Legal Studies XII Chapterwise MCQs @CUET - CBSE - 12TH

USE CODE Y391s for 26% Discount
JUDICIARY
1. Supreme court of India was inaugurated in the

year?
a) 1948
b) 1949
c) 1950
d) 1951
2. At present how many judges are in the

Supreme court?
a) 8
b) 25
c) 26
d) 34
3. Which of the following is not the requisite

qualification of Supreme court judges?
a) He should be a citizen of India.

b) He should have been a high court judge for five
years or should have been a high court advocate
for ten years.
c) He should be a distinguished jurist in the
opinion of the president.
d) He should be a minimum of 35 years old.
4. In the removal of judges process, the speaker or

chairmen of Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha constitute a
three-member committee to investigate the
charges of misbehaviour or incapacity of judges,
which of the following is not a member of the
committee?
a) Chief justice or Judges of the Supreme Court

b) Chief Justice of the High Court
c) Distinguished Jurist
d) Leader of the opposition of the Lok Sabha
5. Which of the following dispute not come

under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme
court?
a) Inter-State Water dispute

b) Dispute between Centre and one or more
states
c) Dispute between the centre and one or more
states on one side and other states on another
side.
d) Dispute between two or more states.
6. Doctrine of Judicial review originated from

which country?
a) the UK
b) France
c) the USA
d) Russia
7. Concept of Judicial Activism originated from

which country?
a) the UK
b) France
c) the USA
d) Russia
8. Concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

originated from which country?
a) the UK
b) France
c) the USA
d) Russia
9. Which of the following are included in the original
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or

more States.
2. A dispute regarding elections to either the House of the
Parliament or that of the Legislature of a State.
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union
Territory.
4. A dispute between two or more States.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 4
d) 3 and 4
10. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the
Supreme Court of India?
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of

India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief
Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged to the Consolidated
Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of
India are made by the Government only after consulting the
Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
11. The power of the Supreme Court of India to

decide disputes between the Centre and the
States falls under its
a) advisory jurisdiction
b) appellate jurisdiction
c) original jurisdiction
d) writ jurisdiction
12. The power to increase the number of judges

in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
a) The President of India

b) the Parliament
c) The Chief Justice of India
d) the Law Commission
13. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of

the Constitution of India?
a) The President of India

b) The Prime Minister of India
c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
d) The Supreme Court of India
14. In India, Judicial Review implies
a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the

constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the
laws enacted by the Legislature.
c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative
enactments before they are assented to by the President.
d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements
given earlier in similar or different cases.
15. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or
limitations, or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as
prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under
Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while

discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
b) The Supreme Court of India has not been constrained in the
exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the
President of India can declare Financial Emergency without
counsel from the Cabinet.
d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters
without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.
16. Consider the following statements:
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India

introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime
Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th
Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of
the independence of the judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Given below are two statements :
Assertion [A]: The scope of judicial review is limited in

India.
The reason [R]: The Indian constitution has some borrowed
items.
Select the right answer from the code given below :
a) Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] is the right
explanation of [A]
b) Both [A] and [R] are correct but [R] is not the correct
explanation of [A]
c) [A] is correct, but [R] is wrong.
d) [A] is wrong, but [R] is correct.
18. A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his

office by writing a letter to
a) the Chief Justice

b) the President
c) the Prime Minister
d) the Law Minister
19. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the

doctrine of ‘Basic Structure of the Constitution in
a) the Golaknath Case in 1967

b) the Sajjan Singh Case in 1965
c) the Shankari Prasad Case in 1951
d) the Keshavanand Bharati case in 1973
20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion
(A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion(A): The supreme court of India has exclusive jurisdiction

regarding the constitutional validity of central laws.
Reason(R): The supreme court is the Guardian of the Indian
Constitution.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Mislin.
1. Which of the following Constitutional

Amendments is also known as the
“Mini-Constitution” of India?
a) 7th Amendment
b) 42nd Amendment
c) 44th Amendment
d) 73rd Amendment
2. In which year, Kesavananda Bharti's

judgment came that emphasized the
basic structure of the Constitution and
the basic structure of the constitution
can not be amended under Article 368.
a) 1971
b) 1972
c) 1973
d) 1974
3. Who described Indian Federal as

“Quasi-federal”
a) KC Wheare
b) Morris Jones
c) Granville Austin
d) Ivor Jennings
4. Who described Indian Federalism

as a “ Federation with a centralizing
tendency”
a) KC Wheare
b) Morris Jones
c) Granville Austin
d) Ivor Jennings

as “ Bargaining Federalism”
a) KC Wheare
b) Morris Jones
c) Granville Austin
d) Ivor Jennings

as “Co-operative Federalism”
a) KC Wheare
b) Morris Jones
c) Granville Austin
d) Ivor Jennings
7. Which one of the following best

describes the Parliament Form of
Government?
a) Principle of Cooperation and Co-

ordination between the legislative and
executive organs.
b) Doctrine of separation of powers
between the two organs
c) Written Constitution.
d) Rigid constitution.
8. Which of the following is not

another name for the Parliament
System?
a) Westminster
b) Responsible government
c) Cabinet Government
d) American System
9. How many types of Fundamental

rights are provided by Indian
Constitution?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 9
10. Which of the following is not a

feature of Fundamental rights:
a) It promotes the idea of political

democracy.
b) It is justiciable in Nature
c) Fundamental rights are not absolute
in Nature.
d) All the fundamental rights can be
suspended during National Emergency.
11. According to Dr. B R Ambedkar,

Which of the following parts of the
Indian Constitution is a “Novel feature”
of the Indian Constitution?
a) Preamble
b) Fundamental Rights
c) DPSP
d) Fundamental Duties

feature of DPSP?
a) It promotes the idea of social and

economic democracy
b) It seeks to establish a “Welfare
state”
c) It is non-enforceable by the court
and it is non-justiciable in nature
d) It is the duty of the people to apply
DPSP principles in making laws
13. In which case, does the Supreme

Court emphasizes that the Indian
Constitution is founded on the bedrock
of the balance between the
Fundamental Rights and the Directive
Principles?
a) Golaknath Case (1967)

b) Keshava Nada Bharti Case (1973)
c) Maneka Gandhi Case (1978)
d) Minerva mill Case (1980)
14. Which constitutional Amendment

Act reduces the voting rights from 21
years to 18 years;
a) 60th CAA
b) 61st CAA
c) 86th CAA
d) 97th CAA
15. Which of the following emergency

is not mentioned in the Constitution
a) National Emergency
b) State Emergency
c) Disaster Emergency
d) Financial Emergency
16. National Emergency is mentioned

in which article of the Constitution?
a) Article 352
b) Article 356
c) Article 360
d) Article 398
17. State emergency is mentioned in

which article of the Constitution?
a) Article 352
b) Article 356
c) Article 360
d) Article 398
18. Financial Emergency is mentioned

in which article of the Constitution?
a) Article 352
b) Article 356
c) Article 360
d) Article 398

ground for a declaration of National
Emergency?
a) War
b) External Aggression
c) Armed rebellion
d) Internal Aggression
20. On which ground state emergency

or presidential rule can be declared in
the state?
a) Failure of Constitutional machinery

only
b) Failure to comply with the
directions of the center
c) Both
d) None
PROPERTY LAW
1. Which of these is not a type of Intellectual property?
a.Trademark
b.Registration deed
c.Copyright
d.Patent
2. Can I protect my intellectual property by law?
a.No
b.Yes
c.No law exists
d.Depends on stte laws
3. A person who makes the transfer of a gift is called ____
a.Giftor
b.Seller
c.Lessor
d.Donor
4. Which section of TPA talks about Doctrine of

Election?
a.35
b.45
c.25
d.55
5. When two persons transfer ownership of one

thing for the ownership of another, it is called
________
a.Sale
b.Exchange
c.Gift
d.Lease
6. Which of the following rightly states the difference

between sale and lease?
a.Lease is for a specific period of time while a sale is

forever
b.Both a and b are incorrect
c.Lease is free of cost hile sale is for a price
d.Both a and b are correct
7. Which of the following is NOT one of the rights of the

buyer?
a.After paying purchase money, he can ask for registration

of sale
b.When ownership passes to him, he can perform any
lawful action to increase the value of such property
c.He can transfer the property back to the seller at a later
date
d.All are rights of a buyer
8. A registered instrument has to be attested by at least

___ persons.
a.3
b.2
c.4
d.1
9. Which of the following is NOT one of the duties of the

seller?
a.Provide discount on the price to the buyer

b.Produce all documents of title to the buyer
c.Disclose defects in property known to seller
d.Answer all questions put by buyer with regard to the
property
10. Doctrine of Lis Pendens means __________________
a. Nothing new should be introduced in a pending

litigation’
b. Something new can be introduced in a pending
litigation’
c.None of these
d. 'transferor should be lawful owner of property to be
transferred'
11. Doctrine of Lis Pendens means __________________

a.Nothing new should be introduced in a pending
litigation' b.Something new can be introduced in a pending
litigation' c.None of these d. 'transferor should be lawful
owner of property to be transferred'
12. The person who transfers the property is __________ and

the one to whom the transfer is made is called ______-
a.transferor, transfree
b.transferee, transferor
c.None of these
d.seller, buyer
13. Matters relating to property are governed by _______
a.Law of Property, 1985

b.Law of Property and transfer, 1982
c.Transfer of Property Act, 1882
d.Transfer of Property Act 1982
14. A gives his car to B. B accepts the car. But B does

not pay anything in return for the car. This is a ____
a.Exchange
b.Lease
c.Sale
d.Gift
15. TPA deals with - 1. Moveable property, 2. Immoveable

property
a.1 only
b.Both 1 and 2
c.None of these
d.2 only
16. Which section of TPA talks about exchanges?
a.118 b.108 c.112 d.120

17. Which of the following is NOT one of the

requirements for a person to dispose off a property?
a.Ownership of the property

b.Above 18 years of age
c.Graduate degree
d.Sound mind
18. In which case did the Court hold that the doctrine of
election applied on every instrument and all types of
property?
a.Cooper v. Cooper
b.Shanta Bai v. State of Bombay
c.Marshall v. Green
d.None of these
19. Which of the following is NOT covered under

immovable property?
a.Trees b.Growing crops c.Building d.Lands

20. Which of the following is NOT one of the rights of the

seller?
a.collect profits till ownership passes to buyer

b.Collect rent till ownership passes to buyer
c.None of these
d.When ownership has passed on to the buyer from the
seller before payment of money in full, claim the amount
from the buyer that is due to him
Contract Law
1. The time limit in which a contract

should be performed is called ______
a. None of these
b. Time limit
c. Time out
d. Limitation period
2. Which of the following is included

in damages?
a. Cancellation of Contract
b. Imprisonment
c. Monetary Compensation
d. None of these
3. Which is NOT one of the criteria

that an agreement should fulfil?
a. Lawful object
b. Documentation
c. Consideration
d. Competent Parties
4. Which of these is NOT one of the

instances when a contract gets
discharged by operation of law?
a. Merger
b. Minority
c. Death of Party
d. Insolvency
5. When the contract ends, it is said

to be __________
a. Discharged
b. None of these
c. Closed
d. Ended
6. When does an agreement become a

contract?
a. When it is written
b. All of these
c. When it is enforceable by law
d. When both parties are adult
7. An offer cannot be made to the

public at large. This was held in which
case?
a. Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

b. Balfour v. Balfour
c. None of these
d. Durga Prasad v. Baldeo
8. The object of the agreement should

not be illegal, immoral or ______________
a. Invalid
b. Opposed to public policy
c. Fraud
d. Impossible
9. X promises to supply 10 kgs of

wheat and 3 packets of heroin to Y for
a sum 2 of Rs. 10,000/-. Y pays Rs.
10,000/-. Is this agreement
enforceable?
a.Yes
b.can't say
c.No
d.Not mentioned
10. A expresses his willingness to sell

his cottage to B for Rs. 5 lakhs. Here,
A's willingness is called __________
a. Offer
b. Contract
c. Agreement
d. Acceptance
11. Indian Contract Act was enacted

in which year?
a.1870 b.1972 c.1970 d.1872

12. A offers to sell his car for 50,000

to B. B accepts the offer. In this case,
the consideration for B is ________.
a. None of these
b. Both a and b
c. Rs. 50,000
d. Car
13. When is a contract eneterd into by

a minor considered valid?
a.When consideration is lawful

b.When minor is not a unsound mind
c.When such contract is beneficial for
the minor
d.When there is considertion
14. Which of these is another term for

failure to perform the obligation by a
party?
a. All of these
b. Consideration
c. Consent
d. Breach
15. An agreement without

consideration is _____
a.Valid
b.Void
c.Gift
d.None of these
16. When Acceptance is made to a

promise but not on the complete
terms of the promise but to a lesser
fulfilment of the promise, it is called
__________
a. Alteration
b. Remission
c. Merger
d. Waiver
17. Which case was dismissed by the
Court on the ground that the
agreement entered into between the
husband and wife was not a contract.
The arrangement between the
husband and wife was only a moral
obligation and the parties never
intended to create any legal
relationship?
a.None of these
b.Gajadhar v. Rombhaee
c.Balfour v. Balfour
d.Cooper v. Cooper
18. When a new contract is
substituted for an old contract, it is
called _________
a.Rescission
b.Alteration
c.Remission
d.Novation
19. When a person accepts an offer it
becomes a/an ______
a.Agreement
b.Deal
c.Acceptance
d.Contract
20. Who can revoke an offer before
acceptance?
a. Offeree
b. All of them
c. Offeror
d. Acceptor
Tort Law
1. What are punitive damages?
a. The Compensation
b. Both a and b
c. None of these
d. costs or damages in excess of compensation
2. An intentional tort requires the claimant to

show that defendant
a. Caused injury by mistake

b. was ignorant about the injury
c. Caused the injury on purpose
d. None of these
3. Which tort covers any intentional harm

caused to the body?
a. None of these
b. Battery
c. Conversion
d. Tresspass
4. Which of the following best describes

Chattel?
a. Immoveable public property

b. Moveable personal property
c. Immoveable personal property
d. All of these
5. If someone clicks A's pictures without A's

consent, it will amount to ___________________
a. Negligence
b. Unlawful harassment
c. Battery
d. Assault
6. Torts are mostly ____________ law subject.
a. Constitutional
b. Common
c. Statute
d. All of these
7. Which of the following is NOT a type of

intentional tort?
a. False imprisonment
b. Assault
c. Breach of duty of care
d. Battery
8. Which of these statute laws has developed

from law of torts?
a. Transfer of Property Act

b. Hindu Marriage Act
c. Indian Contract Act
d. Consumer Protection Act
9. Which case led to the introduction of principle

of Absolute liability?
a. Donogue v. Stevenson
b. b and c
c. Bhopal gas leak, 1984
d. MC Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizers
Limited
10. A lies to B that B's husband met with an

accident. This causes nervous shock and illness
to B. A has committed an offence under which
tort?
a. Unlawful harassment
b. Negligence
c. Battery
d. Assault
11. When was the English case of Donoghue v

Stevenson decided?
a.1952 b.1912 c.1942 d.1932

12. Who was the Chief Justice of India during

the 1987 case of M.C. Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods
and Fertilizer Industries?
a. Sabyasachi Mukherjee
b. PN Bhagwati
c. Kamal Narain Singh
d. Ranganath Misra
13. The word "Tort" originates from the Latin

word _____
a. Tortem
b. Try
c. Torture
d. Tort
14. Does negligence amount to an offence of

tort?
a. Yes
b. Not Mentioned
c. No
d. Depends in three conditions
15. Which tort covers damage to one's

reputation?
a. Assault
b. Conversion
c. Battery
d. Defamation
16. Law of torts is _____ law
a.Criminal
b.Both
c.Civil
d.None of these
17. Leakage of __ gas killed 2260 at Bhopal gas

leak disaster in 1984
a.Methyl Carbonate
b.Methyl isocynate
c.Hydrogen
d.Carbon Monoxide
18. Which of these is NOT one of the three

objects of tort law?
a. Deterrence
b. Profit Sharing
c. Fair and just response
d. Loss Spreading
19. Which tort is somewhat related with the tort

of trespass to chattels?
a.Harrassment
b.Assault
c.Coonversion
d.Battery
20. What do tort cases result in?
a.Compensation
b.Punishment
c.None
d.Both
HUMAN RIGHT IN INDIA
PREAMBLE
1. Preamble of the Indian Constitution

is borrowed from which country?
a) American Constitution
b) Canadian Constitution
c) British Constitution
d) Irish Constitution
2. Which one of the following persons

had called the Preamble as the
“Identity card of the constitution”?
a) N A Palkhivala
b) Pandit Nehru
c) Dr. B R Ambedkar
d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
3. Which of the following word was not

added in the preamble by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act (1976)
a) Socialist
b) Secular
c) Integrity
d) Republic
4. How many types of Justices are

mentioned in the preamble?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
5. How many types of Liberty are

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
6. How many types of Equality are

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
7. On which date, the Constituent

Assembly had adopted the
constitution?
a) November 26, 1949

b) December 26, 1949
c) January 24, 1950
d) January 26, 1950
8. Which of the following is not part of

the four ingredients of the preamble?
a) Source of the authority of the

constitution
b) Nature of Indian State
c) Objective of the Constitution
d) Date of implementation of the
constitution
9. Indian Socialism is based on
a) Marxism
b) Russian
c) Chinese
d) Gandhian
10. Direct democracy is based on four

devices, which of the following is not a
device of direct democracy?
a) Referendum
b) Initiative
c) Election
d) Recall
11. The term “Democratic” is used in

the Preamble; a broader sense of
Democratic means:
a) Political democracy only

b) Social democracy only
c) Economic democracy only
d) All
12. The ideals of liberty, equality, and

fraternity in our preamble have been
taken from?
a) French Revolution
b) Russian Revolution
c) Irish Constitution
d) USA Constitution
13. Which Article of the Indian

Constitution provides equal pay for
equal work and secures men and
women equal rights.
a) Article 38
b) Article 39
c) Article 325
d) Article 326
14. Who gave the statement that the

preamble is the “Horoscope of our
Sovereign democratic republic”
a) KM Munshi
b) Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer
c) Pandit Thakur Das Bhargava
d) Ernest Barker
15. In which case did the Supreme

court opine that the preamble is not a
part of the Constitution?
a) Berubari Union Case (1960)

b) Kesavananda Bharti case (1973)
c) Meneka Ghandhi Case(1976)
d) Minerva Mill case(1980)
16. Which of the following is not true

about the preamble?
a) Preamble is part of the Constitution

b) Preamble is neither a source of
power to the legislature nor a
prohibition upon the powers of the
legislature
c) It is non-justiciable
d) Its provision can be enforceable in
courts of law.
17. How many types of justice, liberty,

equality, and fraternity in that order
have been mentioned in the preamble
of the constitution of India?
a) 3,5,2, 1
b) 1,3,5,2
c) 2,5,3,1
d) 5,2,1,3
18. What is the legal nature of the

Preamble of the constitution?
a) It is enforceable
b) It is not enforceable
c) It may be enforced in special
circumstances.
d) None of above
19. How many total words are there in

Preamble?
a) 84
b) 85
c) 86
d) 87
20. The following are enshrined in the Preamble to the
Constitution of India:
1. Equality of status and opportunity.
2. Liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.
3. Justice-social, economic and political.
4. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual.
5. Unity and integrity of the Nation.
Which one of the following is the correct order in which they

appear in the Preamble?
A) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
B) 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
C) 3, 1, 2, 5, 4
D) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5

Directive Principles of State Policy
1. Directive Principles of State Policy come

under which Part of the Indian Constitution?
a) Part -III
b) Part-IV
c) Part-V
d) Part-IV A
1. Directive Principles of State Policy come

under which Part of the Indian Constitution?
a) Part -III
b) Part-IV
c) Part-V
d) Part-IV A
2.Which of the following articles are from DPSP?
a) Article 35 to 51
b) Article 35 to 50
c) Article 36 to 51
d) Article 36 to 50
3. Principles of DPSP are borrowed from which

constitution?
a) The USA Constitution

b) Canadian Constitution
c) UK Constitution
d) Irish Constitution
4. Which of the following part of the

constitution is a novel feature of the
constitution by BR Ambedkar?
a) Preamble
b) Fundamental rights
c) DPSP
d) Both Fundamental rights and DPSP
5. Which part of the constitution is called the

soul of the constitution?
a) Preamble
c) DPSP
d) Fundamental rights and DPSP
6. As per Granville Austin, which part of the

constitution describes as “Conscience of the
Constitution”?
a) Preamble
c) DPSP
7. Which of the following is also called

“Instrument of Instructions”?
a) Preamble
c) DPSP
8. Which of the following is not the aim to

establish the DPSP?
a) Welfare state
b) Economic democracy
c) Social democracy
d) Political democracy
9. Which of the following articles is not

based on the socialistic Principles?
a) Article 38
b) Article 39
c) Article 40
d) Article 41
10. Which of the following articles is not

based on the Gandhian Principle of
DPSP?
a) Article 43
b) Article 43 B
c) Article 44
d) Article 48
11. Which of the following article is not

based on the Liberal-Intellectual
Principles:
a) Article 47
b) Article 48
c) Article 49
d) Article 50
12. Which article has provisions to secure

opportunities for the healthy development of
children?
a) Article 39
b) Article 39 A
c) Article 43 A
d) Article 48 A
13. Equal justice and free legal aid to the poor

are mentioned in which article?
a) Article 39
b) Article 39 A
c) Article 43 A
d) Article 48 A
14. Participation of workers in the

management of Industries is mentioned
in which article?
a) Article 39
b) Article 39 A
c) Article 43 A
d) Article 48 A
15. Safeguard of Environment, Forest,

and wildlife is mentioned in which
article?
a) Article 39
b) Article 39 A
c) Article 43 A
d) Article 48 A
16. In which article has been amended

to make provisions to minimize
inequalities in income, status, facilities,
and opportunities by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978?
a) Article 38
b) Article 39 A
c) Article 43 A
d) Article 48 A
17. In which article had amended by the

86th amendment act of 2002 for
compulsory elementary education?
a) Article 38
b) Article 39 A
c) Article 45
d) Article 48 A
18. Which of the following article was

added by the 97th Constitutional
amendment act of 2011 for the
functioning of cooperative societies?
a) Article 38 A
b) Article 39 A
c) Article 43 B
d) Article 48 A
19. In which judgement Supreme court

rule that in case of conflict between the
Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principles, Fundamental rights would
prevail?
a) Champakam Dorairanjan case (1951)

b) Golaknath Case ( 1967)
c) Kesavananda Bharti case (1973)
d) Minerva Mills case (1980)
20. In which judgement Supreme court

ruled that Fundamental rights are
“sacrosanct” and parliament does not
have the power to amend them?

21. In which judgement of the Supreme

court held that the Indian constitution is
founded on the bedrock of the balance
between the Fundamental Rights and
Directive principles?

22. Which one of the following articles

directs the State Government to
organize Village Panchayats?
a) Article 32
b) Article 40
c) Article 48
d) Article 51
23. Which Article of the Indian

Constitution is related to Indian Foreign
Policy?
a) Article 380
b) Article 312
c) Article 60
d) Article 51
24. The Directive Principles of State

Policy may be classified into which of
the council's following parts for the sake
of convenient study?
a) Socialist
b) Liberal intellectualistic
c) Gandhian
d) All of the above
25. Which of the following Article was inserted

by the 42nd Constitution Amendment to provide
for the participation of workers in
Management?
a) Article 38
b)Article 39A
c)Article 45
d) Article 43A

Fundamental Duties
1. Which of the following country does not have

Fundamental duties in their constitution?
a) Russia
b) India
c) Japan
d) Germany
2. Fundamental duties are in which part of the

Indian Constitution?
a) Part-III
b) Part-IV
c) Part-IV A
d) Part-IV B
3. Fundamental Duties were added by which

Constitutional Amendment Act?
a) 41st CAA
b) 42nd CAA
c) 43rd CAA
d) 44th CAA
4. How many fundamental duties were

suggested by Swaran Singh Committee?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11
5. How many fundamental duties were added by

the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976?
a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11
6. Which of the following is not a fundamental

duty mentioned in Article 51-A?
a) Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and

integrity of India.
b) Defend the country when called upon.
c) Protect the natural environment
d) Establish the cooperative societies
7. Which of the following fundamental duty was

added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment
Act, 2002.
a) Duty to pay taxes

b) Duty to vote
c) Duty to develop scientific temper, humanism
d) Duty to provide opportunities for education
to his child between 6 to 14 years.
8. The fundamental duties are confined to?
a) Citizens only
b) Foreigners only
c) Both Citizens and Foreigners only
d) None
9. Swarn Committee(1999) is related to
a) Fundamental Rights
b) Preamble
c) DPSP
d) Fundamental Duties
10. Consider the following statements regarding

fundamental duties;
1. It was added to the constitution in 1967.

2. Sardar Swaran Singh recommended for inclusion of
Fundamental duties.
3. Originally, it had 10 FDs, and an 11th was added in
2002.
4. Duty to pay tax is also a Fundamental duty.
Which of the above statements is true.

a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1,2, and 3 only
c) 1,2, and 4
d) 1,2,3, and 4 only
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the
lists: (BEO 2020)
List-I:
(Subjects)
A. To foster respect for international law
B. To have compassion for living creatures
C. To develop the spirit of inquiry and reform
D. To separate the judiciary from the executive in Public Service of the state
List-II:
(Related articles of the Indian constitution)
1. Article 51-A (h)
2. Article 41(c)
3. Article 50
4. Article 51-A(g)
Codes:
A B C D
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 2 4 1 3
c) 4 3 2 1
d) 3 1 4 2
12. Which of the following duties have been prescribed by

the Indian constitution as Fundamental Duties?
1. To defend the country

2. To pay income tax
3. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
4. To safeguard the public property
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes :
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 4
c) 1,2, and 4
d) 1,3, and 4
13. Which of the following is not a part of

Fundamental Duties under Indian Constitutions?
a) To defend the country and render national

service.
b) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our
composite culture.
c) To help in organizing village Panchayats.
d) To safeguard public property and to abjure
violence.
14. Under the constitution of India which of the

following is NOT a Fundamental Duty?
a) To vote in General Election

b) To develop the scientific temper
c) To safeguard public property
d) To abide by the constitution and respect its
ideas
15. With reference to the Constitution of India,

consider the following.
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the
Constitution of India fulfilled the National Social
Assistance Programme launched by the
Government of India?
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
16. The provisions relating to Fundamental

Duties in the Constitution of India were added
on the recommendation of
(A) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(B) Iyengar Committee
(C) Swaran Singh Committee
(D) Thakkar Commission
17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): MGNREGA is providing employment to at

least one member of the eligible household for a minimum
period of 100 days in a year.
Reason (R): Right to employment is enumerated in Part III
of the Constitution. Select the correct answer from the
code given below.
Code
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
18. The Fundamental Duty to uphold and protect

the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India is
mentioned at number
(A) Four
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
19. When were the Fundamental Duties

incorporated in the Constitution?
(A) 1976
(B) 1979
(C) 1975
(D) 1978
20. Which of the following statements regarding

Fundamental Duties is not true?
(A) They can be enforced by writs

(B) They can be promoted only by constitutional
methods
(C) They can be used for interpreting ambiguous
statutes
(D) The performance of any particular duty
comes within the sphere of constitutional law
which court has to decide
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Fundamental Rights
1. Which part of the Constitution has

fundamental rights?
a) Part II
b) Part III
c) Part IV
d) Part IV A
2. Fundamental rights come under which

articles?
a) Article 12 to 35
b) Article 13 to 35
c) Article 13 to 36
d) Article 14 to 15
3. Fundamental rights are derived

inspiration from which country‘s
constitution?
a) Canada
b) The USA
c) French
d) the UK
4. Which part of the constitution is

called the “Magna Carta” of India?
a) Part II
b) Part III
c) Part IV
d) Part IV-A
5. Which one of the following is not true
about Fundamental Rights?
a) Fundamental Rights are justiciable in

nature.
b) Fundamental rights in our constitution
are more elaborated than USA’s
Fundamental rights
c) Fundamental rights are meant for
promoting the idea of social and
economic democracy.
d) Fundamental rights are essential for
the overall development (material,
intellectual, moral, and spiritual) of the
individuals.
6. Originally, how many fundamental

rights had in our constitution?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
7. Which of the following are not

features of Fundamental Rights?
a) Fundamental Rights are not absolute.

b) Fundamental rights are not qualified
in nature.
c) Some Fundamental rights are positive
in nature as it provides some privileges
to the person.
d) Some Fundamental rights are
negative in nature as it places
limitations on the authority of the state
8. Six rights guaranteed by Article 19

cannot be suspended on the grounds of;
a) War
b) External aggression
c) Armed rebellion
d) None
9. Definition of state mentioned in which

of the following article?
a) Article 11
b) Article 12
c) Article 13
d) Article 14
10. Which article prohibits

discrimination on grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex, or place of birth?
a) Article 13
b) Article 14
c) Article 15
d) Article 16
11. Equality of opportunities in matters

of public employment;
a) Article 13
b) Article 14
c) Article 15
d) Article 16
12. Abolition of titles except military

and academic is mentioned in which
article?
a) Article 15
b) Article 16
c) Article 17
d) Article 18
13. Protection in respect of conviction

for offenses is guaranteed under?
a) Article 19
b) Article 20
c) Article 21
d) Article 22
14. Prohibition of traffic in human beings

and forced labor are guaranteed under?
a) Article 22
b) Article 23
c) Article 24
d) Article 25
15. Freedom from payment of taxes for

the promotion of any religion is
guaranteed under?
a) Article 26
b) Article 27
c) Article 28
d) Article 29
16. Which of the following fundamental

right is available only to Indian citizens?
a) Article 14
b) Article 15
c) Article 17
d) Article 18
17. Which of the following fundamental

right is available both for Indian citizens
and foreigners?
a) Article 16
b) Article 19
c) Article 28
d) Article 29
18. Where did the concept of “Equality

before the law” was originated?
a) Britain
b) The USA
c) Japan
d) France
19. Where did the concept of “Equal

Protection of law” was originated?
a) Britain
b) The USA
c) Japan
d) France
20.of the following are not features of

the concept of “Equality before the
law”?
a) It is a positive concept to establish

equality.
b) It is an absence of privileges in favor
of any person.
c) The equal subjection of ordinary law
of the land administered by the ordinary
law court.
d) No person is above the law.
21. Which of the following are not

features of the concept of “equal
protection of the law”?
a) It is a negative concept of
establishing equality.
b) It provides the equality of treatment
under equal circumstances.
c) Law should be the same to the similar
applications who are similarly situated
d) The like should be treated alike
without any discrimination
22. What was the ceiling of annual

income for the “creamy layer” in 1993?
a) 1 lakh
b) 2.5 lakh
c) 4.5 lakh
d) 6 lakh
23. Mandal commission was appointed

in 1979 by Morarji Desai Government. It
is related to?
a) Poverty estimation
b) State reorganization
c) Panchayati Raj institution
d) Investigate the conditions of the
socially and educationally backward
class
24. Originally, how many rights were

guaranteed under Article 19?
a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8
25. Which of the following is not covered

under article 20, protection in respect of
conviction for offenses?
a) Right to livelihood
b) No ex-post-facto
c) No double jeopardy
d) No self-incrimination

Fundamental Rights
26. Which of the following Supreme

Court case takes the broader
interpretation of Article 21, Protection
of Life and Personal Liberty?
a) Gopalan Case (1950)

b) Keshvananda Bharti Case (1972)
c) Menaka Case (1978)
d) None of the above
27. Which of the following Article has

provided the right to education is a
fundamental right for children aged
between 6 to 14;
a) Article 21
b) Article 21 A
c) Article 22
d) Article 25
28. Under article 22, what is the

maximum preventive detention period in
simple circumstances?
a) 2 weeks
b) 1 month
c) 3 months
d) 6 months
29. Which of the following is not

prohibited under article 23?
a) Prohibition of employment of children

below the age of 14 years in a factory,
mine, or other hazardous activities.
b) Begar and forced labor
c) Devadasis and slavery
d) Selling and buying of person-like
goods.
30. Which of the following does not

come under Article 25;
a) Freedom of Conscience.
b) Right to profess and practice.
c) Right to propagate.
d) Right to religious conversion.
31. Under article 26, freedom to
manage religious affairs for every
religious denomination has been
provided. As per the Supreme court,
there are three factors for the
identification of religious
denominations. Which of the following
is not the factor of a religious
denomination?
a) Should believe in one deity.

b) Collection of individuals who have a
system of beliefs that they regard as
conducive to their spiritual well-being.
c) Should have common organization.
d) Should have a distinctive name.
32. Which of the following comes

under minorities' definition in article
30?
a) Religious minority only

b) Linguistic minority only
c) Religious and linguistic minorities
only
d) Religious, linguistic, and social
minorities only
33. Which of the following is the soul

of the constitution?
a) Fundamental rights
b) DPSP
c) Article 32
d) Article 50
34. Which of the following has the

power to empower any court to issue
directions, orders, and writs of all
kinds.
a) President
b) Parliament
c) Supreme Court
d) High Court
35. Under Article 32, which of the

following rights can be enforceable?
a) Fundamental rights only

b) Constitutional rights only
c) Statutory rights only
d) All the above rights
36. In the case of Fundamental rights

jurisdiction, which of the following is
true regarding Supreme Court
Jurisdiction?
a) Supreme Court is an original and

exclusive jurisdiction
b) Supreme Court is the original but
not exclusive jurisdiction
c) Supreme Court is not original but
exclusive jurisdiction
d) Supreme Court is not original as
well as exclusive jurisdiction
37. Which of the following is not true regarding the
Writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High
Court?
a) Supreme court can issue writs only for the

enforcement of Fundamental rights while the High
court can issue writs for both Fundamentals rights
and ordinary law.
b) the Supreme court can issue writs against a
person or government throughout the territory of
India while High Court can issue writs against a
person or government within its territorial
jurisdiction or only outside jurisdiction if the cause
of action arises within its territorial jurisdiction.
c) Supreme court may not refuse to exercise its
writ jurisdiction while the High court may refuse to
exercise writs jurisdiction.
d) Supreme court has more power than the high
court regarding writs.
38. Match the following:
List-I (writs)
I) Habeas Corpus
II) Mandamus
III) Prohibition
IV) Certiorari
List-II(Meaning)
A) “to be informed”
B) “to forbid”
C) “we command”
D) “to have the body of”
I II III IV
a) A C D B
b) B A D. C
c) D C B A
d) D C A B
39. Which of the following writ is the
bulwark [ defensive wall] of individual
liberty against arbitrary detention?
a) Habeas Corpus
b) Mandamus
c) Prohibition
d) Certiorari
40. Habeas corpus can be issued
against the?
a) Public authorities only

b) Private Individual only
c) Both
d) None of the above
41. Mandamus can be used against?
a) Private individual or body

b) When duty is discretionary
c) Against the President
d) Against the Prime Minister
regarding Certiorari Writs?
a) It is issued by a higher court to a

lower court or tribunal.
b) It is issued on grounds of excess
jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or
error of law.
c) Certiorari can only be issued
against judicial or quasi-judicial
authorities and not against the
administrative authorities.
d) Certiorari is not available against
legislative bodies, private individuals,
or private bodies.
regarding “Quo-Warranto” writs?
a) Literal meaning of the writ is “ by

what authority or warrant”.
b) It is issued to enquire into the
legality of the claim of a person to a
public office.
c) It can be issued to the ministerial
office but can not be issued against
the private office.
d) It can be sought to be any
interested person and not necessarily
be an aggrieved person.
44. Which of the following article
restricts the fundamental rights of the
members of the armed forces?
a) Article 31
b) Article 32
c) Article 33
d) Article 34
45. Which of the following article
restricts the fundamental rights while
martial law?
a) Article 31
b) Article 32
c) Article 33
d) Article 34
46. Match List-I with List II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below the lists: (BEO
2020)
List -I
A. Abolition of Titles
B. Freedom to Manage Religious affairs
C. protection of language of Minorities
D. Right to Education
List-II
1. Article 29
2. Article 21A
3. Article 18
4. Article 26
Codes:
A B C D
a) 3 2 1 4
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 2 3 4 1
d) 3 4 1 2
47. Which one of the following does
not fall within the purview of Article
21 of the Constitution?
a) Medical aid to those injured by a

doctor
b) Sexual Harassment of Women in the
workplace
c) Pollution of the quality of water
d) Capital punishment
48. Which of the following writs can
be issued by a High court to secure
the liberty of the Individual?
a) Mandamus
b) Quo-warranto
c) Habeas Corpus
d) Prohibition
49. Which of the following
Fundamental Rights under the
constitution is guaranteed only to the
citizen of India and not to foreigners
living in India?
a) Equality before the law

b) Freedom of speech and expression
c) Protection of life and personal
liberty
d) Free practice of religion
50. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar had described

Article 32 of the Constitution as the very soul
of it.
Reason (R): Article 32 provides an effective
remedy against the violation of Fundamental
Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Codes:
a) (A) and (R) both are true and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
b) (A) and (R) both are true, but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

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USE CODE Y391s for 26% Discount

1. Supreme court of India was inaugurated in the

2. At present how many judges are in the

3. Which of the following is not the requisite

a) He should be a citizen of India.

4. In the removal of judges process, the speaker or

a) Chief justice or Judges of the Supreme Court

5. Which of the following dispute not come

a) Inter-State Water dispute

6. Doctrine of Judicial review originated from

7. Concept of Judicial Activism originated from

8. Concept of Public Interest Litigation (PIL)

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

11. The power of the Supreme Court of India to

12. The power to increase the number of judges

a) The President of India

13. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of

a) The President of India

14. In India, Judicial Review implies

a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the

a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Assertion [A]: The scope of judicial review is limited in

18. A judge of the Supreme Court may resign his

a) the Chief Justice

19. The Supreme Court of India enunciated the

a) the Golaknath Case in 1967

Assertion(A): The supreme court of India has exclusive jurisdiction

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

1. Which of the following Constitutional

2. In which year, Kesavananda Bharti's

3. Who described Indian Federal as

4. Who described Indian Federalism

5. Who described Indian Federalism

6. Who described Indian Federalism

7. Which one of the following best

a) Principle of Cooperation and Co-

8. Which of the following is not

9. How many types of Fundamental

10. Which of the following is not a

a) It promotes the idea of political

11. According to Dr. B R Ambedkar,

12. Which of the following is not a

a) It promotes the idea of social and

13. In which case, does the Supreme

a) Golaknath Case (1967)

14. Which constitutional Amendment

15. Which of the following emergency

16. National Emergency is mentioned

17. State emergency is mentioned in

18. Financial Emergency is mentioned

19. Which of the following is not a

20. On which ground state emergency

a) Failure of Constitutional machinery