Roll No. J J CL) @® Aakash Test Date: 11-12-2022) A Booklet Cade Medical Entrance Exam - 2023 National Eligibility-cum-Entrance Test (NEET) (XII Studying Students) INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES Readeach question caret Each correct answer caries four marks. One mark wit be ) Itis mandatoy to use Blue/Black Bal Point Pen to darken the | doductedfor each ncorrectanswerfrom hoot sore. approprate cl inthe answer sheet. Before handing over the answer sheet othe inva, candidate Mark shouldbe dark and shout completely the cil. should chock tat RollNo, and Centre Cogs have been ied and RRoughworkmustnatbe cone onthe answer sheet. marked corey Do nol use white-uid or any ether rubbing material on answe sheet. Nechange:nthe answeroncemarkedis alowed. Student cannatuse gtables and calelatrs or anyother materiel inthoexaminatonhll. ‘There are two sections in each subject. Secton-A& Section Bator attempting the question paper, stucet should ensure that | You have to aitenpt all $5 questions tom SectonA & only the testpapercontainsallpages and no page smssing, O.quostons outor 5 rom Section. Immediately ater tho proscribed examination time is over, the answer sheettoberetumedtotheinvglator. Note : It is compulsory to fil Roll No. and Test Booklet Code on answer sheet, otherwise your answer sheet will not be consideredEe} Pea TOPICS OF THE TEST Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter, Atoms, Nuclel,Semiconductors Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxilic Acids, Amines, Biomolecules, Polymers, Chemistry in Everyday Life Ecosystem , Biodiversity and conservation, Environmental issues Biotechnology: Principles and Processes, Biotechnology and Its Applicationsmre CUTE Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min, [PHYSICS] Choose the correct answer SECTION-A 4. Ina pure Si crystal, there are 5 x 10° atoms perm’ Itis doped by 1 ppm concentration of pentavalent AAs. Ifn/= 1.5% 10°° nr, then electron concentration would be nearly (1) 4.5 * 10° m2 (2) 5% 102 mrs (3) 2% 10% mr (4) 5% 10° mes For an npn transistor in CE configuration, when itis in cutoff mode, its Vee (1) I equal to Voc and Ics high (2) 1s equal to zero and Ic is low (non-zero) (3) Is equal to Vec and Ic is zero (nearly) (4) Is low and fis high 3. The intrinsic carrier concentration of silicon at room temperature is 1.5 * 10" nr. If electron and hole mobilities are jie = 0.145 m? V-! s~* and jin = 0.05 m? \V-' s~ then its intrinsic conductivity will be nearly (1) 4.7 104 St (2) 2.7% 102 Smt (3) 3.25 104 Sm (4) 7.7% 109 St 4, Which among the following is known as universal gate? (1) NOT (2) AND (3) OR (4) NoR Which among the following is best approximate plot of potential across the junction, in pen junction diode? Vy Given below are two statements. One is labelled as assertion (A) and other is labelled as reason (R). Assertion (A): Oscillator utilizes the positive feedback in the feedback amplifier circuit. Reason (R) > Close loop gain of the positive feedback amplifier is greater than the open loop gain of the amplifier. In light of the above statements, choose the most ‘appropriate answer from the options given below. (1) (A)is true but (R) is false (2) (A)is false but (R) is true (3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct, explanation of (A) (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456oO 10, ry ‘Aakash Test Series for NEE’ Choose the correct statements, (1) Zener breakdown occurs when p-n junction is heavily doped. (2) Zener diode is used as voltage regulator, (3) Zener breakdown is due to field emission and it is a reversible phenomenon. (4) Allof these The transfer characteristics of a CE amplifier is shown in the figure, The transistor works as an amplifier and as a switch (off) respectively in regions (1) Wand! (3) Vand I (2) Wand il (4) and ‘The I-V characteristics of solar cell and photo diod® lies in quadrants (respectively) at (2) uu (3) mv (4) yl Which among the following diodes is forward biased? 4) —we—_] >} —+ ON 3V |} _.3y @ —w—}—. ov 1 >}. ov Qa: | 1 4) ——ww—] OV "1 12, 13, 14, 18, IC Consider the following statements and choose the correct option. A. Intinsic semiconductor is electrically neutral B. p-type semiconductor is positively charged (1) Only Ais correct (2) Only B is correct (3) Both A and B are correct (4) Both A and B are incorrect Which of the following relations is incorrect? (Symbols have their usual meanings) (1) anf (2) [P= an, ( af (4) Ap =B° i ‘The value of output voltage *V.’ in the circuit of (8) |A=9mRo voltage regulator as shown in the igure, at R.= 1k, is 2K 15> : (yev (2) 5v (@) tov (a) 9v Apt photodiode is fabricated from a semiconductor with band gap of 2.0 eV. The maximum wavelength ‘of an incident radiation that can be detected is nearly (4) 7200 (2) 6000 nm (3) 620A (4) 7000 nm Ten amplifiers, each of voltage gain 10 4B, are connected in series (cascaded). The overall gain of the amplifier is (1) 10° dB (3) 10548 (2) 100 4B (4) 168 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-4762345616, 17, 18. 19. Cre Consider the following statements and choose the correct option, ‘A. In CE amplifier, output and input voltages are having phase difference of 180°, B. Current gain is maximum for common emitter ampifier. (1) Only Ais correct (2) Only Bis correct (3) Both A and 8 are correct, (4) Both A and B are incorrect The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to the logic gate ev A, aR = 4 L®__fr (1) AND (2) OR (3) NAND (4) NOR A light of intensity 10° Wim? and frequency 4 10" Hz is incident on a surface. Ifthe area of the surface is 6.6 « 10~ m?, then the numberof photons incident per second on the surface is nearly (1) 25% 108 (2) 2«105 (3) 4.5% 107 (4) 4107 The work function of a metal Is 25 eV. If photocurrent is brought to zero by a stopping potential of 1 V, then the wavelength of the incident light will be approximately (1) 3543.4 (2) 43354 (3) 4743.4 (4) 2873 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 20, Anelectron and an alpha particle have same kinetic, ‘energy, then (1) Electron has smaller de Broglie wavelength (2) Alpha particle has smaller de Broglie wavelength (3) Both have same de Broglie wavelength (4) de Broglie wavelength of electron is double to that of a-particle 21. In the experiment of photoslectric effect stopping potential V, is plotted against frequency of incident light as shown in the figure. The slope of the curve (in Sl unit) is (approx.) (1) 6.6 10" (2) 1.6 «10-4 (3) 4.425% 10% (4) 4.125 « 10-8 In a photoelectric experiment anode potential with respect to cathode is plotted against photocurrent. From graph we can conclude that ’ 22, v (1) B and C will have different photon flux while A and C will have different frequencies (2) A and 8 will have equal photon flux while Band C will have different frequencies (3) Band C will have equal photon flux while A and Bwill have same frequencies (4) B and C will have equal photon flux as well as, same frequencies ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456oO 23, 24, 26. 26. 27 ‘Aakash Test Series for NEE’ ry ‘Two identical photocathodes receives light of frequencies v1 and vz, If maximum velocities of photoelectrons (having mass m) coming out are v: and vs respectively, then 2 ya 2h 2) viv == "(vs-va) ©) verve =| +vs))? ) veove= Rove) Ak photon and an electron have same de Brogle wavelength. The rio of her eneglsf (mass of siecronis m) mic ne Oo © Sane ta) 2m ro Which among the following phenomena shows particle nature of ight? (1) Interference (2) Total intemal reflection (3) Photoelectric effect (4) Diffraction Wavelength of the matter wave is independ of (1) Velocity (2) Kinetic energy (3) Momentum (4) Charge: The mean density of nucleus (1) Increases with mass number (2) Decreases with mass number (3) Is independent of mass number (4) Increases upto mass number 125 and then decreases 28. 29, 30. a4 32, 33, ere A) During a fission process, mass of reactant nuclei decreases by 10 amu, The energy released during this process is, (1) 9315 Mev (2) 931.5 Mev (3) 7245 Mev (4) 724.5 Mev ‘The energy of a hydrogen atom in ground state is 13.6 eV. The potential energy of a He" ion in first excited (n = 2) state will be (1) -13.6 ev (2) -108.8 ev (3) 4.4 eV (4) 27.20 ‘The angular momentum (L) of an electron revolving ina stable orbit around nucleus is h 1) Integral multiple of (1) Integral mutiple of (2) Integral multiple of (3) Integral multiple of h (4) Integral mutipie of Paschén seriés of hydrogen atom lies in (1) UV region (3) IR region (4) Partly in X-ray rogion ‘The activity of a radioactive sample falts from 2000 s~* to 250 sin 120 minutes. Then the halflife of the sample'is (1) 40 min (2) 80 min @) 120 min (4) 20 min The radioactive decay of an element ‘sequentially shown as (2) Partly in visible region x is 2A? ost est The sequence of radioactive emission is (1) & Boy (2) 1.4, @) Pray (4) ay B ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456t-4 (Code-A) 34, The distance of closest approach for an alpha nucleus of velocity v bombarding a stationary heavy nucleus target of charge Ze is proportional to 1 (1) m ® 35 @t @ 4 r 3 35. If M(A, Z), Mp and M, denote the masses of the nucleus X*; proton and neutron respectively. The binding energy (BE) is (1) BE =[M(AZ)-ZM, +(A-Z)M, Je? (2) BE =[ZMp +(A-Z)M, ~M(A.2) Jo? (3) BE =[ZMp -(A-Z)M, +M(AZ)]o? (4) BE =[M(AzZ)+ZMp +(A-Z)M, Je? SECTIONS 36, The graph shows some measurements ofthe decay rate of a sample of radioactive nuclei. The-decay constant of this radioactive nuclei is na (Rin counts) 080 100 180 2005.6 (nin)—> (1) 0.04 min (2) 0.02 min (3) 0.04 min (4) 0.08 min 37. The ratio of number of nuclet of U2 and Pb? in a sample of rock is 5 : 3. If the halflife of U* is 5 10° years, then the age of the rock is nearly (use In(16) 9 7]) LL In(2) )) (1) 3.5 * 10° years (3) 2.5» 10° years (2) 10° years (4) 1.5 « 10° years COE ee) 38, For a CE amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2 kOis 2 V. Let p = 100 and de base current s to be 10 times the signal (ac base) current. The value of Ra would be v 2k p= 100 (2) TKO, (4) 1.4K 38. Which among the following is correct plot for output characteristics of CE amplifier? fa (1) 14K (3) 21 ka. fe ley i (1) 4) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456 7ot ‘Aakash Test Series for NEE’ ry 40, For the given logic circuit, the input waveforms of A and B are given, The correct output waveform (Y) of this logic gate will be j es Ys 7 Ys O bt, @ ob, ¥4 y @ AEs, @ o LO, 41, The current J, flowing in the circuit if all the diodes are ideal, will be D, 100.0 yoo | Low o, 4 100.0 e100. (1) O41 (2) 024 (3) 0.3 (4) 044 42. The energy-band diagram of a semiconductor material is shown in the figure. From this diagram we can say that 43, 44, (a) Semiconductor is of p-type (b) (Er- 6) <0.55 eV (c) With semiconductor pentavalent impurity is added (4) (Er-£,) 20.55 eV (1) (@) and (b) are correct (2) (a), (b) and (c) are correct (3) (c) and (d) are correct (4) (a) and (c) are correct ‘The threshold frequency for a certain photosensitive metal is vo, When it is illuminated by a light of frequency of v = 2ve, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons is v. The maximum velocity of the photoelectrons when the same metal is illuminated by light of frequency v = 4vo is (1) 2, (2) Bv (3) Wav 4) v Regarding) transitions of electrons in hydrogen atom, match the entries of Column | with entries in Column I Column | Column it A | n=Ston=2 Lyman series B |n=3ton=1 Paschen series, © |n=4ton=3 Brackett series v|alolv D |n=8ton=4 Balmer series (1) A>S,B>P,C>R,D>Q Q)A5S8,B5Q,C5RD>P Q) A>S,B5P,C5QD5R (4) A38,B50,C5P,D5R ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 01 1-47623456,Ice 45, Consider the following statements and choose the correct option, A. Binding energy per nucleon of products is increased if energy is released in any nuclear reaction. B. Binding energy per nucleon of products is decreased if energy is absorbed in any nuclear reaction. (1) Only Ais correct (2) Only Bis correct (3) Both A and B are correct, (4) Both A and B are incorrect 46. In radioactivity, number of nuclel of two radioactive substances A and B as a function of time are shown in the figure. N, A = t Match the entries in Column I with the entries in Column I and select the correct option, 48, 49, (1) do @ 7 1 \ COE ee) (2) dot dg (,, eEat ) es (4) ol 1+ Et ” OT mv | mevo } A particle is projected horizontally with speed vo = 20 mis from top of a tower of height 60 m. If at the time of projection, the de Broglie wavelength associated with particle is 20 then the de Broglie wavelength associated with particle when it reaches the ground will be 1) 2he 2) 2 a) 3 (3) do (4) dia Following figure indicates the energy level diagram of an atom and the origin of three spectral lines in ‘emission spectrum. Which of the spectral lines will also occur in the absorption spectra? —— Column Column i A_[ nial actviy | P_| OFAis more | B | Half life Q | OfBis more, a2 4 © | Decay constant | R | Nothing can be said iy D | Mean life S_| Are equal for both Wie a3 (1) A9Q,B5P,650,D5P we 2) A>P,B5Q,05P,050 (8) A>Q,B>P,C+R,D>S (4) A>P,B5Q,C>RD>P 47. Anclectron of mass me, initially moving with velocity W=voj (vo > 0) is in an electric field E = E,(-j) (Eo > 0). Its de Broglie wavelength at time fis given by (lake % ) ‘According to the Boh’s theory the speed of electron, its energy and the radius of orbit respectively for hydrogen atom varies with principal quantum number 'n’, as ai (2) n?, 2) mae (3) (4) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456[CHEMISTRY] SECTION-A 51, Match the compounds given in column-I with column-ll and select the correct option using the code given below. Column Columnett a. | Formaldehyde | (i) | Benzoin b. | Acotylsalicylic | (ji) | Fehling reagent acid c. | Benzaldehyde | (ii) | Formalin . | Rochelle satt | (wv) | Aspirin (1) afi, Bt), etd, dQ) (2) ati), BO), ef), 44) (3) af), BG, efi, ACH) (4) aft), Biv), €(), A) 52, When vapours of isopropyl alcohol is passed over heated silver metal, the product formed is (1) Analkane (2) Anether (3) Aketone (4) A carboxylic acia 53. Identify (X) in the following reaction sequence CH, oO + 610,n(6H,00,0%2=28% 09 CHO Ou (1) Benzyl alcoho! (2) May benzoate (3) Benzylidene diacetate (4) Anisote 84, CH, ~cN—2. The correct structure of the product A formed in the above reaction is 56. 56. 87. OH (1) CHy-CH-CyH, (2) CHsCH-Catis (3) CH-CO-CsHs (4) CoHlsCHzCOOH Which among the following has highest bolling point? (1) n-Butane (2) Propanal (3) Propan-1-ol (4) Acetone The comect order of acidic strength of the given carboxylic acids is CFsCOOH = -H-COOH = GsHsCOOH 1 u m (1) Pa (2) m>1> m1 (3) > m>1 (4) te mea Match the conversion of groups given in list! with their characteristic reactions/reagents given in ist-ll and select the correct option. List List 3 [>c-0 3 Son, [0 | Reduction by DIBAL-H Fo [Sc-0 DME Sou, [0 | Reduction by " LiAIHa CN CHO Gi) | Clemmensen reduction d. | -COOH — -—CH:0H (iv) | Wolff-Kishner reduction (1) a(iv), Bi, ei), (i) (2) ati), bt), of), di) (3) afi, biiv), oi), oi) (4) ali), Biv), (i), ai) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 01 1-47623456,Cr CUE) 58, 59, 60, CH,COOH—S22k_, xs, y_DRKON 7. In the above reaction sequence compound Z is (1) CHsNHCHs (2) CHs-NHe (3) CHsCHaNH» (4) CHeCH2Br CeHsCHO CHsCOCHs 1 uM HCHO In context with above compounds, consider the following statements. a. Compound | reduces Tollens’ Fehling reagent both, reagent and b. Compound Il reduces Tollens’ reagent but not Fehling reagent, ©. Compound Ill reduces neither Tollens’ reagent nor Fehling reagent. Select the correct statement(s). (1) aandb only (2) aandconly (3) band c only (4) conly Statement 1: Addition of ammonia and” its derivatives to carbonyl! group of aldehyde isa nucleophilic addition Statement Il: Addition of hydrazine to acetaldetiyde is catalysed by base. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below. (1) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement II is correct. (2) Both statement | and statement Il are correct. (3) Both statement | and statement II are incorrect. (4) Statement | is correct but statement Il is incorrect. 61 62, 63 CHC cH DNL EAI. 5 In the above reaction, product B is (1) CHscocHs (2) CHsCOCH:CHs (3) CH,CH-CH,CH. 1 OH (4) CHsCH.CHCHO ° OH AAem x WD’ => ° ° Most suitable reagent (X) for the above conversion (1) LiaIHe (2) Ho-Pa (3) NaBHs (4) Snck+ HCI ual R—CONH, SE 4X, (X) is (1) Aprimary amine (2) Asecondary amine (3) Analeohol (4) a Orenvce HNO. HS, ACESS (p), major product (P) is NH, y NO, “OL . ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456cs NH, NH, Br Br Za 65, +38", —> x Br Select an incorrect statement about the above ry reaction. (1) Reaction takes place in presence of aqueous medium, (2) It is an example of electrophilic. substitution reaction, (3) 2,4, 6-tribromoaniline is red colour compound. (4) -NH2 group is highly activating for bromination of aniline. 68, Weakest base among the following is (1) (CHa)aN (2) CaHeNHe (2) CeHsCHeNHe (4) (CHs}sNH 67. R-NH, +CHCI, KOH!» (Y) +KCI+H,0 Product (Y) has foul smell. The reaction is known as (1) Wurtz reaction (2) Kolbe's reaction (3) HellVolhard-Zelinsky reaction (4) Carbylamine reaction 68. The electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in strongly acidic medium produces (1) Azobenzene (2) Azoxybenzene @) p-Aminophenol (4) Aniline 69, ‘The amine that reacts with Hinsberg's reagent to sive an alkali insoluble product is cH 1 (1) CHsCH:CHsNHe (2) CH,-N-C,H (3) CHe-NH-CH (4) CHi-NHe 70. nm 7. 73, 74, 7. Zz cr Owen )-one (Orange dye) In the above reaction most appropriate pH range to get better yield will be (1) 1102 (2) 4106 (3) 6to7 (4) 91010 Which of the following compounds cannot be prepared by Sandmeyer's reaction? cl Br [Oo 2) oO Y cN ® O “ © Which of the following is not an example of monosaccharide? (1) Ribose (2) Glucose (3) Fructose (4) Lactose Select an incorrect statement about glucose. (1) Itis an aldohexose (2) Itis the monomer of cellulose (3) On prolonged heating with HI it forms n-hexane (4) It forms hydrogensulphite addition product with NaHSOs The non-essential amino acid among the following is (1) Histidine (2) Lysine (3) Threonine (4) Alanine Which of the following is a basic amino acid? (1) Leucine (2) Arginine (3) Alanine (4) Gycine ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456Test-4 (Code- 76. 7 78, 79, 80. at 82, Statement I: Sugar molecule is f-D-glucose. moiety present in DNA Statement Il: Complete hydrolysis of DNA yields B- D-glucose and phosphoric acid, In ight of the above statements, choose the correct, answer. (1) Statement | is correct but statement Il is incorrect (2) Both statement | and statement I! are incorrect (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct Which of the following is not a fat soluble vitamin? (1) Vitamin A (2) Vitamin D (3) Vitamin Bs (4) Vitamin K a-form and f-form of glucose are called (1) Epimers (2) Enantiomers (3) Anomers (4) Tautomers During denaturation of proteins which structure(s) romain(s) intact? (1) Both secondary and tertiary structures (2) Tertiary structure only (3) Primary structures only (4) Both primary and secondary structures The monomer of nylon 6 is (1) Vinyl chloride (2) Caproiactum (3) 1.3-Butadiene (4) Chloroprene The biodegradable polymer among the following is, (1) Buna (2) Buna-S: (3) Nylon-6, 6 (4) Nylon 2-Nylon 6 In natural rubber, isoprene units polymerise to give (1) Altemate cis — and trans - configuration (2) Random cis — and trans ~ configuration (3) All cis — configuration (4) All trans — configuration 83, 86. 86. 87 All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 ‘Among the following, the narrow spectrum antibiotic (1) Chloramphenicol (2) Amoxycilin (3) Penicilin (4) Ofloxacin Which of the following arficial sweetener is not stable at cooking temperature? (1) Aspartame (2) Altame (2) Sucralose (4) Saccharin Bithionol is used as alan (1) Antiseptic (2) Antipyretic (3) Disinfectant (4) Antinistamine SECTION-B Co.Hol “Rinyarous Ac” exer In this reaction product (P) is. mor” GS. CH,OH JOmmEIO) Src} sHol product P R-CN SHE (ay ‘The intermediate compound (A) is a/an (1) Primary amine (2) Secondary amine (3) Acid amide (4) Imine >R-CHO ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456ot ‘Aakash Test Series for NEE’ ry 88. Which of the following compounds shows highest reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction? °C COCH. “6 89. From the following select a reaction with incorrect “Ol of product (1) R-cH.cooHMERet ow, cH COOH . | b (2) R-cooH—2845_yR-cH,OH ko (3) R-COOH: NaHCO, —» R-CH,O"Na’ +H,0+C0, (4) RCOOH + PCs» RCOCI + HaPOs 90. Which of the following product is formed when cyclopentanone undergoes aldol condensation reaction on heating with dilute alkali? ° ° “oO ° IL (3) (4) 1 92, 93, 95. 96. NH, NaNO,tHC! nt o5C Reagent M could be (1) CuHer (3) CHsCH2oH (2) HBF. (4) KI Consider the following statements a, Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts alkylation due to salt formation with anhydrous AIC b. Sulphanilic acid does not contain a carbonyl group. cc. Ethylamine is more basic than ethanamide. Select the correct statement(s). (1) aand b only (2) aandc only (3) bonly (4) a, bande Which of the following will be most stable diazonium salt? (1) CHAyer (2) (CH,),CH-NjCr (3) CHjCH,=NJCr (4) CHAN Number of asymmetric carbon atoms present in D-glucose is (1) 3 (2) 5 (6) 6 (a) 4 Deficiency of which vitamin causes Xerophthalmia? (1). Vitamin A (2) Vitamin B (3) Vitamin E (4) Vitamin K Which of the following is an example of polyester? (1) Nylon 6,6 (2) Dacron (3) Melamine (4) Novolac ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456ric COE ee) 97. Vulcanisation of rubber 's done by heating natural | 99. Derivatives of barbituric acid are used as rubber with (1) Hypnotic (2) Analgesic (1) Silicon (2) Zine (3) Antimicrobial (4) Antacids (3) Sulphur (4) Chlorine 100. Which of the following Is an example of cationic 98. Bakelite is a copolymer of detergent? (1) Phenol and formaldehyde (1), Sodium lauryl sulphate (2) Phenol and acetone (2) Sodium dodecylbenzenesulphonate (3) Melamine and formaldehyde (2) Sodium stearate (4) Butadiene and acrylonitrile (4) Cotyltrimethylammonium bromide [BOTANY] SECTION-A 104. What type of ecological pyramid would be obtained 101. Which of the given is not true w.rt. characteristics with the following data? ‘of anthropogenic ecosystem? ‘Secondary Consumer: 45 kg mr? (1) Possess self-regulatory mechanism Primary Consumer: 25 kg m2 (2) Simple food chain Primary Producer: 7 kg m2 (3) High productivity (1) Uptight pyramid of eneray (4) Little eyeling of nutrients (2) ISR ot biomass 102. Which of the following ecological pyramids. are MO Te rid of biomass generally upright? °C aane (4) Upright pyramid of number (2) Pyramid of number in tree ecosystem 105. If 100 kcal energy falls on the green parts of plantin (&) Pyramid of energy 2 food chain'shown below, then how much energy (©) Pyramid of number in grassland ecosystem will be available to primary carnivores? (d) Pyramid of biomass in sea Plant (Ts) > Te 97s > Ts The correct option is (4) 100 cat (2) 100 keal (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (6) (8) 10 cal (4) 1 kcal (3) (e) and (a) (4) (@) and (4) 108, Mark the statement which is true for tertiary 103. The transitional community in hydrarch succession is ‘consumer in food chain. (1) Phytoplanktons (1) These are animals which cannot feed on goat (2) Marsh-meadow stage (2) These are also called key industry animals (3) Forest (3) They cannot be lion in predator food chain (4) Lichens (4) They constitute fourth trophic level ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 IC 107, Mark the incorrect statement w.rt. ecological pyramid. (1) It does not take into account the species belonging to two or more trophic levels (2) Itassumes a simple food chain (3) Itaccommodates a food web (4) It does not give any place for saprophytes, decomposers and detritivores 108. Secondary succession occurs in (1) Sand dunes (2) Bumed or cut forest (3) Igneous rocks (4) Newly exposed area 109. Mark the odd one wrt ecosystem characteristics that change during succession (1) Change in diversity of species (2) Increase in number of species (3) Total biomass increases (4) Decrease in humus content of soil 110. Which of the given statements is not tus: for humus? (1) ttis slightly aciaic (2) Itfunctions as reservoir of nutrients (3) Itis highty resistant to microbial action (4) ltundergoes decomposition at rapid rate 111. Read the given statements stating them true (T) of false (F) and select the correct option (a) The major site of decomposition is the upper layer of soll in terrestrial habitats and bottom of water bodies (b) Catabolism is carried out by saprotrophic bacteria and fungi (c) Decomposition of detritus is slow, if detritus possesses proteins, nucleic acids and sugars (a) (b) (c) tT TT QF FT @ FO T F 4 TO OT OF 112. Which of the following is not a factor affecting primary productivity of an ecosystem? (1) Soil moisture (2) Availabilty of nutrients (3) Diversity of herbivores (4) Availabilty of sotar radiations 113, According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN, 2094), the total number of plant and animal species described so faris (1) About 7 million (2) In the range of 20 to 50 milion (3) Slightly moré than 4.5 million (4) Less than 1,5 million 114. The given pie-chart shows proportionate number of various eukaryotic organisms w.rt plant global biodiversity. x Angiosperms Which of the following statement is true for"? (1) They provide all of the ecosystem services that angiosperms provide (2) They include both autotrophs as well as heterotrophs. (3) They include members of Chlorophyceae (4) They are achlorophyllous organisms ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456, aTest-4 (Code-A) COE ee) 115, Select the statement which is not true for ‘Rivet, popper hypothesis"? (1) Itexplains the effect of reduction of biodiversity, on ecosystem health (2) Ithas been explained by Paul Ehriich (3) It explains role of species ‘ecosystem health richness for (4) It has considered rivets as key species and rivets on the wings as species 116, Mark the statement which is incorrect for ecological diversity (1) Itis the variety of ecosystems which indicates diversity in the number of niches, trophic levels, food webs, nutrient cycles and ecological processes sustaining energy flow. (2) Itis also known as community diversity (3) Ecosystem diversity is the product of species richness and species evenness (4) India has high ecosystem diversity because of the occurrence of a large number of variety"of ecosystems 117. The outermost part of biosphere reserve in which ‘active cooperation between reserve management and the local people is seen is (1) Buffer zone (2) Transition zone (3) Natural zone (4) Core zone 118, Mark the incorrect match w.r. sacred groves found in several parts of India. (1) | Aravali Hills — | Rajasthan (2) | Khasi and Jaintia | - | Meghalaya Hills (3) | Chanda’ = | Kamataka (4) | Surguia = | Madhya’ Pradesh 119. Which of the given is/are broadly utilitarian services for biodiversity conservation? (A) Food (8) Pollination (C) Flood control (D) Firewood (1) Only (A) (2) @)ana c) (3) Only (D) (4) (A) and (0) 120. Which of the following is the narrowly utiitarian services for conserving biodiversity? (1) Aesthetic pleasure (2) Erosion control (3) Fibre (4) Oxygen supply 121. Kaziranga National Park is important for protection (of which of the given animals? (1) Lion (2) Tiger (3) Elephant (4) Rhino 122, Polyblend is a/an (1) Innovative remedy for plastic waste (2) Method of handling human excreta (3) Most effective device to remove over 99% of Particulate matter present in an exhaust from thermal power plant. (4) Method to reduce noise pollution 123, Mark the Incorrect statement w. organic farming, (1) Itis a cyclieal, zero waste procedure (2) It was performed by Ramesh Chandra Dagar (8) It involves cycling of waste products from one process as nutrients for other process. (4) It allows least utilisation of resources and increases efficiency of production 124, Green Muffler scheme involves t integrated (1) Use of unleaded petrol to reduce pollution (2) Important amendment to Air Act. (3) Plantation of sound vibrations absorbing trees, (4) Disposal of radioactive wastes ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456oO ‘Aakash Test Series for NEE’ ry 125.All of the given are primary air pollutants, except (1) coz (2) Ozone (3) Soe (4) NO. 126. An aquatic ecosystem contains following organisms (a) Fish eating birds (6) Large fish (e) Small fish Select the correct option showing decreasing concentration of B.H.C in organisms of above ecosystem w.r:t, biomagnification. (1) e>d>b>a>c 2) b>c>ard>e (3) a>c>e>b>d (4) d>b>e>c>a 127. Ahmed khan has managed to find ideal solution to (1) The ever-increasing problem of accumulating plastic waste (2) Disposal of hospital wastes (3) Control the increasing __almospheric concentration of greenhouse gases (4) Conserve forests 128, Statement A: In an aquatic ecosystem, DEC is the major conduit for energy flow. Statement B: The natural interconnection of food chains makes a food web. (b) Zooplanktons (a) Phytoplanktons. Choose the correct option, (1) Both statements are correct (2) Only statement A is correct (2) Only statement Bis corect (4) Both statements are incorrect 129, Thickness of ozone in a column of ai from ground to top ofthe atmosphere is measured in terms of (1) Svedberg unit (2) Decibels (8) Dobson units (4) BOD ere A) 190. Which of the given green-house gases contributes maximum to total global warming? (1) Coe (2) CHe (3) CFCs (4) No 131, Match the following columns w.rt composition of waste water and select the correct option. Column Columnit (A) | Colloidal materials | (i) | Clay (8) | Suspended solids | (i) | Nitrate (C) | Dissolved (iy | Clotn materials @ @) (c) aw a a @ ow 8) Gi) tw 4) ti) 9) Gi) 132, Which of the given statements is not true w.rt effects of acid rain? (1) It causes leaching of essential minerals of soil like Ca, Mg, NO3 and SO%~ (2) Itcauses release of Alin soil surface (@) Weorrades metals, marbles, etc. (4) has no negative impact on plants 133, Montreal protocol was signed at Montreal (Canada) (1) 1999 (2) 2007 (2) 1987 (4) 1990 ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 01 1-47623456,Cre COE ee) 134, 135, 136, 137, 138. Kyoto protocol (1) Updated Bali action plan prepared by COP-13 (2) Is aimed to reduce greenhouse gases (2) Is aimed at protecting stratospheric ozone (4) Was proposed in 1987 The Historic Convention on Biological Diversity (1) Is also known as Earth summit (2) Was held in South Arica (3) Is also known as Doha amendment (4) Was held in 2010 SECTIONS Read the given Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and select the correct option. Assertion (A): Primary producers form the base of food chain Reason (R): Primary producers are autotrophic organisms which fix up solar energy and manufacture their own food from inorganic. raw material (1) Both A and Rare true and R is eomect explanation of A (2) Both A and R are true and R isnot correct ‘explanation of A (3) Ais true and R is false (4) Both A and R are false Which of the given is not a functional feature of ecosystem? (1) Productivity (2) Species composition (3) Decomposition (4) Energy flow Select the incorrect statement w.rts primary productivity (1) Itis the rate at which biomass is produced by plants during photosynthesis per unit area over time period (2) Itis expressed in terms of (g mr) yr 139, 140, 141 142, 143, 144, (3) It can be further divided into gross and net primary productivity (4) It includes the available consumption to heterotrophs Size of organisms finally reduces at higher trophic level in which of the given food chains? biomass for (1) Grazing food chain (2) Parasitic food chain (3) Detritus food chain (4) Predator food chain Ten percent law of eneray transfer was proposed by (1) Lindeman (2) Pandurang Hegde (3) Robert Costanza (4) Edward Wilson Select the correct maich w.rt biodiversity in Amazonian rain forest. (1) Plant species — less than 30,000 (2) Reptiles - 378 (3) Birds - More than 40,000 (4) Amphibians - 1300 Which of the following equations correctly represents species-area relationship in the form of rectangular hyperbola? (1) fog § = log C + Z log A (2) log © =logZ+ Slog A (@).c=Sx (4) S=cw Which of the given is not a cause of loss of biodiversity? (4) Habitat loss and fragmentation (2) Co-evolution (3) Overexptoitation (4) Alien species invasion “The Evil Quartet refers to (1) Conservation strategies of biodiversity (2) Sources of noise pollution (3) Four major causes of biodiversity loss (4) Sources of water pollution ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 IC 145, Select the correct pair w.rt. ex-situ conservation strategies, (1) Seed bank and biosphere reserve (2) Botanical garden and national park (3) Wildlife sanctuaries and seed bank (4) Wildlife safari parks and botanical gardens 146. Which of the given is true for incineration? (1) Itrefers to piling of waste (2) Itinvolves open burning of dumps (3) Itis also known as pyrolysis (4) Itis aerobic combustion 147. The only solution for treatment of e-wastes is (1) Sanitary tandfil (2) Open landfill (3) Pyrolysis (4) Recycling 148. Photochemical smog has mainly all of the given, 149, Which of the given statements is not true for domestic sewage? (1) It is the most common source of pollution of water bodies (2) It generally includes biodegradable pollutants (3) Amere 0.1% impurities make domestic sewage unfit for human use (4) It contains waste water from industries ike petroleum, paper manufacturing, metal extraction ‘and processing 150. National forest policy (1988) of India has recommended _A__ of forest cover for the hills, and _B _ forthe plains, Select the option which correetly fils A and B, A] 8 (1) | 33% | 67% (2) | 43% | 57% (3) | 67% | 33% (4), [53% [47% [ZOOLOGY] except (1) Os (2) PAN @) Hes (4) NOx SECTION-A 161. The number of disulphide bonds present in mature. insulin in humans is/are (1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three 182, During PCR, the denaturation of ONA fragments, ‘occurs due to the breakdown of (1) Hydrogen bonds (2) Glycosidic bonds (3) Phosphodiester bonds (4) Disulphide bonds 153. Selectthe correct option to complete the analogy. Chitinase : Fungus Bacteria (1) Cellulase (2) Nuclease (3) Lysozyme (4) Ribozyme 164, The temperature required in the heat-shock method, Of transformation for competent bacterial cells is around 'X’ whereas in primer extension step of PCR, ‘sample is heated to 'Y' for some time. Select the correct option for ‘x’ and 'Y' respectively. (1) 72°C and 42°C (2) 42°C and 94°C (3) 42°C and 72°C (4) 72°C and 94°C ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 01 1-47623456 aTest-4 (Code- 165. How many of the following given below are direct, mathods of gene transfer? Biolistics, Electroporation, Retrovirus based, Microinjection (1) Zero, (2) One (3) Two (4) Three 186. How many fragments will be obtained after the ‘complete digestion ofa linear DNA fragment having three restriction sites for Hind II? (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) Five 187. Which of the following genes codes for the protein that controls the corn bores? (1) orylAc (2) crylAb (3) oryllab (4) oryiad 4188, Select the incorrect match from the following, (1) RNAinterference — Post-ranslational process (2) Bioprocess — Maintenance of engineering sterile ambience (3) Genetic — Alteration of engineering genetic material (4) Put = Its restriction” site lies in amp® genein pBRI22 159. All of the following are desirable qualities of transgenic plants, except (1) More tolerant to abiotic stresses (2) Decreased nutritional value of food (3) Prevents early exhaustion of soil fertility (4) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides COE ee) 160, Arrange the given steps of DNA technology in their chronological sequence and select the correct option, {a) Construction of a recombinant DNA molecule (0) Extraction ofthe desired product (c) Culturing the host cells in a nutrient medium at alarge scale (d) Transfer of rDNA into the host. (1) (@) > (b) > (©) > (@) (2) ©) > (4) > (6) > (@) (3) (@) + (d) > (6) > () (4) (a) > (0) > (d) > () 161, Today transgenic models exist for many human diseases such as, (a) Cancer (b) Cystic brosis (c) Alzheimer's disease Select the correct option, (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (@) and (c) only (3) (b)and\(e) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) 162, Hefbert Boyer and Cohen constructed the fist recombinant DNA by linking a gene encoding antibiotic resistant wth a native plasmid of (1) Escherichia coli (2), Salmonella typhimurium (3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (4) Haemophilus infuenzae 463.\As of today, we know more than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated from_____of bacteria Select the correct option to fil inthe blank. (1) 130 strains: (2) Less than 230 strains (3) More than 230 strains (4) Around 200 strains ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 IC 164, Read the following statements and select the corract one. (1) Plasmid is an autonomously replicating linear extra chromosomal DNA. (2) Resistance against antibiotics is a property of normal E.coli cells. (3) Restriction endonuclease works by breaking the bond between pentose sugar and phosphate group of deoxyribose nucleic acid, (4) Antibodies can be used as selectable marker. Which of the following Is a function of stirrer in a stired tank reactor? 165, (1) Works as an agitator system (2) Provides a temperature control system (3) Facilitates even mixing and oxygen availabilty (4) Provides sampling ports Consider the following statements and select the correct option. (a) Transformants in genetic engineering. include both recombinants and non-recombinants. 166. (b) In blue!white colony selection, recombinants produce blue colonies due to insertional activation of f-galactosidase. (c) Selection of recombinants is a cumbersome procedure as it requires simultaneous plating on two plates having similar antibiotics. (1) (@) and (b) are incorrect while (c) is correct, (2) (6) and (¢) are incorrect while (a) is correct (3) (a) and (c) are incorrect while (b) is correct (4) (@), (b) and (6) are incorrect What is the use of sampling ports in a bioreactor? (1) Provides a temperature control system (2) Periodic withdrawal of small volumes of the culture (3) Itis an oxygen delivery system (4) Provides a pH control system 167. 168, 169, 170, 171 At present, about X’ recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use in the whole world, In India, "Y' of these are presently being marketed, Choose the correct option for ‘x’ and * respectively. (1) 12nd 30 (2) 27 and 12 (3) 12and 27 (4) 30 and 12 Which of the following is an incorrect option for the first transgenic cow? (1) Itwas named ‘Dolly’ (2) Milk contains human a-lactallurin (3) Milk was nutritionally more suitable for human use than natural cow milk (4) Protein content in milk is 2.4 gm/L ‘The transgenic animal ‘Tracy’ produced a-1- antitrypsin that has been used for the treatment of (1) Cystic fibrosis (2) Emphysema (3) Phenylkétonuria (4) Rheumatoid arthritis, Read the following statements and select the option that correctly identifies them as true (T) or false (F), (a) Methylene blue acts as an intercalating agent and helps in visualising the DNA under UV light, {b) Kanamycin and tetracycline resistance gene in pBR322 acts as selectable marker. (c) Exonuclease catalyses the nucleotides from ends of DNA. (@) Continuous addition of sugars in ‘fed batch fermentation’ is done to purify enzymes. @) ) removal of QF oT T F QT T T F @ FO oF T F MF oT TT T ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456,Ice COE ee) 172, The first clinical gene therapy was given to a 4 year old gid with deficiency of . Identity ‘X’ and select the correct option. (1) Guanine deaminase (2) Adenosine deaminase (3) Adenine deaminase (4) Guanosine deaminase 173. In gol electrophoresis, the separated bands of DNA are cut out and extracted from the agarose gel piece by the process called (1) Spooling (2) Elution (3) Stabilisation (4) Extraction How many copies of DNA can be made from two fragments of dsDNA after 10 PCR cycles? (1) 1024 (2) 4028 (3) 2048 (4) 2401 Ifthe genome from donor cell is cleaved using Hind Il then the cloning vector should be cleaved using (1) Hind (2) EcoR | (3) Hind 11 (4) Pst! Select the techniques among the following that serves the purpose of early diagnosis. (b) PCR (@) ELISA 474, 175. 176. (a) Serum analysis (6) Urine analysis Select the correct option (1) (@) and (2) (b) and (a) (4) (@) and (@) Assertion (A): Toxicity testing in. transgeni¢ anima allow us to obtain results in ess time. (2) (&) and (c) 477. Reason (R): Transgenic animals are less sensitive lo toxic substances than non-transgenic animals, In the light of above statements, select the correct ‘option. 178, 179, 180, 181, (1) (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) (2) (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) (2) (A)is tue, (R)is false (4) (A) is false, (R) is true ‘The ‘rop’ site of pBR322 codes for the proteins involved in (1), Separation of recombinants (2) Controlling the copy number of the linked DNA (3) Replication of the plasmid (4) Selection of selectable marker In EcoR V, R' represents the namertype of (1) Species (2) Strain (3) Scientist (4) Genus ‘A researcher wants to introduce a particular piece of DNA in the cells of an animal such as mouse The mostiaccurate method for the same is (1) The gene gun method (2) To infect the animal with Ti-plasmid {8) Tose the micro-injection method (4) To infect by Agrobacterium tumefaciens the animal Consider the statements given below wart gel electrophoresis. Select the incorrect one, (1) Sieving effect is provided by matrix obtained from sea weeds. (2) The smaller the fragment size, the faster it moves, (3) Most commonly used matrix is agarose. (4) DNA fragments are forced to move towards negative electrode anode. ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456oO ‘Aakash Test Series for NEE’ ry 182, The cells multiplied in continuous culture system are maintained in (1) Log phase (3) Lag phase (2) Diminishing phase (4) Stationary phase 183, Select the divalent cation, which increases the efficiency with which rDNA enters into the host bacterium, (1) Potassium (2) Sodium (3) Magnesium (4) Calcium 184, PCR is now routinely used to detect the following, except (1) Mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients (2) Emphysema (3) HIV in suspected AIDS patients (4) Many genetic disorders Consider the given statements and choose the correct option. (A) In. gel electrophoresis, pure DNA can be visualised directly by exposing to UV radiation. (8) Restriction enzymes are used for isolation of ure DNA from other macro-molecules, (1) Both (A) and (B) are correct (2) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect (3) Only (A) is correct (4) Only (A) is incorrect SECTION-B 185, 186. Consider the following statements w.r.t PCR, (@) Itis an in vitro process. (b) Taq polymerase is needed in the extension step, (©) Taq polymerase adds nucleotides) to the growing DNA strand, (@) Denaturation occurs usually at temperature 72°C. (e) 2n molecules of dsDNA can be produced after iW’ cycle. 187. 188, 189, ere A) Select the option representing correct statements only. (1) (a), (b) and (c) (2) (b), (c) and (¢) (3) (@), (c) and (e) (4) (b), (4) and (e) Comprehend the statements A and B. Choose the correct option. Statement A: DNA cannot pass directly through the cell membrane of host cell due to its lipophobic nature Statement B: Golden rice is a transgenic variety of rice produced using a gene from daffodil (1) Both the statements A and B are correct (2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect, (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct, Consider the following w.rt Agrobacterium tumefaciens and select the incorrect option, (1) Causative agent of crown gall disease (2) Contains (3) Natural genetic engineer of plants (4) Affects plants and animals equally Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option. lasmid Column Columndlt @. Gene therapy () Transformation b. ELISA (il) ADA deficiency ©. Bioreactors (il) Antigen-antibody interaction 4. Electroporation (jv) Production of large quantity of products (1) ali, bai), etiv), i) (3) a(i), ii), c(i), div) (2) a(ii), BG), efiv), ai) (4) ati), bq, (9), div) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 01 1-47623456,Ice All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 190. If a foreign DNA is inserted at EcoRI site in pBR322, then the colonies of recombinant bacteria will (1) Show susceptibility to ampicillin and resistance to tetracycline (2) Show susceptibility to resistance to ampicillin tetracycline and (3) Resistance to both ampicilin and tetracycline (4) Susceptibility to both ampicillin and tetracycline Read the following statements (a d) about certain ‘errors in two of them, 191 (a) Multiple cloning sites for a restriction enzyme are characteristic of an ideal cloning vector. (b) Bt-Brinjal in India has been developed for insect resistance, (©) Disarmed retroviruses are used to deliver desirable genes into animal cells. (a) Hind Il is the first discovered endonuclease. Which of the following statements have mistakes? (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c) (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d) If a biochemist wants to recover many copies of the target DNA, it should be cloned in a vector that must possess 192, (1) ‘top’ for enhancing protein synthesis, (2) All selectable markers, (3) An ‘ori’ that supports high copy umber (4) Muttiple cloning sites for one restriction enzyme 193. An enzyme ‘X is a type-II restriction enzyme, that recognises the 6-nucleatide palindromic sequence, GAATT CS pruned sCTTAAGS ie, 8 194, 195, 196. It cuts the DNA strands leaving which type of ends? (1) Sticky ends (2) Non-staggered ends (3) Blunt ends (4) Flush ends Consider the following statements and select the correct option, (@) Recognition sequence for Hind II contains 6 base pairs. (b) Restriction site for Sal | is present in amp* gene of pBR322. (c) Two cloning sites of EcoR | are present in pBR322. (1) (@) and (b) are incorrect while (c) is correct (2) (b) and (c) are incorrect while (a) is correct (3) (a) and (c) are incorrect while (b) is correct (4) (a), (b) and (c) are incorrect Which among the following is @ product with nutritionally enhanced value and obtained from a transgenic plant? (1) Milk enriched in human a-lactalbumin (2) 1 antitrypsin (3) Golden rice (4) Bt cotton Read the following statements carefully and select the incorrect one. (1) 95% of all existing transgenic animals are mice. (2) The Indian parliament has recently cleared the second amendment of the Indian patent bill. (3) ADA deficiency can be cured permanently by bone marrow transplantation. (4) The Green revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply. ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Phone : 011-47623456All India Aakash Test Series for NEET-2023 IC 197. Read the following statements and select the corract one. (1) The first transgenic cow was produced in the same year when an American company got patent rights on Basmati through US patent and. trademark office, (2) Disulphide bonds are formed in between A and C chains to develop mature insulin. (3) Human insulin is being commercially produced using transgenic species of Salmonella. (4) A gone whose expression helps to identify the transformed cell is known as structural gene, 198. Read the statements A and B and select the correct, option. Statement A: PEG mediated transformation is used for gene transfer without a vector. Statement B: The crops engineered for glyphosate are resistant to insects, a 199, 200. a (1) Both statements A and B are correct (2) Both statoments A and B are incorrect (3) Only statement A is correct (4) Only statement B is correct Which ofthe following enzymes are used to remove phosphate group from the 5’ end of the DNA to prevent seltigation? (1) DNA lgases (2) Restriction endonucleases: (3) Tag polymerases (4) Alkaline phosphatases Consider the following wr. applications of PCR (a) DNA fingerprinting (b) Pre-natal diagnosis (6) Palaeontology Soloct the correct option. (1) (@) and (b) only (3) (a)and(¢) only (2) (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c) ‘Space for Rough Work Corporate Office : Kakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005. Phone : 011-47623456 a