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    Roll No. J J CL) @® Aakash Test Date:/08-01-2023) A Booklet Cade Medical Entrance Exam - 2023 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XII Studying Students) INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES Readeach question caret Each correct answer caries four marks. One mark wit be ) Its mandatory to use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen to darken the | detkictedfor each ncortect answer fromthe atl score. appropriate cirlein the answer sheet. Before handing over the answer sheet to the inviglator, candidate Mark shouldbe dark nd should completely filth cre should check that Rell No. and Centre Code have been filed ans Rough work mustnotbe done on te answer sheet marked correcty, Do not use whits-ud or any other rubbing material on answe sheet. Nochange nthe answer once marked is alowed Student cannatuse log tables and caleulators or any other material inthe examination hal ‘There are two sections in each subjecti.e, Sectom-A& Section, Before attempting the question paper, stucent should ensure that You have to atlompt all 35 questions trom Section-A & only the test paper contains allpages and no page ismssing. Ao questionsoutot 15 rom Sector, Immediately ater tho proscribed examination time is over, the answer sheottoberetumedtotheinviglator. Note : It is compulsory to fil Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be considered ie} Peg TOPICS OF THE TEST Physical World, Units & Measurements, Motion,in a Straight Line, Motion in a Plane Some Basic Concepts of Chemistty, Structure of Atom, Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties, Chemical Bonding afid Molecular Structure Cell: The Unit Life, Cell Cycle & Cell division, The Living World ‘Structural Organisation in Animals: Animal Tissues only, Biomolecules, Digestion and Absorption CUTE Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min, [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer 1 SECTION-A A certain physical quantity is calculated from the formula $(28 14), whore n, @ and b aro al Length of a rectangular plate is measured as 20 cm by a vernier scale of least count 0.02 cm and breadth measured as 10 cm by the same scale. The maximum percentage error in area of plate is measure of lengths. The quantity being calculated is (1) 0.3% (2) 0.2% (1) Velocity (2) Volume (3) 0.1% (4) 0.01% (3) Area (4) Length ‘The value of K =1| (where AT << To) by 2. The smallest unit of ime measurement among the following is the use of binomial theorem is (1) Milisecond (2) Lunar month ay KAT ») oKAT (3) Microsecond (4) One shake oO 2) oF 3.1 femnlis equatto (9 MAT toy OT (1) 10° micron (2) 10 angstiom ) 7 (8) 10° nanometre (4) 10-? metre leh ofthe flowing numerical value has three 4. Match the physical quantities given in column-| with significant figures? respective units given in column-lI and choose the correct option. List Lista (A) | Temperature (P) | Light year (1) A-R,B-S,C-P,D-Q (2) A-8,B-Q,C-P,D-R (1) 0.400 (2) 40.40 (3) 0.040 (4) 4.044 Select the pair of quantities, which have different dimensional formulae. (1). Stress, Pressure (8) | Mass (@) | shake (2) Torque, Work (C) | Length (R) | Fahrenheit (3) Energy, Torque (0) | Time (8) | Atomic mass unit (4) Linear momentum, Angular momentum Dimensional analysis of relation (Energyy" = (Pressure difference)®? (Volume)*2, gives the value ofnas (3) A-P,B-Q,C-R,D-S a3 (22 (4) A-Q,B-P,C-R,D-S (@) 32 (a) 12 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 IC 10, " 12, 13, 14, ‘The length of a rod is 22.4 m, out of it 2.543 mis cut ‘out, The remaining length of the rod according to the rule of significant figure, is (1) 19.7 m (2) 199m (3) 20.0 m (4) 19.86 m Radius (1) of a sphere varies with time (t) (where tis in second) by relation r= (2t + 1) m. The rate of | 15: ‘change of surface area of the sphere at f= 1s willbe (1) 24x m/s (2) 16x m/s (2) 48x mis (4) 102 ms Ifthe unit of force is 5 N, that of power is 2 MW and of time is 1 millisecond, then the unit of length would be (1) 200m (2) 400 m 7 (3) 100m (4) 300 m Which of the following graph represents uniform motion, Sis position of the body and t is time? Choose the correct option. a) (2) (3) 4) A body is projected vertically upwards with velocity v.Itreaches a point on its path at times ts and fe from the time of projection. Then (fi + f) is a,b and d are correct b, cand d are correct a, cand d are correct a, b and c are correct wy * ae 9 9 a jv a) | a) fe ONS ONG Two balls are projected simultaneously with the ‘same speed from the top of a tower, one upwards and the other downwards. If they reach the ground in 6 s and 2 s respectively, then height of the tower is (g= 10 mis?) % t ( ). s s (1) 120m (2) 60m a (2) (3) 80m (4) 30m 3 — 7 “ 73 ; 17. 1 @.car covers 2th of total distance wih speed v1 * $ * and Femalting 1th distance witn speed ve then o Ve me N 7 io ee Aviv, avis 3 +— en ® stn If volocty ofa particla is zero at t= 0, then consider the folowing statements. (3) ate ) tte (a) Acceleration at t= 0 must be zero (b) Acceleration at f= 0 may be zero 7 (©) I the acceleration is zero from t= 0 to t= 10°, the speed is also zero for this interval (d) If the speed is zero from t = 0 to f= 10s the acceleration is also zero inthis interval AA freely falling body has displacement 2 m in ni second, then displacement travelled in (n + 1)" second is (2 (3) 2-29 (2) 249 (4) 4439 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456, Ce COE ee) 19, Velocity of a moving particle is given by expression (Sf? = 121) mis, The acceleration ofthe particle when velocity becomes zero after starts (1) 8 mis? (2) 12 mis? (2) 24 mis? (4) Zero 20, Two trains each of length 75 m moving in opposite direction on parallel tracks at speeds 10 mis and 5 mis respectively, they will cross each other in ime (1) 10s (2) 6s @) 12s (4) 8s 21, Avectoris not changed it (1) Its rotated through an arbitrary angle (2) Itis multiplied by an arbitrary scalar (3) Its cross mutiplied by a unt vector (4) Its slid parallel to itse 22. Abus moves on a straight level road with a constant acceleration a, A boy in the bus drops a ball outside, The acceleration of the ball with respect to the earth and bus respectively are (2) g.ya? +9’ ) Ve oo*.g (3) ag Aga 23. Two vectors are given by a=(-71 2k). and B=(as2j—4i). ads B-em0, then ais vector é is (1) 5j+k (2) 1+3j)+2k (3) 5j+2k (4) 444k 24. Maximum and minimum magnitudes of the resultant of two vectors having magnitude P and Qare found tobe in the ratio 4: 1. Which of the following relation is true? (1) 3P=20 (2) P=4Q (3) 3P=50 28. Abodyis projected at an angle 30° to the horizontal with speed of 30 mis, The time after which velocity vector of the body makes an angle O° with the horizontal is (g = 10 mis”) () 1s (2) 15s (3) 28 (4) 05s 26. Acar is moving with a speed of 20 mis on a circular path ofradius 100 m. its speed is increasing at the rate of 3 mis, the net acceleration of the car at that instant is, (1) 4s? (2) 3.5 mis? (3) Sis? (4) 7 mis? 27. The maximum distance to which a man can throw a ball by projecting it horizontally from height 40 m is 40 m. The maximum height to which he can throw it vertically up is (1) 40m (2) 80m (3) 20m (4) 10m 28. A parlicle is projected from a certain point with velocity vat an angle 8 to the horizontal. At point P in its path itis moving at right angles to the intial direction of projection. its velocity at point P will be (1) viano (2) veot 9 (3) vsino (4) voos 0 29, ‘The equation of trajectory of a body projected at some angle (in ground to ground projection) is y= Ax— Bx2, The maximum height reached by the ‘body willbe (x-along horizontal direction and y along vertical upwards) aw a OF © 26 a B 8) a5 4) oA ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 oO 30. 34 32 33, ‘Aakash Test Series for NEE’ ry Statement (A): If only initial vertical component of velocity of a projectile is known, then time of flight can be calculated but horizontal range cannot be calculated. 36. Statement (B): Time of flight depends only on horizontal component of velocity and range depends on vertical component of velocity of projection, (1) Both statement (A) and (B) are correct (2) Both statement (A) and (B) are incorrect (3) Statement (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect 36 (4) Statement (A) is incorrect and (8) is correct The velocity of a boat instill water is 10 mvs. Ifwater flows in the river with a velocity of 6 m/s, what is the difference in times taken to cross the river through shortest path and in the shortest time? (The width of the river is 80 m) (1) 108 (2) 25 (4) 18 (4) a. Velocity and acceleration of a particle at = 0 are v=(/+2j)mis and &=(2/ -4])mis? respectively, The displacement of the particle at t= 2 8 willbe (1) (67 12) @ (s7+67)m (3) (47+8j)m (4) (2i44])m What are maximum number of rectangular components of a vector in which iteanbe split in @ 38 plane? a3 2 (4 (a) 5 ‘Aman is travelling at 10.8 kmih in a rainy day. He holds an umbrella at an angle of 37° with the vertical so that he does not get wet. If raindrops falls vertically downwards, what is the rain velocity? (1) mis (2) 2mis (3) amis (4) 4 mis A projectile is thrown at an angle of 30° with horizontal with velocity of 20 mis. Magnitude of ‘change in velocity during the time interval in which it reaches the highest point is (1) Sms (2) 10 mis (3) 10V3 mis (4) 20v3 m/s SECTION-B A body is projected from ground with a velocity 60 mis at an angle 30° to the horizontal. The position vector of the body after 1 s will be (g = 10 mis?) (Take horizontal diraction x-axis and vertical yaxis) (1) (3037 +26])m (2) (20/87 +25j)m (3) (303-20) m (4) (203i -25)m A body is projected with velocity v making an angle 53° with the horizontal. The time after which magnitude of its vertical component of velocity is equal to magnitude of horizontal component of velocity, Is av, v WA ® 35 v av (3) ag (4) ag Alarge number of bullets are fired horizontally, with different velocities from the top of a tower. They will reach the ground (1) At same time with same velocity (2) At different times with different velocities (3) At same time with different (4) At different times with same velocity elocities ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456 Ce COE ee) 39, Two stones are projected from the top of a tower in ‘opposite directions, with the same velocity v but at angles 30° and 60° upwards with horizontal respectively. The magnitude of relative velocity of first stone relative to second stone at time t= 0 is (1) av (2) Vv av v 3 4) & oF “Ms 40, Anull vector or zero vector is (1) A vector of zero magnitude having specific direction (2) A vector of zero magnitude having no specific direction (3) A scalar (4) Neither a vector nor a scalar 41. If v,~(2/-2)-+3k) mis be initial velocity and the final velocty is v, (2/—4j-+5K) mis. and itis changed in a time interval of 5 s, then the average acceleration vector is 3i-2j+2k af + jaa 4) Sn2i+2k a) Sit i+ 2k a) 5 (2) 5 ) -af-2)s2k -2] 2k 9a GE 42, The discovery of Sir C.V. Raman is (1) Inetastic scattering of light by molecules (2) Steam engine (3) Propagation of EM wave (4) Reflection of ultrasonic wave 43, Using a screw gauge, the diameter of a wire is found to be 1.51 mm, 1.53 mm, 1.48 mm, 1.49 mm, 1.51 mm and 1.54 mm. The true value of diameter of the wire is (in mm) (1) 1.49 (3) 1.51 (2) 1.52 (4) 0.151 44, For motion of an object along x-axis, the velocity v depends on the position x as v = 2x? — x, the acceleration of the object at x = 1 m is (vis in mis) (1) Sis? (2) 2mis? (3) 1 mis? (4) Zero 45. If displacement by a moving particle in ni* second is S.» = 3+0.4 7, then inital velocity ofthe particle will be (acceleration is constant) (1) 2.2 unit (2) 3.2 unit (3) 1.4 unit (4) 4.4 unit 48, A body is dropped from a height of 85 m. (g = 10 mis), after 1 s gravity ceases to act. Total time taken by it to reach the ground is, (1) 18 (2) 6s (@) 9s (4) 5s 47. The displacement of a particle starting from rest is proportional to cube of time, then the particle travels with (1) Uniform acceleration (2) Uniform velocity (3) Increasing acceleration (4) Decreasing velocity 48, The position (S) versus time (1) graph of moving particle is shown below ‘The instantaneous velocity of the particle is positive at the point (1) B ac @) A (4) 0 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 49. 51 52 53, 56, ry 3x46 describes the position of particle in one direction where xis in metres and t The relation 3t in’ second, "The volodly of the particle at Sswillbe () 4s (2) 6ms (3) 2mis (4) Zero [CHEM SECTION-A Change in volume when 100 mL COz gas is heated with excess of coke (1) Increased by 100 mL (2) Decreased by 100 mL (3) Increased by 50 mL (4) Decreased by 50 mL ‘An organic compound contains carbon, hydrogen and nitrogen in the ratio 9 : 1: 3.5 by mass. Ifits molar mass is 108 then the molecular formularof the ‘compound is (1) CaHNHe (2) CsHNHe (3) CeHeNe (4) CattrNe ‘The number of atoms in 0.05 mol of a tiatomic gas is (Na= 6 * 10° mot’) (1) 6 x 10 (3) 12% 102 In the reaction, 4ANHs(g) + 502(g) > 4NO(g) + 6H20(1) When 1 mole of ammonia reacts with 2 moles of ‘oxygen, number of moles of water formed is (1) 1 mole (2) 1.2 mole (8) 1.5 mole (4) 2 mole A lead storage battery contains 19.6% by mass of HzSO+ aqueous solution. Molaty ofthe solution is nearly (2) 9 x 10% (4) 3x 102 Zz cr A) 50, Astone is dropped from a height of 20 cm above the top of a 100 cm high window, The time taken by the stone to cross the window is (g = 10 m/s”) & ais (4) 25s ISTRY] () 15 @2 (3) 2.5, (4) 0.75 56. What volume of oxygen at STP is required to burn 44 g CoH completely? (1) 22.44 (2) 3364 @) 12L (4) 448 57. In which of the following case, number of oxygen atoms are maximum? (1) 0.1.mole.O2 (2) 0.1 mole Os (3) 0.01 mole H2O2 (4) (0.02 mole CsH1Os. 58, The species having largest ionic rai is (1) Cae Ke (3) S> (4) PE 59, Malch theoxides given in Column A with their properties given in Column B. Column A Column B {| Bao (a) | Neutral Wi) | Akos {(b) | Acidic «iy [eo (@) | Basie (iv) | NeOs (a) | Amphoteric (1) = €@). (i) = (©). (il) = (A), (iv) = (0) (2) ()—(e), Gi) — (b), (iil) — (a), Civ) ~ (a) (3) =(6), i) ~ @), ii) — (a), tiv) ~ (b) (4) (= (b), (il) - (a), (ili) - (4), (iv) - (©) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456, 60. 61 62 63, 65, 66. Tor y Which of the following represents the correct order of negative electron gain enthalpy? (1) Cl>Br>O>S — (2) Cl>Br>S>0 (3) Cl>O>Br>S (4) Cl> S>Br>0 The symbol of element with atomic number Z= 104s (1) Wun (2) Ung (3) Unt (4) Uno The ratio of orbital angular momentum of electrons having |= 1 and |= 2 respectively will be ) Bat 2) 1:46 @) 1 (4) 1:40 Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is impossible? 1 4) n=4te 1 () n=4, 3 @ na i-tm-oe-e4 . ° 2 6) n=2.1-omaos-e4 * ° 2 (@) n=3,1-4m=28--4 2 Orbital having 2 angular nodes an 2 total nodes fs (1) 2p (2) 3d (3) 4s (4) 4f For hydrogen atom, energy of an electron depends (1) ‘value only (2) (+1) value (4) (+m) value The number of protons, electrons and neutron in ‘RW, respectively, are (1) 110, 74 and 74 (3) 74, 110 and 74 (3) ‘value only (2) 74, 184 and 110 (4) 74,74 and 410 67. 68, 69, 70. n COE ee) Which of the following series of transitions in the spectrum of hydrogen atom falls in ultraviolet region? (1) Lyman series (3) Ptund series According to Bohr’s theory, which of the following transitions in the hydrogen atom will give rise to the most energetic photon? (1) n=4ton (2) n=3ton=1 (3) n=Ston=3 (4) n=2ton=1 In hydrogen atom, the de Broglie wavelength of an electron in the third Bohr orbit is [Given that Bohr radius, ao = 52.9 pm] (1) 158.7 pm (2) 317.4 pm (3) 476.1 pm (4) 238% pm ‘A 0.22 kg ball is moving with a speed of 200 mis. The associated wavelength will be (h = 6.6 x 10-4 Js) (1) 11025 (2) 9* 102m (3) 2%10%m (4) 1.51038 Match the following List-! with List-ll and select the correct option, (2) Balmer series (4) Brackett series List List a.) [t]t [1 | p. | Autoau's principle is % violated plitt] [tt | 4. | Both Paulis ae principle and Hund's rule is violated | ty T)|t |Hunds tule is violated while Paul's principle is followed Both Hund's rule as % well as Aufbau principle is followed ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 (1) a-s,b-r,c-q,d—p @) a-p.b-qe-nd-s (3) a-s,b-q,.c-rd-p (4) a-s,b-r,c-p,d—q 72. Which of the following set of molecules will have non-zero dipole moment? (1) CHs, CHsCl, CO, HzO (2) H:0, NHs, Pls, Coke (3) NHs, #20, PCls, CHsCle (4) CHs, Cl, H20, NH 73. Identify a molecule which does not exist. (1) He (2) Or (3) Lie (4) Hee 74, Read the following statements regarding hydrogen bonding and select the carrect statements). (Hydrogen bond is a type of dipole-dipole or ion- dipole interaction. (ii) For the formation of hydrogen bond, the H-atom must be bonded with highly electropositive element, (ii) The magnitude of H-bonding depends on the physical state of the compound. (1) Only (ii) (2) Only (i) and (ii) (3) Only (i) and (ii) (4) (9), and Gi) 75. Which of the following molecule has both polar and. non-polar bonds? (1) XeoFe (2) Pocls (3) NeHe (4) NFs 76, Maximum bond angle around sulphur atom is present in (1) So (2) sor (3) SOz (4) SOs 7. 78 78 80. Match list! with listll Lista Lista (Molecule) | | (Hybridisation of Xe) A | XeFe | spi B. | XeFs @. | sp? C. | XeOs 1. | spice D. | XeFs s. | spid Choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1) A-1,B-s,C-p,D-q (2) A-s,B-4,.C-1,D-p (3) A-s,B-1,C-q,D-p (4) A-s,B-1,C-p,D-@ ‘The potential energy (Y) curve for He formation as a function of internuclear distance (X) of the H atoms is shown below The point corresponding to bond formation is (yp @)4 @ ys Which of the following is paramagnetic? (1) OF (2) Ne (3) Ny (4) Fe Which of the following species will have the highest bond order? (1) Ce (3) CN (2) ene (4) NO ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456 Test-5 (Code- 81. 82 83, 85, y ‘Among the following, which one is a wrong statement? (1) PHs does not exist (2) fj has linear shape (3) NHs has smaller dipole moment than NF3 (4) In BeCh molecule, incomplete octet, Which of the following molecule has highest dipole moment? (HI @) Hel (3) HF (4) HBr ‘Among the following, maximum lattice energy is found in (1) MgFe (2) CaF2 (3) Sire (4) BaFs Sodium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state “electronic configuration of (X) is 1s?, 282, 2p!, the simplest formula for the compound is (1) Nax (2) Navx (3) NaXs (4) Naax Select the isostructural pair from the following (1) NFsand BFs (2) BCh and BrFs (3) XeFe and SiCk (4) NHe* and BFE central atom has an COE ee) SECTION-B 86. 25 g of CaCOs sample was heated to liberate 4.2 L of CO» gas at STP. Percentage purity of the sample is (1) 50% (2) 60% (3) 75% (4) 80% 87. 6.02 * 10% molecules of urea are present in 250 mL. of its solution, Motarity of the solution is. (1) 001M (2) 0.02 M (3) 0.03 M (4) 0.04 M 88. Statement I: At STP, equal masses of He and O2 gases contain equal number of molecules. Statement Il: At STP, 4 g of He gas occupy 44.8 L volume. In the light of above statements, choose the correct option among the following, (1) Both’statement | and statement Il are false (2) Both statement | and statement Il are true (3) Statement | is true but statement Ils false (4) Statement |is false but statement Ils true 89, 500 cm? of 0.01 M NaCl ag, solution is added to 100 cm’ of 0,05 M aq, AgNOs solution. What is the mass of the precipitate formed? (Ag = 108, Cl = 35.5) (1) 2859 (2) 1.739 () 07179 (4) 0.038 g 90. Which of the following is not isoelectronic with Ne? () (3) Oo (2) Mg (4) Nat ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 ot m1 92 93, 96. 96. ‘Aakash Test Series for NEE’ ry Maximum number of electrons associated with 26 (4) 18 Ina H-atom, ifthe energy of electron in the ground state is -x eV, then the energy of the electron in the 20 excited state of Li? is (a) 14 (1) -xeV @) +xev @) Nu ) ~Sxev Which of the following electronic configuration does not represent a non-metal? (1) [Ne]3s*3p* (2) (krI6s*4ar%5p# (3) [Arj4s?3a® (4) (Hel2s’2p? Berylium shows diagonal relationship with Onn (2) Mg (3) Si (4) Al What is the value of electron gain enthalpy of K>if Es of K = 419 kJ mol? (1) +838 kJ mot (2) 838 kJ mot* (3) —419 kd mot (4) +209 kJ mot* Total number of orbitals in nt shell is equal to aan (2) 2ne4 (3) (4) 2ne 97 98, 99, 100. Zz cr A) During change of Ne to Nj ion, the electron is added to which one of the following orbitals? (1) « orbital (2) of omit (2) xorbital (4) * orbital Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is generally absent in (1) Heo (2) HE oH oH @) “6 = No, Match the given molecules (in List!) with their molecular structures (in Listll) and select the correct option List-1 List-l (Molecular (Molecules) structures) a. | Coe p. | See-Saw b. [soz a | Tshape c. | SFe r._| Angular | cir | Linear (1) a=nb-ac-pd-s Q)aHs,b-1,c-g,d-p (3) a-s,b-1,c-p,d—a (4) a-r,b-s,c-a,d—p ‘The molecule with minimum ionic character is (1) LiF (2) NaF (3) KF (4) CSF ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456, 101 102. 103, 104, COE ee) [BOTANY] ‘SECTION-A ‘A. The interphase lasts more than 95% of the duration of coll cycle. B. The M-phase starts with cytoplasm, Read the above statements, stating them true (T) or false (F) and select the correct option, the division of a |B | a [tT [F @ [F [t @ |F |T « fF fF Omnis cellula-e cellula was explained by (1) Matthias Schleiden (2) Robert Brown (3) Theodore Schwann (4) Rudolf Virchow- Which phase is the best stage to study morphology of chromosomes? (1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase (3) Prophase (4) Telophase Select the mismatched pair. (1) Botanical — gardens Have collections of living plants for reference (2) Museum — Have collection of only preserved plant specimens for study and reference: (3) Zoological Places where wild animals parks: are kept in protected environments under human care (4) Keys - Are generally analytical in nature 105, What will be the amount of DNA ina male gamete in pollen grain if its mother cell has 80 pg DNA in Gz phase? (1) 109 (2) 20p9 (3) 40 pq (4) 80 pg 106. In wich of the following organisms, growth and reproduction are exclusive events? (1) Amoeba (2) Yeast (3) Diatoms (4) Higher plants and animals 107. Match the items given in column | with those in column Il and select the correct option w.rt, different shapes of cells. Column | Column i (Cells) (Cell shape) a. Red blood cells (i) Elongated b, Nerve cell (ii) Amoeboid e./ Atracheid (ii) Round and biconcave d) White blood cells (iv) Branched and long (1), anti), bei), ov), et) (2) aX(il), b+(iv), c(i), d-(i) (3) ai), bl), ev), ti) (4) a-(il), b-(ill), ¢-(i), d{iv) 108, Select the correct feature for anaphase stage of a haploid cell? (1) Chromosomes move to spindle equator (2) Homologous chromosomes separate (3) Centromeres split and chromatids separate (4) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of chromosomes ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 IC 109. Which of the following is correct for prokaryotic, ribosomes? (1) Made of two subunits i.e, 60S and 40S. (2) They are about 15 nm by 20 nmin size (2) They are single membrane bound structures (4) The ribosomes of a polysome translate the mRNA into DNA. Which of the following structures of chromosomes provide attachment site to spindle fibres during cell division? 110. (1) Centromere (2) Telomeres (3) Kinetochores (4) Secondary constriction Which of the following options gives the correct sequence of events during prophase | of meiosis? 1 (1) Leptotene > Pachytene Zygotene -> Diakinosis + Diplotene > (2) Pachytene > Diplotene > Diakinesis-> Leptotene -» Zygotene, (3) Zygotene + Pachytene > Leptotene > Diplotene -» Diakinesis (4) Leptotene Zygotene > Diplotene + Diakinesis Pachytene > 112, Match list | with list Il and choose the correct option. List | List a. Golgi bodies (i) Important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids b, Rough (ii) Synthesis of lipids endoplasmic reticulum cc. Smooth (ill) Frequently observed in endoplasmic the cells actively reticulum involved in protein synthesis 113, 114, 115, @ ) — ) ow wo 2 o@ wi) @ wy w @ @ (i) @ (iil) Read following statements and select the incorrect ones w.r.t plasma membrane. ‘a. Plasma membrane is mainly composed of lipids and fats The major lipids are phospholipids . Polar heads are hydrophobic arranged towards outer side d. Non polar tails are hydrophilic arranged towards inner side (1) Only (2) Only aand b (3) Only a, cand d Metaphase starts when (1) Condensation of chromatin material initiates (2) Complete disintegration of nuclear membrane occurs (3) Spliting of centromere occurs (4) There is exchange of genetic material between (4) Alla,b, cand on sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes Which of the following is/are key event(s) of telophase? ‘a Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform. 'b, Chromatids move to opposite poles. & Chromosomes cluster at opposite poles and their identity is lost as discrete elements. d. Nuclear envelope develops around the chromosome clusters at each pole forming two daughter nuclei (1) Only aandb (3) Only a, cand d (2) Only b (4) Onlyb, cand d ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456 ore COE ee) 116. Which of the following is not a function of bacterial coll wall? (1) It provides gummy and sticky character to the cell (2) It determines the shape of the cell (3) It provides a strong structural support (4) It prevents the bacterium from bursting or collapsing 117. Select the odd one out w.r.t. mesosomes. (1) Formed by the extensions of plasma membrane into the cell (2) They help in cell wall formation, DNA replication and distribution to daughter cells (3) They also help in respiration, secretion process ete (4) They help in attaching the bacteria to rocks in streams and also to the host tissues 118, The fluid nature of the membrane is important from the point of view of all of the following functions, except (1) Cell growth and cell division (2) Formation of intercellular junctions (3) Secretion and endocytosis (4) Protection from mechanical infection 119. Which ofthe following cell organelles is not included, in endomembrane system? (1) eR (2) Mitochondria (3) Golgi apparatus (4) Lysosomes 120. During which phase of prophase-I synapsis occurs? (1) Pachytene (2) Leptotene (3) Zygotene (4) Diplotene 121, Select odd one out w.r.tinterkinesis. (1) Centrioles duplicate (2) DNA replication occurs damage and (3) Short lived (4) Stage between meiotic division | and Il 122, Select the incorrect option w..t cytokinesis, (1) In an animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by cell furrow formation (2) In plant cell, cytokinesis is achieved by cell plate formation (3) Cytokinesis marks the end of cell division (4) Karyokinesis not followed by cytokinesis results in uninucleate condition i.e. syncytium 123, Which of the following is correct wart the stage representing transition to metaphase-1? (1) Itis the final stage of meiotic prophase II (2) This is marked by terminalisation of chiasmata (3) During this phase chromosomes are fully decondensed (4) By the end of this phase, the nucleolus reappears and nuclear envelope also reforms 124, How many of the following statements are true w.r-t centrioles? a. Ithas.an organisation like the cartwheel b. Central part has a pair of microtubules. . They form basal body of cilia or flagella in eukaryotes. (1) Only (2) Only aand¢ (3) Only band ¢ (4) Alla, band ¢ 125. In some prokaryotes, there are other membranous, extensions into. the cytoplasm containing photosynthetic pigments are known as (1) Chromatophores (2) Chloroplasts (3) Heterocysts (4) Centrioles 126, What will be the arrangement of microtubules in ‘axoneme of eukaryotic flagella? (1) 940 (2) 444 (3) 942 (4) 440 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 IC 127. Who among the following scientists first described nucleus? (1) Flemming (3) Robert Brown 128, Select the correct match (2) Camillo Golgi (4) George Palade (Cell Organelles) (Functions) (1) | Peroxisomes Participate only in photorespiration Contain enzymes (2) | Sphaerosomes hhycrolytic (3) | Glyoxysomes: Peroxide production (4) [ Potysomes. Translate into mRNA proteins 129. What is the site of active ribosomal RNA synthesis? (1) Golgi bodies (2) Nucleolus (3) Mitochondria (4) Plastids 130. Which one of the following plastids are colourless. and store proteins? (1) Amyloplasts (2) Aleuropiasts (3) Chloroplasts (4) Elaioplasts 131. Select the incorrectly matched pair among the following (1) Thylakoids Flattened membranous aes present in stroma of chloroplast (2). Grana Thylakoids ranged in stacks (3) Stroma lamellae Flat membranous tubules connecting different grana (4) Stroma ‘Space enclosed by the membranes of the thylakoids 132, How many SAT-chromosomes are present in human diploid cell? (1) 18 pairs (2) 10 pairs (3) 5 pairs (4) 3 pairs 133, Loose and indistinct network of nucleoprotein fibres. of an interphase nucleus is known as (1) Chromosome (2) Chromatia (3) Centromere (4) Chromatin 194, Read the following statements and select the correct option, ‘A. Lysosomes are rich in almost all types of hydrolytic enzymes, B, Hydrolytic enzymes are optimally active at the acidic pH. (1) Only statement A is incorrect, (2) Only statement B is incorrect (3) Both statements are correct (4) Both statements are incorrect 135, Metacentric chromosomes during mitotic anaphase appear as (1) Ushaped (2) v-shaped (3) S

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