
large size rate (B) + Immigration (I) − Death rate (D)
population the shape of pyramid is
(c) Small number of progeny with + Emmigration (I) = Density of
urn-shaped.
small size population.
(d) Small number of progeny with Therefore, Density 64 Consider the following four
= [250 + 20] − [240 + 30] = 0 conditions (I-IV) and select a
large size
Ans. (a) correct pair of them as adaptation
62 A sedentary sea anemone gets
r-selected are the species having the to environment in desert lizards.
attached to the shell lining of
ability to produce large number of Conditions [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
hermit crab. The association is
progenies (offsprings) with small size.
[NEET 2013]
I. Burrowing in soil to escape
The population growth of these species high temperature.
is a function of biotic potential. Hence, (a) ectoparasitism (b) symbiosis
II. Losing heat rapidly from the
option (a) is correct. (c) commensalism (d) amensalism body during high temperature.
III. Bask in sun when temperature Age season followed by its

is low. 70+ disappearance at the end of the
IV. Insulating body due to thick Males Females
60-69 season. What does this show?
fatty dermis. [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
50-59
Age (in years)

(a) III, IV (b) I, III (c) II, IV (d) I, II (a) S-shaped or sigmoid growth of
‘A’ 40-49
Ans. (b) this insect
Desert lizards bask in the sun and 30-39 (b) The food plants mature and die at
absorb heat when their body 20-29 the end of the rainy season
temperature drops below the comfort 10-19 (c) Its population growth curve is of
zone, but move into shade when the J-type
ambient temperature starts increasing. 0-9
(d) The population of its predators
Some species are capable of burrowing
15 12 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15 increases enormously
into the soil to hide and escape from
the above-ground heat. Age Ans. (c)
70+ Its population growth curve is J-shaped
65 Which one of the following is in which density increases rapidly in
Males Females 60-69
categorised as a parasite in true exponential fashion and then stops
50-59 abruptly as environmental resistance or
Age (in years)

sense? [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
40-49 another limiting factor becomes
(a) The female Anopheles bites and ‘B’
effective more or less suddenly.
sucks blood from humans 30-39
(b) Human foetus developing inside 70 Geometric representation of age
20-29
the uterus draws nourishment structure is a characteristic of
from the mother 10-19
[CBSE AIPMT 2007]
(c) Head louse living on the human 0-9 (a) biotic community
scalp as well as laying eggs on (b) population
human hair 15 12 9 6 3 0 3 6 9 12 15
(c) landscape
(d) The cuckoo (koel) lays its eggs in (d) ecosystem
(a) ‘A’ is more recent and shows slight
crow’s nest
reduction in the growth rate Ans. (b)
Ans. (c) (b) ‘B’ is earlier pyramid and shows Geometric representation of age
Human head louse (Pediculus) lives stabilised growth rate structure is a characteristic of
among hair and surface of human body (c) ‘B’ is more recent showing that population. In most populations,
feeding on blood. It spreads diseases population is very young individuals are of different ages. The
like typhus. It is a true parasite. proportion of individuals in each age
(d) ‘A’ is the earlier pyramid and no
change has occurred in the group is called age structure of that
66 Which one of the following is one population.
growth rate
of the characteristics of a
biological community? Ans. (a)
71 If the mean and the median
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] Interpretation ‘a’ is correct for the given
pertaining to a certain character of
(a) Stratification (b) Natality figures. As ‘A’ is more recent and shows
slight reduction in the growth rate. a population are of the same value,
(c) Mortality (d) Sex-ratio the following is most likely to occur
Ans. (a) 68 A high density of elephant [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
Organisms are not uniformly distributed population in an area can result in (a) normal distribution
throughout a community. They usually [CBSE AIPMT 2007] (b) bi-modal distribution
occur in definite zones. This spatial (c) T-shaped curve
arrangement of populations is called (a) mutualism
(b) intraspecific competition (d) skewed curve
stratification which is characteristic of
biological community. Natality, (c) interspecific competition Ans. (a)
mortality, age structure and sex-ratio (d) predation on one another For a normal distribution the mean,
are the basic characteristics of a median and mode are actually
population. Ans. (b)
equivalent.
Intraspecific competition is an
67 A country with a high rate of important density dependent factor
72 The formula for exponential
population growth took measures regulating populations. Intraspecific
competition occurs between the population growth is
to reduce it. The figure below [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
members of same population.
shows age sex pyramids of (a) dt/dN = rN
populations. A and B twenty years 69 The population of an insect (b) dN/rN = dt
apart. Select the correct species shows an explosive (c) rN/dN = dt
interpretation about them increase in numbers during rainy (d) dN/dt = rN
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Ans. (d) 78 Choose the correct sequence of

J-shaped form of population growth is (a) enlargement of body size by stages of growth curve for
mathematically described by an swallowing air in puffer fish bacteria [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
equation of exponential or geometric (b) melanism in moths
increase, which is as follows :
(a) lag, log, stationary, decline phase
(c) poison fangs in snakes (b) lag, log, stationary phase
dN
= rN (d) colour change in Chamaeleon (c) stationary, lag, log, decline phase
dt
Ans. (c) (d) decline, lag, log phase
where,d = rate of change
Animals resist predation by cryptic Ans. (a)
t = time colouration, deceptive marking,
N = number of females at a particular When microbes are grown in a closed
behavioural defenses and the
time system or batch culture, the resulting
possession of mechanical or chemical
growth curve has usually four phases :
r = biotic potential of each female defenses.
(a) lag phase
(N can also be considered as the total Example
population and r as the biotic potential (b) exponential (log phase)
Enlargement of body size by swallowing
of each individual). air in puffer fish. (c) stationary phase
Melanism in moths. (d) death phase
73 Niche overlap indicates
Colour change in Chamaeleon. Stationary
[CBSE AIPMT 2006]
phase
Lag of numbers of bacteria

(a) active cooperation between two Log of Death or
76 Mycorrhiza is an example of exponential logarithmic
species growth phase decline phase
[CBSE AIPMT 2003]
(b) two different parasites on the
(a) endoparasitism
same host
(b) decomposers
(c) sharing of one or more resources Lag
between the two species (c) symbiotic relationship
phase
(d) ectoparasitism
(d) mutualism between two species
Ans. (c)
Ans. (b) 0 5 10
Mycorrhiza is a result of symbiosis
Niche overlap is a measure of the Time (h)
between the roots of higher plants
association of two or more species.
This indicate their similar habitat
and fungi. In this association, plants
requirement and may also indicate provide space and prepared food 79 Which type of association is found
competition if trophic niche/spatial material to fungi in exchange of this, in between entomophilous flower
niche is same and food/space is fungi help in absorption of minerals and pollinating agent?
limiting, e.g. two different parasites on and water to plants. [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
the same host. (a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism
77 The semilog of per minute (c) Cooperation (d) Co-evolution
74 Praying mentis is a good example growing bacteria is plotted against
of Ans. (a)
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] time. What will be the shape of
(a) Mullerian mimicry A plant and its pollinator have a
graph? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(b) warning colouration mutualistic relationship. The plant uses
(a) Sigmoid its pollinator to ensure cross pollination
(c) social insects (b) Hyperbola while pollinator uses the plant as food.
(d) camouflage (c) Ascending straight line
Ans. (c) (d) Descending straight line 80 Which of the following is a correct
Praying mantis (Mantis religiosa) is a Ans. (c) pair? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
large social insect. It has small (a) Cuscuta — Parasite
Semilog of per minute growing
triangular head, a long prothorax and an (b) Dischidia — Insectivorous
bacterium when plotted against time,
abdomen consisting of ten segments.
The wings are well developed and the would yield ascending straight line. (c) Opuntia — Predator
pincer-like forelegs are modified for (d) Capsella — Hydrophyte
grasping prey. It usually inhabits 256 Ans. (a)
Number of bacteria
plantation areas. It destroys certain 128 Cuscuta, commonly known as dodder or

harmful insects so, it is useful. 64 amarbel, is a parasitic plant.
32
75 Animals have the innate ability to 16 81 Two different species cannot live
escape from predation. Examples 8 for long duration in the same
for the same are given below. 4
niche or habitat. This law is
Select the incorrect example 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
[CBSE AIPMT 2005] Time (in minute)
(a) Allen’s law 83 The concept that population by animals, dispersal of fruits and seeds
(b) Mendel’s law by animals, lichens, etc.
tends to increase geometrically
(c) Gause’s competitive exclusion while food supply increases
principle 86 The relation between algae and
arithmetically was put forward by
(d) Weismann’s theory [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
fungi in a lichen is
[CBSE AIPMT 1989]
Ans. (c) (a) Stuart Mill
(a) symbiosis
The principle of competitive exclusion (b) Adam Smith (b) parasitism
was postulated by Soviet ecologist GF (c) Charles Darwin (c) commensalism
Gause. It states that if two species are (d) Thomas Malthus
competiting with one another for the
(d) protocooperation
same limited resource, then one of the Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
species will be able to use that resource Malthus in his ‘Essay on the principle of The relation between algae and fungi in
more efficiently than the other and the population’ (1798), pointed out that a lichen is symbiosis. In lichen fungi is
former will, therefore, eventually population tends to increase in for water intake and algae is
eliminate the latter locally. geometric progression while food
photosynthetic and prepares food.
supply increases only in arithmetic
82 An orchid resembling the female progression.
87 Phenomenon when organisms
of an insect, so as to be able to resembling others for escaping
get pollinated is due to the 84 Which of the following pair is
correctly matched? from enemies is
phenomenon of [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(a) mimicry [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (a) adaptation (b) mimicry
(a) Uricotelism—Aquatic habitat
(b) pseudocopulation (c) homology (d) analogy
(b) Parasitism—Intra-specific
(c) pseudopollination relationship Ans. (b)
(d) pseudoparthenocarpy (c) Excessive perspiration—Xeric Mimicry is the phenomenon of
Ans. (b) adaptation resemblance of one species with
For its pollination, the orchid Ophyrys (d) Stream lined body—Aquatic another. It is a means of adaptation and
speculum has picked on the most adaptation protection against predation. The
selective attraction in the entire animal species which is copied is called a
Ans. (d) model, while the animal which copies
kingdom. It is pollinated by a hairy wasp,
Colpa aurea. The wasp has a fixed habit The correct pair is stream lined body to other is known as mimic, e.g. viceroy
whereby its males leave the burrows for aquatic adaptation which helps these butterfly mimics toxic monarch
above ground existence about four animals in swimming. butterfly.
weeks before the females emerge for
the open-air mating. 85 A mutually beneficial association 88 Association between sucker fish
The orcind opens its flowers about the necessary for survival of both (Remora) and shark is
same time the males appear and they partners are [CBSE AIPMT 91, 88] [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
possess an appearance and odour (a) mutualism/symbiosis (a) commensalism
similar to those possessed by the (b) commensalism (b) symbiosis
famele wasps.
(c) amensalism (c) predation
The inexperienced males mistake the
(d) Both (a) and (b) (d) parasitism
Ophrys flowers for their female
counterparts and land to perform the Ans. (a) Ans. (a)
act of pseudocopulation. The insect Mutualism is an association between Remora (Echeneis) has modified its
repeats the act with a number of orchid two organisms of different species dorsal fin into a sucker. It attaches to
flowers and carries pollinia from one where both are benefitted but cannot the body of sharks, whales, etc. This
flower to another. This insect-plant live separately (both favour the growth type of association is known as
relationship is beneficial only to the and survival of each other and their commensalism, in which one partner
plant. association is obligatory), e.g. pollination gets benefits while other is not harmed.
36
Ecosystem
TOPIC 1 Ans. (a) 05 Which one of the following is a
Ecosystem and its Biomass refers to the amount of living characteristic feature of cropland
organic matter. Forest ecosystem have ecosystem? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
Components the maximum biomass, because it (a) Least genetic diversity
includes organisms of all trophic levels
as compared to pond, lake or grassland
(b) The absence of weeds
01 Which one of the following (c) Ecological succession
ecosystem. In forest ecosystems
processes during decomposition productivity is also high that (d) The absence of soil organisms
is correctly described? [NEET 2013] contributes to maximum biomass. Ans. (a)
(a) Fragmentation-Carried out by Cropland ecosystem is largest
organisms such as earthworm 03 Presence of plants arranged into anthropogenic ecosystem characterised
(b) Humification-Leads to the well defined vertical layers by less diversity and high productivity.
accumulation of a dark coloured depending on their height can
substance humus, which best seen best in [NEET 2017]
06 The primary producers of the
undergoes microbial action at a deep-sea hydrothermal vent
(a) tropical savannah
very fast rate ecosystem are
(b) tropical rain forest
(c) Catabolism-Last step in the [NEET 2016, Phase II]
decomposition under fully (c) grassland
(a) green algae
anaerobic condition (d) temperate forest
(b) chemosynthetic bacteria
(d) Leaching-Water soluble inorganic Ans. (b) (c) blue-green algae
nutrients rise to the top layers of Tropical rain forests show (d) coral reefs
soil stratification. It can be defined as the
grouping of plants into two or more well Ans. (b)
Ans. (a) The primary producers of the deep-sea
defined layers depending upon their
Fragmentation is one of the steps height. These layers are called strata or hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
during decomposition, in which detritus storeys. There storeys consist of archaebacteria.
is converted into small fragments. respectively very tall emergent trees, These have chemosynthetic mode of
Humification leads to dark coloured tall trees, small trees, a shrub layer and nutrition. Thus option (b), i.e.
amorphous substance called humus a ground layer of ferns, mosses and chemosynthetic bacteria is the correct
that is highly resistent to microbial herbs. option.
action and undergoes decomposition at
an extremely slow rate. Catabolism is 04 The term ecosystem was coined 07 Which one of the following is not a
the set of metabolic pathways that by functional unit of an ecosystem?
breaks down molecules into smaller [NEET 2016, Phase I] [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
units to release energy. Leaching refers (a) Energy flow (b) Decomposition
to the loss of water soluble plant (a) AG Tansley
nutrients from the soil due to the rain (b) E Haeckel (c) Productivity (d) Stratification
and irrigation. (c) E Warming Ans. (d)
(d) EP Odum Stratification is not the functional unit
02 Which ecosystem has the Ans. (a) of ecosystem. Vertical distribution of
maximum biomass? [NEET 2017] different species occupying different
The term ecosystem was coined by AG levels is called stratification. It
(a) Forest ecosystem Tansley in 1935. Ecosystem is a self represent the structural unit of an
(b) Grassland ecosystem regulated and self sustaining structural ecosystem. For example, trees occupy
(c) Pond ecosystem and functional unit of nature. It consists top vertical strata or layer of a forest,
(d) Lake ecosystem of living beings and their physical shrubs the second and herbs and
environment. grasses occupy the bottom layers.
08 Quercus species are the dominant Ans. (d) TOPIC 2

component in [CBSE AIPMT 2008] Oceanic biome or ecosystem occupies Productivity and
more than two-thirds of the earth’s
(a) temperature deciduous forests
surface. This is the most stable Energy Flow
(b) alpine forests ecosystem.
(c) scrub forests
(d) tropical rain forests 12 What is true of ecosystem? 15 In the equation GPP − R = NPP, R
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] represents [NEET 2021]
Ans. (a)
(a) Primary consumers are least (a) radiant energy
Temperate deciduous forests grow in
dependent upon producers (b) retardation factor
continental climates with summer
rainfall and severe winters. They are (b) Primary consumers out-number (c) environment factor
dominated by broad leaved deciduous producers (d) respiration losses
trees like Quercus virginiana, magnolias, (c) Producers are more than primary Ans. (d)
bays and hallies as well as such tropical consumers
Net primary productivity is the available
species as Ficus aurea and Lysiloma. (d) Secondary consumers are the biomass for the consumption to
largest and most powerful heterotrophs. Gross primary
09 The slow rate of decomposition of Ans. (c) productivity is the rate of production of
fallen logs in nature is due to their organic matter during photosynthesis.
In an ecosystem producers (green The overall productivity of a system can
[CBSE AIPMT 2008]
plants) are always more than primary be found in an equation, where the Net
(a) low moisture content consumers (herbivores). Primary Productivity or NPP, is equal to
(b) poor nitrogen content the Gross Primary Productivity or GPP,
(c) anaerobic environment around 13 In an ecosystem, which one shows minus the Carbon respiration
them one-way passage (respiration losses) or R.
(d) low cellulose content [CBSE AIPMT 1998] The formula is the NPP = GPP − R.
(a) free energy (b) carbon
Ans. (a) 16 The rate of decomposition is
(c) nitrogen (d) potassium
The slow rate of decomposition of faster in the ecosystem due to
fallen logs in nature is due to their low Ans. (a) following factors except
moisture content. The flow of energy in any ecosystem is [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
The cellulose is in high amount in fallen unidirectional. The only source of
(a) detritus rich in sugars
logs. energy is sunlight. It gets trapped by
producers then it flows from herbivores (b) warm and moist environment
The environment arround the fallen logs
is aerobic, i.e. O2 is present. to carnivores or consumers at different (c) presence of aerobic soil microbes
trophic level. (d) detritus richer in lignin and chitin
10 An ecosystem which can be easily Ans. (d)
damaged but can recover after 14 Decomposers are organisms that The rate of decomposition is faster in
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] the ecosystem if detritus is rich in
some time if damaging effect
(a) Elaborate chemical substances, nitrogen and water soluble substances
stops, will be having causing death of tissues like sugars. Warm and moist
[CBSE AIPMT 2004] environment also favour decomposition
(b) operate in living body and
(a) low stability and high resilience like wise high temperature and
simplifying organic substances of
(b) high stability and low resilience presence of aerobic soil microbes also
cells step by step helps in decomposition. But if detritus
(c) low stability and low resilience (c) attack and kill plants as well as is rich in lignin and chitin
(d) high stability and high resilience animals decomposition rate gets slower. Thus,
Ans. (a) (d) operate in relay terms, simplifying option (d) is correct.
Stability is the power of a system to be step by step the organic
in their state against unfavourable constituents of dead body 17 Which of the following statements
factor. Resilience is the capability of is incorrect? [NEET (Oct.) 2020]
Ans. (d)
regaining its original shape or position (a) Biomass decreases from first to
after being deformed. Hence, it has low Decomposers are the organisms, fourth trophic level
stability and high resilience. normally a fungus or bacterium, that
digest organic material by secreting
(b) Energy content gradually
digestive enzymes into the increases from first to fourth
11 Which of the following is the most trophic level
stable ecosystem? environment, in the process liberating
nutrients into the environment. These (c) Number of individuals decreases
[CBSE AIPMT 1995]
are also known as microconsumers, from first trophic level to fourth
(a) Forest reducers or scavengers, as converting trophic level
(b) Desert complex organic constituents of dead (d) Energy content gradually
(c) Mountain bodies of plants, animals, human decreases from first to fourth
(d) Ocean wastes into simple soluble forms. trophic level
Ecosystem 351
Ans. (b) Ans. (a) 23 Identify the likely orgnaisms I, II, III
Statement (b) is incorrect. It can be Gross primary productivity of an and IV in the food web shown
corrected as The energy content ecosystem is the rate of production of below. [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
decreases from the first (producer) to organic matter during photosynthesis.
fourth (consumer) level. At each level Net primary productivity is Hawks
about 90% of energy is lost and only GPP – respiration. Hence, gross primary Lion
10% is passed to next level. productivity is always more than NPP. Snake
18 Match the trophic levels with their 20 Most animals that in deep oceanic Foxes
correct species examples in Garden
water are [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
Owis lizard (III)
grassland ecosystem. (a) primary consumers
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] (IV) Sparrow
(b) secondary consumers
Column I Column II (c) tertiary consumers (I) Mice (II) Grass hopper
A. Fourth trophic level 1. Crow (d) detritivores
B. Second trophic level 2. Vulture Ans. (d) Vegetation/Seeds
C. First trophic level 3. Rabbit Most animals that live in deep oceanic
D. Third trophic level 4. Grass waters and called benthos are
scavengers or detritivores. These I II III IV
Select the correct option. organisms include crustaceans, (a) Deer Rabbit Frog Rat
A B C D polychaetes and some microorganisms. (b) Dog Squirrel Bat Deer
(a) 3 2 1 4
21 If 20 J of energy is trapped at (c) Rat Dog Tortoise Crow
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 2 3 4 producer level, then how much (d) Squirrel Cat Rat Pigeon
(d) 2 3 4 1 energy will be available to peacock
Ans. (a)
Ans. (d) as food in the following chain?
In the given food web option (a) is
The correct match is option (d) as in Plant → Mice → Snake → Peacock correct as producers utilise the radiant
grassland ecosystem grass is the [CBSE AIPMT 2014] energy of sun which is transformed to
producer (Ist Trophic level). Rabbit is (a) 0.02 J (b) 0.002 J chemical form during photosynthesis.
the primary consumer (IInd Trophic (c) 0.2 J (d) 0.0002 J Thus, green plants occupy the first
level). Crow is secondary consumer trophic level. The herbivores constitute
(IIIrd Trophic level). Vulture is tertiary Ans. (c) the secondary trophic level and the
consumer (IVth Trophic level). The According to 10% law of energy flow by carnivores the third trophic level. Deer
primary consumers eat the producers. Raynold Lindeman. The total amount of is herbivores, rabbit and rat are also
Secondary consumers eat the primary energy that can be transferred to the herbivores but frog eats the
consumers, and so on. Grassland next trophic level is the 10% hence, grasshoppers. Also deer is been eaten
ecosystem is a terrestrial ecosystem. It peacock will receive 0.02 J of energy as by lion.
includes various trophic levels. top consumer.
Grass → Rabbit → Crow → Vulture Energy received by other organisms are 24 Identify the possible link ‘A’ in the
Plant → 20 J following food chain
19 In relation to gross primary Mice→20 × 10% = 2 J [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
productivity and net primary Snake → 2 × 10% = 0.2 J Plant → Insect → Frog → ‘A’ →
productivity of an ecosystem,
Eagle
which one of the following 22 Secondary productivity is rate of
(a) Rabbit (b) Wolf
statements is correct? formation of new organic matter
(c) Cobra (d) Parrot
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] by [NEET 2013]
(a) Gross primary productivity is (a) producer (b) parasite Ans. (c)
always more than net primary (c) consumer (d) decomposer The given food chain should be
productivity Plant → Insect → Frog → Cobra →
Ans. (c) Eagle
(b) Gross primary productivity and net
Secondary productivity is the rate of
primary productivity are one and formation of new organic matter by
same 25 Mass of living matter at a trophic
consumers. Primary productivity
(c) There is no relationship between depends on the producers inhabiting a
level in an area at any time is
gross primary productivity and net particular area. Decomposers called [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
primary productivity breakdown complex organic matter into (a) standing crop
(d) Gross primary productivity is inorganic substances like carbon (b) detritus
dioxide, water and nutrients. Parasitic
always less than net primary (c) humus
species feed on the body of other
productivity organism. (d) standing state
Ans. (a) Ans. (b) Ans. (a)

Standing crop is the total amount of The various stages in a hydrosere are Statements II and III are correct. A
living matter in a specified population at well studied in ponds, pools or lakes. simple food chain consists of
a particular time, expressed as biomass The various stages of hydrosere are: producers, herbivores and carnivores.
(standing biomass) or its equivalent in (i) Phytoplankton stage, e.g. some The length of food chain is generally
terms of energy. The standing crop may blue-green algae, green algae limited to 3–4 trophic levels due to the
vary at different times of the year for (Volvox), diatoms and bacteria, etc. energy loss. In grazing food chain the
example in a population of deciduous producers (i.e. plants) are eaten by
trees between summer and winter. (ii) Rooted submerged stage, e.g.
Hydrilla, Vallisneria, etc. herbivores (i.e. rabbit, deer, cow, etc)
(iii) Floating stage, e.g. Nelumbo, and the herbivores are eaten by
26 Of the total incident solar radiation carnivores. Therefore, the removal of
Nymphaea, etc. Some free floating
the proportion of PAR is species are Pistia, Azolla, Lemna, most of the carnivores resulted in an
[CBSE AIPMT 2011] etc. increased population of deers.
(a) about 70% (b) about 60% (iv) Red-swamp stage, e.g. species of
(c) less than 50% (d) more than 80% Scirpus, Typha, etc. 31 Which of the following ecosystem
Ans. (c) (v) Sedge-meadow stage, e.g. species types has the highest annual net
of Cyperaceae and Gramineae. primary productivity?
The source of energy in all ecosystem is
solar energy. About 50% of the solar (vi) Woodland stage, e.g. Lantana, [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
energy incident over earth is present in Salix, Populus, etc. (a) Tropical rain forest
PAR (Photosynthetically active (vii) Forest stage, e.g. Tropical rain (b) Tropical deciduous forest
Radiation). About 1-5% of incident solar forests, mixed forests of Almus,
(c) Temperate evergreen forest
radiation or 2-10% of PAR is captured Acer, Quercus (oak), tropical
deciduous forests. (d) Temperate deciduous forest
by the photosynthetic organisms in the
synthesis of organic matter (gross Ans. (a)
primary productivity). 29 Which one of the following types Productivity of tropical rain forest is
Roughly 20% of it is consumed in of organisms occupy more than highest. The tropical rain forest cover
respiration so that net capture of one trophic level in a pond 300,000 km2 area. They contain more
energy (net primary productivity) is ecosystem? [CBSE AIPMT 2009] than 50% of total flora and fauna of the
0.8-4% of incident radiation or 1.6-8% world.
of PAR.
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Fish
(c) Zooplankton (d) Frog
32 Which of the following is expected
27 The biomass available for Ans. (b) to have the highest value
consumption by the herbivores In a pond ecosystem, fishes occupy (gm /m2 /yr) in a grassland
and the decomposers is called more than one trophic levels. Small
fishes act as secondary consumer. ecosystem? [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
[CBSE AIPMT 2010]
They feed on primary consumer. Large (a) Secondary Production (SP)
(a) net primary productivity
fishes act as Tertiary consumer. They (b) Tertiary Production (TP)
(b) secondary productivity feed on smaller fish. (c) Gross Production (GP)
(c) standing crop
(d) Net Production (NP)
(d) gross primary productivity 30 Consider the following statements
Ans. (c)
Ans. (a) concerning food chains.
The rate of total capture of energy or
Net primary productivity is equal to the [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
the rate of total production of organic
rate of organic matter created by I. Removal of 80% tigers from an material is gross primary productivity
photosynthesis minus the rate of area resulted in greatly
respiration and other losses. It is the while the balance or biomass remaining
biomass available for consumption by
increased growth of vegetation after meeting the cost of respiration of
the herbivores and the decomposers. II. Removal of most of the producers is net primary productivity.
carnivores resulted in an Hence, gross productivity has highest
28 The correct sequence of plants in increased population of deers value in grassland ecosystem.
a hydrosere is [CBSE AIPMT 2009] III. The length of food chains is
generally limited to 3-4 trophic
33 Bamboo plant is growing in a far
(a) Oak → Lantana → Scirpus → Pistia
→ Hydrilla → Volvox levels due to energy loss forest then what will be the
(b) Volvox → Hydrilla → Pistia → IV. The length of food chains may
trophic level of it?
Scirpus → Lantana → Oak vary from 2 to 8 trophic levels [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
(c) Pistia → Volvox → Scirpus → Which of the two above (a) First trophic level (T1)
Hydrilla → Oak → Lantana (b) Second trophic level (T2)
statements are correct?
(d) Oak → Lantana → Volvox → (c) Third trophic level (T3)
(a) I and II (b) II and III
Hydrilla → Pistia → Scirpus
(c) III aqnd IV (d) I and IV (d) Fourth trophic level (T4 )
Ecosystem 353
Ans. (a) 36 Which of the following ecosystem Ans. (b)

Plants, being photosynthetic, occupy has the highest gross primary According to 10% law of Lindemann, if
first trophic level (T1 ) in the food chain. productivity? [CBSE AIPMT 1997] 1 tonne (1000 kg) biomass is present in
Heterotrophs grass, only 10% of it means 100 kg will
(a) Grasslands go into deer and in tiger the biomass
(b) Coral reefs will be only 10 kg, i.e. 10% of deer’s
(c) Mangroves biomass.
Green Rabbit Snake Hawk
plants (d) Equatorial rain forest
Carnivores
40 Second most important trophic
Ans. (b) level in a lake is [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Autotrophs Herbivores
The Gross primary productivity of an
(a) zooplankton (b) phytoplankton
ecosystem is the total amount of
organic matter produced by it’s (c) benthos (d) neuston
1st 2nd 3rd 4th
trophic trophic trophic trophic producers, i.e. autotrophs. Coral reefs Ans. (a)
level level level level have maximum and deserts have lowest In a lake ecosystem, the first trophic
productivity. level is occupied by phytoplankton and
A trophic level is a step in the flow of then in second trophic level there are
energy through an ecosystem, such as 37 In a biotic community, the primary zooplanktons which are primary
the step at which plants manufacture consumers are [CBSE AIPMT 1995] consumers.
food or the step at which carnivores (a) carnivores (b) omnivores
feed on other animals. 41 Food chain in which
(c) detritivores (d) herbivores
microorganisms breakdown the
34 The transfer of energy from one Ans. (d)
food formed by primary producers
trophic level to another is In a biotic community, the primary
consumers or first order consumers are are [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
governed by the 2nd law of (a) parasitic food chain
herbivores, they feed on producers.
thermodynamics. The average They are also called key industry (b) detritus food chain
efficiency of energy transfer from animals because they convert plant (c) consumer food chain
herbivores to carnivores is material into animal material, e.g. rat, (d) predator food chain
[CBSE AIPMT 1999, 96] deer, rabbit, cattle, goat, sheep, insects
etc. Ans. (b)
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 25% (d) 50% Detritus food chain goes from dead
38 If we completely remove the organic matter to detritivores
Ans. (b) protozoan, bacteria, fungi and then to
decomposers from an ecosystem,
According to 10% law of Lindeman, only organisms feeding on detritivores, e.g.
10% of energy is transferred from one its functioning will be adversely insect larva, nematodes. This food
trophic level to another, i.e. from affected, because chain is also called as saprophytic food
herbivores to carnivores. [CBSE AIPMT 1995] chain.
(a) energy flow will be blocked
35 The rate at which light energy is (b) herbivores will not receive solar
42 Pick up the correct food chain.
[CBSE AIPMT 1991]
converted into chemical energy of energy
(c) mineral movement will be blocked (a) Grass → Chameleon → Insect
organic molecules is the
→ Bird
ecosystem’s (d) rate of decomposition will be very
[CBSE AIPMT 1998]
high (b) Grass → Fox → Rabbit → Bird
(a) net primary productivity (c) Phytoplankton → Zooplankton
Ans. (c) → Fish
(b) gross secondary productivity
Decomposers like fungi, bacteria and (d) Fallen leaves → Bacteria → Insect
(c) net secondary productivity
Actinomycetes are also called larvae
(d) gross primary productivity mineralisers as they release minerals
Ans. (d) trapped in organic matter. Thus, they Ans. (c)
Plants, found in an ecosystem are help in recycling of minerals, so if we The correct food chain is:
known as producers, because they can completely remove decomposers the Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Fish
prepare food for themself by the mineral movement will be blocked. i.e. Producers → Primary consumer
process of photosynthesis. The energy → Secondary consumer
fixed by the autotrophs during 39 In grass-deer-tiger food chain,
photosynthesis gets incorporated into grass biogass is one tonne. The 43 Upper part of sea/aquatic
organic compounds. The rate at which tiger biomass shall be
organic molecules are formed in a
ecosystem contains
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
green plant (or a population of green [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
plants) is called gross primary (a) 100 kg (b) 10 kg (a) plankton (b) nekton
productivity. (c) 200 kg (d) 1 kg
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) benthos
Ans. (a) biomass of a trophic level depends (d) the changes lead to a community
Planktons are passively floating upon reproductive potential and that is in near equilibrium with the
organisms living in the surface layers of longevity of its members. environment and is called pioneer
water due to absence of locomotory In a sea, the biomass of community
organs, they are of two types: phytoplanktons is usually lesser than Ans. (a)
Phytoplankton (photosynthetic that of zooplanktons while the
The gradual and fairly predictable
plankton) and zooplankton. biomass of carnivores is greater than change in the species composition of a
While nektons are actively floating small carnivores and zooplanktons. given area is called ecological
organisms and benthos are found in On the other hand, pyramid of energy succession. During succession some
the bottom and are usually sessile. is always upright. Pyramid of biomass species colonise an area and their
in terrestrial ecosystems (forests, populations become more numerous,
TOPIC 3 grasslands) is also upright. whereas populations of other species
decline and even disappear.
Ecological Pyramids 46 What type of ecological pyramid
and Succession would be obtained with the 48 Match the following and select the
following data? correct option. [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
44 Which of the following statement Secondary consumer : 120 g Column I Column II
Primary consumer : 60 g
is not correct? [NEET 2021] A. Earthworm 1. Pioneer
Primary producer : 10 g [NEET 2018] species
(a) Pyramid of biomass in sea is
(a) Upright pyramid of numbers B. Succession 2. Detritivore
generally inverted
(b) Pyramid of energy
(b) Pyramid of biomass in sea is C. Ecosystem 3. Natality
generally upright (c) Inverted pyramid of biomass
service
(c) Pyramid of energy is always (d) Upright pyramid of biomass
D. Population 4. Pollination
upright Ans. (c) growth
(d) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland An inverted pyramid of biomass will be
ecosystem is upright obtained from the given data. The Codes
Ans. (b) biomass is continuously decreasing A B C D A B C D
from secondary consumer (120 g) to (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 3 2
Pyramid of biomass in a sea is generally
primary consumer (60 g) to primary (c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
inverted because the primary
producer (10 g).
producers (phytoplanktons) have a Ans. (d)
lower biomass than that of succeeding Therefore, upright pyramid of biomass
cannot be obtained. The data is given in The species that invade a base area in
zooplanktons, which further have a
the form of biomass, therefore pyramid succession is called pioneer species
lower biomass than that of succeeding
of number and energy cannot be and earthworm is a detritivore.
small fishes and so on. Ecosystem services are the products of
obtained. Further, pyramid of energy is
Pyramid of energy is the only pyramid ecosystem process, e.g. biodiversity
always upright.
that can never be inverted and is always maintenance, crop pollination, etc. and
upright. This is because some amount natality is the term used for population
Secondary consumer
of energy in the form of heat is always growth or birth rate in population
lost to the environment at every trophic (120g)
ecology.
level of the food chain.
Primary consumer
In a grassland ecosystem, the number 49 Given below is an imaginary
(60g)
of producers is always maximum, pyramid of numbers. What could
followed by reducing number of Primary be one of the possibilities about
organisms at second trophic level, third producer certain organisms at some of the
trophic level and other higher level (if (10g)
present). Thus, the pyramid of number different levels?
in grassland is upright. Inverted pyramid of biomass [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
TC 10
45 Which of the following ecological
pyramids is generally inverted? 47 During ecological succession
SC 50
[NEET (National) 2019] [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(a) Pyramid of energy (a) the gradual and predictable

PC 500
(b) Pyramid of biomass in a forest change in species composition
occurs in a given area
(c) Pyramid of biomass in a sea PP 1
(b) the establishment of a new biotic
(d) Pyramid of numbers in grassland
community is very fast in its (a) Level PC is insects and level SC is
Ans. (c) primary phase
small insectivorous birds
Pyramid of biomass in sea is (c) the numbers and types of animals
generally inverted because the (b) Level PP is phytoplanktons in sea
remain constant
and Whale on top level TC
Ecosystem 355
(c) Level one PP is pipal trees and the 52 Which one of the following (b) Pyramid of biomass, showing the
level SC is sheep statements is correct for total dry weight of living matter.
(d) Level PC is rats and level SC is secondary succession? (c) Pyramid of energy, showing the
cats [CBSE AIPMT 2011] rate of energy flow/productivity at
Ans. (a) (a) It occurs on a deforested site successive trophic levels.
The given figure shows spindle-shaped (b) It follows primary succession Thus, fresh weight is not used for the
pyramid of number in single tree (c) It is similar to primary succession construction of ecological pyramids.
ecosystem. Here, a single large sized except that it has a relatively fast
tree provides food to a large number of pace 55 The greatest biomass of
herbivores which support a few (d) It begins on a bare rock autotrophs in the world’s oceans is
carnivores and the later are eaten by
Ans. (a) that of [CBSE AIPMT 2000]
small number of top carnivores. So,
here PP is used for producer, i.e. single Secondary succession of subsere is (a) benthic brown algae, coastal red
tree, PC is Primary Consumers, i.e. ecological succession that takes place algae and dephnids
large number of insects, SC is in a recently denuded area which still (b) benthic diatoms and marine
Secondary Consumers, i.e. small contains a lot of organic debris, viruses
insectivorous birds and TC is Top remains and propagules of previous (c) sea grasses and slime molds
Consumers which may be eagles or living organisms. It is more common (d) free-floating micro-algae,
falcon, etc. and caused by baring of an area due to
cyanobaceria and nanoplankton
the forest fires, deforestation,
50 The upright pyramid of number is excessive overgrazing, landslides, Ans. (d)
absent in [CBSE AIPMT 2012] earthquakes, repeated floods, etc. The greatest biomass of autotrophs in
(a) pond the world’s ocean is that of free floating
(b) forest 53 Which one of the following micro-algae, cyanobacteria and
statements for pyramid of energy nanoplankton. Phytoplanktons, diatoms
(c) lake
is incorrect whereas the remaining and dinoflagellates are the dominant
(d) grassland
producers in the world’s oceans.
Ans. (b) three are correct?
[CBSE AIPMT 2011]
Pyramid of number represents the 56 In a terrestrial ecosystem such as
number of individuals per unit area at (a) It show energy content of different
forest, maximum energy is in
various trophic levels. It is always trophic level of organisms
which trophic level?
upright in grassland, pond and lake (b) It is inverted in shape
ecosystems. But in forest or single tree (c) It is upright in shape [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
ecosystem, it is spindle-shaped and of (d) Its base is broad (a) T1 (b) T2
parasitic food chain is considered then (c) T3 (d) T4
it will be an inverted pyramid. Ans. (b)
Pyramid of energy is graphic Ans. (a)
51 The second stage of hydrosere is representation of energy per unit area There is 90% loss of energy at every
occupied by plants like sequence-wise in various rising trophic trophic level. Therefore, maximum
levels with producers at the base and energy is atT1 level.
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
top carnivores at the apex. Pyramid of
(a) Azolla energy is upright in all cases. It is also 57 In a food chain, the largest
(b) Typha more accurate than other types of population is that of
(c) Salix ecological pyramids. [CBSE AIPMT 1996, 1994]
(d) Vallisneria
(a) decomposers
Ans. (d) 54 Which one of the following is not
(b) producers
Vallisneria is at second stage of used for constructing of ecological
(c) primary consumers
hydrosere. It starts orginating in a pond pyramids? [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
with colonisation of some
(d) tertiary consumers
(a) Dry weight
phytoplanktons which forms the Ans. (b)
pioneer plant community. The stages (b) Number of individuals
Producers are present in largest
are (c) Rate of energy flow
number in any food chain.
Ist – Bacteria, blue-green algae and (d) Fresh weight
algae Ans. (d) 58 The nature of climax community
IInd– Hydrilla, Potamogeton and Ecological pyramids are the graphical ultimately depends on
Vallisneria representation of the trophic structure
IIIrd– Nelumbo, Nymphaea, Trapa, Azolla and function at successive trophic [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
and Wolffia levels. Ecological pyramids are of three (a) climate
IVth – Typha and Sagitaria general types, listed as here under: (b) bed rock
Vth– Juncus and Cyperus (a) Pyramid of numbers, showing the (c) soil organisms
VIth– Salix and Populus, Almus. number of organisms at each level. (d) pool of available nutrients
Ans. (a) Ans. (c) Ans. (c)

The climax community ultimately Pyramid of number in a pond ecosystem Staement (c) is incorrect and can be
depends on the climate such as rain is upright or erect, in which producers corrected as Phosphorus cycle is a type
forest in moist tropical area and mixed are maximum in number and top of sedimentary cycle, i.e. it main
coniferous or deciduous forest in consumers are least in number. reservoirs are soil and rocks. It is mainly
temperate area. found as phosphates in rocks. During
this cycle phosphorus solublising
TOPIC 4 bacteria like Pseudomonas,
59 The primary succession refers to
the development of communities Nutrient Cycling Acetobacter, etc., help to release
phosphorus from organic remains. A
on a [CBSE AIPMT 1995] large amount of phosphate is lost in sea
(a) fleshly cleared crop field 63 The amount of nutrients, such as by sedimentation. There is no
carbon, nitrogen, phosphorus and respiratory release of phosphorus into
(b) forest clearing after devastating
atmosphere because phosphorus is an
fire calcium present in the soil at any inorganic nutrient that does not take
(c) pond, freshly filled with water after given time, is referred as part in respiration.
a dry phase [NEET 2021]
(d) newly-exposed habitat with no (a) climax 65 In which of the following both
record of earlier vegetation (b) Climax community pairs have correct combination?
(c) standing state
Primary succession is the succession in (d) standing crop (a) Gaseous Carbon and
a totally barren area with no record of nutrient cycle nitrogen
earlier vegetation. It takes long time of Ans. (c)
Sedimentary Sulphur and
1000 year or more. Standing state is the amount of
nutrient phosphorus
biogenetic nutrients present at any cycle
60 The pyramid which cannot be specific time in the ecosystem. The
(b) Gaseous Carbon and
inverted in a stable ecosystem is whole living matter is composed of
nutrient cycle sulphur
nutrients Like carbon, nitrogen and so
that of [CBSE AIPMT 1994] Sedimentary Nitrogen and
on.
(a) biomass (b) number nutrient phosphorus
Other options can be explained as: cycle
(c) energy (d) All of these
Climax, in ecology, is the final stage of
Ans. (c) (c) Gaseous Nitrogen and
biotic succession attainable by a plant nutrient cycle sulphur
Pyramid of energy is graphic community in an area under the
representation of amount of energy environmental conditions present at a Sedimentary Carbon and
trapped per unit time and area in nutrient phosphorus
particular time. cycle
different trophic levels of a food chain
A climax community is one that has
with producers forming the base and (d) Gaseous Sulphur and
reached the stable stage. When nutrient cycle phosphorus
top carnivores or consumers the tip. It
extensive and well-defined, the climax
is always upright in shape. Sedimentary Carbon and
community is called a biome. Examples
nutrient nitrogen
are tundra, grassland, desert, and the cycle
61 Pyramid of number deals with deciduous, coniferous and tropical rain
number of [CBSE AIPMT 1993] forests. Ans. (a)
(a) species in an area Each trophic level contains certain The biogeochemical cycles are of two
(b) individuals in a community mass of living matter at a specific time types, i.e. gaseous cycles, in which the
(c) individuals in a trophic level is called standing crop. reservoir for the nutrient elements is in
(d) sub-species in a community the atmosphere (air) or hydrosphere
64 Which of the following statements (water). The four most abundant
Ans. (c) is incorrect regarding the elements in the living systems, i.e.
Pyramid of number is a graphic hydrogen, carbon, oxygen and nitrogen
phosphorus cycle?
representation of the number of have predominantly gaseous cycles.
[NEET (Oct.) 2020]
organisms per unit area of various In sedimentary cycles, the reservoir for
trophic levels. It deals with the number (a) Phosphates are the major form of
the nutrient elements is in the
of individuals in a trophic level. It deals phosphorus reservoir sediments of the earth. Elements, such
with the number of individuals in a (b) Phosphorus solubilising bacteria as phosphorus, sulphur, potassium and
trophic level. facilitate the release of calcium have sedimentary cycles.
phosphorus from organic remains
62 Pyramid of number in a pond (c) There is appreciable respiratory 66 Given below is a simplified model
ecosystem is release of phosphorus into of phosphorus cycling in a
[CBSE AIPMT 1993, 1991, 1990] atmosphere terrestrial ecosystem with four
(a) irregular (b) inverted (d) It is sedimentary cycle blanks (A-D). Identify the blanks
(c) upright (d) spindle-shaped [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
Ecosystem 357
A B C D temperature and pressure found on (d) conversion from ammonium to

(a) Rock Detritus Litter fall Producers earth. The production of phosphine gas nitrate in soil
minerals occurs only in specialised, local
conditions. Ans. (c)
(b) Litter fall Producers Rock Detritus The rate of total capture of energy or
minerals the rate of total production of organic
69 About 70% of total global carbon
(c) Detritus Rock Producer Litter fall is found in [CBSE AIPMT 2008] material is gross primary productivity
minerals while the balance or biomass remaining
(a) grasslands after meeting the cost of respiration of
(d) Producers Litter fall Rock Detritus
minerals (b) agroecosystems producers is net primary productivity.
(c) oceans Hence, gross productivity has highest
Ans. (c) (d) forests value in grassland ecosystem.
Phosphates
Consumers Producer Ans. (c)
By action of
inorganic
Sea water contains 50 times more CO2 72 Which of the following pair is a
organism than air. i.e. about 70% of total global sedimentary type of
Detritus Liter fall Uptake carbon is found in oceans. This is in biogeochemical cycle?
Phosphate dissolved form of carbonates and bicarbonates.
inorganic The atmosphere is the source of CO2 , [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
are released
Soil solution particles (a) Oxygen and nitrogen
in soil which is utilised by plants in
photosynthesis reduced to form carbon (b) Phosphorous and sulphur
compounds. The total mass of carbon (c) Phosphorous and nitrogen
Rock minerals
currently in the atmosphere is about
Phosphorus cycle 7 × 10 17 g, i.e. 700000 million tonnes. (d) Phosphorus and carbon dioxide
Oceans regulate the CO2 content in the Ans. (b)
atmosphere and thus, play a very In sedimentary cycle the reservoir for
67 Natural reservoir of phosphorus is important role. the elements is in the sediments of
[NEET 2013] earth (lithosphere), e.g. phosphorus,
(a) rock 70 Which one of the following pair is calcium, magnesium, sulphur.
(b) fossils mismatched? [CBSE AIPMT 2005]
(c) sea water (a) Biomass burning– Release of CO 2 73 The main role of bacteria in the
(d) animal bones (b) Fossil fuel burning – Release of carbon cycle involves
CO 2 [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
Ans. (a)
(c) Nuclear power – Radioactive (a) photosynthesis
The natural reservoir of phosphorus is
wastes (b) chemosynthesis
in phosphate rocks. Phosphate is
added in small amount into the cycling (d) Solar energy – Green house effect (c) digestion or breakdown of organic
pool through weathering of rocks. Ans. (d) compounds
Phosphate circulate in the abiotic Solar energy is not responsible for (d) assimilation of nitrogenous
environment in lithosphere as well as green-house effect instead it is a compounds
hydrosphere. source of energy for the plants and
Ans. (c)
animals. Green plants prepare their
68 Which one of the following is not a food by the use of this solar energy. CO2 Huge amount of plants, animals and
gaseous biogeochemical cycle in gas is mainly responsible for human wastes are decomposed by
greenhouse effect. Excess of this gas bacteria and fungi present in
ecosystem? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
environment and large quantity of CO2
forms a thick layer around the earth and
(a) Sulphur cycle prevents re-radiation of earth climate necessary for photosynthesis is
(b) Phosphorus cycle entering sun rays to atmosphere. Thus, released into the atmosphere.
(c) Nitrogen cycle functions like the glass pannels of a
(d) Carbon cycle green house (or the glass windows of a 74 Bulk CO2 -fixation occurs in
motor car). This is thus, called [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
Ans. (b)
greenhouse effect.
Phosphorus cycle is a sedimentary (a) crop plants
biogeochemical cycle. It describes the (b) oceans
71 If by radiation all nitrogenase
movement of phosphorus through the (c) tropical rain forests
lithosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere enzymes are inactivated, then
(d) temperature forests
and the main reservoir pool is there will be no
lithosphere. [CBSE AIPMT 2004] Ans. (b)
Atmosphere does not play any (a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes Bulk CO2 -fixation occurs in oceans. The
significant role in the movement of productivity of ocean ecosystem is very
(b) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
phosphorus because phosphorus and high, here phytoplanktons, e.g. diatoms
(c) conversion from nitrate to nitrite are the greatest producers.
phosphorus based compounds are in legumes
usually solids at the typical ranges of
37
Biodiversity and
Its Conservation
TOPIC 1 03 Which of the following is the most 05 Plants such as Prosopis, Acacia
Biodiversity important cause for animals and and Capparis represent examples
plants being driven to extinction? of tropical [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
01 Which of the following regions of (a) grasslands
the globe exhibits highest species (a) Drought and floods
(b) thorn forests
(b) Economic exploitation
diversity? [NEET (Sep.) 2020] (c) deciduous forests
(c) Alien species invasion
(a) Madagascar (d) evergreen forests
(d) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(b) Himalayas Ans. (b)
(c) Amazon forests Ans. (d)
Flora of thorn forests include Prosopis
(d) Western Ghats of India Habitat loss and fragmentation is the
cineraria, Acacia senagal, Capparis
most important cause for animals and
Ans. (c) decidua, Salvadora oleoides, Asparagus
plants being driven to extinction. Due to
The Amazonian rain forest in South habitat fragmentation and loss, a 14% racemosus and Ephedra foliata.
America has the greatest biodiversity of the earth’ land surface, rainforest has
on earth. Rainforests have high shrunk to only 6% in last few years.
06 Alexander von Humbolt described
biodiversity because they are abundant Fragmentation and loss of large for the first time
in nutrients, energy and have a habitats due to various human activities [NEET 2017]
favorable climate for the biodiversity to badly affects mammals and birds (a) ecological biodiversity
prosper. requiring large territories. Certain (b) law of limiting factor
animals with migratory habits are also
(c) species area relationships
02 Decline in the population of Indian affected by habitat loss and
fragmentation. Thus, their populations (d) population growth equation
native fishes due to introduction
are driven towards decline and Ans. (c)
of Clarias gariepinus in river extinction.
Yamuna can be categoriesd as Alexander von Humbolt was a great
On the other hand, droughts and floods,
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] economic exploitation and alien species German naturalist and geographer. He
invasion affect only a small part of did extensive explorations in the
(a) co-extinction
population at a time. wilderness of South American forests.
(b) habitat fragmentation
He established species area
(c) overexploitation
04 Which is the National Aquatic relationship.
(d) allien species invasion
Animal of India?[NEET 2016, Phase I] He observed that with in a region,
Ans. (d) (a) River dolphin (b) Blue whale species richness increase with
Decline in the population of Indian (c) Seahorse (d) Gangetic shark increasing explored area, but upto a
native fishes due to introduction of certain limit. Infact, the relationship
Clarias gariepinus in river Yamuna can Ans. (a) between species richness and area for
be categorised as alien species River dolphin is the National Aquatic a variety of taxa turns out to be a
invasions. It is posing a threat to the Animal of India. This mammal rectangular hyperbola as shown in
indigenous catfishes in our rivers and exclusively reside in freshwater or figure below
causing a loss of biodiversity. brackish water.
Biodiversity and Its Conservation 359
09 Which of the following is correctly Ans. (c)

2
S=CA matched? [NEET 2016, Phase II] Phylum–Arthropoda is the largest
Log S=log (a) Aerenchyma — Opuntia phylum of the animal kingdom with its
C+Z log A largest group, i.e. insecta (A). The
(b) Age pyramid — Biome
Species richness
second largest population is of

(c) Parthenium hysterophorus phylum–Mollusca (B). The third one is
ca
le — Threat tobiodiversity occupied by crustaceans (C). All other
gs (d) Stratification — Population animals combinally indicate the (D)
-lo
log portion of pie chart.
Ans. (c)
Parthenium hysterophorus (carrot grass)
11 A species facing extremely high
is an alien species introduced
Area
inadvertantly for some economic use, risk of extinction in the immediate
Showing species area relationship turned invasive causing decline or future is called
extinction of the indigenous species. [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
Note that on log scale the relationship The other options are wrong because (a) vulnerable
becomes linear. (a) Aerenchyma is found in aquatic (b) endemic
On a logarithmic scale, the relationship plants (Vallisneria, Hydrilla), but (c) critically endangered
is a straight line described by the Opuntia is a xerophytic plant. (d) extinct
equation. (b) Biome is total sum of all
log S = log C + Z log A ecosystem present in the planet
Ans. (c)
where, earth whereas age pyramid is the The extremely highest risk category
graphical representation of age of assigned by the IUCN Red List for wild
S = Species richness species is critically endangered
organisms of one population at a
A = Area species. These are those species that
specific time.
Z = Slope of the line (regression are facing a very high risk of extinction
(d) Stratification is related with
coefficient) in near future. There are currently 2129
different layers of vegetation in an
C = Y-intercept animals and 1821 plants which have
ecosystem (like forest/grass land)
been recorded in this category.
and population is a term referred
07 Which of the following is the most to a group of same kind of
important cause of animals and organisms which can freely
12 The organisation which publishes
plants being driven to extinction? interbreed. the Red List of species is
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
(a) Alien species invasion 10 Given below is the representation (a) ICFRE (b) IUCN
of the extent of global diversity of (c) UNED (d) WWF
(b) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(c) Co-extinctions invertebrates. What groups the Ans. (b)
(d) Over-exploitation four portions (A-D) represent IUCN is International Union for
respectively? Conservation of Nature which publishes
Ans. (b) the Red List of threatened species or
[CBSE AIPMT 2014]
There are four major causes of Red Data List which assesses the
biodiversity loss in which most D conservation status of species. It is an
important cause driving animals and C
international organisation founded in
plants to extinction is habitat loss and B
October, 1948. Its head quarter is in
fragmentation. A Gland, Switzerland.
08 Red List contains data or 13 Which of the following represent

information on maximum number of species
A B C D among global biodiversity?
(a) all economically important plants [NEET 2013]
(a) Insects Crustac- Other Molluscs
(b) plants whose products are in eans animal (a) Algae (b) Lichens
international trade Groups (c) Fungi (d) Mosses and ferns
(c) threatened species (b) Crusta- Insects Molluscs Other Ans. (c)
(d) marine vertebrates only cean animal Mosses
groups
Ans. (c)
(c) Molluscs Other Crustac- Insects Ferns and allies
IUCN maintains a Red Data Book
animal eans
which is a catalogue of the taxa facing groups
the risk of extinction. The threatened Fungi
Angiosperm
species are the one which are at more (d) Insects Molluscs Crustac- Other
risk of become extinct. The list of these eans animal
groups Algae
species is called Red List. Lichens
The following figure shows global 18 Which one of the following expanded 21 Which of the following pairs of an
biodiversity of fungi, mosses, ferns,
forms of the following acronyms is animal and a plant represents
algae, lichens and angiosperms.
Therefore, from the above figure it is correct? [CBSE AIPMT 2011] endangered organisms in India?
clear that fungi has maximum number [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
(a) UNEP — United Nations
of species among the global biodiversity. Environmental Policy (a) Bentinckia nicobarica and red panda
(b) EPA — Environmental (b) Tamarind and rhesus monkey
14 Maximum nutritional diversity is Pollution Agency (c) Cinchona and leopard
found in the group (d) Banyan and black buck
(c) IUCN — International Union for
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] Conservation of Ans. (a)
(a) Fungi (b) Animalia Nature and Natural
Resources A plant Bentinckia
(c) Monera (d) Plantae
condapanna/nicobarica (member of
Ans. (c) (d) IPCC — International Panel for
familyArecaceae) and the animal, red
Climate Change
Maximum nutritional diversity is shown panda (an arboreal mammal) both have
by the members of kingdom—Monera. Ans. (c) been declared endangered in India.
Some of them are autotrophic, (e.g. High altitude area of Arunachal Pradesh
IUCN or IUCNNR (International Union
photosynthetic autotrophic or have formed Pangchen Red Panda
for Conservation of Nature and Natural
chemosynthetic autotrophic) while the conservation alliance to recover
Resources) is now known as WCU
vast majority are heterotrophs (e.g. population of the endangered animal.
(World Conservation Union). Its
saprotrophic or parasitic). Ecologically,
headquarter is at Gland. Switzerland. It
these may be producers or decomposers.
studies the threat to biodiversity in all
22 What is a keystone species?
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
parts of the world by gathering
15 The highest number of species in information about the geographical (a) A species which makes up only a
the world is represented by distribution, population size and small proportion of the total
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] population changes of various taxa. It biomass of a community, yet has a
(a) fungi (b) mosses prepares a Red List or Red Data Book huge impact on the community’s
(c) algae (d) lichens categorising different organisms organisation and survival
belonging to different categories. (b) A common species that has plenty
Ans. (a)
Fungi represent the highest number of of biomass, yet has a fairly low
19 ICBN stands for impact on the community’s
species in the world. Around 1,00,000 [CBSE AIPMT 2007]
species of fungi have been formally organisation
described by taxonomists but the global
(a) Indian Congress of Biological (c) A rare species that has minimal
biodiversity of kingdom fungi is not fully Names impact on the biomass and on
understood. (b) International Code of Botanical other species in the community
Nomenclature (d) A dominant species that
16 Which one of the following shows (c) International Congress of constitutes a large proportion of
maximum genetic diversity in India? Biological Names the biomass and which affects
[CBSE AIPMT 2011, 2009] (d) Indian Code of Botanical many other species
(a) Rice (b) Maize Nomenaclature
Ans. (a)
(c) Mango (d) Groundnut Ans. (b)
Species having much greater influence
Ans. (a) ICBN stands for International Code of on community characteristics, relative
There are an estimated 2,00,000 Botanical Nomenclature. A body of to their low abundance or biomass are
varieties of rice in India alone. The rules and recommendations governing keystone species, removal of these
diversity of rice in India is one of the botanical names. cause serious disruption in functioning
richest in the world. Basmati rice has of community, e.g. in tropical forests,
27 documented varieties grown in India. 20 Which one of the following pairs of figs are keystone species.
organisms are exotic species
17 Which one of the following have introduced in India? 23 According to IUCN Red List, what
the highest number of species in [CBSE AIPMT 2007] is the status of red panda (Athurus
nature? [CBSE AIPMT 2011] (a) Ficus religiosa, Lantana camara fulgens)? [CBSE AIPMT 2005, 2004]
(a) Insects (b) Birds (b) Lantana camara, water hyacinth (a) Vulnerable species
(c) Angiosperms (d) Fungi (b) Critically endangered species
(c) Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
(c) Extinct species
Ans. (a) (d) Nile perch, Ficus religiosa
(d) Endangered species
More than 70 per cent of all the species Ans. (c)
recorded are animals. Among animals, Ans. (d)
A species of organism that is not native
insects are the most species rich to a locality where it is flourishing and Endangered species are those species
taxonomic group, making more than have been moved there from its natural whose population have been reduced to
70 per cent of the total. It means out of range by humans or other agents is a critical level.
every 10 animals on this planet, 7 are called exotic species, e.g. water So, they are near to extinction in near
insects. hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria, etc. future. Approximately 300 species and
sub-species of mammals are 28 Which of the following is mainly 32 Which animal has become extinct
considered as endangered by the
responsible for extinction of from India? [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
International Union for the Conservation
of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). wildlife? [CBSE AIPMT 1999] (a) Snow leopard (b) Hippopotamus
Red panda is an endangered species (a) Destruction of habitats (c) Wolf (d) Cheetah
because it is facing a very high risk of (b) Pollution of air and water Ans. (d)
extinction in near future. (c) Hunting for flesh
Cheetah has become extinct from India
(d) All of the above in 1930. Asiatic cheetah are now found
24 Biodiversity act of India was
passed by the Parliament in the Ans. (d) in Iran and scientists are working to
Destruction of habitats deprives wildlife breed them and bring them back to
year [CBSE AIPMT 2005, 2002]
of their best places where they could Indian sub-continent.
(a) 1996 (b) 1992
flourish, indiscriminate killing of wild
(c) 2002 (d) 2000 animals has greatly reduced their 33 Species diversity increases as one
Ans. (c) population and pollution adversely proceeds from [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
According to the US office of affects their life cycles. (a) high altitude to low altitude and
technology assessment (1987) high latitude to low latitude
‘biological diversity is the variety
29 Which of the following is the main (b) low altitude to high altitude and
among living organisms and the factor of desertification? high latitude to low latitude
ecological complexes in which they [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
(c) low altitude to high altitude and
occur’. Biodiversity act of India was (a) Tourism low latitude to high latitude
passed by the Parliament in the year (b) Irrigated agriculture
(d) high altitude to low altitude and
of 2002. (c) Over grazing low latitude to high latitude
(d) All of these
25 Which endangered animal is the Ans. (a)
Ans. (c)
source of the world’s finest, Species diversity increases from high
The process of formation of desert is altitude or latitude to low altitude or
lightest, warmest and most desertification. Main factor of latitude due to the increase in
expensive wool —the shahtoosh? desertification is over grazing of that temperature and seasonal variability in
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] area by the herbivorous animals.
the concerned areas.
(a) Kashmiri goat (b) Chiru Cutting down of trees may be other
(c) Nilgai (d) Cheetal cause for desertification as it leads to 34 American water plant that has
loss of wild life.
Ans. (c) become a troublesome water weed
According to the US office of 30 If the forest cover is reduced to in India is [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
technology assessment (1987) half, what is most likely to happen (a) Cyperus rotundus
‘biological diversity is the variety among on a long basis? [CBSE AIPMT 1996] (b) Eichhornia crassipes
living organisms and the ecological (c) Trapa latifolia
(a) Tribals living in these areas will
complexes in which they occur’.
starve to death (d) Trapa bispinosa
Biodiversity act of India was passed by
the Parliament in the year of 2002. (b) Cattle in these and adjoining areas Ans. (b)
will die due to lack of fodder Eichhornia crassipes is a native of
26 Which group of vertebrates (c) Large areas will become deserts America and is exotic species to India.
comprises the highest number of (d) Crop breeding programmes will It has become a trouble some weed in
endangered species? suffer due to a reduced availability many aquatic habitats causing
[CBSE AIPMT 2003] of variety of germplasm eutrophication and many other
(a) Reptiles (b) Birds Ans. (c) ecological problems.
(c) Mammals (d) Fishes If the forest cover is reduced to half than
Ans. (c) it will lead to desertification (formation
Approximately 69 mammalian species
of desert) of that area in long term. TOPIC 2
and 40 bird species are threatened in
31 Wildlife is destroyed most when Biodiversity Conservation
India alone.
[CBSE AIPMT 1994]
27 The endangered largest living (a) there is lack of proper care
35 In the following in each set a
lemur Idri idri is inhabitant of (b) mass scale hunting for foreign trade
conservation approach and an
[CBSE AIPMT 2000] (c) its natural habitat is destroyed
example of method of conservation
(a) Madagascar (b) Mauritius (d) natural calamity
are given
(c) Sri Lanka (d) India Ans. (c)
(1) In situ conservation–Biosphere
Ans. (a) Destruction of habitat (including falling
reserve
of trees) exposes wildlife to a number of
The Lemurs are the inhabitants of (2) Ex situ conservation–Sacred
adverse factors leading to diminishing
Madagascar and the Comoro Islands. groves
of their numbers.
(3) In situ conservation–Seed bank Ans. (a) undisturbed and legally protected
(4) Ex situ conservation– The Earth Summit held in Rio de ecosystem, where no human activity is
Janeiro in 1992 was called for the allowed. Buffer zone surrounds the
Cryopreservation core area and transitions zone is the
conservation of biodiversity and
Select the option with correct sustainable utilisation of its benefits. In outermost area of the biosphere
match of approach and method. this summit, more than 130 nations reserve, where active cooperation
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] signed a convention on Biodiversity and between reserve management and the
(a) (1) and (3) (b) (1) and (4) Climate Change. Canada was the key local people occur.
(c) (2) and (4) (d) (1) and (2) player in the development of this Transition zone
convention.
Ans. (b)
Buffer zone
Option (b) is correct. It can be explained 38 All of the following are included in
as In situ conservation is on site ex-situ conservation except Core area
conservation technique, i.e. the species [NEET 2018] Human settlement
are protected in their natural habitats
(a) botanical gardens
only. In this approach the important
(b) sacred groves
components of biological diversity are
protected and managed through (c) wildlife safari parks
Zonation in terrestrial biosphere
protected areas, biosphere reserves (d) seed banks
and sacred forests or lakes. Ans. (b) 41 Joint Forest Management
On the other hand, ex situ conservation Sacred groves is a mode of in situ Concept was introduced in India
involves the conservation of selected conservation in which forest fragments during [NEET 2016, Phase I]
rare flora or fauna in places outside of varying size are protected by
their natural habitat. religious communities. It helps to
(a) 1970s (b) 1980s
It includes off site collection and gene protect the biota of that area on site. (c) 1990s (d) 1960s
banks. In gene banks, germplasm, On the other hand, botanical gardens, Ans. (b)
tissue or embryos are stored in seed banks and wildlife safari parks are Joint Forest Management Concept was
preserved conditions using the the examples of ex situ conservation in introduced in India during 1980s by the
technologies like orchards, tissue which the biota is protected outside its Government of India to work closely
culture and cryopreservation. natural habitat. with the local communities for
protection and management of forests.
36 Which one of the following is not a 39 Which one of the following is
method of in situ conservation of related to Ex situ conservation of 42 Which of the following national parks
biodiversity? threatened animals and plants? is home to the famous musk deer
[NEET 2017] or hangul? [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(a) Wildlife sanctuary (a) Keibul Lamjao National Park,
(a) Wildlife safari parks
(b) Botanical garden Manipur
(b) Biodiversity hotspots
(c) Sacred grove (b) Bandhavgarh National Park,
(c) Amazon rainforest
(d) Biosphere reserve Madhya Pradesh
(d) Himalayan region
Ans. (b) (c) Eaglenest Wildlife Sancturay,
Ans. (a) Arunachal Pradesh
Botonical garden is not a method of in
situ conservation of biodiversity. It is a Wildlife safari parks are used for the ex (d) Dachigam National Park, Jammu
type of ex situ or off site conservation in situ conservation of threatened animals and Kashmir
and plants. They are taken out from
which rare plants are conserved in Ans. (d)
their natural habitat and placed in
places outside their natural habitat.
special settings (wildlife safari park, Dachigam National Park, situated at
Rest all are methods of in situ
zoo). Here they are protected and given Jammu and Kashmir is famous for
conservation of biodiversity.
special care. conservation of musk deer.
37 The Earth Summit held in Rio de At Keibul Lamjao National Park,
40 The region of biosphere reserve, Manipur, brown deer (Sangai) is
Janeiro in 1992 was called which is legally protected and
[NEET (National) 2019] protected. At Bandhavgarh National
where no human activity is Park, MP, tiger is protected.
(a) for conservation of biodiversity
and sustainable utilisation of its allowed is known as [NEET 2017] Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary,
(a) core zone Arunachal Pradesh, protects elephants
benefits
(b) buffer zone and red panda.
(b) to assess threat posed to native
species by invasive weed species (c) transition zone 43 How many hotspots of biodiversity
(c) for immediate steps to (d) restoration zone in the world have been identified
discontinue the use of CFCs that Ans. (a) till date by Norman Myers?
were damaging the ozone layer Biosphere reserve consists of three [NEET 2016, Phase II]
(d) to reduce CO 2 emissions and zones, i.e. core, buffer and transition (a) 17 (b) 25
global warming zone. Core zone comprises an (c) 34 (d) 43
Ans. (c) 47 Which one of the following is not 50 A collection of plants and seeds
The total number of biodiversity used for ex situ plant having diverse alleles of all the
hotspots in the world are 34 till date. conservation? [NEET 2013] genes of a crop is called
These are the areas of high endemism [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
and high level of species richness.
(a) Field gene banks
(b) Seed banks (a) germplasm (b) gene library
44 The species confined to a (c) Shifting cultivation (c) genome (d) herbarium
particular region and not found (d) Botanical gardens Ans. (a)
elsewhere is termed as Ans. (c) A germplasm is a collection of genetic
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] Shifting cultivation results into resources for an organisms. For plants,
(a) keystone (b) alien deforestation. Botanical gardens have the germplasm may be stored as a seed
(c) endemic (d) rare collection of living plants for reference. collection. It includes diverse alleles of
Seed banks store seeds as a source of all the genes of organism occurring in
Ans. (c) germplasm, in case seed reserves nature.
The species confined to a particular elsewhere are destroyed. Field gene
region and not found elsewhere is banks are a type of biorepository which 51 Tiger is not a resident, in which
termed as endemic. preserve the genetic material. one of the following national
Their conservation requires peculiar parks? [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
specific efforts due to their 48 Which one of the following areas
(a) Ranthambhor
unavailability in other parts of world. in India, is a hot spot of
(b) Sunderbans
biodiversity? [CBSE AIPMT 2012] (c) Gir
45 Just as a person moving from
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Gangetic plain (d) Jim Corbett
Delhi to Shimla to escape the heat
(c) Sunderbans (d) Western Ghats
for the duration of hot summer, Ans. (c)
thousands of migratory birds from Ans. (d)
Gir National Park (Gujarat) is not
Siberia and other extremely cold Hotspots are areas that are extremely concerned with tiger. The animals
rich in species diversity, in its natural found in Gir National Park are Asiatic
Northern regions move to habitat, have high endemism and are
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] lion, panther, striped hyaena, sambar,
under constant threat. In India, two nilgai, cheetal, four-horned antelope
(a) Western Ghat hotspots are found extending into and chinkara.
(b) Meghalaya neighbouring countries. The Western
Ranthambhor National Park
(c) Corbett National Park Ghats/Sri Lanka and the Indo-Burman
Sunderbans and Jim Corbett
(d) Keolado National Park region (covering the Eastern Himalayas
which is also known as cradle of National Park (Uttarakhand) are tiger
Ans. (d) reserves.
speciation).
Every year in the season of winter the
famous Indian National Park, Keolado 49 Select the correct statement 52 Which one of the following is not
National Park situated in Bharatpur, observed in biodiversity hot spots?
about biodiversity.
Rajasthan, host thousands of migratory [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
birds which come from Siberia (Atlantic (a) Endemism
Ocean) Central America and other (a) The desert areas of Rajasthan and
Gujarat have a very high level of (b) Accelerated species loss
extremely cold Northern region.
desert animal species as well as (c) Lesser interspecific competition
October-February is the best time to (d) Species richness
observe these migratory birds. Most of numerous rare animals
them stay till march including the (b) Large scale planting of Bt cotton Ans. (c)
Siberian crane. has no adverse effect on Hotspots are the areas that are
biodiversity extremely rich in species diversity, have
46 An example of ex situ conservation (c) Western Ghats have a very high high endemism and are under constant
is degree of species richness and threat. The key criteria for determining
[CBSE AIPMT 2014, 2010] endemism a hotspot are number of endemic
(a) National Park (d) Conservation of biodiversity is just species and degree of threat which is
(b) Seed Bank a fad pursued by the developed measured in terms of habitat loss 34.
(c) Wildlife Sanctuary countries hot spots had been identified globally
(d) Sacred Grove with an approximate area of 1.4%.
Ans. (c) Among these hot spots 2 are found in
Ans. (b) Western Ghats occur along the western India, i.e. Western Ghat and Eastern
Ex situ or off-site conservation is the coast of India in Maharashtra, Himalayas. These areas are particularly
process of protecting endangered Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. rich in floral wealth and endemism not
species of plants and animals outside There is high degree of endemism as
only in flowering plants but also in
their natural habitat. This involves the well as richness of species of flowering
reptiles, amphibians, swallo tailed
conservation of genetic resources like plants, amphibians, reptiles, some
seeds in seed banks. butterflies and some mammals.
mammals and butterflies.
53 World Summit on Sustainable (c) Biosphere reserve Ans. (b)

Development (2002) was held in (d) National park A botanical garden is a garden
[CBSE AIPMT 2008] Ans. (b) dedicated to the collection, cultivation
(a) Brazil and display of a wide range of plants
Botanical gardens (i.e. man-made
with their botanical names. Ex situ
(b) Sweden areas that maintain living plant
conservation means conservation of
(c) Argentina collections representing a large number
plants or animals in the artificial
(d) South Africa of species, genera and families) are the
habitats which are quite similar to the
means of ex situ conservation (i.e.
Ans. (a) normal habitats of these organisms. In
conservation outside the natural
this way botanical gardens provide ex
In 1992, world leaders convened an habitats).
situ conservation of germplasm.
Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, In situ conservation involves the
in search of international agreements conservation of genetic resources
that could help to save the world from
59 In your opinion which is the most
through their maintenance within
pollution, poverty and the waste of natural ecosystems in which they
effective way to conserve the plant
resources. Another Earth Summit was occur. diversity of an area?
convened from 26th August-4th It includes National Parks, Sanctuaries,
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
September 2002 in Johannesburg, Biosphere Reserves, Natural Reserves, (a) By tissue culture method
South Africa. Natural Monuments, Cultural (b) By creating biosphere reserve
Landscapes, etc. (c) By creating botanical gardens
54 One of endangered species of
Indian medicinal plants is that of (d) By developing seed banks
considered a hotspot of
(a) Podophyllum biodiversity in India? Biosphere reserve is an in situ
(b) Ocimum [CBSE AIPMT 2006] conservation method. Hence, it is the
(c) garlic most effective way among the four
(a) Western ghats
(d) Nepenthes above for preserving genetic diversity
(b) Indo-Gangetic plain by protecting wild population,
Ans. (a) (c) Eastern ghats traditional life style and domesticated
Podophyllum is an Indian endangered (d) Aravalli hills plant genetic resource.
plant of family–Berberidaceae. Its dried
Ans. (a)
roots and rhizomes are used in chronic 60 Species restricted to a given area are
constipation and tumurous growth. Hotspots are the areas with high
called [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
density of diversity or megadiversity
55 Identify the odd combination of which are also the most threatened (a) sibling
the habitat and the particular once. Today, the number of hot spots (b) endemic
identified by ecologists are 34, of which (c) sympatric
animal concerned. two hot spots are present in India, i.e.
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] (d) allopatric
Western Ghats and North-East
(a) Dachigam National Park Himalayas. Ans. (b)
— Snow leopard Western Ghats occur along the Western Species restricted to small areas are
(b) Sunderbans — Bengal tiger Coast of India for a distance of about called endemic; approximately 29% of
1600 km in Maharashtra, Karnataka, dicots in the Himalayas are endemic.
(c) Periyar — Elephant
(d) Rann of Kutch — Wild ass Tamil Nadu and Kerala extending over
to Sri Lanka. 61 MAB stands for [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Ans. (a) (a) Man And Biology programme
Dachigam National Park is situated near 58 One of the most important (b) Man And Biosphere programme
Dal Lake in Jammu and Kashmir. It is function of botanical garden is (c) Mammals And Biosphere
known for conservation of the most
that [CBSE AIPMT 2005] (d) Mammals And Biology programme
endangered Hangul or Kashmir stag in
paramount. (a) one can observe tropical plants Ans. (b)
there Man And Biosphere (MAB) programme
56 Which one of the following is not (b) they allow ex situ conservation of was formally launched by UNESCO in
included under in situ conservation? germplasm 1971. It is an interdisciplinary
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] (c) they provide the natural habitat for programme of research and training
(a) Sanctuary wild Life with emphasis on ecological approach
(b) Botanical gardens (d) they provide a beautiful area for to the study of inter-relationship
recreation between man and his environment.
62 A number of natural reserves have sanctuary and its main protected Ans. (a)
been created to conserve specific wild animal? [CBSE AIPMT 1995] Kaziranga National Park is associated
wildlife species. Identify the (a) Gir — Lion with rhinoceros. It is situated in
(b) Sariska — Tiger Golaghat and Nagaon districts of
correct combination from the Assam. This National Park is famous for
following [CBSE AIPMT 1996] (c) Sunderban — Rhino
one- horned rhinoceros of India.
(a) Gir forest — Tiger (d) Kaziranga — Musk deer
(b) Kaziranga — Elephants Ans. (b) 65 Ranthambore National Park is
(c) Rann of Kutch — Wild ass Sariska is a wildlife sanctuary and is situated in [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(d) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary situated in Alwar, Rajasthan. Tiger is (a) Maharashtra
— Musk deer main protected animal in Sariska as it (b) Rajasthan
was selected as a Tiger Reserve in
Ans. (c) (c) Gujarat
Project Tiger (1973). Gir is a National
Rann of Kutch is situated in Gujarat and Park, associated with lions. (d) UP
provides protection mainly to wild ass, Ans. (b)
whereas musk deers are mainly 64 National Park associated with Ranthambore National Park is situated
protected in Kedarnath sanctuary. Gir is rhinoceros is [CBSE AIPMT 1994] in Rajasthan.
famous for Asiatic lions. Kaziranga is
famous for one-horned rhinoceros. (a) Kaziranga This is one of the tiger reserves
(b) Ranthambore established in 1973. Under the project
63 Which of the following is the (c) Corbett Tiger initiative taken by Indian
(d) Valley of flowers Government.
correct matching pair of a
38
Environmental Issues
g369
TOPIC 1 The allergens stimulate the release of It is considered as pollutant only when
histamine from the mast cells which in its concentration reaches beyond a
Air Pollution and Its Control turn contracts the smooth muscles of threshold value in the environment. CO2
bronchioles. is a quantitative as well as a primary
01 Air (Prevention and Control of pollutant.
Pollution) Act was amended in 1987 03 Which of the following protocols
did aim for reducing emission of 05 Which one of the following
to include among pollutants
[NEET (Oct.) 2020] chlorofluorocarbons into the statements is not valid for
(a) vehicular exhaust atmosphere? [NEET (National) 2019] aerosols ? [NEET 2017]
(b) allergy causing pollen (a) Kyoto Protocol (a) They are harmful to human health
(c) noise (b) Gothenburg Protocol (b) They alter rainfall and monsoon
patterns
(d) particulates of size 2.5 micrometer or (c) Geneva Protocol
below (c) They cause increased agricultural
(d) Montreal Protocol productivity
Ans. (c) (d) They have negative impact on
Ans. (d)
Air prevention and control of pollution agricultural land
acts was amended in 1987 to include Montreal Protocol aimed to reduce the
noise among pollutants. This act is emission of chlorofluorocarbons into Ans. (c)
meant for preserving quality of air, atmosphere because it has the Aerosol refers to the suspended
controlling air and noise pollution and deleterious effects on stratospheric particulate matter of less than 1 µm size.
prevent their detrimental effects on ozone. This protocol was signed in These are kind of air pollutants that are
human health and health of other Montreal, Canada in 1987. Kyoto Protocol suspended in our atmosphere. They have
biological entities. aimed to reduce the emission of a measurable effect on climate change as
CO2 , NO2 and methane. they can modify the amount of energy
It was signed by 160 countries in a reflected by clouds.
02 Due to increasing air-borne convention held in Kyoto, Japan in 1997.
allergens and pollutants, many As a result, they can change the
Geneva Protocol is a treaty to prohibit
atmospheric circulation patterns and
people in urban areas are suffering the use of chemical or biological
affect agriculture negatively. These also
from respiratory disorder causing weapons in international armed
affect human health by causing breathing
wheezing due to conflicts.
problems.
[NEET (National) 2019] Gothenberg Protocol is a multipollutant
protocol which focuses to reduce
(a) inflammation of bronchi and 06 Which of the following are most
bronchioles eutrophications, acidification, emission
standards for SO2 , etc. suitable indicators of SO2 pollution
(b) proliferation of fibrous tissues and in the environment?
damage of the alveolar walls [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(c) reduction in the secretion of 04 Which of the following is a
secondary pollutant? [NEET 2018] (a) Lichens
surfactants by pneumocytes
(d) benign growth on mucous lining of (a) SO2 (b) CO2 (b) Conifers
nasal cavity (c) CO (d) O3 (c) Algae
(d) Fungi
Ans. (a) Ans. (d)
Wheezing occurs due to the Ozone (O3 ) is a secondary pollutant as it
Ans. (a)
inflammation of bronchi and is formed by the reaction amongst the Lichens are useful bioindicators for air
bronchioles. It is one of the most primary pollutants. On the other hand, pollution, especially sulphur dioxide
significant feature of asthma in which SO2 is a primary pollutant. These pollution, since they derive their water
people face difficulty in breathing. It is pollutants persist in the environment in and essential nutrients mainly from
usually caused due to increasing air the form they are passed into it. CO is the atmosphere rather than from soil.
borne allergens and pollutants. qualitative pollutant.
Environmental Issues 367
07 Acid rain is caused by increase in 10 The Air Prevention and Control of 13 dB is a standard abbreviation used
the atmospheric concentration of Pollution Act came into force in for the quantitative expression of
[CBSE AIPMT 2015] [NEET 2013] [CBSE AIPMT 2010]
(a) SO 2 and NO 2 (b) SO 3 and CO (a) 1975 (b) 1981 (a) the density of bacteria in a medium
(c) CO 2 and CO (d) O 3 and dust (c) 1985 (d) 1990 (b) a particular pollutant
Ans. (a) Ans. (b) (c) the dominant Bacillus in a culture
Acid rain is caused by increase in the Air Prevention and Control of Pollution (d) a certain pesticide
atmospheric concentration of SO 2 and Protection Act come into force in 1981 to Ans. (b)
NO 2 . These mix with water vapour to control and prevent air pollution. It was
Noise pollution is a physical form of
form sulphuric acid (H2 SO 4) and nitric amended in 1987. Environmental
pollution that affects the receiver
acid (HNO 3 ) respectively which falls on Protection Act in 1986 and water
directly affecting the nervous system
earth in the form of acid rain. (Prevention and Control of Pollution) act
which result into various disorders in
in 1974.
humans. dB (decibel) is a standard
08 The UN conference of Parties on abbreviation used for the quantitative
climate change in the year 2012 11 Kyoto Protocol was endorsed at expression of noise. Noise or pollutant
[NEET 2013] sound has a value of 80 dB and above, it
was held at [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
(a) CoP-3 harms hearing system. The WHO has
(a) Durban (b) Doha fixed 45 dB as the safe noise level for a
(b) CoP-5
(c) Lima (d) Warsaw city.
(c) CoP-6
Ans. (b) (d) CoP-4
The UN conference of Parties (COP-18) 14 Steps taken by the Government of
was the UN framework convention on Ans. (a)
India to control air pollution include
climate change (UNFCCC) was held in Doha, Kyoto Protocol is an international [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
Qatar from 26th Nov. to 8th Dec, 2012. agreement linked to United nations
(a) compulsory mixing of 20% ethyl
framework convention on climate
alcohol with petrol and 20%
09 A scrubber in the exhaust of a change. It held at Kyoto, Japan in 1997
biodiesel with diesel
chemical industrial plant removes and entered into force on 16 February,
2005. The developed countries agreed to (b) compulsory PUC (Pollution Under
[CBSE AIPMT 2014] Control) certification of petrol driven
specific targets for cutting their
(a) Gases like sulphur dioxide emissions of greenhouse gases. vehicles, which tests for carbon
(b) Particulate matter of the size 5 monoxide and hydrocarbons
A general framework was defined for
micrometer or above (c) permission to use only pure diesel
this, with specifics to be detailed over
(c) Gases like ozone and methane with a maximum of 500 ppm sulphur
the next few years. This became known
as fuel for vehicles
(d) Particulate matter of the size 2.5 as the Kyoto Protocol.
micrometer or less (d) use of non-polluting Compressed
12 Which one of the following Natural Gas (CNG) only as fuel by all
Ans. (a) buses and trucks
statements is wrong in case of
Scrubber is an electrostatic precipitator
Bhopal gas tragedy? Ans. (b)
in which the dirty air is cleaned by
capturing the gas likeSO2 and other [CBSE AIPMT 2011] Government of India have taken many
oxides in water/lime spray(CaCO 3 ). The (a) Thousands of human being died steps to control air pollution. Out of
calcium in lime stone combines (b) adioactive fall out engulfed Bhopal which one includes compulsory PUC
chemically with the sulphur to produce (c) It took place in the night of (Pollution Under Control) certification of
calcium sulphate(CaSO 4 ), which is December 23, 1984 petrol driven vehicles, which test for
separately collected. The detailed carbon monoxide and hydrocarbons
(d) Methyl isocyanate gas leakage took
mechanism is shown in the figure below: emissions of the vehicles.
place
Clean
Gas/Mist out Ans. (d) 15 According to Central Pollution
Bhopal gas gragedy (Bhopal disaster) Control Board (CPCB), which
one of the world’s worst industrial
Water particulate size in diameter (in
Liquid in catastrophes. It occurred on the night of
December 23, 1984 at the Union Carbide micrometres) of the air pollutants
India Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant in is responsible for greatest harm to
Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. human health? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
A leak of methyl isocyanate gas and (a) 2.5 or less (b) 1.5 or less
other chemicals from the plant resulted (c) 1.0 or less (d) 5.2 or 2.5
in the exposure of hundreds of
Dirt Dirt thousands of people. Ans. (a)
Gas In Gas In According to CPCB, air pollutants of size
The official immediate death toll was
2,259 and the government of Madhya 2.5 or less (in micrometres) diameter are
Pradesh has confirmed a total of 3,787 harmful to human health. It is the main
deaths related to the gas releases. cause of respiratory disorders in
Slurry/Waste Out polluted cities like Delhi.
16 In a coal fired power plant, Source Intensity (dB) (c) sodium thiocyanate
electrostatic precipitators are Breathing 10 (d) methyl isocyanate
installed to control emission of Broadcasting studio 20 Ans. (d)
[CBSE AIPMT 2007] Trickling clock 30 Methyl isocyanate gas, used as raw
(a) SO 2 (b) NO x material for synthesising carbonyl,
Library 30-35
(c) SPM (d) CO caused Bhopal gas tragedy in 1984.
Normal conversation 35-60
Ans. (c)
Telephone 60 23 Carbon monoxide is a pollutant
The electrostatic precipitors are
installed to control emission of Office noise 60-80 because [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
Suspended Particulate Matter (SPM) as it Alarm clock 70-80 (a) it reacts with O 2
is cause of various respiratory disorders (b) it inhibits glycolysis
Traffic 50-90
in humans. (c) it reacts with haemoglobin
Motor cycle 105
(d) it makes nervous system inactive
17 Lead concentration in blood is Jet fly (over 1000') 100-110
Ans. (c)
considered alarming if it is Train whistle (50') 110
Carbon monoxide, (CO) when inhaled,
[CBSE AIPMT 2004]
Air craft (100') 110-120 combines with blood haemoglobin to
(a) 20 µg/100 mL (b) 30 µg/100 mL form carboxy haemoglobin at a rate 210
Commercial jet air craft 120-140
(c) 4-6 µg/100 mL (d) 10 µg/100 mL (100') times faster than the oxygen forms
Ans. (b) oxyhaemoglobin. Thus, respiration is
Space rocket 170-180
(launching) impaired.
The concentration of lead in blood
averages about 25µg / 100 mL. Increase
to 70 µg / 100 mL is generally associated 24 The CO2 content by volume, in the
20 Which of the following is pollution
with clinical symptoms. Hence, a level of atmospheric air is about
30 µg / 100 mL is considered alarming.
related disorder? [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(a) Fluorosis (b) Leprosy [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
The chief sources of Pb to water are the
effluents of lead and lead processing (c) Pneumonicosis (d) Silicosis (a) 0.0314% (b) 0.34%
industries. (c) 3.34% (d) 4%
Ans. (d)
Silicosis is a pollution related disorder. It Ans. (a)
18 In 1984, the Bhopal gas tragedy is caused by inhalation of dust CO2 constitutes 0.0314% of the
took place because methyl containing free silica or silicon dioxide atmosphere. Producers use CO2 along
isocyanate [CBSE AIPMT 2004] especially by workers engaged in mining, with energy from sun and make carbon
(a) reacted with DDT pottery, ceramic industry, sand blasting, compounds such as glucose during the
building and construction industries. process of photosynthesis. Consumers
(b) reacted with ammonia
Fluorosis is caused due to deficiency of use these compounds as energy source.
(c) reacted with CO 2
(d) reacted with water fluoride.
Leprosy is caused by Mycobacterium 25 The Taj Mahal is threatened due to
Ans. (d) leprae. the effect of [CBSE AIPMT 1995]
Bhopal gas tragedy occurred (23 Dec. Pneumonicosis is caused by Diplococcus (a) oxygen
1984) when MIC (Methyl Isocyanate) pneumoniae. (b) hydrogen
reacted with water in a tank, an
exothermic chemical reaction started (c) chlorine
and produced a lot of heat. As a result,
21 Which of the following is a (d) sulphur dioxide
the safety valve of tank burst because of secondary pollutant? Ans. (d)
increase in pressure and gave rise to a [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
Taj Mahal of Agra is affected by gases
heavy gas which rapidly killed the people (a) Aerosol (b) CO discharged from oil refinery in Mathura
around. (c) PAN (d) CO2 which consists of SO2 , H2 S and nitrogen
oxide. SO2 corrodes metals, equipment
19 What is the intensity of sound in Ans. (c)
and damages buildings marble.
normal conversation? PAN (Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate) is secondary
pollutant. Pollutants formed by the 26 Sound becomes hazardous noise
[CBSE AIPMT 2001]
chemical interaction of primary
(a) 0-20 dB (b) 30-60 dB pollutants with atmospheric gas and
pollution at level [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(c) 70-90 dB (d) 120-150 dB moisture, often catalysed by sunlight are (a) above 30 dB (b) above 80 dB
Ans. (b) called secondary pollutants. (c) above 100 dB (d) above 120 dB
The word noise is taken from the Latin Ans. (b)
word nausea and is defined as unwanted 22 In 1984, Bhopal gas tragedy was Noise pollution is measured in decibels.
or unpleasant sound that causes caused due to the leakage of Noise level up to 64 dB is well tolerated.
discomfort. [CBSE AIPMT 1999] Noise above 80 dB causes discomfort in
Intensity of some noise sources is as (a) potassium isocyanate man. WHO recommends an industrial
follows: (b) sodium monoxide noise limit of 75 dB.
27 Atmosphere of big/metropolitan TOPIC 2 Ans. (a)

cities is polluted most by Water Pollution Eutrophication is the nutrient
enrichment of water bodies containing
[CBSE AIPMT 1994] and Its Control excessive population of phytoplanktons.
(a) automobile exhausts
(b) pesticide residue Sanitary landfill is a method of solid waste
31 Which of the following is put into disposal in which the waste material is
(c) household waste
anaerobic sludge digester for burried in the pits dug on the ground and
(d) radioactive fall-out later they get covered by soil.
further sewage treatment?
Ans. (a) [NEET (Sep.) 2020] Snow blindness is caused due to UV-B
Automobile exhausts are the largest (a) Floating debris radiations exposure. These radiations
source of air pollution in big cities. can reach the earth surface due to the
(b) Effluents of primary treatment
Automobiles release carbon monoxide depletion of ozone layer.
(c) Activated sludge
(77.2%), hydrocarbons (13.7%) and In Jhum cultivation, land is cultivated
(d) Primary sludge
nitrogen oxide (7.7%). temporarily and then abandoned so that,
Ans. (c) it can revert to its natural vegetation. It
28 Major aerosol pollutant in jet plane Activated sludge is put into anaerobic is a long term process and usually leads
sludge digester for further sewage to deforestation.
emission is [CBSE AIPMT 1990]
treatment. It contains biological flocs
(a) sulphur dioxide that contain bacteria and protozoan for 34 A river with an inflow of domestic
(b) carbon monoxide further digestion of organic wastes sewage rich in organic waste may
(c) methane under aerobic conditions. result in [NEET 2016, Phase I]
(d) chlorofluoro-carbons
(a) increased population of aquatic food
Ans. (d) 32 Which one of the following web organisms
Aerosols are the chemicals released in equipments is essentially required (b) an increased production of fish due
air with force. Jet aeroplanes are for growing microbes on a large to biodegradable nutrients
important source of aerosol in upper scale, for industrial production of (c) death of fish due to lack of oxygen
atmosphere. Aerosols contain CFCs enzymes? [NEET (National) 2019] (d) drying of the river very soon due to
(Chlorofluoro Carbons). (a) Sludge digester (b) Industrial oven algal bloom
(c) Bioreactor (d) BOD incubator Ans. (c)
29 Which one is not a pollutant A river with an inflow of domestic
normally? [CBSE AIPMT 1988]
Ans. (c)
sewage rich in organic waste will reduce
Bioreactors are required for growing the dissolved oxygen (DO). The organic
(a) Hydrocarbons
microbes on large scale for the industrial waste will increase biological oxygen
(b) Carbon dioxide production of enzymes. These large
(c) Carbon monoxide demand of the river thus depleting theO2
vessels provide biologically active content and may result in death of fish
(d) Sulphur dioxide environment. On the other hand, sludge due to lack of oxygen.
Ans. (b) digesters are used to decompose
organic solid waste under aerobic 35 The highest DDT concentration in
CO2 is an essential component of the air conditions. BOD incubators are used to
and its concentration is 0.03% but when maintain the temperature for tissue
aquatic food chain shall occur in
CO2 concentration goes above this limit, [NEET 2016, Phase II]
culture growth, bacterial cultures, etc.
it acts as a pollutant. (a) phytoplankton
33 Match the items given in Column I (b) seagull
30 Acid rains are produced by with those in Column II and select (c) crab
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] (d) eel
the correct option given below.
(a) excess NO2 and SO2 from burning
[NEET 2018] Ans. (b)
fossil fuels
(b) excess production of NH3 by industry Column-I Column-II DDT is a toxic substance which gets
concentrated subsequently in a food
and coal gas 1. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation
chain of an aquatic ecosystem in the
(c) excess release of carbon monoxide 2. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation following manner
by incomplete combustion 3. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient Phytoplanktons → Eel → Crab →
(d) excess formation of CO 2 by enrichment Seagull
combustion and animal respiration 4. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal (0.04 ppm) (0.5 ppm) (2 ppm) (25 ppm)
Ans. (a) Thus, the animal or organism acquiring
1 2 3 4
SO2 and NO2 are the gases responsible the highest position in a food chain
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) would have the highest DDT
for acid rains. SO2 mainly comes from
(b) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii) concentration (here seagull). This
burning of coal, fossil fuel, in the form of
smoke from industries. (c) (ii) (i) (ii) (iv) process is known as biological
(d) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) magnification or biomagnification.
36 A lake which is rich in organic waste (a) birds stopped laying eggs Ans. (b)
may result in [NEET 2016, Phase II] (b) earthworms in the area got Sewage is waste water having food
eradicated residue, animal and human excreta,
(a) increased population of aquatic
(c) cobras were feeding exclusively on detergents, discharges from commercial
organisms due to minerals
birds and industrial establishments.
(b) drying of the lake due to algal bloom
(d) many of the birds laid eggs, that did The domestic sewage is processed first
(c) increased population of fish due to
not hatch by aerobic and then by anaerobic
lots of nutrients
(d) mortality of fish due to lack of Ans. (d) bacteria in secondary treatment in
oxygen DDT, its breakdown products and other Sewage Treatment Plant (STPs) and then
chlorinated hydrocarbon pesticides pose recycled for further use.
Ans. (d)
serious threat to birds. These persistant
When much of organic matter is present poisons enter the food chain and they 42 DDT residues are rapidly passed
in lake, lots of microbial activity takes accumulate in the fatty tissues of through food chain causing
place in its decomposition process. So, organisms at lower trophic level and
demand for oxygen increases. This biomagnification because DDT is
then tend to concentrate in considerably
increasedO2 demand depletes the (a) lipo soluble [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
toxic amount as they move up through
dissolved oxygen in water at faster rates. the food chain. This is called (b) moderately toxic
This adversely affects the living conditions biomagnification or bioconcentration. It (c) non-toxic to aquatic animals
for other organisms like fishes, etc. weakens the calcarious egg shell of birds (d) water soluble
ultimately causing their death. as it becomes very thin.
Ans. (a)
37 Increase in concentration of the Many of the pesticides, such as DDT,
40 Measuring Biochemical Oxygen aldrin and dieldrin are accumulated in
toxicant at successive tropic levels Demand (BOD) is a method used for
is known as [CBSE AIPMT 2015]
the environment.
[CBSE AIPMT 2012]
They are fat soluble and generally
(a) biomagnification (a) estimating the amount of organic non-biodegradable. They get
(b) biodeterioration matter in sewage water incorporated into the food chain and
(c) biotransformation (b) working out the efficiency of oil ultimately deposited in the fatty tissues
(d) biogeochemical cycling driven automobile engines of animals and humans.
(c) measuring the activity of In the food chain, because of their build
Ans. (a)
Saccharomyces cerevisae in up, they get magnified in the higher
Biomagnification is the sequence of producing curd on a commercial
processes in an ecosystem by which trophic levels called biological
scale magnification. The phenomenon of
higher concentrations of a particular (d) working out the efficiency of RBCs
toxicant, such as the pesticide or heavy biological magnification is also reported
about their capacity to carry oxygen for certain other pollutants such as,
metal are reached in higher organisms of
the food chain, generally through a Ans. (a) heavy metals, e.g. mercury, copper and
series of prey-predator relationships. Decomposition of organic matter by radioactive substances as strontium-90.
microbial activity depends on oxygen
38 Eutrophication of water bodies availability in water.
43 Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD)
leading to killing of fishes is mainly in a river water [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
The degree of impurity of water due to
the organic matter is measured in terms (a) remains unchanged when algal
due to non-availability of
of BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) or bloom occurs
[CBSE AIPMT 2015]
BOD is the oxygen in milligrams required (b) has no relationship with
(a) food concentration of oxygen in the water
for five days in one litre of water at 20°C
(b) light for the microorganisms to metabolise (c) gives a measure of Salmonella in the
(c) essential minerals organic waste. water
(d) oxygen (d) increases when sewage gets mixed
Ans. (c) 41 The domestic sewage in large with river water
Eutrophication is a process where water cities Ans. (d)
bodies receive excess nutrients that [CBSE AIPMT 2012] When sewage gets mixed with river
stimulate excessive plant growth. This (a) has a high BOD as it contains both water, BOD will increase. Biochemical
can lead to overcrowding and aerobic and anaerobic bacteria Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the amount of
competition for sunlight, space and (b) is processed by aerobic and then oxygen used for biochemical oxidation of
oxygen. This condition creates the anaerobic bacteria in the secondary organic mater by microorganisms in a
lacking of essential nutrients for fishes treatment in Sewage Treatment unit volume of water. Polluted water has
due to which they die. Plants (STPs) high BOD.
(c) when treated in STPs does not really
39 In an area where DDT had been require the aeration step as the 44 A lake near a village suffered heavy
used extensively, the population of sewage contains adequate oxygen mortality of fishes within a few
birds declined significantly because (d) has very high amounts of suspended days. Consider the following
[CBSE AIPMT 2012] solids and dissolved salts reasons for this
I. Lots of urea and phosphate because lots of urea and phosphate 49 Limit of BOD prescribed by Central
fertilizer were used in the crops fertiliser were used in the crops in the
Pollution Control Board for the
vicinity and the area was sprayed with
in the vicinity. discharge of industrial and
DDT by an aircraft.
II. The area was sprayed with DDT municipal waste water into natural
Inorganic phosphorus and nitrogen are
by an aircraft. responsible for the growth of algae. In surface water, is
III. The lake water turned green and polluted water these increase due to [CBSE AIPMT 2006]
stinky. which algae increase greatly at the (a) < 3.0 ppm (b) < 10 ppm
IV. Phytoplankton populations in the surface of water forming water bloom.
(c) < 100 ppm (d) < 30 ppm
Due to death of these algae their organic
lake declined initially thereby Ans. (b)
matter gets decomposed due to which
greatly reducing photosynthesis. oxygen gets depleted and aquatic animal The Central Pollution Control Board
Which two of the above were the dies. prescribed the BOD limit for the
main causes of fish mortality in discharge of industrial and municipal
the lake? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] 46 Which one of the following is not a waste water as < 10 ppm.
(a) II, III (b) III, IV bioindicator of water pollution?
(c) I, III (d) I, II [CBSE AIPMT 2007] 50 Which of the following is not used
(a) Sludge worms for disinfection of drinking water?
(b) Blood worms
A lake near a village suffered heavy (a) Phenyl (b) Chloramine
mortality of fishes within a few days, (c) Stone flies
(d) Sewage fungus (c) Chlorine (d) Ozone
because lots of urea and phosphate
fertiliser were used in the crops in the Ans. (c) Ans. (a)
vicinity and the area was sprayed with Among the following stone flies are not Phenyl is not used for disinfection of
DDT by an aircraft. Inorganic phosphorus bioindicators of pollution. Stone flies drinking water as it is a poisonous
and nitrogen are responsible for the (e.g Perla sp.) belong to substance. Water is chlorinated for
growth of algae. order–Plecoptera of class–Insecta, getting disinfected.
In polluted water, these increase due to which has the terrestrial mandibulates.
which algae increase greatly at the 51 Fluoride pollution mainly affects
surface of water forming water bloom. [CBSE AIPMT 2004]
47 In which one of the following, the
Due to the death of these algae their (a) teeth (b) kidney
organic matter gets decomposed due to BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) (c) brain (d) heart
which oxygen gets depleted and aquatic of sewage (S), distillery effluent
Ans. (a)
animals die. (DE), paper mill effluent (PE) and
Prolonged intake of fluoride polluted
sugar mill effluent (SE) have been water causes stiffning of bone and joints
45 A lake near a village suffered heavy arranged in ascending order? particularly spinal cord. Due to the
mortality of fishes within a few [CBSE AIPMT 2007] affinity with calcium, fluoride stores in
days. Consider the following (a) SE < S < PE < DE bones which causes mottling of teeth,
reasons for this (b) SE < PE < S < DE bone pains and outward bending of legs
from the knees. This is known as knock
I. Lots of urea and phosphate (c) PE < S < SE < DE knee syndrome.
fertiliser were used in the crops (d) S < DE < PE < SE
in the vicinity. Ans. (d) 52 Which of the following is absent in
II. The area was sprayed with DDT The ascending order of BOD is Sewage polluted water ? [CBSE AIPMT 2002]
by an aircraft. (S) < Distillary Effluent (DE) < Paper Mill
Effluent (PE) < Sugar Mill Effluent (SE). (a) Hydrilla (b) Water hyacinth
III. The lake water turned green and
(c) Larva of stone fly (d) Blue-green algae
stinky.
IV. Phytoplankton populations in the 48 Photochemical smog pollution does Ans. (c)
lake declined initially thereby not contain [CBSE AIPMT 2006] Stone flies are exopterygote insects with
greatly reducing photosynthesis. (a) ozone aquatic nymphs; long antennae, biting
(b) nitrogen dioxide mouth parts and weak flight. Adults have
Which two of the above were the the tendency to feed on lichens and
(c) carbon dioxide
main causes of fish mortality in unicellular algae. These are good
(d) PAN (Peroxy Acyl Nitrate) pollution indicators.
the lake? [CBSE AIPMT 2008]
(a) II and III Ans. (c)
(b) III and IV Photochemical smog is highly oxidising 53 What is BOD? [CBSE AIPMT 2001]
(c) I and III pollutant comprising largely of ozone (a) The amount of O2 utilised by
(O3 ), oxides of nitrogen (NOx ) , hydrogen organisms in water
(d) I and II
peroxide (H2 O2 ) , organic peroxides, (b) The amount of O2 utilised by
Ans. (d) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate (PAN) and Peroxy microorganisms for decomposition
A lake near a village suffered heavy Benzyl Nitrate (PBN) but not carbon (c) The total amount ofO2 present in water
mortality of fishes within a few days, dioxide (CO2 ). (d) All of the above
Ans. (b) Ans. (d) Ans. (d)

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is the A variety of the enteric group of bacteria Taj Mahal of Agra is affected by gases
amount of O2 required for biological (facultative, aerobic) reside in the human discharged from oil refinery in Mathura
oxidation of organic matter present in large intestine (e.g. E.coli). Therefore, which consists of SO2 , H2 S and nitrogen
polluted water by microorganisms in any their presence in water supply indicates oxide. SO2 corrodes metals, equipment
unit volume of water. that water supply has been and damages buildings marble.
contaminated by sewage.
54 DDT is [CBSE AIPMT 1999] 61 Highest DDT deposition shall occur
(a) a non-degradable pollutant 57 Phosphate pollution is mainly in [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
(b) an antibiotic caused by [CBSE AIPMT 1997] (a) phytoplankton
(c) a biodegradable pollutant (a) phosphate rock only (b) sea gull/birds
(d) not a pollutant (b) agricultural fertilisers only (c) crab
Ans. (a) (c) sewage and phosphate rocks (d) eel
DDT is non-degradable pollulant which (d) sewage and agricultural fertilisers Ans. (b)
accumulates in the tissues. Its Ans. (d) DDT concentration increases in amount
concentration is estimated to be 13-31
Man has been releasing large quantities with rise in trophic level because they
ppm in body fat of Indians, which has
of phosphorus into the biosphere in the accumulate in fat, this is
been accumulated in them through
form of agricultural fertilisers biomagnification. In the given options
biomagnification of DDT through food
(superphosphates) and synthetic sea gull/birds are the top consumers so
chain.
detergents. DDT concentration will be highest in
them.
55 A sewage treatment process in
58 Sewage drained into water bodies
which a portion of the decomposer 62 Disease caused by eating fish
kill fishes because
bacteria present in the waste is [CBSE AIPMT 1996] found in water contaminated with
recycled into the beginning of the (a) excessive carbon dioxide is added industrial waste having mercury is
process, is called to water [CBSE AIPMT 1994]
[CBSE AIPMT 1998] (b) it gives off a bad smell (a) Minamata disease
(a) cyclic treatment (c) it removes the food eaten by fish (b) Bright’s disease
(b) primary treatment (d) it increases competition with fishes (c) Hashimoto’s disease
(c) activated sludge treatment for dissolved oxygen (d) Osteosclerosis
(d) tertiary treatment Ans. (d) Ans. (a)
Ans. (c) Sewage provides food for decomposers. Consumption of fishes poisoned with
The word activated sludge system is Phosphorus and nitrogen compounds mercury causes deformity called
derived from the practice of adding present in sewage result into excessive Minamata disease, which is
aerobic heterotrophic bacteria to the growth of algae on water surface, which characterised by diarrhoea, impairment
incoming sewage, from a previous is also called algal bloom, this all results of senses, haemolysis, meningitis and
batch. This sludge inoculum contains in decrease in oxygen, which is death.
large numbers of metabolising bacteria, dangerous for aquatic life.
together with yeasts, molds and 63 Domestic waste constitutes
Protozoa. An especially important 59 In Minamata Bay of Japan, the [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
ingredient of the sludge are species of animals which remained free from (a) non-biodegradable pollution
Zoogloea bacteria, which form flocculant
Minamata disease, are (b) biodegradable pollution
masses (floc) in the aeration tanks.
[CBSE AIPMT 1995] (c) effluents
The activity of these aerobic
(a) pigs (b) rabbits (d) air pollution
micro-organisms oxidises much of the
effluent’s organic matter into carbon (c) dogs d) cats Ans. (b)
dioxide and water. When the aeration Ans. (b) Domestic waste constitutes
phase is completed, the floc (secondary Rabbits remained free from Minamata biodegradable pollutants, such
sludge) is allowed to settle to the disease as they are herbivores and this pollutants are naturally present organic
bottom, just as the primary sludge disease is caused due to mercury compounds which can be broken down
settles in primary treatment. pollution in water. by microorganisms and can be recycled,
e.g. sewage.
56 Which one of the following 60 When huge amount of sewage is
organism is used as indicator of dumped into a river, its BOD will 64 The maximum biomagnification
water quality? [CBSE AIPMT 1998] [CBSE AIPMT 1995] would be in which of the following
(a) Beggiatoa (a) increase in case of aquatic ecosystem?
(b) Chlorella (b) decrease [CBSE AIPMT 1999]
(c) Azospirillum (c) sharply decrease (a) Fishes (b) Phytoplanktons
(d) Escherichia (d) remain unchanged (c) Birds (d) Zooplanktons
Ans. (a) earth’s surface. Nuclear waste disposal Ans. (d)

Non-degradable chemicals enter the is extremely hazardous. Before burrying Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere.
food chain and their concentration goes the waste, it is sealed in large containers It protects us from the harmful UV
up as they move up in the food chain. so as to reduce its radiation effects. radiations coming from the sun. The
This phenomenon is called supersonic aircrafts flying at
68 Relative Biological Effectiveness stratospheric heights cause major
biomagnification. Naturally in a food
chain, Phytoplankton→ Zooplankton (RBE) is usually referred to disturbances in ozone level due to
→ Fishes → Birds, it would be highest in damages caused by release of CFCs which react withO3
fishes. [CBSE AIPMT 2000] present there, thus cause thinning ofO3
layer.
(a) low temperature
65 Animals/organisms floating on the (b) high temperature
surface of water are 72 The worst environmental hazards
(c) encephalitis
[CBSE AIPMT 1988] were created by accidents in
(d) radiation
(a) plankton (b) pelagic nuclear power plant and MIC gas
Ans. (d) tragedy respectively in
(c) benthos (d) neritic
RBE (Relative Biological Effectiveness) [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
Ans. (a) is a comparison of the dose of the (a) Russia in 1990 and Bhopal in 1986
Organisms floating on the surface of radiation being studied with the dose of
water are planktons, these are of two standard radiation producing the same
(b) Ukrain in 1988 and USA in 1984
types effect. (c) Bhopal in 1984 and Russia in 1990
(a) Zooplankton If the floating (d) Ukrain in 1986 and Bhopal in 1984
organisms are animals. 69 If by radiation all nitrogenase Ans. (d)
(b) Phytoplankton If the floating enzymes are inactivated, then Worst environmental hazards were in
organism are plants. there will be no [CBSE AIPMT 2004] Ukrain in 1986 and MIC gas tragedy in
(a) fixation of nitrogen in legumes Bhopal in 1984.
TOPIC 3 (b) fixation of atmospheric nitrogen
(c) conversion from nitrate to nitrite in 73 Most hazardous metal pollutant of
Soil and Radioactive legumes automobile exhausts is
Pollution (d) conversion from ammonium to [CBSE AIPMT 1992]
nitrate in soil (a) mercury (b) cadmium
Ans. (a) (c) lead (d) copper
The enzyme nitrogenase is required for Ans. (c)
innovative remedy for plastic the process of biological nitrogen
waste? [NEET (Odisha) 2019]
Lead particles are found in the smoke
fixation only. Fixation of atmospheric from automobiles which cause nervous
(a) Burning in the absence of oxygen nitrogen occur through other route also. disorder in man.
(b) Burrying 500 m deep below soil surface Neither nitrification (conversion of
(c) Polyblend ammonium to nitrate) nor conversion of
nitrate to nitrite require nitrogenase. 74 Pedology is science of
(d) Electrostatic precipitator [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
Ans. (c) 70 Relative Biological Effectiveness (a) earth (b) soil
Polyblend is an innovative remedy for (RBE) usually refers to the damages (c) diseases (d) pollution
plastic waste. Polyblend is a fine powder caused by [CBSE AIPMT 2000] Ans. (b)
of recycled modified plastic which when
mixed with bitumen, can be used to lay (a) low temperature Pedology is the study of soil and soil
roads. (b) high temperature properties.
(c) radiation
67 Which of these following methods (d) pollution
TOPIC 4
is the most suitable for disposal of Ans. (c)
nuclear waste? RBE (Relative Biological Effectiveness)
Greenhouse Effect
[NEET (National) 2019] is a comparison of the dose of radiation and Global Warming
(a) Bury the waste under Antarctic being studied with the dose of standard
ice-cover radiation producing the same effect.
75 Which of the following pairs of
(b) Dump the waste within rocks under
deep ocean 71 The supersonic jets cause pollution gases is mainly responsible for
(c) Bury the waste within rocks deep by the thinning of greenhouse effect?
below the Earth’s surface [CBSE AIPMT 1998] [NEET (National) 2019]
(d) Shoot the waste into space (a) CO 2 layer (a) Oxygen and Nitrogen
Ans. (c) (b) SO 2 layer (b) Nitrogen and Sulphur dioxide
Nuclear waste is usually disposed by (c) O 2 layer (c) Carbon dioxide and Methane
burying it within rocks deep below the (d) O 3 layer (d) Ozone and Ammonia
Ans. (c) (a) CO 2 and CH4 (b) CH4 and NO 2 (a) Magnox (b) Gull stream
Greenhouse effect is mainly contributed (c) CFCs and N2O (d) CO 2 and N2O (c) El Nino (d) Aye Aye
by carbon dioxide (60%) and methane Ans. (a) Ans. (c)
(20%) along with nitrous oxide, nitrogen
The greenhouse effect is a naturally EL Nino is a warm ocean surge of Peru
dioxide and chlorofluorocarbons.
occurring phenomenon that is current (flowing North from Antarctica
Greenhouse effect results in the rise in
responsible for warming of earth’s along the West coast of South America
temperature of earth because
surface and atmosphere. CO2 (60%) and to South Equador, the West). It recurs
greenhouse gases has the ability to trap
CH4 (20%) are commonly known as every 5-8 year or so, in the East Pacific
the heat of solar radiations. of South America.
greenhouse gases because they are
responsible for the greenhouse effect,
76 Global warming can be controlled that ultimately leads to global warming. 83 Which important greenhouse gas,
by [NEET 2013] other than methane, is being
(a) Reducing deforestation, cutting 79 Which one of the following is the produced from the agricultural
down use of fossil fuel correct percentage of the two (out fields? [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
(b) Reducing reforestation, increasing of the total of four) greenhouse
the use of fossil fuel
(a) Arsine (b) Sulphur dioxide
gases that contribute to the total (c) Ammonia (d) Nitrous oxide
(c) Increasing deforestation, slowing
down the growth of human global warming? [CBSE AIPMT 2008] Ans. (d)
population (a) CFCs 14%, CH4 20% In addition to CO2 , some other gases also
(d) Increasing deforestation, reducing (b) CO 2 40%, CFCs 30% contribute to greenhouse effect. These
efficiency of energy usage (c) N2O 6%, CO 2 86% include ozone, CFCs, nitrous oxideN2 O
Ans. (a) (d) CH4 20%, N2O 18% and even methane (CH4 ).
Global warming can be controlled by Ans. (a) Nitrous oxide is produced by denitrifying
reducing deforestation, cutting down bacteria acting on artificial fertilisers
The percentage of various greenhouse
applied to poorly aerated soils.
use of fossil fuel, which results into gases that contribute to total global
reduction in the concentration of one of warming are CO2 (warming effect 60%), 84 If there was no CO2 in the earth’s
the greenhouse gas, i.e. CO2 in the CH4 (20%), CFCs (14%) and nitrous oxide
atmosphere. The other ways of reducing N2 O (6%). atmosphere the temperature of
global warming are slowing down the earth’s surface would be
growth of human population, improving 80 Which one of the following pair is [CBSE AIPMT 1998]
efficiency of energy usage and encouraging mismatched? [CBSE AIPMT 2005] (a) same as present
eco-friendly sustainable development. (a) Biomass burning — Release of CO 2 (b) less than the present
(b) Fossil fuel burning — Release ofCO 2 (c) higher than the present
77 Which one of the following pairs of (d) dependent on the amount of oxygen
(c) Nuclear power — Radioactive wastes
gases are the major cause of (d) Solar energy — Greenhouse effect in the atmosphere
‘Greenhouse effect?
Ans. (d) Ans. (b)
(a) CO 2 and CO [CBSE AIPMT 2011]
From the following pair (d) is CO2 layer around earth surface acts as
(b) CFCs and SO 2 insulator and does not allow heat of the
mismatched because solar energy does
(c) CO 2 and N2O not cause greenhouse effect. earth to escape into space thus keeping
(d) CO 2 and O 3 the earth warm. It is an important
81 Greenhouse effect refers to constituent of green house gases
Ans. (c) present in earth’s atmosphere. The
[CBSE AIPMT 1999]
The phenomenon of keeping the earth’s percentage of CO2 in causing global
surface warm is due to the presence of (a) production of cereals warming is 60%.
certain gases in the atmosphere that are (b) cooling of earth
called greenhouse gases. (c) trapping of UV rays 85 The major contributor of
The name is based after a similar (d) warming of earth green-house gases to the
warmer interior in a glass-enclosed Ans. (d) atmosphere is [CBSE AIPMT 1996]
greenhouse where glass panels, CO2 and (a) Russia
Greenhouse effects refer to warming of
water vapour allow the solar radiations earth due to increase in CO2 , CFCs, SO2 (b) USA
to enter but prevent the escape of long and other substances that disturbe the (c) Germany
wave heat radiations. CO2 and N2 O are balance between the amount of energy
the major cause of ‘greenhouse effect’. (d) Brazil
received and that reflected back into the
CO2 contributes 60% of total global space. Ans. (b)
warming. N2 O contributes 6% to The major contributor of greenhouse
greenhouse effect. 82 Warm ocean surge of the Peru gases to the atmosphere is USA.
current recurring every 5 to 8 year
78 The two gases making highest 86 Green-house effect is warming due
or so in the East Pacific of South to [CBSE AIPMT 1991]
relative contribution to the
America is widely known as (a) infra-red rays reaching earth
greenhouse gases are
[CBSE AIPMT 2010] [CBSE AIPMT 1998] (b) moisture layer in atmosphere
(c) increase in temperature due to Ans. (d) Ans. (a)

increase in carbon dioxide Statement (d) is correct. Stratospheric Ozone is found in the upper part of the
concentration of atmosphere ozone protects us from UV radiations of atmosphere called stratosphere and it
(d) ozone layer of atmosphere the sun. Correct information about acts as a shield absorbing ultraviolet
Ans. (c) incorrect statements is as follows. radiation from sun. So its depletion can
Good ozone is found in the upper part of lead to incidence of skin cancers caused
Increase in CO2 concentration forms a
the atmosphere, i.e. stratosphere. Bad by harmful solar radiations which will
cover around the earth, this cover
ozone is formed in the lower atmosphere reach earth in the absence ofO3 layer.
inhibits the earth’s radiation to go out of
(troposphere) that harms plants and
earth’s environment thus, increases
animals. 93 The zone of atmosphere in which
global temperature.
This increased temperature results in the ozone layer is present is called
melting of snow from hill tops and
90 World Ozone Day is celebrated on [CBSE AIPMT 2014]
[NEET 2018]
poles. (a) ionosphere (b) mesosphere
(a) 16th September (b) 21st April (c) stratosphere (d) troposphere
TOPIC 5 (c) 5th June (d) 22nd April
Ans. (c)
Ozone and Its Depletion Ans. (a) The ozone layer is mainly found in the
‘World Ozone Day’ is celebrated on 16th lower portion of stratosphere, i.e.
September to controlO3 depletion. approximately 20-30 km above the
87 Dobson units are used to measure Ozone layer is a fragile shield of gas that earth, though its thickness varies
thickness of [NEET 2021] protects earth from harmful UV-rays. seasonally and geographically, ozone
(a) CFCs (b) stratosphere On 21st April the Civil Service Day and layer acts as a shield absorbing UV rays
(c) ozone (d) troposphere National Yellow Bat Day is celebrated. from the sun.
5th June of every year is celebrated as
Ans. (c) World Environment Day. Earth Day is an 94 Which one of the following is a wrong
Ozone found in stratosphere is known as annual event, celebrated on 22nd April statement? [CBSE AIPMT 2012]
good ozone or ozone layer. It acts as a of every year.
(a) Most of the forests have been lost in
shield absorbing ultraviolet radiation
tropical areas
from the sun. The thickness of ozone in a 91 In stratosphere, which one of the
column of air from the ground to the top (b) Ozone in upper part of atmosphere is
following elements acts as a harmful to animals
of the atmosphere is measured in terms
catalyst in degradation of ozone (c) Greenhouse effect is a natural
of Dobson units.
and release of molecular oxygen? phenomenon
88 Montreal protocol was signed in [NEET 2018] (d) Eutrophication is a natural
1987 for control of (a) Fe (b) Cl phenomenon in freshwater bodies
[NEET (Sep.) 2020] (c) Carbon (d) Oxygen Ans. (b)
(a ) emission of ozone depleting Ans. (b) Ozone (O 3 ) is an isotope of oxygen which
substances In stratosphere, Cl acts as a catalyst in exists in so called ozone layer at a height
(b) release of green house gases the degradation of ozone and release of of about 15-60 km in the middle and
(c) disposal of e-wastes molecular oxygen. It is released by upper stratosphere and lower
action of UV rays on chlorofluorocarbon. mesosphere. This ozone layer absorbs
(d) transport of genetically modified
Chlorine reacts with ozone in a series of UV-rays of longer wavelength and
organisms from one country to
chain reaction, converting it into oxygen. protects life on Earth from damaging
another effects of these radiations.
One active chlorine can destroy 5000
Ans. (a) molecules of ozone in one month. Ozone in the lower atmosphere
Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for UV -C (troposphere) is regarded as a pollutant.
CFCl 3 → CFCl 2 + Cl
control emission of ozone depleting
UV -C
substances. It is a global agreement to CFCl 2 → CFCl + Cl 95 Montreal protocol aims at
protect the stratospheric ozone layer by [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
phasing out the production and Cl + O3 → ClO + O2
(a) reduction of ozone depleting
consumption of ozone-depleting ClO + O3 → Cl + 2O2
substances (ODS).
substances
Iron (Fe), carbon (C) and oxygen (O) are
(b) biodiversity conservation
not Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS).
89 Which of the following statements (c) control of water pollution
about ozone is correct? 92 Depletion of which gas in the (d) control of CO 2 emission
[NEET (Odisha) 2019] atmosphere can lead to an Ans. (a)
(a) Tropospheric ozone protects us from increased incidence of skin In August 1989, 44 countries and EEC
UV- radiations cancers ratified the Montreal Protocol, which
(b) Stratospheric ozone is ‘bad’ [NEET 2016, Phase I] provides a mechanism to review the
(c) Tropospheric ozone is ‘good’ efficiency of control measures. They
(a) ozone (b) ammonia
(d) Stratospheric ozone protects us also agreed to phase out the halogens
(c) methane (d) nitrous oxide and to control and reduce other Ozone
from UV- radiations
Depleting Substances (ODSs). In a policy 98 Identify the correctly matched pair. 101 Ultraviolet radiations from sunlight
statement called Helsinki Declaration, [CBSE AIPMT 2004] cause a reaction which produces
the attending nations agreed to phase
(a) Montreal protocol — Global warming [CBSE AIPMT 1993]
out the production and consumption of
(b) Kyoto protocol — Climate change (a) O3 (b) SO2 (c) CO (d) CH4
controlled CFCs as soon as possible but
not later than the year 2007. (c) Ramsar convention — Ground water
Ans. (a)
pollution
(d) Basal convention — Biodiversity Ozone is produced by action of
96 Global agreement in specific ultraviolet and other high energy
conservation
control strategies to reduce the radiations on oxygen resulting in
release of ozone depleting Ans. (b) splitting and interaction of oxygen
Kyoto protocol deals with climate molecules3O2 →2O3 .
substances, was adopted by
changes while Montreal protocol deals This ozone forms a layer that is also
[CBSE AIPMT 2009]
with ozone depletion. called protective umbrella at 23 km from
(a) Rio de Janerio Conference
earth surface.
(b) Montreal Protocol 99 In coming years, skin related
(c) Kyoto Protocol disorders will be more common TOPIC 6
(d) Vienna Convention
due to [CBSE AIPMT 1997]
Case Studies
Ans. (b) (a) air pollution
The Montreal Protocol is a landmark (b) use of detergents
Related to Pollution
international agreement designed to (c) water pollution
protect the stratospheric ozone layer. by 102 Polyblend, a fine powder of
(d) depletion of ozone layer
reducing the release of ozone depleting recycled modified plastic, has
substances. The treaty was originally Ans. (d) proved to be a good material for
signed in 1987 and substantially amended Ozone layer is found in the stratosphere [NEET (National) 2019]
in 1990 and 1992. The Montreal protocol of atmosphere. It absorbs harmful
stipulates that the production and (a) use as a fertiliser
ultraviolet rays coming from the sun.
consumption of compounds that deplete (b) construction of roads
In coming years, when the ozone layer
ozone in the stratosphere— (c) making tubes and pipes
may become thinner, ultra-violet
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halogens, radiations may reach earth directly to (d) making plastic sacks
carbon tetrachloride and methyl cause cancer, especially skin cancer.
chloroform—are to be phased out by Ans. (b)
2000 (2005 for methyl chloroform). Polyblend has proved to be a good
100 Formation of ozone hole is material for the constructions of roads.
maximum over It is a fine powder of recycled plastic and
97 Montreal protocol, which calls for [CBSE AIPMT 1997] it is mixed with bitumen to lay roads. The
appropriate action to protect the (a) India first polyblend road was laid in Bangaluru
ozone layer from human activities (b) Antarctica by the effort of Ahmed Khan.
was passed in the year (c) Europe
[CBSE AIPMT 2006] (d) Africa 103 Chipko movement was launched
(a) 1986 for the protection of
Ans. (b)
(b) 1987 [CBSE AIPMT 2009]
An ozone hole (thinning) has been
(c) 1988 formed over Antarctica as a result of (a) grasslands (b) forests
(d) 1985 damage to ozone. (c) livestock (d) wet lands
Ans. (b) Most ozone is formed in the Ans. (b)
In 1987, twenty seven industrialised stratosphere over the equator and In 1973, the Chipko Movement (Chipko
countries signed the Montreal protocol spread by winds around the globe. means to hug or stick to the trunk of the
for reduction in production and release Icy particles in polar stratospheric tree) was launched by Chandi Prashad
of CFCs chlorofluorocarbons depleting clouds catalyse the release of chlorine Bhatt and Sunder Lal Bahuguna against
ozone layer, into the atmosphere. It was (from CFC) which destroys ozone. The large scale falling of trees by timber
followed by increasingly stringent thinning in ozone is maximum because in contractors in the Uttarakhand hills. The
amendments in London in 1990 and in winter there is exceptionally cold. starting point was Chamboli district of
Copenhagen in 1992. Garhwal region in Uttarakhand.

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Arihant Biology 34 Years NEET PYQ 1988-2021

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34

Arihant Prakashan (Series), Meerut

Administrative & Production Offices

Whenever a student decides to prepare for any examination his/her first

We feel great pleasure in presenting before you this book containing

We hope this chapterwise solved papers would be highly beneficial to

1. The Living World 1-3

2. Biological Classification 4-17

3. Plant Kingdom 18-30

4. Animal Kingdom 31-48

5. Morphology of Flowering Plants 49-59

6. Anatomy of Flowering Plants 60-70

7. Structural Organisation in Animals 71-77

8. Cell : The Unit of Life 78-93

10. Cell Cycle and Cell Division 107-115

11. Transport in Plants 116-121

12. Mineral Nutrition 122-126

13. Photosynthesis 127-135

14. Respiration in Plants 136-141

15. Plant Growth and Development 142-150

16. Digestion and Absorption 151-159

17. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 160-166

18. Body Fluids and Circulation 167-175

19. Excretory Products and Their Elimination 176-183

20. Locomotion and Movement 184-189

21. Neural Control and Coordination 190-198

22. Chemical Coordination and Integration 199-207

23. Reproduction in Organisms 208-211

25. Human Reproduction 223-233

26. Reproductive Health 234-239

27. Principles of Inheritance and Variation 240-262

28. Molecular Basis of Inheritance 263-279

29. Evolution 280-295

30. Human Health and Diseases 296-308

31. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production 309-316

32. Microbes in Human Welfare 317-323

33. Biotechnology: Principles and Processes 324-332

34. Biotechnology and its Applications 333-337

35. Organisms and Population 338-348

36. Ecosystem 349-357

37. Biodiversity and Its Conservation 358-365

38. Environmental Issues 366-376

UNIT II Structural Organisation in Animals and Plants

UNIT III Cell Structure and Function

UNIT IV Plant Physiology

UNIT III Biology and Human Welfare

UNIT IV Biotechnology and Its Applications

UNIT V Ecology and Environment

Ans. (a) 09 Which one of the following 12 Archaebacteria differ from

Ans. (a) 56 The chief advantage of PKU autosomal recessive genetic

62 In Protozoa like Amoeba and 65 Entamoeba coli causes 69 Genetic information in

TOPIC 3 Ans. (b) 80 Which one of the following has

103 The chemical compounds In ectomycorrhiza, the ultimate Ans. (a)

Ans. (c) (c) They have ability to synthesise Ans. (b)

filamentous green algae, starch hence used as food supplements by Zygote

Ans. (a) Ans. (a) Ans. (a)

24 Agar is commercially obtained Ans. (c) Ans. (d)

Ans. (d) matter and Sphagnum accumulations Ans. (d)

The haploid gametophyte (producing 57 Moss peristome takes part in TOPIC 3

78 Cycas and Adiantum resemble Gnetum resembles angiosperms in Ans. (a)

Ans. (b) (d) Bisporic with two sequential Gameto- 90 75 50 25 10

Concept Enhancer In Ectocarpus sporic meiosis occurs and

Column I Column II (a) Dependent sporophyte

Sponges usually have a skeleton Saccharomyces is a genus of kingdom Ans. (b)