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كل جابترات العلاجيات وزاري خامس
كل جابترات العلاجيات وزاري خامس
A. Smoking cessation.
B. Increasing physical activity.
C. Reducing physical activity.
D. Reducing midlife obesity, hypertension, and diabetes.
E. Adherence to the Mediterranean Diet.
Which point is not correct regarding the pharmacologic therapy of cognitive symptoms of AD:
A. Cholinesterase inhibitors are indicated for the treatment of AD.
B. NMDA-receptor antagonists are indicated for the treatment of AD.
C. Donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine are indicated in mild-to-moderate AD.
D. Combination therapy with cholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, is generally
prescribed for people with moderate-to-severe AD.
E. Estrogen, NSAIDS, prednisone, statins, ginkgo biloba and vitamin E are commended
to prevent and treat dementia.
All the following facts concerning the pharmacologic therapy of noncognitive symptoms are
correct, except:
A. Valproic acid use is highly recommended due to low adverse effects.
B. No drug is FDA approved for the treatment of AD behavioral and psychological
symptoms of AD.
C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline and citalopram are
usually given to depressed patients with AD.
D. Tricyclic antidepressants are usually avoided.
E. Aripiprazole, risperidone, olanzapine, and quetiapine are effective atypical
antipsychotics for disruptive behaviors and neuropsychiatric symptoms of AD.
Answers:
Appropriate laboratory tests of AD include all the following, except:
A. Serum B12, folate, thyroid panel, blood cell counts, and serum electrolytes.
B. Liver function tests.
AD
C. ECG.
D. Computed tomography (CT).
E. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
Which point is not correct regarding the pharmacologic therapy of cognitive symptoms of
AD:
A. Cholinesterase inhibitors are indicated for the treatment of AD.
B. NMDA-receptor antagonists are indicated for the treatment of AD.
C. Donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine are indicated in mild-to-moderate AD.
D. Combination therapy with cholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, is generally
prescribed for people with moderate-to-severe AD.
E. Estrogen, NSAIDS, prednisone, statins, ginkgo biloba and vitamin E are
commended to prevent and treat dementia.
All the following facts concerning the pharmacologic therapy of noncognitive symptoms are
correct, except:
A. Valproic acid use is highly recommended due to low adverse effects.
B. No drug is FDA approved for the treatment of AD behavioral and psychological
symptoms of AD.
C. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) like sertraline and citalopram are
usually given to depressed patients with AD.
D. Tricyclic antidepressants are usually avoided.
E. Aripiprazole, risperidone, olanzapine, and quetiapine are effective atypical
antipsychotics for disruptive behaviors and neuropsychiatric symptoms of AD.
Adrenal gland disorders
3. The most common findings in Cushing syndrome are all the following, except:
A. Central obesity, facial rounding, peripheral obesity and fat accumulation.
B. Myopathy or muscular weakness.
C. Gonadal dysfunction, amenorrhea and hirsutism in women.
D. Hypertension, and glucose intolerance.
E. Improve immunity and low incidence of infections.
5. Concerning the nonpharmacologic therapy: The treatment of choice for both ACTH-
dependent and ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome is:
1
Adrenal gland disorders
2
Adrenal gland disorders
11. All the statements below are true concerning Pasireotide, except:
A. It is a somatostatin analogue that binds and activates somatostatin receptors.
B. Inhibiting ACTH secretion, leading to decreased cortisol secretion.
C. Used for Cushing disease when pituitary surgery is not an option.
D. Side effects include cholelithiasis, increased hepatic transaminases, hyperglycemia,
sinus bradycardia, and QT prolongation.
E. It is a nonselective serotonin receptor antagonist.
3
Adrenal gland disorders
4
Adrenal gland disorders
A. Addison disease usually involves destruction of all regions of the adrenal cortex
causing primary adrenal insufficiency.
B. Exogenous corticosteroid use, leading to suppression of the hypothalamic–pituitary–
adrenal axis causing secondary adrenal insufficiency.
C. Mirtazapine and progestins induce primary adrenal insufficiency.
D. Medications that inhibit cortisol synthesis (eg, ketoconazole) can cause primary
adrenal insufficiency.
E. Medications accelerate cortisol metabolism (eg, phenytoin, rifampin, phenobarbital)
can cause primary adrenal insufficiency.
17. Patients with adrenal insufficiency (primary) commonly complain of all the following,
except:
A. Weakness.
B. Weight loss.
C. Memory impairment.
D. Depression, and hypotension.
E. Decreased skin pigmentation.
18. Diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency includes all the options below, except:
A. Short cosyntropin stimulation test
B. Plasma ACTH level, which is usually decreased in primary insufficiency versus high
levels in secondary insufficiency.
C. Insulin hypoglycemia test.
D. Metyrapone test,
E. CRH stimulation test can be used in the diagnosis.
5
Adrenal gland disorders
Answers:
6
Adrenal gland disorders
The most common findings in Cushing syndrome are all the following, except:
A. Hypercortisolism.
B. Plasma ACTH,
C. Adrenal vein catheterization, and metyrapone stimulation test.
D. Adrenal nodules and masses are identified using high-resolution CT scanning or
MRI.
E. Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) stimulation test.
F. All the above.
Concerning the nonpharmacologic therapy: The treatment of choice for both ACTH-dependent
and ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome is:
7
Adrenal gland disorders
A. Cytotoxic drug.
B. It is not a steroidogenesis inhibitor.
C. Reducing synthesis of cortisol and corticosterone.
D. Mitotane can cause significant neurologic (Lethargy, and GI side effects, in
addition, it may cause reversible hypercholesterolemia.
E. Mitotane degenerates cells of the adrenal gland (Acute effects include atrophy of
the adrenal cortex; while long term effects involve glomerulosa).
A. Serotonin.
B. γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA).
C. Acetylcholine.
D. Catecholamines.
E. All the above.
8
Adrenal gland disorders
9
Adrenal gland disorders
A. Addison disease usually involves destruction of all regions of the adrenal cortex
causing primary adrenal insufficiency.
B. Exogenous corticosteroid use, leading to suppression of the hypothalamic–
pituitary–adrenal axis causing secondary adrenal insufficiency.
10
Adrenal gland disorders
Patients with adrenal insufficiency (primary) commonly complain of all the following,
except:
A. Weakness.
B. Weight loss.
C. Memory impairment.
D. Depression, and hypotension.
E. Decreased skin pigmentation.
A. The agents of choice are hydrocortisone and cortisone acetate (have short
duration).
B. In primary adrenal insufficiency, use fludrocortisone acetate (high
mineralocorticoid effect), with hydrocortisone before severe physical stress, such
as exercise.
C. In secondary adrenal insufficiency, use hydrocortisone or prednisone.
11
Adrenal gland disorders
12
Contraception questions
All the options below are considered nonpharmacological contraception (nonhormonal contraception),
except?
A. Diaphragms.
B. Cervical cap.
C. Male condoms.
D. Female condoms.
E. Nonoxynol-9.
Spermicides are surfactants that destroy sperm cell wall and block entry into the ovum, which option is a
spermicide?
A. Combined Hormonal Contraceptive.
B. Vaginal contraceptive sponge (Today).
C. Female condom (Reality).
D. Cervical cap.
E. Progestins.
Contraception questions
Long-acting injectable and implantable contraceptives are recommended for women who particularly
benefit from progestin-only methods, including all the following conditions, except:
A. Breastfeeding women.
B. Intolerant of estrogens.
C. Concomitant medical conditions in which estrogen is not recommended.
D. Breast cancer of progesterone receptor positive
E. Adherence issues as failure rates are lower than with CHC.
For women who have migraines with aura, which type of contraception of the following is not
recommended?
A. IUDs.
B. Condom.
C. Combined contraceptives.
D. DMPA.
E. Progestin-only contraceptives.
All the following options can be used to prevent unintended pregnancy after unprotected or inadequately
protected sexual intercourse, except:
A. Progestin-only like preparations containing one (1.5) mg tablet of levonorgestrel.
B. Progesterone receptor modulator like Ulipristal.
Contraception questions
C. Copper IUD.
D. Higher doses of combined OCs.
E. Condoms.
Medications used to terminate early pregnancy (≤70 days) include all the following, except:
A. Ulipristal.
B. Mifepristone.
C. Misoprostol.
D. Methotrexate.
E. Progesterone receptors blockers and prostaglandin 1 analogs.
Evaluation of therapeutic outcomes of contraceptives involves all the following options, except:
A. Monitor blood pressure annually in all CHC users.
B. Monitor glucose levels closely in women with a history of glucose intolerance or diabetes
mellitus.
C. Annual cytologic screening.
D. Evaluate women using DMPA every year for weight gain, menstrual cycle disturbances, and
fractures.
E. Screen for HIV and sexual transmitted disease (STIs).
Answers:
B. In the follicular phase, FSH levels decrease and cause recruitment of a small group of follicles
for continued growth.
C. Ovulation occurs 24–36 hours after the estradiol peak.
D. Ovulation occurs 10–16 hours after the LH peak.
E. The LH surge is the most clinically useful predictor of approaching ovulation.
All the options below are considered nonpharmacological contraception (nonhormonal contraception), except?
A. Diaphragms.
B. Cervical cap.
C. Male condoms.
D. Female condoms.
E. Nonoxynol-9.
Spermicides are surfactants that destroy sperm cell wall and block entry into the ovum, which option is a
spermicide?
A. Combined Hormonal Contraceptive.
B. Vaginal contraceptive sponge (Today).
C. Female condom (Reality).
D. Cervical cap.
E. Progestins.
Long-acting injectable and implantable contraceptives are recommended for women who particularly benefit
from progestin-only methods, including all the following conditions, except:
A. Breastfeeding women.
B. Intolerant of estrogens.
C. Concomitant medical conditions in which estrogen is not recommended.
Contraception questions
For women who have migraines with aura, which type of contraception of the following is not recommended?
A. IUDs.
B. Condom.
C. Combined contraceptives.
D. DMPA.
E. Progestin-only contraceptives.
All the following options can be used to prevent unintended pregnancy after unprotected or
inadequately protected sexual intercourse, except:
A. Progestin-only like preparations containing one (1.5) mg tablet of levonorgestrel.
B. Progesterone receptor modulator like Ulipristal.
C. Copper IUD.
D. Higher doses of combined OCs.
E. Condoms.
Medications used to terminate early pregnancy (≤70 days) include all the following, except:
A. Ulipristal.
B. Mifepristone.
C. Misoprostol.
D. Methotrexate.
E. Progesterone receptors blockers and prostaglandin 1 analogs.
Contraception questions
Evaluation of therapeutic outcomes of contraceptives involves all the following options, except:
A. Monitor blood pressure annually in all CHC users.
B. Monitor glucose levels closely in women with a history of glucose intolerance or diabetes mellitus.
C. Annual cytologic screening.
D. Evaluate women using DMPA every year for weight gain, menstrual cycle disturbances, and
fractures.
E. Screen for HIV and sexual transmitted disease (STIs).
Depression questions (MDD)
1. The pathophysiological factors of depression could involve all the following parameters,
except:
A. Monoamine hypothesis and/or postsynaptic changes in receptor sensitivity.
B. Emotional theory.
C. Dysregulation hypothesis (Failure of homeostatic neurotransmitter regulation).
D. Inflammatory hypothesis (Chronic stress and inflammation).
E. Neuroactive steroids.
4. The clinical presentations of depression may include the following symptoms, except:
A. Emotional symptoms: Diminished ability to experience pleasure, loss of interest
in usual activities, and sadness.
B. Physical symptoms: Weight gain or loss, headache, sleep disturbance, loss of
sexual interest, and palpitations.
C. Manic or hypomanic symptoms.
D. Cognitive symptoms: Decreased ability to concentrate, poor memory, and
confusion.
E. Psychomotor disturbances: Psychomotor retardation or psychomotor agitation.
5. Which diagnostic parameter of the following is not related to major depressive disorder
(MDD)?
Depression questions (MDD)
6. Medications associated with depressive symptoms include the agents below, except:
A. Many antihypertensives.
B. Sertraline.
C. Oral contraceptives.
D. Isotretinoin.
E. Interferon-β1a.
9. All the following statements regarding pharmacological treatment of depression are correct,
except:
A. Pharmacological treatment may improve varying types of depression in 80% -
90% of patients.
B. Antidepressants are equal in efficacy when administered in comparable doses.
C. An individual’s pharmacogenomics may help in choosing therapy.
D. At least a 6-week trial of an antidepressant at maximum dosage is considered an
adequate trial of that medication.
Depression questions (MDD)
E. The acute phase of treatment lasts 6–12 weeks, and the continuation phase (4–9
months after remission).
Answers:
1. The pathophysiological factors of depression could involve all the following parameters,
except:
A. Monoamine hypothesis and/or postsynaptic changes in receptor sensitivity.
B. Emotional theory.
C. Dysregulation hypothesis (Failure of homeostatic neurotransmitter regulation).
D. Inflammatory hypothesis (Chronic stress and inflammation).
E. Neuroactive steroids.
4. The clinical presentations of depression may include the following symptoms, except:
A. Emotional symptoms: Diminished ability to experience pleasure, loss of interest
in usual activities, and sadness.
B. Physical symptoms: Weight gain or loss, headache, sleep disturbance, loss of
sexual interest, and palpitations.
C. Manic or hypomanic symptoms.
D. Cognitive symptoms: Decreased ability to concentrate, poor memory, and
confusion.
E. Psychomotor disturbances: Psychomotor retardation or psychomotor agitation.
5. Which diagnostic parameter of the following is not related to major depressive disorder
(MDD)?
A. Clinical symptoms as well as physical and mental examinations.
B. Medication review.
C. Lab blood tests like, complete blood count with differential, thyroid function tests,
and electrolytes determination.
D. Cosyntropin stimulation test.
E. Standardized rating scale.
6. Medications associated with depressive symptoms include the agents below, except:
A. Many antihypertensives.
B. Sertraline.
C. Oral contraceptives.
D. Isotretinoin.
E. Interferon-β1a.
9. All the following statements regarding pharmacological treatment of depression are correct,
except:
A. Pharmacological treatment may improve varying types of depression in 80% -
90% of patients.
B. Antidepressants are equal in efficacy when administered in comparable doses.
C. An individual’s pharmacogenomics may help in choosing therapy.
D. At least a 6-week trial of an antidepressant at maximum dosage is considered an
adequate trial of that medication.
E. The acute phase of treatment lasts 6–12 weeks, and the continuation phase (4–9
months after remission).
GAD
Pathophysiological changes during generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) include all the following,
except:
A. Noradrenergic model.
B. γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor model.
C. High cortisol level.
D. 5-HT model.
E. Glutamate signaling abnormalities model.
γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor model of anxiety includes all the following facts, except:
A. GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS).
B. Benzodiazepines enhance the inhibitory effects of GABA.
C. GABA regulates or inhibits serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine; 5-HT), norepinephrine,
and dopamine activity.
D. Abnormal functioning of several neurotransmitter systems, including norepinephrine,
GABA, glutamate, dopamine, and 5-HT, may affect manifestations of anxiety
disorders.
E. Benzodiazepines enhance the excitatory effects of GABA.
A. Norepinephrine.
B. Acetyl choline.
GAD
C. GABA.
D. Glutamate.
E. Dopamine and 5-HT.
All the following statements regarding 5-HT model of anxiety are true, except:
All the statements below regarding clinical presentation and diagnosis of generalized
Pharmacological therapy of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) include all the medications
below, except:
A. Antidepressants.
B. Benzodiazepines.
C. Corticosteroids.
D. Buspirone.
E. Hydroxyzine, pregabalin, and quetiapine.
Which antidepressant of the following should be avoided in pregnant women due to its
cardiovascular malformation risk?
A. Fluoxetine.
B. Sertraline.
C. Citalopram.
D. Paroxetine.
E. Fluvoxamine.
A. Imipramine.
B. Venlafaxine extended release.
C. Duloxetine.
D. Paroxetine.
E. Escitalopram.
A. Disorientation.
B. Psychomotor impairment.
C. Confusion.
D. Anterograde amnesia.
E. CNS depression.
Answers:
Pathophysiological changes during generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) include all the following,
except:
A. Noradrenergic model.
B. γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor model.
C. High cortisol level.
D. 5-HT model.
E. Glutamate signaling abnormalities model.
B. The locus ceruleus (LC) activates norepinephrine release and stimulates the
sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems.
C. Antidepressants inhibit LC firing, increase noradrenergic activity, and block the
effects of anxiogenic drugs.
D. Chronic noradrenergic overactivity downregulates α2-adrenoreceptors in patients
with GAD.
E. Benzodiazepines inhibits LC firing, decrease noradrenergic activity, and block the
effects of anxiogenic drugs.
γ-Aminobutyric acid (GABA) receptor model of anxiety includes all the following facts, except:
A. GABA is the major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system (CNS).
B. Benzodiazepines enhance the inhibitory effects of GABA.
C. GABA regulates or inhibits serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine; 5-HT), norepinephrine,
and dopamine activity.
D. Abnormal functioning of several neurotransmitter systems, including norepinephrine,
GABA, glutamate, dopamine, and 5-HT, may affect manifestations of anxiety
disorders.
E. Benzodiazepines enhance the excitatory effects of GABA.
All the following statements regarding 5-HT model of anxiety are true, except:
A. Abnormalities in serotonergic functioning may play a role in anxiety.
B. Primate studies show that reducing 5-HT increases aggression.
C. GAD symptoms may reflect excessive 5-HT transmission or overactivity of the
stimulatory 5-HT pathways.
D. The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) increase 5-HT levels at the
synapse.
E. SSRIs are effective in blocking manifestations anxiety but not panic.
GAD
All the statements below regarding clinical presentation and diagnosis of generalized
anxiety disorder (GAD) are correct, except:
Pharmacological therapy of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) include all the medications
below, except:
A. Antidepressants.
B. Benzodiazepines.
C. Corticosteroids.
D. Buspirone.
E. Hydroxyzine, pregabalin, and quetiapine.
Which antidepressant of the following should be avoided in pregnant women due to its
cardiovascular malformation risk?
A. Fluoxetine.
B. Sertraline.
C. Citalopram.
D. Paroxetine.
E. Fluvoxamine.
Estrogens used in hormonal replacement therapy include all the following, except:
A. Conjugated equine estrogens.
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone.
C. Estradiol and ethinyl estradiol.
D. Non-Oral estrogens including transdermal, intranasal, and vaginal products.
E. Estradiol pellets.
All the statements below are correct regarding Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators
(SERMs), except:
A. Tamoxifen is an antagonist in breast tissue and an agonist on the bone and
endometrium.
B. Raloxifene is approved for prevention and treatment of postmenopausal
osteoporosis and reduction in risk of invasive breast cancer.
C. Bazedoxifene (Third-generation SERM), FDA-approved for moderate-to-severe
vasomotor symptoms and prevention of osteoporosis.
D. Ospemifene is approved for moderate-to-severe dyspareunia from menopausal
vulvar and vaginal atrophy.
E. All agents of SERMs have the same pharmacodynamic properties.
Which of the following has an estrogen-like biologic activity and relatively weak estrogen
receptor-binding properties?
A. Phytoestrogens.
B. black cohosh.
C. Dong quai.
D. Red clover leaf.
E. Tibolone.
Answers:
Estrogens used in hormonal replacement therapy include all the following, except:
A. Conjugated equine estrogens.
B. Dehydroepiandrosterone.
C. Estradiol and ethinyl estradiol.
D. Non-Oral estrogens including transdermal, intranasal, and vaginal products.
E. Estradiol pellets.
All the statements below are correct regarding Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulators
(SERMs), except:
Hormonal Therapy questions
Which of the following has an estrogen-like biologic activity and relatively weak estrogen
receptor-binding properties?
A. Phytoestrogens.
B. black cohosh.
C. Dong quai.
D. Red clover leaf.
E. Tibolone.
Schizophrenia Questions
4. Symptoms of the acute episode of schizophrenia may include all the following, except:
A. Being out of touch with reality.
B. Hallucinations.
C. Delusions.
D. Illogical conversation.
E. After the acute psychotic episode has resolved, typically there are no residual features.
A. Continuous symptoms that persist for at least 6 months with at least 1 month of active
phase symptoms.
B. At least 2 weeks of active phase symptoms.
C. At least two of the following symptoms present like, delusions, hallucinations,
disorganized speech.
D. Negative symptoms.
E. Criterion B: Significantly impaired functioning.
7. Laboratory workup (tests) recommended before treatment of schizophrenia include all the
following, except:
A. Complete blood count and electrolytes.
B. Hepatic function and renal function tests.
C. Electrocardiogram (ECG) is not performed.
D. Fasting serum glucose.
E. Serum lipids, and thyroid function.
9. All the following pharmacological options can be used to treat schizophrenia, except:
A. First-generation antipsychotics (FGAs, also known as traditional).
B. Second generation antipsychotics (SGAs, also known as atypical).
C. Mood stabilizers (eg, lithium).
D. D2 dopamine receptors agonists.
E. Valproic acid, and carbamazepine.
Schizophrenia Questions
10. Dystonia could occur as a result of using the first-generation antipsychotics (FGA) in the
treatment of schizophrenia, lines of treatment of dystonia include all the medications below,
except:
A. Anticholinergics.
B. Benzodiazepines.
C. Analgesics.
D. Diphenhydramine.
E. First-generation antipsychotics with high anticholinergic activity (eg, haloperidol and
fluphenazine).
13. All the following medications are used in the treatment of tardive dyskinesia, except:
A. Clonazepam.
B. Antocholinergics.
C. Ginkgo biloba.
D. Deutetrabenazine.
E. Valbenazine.
14. All the following symptoms may be caused by the use of antipsychotic medications,
(particularly, first generation agents), which of these symptoms appears in the later courses?
A. Dystonia.
Schizophrenia Questions
B. Akathesia.
C. Pseudoparkinsonism
D. Tardive dyskinesia.
E. None of the above.
16. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) occurs in 0.5%–1% of schizophrenic patients taking
first-generation antipsychotics (FGAs), treatment options do not include:
A. Discontinue antipsychotics and provide supportive care.
B. Bromocriptine.
C. Amantadine.
D. Dantrolene.
E. Chemotherapeutic agents
17. To evaluate the therapeutic outcomes of therapeutic options used in the treatment of
schizophrenia, which selection is most correct?
A. The four-item Positive Symptom Rating Scale.
B. Brief Negative Symptom Assessment.
C. Patient-rated self-assessments.
D. Monitoring parameters like reduction in day time sleep.
E. Engage the patient in treatment and patient education.
Schizophrenia Questions
Answers:
4. Symptoms of the acute episode of schizophrenia may include all the following, except:
A. Being out of touch with reality.
B. Hallucinations.
C. Delusions.
D. Illogical conversation.
E. After the acute psychotic episode has resolved, typically there are no residual features.
Schizophrenia Questions
7. Laboratory workup (tests) recommended before treatment of schizophrenia include all the
following, except:
A. Complete blood count and electrolytes.
B. Hepatic function and renal function tests.
C. Electrocardiogram (ECG) is not performed.
D. Fasting serum glucose.
E. Serum lipids, and thyroid function.
9. All the following pharmacological options can be used to treat schizophrenia, except:
A. First-generation antipsychotics (FGAs, also known as traditional).
B. Second generation antipsychotics (SGAs, also known as atypical).
Schizophrenia Questions
10. Dystonia could occur as a result of using the first-generation antipsychotics (FGA) in the
treatment of schizophrenia, lines of treatment of dystonia include all the medications below,
except:
A. Anticholinergics.
B. Benzodiazepines.
C. Analgesics.
D. Diphenhydramine.
E. First-generation antipsychotics with high anticholinergic activity (eg, haloperidol and
fluphenazine).
13. All the following medications are used in the treatment of tardive dyskinesia, except:
A. Clonazepam.
B. Antocholinergics.
C. Ginkgo biloba.
D. Deutetrabenazine.
E. Valbenazine.
Schizophrenia Questions
14. All the following symptoms may be caused by the use of antipsychotic medications,
(particularly, first generation agents), which of these symptoms appears in the later courses?
A. Dystonia.
B. Akathesia.
C. Pseudoparkinsonism
D. Tardive dyskinesia.
E. None of the above.
16. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) occurs in 0.5%–1% of schizophrenic patients taking
first-generation antipsychotics (FGAs), treatment options do not include:
A. Discontinue antipsychotics and provide supportive care.
B. Bromocriptine.
C. Amantadine.
D. Dantrolene.
E. Chemotherapeutic agents
17. To evaluate the therapeutic outcomes of therapeutic options used in the treatment of
schizophrenia, which selection is most correct?
A. The four-item Positive Symptom Rating Scale.
B. Brief Negative Symptom Assessment.
C. Patient-rated self-assessments.
D. Monitoring parameters like reduction in day time sleep.
E. Engage the patient in treatment and patient education.
Sleep Disorders Problems
3. All the following drugs can be utilized to treat insomnia and have anticholinergic effects,
except:
A. Diphenhydramine.
B. Doxylamine.
C. Pyrilamine.
D. Quazepam
E. Amitriptyline
4. An agent often used for insomnia induced by selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors or
bupropion and in patients prone to substance abuse. Side effects include serotonin syndrome.
A. Suvorexant
B. Ramelteon
C. Doxepin
D. Zolpidem
E. Trazodone
D. Rebound insomnia.
E. Benzodiazepines have sedative, anxiolytic, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant
properties.
Answers:
1. Which drug is not used for the treatment of cataplexy?
F. Modafinil.
G. Amphetamine.
H. Imipramine.
I. Selegiline.
J. Sodium oxybate.
3. All the following drugs can be utilized to treat insomnia and have anticholinergic effects,
except:
F. Diphenhydramine.
G. Doxylamine.
H. Pyrilamine.
I. Quazepam
J. Amitriptyline
Sleep Disorders Problems
4. An agent often used for insomnia induced by selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors or
bupropion and in patients prone to substance abuse. Side effects include serotonin syndrome.
F. Suvorexant
G. Ramelteon
H. Doxepin
I. Zolpidem
J. Trazodone
1
Thyroid gland disorders
2
Thyroid gland disorders
3
Thyroid gland disorders
Answers:
4
Thyroid gland disorders
The vast majority of patients have primary hypothyroidism due to thyroid gland failure
caused by:
5
Thyroid gland disorders
All the statements below regarding Myxedema coma are correct, except:
All the following statements concerning diagnosis of hypothyroidism are true, except:
All the following medicinal agents can be used in the management of hypothyroidism,
except:
A. Thyroxine.
B. Desiccated thyroid.
C. Liothyronine (synthetic T3).
6
Thyroid gland disorders
D. Liotrix.
E. Radioactive iodine.
7
Cancer questions
Cancer is a group of diseases (more than 100 diseases) characterized by all the following, except:
A. Uncontrolled cellular growth.
B. Tissue infiltration (invasion).
C. Spread of abnormal cells (metastasis).
D. Can't carry out normal physiological functions.
E. Can be classified into stages based on the type of chemotherapeutic treatment.
All the following measures can help in preventing the risk of skin cancer, except:
A. Minimizing sun exposure.
B. Using sun screens with a sun protection factor (SPF≥15) on exposed areas.
C. Wearing protective clothing and sunglasses.
D. Administration of prophylactic chemotherapy.
E. Avoiding tanning beds and sun lamps.
Which selection of the following is the process by which normal cells are transformed into
cancer cells?
A. Carcinogenesis.
B. Carcinogen exposure.
C. Metastasis.
D. Invasion.
E. Proliferation.
Evidence indicates that there are four stages in the cancer development process, including all the
stages below, except:
A. Initiation.
B. Promotion.
Cancer questions
C. Transformation.
D. Transcription.
E. Progression.
A reversible stage occurs when the environment is altered by carcinogens or other factors to
favor the growth of mutated cell over the normal cell, this stage is called:
A. Initiation.
B. Promotion.
C. Transformation.
D. Transcription.
E. Progression.
Which genes have protective effects against oncogenes, and they inhibit inappropriate cellular
growth and proliferation?
A. Protooncogens.
B. Tumor suppressor genes.
C. DNA repair genes.
D. Mitochondrial genes.
E. All the above.
All the following statements regarding tumor origin are correct, except:
A. Tumors may arise from the 4 basic tissue types: epithelial, connective, lymphoid, or
nerve tissue.
B. Adenocarcinomas arise from glandular tissue (eg. Lung, breast and colon).
C. Malignancies of the bone marrow or lymphoid tissue, such as leukemias or
lymphomas, are named differently.
D. The suffix -oma is added to the name of the cell type if the tumor cells are benign (eg.
Lipoma).
E. Precancerous cells have cellular changes that are normal and but not yet malignant
and may be described as hyperplastic or dysplastic.
Chemotherapy that is given before surgical resection of the tumor to decrease the tumor burden
to be removed and make the surgery easier to perform is called:
A. Adjuvant therapy.
B. Neoadjuvant therapy.
C. Palliative therapy.
D. Localized therapy.
Cancer questions
Systemic therapies that administered after surgery to destroy microscopic malignant cells is
called:
A. Adjuvant therapy.
B. Neoadjuvant therapy.
C. Palliative therapy.
D. Localized therapy.
E. All the above.
All the following facts regarding dosing of chemotherapy are true, except:
A. Chemotherapeutic agents typically have a very narrow therapeutic index.
B. The doses of chemotherapy must be given at a frequency that allows the patient to
recover from the toxicity of the chemotherapy.
C. Each cycle of chemotherapy may have the same dosages.
D. The dose density of chemotherapy refers to increasing doses of chemotherapeutic
agent.
E. Factors that affect chemotherapy selection and dosing are age, concurrent disease
states, and performance status.
Combination therapy of chemotherapeutic agents should meet all the following principles,
except:
A. Agents with different pharmacologic actions.
B. Agents with different organ toxicities.
C. Agents that are active against the tumor and ideally synergistic when used together.
D. Agents that do not result in significant drug interactions.
E. Agents combined together must be given at constant doses during all cycles.
Which chemotherapeutic agent is metabolized by xanthine oxidase (an enzyme that is inhibited
by allopurinol), that represents a major drug–drug interaction?
A. 5-FU.
B. Mercaptopurine.
C. Methotrexate.
D. Hydroxy urea.
E. Vincristine.
All the following drugs may inhibit or compete with tubular secretion of methotrexate, except:
A. Probenecid.
B. Salicylates.
C. Penicillin G.
D. Ketoprofen.
E. Ceftriaxone.
Chemotherapeutic agents similar to the vinca alkaloids, exhibit cytotoxicity during the M phase
of the cell cycle by binding to tubulin (inhibit microtubule disassembly).
Cancer questions
A. Nitrosoureas.
B. Taxanes.
C. Folate Antagonists.
D. Purine Analogues.
E. Anthracene.
Which one of taxanes has the ability to induce hypersensitivity reactions, which requiring
administration of dexamethasone, diphenhydramine, and an H2 blocker?
A. Monoclonal antibodies.
B. Docetaxel.
C. Cremophor EL (paclitaxel diluents).
D. Nanoparticle Albumin-Bound Paclitaxel.
E. Cabazitaxel.
Fluid-retention syndrome is associated with the use of docetaxel and is characterized by all the
following, except:
A. Prevented by pretreatment with dexamethasone.
B. Characterized by edema and weight gain.
C. Unresponsive to diuretic therapy.
D. Associated with cumulative doses greater than 800 mg/m2.
E. Patients usually have asymptomatic bradycardia.
Which anticancer of the following results in red-orange urine after administration, which is an
important counseling point for patients?
A. 5-FU.
B. Methotrexate.
C. Daunorubicin.
D. Hydroxy urea.
E. Vincristine.
All of the following are alkylating agents act through DNA cross linking, except:
A. Cyclophosphamide.
B. Ifosfamide.
C. Cisplatin.
D. Carmustine.
E. Lomustine.
Platinum compounds (cisplatin, carboplatin, and oxaliplatin) have all the facts below, except:
A. They act by cross linking DNA.
Cancer questions
B. Cisplatin is used for the treatment of head, neck, anal cancer, including many types of
lymphoma and carcinoma of unknown primary.
C. Cisplatin is less likely to induce emesis (emetogenic) than carboplatin and oxaliplatin.
D. Significant nephrotoxicity and electrolyte abnormalities can occur if inadequate
hydration occurs.
E. Ototoxicity may limit cisplatin therapy.
Almetuzumab requires prophylaxis or premedication with all these therapeutic options, except:
Cancer questions
Hormonal or endocrine therapies against cancer have all the following criteria, except:
A. Used for cancers whose growth is affected by gonadal hormonal control.
B. Hormonal treatments may act through blocking endogenous hormones.
C. Hormonal treatments may act through decreasing the production of endogenous
hormones.
D. Hormonal treatments may act as agonists for endogenous hormones.
E. They are mainly used to treat breast and prostate cancer.
Cancer questions
Answer:
Cancer is a group of diseases (more than 100 diseases) characterized by all the following, except:
F. Uncontrolled cellular growth.
G. Tissue infiltration (invasion).
H. Spread of abnormal cells (metastasis).
I. Can't carry out normal physiological functions.
J. Can be classified into stages based on the type of chemotherapeutic treatment.
All the following measures can help in preventing the risk of skin cancer, except:
F. Minimizing sun exposure.
G. Using sun screens with a sun protection factor (SPF≥15) on exposed areas.
H. Wearing protective clothing and sunglasses.
I. Administration of prophylactic chemotherapy.
J. Avoiding tanning beds and sun lamps.
Which selection of the following is the process by which normal cells are transformed into
cancer cells?
F. Carcinogenesis.
G. Carcinogen exposure.
H. Metastasis.
I. Invasion.
J. Proliferation.
Evidence indicates that there are four stages in the cancer development process, including all the
stages below, except:
Cancer questions
F. Initiation.
G. Promotion.
H. Transformation.
I. Transcription.
J. Progression.
A reversible stage occurs when the environment is altered by carcinogens or other factors to
favor the growth of mutated cell over the normal cell, this stage is called:
F. Initiation.
G. Promotion.
H. Transformation.
I. Transcription.
J. Progression.
Which genes have protective effects against oncogenes, and they inhibit inappropriate cellular
growth and proliferation?
F. Protooncogens.
G. Tumor suppressor genes.
H. DNA repair genes.
I. Mitochondrial genes.
J. All the above.
All the following statements regarding tumor origin are correct, except:
F. Tumors may arise from the 4 basic tissue types: epithelial, connective, lymphoid, or
nerve tissue.
G. Adenocarcinomas arise from glandular tissue (eg. Lung, breast and colon).
H. Malignancies of the bone marrow or lymphoid tissue, such as leukemias or
lymphomas, are named differently.
I. The suffix -oma is added to the name of the cell type if the tumor cells are benign (eg.
Lipoma).
J. Precancerous cells have cellular changes that are normal and but not yet malignant
and may be described as hyperplastic or dysplastic.
Chemotherapy that is given before surgical resection of the tumor to decrease the tumor burden
to be removed and make the surgery easier to perform is called:
F. Adjuvant therapy.
Cancer questions
G. Neoadjuvant therapy.
H. Palliative therapy.
I. Localized therapy.
J. All the above.
Systemic therapies that administered after surgery to destroy microscopic malignant cells is
called:
F. Adjuvant therapy.
G. Neoadjuvant therapy.
H. Palliative therapy.
I. Localized therapy.
J. All the above.
All the following facts regarding dosing of chemotherapy are true, except:
F. Chemotherapeutic agents typically have a very narrow therapeutic index.
G. The doses of chemotherapy must be given at a frequency that allows the patient to
recover from the toxicity of the chemotherapy.
H. Each cycle of chemotherapy may have the same dosages.
I. The dose density of chemotherapy refers to increasing doses of chemotherapeutic
agent.
J. Factors that affect chemotherapy selection and dosing are age, concurrent disease
states, and performance status.
Combination therapy of chemotherapeutic agents should meet all the following principles,
except:
F. Agents with different pharmacologic actions.
G. Agents with different organ toxicities.
H. Agents that are active against the tumor and ideally synergistic when used together.
I. Agents that do not result in significant drug interactions.
J. Agents combined together must be given at constant doses during all cycles.
I. Hydroxy urea.
J. Vincristine.
Which chemotherapeutic agent is metabolized by xanthine oxidase (an enzyme that is inhibited
by allopurinol), that represents a major drug–drug interaction?
F. 5-FU.
G. Mercaptopurine.
H. Methotrexate.
I. Hydroxy urea.
J. Vincristine.
All the following drugs may inhibit or compete with tubular secretion of methotrexate, except:
F. Probenecid.
G. Salicylates.
H. Penicillin G.
I. Ketoprofen.
J. Ceftriaxone.
Chemotherapeutic agents similar to the vinca alkaloids, exhibit cytotoxicity during the M phase
of the cell cycle by binding to tubulin (inhibit microtubule disassembly).
F. Nitrosoureas.
G. Taxanes.
H. Folate Antagonists.
I. Purine Analogues.
J. Anthracene.
Which one of taxanes has the ability to induce hypersensitivity reactions, which requiring
administration of dexamethasone, diphenhydramine, and an H2 blocker?
F. Monoclonal antibodies.
G. Docetaxel.
H. Cremophor EL (paclitaxel diluents).
I. Nanoparticle Albumin-Bound Paclitaxel.
J. Cabazitaxel.
Fluid-retention syndrome is associated with the use of docetaxel and is characterized by all the
following, except:
F. Prevented by pretreatment with dexamethasone.
G. Characterized by edema and weight gain.
H. Unresponsive to diuretic therapy.
I. Associated with cumulative doses greater than 800 mg/m2.
J. Patients usually have asymptomatic bradycardia.
I. Folate Antagonists.
J. Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors (TKI).
Which anticancer of the following results in red-orange urine after administration, which is an
important counseling point for patients?
F. 5-FU.
G. Methotrexate.
H. Daunorubicin.
I. Hydroxy urea.
J. Vincristine.
All of the following are alkylating agents act through DNA cross linking, except:
F. Cyclophosphamide.
G. Ifosfamide.
H. Cisplatin.
I. Carmustine.
J. Lomustine.
Platinum compounds (cisplatin, carboplatin, and oxaliplatin) have all the facts below, except:
F. They act by cross linking DNA.
G. Cisplatin is used for the treatment of head, neck, anal cancer, including many types of
lymphoma and carcinoma of unknown primary.
H. Cisplatin is less likely to induce emesis (emetogenic) than carboplatin and oxaliplatin.
I. Significant nephrotoxicity and electrolyte abnormalities can occur if inadequate
hydration occurs.
J. Ototoxicity may limit cisplatin therapy.
Almetuzumab requires prophylaxis or premedication with all these therapeutic options, except:
F. Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PJP) prophylaxis.
G. Antifungal prophylaxis.
H. Antiviral prophylaxis.
I. 2-mercaptoethane sulfonate sodium (mesna).
J. Antihistamines and acetaminophen.
Hormonal or endocrine therapies against cancer have all the following criteria, except:
F. Used for cancers whose growth is affected by gonadal hormonal control.
G. Hormonal treatments may act through blocking endogenous hormones.
H. Hormonal treatments may act through decreasing the production of endogenous
hormones.
I. Hormonal treatments may act as agonists for endogenous hormones.
J. They are mainly used to treat breast and prostate cancer.
Menstrual related disorders questions
Which condition of the following is the most commonly reported menstrual complaint?
A. Dysmenorrhea.
B. Amenorrhea.
C. Anovulatory uterine bleeding.
D. Abnormal uterine bleeding.
E. Pregnancy.
Which condition is associated with pelvic pain, and generally described as painful cramping,
occurring during or just prior to menstruation?
A. Amenorrhea.
B. Anovulatory uterine bleeding.
C. Abnormal uterine bleeding.
D. Dysmenorrhea.
E. Pregnancy.
1
Menstrual related disorders questions
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are first-line therapy for dysmenorrhea, they
work by all the following mechanisms, except:
A. Inhibiting prostaglandin production.
B. Exert analgesic properties.
C. Decrease uterine contractions.
D. Increasing leukotriene level.
E. Reduce menstrual blood flow.
Combination Hormonal Contraceptives (CHCs) improve mild to severe dysmenorrhea by all the
actions below, except:
A. Decreasing endometrial lining.
B. Inhibiting ovulation.
C. Negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary.
D. Decreasing the formation of prostaglandins.
E. Decreasing the formation of leukotrienes.
All the following statements regarding the use of progestin-only hormonal contraceptives for
dysmenorrhea are correct, except:
A. They diminish dysmenorrhea by reducing or eliminating menses over time.
B. They eliminate prostaglandin release.
2
Menstrual related disorders questions
Adolescents with symptoms unresponsive to NSAID therapy for three menstrual periods should
be offered:
A. High dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
B. Combination Hormonal Contraceptives.
C. Non-pharmacological therapy.
D. Ethinyl estradiol.
E. IUD therapy.
All the following facts regarding primary amenorrhea are true, except:
A. Failure to reach menarche.
B. No pubertal development by age 13.
C. Menarche has not occurred within 5 years after initial breast development.
D. Menarche has not occurred when patient is 15 years or older.
E. Irregular or heavy menses and menarche prior to age 12.
Which condition could be a potential side effect from using low-dose or extended oral CHCs,
depot medroxyprogesterone acetate, or levonorgestrel-releasing IUD?
A. Dysmenorrhea.
B. Amenorrhea.
C. Anovulatory uterine bleeding.
D. Abnormal uterine bleeding.
E. Pregnancy.
The pharmacological therapy of amenorrhea includes all the options below, except:
A. Estrogens/progestins replacement therapy.
B. Dopamine agonists, like bromocriptine.
C. Progestins.
D. Insulin sensitizing agents, like metformin.
E. Warfarin.
All the statements below regarding progestins use for amenorrhea are correct, except:
A. Progestins induce withdrawal bleeding in women with secondary amenorrhea.
B. Efficacy varies depending on the formulation used.
C. Withdrawal bleeding occurs with intramuscularly injected progesterone and oral
medroxyprogesterone acetate.
D. The usual dose of medroxyprogesterone acetate is 10 mg orally once daily for 7 to 10
days.
E. They reduce menstrual blood flow.
4
Menstrual related disorders questions
Irregular menstrual bleeding from the endometrium which is ranging from light spotting to heavy
blood flow is known as:
A. Dysmenorrhea.
B. Amenorrhea.
C. Anovulatory uterine bleeding.
D. Abnormal uterine bleeding.
E. Abortion.
Which condition is the most common cause of noncyclic uterine bleeding that occurring in 5% to
10% of women, and is responsible for 55% to 91% of ovulatory dysfunction cases?
A. Chromosomal irregularities.
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome.
C. Primary ovarian insufficiency.
D. Anatomic abnormalities.
E. Unrecognized pregnancy.
Anovulatory uterine bleeding typically may present with the following clinical manifestations,
except:
A. Irregular menstrual bleeding.
B. Hirsutism.
C. Uterine hypoxia.
D. Obesity.
E. Infertility.
C. Pregnancy.
D. Lactation.
E. Pathologic causes.
The most common causes of nonphysiologic (pathologic) ovulatory dysfunction are all of the
following, except:
A. Perimenopause.
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
C. Hypothalamic amenorrhea.
D. Hyperprolactinemia.
E. Premature ovarian failure.
For women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), weight loss may be beneficial. In
overweight or obese women, a 5% weight reduction is associated with all the following, except:
A. Resumption of menses.
B. Improved pregnancy rates.
C. Decreased hirsutism.
D. Degreased glucose levels.
E. Increased androgen level.
Anovulatory bleeding can be treated with the following therapeutic options, except:
A. Combined hormonal contraceptives.
B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate.
C. NSAIDs.
D. Estrogen modulators.
E. Insulin sensitizing agents.
6
Menstrual related disorders questions
Long-term therapy with combined hormonal contraceptives (CHCs) may have all the following
effects, except:
A. Reduces the risk of endometrial cancer.
B. CHCs suppress ovarian hormones.
C. CHCs suppress adrenal androgen production.
D. Increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG).
E. Increasing circulating androgen.
If pregnancy is an immediate goal, which estrogen modulator may be used to induce ovulation?
A. Clomiphene.
B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate.
C. NSAIDs.
D. Estrogen.
E. Insulin sensitizing agents.
Answers:
7
Menstrual related disorders questions
Which condition of the following is the most commonly reported menstrual complaint?
A. Dysmenorrhea.
B. Amenorrhea.
C. Anovulatory uterine bleeding.
D. Abnormal uterine bleeding.
E. Pregnancy.
Which condition is associated with pelvic pain, and generally described as painful cramping,
occurring during or just prior to menstruation?
A. Amenorrhea.
B. Anovulatory uterine bleeding.
C. Abnormal uterine bleeding.
D. Dysmenorrhea.
E. Pregnancy.
8
Menstrual related disorders questions
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are first-line therapy for dysmenorrhea, they
work by all the following mechanisms, except:
A. Inhibiting prostaglandin production.
B. Exert analgesic properties.
C. Decrease uterine contractions.
D. Increasing leukotriene level.
E. Reduce menstrual blood flow.
Combination Hormonal Contraceptives (CHCs) improve mild to severe dysmenorrhea by all the
actions below, except:
A. Decreasing endometrial lining.
B. Inhibiting ovulation.
C. Negative feedback on the hypothalamus and pituitary.
D. Decreasing the formation of prostaglandins.
E. Decreasing the formation of leukotrienes.
All the following statements regarding the use of progestin-only hormonal contraceptives for
dysmenorrhea are correct, except:
A. They diminish dysmenorrhea by reducing or eliminating menses over time.
B. They eliminate prostaglandin release.
C. Three agents are available: depot medroxyprogesterone acetate, etonogestrel implant,
and levonorgestrel-releasing IUD.
D. Dysmenorrhea reduced from 60% to 29% after 3 years of levonorgestrel-releasing
IUD therapy.
E. The available agents are short-acting reversible contraceptive agents.
9
Menstrual related disorders questions
Adolescents with symptoms unresponsive to NSAID therapy for three menstrual periods should
be offered:
A. High dose nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
B. Combination Hormonal Contraceptives.
C. Non-pharmacological therapy.
D. Ethinyl estradiol.
E. IUD therapy.
All the following facts regarding primary amenorrhea are true, except:
A. Failure to reach menarche.
B. No pubertal development by age 13.
C. Menarche has not occurred within 5 years after initial breast development.
D. Menarche has not occurred when patient is 15 years or older.
E. Irregular or heavy menses and menarche prior to age 12.
10
Menstrual related disorders questions
Which condition could be a potential side effect from using low-dose or extended oral CHCs,
depot medroxyprogesterone acetate, or levonorgestrel-releasing IUD?
A. Dysmenorrhea.
B. Amenorrhea.
C. Anovulatory uterine bleeding.
D. Abnormal uterine bleeding.
E. Pregnancy.
The pharmacological therapy of amenorrhea includes all the options below, except:
A. Estrogens/progestins replacement therapy.
B. Dopamine agonists, like bromocriptine.
C. Progestins.
D. Insulin sensitizing agents, like metformin.
E. Warfarin.
All the statements below regarding progestins use for amenorrhea are correct, except:
A. Progestins induce withdrawal bleeding in women with secondary amenorrhea.
B. Efficacy varies depending on the formulation used.
C. Withdrawal bleeding occurs with intramuscularly injected progesterone and oral
medroxyprogesterone acetate.
D. The usual dose of medroxyprogesterone acetate is 10 mg orally once daily for 7 to 10
days.
E. They reduce menstrual blood flow.
Irregular menstrual bleeding from the endometrium which is ranging from light spotting to heavy
blood flow is known as:
A. Dysmenorrhea.
B. Amenorrhea.
C. Anovulatory uterine bleeding.
D. Abnormal uterine bleeding.
11
Menstrual related disorders questions
E. Abortion.
Which condition is the most common cause of noncyclic uterine bleeding that occurring in 5% to
10% of women, and is responsible for 55% to 91% of ovulatory dysfunction cases?
A. Chromosomal irregularities.
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome.
C. Primary ovarian insufficiency.
D. Anatomic abnormalities.
E. Unrecognized pregnancy.
Anovulatory uterine bleeding typically may present with the following clinical manifestations,
except:
A. Irregular menstrual bleeding.
B. Hirsutism.
C. Uterine hypoxia.
D. Obesity.
E. Infertility.
The most common causes of nonphysiologic (pathologic) ovulatory dysfunction are all of the
following, except:
A. Perimenopause.
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
C. Hypothalamic amenorrhea.
12
Menstrual related disorders questions
D. Hyperprolactinemia.
E. Premature ovarian failure.
For women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), weight loss may be beneficial. In
overweight or obese women, a 5% weight reduction is associated with all the following, except:
A. Resumption of menses.
B. Improved pregnancy rates.
C. Decreased hirsutism.
D. Degreased glucose levels.
E. Increased androgen level.
Anovulatory bleeding can be treated with the following therapeutic options, except:
A. Combined hormonal contraceptives.
B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate.
C. NSAIDs.
D. Estrogen modulators.
E. Insulin sensitizing agents.
Long-term therapy with combined hormonal contraceptives (CHCs) may have all the following
effects, except:
A. Reduces the risk of endometrial cancer.
B. CHCs suppress ovarian hormones.
C. CHCs suppress adrenal androgen production.
D. Increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG).
E. Increasing circulating androgen.
If pregnancy is an immediate goal, which estrogen modulator may be used to induce ovulation?
A. Clomiphene.
B. Medroxyprogesterone acetate.
13
Menstrual related disorders questions
C. NSAIDs.
D. Estrogen.
E. Insulin sensitizing agents.
14
Breast cancer questions
The most strongly risk factors associated with occurrence of breast cancer are:
A. Gender and age.
B. Endocrine factors (eg, early menarche, nulliparity, late age at first birth, and hormone
replacement therapy).
C. Genetic factors (eg, personal and family history, mutations of tumor suppresser genes
[BRCA1 and BRCA2]).
D. Environmental factors.
E. Lifestyle factors (eg, radiation exposure, weight, height, and alcohol use).
The most common metastatic sites of breast cancer are all the following sites, except:
A. Lymph nodes.
B. Skin and bone.
C. Liver and lungs.
D. Brain.
E. Colon.
The pharmacologic risk reduction of breast cancer includes all the following agents, except:
A. Tamoxifen.
B. Raloxifene.
C. Estrogen.
D. Exemestane.
E. Anastrozole.
Risk reduction strategies of breast cancer include the therapeutic options below, except:
A. Mastectomy.
B. Estrogen hormonal therapy.
C. Oophorectomy.
D. Pharmacologic agents.
E. Nonpharmacologic therapy.
1
Breast cancer questions
What diagnostic method is indicated when there is mammographic abnormality that suggests
breast malignancy or for a palpable mass on physical examination?
A. Careful history.
B. Physical examination of the breast.
C. Three-dimensional mammography.
D. Breast imaging techniques, as ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
E. Breast biopsy.
Goals of treatment of breast cancer include all the following facts, except:
A. Adjuvant therapy for early and locally advanced breast cancer (curative intent).
B. Neoadjuvant therapy is given to eradicate micrometastatic disease, determine prognosis,
and potentially conserve breast tissue for a better cosmetic result.
C. Curative therapy is the desired therapeutic outcome in the treatment of metastatic breast
cancer (MBC).
D. Treatment can cause substantial toxicity, which differs depending on the individual agent,
administration method, and combination regimen.
E. Treatment is rapidly evolving.
First line of therapy of early breast cancer (stage I and II) includes:
A. Surgery or breast-conserving therapy (BCT).
B. Adjuvant chemotherapy.
C. Adjuvant biological therapy.
D. Targeted therapy.
E. Adjuvant endocrine therapy.
2
Breast cancer questions
In adjuvant chemotherapy, dose intensity refers to all the below facts, except:
A. It is the amount of drug administered per unit of time.
B. It can be increased by increasing dose.
C. It can be increased by decreasing time between doses.
D. To elevate dose intensity, it is recommended to increase the dose of chemotherapy.
E. To elevate dose intensity, it is recommended to decrease the time between treatment
cycles.
All the following agents are hormonal therapies used in the treatment of primary or early-stage
breast cancer, except:
A. Estrogen modulators like, tamoxifen and toremifene.
B. Oophorectomy and ovarian irradiation.
C. Aromatase inhibitors like, letrozole, exemestane and anastrozole.
D. Pertuzumab.
E. Luteinizing hormone–releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists.
3
Breast cancer questions
All the statements below concerning locally advanced breast cancer (stage III) are correct,
except:
A. Neoadjuvant or primary chemotherapy is the initial treatment of choice.
B. Primary chemotherapy with an anthracycline- and taxane-containing regimen is
recommended.
C. The use of trastuzumab and pertuzumab with chemotherapy is appropriate for patients
with HER2-positive tumors.
D. Surgery followed by chemotherapy and adjuvant RT should be administered to minimize
local recurrence.
E. Palliation is the primary goal of therapy for most patients with stage III disease.
Treatment of metastatic breast cancer (MBC) may include all the following, except:
A. Cytotoxic chemotherapy.
B. Endocrine therapy.
C. Surgery or breast-conserving therapy (BCT).
D. Targeted therapy.
E. Biologic therapy.
Metastatic breast cancer (stage IV) has all the following facts, except:
A. Treatment of MBC with cytotoxic, endocrine, or targeted therapy often results in
regression of disease and improvement in quality of life.
4
Breast cancer questions
B. The choice of therapy for MBC is based on the extent of disease involvement and the
presence or absence of certain tumor or patient characteristics.
C. The most important predictive factors are the presence of HER2, ER, and PR receptors in
the primary or metastatic tumor tissue.
D. Consider adding bone-modifying agents (eg, pamidronate, zoledronic acid, or
denosumab) to treat breast cancer patients with metastases to the bone.
E. Cure is the primary goal of therapy for most patients with stage IV disease.
Which therapy is the treatment of choice for patients who have hormone receptor positive
metastases?
A. Cytotoxic chemotherapy.
B. Endocrine therapy.
C. Surgery or breast-conserving therapy (BCT).
D. Targeted therapy.
E. Biologic therapy.
Aromatase inhibitors are first-line therapy in postmenopausal women which are all of the
following, except:
A. Anastrozole.
B. Letrozole.
C. Exemestane.
D. Testolactone.
E. Tamoxifen.
5
Breast cancer questions
Endocrine therapy of breast cancer may include all these agents, except:
A. Aromatase Inhibitors such as anastrozole, letrozole, and exemestane.
B. Estrogen modulators such as tamoxifen.
C. Surgical or chemical ovarian ablation.
D. Medical castration with an LHRH analogue such as goserelin, leuprolide, and triptorelin.
E. mTOR inhibitors such as everolimus.
6
Breast cancer questions
Answers:
The most strongly risk factors associated with occurrence of breast cancer are:
A. Gender and age.
B. Endocrine factors (eg, early menarche, nulliparity, late age at first birth, and hormone
replacement therapy).
C. Genetic factors (eg, personal and family history, mutations of tumor suppresser genes
[BRCA1 and BRCA2]).
D. Environmental factors.
E. Lifestyle factors (eg, radiation exposure, weight, height, and alcohol use).
The most common metastatic sites of breast cancer are all the following sites, except:
A. Lymph nodes.
B. Skin and bone.
C. Liver and lungs.
D. Brain.
E. Colon.
The pharmacologic risk reduction of breast cancer includes all the following agents, except:
A. Tamoxifen.
B. Raloxifene.
C. Estrogen.
D. Exemestane.
E. Anastrozole.
Risk reduction strategies of breast cancer include the therapeutic options below, except:
A. Mastectomy.
B. Estrogen hormonal therapy.
C. Oophorectomy.
D. Pharmacologic agents.
E. Nonpharmacologic therapy.
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Breast cancer questions
C. Trastuzumab.
D. Exemestane.
E. Anastrozole.
The initial signs of breast cancer in most women are:
A. Nipple changes.
B. Bone pain.
C. Painless, palpable lump (Solitary, unilateral, solid, irregular, and nonmobile).
D. Skin edema, redness, warmth, and induration.
E. Abdominal pain or enlargement, jaundice, and mental status changes.
What diagnostic method is indicated when there is mammographic abnormality that suggests
breast malignancy or for a palpable mass on physical examination?
A. Careful history.
B. Physical examination of the breast.
C. Three-dimensional mammography.
D. Breast imaging techniques, as ultrasound and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
E. Breast biopsy.
Goals of treatment of breast cancer include all the following facts, except:
A. Adjuvant therapy for early and locally advanced breast cancer (curative intent).
B. Neoadjuvant therapy is given to eradicate micrometastatic disease, determine prognosis,
and potentially conserve breast tissue for a better cosmetic result.
C. Curative therapy is the desired therapeutic outcome in the treatment of metastatic breast
cancer (MBC).
D. Treatment can cause substantial toxicity, which differs depending on the individual agent,
administration method, and combination regimen.
E. Treatment is rapidly evolving.
First line of therapy of early breast cancer (stage I and II) includes:
A. Surgery or breast-conserving therapy (BCT).
B. Adjuvant chemotherapy.
C. Adjuvant biological therapy.
D. Targeted therapy.
E. Adjuvant endocrine therapy.
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Breast cancer questions
In adjuvant chemotherapy, dose intensity refers to all the below facts, except:
A. It is the amount of drug administered per unit of time.
B. It can be increased by increasing dose.
C. It can be increased by decreasing time between doses.
D. To elevate dose intensity, it is recommended to increase the dose of chemotherapy.
E. To elevate dose intensity, it is recommended to decrease the time between treatment
cycles.
All the following agents are hormonal therapies used in the treatment of primary or early-stage
breast cancer, except:
A. Estrogen modulators like, tamoxifen and toremifene.
B. Oophorectomy and ovarian irradiation.
C. Aromatase inhibitors like, letrozole, exemestane and anastrozole.
D. Pertuzumab.
E. Luteinizing hormone–releasing hormone (LHRH) agonists.
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Breast cancer questions
All the statements below concerning locally advanced breast cancer (stage III) are correct,
except:
A. Neoadjuvant or primary chemotherapy is the initial treatment of choice.
B. Primary chemotherapy with an anthracycline- and taxane-containing regimen is
recommended.
C. The use of trastuzumab and pertuzumab with chemotherapy is appropriate for patients
with HER2-positive tumors.
D. Surgery followed by chemotherapy and adjuvant RT should be administered to minimize
local recurrence.
E. Palliation is the primary goal of therapy for most patients with stage III disease.
Treatment of metastatic breast cancer (MBC) may include all the following, except:
A. Cytotoxic chemotherapy.
B. Endocrine therapy.
C. Surgery or breast-conserving therapy (BCT).
D. Targeted therapy.
E. Biologic therapy.
Metastatic breast cancer (stage IV) has all the following facts, except:
A. Treatment of MBC with cytotoxic, endocrine, or targeted therapy often results in
regression of disease and improvement in quality of life.
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Breast cancer questions
B. The choice of therapy for MBC is based on the extent of disease involvement and the
presence or absence of certain tumor or patient characteristics.
C. The most important predictive factors are the presence of HER2, ER, and PR receptors in
the primary or metastatic tumor tissue.
D. Consider adding bone-modifying agents (eg, pamidronate, zoledronic acid, or
denosumab) to treat breast cancer patients with metastases to the bone.
E. Cure is the primary goal of therapy for most patients with stage IV disease.
Which therapy is the treatment of choice for patients who have hormone receptor positive
metastases?
A. Cytotoxic chemotherapy.
B. Endocrine therapy.
C. Surgery or breast-conserving therapy (BCT).
D. Targeted therapy.
E. Biologic therapy.
Aromatase inhibitors are first-line therapy in postmenopausal women which are all of the
following, except:
A. Anastrozole.
B. Letrozole.
C. Exemestane.
D. Testolactone.
E. Tamoxifen.
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Breast cancer questions
Endocrine therapy of breast cancer may include all these agents, except:
A. Aromatase Inhibitors such as anastrozole, letrozole, and exemestane.
B. Estrogen modulators such as tamoxifen.
C. Surgical or chemical ovarian ablation.
D. Medical castration with an LHRH analogue such as goserelin, leuprolide, and triptorelin.
E. mTOR inhibitors such as everolimus.
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